PART I

For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the
answers, the word that is closest in meaning:

(1) RETROGRADE

(A) Progressive (B) inclined (C) concentric (D) directive (E) propel

(2) SALIENT

(A) insignificant (B) climatic (C) pure (D) radical (E) time-consuming

(3) TENDER

(A) demote (B) truncate (C) retract (D) soft (E) tumultuous

(4) TRANSIENT

(A) carrying (B) certain (C) permanent (D) removed (E)confiscate

(5) WHIMSICAL

(A) Chivalrous (B) perfect (C) predictable (D) hidden (E) specify

(6) RUPTURE

(A) break (B) continue (C)enthusiasm (D) happiness (E) clarity

(7) REVOCABLE

(A) alterable (B)awakened (C) final (D) called upon (E) splendour

(8) SLUMP

(A) calm (B) safe (C) prosperous (D) waste (E) mountain

(9) TRANSLUCENT

(A) clear (B) opaque (C) movement (D) efficient (E) telepathy

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(10) DANGLE

(A) sound (B) ornament (C) small (D) secure (E) detour

each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the
closest word that has the opposite meaning:

(11) INURED

(A) authoritative (B)dissolute (C)bereft (D) sensitive (E)taxing

(12) IRASCIBLE

(A) even-tempered (B)well-informed (C)repetitious (D)motionless

(E)synchronous

(13) EXONERATE

(A) testify (B)engender (C)accuse (D)inundate (E)abrogate

(14) ALACRITY

(A) Skullduggery (B) reluctance (C) interment (D) bellicosity (E)

specificity

(15) REVERE

(A) Collide (B) succumb (C) threaten (D) divide (E) despise

(16) BOORISH

(A) juvenile (B)well-mannered (C)weak-minded (D)unique

(E)concealed

(17) WHIMSICAL

(A) chivalrous (B)perfect (C)predictable (D) hidden (E)backward

(18) NASCENT

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(A) fully developed (B)extremely valuable (C)well-regarded
(D)informative (E)measurable

(19) EXTRANEOUS

(A) outlandish (B)tumultuous (C)impetuous (D)central (E)guarded

(20) RENOWN

(A) suggestiveness (B) superficially (C) anonymity (D)deviousness

(E)valour

Read the following text. The passage contains some blank spaces.
Choose the sentence from the list A – I, that best fits in each of the blank
spaces. The numbers in brackets refer to Question numbers.

Desertification in the arid United states is flagrant.______G_______.

Whole river systems have dried up; others are choked with sediment washed
from denuded land. Hundreds of thousands of acres of previously irrigated
cropland have been abandoned to wind or weeds. ______E_________. All
told, about 225 million acres of land are undergoing severe desertification.

Federal subsides encourage the exploitation of arid land

resources.____H_______. Federal disaster relief and commodity programs
encourage arid land farmers to plow up natural grassland to plant crops such
as wheat and, especially, cotton. _____A______. The market, too, provides
powerful incentives to exploit arid land resources beyond their carrying
capacity. When commodity prices are high relative to the farmer’s or
rancher’s operating costs, the return on a production enhancing investment is
invariably greater than the return on conservation investment. ___B______

If the United States is, as it appears, well on its way towards overdrawing
the arid land resources ____D______ when productive benefits from arid-
land resources have been both realized and largely terminated.

A. Federal grazing fees that are well below the free market price
encourage overgrazing of the commons

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 B. And when commodity prices are relatively low, arid-land ranchers and
farmers often have to use all their available financial resources to stay
solvent
C. Government Programs provide irrigation and water delivery system
………
D. Then the policy choice is simply to pay now for the appropriate
remedies or pay far moiré later
E. Several million acres of natural grassland are eroding at unnaturally
high rates as a result of cultivation or overgrazing.
F. Policies help the farmers to obtain loans for their crops
G. Groundwater supplies beneath vast stretches of land are dropping
precipitously.
H. Low interest loans for irrigation and other water delivery systems
encourage farmers, industry, and municipalities to mine groundwater.
I. It is still the case that those who ultimately benefit from affirmative
action.

