Statutory Examination for Membership

Examination
The horse
subject
Paper 1
Length of
3 hours
examination
Date Monday 29 April 2013
Time 9.15 am to 12.15 pm
This examination question paper is divided into two sections
Section A and Section B. Each section carries 50% of the total
marks available for this examination paper and candidates are
advised to allocate their time accordingly.

Candidates should answer THREE questions from Section A and

should attempt ALL questions in Section B.

Candidates should read each question carefully and answer the

question that has been asked. Examiners cannot award marks
for information that the question does not ask for. Section A tests
understanding and problem-solving skills. Section B tests factual
knowledge.

Bracketed percentages within questions show the maximum

proportion of marks that can be awarded for the candidates
answer to that part or sub-section of the question.

Start each answer on a new answer sheet and write the

question number in the margin of each sheet used.

Continues overleaf
This page has been left blank intentionally

Statutory membership examination 2013 Page 2 of 5

Section A
Answer either (a) or (b) from each of the 3 pairs of questions

1a. You are called to examine a 10-day-old Thoroughbred foal that has had diarrhoea for 48 hours.
The stud groom reports that the foal is still suckling the mare but appears depressed and is not
keeping up with the mare in the stable.

List your differential diagnosis (40%) and describe the investigations you would carry out to try
and establish a diagnosis (30%). Explain how you would treat and manage this case empirically
pending the results of your investigations (30%).

Or
1b. Equine influenza virus is a constant threat to the international horse industry despite mandatory
vaccination of competition and racehorses.

Describe which influenza viruses have been isolated from horses and how the evolution of these
viruses requires periodic updates to the strains included in equine influenza virus vaccines (30%).

List the clinical signs that would make you suspicious you were dealing with an equine influenza
virus outbreak (30%) and describe the tests that could be carried out for confirmation (20%).

Explain how equine influenza virus is controlled in the UK (20%).

2a. List the specific articular fractures affecting the metacarpophalangeal (fetlock) joint
that are recognised in Thoroughbred racehorses. (20%)

Describe the principle of lag screw fixation as it might be used in the management
of one of the fractures you have listed. (40%)

What are the potential advantages and disadvantages of this treatment over
conservative management for the particular fracture you have chosen? (40%)

Or
2b. Displacement of small intestine through the epiploic foramen is a recognised cause of
signs of colic in the horse.

What is the epiploic foramen? (20%)

What findings might you discover on examination of an affected
horse that might lead you to suspect this type of problem? (30%)
Outline in principle how you would manage an affected horse? (30%)
What is the prognosis for affected horses? (20%)

Statutory membership examination 2013 Page 3 of 5

3a. You are called to examine a nine-year-old Shire horse that has been losing weight
and has developed ventral oedema with extensive swelling of the sheath. List the
major organ systems that could be involved and give justifications (40%).

Your initial investigations reveal hypoalbuminaemia: describe the investigations you

would carry out to refine your list and identify which body system is involved (60%).

Or
3b. You are presented with an 8-year-old brood mare who has sustained a lacerated wound
on the palmar aspect of the mid right fore metacarpus.

Describe how you would assess the limb and determine the severity
and extent of the injury. (40%)

Describe the principles for surgical repair and aftercare

where a digital flexor tendon has been traumatically severed
in an accident in a horse. (30%)

List the factors that will determine the prognosis for this horse. (30%)

Section B
Answer all 10 questions

1. Describe the clinical signs of pastern dermatitis. (30%)

List the different aetiological agents that can cause this syndrome. (40%)
Describe the investigations you would carry out to establish a diagnosis. (30%)

2. List the predilection sites for squamous cell carcinoma in the horse (30%). Describe the clinical
examination findings that would make you suspect squamous cell carcinoma (40%) and give one
investigation you would carry out to confirm your suspicion (10%). Describe the treatment
options for squamous cell carcinoma (20%).

3. Define what is meant by Inflammatory Airway Disease (20%). List the clinical signs of this
syndrome (30%) and describe the aetiologies that have been identified (20%). What
investigations should be carried out to establish a diagnosis? (30%)

4. What is meant by the term medical colic? (30%)

List the common causes of medical colic and explain how each
causes signs of colic. (50%)
What advice would you give to owners to reduce the risk of
medical colic occurring? (20%)

Statutory membership examination 2013 Page 4 of 5

5. Which anatomical structures comprise the uvea? (20%). List the clinical signs of uveitis (40%)
and explain why uveitis can have extensive pathological consequences (10%). Describe your
initial empirical management of a case of uveitis (30%).

