CCNA 3 - Module 4 Exam Answers

1 Which statements are true concerning the shared memory buffering used by an Ethernet
switch? (Choose two.)
* Frames are processed through a single queue.
* All frames are placed in a common memory buffer.
• Frames are placed in a queue for the destination port.
• A port with a full memory buffer can cause frames for available ports to be delayed.
• Each switch port is statically assigned a buffer of equal size.

2 What are the functions of routers? (Choose three.)

• improving network performance by increasing latency by twenty to thirty percent
* segmenting broadcast domains
* forwarding packets based on destination network layer addresses
* segmenting collision domains
• forwarding packets as soon as the destination MAC address is read
• developing routing table entries based on source IP addresses

3 What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)

• preventing broadcasts
* increasing available bandwidth per user
* decreasing the size of collision domains
* isolating traffic among segments
• routing traffic between different networks
• decreasing the number of broadcast domains

4 Why does a switch have higher throughput compared to a bridge?

• Switching occurs in software.
* Switching occurs in hardware.
• Switches create multiple broadcast domains.
• Switches segment LANs.

5 Why would a network administrator segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose
two.)
• to create fewer collision domains
* to enhance user bandwidth
• to create more broadcast domains
• to eliminate virtual circuits
* to isolate traffic between segments
• to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network
6

Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a frame is forwarded when the
switch is using store-and-forward mode?
•A
•B
•C
•D
•E
*F

7 Hubs are concerned with which PDU?

* bits
• frames
• packets
• datagrams

8 Which statements are true regarding hubs? (Choose three.)

* Hubs operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
• They create separate collision domains.
* Signals are distributed through all ports.
• Layer 2 addresses are used to make decisions.
• They calculate the CRC for each frame received prior to forwarding.
* Bandwidth is shared among all connected users.

9 Which device provides segmentation within a single network?

• hub
• server
* switch
• transceiver

10 Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast address?

• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.255.255
• 11:11:11:11
• FF:FF:FF:FF
* FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
11

Refer to the graphic. Which point in the frame must be reached before it is forwarded by
a switch that is using fast-forward mode?
•A
•B
*C
•D
•E
•F

12 Which switching mode changes to store-and-forward mode after it detects a given

number of errors?
• cut-through
• adaptive fast-forward
• fragment-free
* adaptive cut-through

13 Which form of buffering is used by bridges?

• cut-through
• fragment-free
• fast-forward
* store-and-forward

14 Where are switching tables stored in a Cisco LAN switch?

• ROM
* CAM
• Flash
• SIMM
• NRAM

15 Which of the following are true regarding the addition of switches to a network?
(Choose two.)
• They increase the number of collision domains.
* They decrease the number of collision domains.
• They increase the number of broadcast domains.
• They decrease the number of broadcast domains.
* They increase the amount of bandwidth available to users.
• They decrease the amount of bandwidth available to users.

16 Which of the following is used to build a switching table?

• source IP addresses
• destination IP addresses
• destination MAC addresses
* source MAC addresses

17 Which statements describe asymmetric switching? (Choose three.)

• It uses data compression algorithms to manage higher bandwidth interfaces.
* It is often used to provide high bandwidth uplinks for a number of lower bandwidth
client interfaces.
* It provides connections between network segments that operate at different bandwidths.
• It uses cut-through forwarding when going from a lower bandwidth to a higher
bandwidth interface.
• It is used to provide more bandwidth to network clients than to backbone or server
links.
* It may require buffering frames before forwarding to the destination interface.

18 What does switch latency describe?

• forwarding method used by a switch
• time it takes for a frame to be received by a switch
• improvement in network performance from using a switch
* time delay between when a frame enters and exits a switch
• increase in the size of a collision domain from using a switch

19 How does an Ethernet bridge handle an incoming frame? (Choose three.)

* The source MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
• The destination MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
• If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is
discarded.
* If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is
flooded out all other interfaces.
* If a match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is
forwarded out the associated interface.
• If a match to the source MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is
forwarded to all ports.

20 Which attribute is used by a bridge to make forwarding decisions?

• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
* destination MAC address
• Layer 4-7 protocol address
1 Which two restrictions or additions concerning wireless security protocols are valid?
(Choose two.)

When using 802.1x for wireless security, clients are allowed to associate with open
authentication for RADIUS traffic.
WPA2 personal mode permits RADIUS use in SOHO environments.
A AAA server is required for the RADIUS portion of the 802.1x protocol.
Pre-shared keys are not permitted for authentication with WPA2.
WPA introduced SSID hiding and MAC address filtering as security measures.
WPA2 improved on WPA by introducing 802.1x port authentication.

