Aircraft General Knowledge (37)

(1) Where may an Aircraft operating limitation be found?

-- In the current FAA approved flight manual, approved manual, approved manual material marking and
placards, or any combination there therefore.

(2) Excessively high engine temperature will?

-- Cause loss of power excessive oil consumption an possible permanent internal engine damage.

(3) The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to?
-- Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased IR density.

(4) What type of fuel can be substitute for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
-- The next higher aviation gas.

(5) Filling the fuel tank after the last flight of the day is considered a good operation procedure
because this will?
-- Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

(6) What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
-- Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

(7) How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller?
-- The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller
control regulate engine RPM.

(8) What is an advantage of constant air - propeller?

-- Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

(9) A precaution for the operation of n engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to?
-- Avoid high manifold pressure setting with low RPM.

(10) What should be the first action after starting the a/c engine?
-- Adjust for proper rpm and check for desired indication on the engine gauges.

(11) Excessively high temperature, either in the air or on the ground will?
-- Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption and possible permanent internal engine damage.
(12) If the PITOT tube and outside static vents become clogged which instruments would be affected?
-- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

(13) What does the red line on the indicator represents?

-- Never-Exceed-Speed.

(14) What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
-- Maneuvering speed -104.

(15) The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is?
-- Magnetic variation.

(16) When are the 4 forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

-- During UN accelerated flight.

(17) The term angle of attack is defined as the angle?

-- Between the wing chord line and the relative wind.

18) One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to?
-- Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

(19) What is one purpose of wing flaps?

-- To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.

20) The angle of attack at which an airplane wings stall will?

-- Remain the same regardless of gross weight.

(21) The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of?
-- Angle of attack.

(22) An airplane said to be inherently stable will?

-- Requires less effort to control.

(23) What causes n airplane (except a t-tail) to pitch nose down when power is reduced are not adjusted?
-- The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevators effectiveness is
reduced.

(24) What does p factor causes the airplane to yaw to the left?
-- With an high angle of attack.
(25) Prior to starting each maneuver pilot should?
-- Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

(26) When activated an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmitter on?

-- 121.5-243.0 mhz

(27) When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the
battery is rechargeable )?
-- After one half the battery is useful life.

(28) When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

--- During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

(29) Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not
been activated?
--monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.

30) When must a pilot who deviated from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that
deviation to the administrator?
-- Upon request.

(31) Who is responsible for determining if an ac is in condition for safe flight?

-- The pilot in command.

(32) What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

-- The location of the CG with respect to the centre of lift.

(33) Select the 4 flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an Aircraft?

-- Straight and level flight, Turns, Climbs, Descents.

(34) An ATC clearance provides?

-- Authorization to proceed under specifies traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

(35) The final authority as to the operation of an Aircraft is the?

-- PIC.

(36) The responsibility of ensuring that an Aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that
of the?
-- Owner and operator.

(37) Who is responsible for ensuring airworthiness directives (AD's) are compiled with?
-- Owner or operator
 Air Law (35)

1) With respect to certification of airmen which is a category of Aircraft?

-- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

2) With respect to certification of airmen which is a class of Aircraft?

-- Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

3) With respect to certification of aircraft which is a category of Aircraft?

-- Normal, utility, acrobatic.

4) With respect to certification of aircraft which is a class of Aircraft?

-- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

(5) Where may an Aircraft limitation be found?

-- In the current FAA approved flight manual, approved manual materials, marketing and play cards, or any
combination thereof.

(6) Excessively high engine temperatures will?

-- Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

(7) Which Aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?
-- An Aircraft in distress.

(8) What action is required when 2 Aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on?
-- The Aircraft on the left shall give way.

(9) An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position. Which Aircraft
has the right of way?
-- The airship.

(10) What action should the pilot of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on-collision course?
-- Both pilots should give way to the right.

(11) When 2 or more a/c are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way
belongs to the aircraft?
-- At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front or overtake another.
(12) Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate
an aircraft anywhere?
-- An altitude allowing if a power unit fails an emergency landing without undue hazard to person or
property on the surface.

(13) Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should?

-- Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

(14) In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

-- Class A.

(15) During the pre-flight inspection, who is responsible for determine the Aircraft is safe for flight?
-- The pilot in command.