6. List the neurovascular structures that lie in or immediately adjacent

to the guttural pouches in the horse. (60%)

Briefly outline the principles of management of epistaxis due to

guttural pouch mycosis in the horse. (40%)

7. State the most common specific anatomical location for the following conditions in the horse:

OCD in the stifle (20%)

Slab fracture in the carpus (20%)
Chip fracture in the dorsal fetlock (20%)
Bone cyst in the stifle (20%)
Overriding dorsal processes in the spine (20%)

8. A horse sustains a wound on the dorsal aspect of its left tarsocrural joint. Describe two
techniques you might employ to determine whether the joint itself has been penetrated.

9. You pass a nasogastric tube in a horse showing clinical signs of colic and
get 10 litres of reflux of gastric contents.

List the two main categories of causes for this finding. (40%)

What other examinations could you perform

to investigate these possibilities further? (60%)

10. Describe the techniques for arthrocentesis of the following synovial cavities:

Distal interphalangeal joint (coffin joint) (25%)

Digital flexor tendon sheath (25%)
Metacarpophalangeal joint (25%)
Midcarpal (intercarpal) joint (25%)

Statutory membership examination 2013 Page 5 of 5

Statutory Examination for Membership
Examination
Companion animals
subject
Paper 2
Length of
3 hours
examination
Date Monday 29 April 2013
Time 2pm to 5pm
This examination question paper is divided into two sections
Section A and Section B. Each section carries 50% of the total
marks available for this examination paper and candidates are
advised to allocate their time accordingly.

Candidates should answer THREE questions from Section A and

should attempt ALL questions in Section B.

Candidates should read each question carefully and answer the

question that has been asked. Examiners cannot award marks
for information that the question does not ask for. Section A tests
understanding and problem-solving skills. Section B tests factual
knowledge.

Bracketed percentages within questions show the maximum

proportion of marks that can be awarded for the candidates
answer to that part or sub-section of the question.

Start each answer on a new answer sheet and write the

question number in the margin of each sheet used.

Continues overleaf
This page has been left blank intentionally

Statutory membership examination 2013 Page 2 of 5

Section A
Answer either (a) or (b) from each of the 3 pairs of questions

1a. Define the term Otitis Externa and describe in detail the features of this condition. In your answer
include comment on historical and physical findings, aetiology, pathology, treatment and
management options and prognosis (100%).

Or
1b. You have been presented by a colleague in your practice with a 10 year old female cocker
spaniel. They think the dog is in congestive heart failure, but want your opinion. Discuss how
you would confirm if their opinion is correct (40%). How would you identify the underlying cause
(40%) and what immediate steps you would take to manage the case effectively (20%)?

2a. A 4 year old male domestic short haired cat is presented to you with a comminuted midshaft
femoral fracture. The comminuted fragments are small, difficult to reconstruct and represent
about 15% of the total length of the bone.

What fracture repair methods are available for this type of fracture? (10%)

Describe how you will explain the choices of fracture repair methods
and the requirements for aftercare to the owner. (60%)

Use an annotated diagram or diagrams to describe the general

principles of one method of internal fixation appropriate to this fracture. (30%)

Or
2b. Describe the appropriate surgical procedures for the location and removal of an intestinal foreign
body in an adult dog, from the moment at which the patient is stabilised under general
anaesthesia, to the moment at which the dog can be safely removed from the operating room.
(100%)

Statutory membership examination 2013 Page 3 of 5

3a. Polydipsia with polyuria (PU/PD) is a relatively common clinical presentation in dogs in general
practice in the UK.

Describe how you would investigate a case of PU/PD in your practice. (60%)

What are the most common causes of PU/PD in dogs in the UK and
for each cause mentioned briefly explain how it is diagnosed. (20%)

For one common cause of PU/PD you have identified above, briefly
describe how you would treat and manage such a case. (20%)

Or

3b. List and briefly justify the main points of your diagnostic investigation for an 8 month old dog with
bilaterally hot, swollen radio-carpal joints (40%).

For each investigation discuss the possible findings and how they would help you define the
patients problem (60%).