2 To support the client association process, which two methods of authentication are
specified in the 802.11 standard? (Choose two.)

Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol (LEAP)

shared key
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
open authentication

3 Which three statements are valid wireless security concerns? (Choose three.)

Rogue access points are commonly installed by employees inside the company.
With a WLAN, the risk for a man-in-the-middle connection is solved by using RF access
points.
Flooding a BSS with CTS messages creates an effective DoS attack by defeating media
access control.
Allowing a PC NIC to accept all traffic makes it operate as an access point.
Beaconing SSIDs are required to successfully implement WPA and WPA2.
Shared WEP keys are the most secure means to prevent man-in-the-middle and DoS
attacks.

4 Which two statements are true regarding configuring APs? (Choose two.)

APs should be configured with WPA only if they do not allow WEP for encryption.
Set the radio band to standard or 20 Mhz if are using Wireless-N, Wireless-B, and
Wireless-G devices.
If wide, the 40 MHz channel is selected for the Radio Band setting, and the standard
channel is a secondary channel for Wireless-N.
Disabling SSID broadcast prevents any unauthorized connections to the AP.
AES provides stronger security than TKIP.
5 A wireless access point is not working properly. It has been placed horizontally so that
it is 6 inches (15.2 cm) from the person seated at the desk, and 2 feet (61 cm) from a
metal obstruction. What are three reasons why the access point is not working properly?
(Choose three.)

An access point should be at least 7.9 inches (20 cm) from people.
An access point should be mounted vertically.
An access point must always be mounted on a ceiling.
An access point should be mounted at a 45-degree angle for proper coverage.
An access point should be at least 3 feet (91.4 cm) from metal obstructions.
An access point should be at least 15.8 inches (40 cm) from people.

6 Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?

set up WEP on the access point only

set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it
set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the
network open
set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point
settings open

7 Which three statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose three.)

Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.

The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.
A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.
802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.
802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.
TKIP allows per packet key changes.

8 Which two statements are true regarding wireless client configuration? (Choose two.)
Leaving the SSID as null on a Windows XP client causes it to broadcast a null SSID
request and trigger an SSID broadcast from the AP.
MAC address filtering prevents a wireless network from displaying in the Network
Connections, unless the specific MAC address is permitted at the AP.
Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID makes the network visible when
using the Network Connections icon in the Windows XP client system tray, even if the
SSID is not being broadcast.
A wireless network requires both the SSID and the network key to be visible as an
available network.
Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile
wireless connections.
9 Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)

gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures

built-in Ethernet switch
network management station
VTP server
wireless access point
VPN concentrator

10 Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)

802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.

The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.
802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.
802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.
802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

11 Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of
a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically.
What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?

This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on
each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.
The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the
room. Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.
Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.
Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the
wired network.

12 Which two conditions or restrictions apply to Cisco wireless access points? (Choose
two.)

Access points utilize WLC to mitigate the hidden node problem.

RF signal attenuation directly restricts the access point range.
Media access is controlled using a "distributed" mechanism.
An access point is a Layer 2 device that functions like an 802.3 Ethernet switch.
CSMA/CA uses a contention-free coordination function called point coordination
function (PCF).

13 Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user
connectivity and distributed access?

CSMA/CD
token passing
CSMA/CA
polling
14 Which two statements are valid planning considerations for WLAN deployments?
(Choose two.)

The IEEE 802.11n draft standard is intended to improve WLAN data rates and range
without requiring additional power or RF band allocation.
In North America, 802.11a channels should be restricted to 1, 6, and 11 to reduce channel
overlaps.
An ESS generally includes a common SSID to allow roaming from access point to access
point without requiring client configuration.
802.1q trunking across the network infrastructure allows an ESS to associate diverse
access points as long as each access point has a unique SSID.
Cells in an ESS should have 10 to 15 percent overlap between them in an extended
service area.
Access points can be quickly deployed as ad hoc installations to form an ESS.

15

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the
network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to
distinguish this wireless network from others?

Network Mode
Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel

16 Which two actions are associated with performing a man-in-the-middle attack?

(Choose two.)

modifying wireless NICs to accept all traffic

implementing the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
flooding the BSS with clear-to-send (CTS) messages
spoofing an expected sequence number
generating a continuous series of disassociate commands on a wireless client