Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. Bacteria which require organic form of carbon for growth and requires light for
their source of energy are classified as: ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed., p. 54)
A. Photoorganotrophs C. Chemoautotrophs
B. Photolautotrophs D. Chemolithotrophs
5. Serologic specificity of the LPS reside in this region: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th
ed, p. 84
A. I C. III
B. II D. IV
8. This process is the major mechanism transfer of drug resistance which can
occur between unrelated genera: (Essentials of Medical Microbiology, 5 th ed.,
297)
A. Transformation C. Transfection
B. Transduction D. Conjugation
11. Yinyin, 24 years old, was admitted because of diarrhea after eating oysters. The
organism isolated is a gram-negative bacillus which grew best at pH of 7.6 to 9.0. It is
oxidase positive. What is the most likely agent? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p.570)
A. Shigella dysenteriae C. Escherichia coli
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus D. Salmonella typhi
12. Sophia, 45 years old, consulted because of multiple nodular lesions on her face
earlobes and wrists. Skin slit smear of the nodule on the earlobe showed numerous acid
fast bacilli (+++++). What is the most likely classification of this patient? (Zinsser
Microbiology, 19th ed p.518)
A. Lepromatous leprosy C. Borderline leprosy
B. Indeterminate leprosy D. Tuberculoid leprosy
13. Diana, 2 weeks old, was admitted because of seizure. CSF examination showed
pleocytosis, increased protein and decreased sugar. The colonies isolated in BAP were
-hemolytic. (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed. p 426 427)
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Staphylococcyus aureus D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
14. Fred, 39 years old, consulted because of chronic cough of one month. Sputum
culture was requested. The colonies were first observed after two weeks of
incubation. The colonies were described as rough, dry and buff colored. What is
the most likely causative agent? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 499
14. Jodie, 10 years old, was admitted with admitting diagnosis of bacterial
endocarditis. Blood culture in BAP grew colonies with partial hemolysis. Gram staining
of the growth revealed gram-positive cocci. Optochin and bile solubility tests were
negative. What is the most likely causative agent? (Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th
ed, p. 236)
A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Viridans streptococcus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
15. Charlie, 21-year old male, complaint of dysuria. Urine culture was done on
MacConkey showing colorless colonies. Biochemical test revealed K/A with H2S on
TSI, urease and phenylalanine deaminase tests were positive. What is the most likely
causative agent? (Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th ed, p. 249)
A. Yersinia enterocolitica C. Escherichia coli
B. Pseudomoans aeruginosa D. Proteus mirabilis
16. Cholo, 27 years old engineer, was diagnoed with rickettsial infection. His serum
sample was for Weil-Felix test which turned out to be positive for antibodies to
Proteus OK-19 and OX-2. The serum sample was also inoculated
intraperitoneally to a male guinea pig producing scrotal swelling. What is the
most likely causative agent? (Essentials of Medical Microbiology, 5th ed., 463)
A. Rickettsia typhi C. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
B. Rickettsia prowazeki D. Rickettsia ricketsii
18. The following characteristics differentiate the el tor biotype of Vibrio cholera from
the classic biotype EXCEPT: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 567)
A. Positive VP test C. Agglutination of chicken erythrocytes
B. Positive oxidase test D. Resistance to polymyxin B
19. This gram-negative bacillus grows well in moist environment, produces blue
phenazine pigment, obtain energy from carbohydrates using the oxidative rather than
the fermentative pathway: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 577)
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus vulgaris D. Escherichia coli
21. The toxin of this gram-positive obligate anaerobic organism acts on the
cholinergic nerve endings to block the release of acetylcholine: (Zinsser Microbiology,
19th ed p. 650)
A. Clostridium botulinum C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Clostridium tetani D. Bacillus anthracis
22. Ryza, 6 years old, female, was diagnosed with meningitis. CSF specimen was
cultured in CAP at 5-10% CO2. The colonies that grew were gram stained which
revealed gram-negative cocci. What is the most liley causative agent of the meningitis?
(Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 444 and 447)
A. Haemophilus influenzae C. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus agalactiae
23. Jhona, 5 years old, was brought for consultation because of sore throat. PE
showed enlarged, exudative tonsillitis with large palpable, tender, cervical lymph nodes.