(16) Who is primarily responsible for maintain an aircraft in airworthy conditions?

-- Owner or Operator

(17) The definition of night time is?

-- The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

(18) What documents(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the Aircraft while
operating as PIC of an Aircraft?
-- An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

(19) When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the
aircraft?
-- Any time when acting as PIC or as a required crewmember.

(20) According to the regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may?
-- Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the
expenses involve only Fuel, Oil, Airport expenditures, or rental fees.

(21) In regards to privileges and limitations a private pilot may?

-- Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the
expenses involve only Fuel, Oil, Airport expenditures, or rental fees.

(22) The final authority as to the operation of an Aircraft is the?

-- PIC.

(23) Who is responsible for determining if an Aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
-- PIC.
(24) A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed
by that person within the preceding?
-- 8 hours.

(25) Ander what condition if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs
to be carried aboard an Aircraft?
-- In a emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

(26) No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil Aircraft with?

-- 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

(27) Which pre-flight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
-- Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

(28) Pre-flight action as required for all flight away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include?
-- An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

(29) In addition to other pre-flight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, a
regulation specifically requires the PIC to?
-- determine runway length at airports of intended use and the Aircraft take off and landing distance rate.

(30) Flight crewmember is required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harness fastens during?
-- Takeoff and landing.

(31) No person may operate an Aircraft in information flight?

-- Except by prior arrangement with the PIC of each Aircraft.

(32) What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
-- Enough to fly to the first point of the intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal
cruising speed.

(33) What is specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
-- Enough to fly to the first point of the intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal
cruising speed.

(34) The responsibility of ensuring that an Aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that
of the?
-- Owner and Operator.

35) Who is responsible for ensuring airworthiness directives (AD's) are compiled with?
-- Owner or Operator.
 Communication (29)

(1) An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying at the heading 090 traffic 3 o'clock 2
miles west bound where should the pilot look for the traffic?
-- South.

(2) An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying at the heading 360 traffic 10 o'clock 2
miles south bound where should the pilot look for the traffic?
-- North-west

(3) An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind traffic 9 o'clock 2
miles south bound where should the pilot look for the traffic?
-- West.

(4) A steady green light signalled directed from the control tower to an aircraft is a signal that a pilot?
-- Is cleared to land.

(5) Which light signal from the control tower clears the pilot to taxi?
-- Flashing green.

(6) If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft in continue circling
the light will be?
-- Steady red.

(7) A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxing aircraft is an indication to?
-- Return to the starting point on the airport.

(8) An alternating red and green light signalled directed from the control tower to an a/c in flight is a signal
to?
-- Exercise extreme caution.

(9) The correct method of stating 10500 feet MSL to ATC is?
-- One zero thousand five hundred.

(10) Tower asks to stop the aircraft before takeoff?

-- abort abort.

(11) ELT frequency

-- 121.5 & 243.
(12) Monitor?
-- Listen out on frequency.

(13) Report?
-- Pass requested information.

(14) Stand by?

-- Wait i will call you.

(15) Affirm?
-- Yes.

(16) Disregard?
-- ignore.

(17) Correction?
-- An error has been made in this transmission for message indicated.

(18) Check?
-- Examine a system and procedure.

(19) Reset Squawk?

-- Reset assigned mode and code.

(20) Hide?
-- SFF

(21) Distress traffic ended?

-- ATC free from frequency.

(21) Range of vhf included in communication is

-- 118.0 - 135 or 108-139.5

(22) Reflex squawk?

-- 7600 of one reset.

(23) Time?
-- UTC

(24) Q stands for?

-- QNH/QNC
Q code no height
(25) Readability?
-- Readable now and than

(26) Radio fails in controlled airport?

-- Get in pattern look for lightning system.

(27) How to report which flight condition in radio

-- VML/IML or VFR/IFR.

(28) Repeat message?

-- say again.

(29) Disregard?
-- Ignore, Cancel, of message/ dont listen to me.
 Aircraft Performance and Planning (18)

(1) To minimise the side loads placed on the landing gear during touch down to pilot should keep the?
-- Longitudinal axis of the a/c parallel to direction of its motion.

(2) If an altimeter setting is not available b4 flight to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
-- The elevation of the departure area.