Section B
Answer all 10 questions

1. What is meant by the terms signalment? Give two (2) disease examples where aspects of the
signalment can assist in diagnosis.

2. What are the four (4) stages of the oestrus cycle of the bitch and during which stage is the bitch
fertile? Counting from the beginning of the oestrus cycle, during what days is ovulation likely to
occur?

3. Anthelmintic drugs are widely used in clinical practice in the UK. Name four (4) such drugs and
for each one name a nematode it is effective against.

4. What are the common clinical signs of liver disease in the dog and cat? List the diagnostic tests
that are used to investigate liver disease.

Statutory membership examination 2013 Page 4 of 5

5. Pet owners can be tempted to medicate their own dog or cat with non-prescription drugs meant
for human use. Name two non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs often used in this manner and
briefly describe their toxic action and effects.

6. A dog is presented to you with a broken upper canine tooth. The pulp cavity is visible and there is
a longitudinal split in the remaining visible tooth. Describe the main points of your procedure to
remove the tooth.

7. List the procedures you would use to obtain a plain radiographic study of the chest of an adult cat
under sedation (you do NOT have to give specific exposures) (50%). Draw a diagram of the
lateral radiograph of a normal cats thorax indicating the position of the major structures (50%).

8. What are the clinical characteristics of cutaneous mast cell tumours? (50%)

List the important points in confirming the diagnosis of a mast cell tumour
and treating it effectively. (50%)

9. An 8 year old male neutered dog is presented to you because it has been stumbling and mis-
placing its forelegs for the last 3 weeks. Describe the neurological examination appropriate to this
patient (this means the physical neurological examination not a radiographic or
electrophysiological examination).

10. A brachycephalic dog recovering from anaesthesia after minor soft palate surgery has
progressively increasing difficulty breathing. The dog is depressed, has cyanotic mucous
membranes, and a brief examination reveals inflamed swollen tissue at the back of its mouth.
What should you do in the next 30 minutes?

Statutory membership examination 2013 Page 5 of 5

Statutory Examination for Membership
Examination
Production animals
subject
Paper 3
Length of
3 hours
examination
Date Tuesday 30 April 2013
Time 9.15 am to 12.15 pm
This examination question paper is divided into two sections
Section A and Section B. Each section carries 50% of the total
marks available for this examination paper and candidates are
advised to allocate their time accordingly.

Candidates should answer THREE questions from Section A and

should attempt ALL questions in Section B.

Candidates should read each question carefully and answer the

question that has been asked. Examiners cannot award marks
for information that the question does not ask for. Section A tests
understanding and problem-solving skills. Section B tests factual
knowledge.

Bracketed percentages within questions show the maximum

proportion of marks that can be awarded for the candidates
answer to that part or sub-section of the question.

Start each answer on a new answer sheet and write the

question number in the margin of each sheet used.

Continues overleaf
This page has been left blank intentionally

2013 statutory membership examination Page 2 of 6 pages

Section A
Answer either (a) or (b) from each of the 3 pairs of questions

1a. A dairy herd of 300 cows in the UK has an average milk yield of 12,000 litres per cow per
year. Cows are housed during the winter but have access to pasture during the summer.
The bulk milk somatic cell count has been approximately 300,000/ml for the last few months.
The farmer has had a letter from the company that buys his milk to warn him that he must
take action to reduce his bulk milk somatic cell count urgently.

Why is the company that buys the milk concerned about this bulk milk somatic cell count?
What is the legal limit for bulk milk somatic cell count which is permitted in the European
Union (EU)? What sanctions may the company take in this situation? (30%)

What will you do, as the farmers veterinary surgeon, to investigate the problem and what
advice can you give to help improve the situation? (70%)

Or
1b. A farmer has a group of 150 young stock which he is rearing for beef production. They are a
mixture of breeds and have all been purchased from a number of different sources in the
previous months. They are a mixture of heifers and castrated males and are approximately 5
7 months old. They are all housed in a single large shed.

The farmer has called you because he is concerned about their health. There has been a
gradual increase in coughing over the last two weeks and feed intakes have been significantly
reduced. One heifer died this morning.

How will you investigate this problem? (40%)

What are the likely causes? (30%)

What advice will you give to resolve this problem and

minimise any welfare problems and commercial losses
on this unit now and in the future? (30%)

2a. You are presented with a case of urolithiasis in a young male goat.