Of the 197 millions square miles making up the surface of the globe, 71
percent covered by the interconnecting bodies of marine water; the Pacific
Ocean alone covers half of the Earth and averages nearly 14,000 feet in
depth. The continents- Eurasia, Africa, North America, South America,
Australia, and Antarctica- are the portions of the continental masses rising
above sea level. The submerged borders of the continental masses are the
continental shelves, beyond which lie the deep-sea basins.

The oceans attain their greatest depths not in their central parts, but in
certain elongated furrows, or long narrow troughs called deeps. These
profound troughs have a peripheral arrangement, notably around the borders
of the Pacific and Indian Oceans. The position of the deeps near the
continental masses suggests that the deeps, like the highest mountains, are of
recent origin, since otherwise they would have been filled with waste from
lands. This suggestion is strengthened by the fact that the deeps are
frequently the sites of world-shaking earthquakes. For example the “tidal
wave” that in April, 1946, caused widespread destruction along Pacific
coasts resulted from a strong earthquake on the floor of the Aleutian Deep.

The topography of the ocean floors is none too well known, since in great
areas the available soundings are hundreds or even thousands of miles apart.

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However, the floor of the Atlantic is becoming fairy well known as a result
of special surveys since 1920. A broad, well-defined ridge- the Mid –
Atlantic ridge- runs north and the south between Africa and the two
Americas, and numerous other major irregularities diversify the Atlantic
floor. Closely spaced surroundings show that many parts of the oceanic
floors are as rugged as mountainous regions of the continents. Use of the
recently perfected methods of echo sounding is rapidly enlarging our
knowledge of submarine topography. During World War II great strides
were made in mapping submarine surfaces, particularly in many parts of the
vast Pacific basin.

The continents stand on the average 2870 feet-slightly more than the half
a mile- above sea level. North America averages 2300 feet: Europe averages
only 1150 feet; and Asia, the highest of the larger continental sub divisions,
averages 3200 feet. The highest point on the globe Mount Everest in the
Himalayas, is 29,000 feet above the sea; and as the greatest known depth in
the sea is over 35,000 feet, the maximum relief(that is, the difference in
altitude between the lowest and highest points) exceeds 64,000 feet, or
exceeds 12 miles. The continental masses and the deep-sea basins are relief
features of the first order; the deeps, ridges, and volcanic cones that diversify
the sea floor as well as the plains, plateaus, and mountains of the continents,
are relief features of the second order. The lands are unendingly subject to a
complex of activities summarized in the term erosion, which first sculptures
them in great details and then tends to reduce them ultimately to sea level.
The modeling of the landscape by weather, running water and other agents is
apparent to the keenly observant eye and causes thinking people to speculate
on what must be the final result of the ceaseless wearing down of the lands.
Long before there was a science of geology, Shakespeare wrote “ the
revolution of the times makes mountains level”.

(27) Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the
passage?

(A) Features of the Earth’s Surface.

(B)Marine Topography
(C)The Causes of Earthquakes.
(D) Primary Geologic Considerations.
(E)How to prevent Erosion.

(28) It can be inferred from the passage that the largest ocean is the

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 (A)Atlantic
(B)Pacific
(C)Indian
(D)Antarctic
(E) Arctic

(29) The “revolution of the times” as used in the final sentence means.

(A)The passage of years

(B)The current rebellion
(C)The science of geology.
(D)The action of the ocean floor
(E) The overthrow of natural forces.

(30) According to the passage, the peripheral furrows or deeps are found.

(A) Only in the Pacific and Indian oceans

(B)Near earthquakes
(C) Near the shore
(D) In the center of the ocean
(E)To be 14,000 feet in depths in the Pacific,

(31) The passage contains information that would answer which of the
following questions?

I. What is the highest point on North America?

II. Which continental subdivision is, on the average, 1150 feet above the
sea level?
III. How deep is the deepest part of the ocean?