(3) Prior to take off the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
-- The current local altimeter setting if available or the departure airport elevation.

(4) If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85 what change occurs?
-- 700 ft increase is indicated altitude.

(5) As altitude increases the indicated airspeed at which a given airplanes stalls in a particular configuration
will?
-- Remains the same regardless of altitude.

(6) The 4 forces acting on an airplane in a flight are?

-- Lift weight thrust drag.

(7) The winds condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a?
-- Light, Quartering tail wind.

(8) When landing behind a large a/c, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying?
-- Above the large a/c final approach path and landing beyond the large a/c touchdown point.

(9) Refer to fig 8-3 on 88 - Determine the approximate total distance require to land over a 50 feet obstacle
oat 90 degree PA 4000, weight 2800, head wind component 10 knots?
-- 1775 feet.

(10) refer to fig 8-4 on 89 - determine the approximate ground roll distance PA at sea level, head wind 4
knots, temp standard?
-- 401 feet

(11) Which item is included in empty weight of an Aircraft?

-- Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.
(12) If no negative value only positive value where will be the CG?
-- Above main wheel in the middle.

(13) 12-80 figure 12-9 page 12-30

--810 miles

(14) What effect does an uphill runway slope change takeoff performance?
--- Decrease takeoff distance.

(15) When the a/c stalls and the gross weight is high at?
-- All speed and all altitude.

(16) Which basic flight maneuvre Inc the load factor of an airplane as compared to straight and level flight?
--- Turns

(17) To maintain altitude during the turn angle of attack must be increased to compensate to the decreases
in the?
-- Vertical component of lift.

(18) Location of CG is on the positive side?

-- On main wheel
 Human Performance (50)

(1) The most effective method of scanning for other a/c for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to
use?
-- A series of short, regularly spaced high moments to search each 10degree sector.

(2) Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level
flight?
-- Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

(3) How can you determine if another a/c is on a collisition coarse with your Aircraft?
-- There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

(4) What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
-- Scan slowly to permit off centre viewing.

(5) The best method to use when looking for other trafght

(6) The most effective method for scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during night time hours
is to use?
-- Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilising the centre viewing.

(7) During a night flight you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of moment of other aircraft?
-- Aircraft is crossing to the left.

(8) During a night flight you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of moment of other aircraft?
-- Aircraft is in flying away from you.

(9) During a night flight you observe a steady red light and a green light ahead and at the same altitude.
What is the general direction of moment of other aircraft?
-- Approaching head on.

(10) Large accumulation of carbon monoxide in the human body results in?
-- Loss of muscular power.

(11) Which statement best defined hypoxia?

-- State of oxygen deficiency in the body.
(12) When a stress full situation is uncounted in flight an abnormal Inc in the volume of air breath in and
out can cause condition known as?
-- Hyper ventilation.

(13) Which would most likely result in hyper ventilation?

-- Emotional Tension, Anxiety or fear.

(14) a pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by?
-- slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag or talking aloud.

(15) Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as?

-- Altitude increases.

(16) What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
-- Avoid bright white light at least 30 mins before the flight.

(17) The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual condition may be reduced by?
-- having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.

(18) A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by
various sensory organs is defined as?
--- Spatial disorientation.

(19) Pilots are more subjects to spatial disorientation if?

-- Visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument metrological conditions IMC.

(20) If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility situation the best way
to overcome the effect is to?
-- Rely upon the a/c instrument indications.

(21) A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed
by that person within the preceding?
-- 8 hours.

(22) As hyperventilation progresses a pilot can experience?

-- Symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness.

23) Scan properly for traffic a pilot should?

-- use a series of short regularly spaced eyes moments that bring successive areas of the sky into the
central visual field
(24) Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
-- Drowsiness.

(25) What would most likely result in hyperventilation?

-- Insufficient carbon dioxide.

(26) Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?

-- Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.

(27) To overcome the symptom of hyperventilation a pilot should?

-- Slow the breathing rate.

(28) Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within human body?
-- Judgement and decision making abilities can be adversely effected by even small amount of alcohol.

(29) Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of co2 increases as altitude increases?

-- Altitude increases.

(30) To best overcome the effects of special disorientation a pilot should?