Describe the clinical signs likely to be seen in a case of urolithiasis. (20%)

Describe the options for treatment and management of this case. (40%)

What are the main predisposing factors for this condition and what
can be done to prevent further cases in the future? (40%)

Or Question 2b is on the next page

2013 statutory membership examination Page 3 of 6 pages

2b. A sheep farmer from the north west of England is concerned about the presence of Ixodes
ricinus ticks on his animals during the early summer.

Explain how Ixodes ricinus ticks cause production loss in UK sheep. (40%)

The prevalence and geographical distribution of Ixodes ricinus

in the UK has changed over recent years. Why has this situation
arisen and why is it cause for concern? (30%)

Outline the options for control of diseases

caused by Ixodes ricinus ticks in UK sheep. (40%)

3a. Slaughterhouse data for January 2013 confirmed evidence of liver fluke due to Fasciola
hepatica in cattle throughout the UK.

Describe the life cycle of Fasciola hepatica. (30%)

Why was the prevalence of fasciolosis in cattle
so high during January 2013? (10%)
Outline the control principles for fasciolosis in a beef
suckler herd which finishes its own cattle and in which
a high prevalence of the disease has been identified. (30%)

Besides slaughterhouse feedback, what tools are available

for the diagnosis of fasciolosis? What are the benefits and
limitations of each method? (30%)

Or

3b. In January 2012 Schmallengberg virus was first identified as the cause of disease in southern
and eastern England.

Explain the biology, transmission and pathogenesis of

Schmallenberg virus. (50%)
How did the disease enter the UK? (10%)
How has the virus subsequently spread within the UK,
and what has been its impact on animal production? (20%)
What advice should be given to farmers to reduce the impact
of the disease in their cattle and sheep? (20%)

2013 statutory membership examination Page 4 of 6 pages

Section B
Answer all 10 questions

1. You need to trim the feet on a Simmental bull weight approximately 1000kg. You decide that
the bull should be recumbent for this procedure.

Describe what your options are for sedation and/or restraint of the bull,
giving details of any drugs you use. (70%)

What hazards for the bull should be considered and how may
these be minimised? (30%)

Details of the foot trimming procedure itself should not to be included in your answer.

2. Write short notes on the aetiology of Digital Dermatitis in cattle (also called Hairy Wart,
Mortellaro disease).

3. Write short notes on the clinical signs and diagnosis of Newcastle disease in poultry (70%). If
you suspected the presence of Newcastle Disease what action would you take? (30%)

4. What clinical signs would suggest a diagnosis of Left Displaced Abomasum in a dairy cow?
(50%) Describe one method of treatment of this condition (50%).

5. Write short notes on Lead (Pb) poisoning in cattle (80%). What action would you take if you
had evidence of Lead poisoning in a dairy herd? (20%)

6. Many sheep farmers have reported poor scanning results in January and February 2013.

What are reasonable targets for barren rates and overall scanning percentages in an
April lambing, lowground mule flock?

Outline a rational approach to the investigation of poor reproductive performance in a

sheep flock.

7. You are asked to treat a 2 week-old, housed, spring-born, beef calf with signs of watery
diarrhoea, slight dehydration, abdominal distension and weakness. The farmer has been
administering oral glucose and electrolyte therapy for the previous 24 hours, but the calf has
not responded to this treatment. Outline your approach to the management of this case.

2013 statutory membership examination Page 5 of 6 pages

8. Outline the recommendations that are currently made to reduce the risk of selection for
anthelmintic resistance in sheep nematode parasites.

9. Explain the current concerns about the use of antimicrobial drugs in farmed ruminants and
outline the steps that UK veterinary practitioners must take to ensure the continued availability
of antimicrobial drugs.

10. Describe your approach to the diagnosis and management of a high rate of perinatal lamb
mortality in an upland, indoor lambing mule sheep flock.

2013 statutory membership examination Page 6 of 6 pages

Statutory Examination for Membership
Examination
Veterinary public health
subject
Paper 4
Length of
3 hours
examination
Date Tuesday 30 April 2013
Time 2.00 pm to 5.00 pm
This examination question paper is divided into two sections
Section A and Section B. Each section carries 50% of the total
marks available for this examination paper and candidates are
advised to allocate their time accordingly.

Candidates should answer THREE questions from Section A and

should attempt ALL questions in Section B.