(A)I only
(B)II only
(C)III only
(D)I and II only
(E)II and III only

(32) From this passage, it can be inferred that earthquakes

(A) Occur only in the peripheral furrows.

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 (B)Occurs more frequently in newly formed land or sea formations
(C)Are a prime cause of soil erosion
(D) Will ultimately “make mountain level”
(E)Are caused by the weight of the water.

PART II

Q1. Fill in the missing number in the sequence

8 9 10 11 13 ?? 17 18

(a)12 (b) 23 (c) 14 (d)16 (e)25

Q2. In the following series, how many Vs are there such that each V is
followed by an F next to it if the F is not followed by a S next to
it.

V F V S Q M V F S M F V F F V Q M
V

V F Q V F S F V A M F V F M

(a)5 (b)6 (c)7 (d)4 (e)3

Q3. If CHQLWK is coded as ZENITH how will FRYHU be coded?

(a)SHEET (b)TRIAL (c) COVER (d)MIND (e)CIGAR

Q4. Suppose the first and second letters in the word PSYCHIATRIST
were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth
etc. Print the letter that would then be the eighth letter counting from
the right.
(a) T (b) I (c) Y (d) C (e)
S

Q5. How would the decimal number 222 be represented in a base -5

number System?
(a) 1234 (b) 1324 (c) 1342 (d) 1568
(e) 1452

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Q6. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 9-bit word
computer?
(a) 513 (b) 511 (c) 517 (d) 509
(e) 499

Q7. If n = 10 x 18 x 26, which of the following is NOT an integer?

(a) n / 130 (b) n / 38 (c) n / 45

(d) n / 78 (e) n / 20

Q8. Which of the following is a power of 4?

a. 4148 b. 4048 c. 4198

d. 4244 e. 4096

Pick the odd one out

Q9. (a) ORACLE (b) INGRESS (c) WAP

(d) DB2 (e) SYBASE

Q10. (a) UNIX (b) WINDOWS NT (c)LINUX

(d) MVS (e) JAVA

Q11. The three numbers in brackets represent the angles of a triangle.

Which of these does not represent a proper triangle?
(a) (30º,71º,79º)(b) (60º,90º,30º)(c) (73º,67º,40º)
(d) (70º,60º,50º)(e) (80º,55º,55º)

Q12. The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options

represents the number of edges ,the number of vertices and the
number of faces respectively. Find out which of these represents a
solid planar cube?
(a) (8,8,6) (b) (8,6,4) (c) (12,8,6) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (4,6,8)

Q13. Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?

(a) 5, -5, 5, -5, 5, -5 (b) 5, 0, -5, 5, 0, -5 (c) 5, 5, 5, 0, 5, 5
(d) 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5 (e) -5, -5, -5, -5, -5, -5

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 The three circles below represent the number of people who play
CRICKET, FOOTBALL, HOCKEY. Answer the next three questions

14
45 49
CRICKET HOCKEY
12
16 13

51
FOOTBALL

based on the diagram

Q14. How many more (or less) people who play HOCKEY than people
who play CRICKET?
(a)2 (b)5 (c)1 (d)7 (e)3

Q15. What percentage of people playing FOOTBALL also play CRICKET

but not HOCKEY?
(a)14 (b)10 (c)12.4 (d) 17.4 (e) 13.6

Q16. What percentage of total people plays all three games?

(a)8 (b)5 (c)6 (d)9 (e)10

The figure on the left represents number of members in a Social

Group and the figure on the right depicts profession wise distribution
for 1998
140

120 Executives
12%
100
Others
80 8%
Businessmen
60
55%
Members (in "00s) 40 Doctors
25%
20
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0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17. Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in
members?
(a) 1564 (b) 1996 (c) 1998 (d) 1994 (e) 2004

Q18. What are the average members for 1995-1999?