A smear from the tonsils was gram stained showing gram-positive, clubbed-shaped
bacilli which lie parallel or form angles with each other. What is the most likely causative
agent? ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 487 and 492)
A. Clostridium tetani C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Bacillus anthracis D. Coxiella burnetti
24. Cathy, 28 years old, consulted because of dysuria. Urine was cultured on BAP.
The growth was Gram stained showing gram-positive cocci in clusters. What is the most
likely organism? ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 401 and 414)
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus C. Proteus mirabilis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Streptococcus agalactiae
25. Marie, 3 years old, was admitted with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis.
Review of history revealed that she had impetigo on the buttocks. What M-protein type
of Streptococcus pyogenes is the most likely cause? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p.
424)
A. M4 C. M49
B. M12 D. M57
26. This organism grows in 6.5% NaCl, 40% bile, and can hydrolyze esculin and is
resistant to penicillin: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 427-428)
A. Streptococcus bovis C. Enterococcus fecalis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
27. Sputum culture of a patient diagnosed with pneumonia showed partial hemolysis
on BAP. Biochemical tests showed the colonies which are bile-soluble. Subculture of
growth in disc containing ethylhydroxycupreine HCl showed inhibition of growth. What
is the most likely causative agent? (Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th ed, p. 237).
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus viridans
B. Klebsiella pneumonaie D. Haemophilus influenzae
30. What is the most useful and rapid method for the identification of Streptococcus
pneumoniae? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 434)
A. Bacitracin test C. CAMP test
B. Neufeld Quellung test D. VP test
31. The capsule contributes to the invasive property of the following organisms
EXCEPT one: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 447, 464, 549)
A. Neisseria menigitidis C. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
32. The presence of this antigen is one of the factors that can explain the virulence of
Escherichia coli in neonatal disease: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 545)
A. Vi antigen C. O antigen
B. H antigen D. K1 antigen
33. Edgar, 9 years old boy, was admitted because of fever of 5 days duration with
accompanying headache, abdominal pain, and vomiting. Enteric fever was entertained.
How are you going to confirm the diagnosis? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 563)
A. Blood culture C. Polymerase chain reaction
B. Stool culture D. Serology
34. What is considered the most sensitive method to the diagnosis of whooping
cough? Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th ed, p. 283.
A. Direct fluorescent antibody test C. Culture isolation
B. Polymerase chain reaction D. Serology
35. The exotoxin of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Corynebacterium diphtheriae
have the same mechanism of action: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 578)
A. Inhibition of protein synthesis by blocking EF-2
B. Activation of intracellular adenyl cyclase
C. Inhibition of the release of excitatory neurotransmitter
D. Activation of extracellular guanyl cyclase
36. This highly specific laboratory test for syphilis is easy to perform, inexpensive and
A. IgG-FTA-ABS C. MHA-TP
B. TPI D. VDRL
37. Chester, 17 years old, was brought for consultation for productive cough of three
weeks duration. On PE, she was afebrile, not in CR distress, with coarse and fine
rales appreciated on both lung fields. This is most probably caused by this gram-
negative, branched, filamentous organism that can induce the development of
hemagglutinins that will agglutinate human type-O erythrocytes when incubated
at 0oC to 4oC, but not at 37oC: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 735)
A. 6 and 11 C. 45 and 52
B. 16 and 18 D. 62 and 65
39. What is the most common cause of rhinitis is all age group?
40. Among these viruses, which one has the following characteristics: ssRNA,
enveloped virus with non-segmented, positive-sense genome? (Zinsser
Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762)
42. The Rhabdoviruses are described with the following characteristics: (Zinsser
Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762)
43. The picornaviruses are described with the following characteristics: Zinsser
Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762)
44. The hepatitis C virus is described as follows: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p.
761-762 and 1040)
45. Which of these markers of hepatitis B infection correlates with the absence of
HBcAg and DNA polymerase, less infectivity and a better prognosis for chronic
hepatitis. (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 1043)
A. Anti-HBc C. Anti-HBe
B. Anti-HBd D. Anti-HBs
A. p24 C. gp41
B. p55 D. gp120
47. Which of the following is the only filamentous mammalian virus? Zinsser, 19th ed,
p. 761-762 and 1031
48. This virus family is described with the following characteristics: double-stranded
nucleic acid, naked with segmented genome: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p.