-- Rely on aircraft instrument orientation.
 Metrology (40)

(1) what causes variation is almiter settings between weather reporting points?
-- unequal heating of the earth surface.
(2) convective circulation pattern associated with sea breezes are caused by ?
-- cool,dense air moving in land from over the water
(3) how will frost on the wings of the airplane effect take off performance?
-- frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing,adversaly effecting its lifting
capability.
(4) every physical process of weather is accompnied by, or is the result of, a ?
-- heat exchange.
(5) a temprature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?
-- an increase in temp as altitude is increased.
(6) which weather condition should be expected benith a low level temprature inversion layer
when the relative humidity is high?
-- smooth air,poor visiblity,fog,haze or low clouds.
(7) what is meant by the term " dewpoint "
-- the temprature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
(8) the amount of water vapour which air can hold depends on the?
-- air temprature.
(9) clouds,fog or dew will always form when?
-- water vapour condenses.
(10) what are the process by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
-- evaporation and sublimation.
(11) what meaasurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
-- actual lapse rate.
(12) what would decrease the stablity of an air mass?
-- warming from below.
(13) what is the characteristic of stable air?
-- stratiform cloud.
(14) a stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
-- smooth air.
(15) the surfex nimbus used in naming clouds, means ?
-- a rain cloud.
(16) clouds are divided into 4 families according to ther ?
-- height range.
(17) the boundry between two diffwerent air masses is refered to as?
-- front.
(18) 1 of the most easily recognised discontinuities across a front is?
-- a change in temprature.
(19) 1 weather phenomemon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change
in the?
-- wind direction.
(20) what situation is most condusive to the formation of radiation fog?
-- warm,moist air over low, flat land areas on clear, calm nights.
(21) an almond or lense shaped cloud which appreas stationary but which may contain winds of 50
knots or more, is refered to as?
-- a lenticular cloud.
(22) what clouds have the greatest turbulance?
-- cumulonimbus.
(23) what cloud types would indicate convective turbulance?
-- towering cumulus clouds.
(24) possible mountain wave turbulance could be anticipated when winds of 40 kts or greater blow
-- across a mountain ridge and the air is stable.
(25) where does wind shear occur?
-- at all altitudes, in all directions.
(26) 1 in-flight condition necassary for structural icing to form is
-- visible moisture.
(27) in which enviornment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have highest acumaltion rate/
-- freezing rain.
(28) why is frost considered hazardous to flight ?
-- frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings,ther by decreasing lifting capablities.
(29) how does frost effect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on take off?
-- frost may prevent the airplane from becoming air boune at normal take off speed.
(30) what feature is normally associated with cumulus stage of a thunder storm?
-- continuous up draft.
(32) which weather phenomemon signals the begining of the mature stage of the thuder storm?
-- precipitation beginning to form.
(33) what condition is necassary for the formation of thunder storm?
-- high humidity lifting force and unstable condition.
(34) during a life cycle of a thunder storm which stage is categorised predominantely by
down drafts?
-- dissipating.
(35) thunder storm reach their greatest intensity during the ?
-- mature stage.
(36) if their is thunderstorm activity in the visinity of an airport at which you plan to land,
which hazardious atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approch?
-- wind - shear turbulance.
(37) which weather phenomemon is always associated with the thunder storm?
-- lightining.
(38) wing tip vortices are created only when a a/c is?
-- devloping lift.
(39) the greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating a/c is ?
-- heavy warmer clean and slow.
(40) wing tip vortices created by large a/c tends to ?
-- sink below the a/c generating turbulance.
(41) when taking off and landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating one should be
particularly alert to the hazards of wing tip votices because this turbulance tends to?
-- sinks into the flight path of a/c operating below the a/c generating the turbulance.
(42) the winds condition that requires maximum coution when avoiding wake turbulance on landing
is a ?
-- light, quartering tail wind.
(43) when landing behing a large a/c, the pilot should avoid wake turbulance by staying?
-- above the large a/c final approch path and landing beyond the large a/c touch down point.
(44) what feature is asociated with a temprature inversion?
--) a stable layer of air
(45) what are characteristic of a moist, unstable airmass?
-- cumuliform clouds and showery precipatation .
(46) what are the characteristic of unstable air ?
-- turbulance and good surface visiblity.
(47) crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary,lence shaped clouds known as
--- standing lenticular clouds.
(48) the conditions necassary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and ?
-- unstable,moist air.
(49) when departing behind a heVY A/C the pilot may avoid wake turbulance by maneuvering the a/c?
-- above and upwind from the heavy alc.
(50) when alanding behind a large a/c which procedure shoud bee followed for vortex aviodence?
--- stay above it final approch flight path all the way to touch down.
(51) under which condition preasure altitude be equal to true altitude?
-- when standard atmospheric condition exist .
(52) under what condition is preasure altitude and density altitude by same value?
-- at standard temprature .
(53) if a flight is made from an area of low preasure into an area of high preasure without
the altimeter setting being adjusted the altimeter will indicate .
-- lower than the actuall altitude above sea leval.
(54) which condition will cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
-- air temprature warmer than standard.
(55) which factor would tend to inc the density altitude at a given a/p?
-- an increase in ambient temprature.
misc
(1) the amount of access load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depend on the ?
-- speed of the airplane.
(2) which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor of an airplane as compared to streight and
level flight?
-- turns.
(3) which crusing altitude is appropriate for a vfr flight on a magnetic cource of 135 degree?
-- ood thousand + 500 feet.
(4) which vfr crusing altitude is acceptable for a flight on a victor airway with a magnetic course of
175 degree? the tarrain is less than 1000 ft?
--- 5500 ft.
(5) when would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an immergency which cause the pilot
to deviate from an atc clearnce ?
-- when requested by atc.
(6) when operating vfr at night what is the first indication of flying into restricted visiblity
condition ?
-- a graduall dissapearence of light on the ground.
(7) to maintain altitude during a turn a angle of attack must be increased to compensate for the
decrease in the?
-- vertical component of lift.
(8) the cg of the a/c can be determined by which of the following methods?
-- dividing total moment with total weight.
(9) the cg of an a/c may be determined by ?
-- divide total moment with total weight .
(10) befor begining any flight under ifr the pic must become familier with all avilable information
concerning that flight in addition to pilot must?
-- be familier with the runway length at airport of intended use and the alternative available if the flight
cannot be completed.
(11) befor begining any flight under ifr the pic must become familier with all avilable information
concerning that flight in addition to pilot must?
-- be familier with the runway length at airport of intended , weather reports, fuel requirments and the
alternative available if the plan flight cannot be completed.