Candidates should read each question carefully and answer the

question that has been asked. Examiners cannot award marks
for information that the question does not ask for. Section A tests
understanding and problem-solving skills. Section B tests factual
knowledge.

Bracketed percentages within questions show the maximum

proportion of marks that can be awarded for the candidates
answer to that part or sub-section of the question.

Start each answer on a new answer sheet and write the

question number in the margin of each sheet used.

Continues overleaf
This page has been left blank intentionally

2013 statutory membership examination Page 2 of 5 pages

Section A
Answer either (a) or (b) from each of the 3 pairs of questions

1a. Under current legislation slaughterhouses in the United Kingdom producing

carcase meat must use the Principles of Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points
(HACCP).

List the seven principles of HACCP? (20%)

Explain briefly how HACCP achieves the aims of food safety
stating who is responsible for HACCP. (20%)
Using the example of a slaughterhouse killing beef cattle, describe
how HACCP is likely to be implemented? (60%)

Or
1b. Describe the role of the Official Veterinarian (OV) in UK slaughterhouses, considering their
role in the protection of human health, animal health and animal welfare. (100%)

2a. Identify the subjects and describe the key points you would include in a welfare training
course for personnel handling and killing animals at a large pig slaughterhouse. (100%)

Or
2b. Animal welfare is considered in terms of the Five Freedoms. List them. (20%)

Identify the key decision points in determining whether a lame 20-month old
bullock can be either transported alive to slaughter or slaughtered on-farm
for human consumption. (60%)

What legislation is in place to protect farm animal welfare on farm, in transport

and at the slaughterhouse? (20%)

3a. What are the zoonotic risks from sheep during the lambing period? (20%)

Outline the hazards that these pose to human health, including the
sources and routes of transmission. (40%)

Describe the means of prevention. (40%)

Or Question 3b is on the next page

2013 statutory membership examination Page 3 of 5 pages

3b. For each of the following zoonotic disease scenarios briefly describe the clinical signs found
in animals, the risks of transmission to, and clinical signs in humans. What advice would you
give to the client(s) in each case?

A married couple with two young children (aged 4 and 6) present with
a 10 week old kitten with ringworm on its paws and face. (30 %)
A farmer with a 120 cow dairy herd has several animals
diagnosed with Salmonella Typhimurium. (40 %)
An elderly client (aged 80) presents with a parrot recently
diagnosed with psittacosis. (30%)

Section B
Answer all 10 questions

1. Briefly list the factors involved in the emergence (re-emergence) of novel zoonotic infections.
(100%)

2. Identify five zoonotic pathogens that may occur in un-pasteurised milk

with significant potential for transmission to humans. (50%)

Describe the control procedures that can reduce the zoonotic

disease risk. (50%)

3. List the conditions that are likely to cause splenic enlargement in

slaughtered pigs found at post-mortem meat inspection. (60%)

For two of these conditions describe what you are likely to find
on inspection of the rest of the carcase and other offal, and what would
your judgement be regarding fitness for human consumption? (40%)

4. Why are animal by-products (ABP) controlled by legislation? (20%)

List the categories of ABP. (20%)

For each category give two examples of a typical by-product

and how material in each category should be disposed of. (60%)

5. Explain why the correct identification of food producing animals is necessary. (40%)

Describe the legal requirements of identification of cattle in the United Kingdom. (60%)

2013 statutory membership examination Page 4 of 5 pages

6. Outline the methods used to stun and slaughter sheep in UK slaughterhouses. (50%)

Assess the methods with regards to hygiene and welfare. (50%)

7. Animals submitted to approved slaughterhouses in the United Kingdom are required

to have Food Chain Information (FCI).

Explain what FCI is and why it is required. (50%)

List the information that is necessary in the FCI. (50%)

8. Why must veterinarian use antimicrobials prudently (with careful judgement)? (20%)
List the key points of any Prudent use of Antibiotics Policy in veterinary practice. (80%)

9. Briefly describe the current arrangements for the surveillance of bovine tuberculosis (bTB) in
United Kingdom cattle. (100%)

10. Briefly outline the public health concerns associated with

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE). (20%)

What are the differential diagnoses for this disease in cattle? (20%)

What steps are in place in the UK to reduce the possibility of

human consumption of BSE-infected products? (60%)

2013 statutory membership examination Page 5 of 5 pages