761-762)
A. Picornaviridae C. Coronaviridae
B. Reoviridae D. Rhabdoviridae
49. This virus shows tropism for the B lymphocytes and certain epithelial cells. It
produces nonproductive infection and transformation of B cells: (Essentials of
Medical Microbiology by Volk et al, 5th ed., p. 553-554 )
50. This virus undergoes antigenic shift producing major changes in the H and N
glycoproteins: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 994)
51. This fungus occurs as yeast in tissues of infected patients and when cultured at
room temperature occurs as mold form: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p.1072)
52. Mark, 24-year old male, consulted because of hypopigmented macules on his
chest, upper back, shoulders and arms. Scrapings of the lesions were taken for
microscopic examination. Short, unbranched hyphae and numerous spherical
cells were seen. What is the most likely causative agent? Zinsser Microbiology,
19th ed, p. 1131-1132
53. Rapid presumptive test for Candida albicans is Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed,
p. 1142
54. What is the most common cause of athletes foot? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th
ed, p. 1130)
56. Charlie, 57 years old male, was admitted because of meningitis. India ink
staining of the CSF showed large, encapsulated yeast cells. What is the most
likely causative agent? Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 1144)
58. What is the infectious particle of Coccidioides immitis? Zinsser Microbiology, 19th
ed, p. 1092)
A. Arthroconidium C. Spherule
B. Chlamydospore D. Macroconidia
57. The defining feature of this fungal infection is the presence of local swelling and
interconnecting sinuses containing sulfur granules: Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23rd
ed, p. 633.
A. Lobos disease C. Darlings disease
B. Mycetoma D. Sporothrichosis
58. Mang Tomas, 56 year old gardener, came in with multiple subcutaneous nodules
and abscesses along the lymphatics: Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23rd ed, p. 636.
A. Sporothrix schenckii C. Trichophyton tonsurans
B. Epidermophyton floccosum D. Pseudoallescheria boydii
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Contact dermatitis
C. ABO incompatibility
D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
64. The cellular mediators of immediate response to cytosolic pathogens are the:
A. PMNs C. NK cells
B. T and B cells D. CRP
65. The predominant antibody found in breastmilk is the: ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19th
ed, p. 224)
A. IgA C. IgG
B. IgE D. IgM
66. This antibody molecule has neutralizing, opsonizing and complement activating
activity:
A. IgA C. IgG
B. IgE D. IgM
67. The level of this antibody approximates that of the adult at birth:
A. IgA C. IgG
B. IgE D. IgM
68. These cells have dual functions in immunity: antibody secretion and antigen
presentation:
A. B cells C. Macrophages
B. NK cells D. Dendritic cells
69. This cytokine secreted by TH1 cells enhances the microbicidal power of the
macophages:
A. TNF- C. IL-2
B. IFN- D. GM-CSF
71. What is the only nematode that requires intermediate host to complete its life
cycle? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 246)
A. Capillaria philippinensis C. Trichuris trichiura
B. Enterobius vermicualris D. Trichinella spiralis
73. The adult stage of this parasite is described to have attenuated anterior portion
and a fleshy posterior portion: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 240)
A. Ancylostoma brazilinese C. Necator americanus
B. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura
74. All these parasites have a lung phase during their developmental cycle EXCEPT:
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 259, 283, 310)
A. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Enterobius vermicularis D.. Necator americanus
75. Embryonated ovum is the infective stage of this parasite: (Clinical Parasitology
by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 303)
A. Trichinella spiralis C. Capillaria philippinensis
B. Enterobius vermicularis D. Strongyloides stercoralis
76. This adult nematode is larviparous which means it produces larva rather than
ova: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 232)
A. Capillaria philippinensis C. Enterobius vermicualris
B. Trichinella spiralis D. Trichuris trichiura
77. The most effective preventive measure against this parasite is thru thorough
freezing or cooking of food potentially carrying the parasite: (Clinical Parasitology
by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 240)
A. Trichuris trichiura C. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Trichinella spiralis D. Strongyloides stercoralis
78. When embryonated egg of this parasite is ingested, its second-stage larva
encysts in tissues such as the liver and lungs and cause hypereosinophilia:
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 326-327)
A. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Toxocara canis
B. Trichinella spiralis D. Trichuris trichiura
79. A stained peripheral blood film revealed the presence of this microfilaria with two
discreet nuclei at the tip of the tail: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 365)
A. Brugia malayi C. Onchocerc volvulus
B. Loa loa D. Wuchereria bancrofti
80. The ova of this parasite are NOT commonly recovered in the stool: (Clinical
Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 303)
A. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Trichuris trichiura D. Hookworms
81. Routine examination of a stool sample was submitted for facalysis. The result
revealed the presence of spherical cyst-like material with two nuclei and one
chromatoidal body with rounded ends. What is the most probable parasite seen?