navigation 40
(1) page no 8-32 ques no 8-52.
(2) page 9-11
(3) page 9-17
(4)vor means - very high omnidirectional range.
(5) vor frequiency - 108-117.95
(6) vor transmits what kind of beams ?
-- radials
(7)cdi deflected 3 dot to the right and your vor indicator and your heading indicator is in disired cource
where is your desired cource?
-- 6 degree right .
(8) advantages of vhf frequincy used in vor ?
--
(9) navigation capability of a vor and dme provides
-- position and distance.
(10) what kind of adf 0 degree nose of a/c will indicate --
-- fixed record.
(11) why is it important to set your vor to generall degree with your indicated cource?
--- proceed vor station.
(12) ndb station brings a/c to?
-- relative bearing
(13) heading has magnetic compass indication means?
-- magnetic heading
(14) what are the 3 kind of vor?
-- low high and treminal
(15) ADF reciever signals what kind of signals?
-- NBD/AM
(16) what are the 2 types of adf?
-- ndb-senses.
(17) a procedure to find your position of a/c in air by using to vor?
-- cross fixing .
(18) what is the relative bearing on ADF in class a airport heading 50
-- relative bearing = o degree ; magnetic bearing = 50 degree.
(19) short directional point measured in clock wise in degree from any ------------- point?
-- bearing

operation procedure 20

(1) when operating an a/c in the vicinity of an airport with the visinity of an airport with an
operating control tower in class E airspace a pilot must establish commuctions prior to ?
--- 4nm and upto and including 2500 ft agl.
(2) if a flight is made from an area of low preasure into an area of high preasure without
the altimeter setting being adjusted the altimeter will indicate .
-- lower than the actuall altitude above sea leval.
(3) what must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
-- induced drag decreasses, therefore, any access speed at a point of flair may cause considrable
floating.
(4) select the 4 flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an a/c?
-- streight and level flight,turns,climbs,decents.

(5) when taxing with strong quartering tail winds,which aileron position slould be used.
-- aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
(6) which aileron position should a pilot generally use when taxing in strong quartering head winds?
-- aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
(7) when approching to land at an a/p with an atc facility in class D airspace the pilot must
establish communication prior to ?
-- 4 nm and upto and including 2500 ft agl.
(8) which is true regarding flight operations to or from a setellite airpor with out an operating
control tower with in the class C airspace area?
-- aircraft must equiped with an atc transponder.
(9) which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport with out an operating
control tower with in the class C airspace area?
-- prior to entering the airspace a pilot must etablish and maintain communication with the atc
serving facility.
(10) when planning a night cross country flight a pilot should check for the avilablity and the
status of ?
-- destination airport lighting system.
(11) which type of approch and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?
-- a power on approch and power on landing .
(12) a pilot is entering a area wher significant clear air turbulance has been reported. which
action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple?
-- adjust airspeed to that recomended for rough air.
(13) if severe turbulance is encountered during flight the pilot should reduce the airspeed to?
--- design maneuvaring speed .
(14) frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing will usually cause ?
--- the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal.
(15) which is the best techniqe for minimizing the wing load factor when flying in severe turbulance ?
--- set power and trim to obtain airspeed at or below meneuvering speed, maintain wing level and
accept variation of airspeed and altitude.
(16) which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulance if a large jet crosses your course
from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
--- make sure you are slihtly above the path of the jet.
17) after experincing a power plant failure at night one of the primary considration sld include?
-- planning the emergency approch and landing to a un lighted portion of an area .
18) when diverting to an alternate airport bcoz of an immergency pilot sld ?
-- apply rule of thumb computation estimate an other appropriate shortcut to divert to new cource as
soon as possible.

THEORY OF FLIGHT 20
(1) a turn coardinator provides as indication of the ?
- movement of the a/c about the yaw and the roll axis.
(2) the proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator duing level flight is to
allign the ?
- minature airplane to the horizantal bar .
(3) how sld a pilot determine the direction of bank from an altitude indicator such as the
one illustrated ? 2-21
-- by the relationship of the minature airplane ( c)
to the deflaection hirizon bar (b)
(4) one of the main function of flaps using approch and landing is to ?
-- increase the angle of desent and without increasing the airspeed.
(5) the angle of attack at which an airplane wing stall will?
-- remain the same regardless of gross weight.
(6) when does ( p) factor cause the airspeed to yaw to the left ?
-- when at high angle of attack .
(7) what factor makes an airplane turn?
-- the horizantal component lift.
8) the wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding
wake turbulance on landing is ?
-- light quartaing tailwind.
9) when landing behind an large aircraft the pilot should avoid wake turbulance by staying ?
-- above the large a/c final approch path and landing beyond the large a/c touch down point.
10) 360 turn = 2 mins
(11) stall speed effected by ?
-- weight,load factor and power.
12) engine failure at airbourne = maintain glide speed .
(13) airplane wing loading during a level coorinated turn in smooth air depends upon the?
-- angle of bank.
(14) in theory of the air speed of the airplane is doubled while in level flight parasite drag
will become?
--- 4 times greater.
(15) which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turn?
-- the raising of flaps inc the stall speed.
(16) to inc the rate of turn and at the same time decrese the radius pilot should?
--- increase the bank and decrease air speed .
17) to maintain altitude during a turn the angle of attack must be increased to compansate for
the decrease in the ?
-- vertical component of lift.
(18) recovery from stall in any aeroplane becomes more difficult when it is?
-- center of gravity move aft.
(19) if airspeed is increased during a level turn what action would be necessary to maintain
altitute? angle of attack ?
-- must be decreased or angle of bank increased.
(20) the stalling speed of an airplane is most effected by ?
-- varition in airplane loading.
(21) an airplane will stall at the same ?
-- angle of attck regardless of attitude with relation to the horizan.
22) during the transation from streight and level flight to a climb the angle of attack is
increased and lift?
--- is momentarally increased.
23) to generate the sme amount of lift as altitude is increased an airplane must be flown at?
--- higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.