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 103)
A. Balantidium coli C. Giardia lamblia
B. Entamoeba coli D. Entamoeba histolytica
83. Parasites which are rounded anteriorly and pointed posteriorly with a pair of
nuclei containing a central karyosome were seen in watery stool of a patient with severe
diarrhea. What is the most likely causative agent? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et
al, 9th ed., 44)
A. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Giardia lamblia
B. Chilomastix mesnilii D. Endolimax nana
84. Nelson, 32-year old engineer. Was admitted because of on and off high grade
fever with accompanying chills of two weeks duration. Peripheral blood smear showed
ring form trophozoites and crescent-shaped gametocytes. What is the most probable
causative agent? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 188)
A. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale
B. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium falciparum
85. The infective stage of Trypanosoma cruzi is... (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et
al, 9th ed., 90)
A. Amastigote C. Epimastigote
B. Promastigote D. Trypomastigote
86. Kalaazar is caused by this parasite: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed.,
71)
A. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Leishmania donovani
B. Trypanosoma gambiense D. Leishmania tropica
87. CJ, 1 year old male, had dysentery described as bloody and mucoid. What are
the most probable causative agents? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th
ed., 115, 216)
A. Entamoeba coli and Endolimax nana
B. Entamoeba histolytica and Balantidium coli
C. Cryptosporidium parvum and Isospora belli
D. Giardia lamblia and Trichomonas hominis
88. The infective stage of Plasmodium falciparum to the intermediate host is the
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 176)
A. Trophozoites C. Merozoites
B. Sporozoites D. Gametocytes
89. This is the only trematode with a non-operculated ovum: (Clinical Parasitology by
Beaver et al, 9th ed., 418, 452, 459, 464)
A. Schistosoma japonicum C. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Fasciola hepatica D. Paragonimus westermani
90. The metacercaria is the infective stage of the following parasites EXCEPT:
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 416-417, 458, 473, 481)
A. Opistorchis felineus C. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Metagonimus yokogawai D. Echinostoma ilocanum
91. Mang Pandoy, 58 years old male, had a history of four weeks cough with blood-
tinged expectorate. Sputum examination was done which revealed the presence
of operculated ova. What is the most likely causative agent? (Clinical
Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 464)
A. Metagonimus yokogawai C. Paragonimus westermani
B. Clonorchis sinensis D. Echinostoma ilocanum,
92. This cestode requires two intermediate hosts for the completion of its
developmental cycle: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 496)
A. Taenia saginata C. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Diphyllobothrium latum D. Dipylidium caninum
95 This parasite utilizes the snail as its first and second intermediate hosts to
complete its developmental cycle: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed.,
458)
A. Metagonimus yokogawai C. Paragonimus westermani
B. Clonorchis sinensis D. Echinostoma ilocanum,
96. This parasite is described as ribbon-like, scolex with 4 cup-like suckers and
rostellum with double row of large and small hooks: (Clinical Parasitology by
Beaver et al, 9th ed., 513)
A. Taenia soilum C. Hymenolepis nana
B. Taenia saginata D. Hymenolepis diminuta
97. This parasite is referred to as the dwarf tapeworm: (Basic Clinical Parasitology by
Brown, 6th ed, p. 191)
A. Hymenolepis nana C. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Hymenolepid diminuta D. Dipylidium caninum
98. Which of the following cestodes does NOT require an intermediate host to
complete its life cycle? (Basic Clinical Parasitology by Brown, 6th ed, p. 192)
A. Hymenolepis nana C. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Hymenolepid diminuta D. Dipylidium caninum
99. Proper cooking of food is the most important preventive measure against this
condition: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 247, 261, 425)
A. Schistosomiasis C. Capillariasis
B. Cochin china diarrhea D. Malaria
100. Man becomes infected by this parasite by ingestion of cysticercoid larva: (Clinical
Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 508)
A. Taenia solium C. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Dipylidium caninum D. Metagnonimus yokogawai