(a) 7800 (b) 6800 (c) 8800 (d) 5600 (e) 7600

Q19. If 10% of members in 1998 left the Social Group, how many fresh
members were made in 1999?
(a) 3400 (b) 4900 (c) 5600 (d) 6800 (e) 4500

Q20. A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as

(Momentum X Velocity)
( Force X Time )

In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed?

(a)Time (b) Power (c) Velocity (d) Distance (e) None

Q21. A is twice as good a workmen as B and together they finish a piece of

work in 14 days. In how many days can A alone finish the work?
(a)22 (b)34 (c)21 (d)14 (e)16

Q22. Which of these matrices is singular

14 6 15 25 1 0 10
12
A= B= C= D=
4 3 3 5 1 2 3
4

(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e) None

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Q23. Match the following relationships:

(i) Male – Boy (1) Not a type of

(ii) Mushroom – Vegetable (2) Part of
(iii) Panda – Bear (3) A type of
(iv) Oxygen – Water (4) Superset of
(a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2 (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2 (c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3
(d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4 (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2

Q24. If % stands for reciprocal and # stands for doubling what is the value
of
% # % (11) + # % # (2)?
(a)3 (b)5 (c) 6 (d)7 (e)8

Q25. A sequence is defined recursively as

g(0) = 1; g(1) = -1
g(n) = 3 * g(n-1) – 2 * g(n-2), where * stands for multiplication
What will be the value of g(4)?
(a)34 (b)25 (c)-23 (d)-29(e)-34

Q26. What curve best suits the following data:

Y
X
0.99 0.00001
10.04 1.02
99.98 1.997
1000 3.0
9990 4.004

(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y =

- ex

Q27. A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly column-wise in a

computer's memory. Each element requires 8 bytes for storage of the
value. If the first byte address of X (1,1) is 1258, what would be the
last byte address of X(5, 8)?
(a) 1456 (b) 1564 (c) 1689 (d) 1456 (e) 1243

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Q28. Of the four straight lines A,B,C,D find out which pair forms an
orthogonal set

A: 3x+5y-7 = 0, B: y = -x , C: y = 7x+3, D: 5x = 3y+5

(a)AD(b)AC(c)AB(d)BC(e)DB

Q29. Evaluate the expression

M(843,9) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where

M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and
T stands for Truncation Operation
(a)12 (b)18 (c) 16 (d)15 (e)14

Q30. Three independent mechanisms A, B and C have been incorporated

for fuel saving in a car producing respectively 40%, 20% and 10%
efficiency. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net
fuel efficiency achieved?
(a) 60.2% (b) 34.6% (c) 56.4% (d) 56.8% (e) 54.6%

Q31. The log values of two numbers to the base 10 are given as below:

X log10X
3.142 0.4972061807
3.143 0.4973443810

Find log103.141.

(a) 0.49706 (b) 0.59720 (c) 0.49110 (d) 0.49420 (e) 0.49440

Q32. What equation best describes the curve shown below:

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 Y

0.5

0 X
100 200
-0.5

-1 + x = 0 (d) y = Cos x
(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x(c)y (e) y = ex

Q33. The temperature at Chennai is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12

where t is the elapsed time since midnight. What is the percentage rise
(or fall) in temperature between 4.00 PM and 9.00 PM?
(a) 23.5% (b) 33% (c)-32.5% (d) 20% (e) 46%

Q34. An aircraft takes off from A (89o N Lat, 10o E Long) at 2.00 AM local
time to B (32o N Lat, 70o W Long). If the flying time is 10 hours what
is the local time of landing at B?
(a) 5.40 AM (b) 4.00 AM (c) 6.40 AM (d) 7.00AM (e) 8.00AM

Q35. Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:

A 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1
B 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1
C 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
(A − B ) ∩
C

Interpret the resulting bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer and

write the decimal value.
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 9

Q36. A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size
of the bucket is 10 kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of
0.0001 kilobytes per millisecond. The transmission time from sender
to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the
bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches sender in

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 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission, write a
formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully
complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N(c) 11.01 N (d) 10.011 N(e)10.101 N

Q37. The storage space required is given by the function P(N) = 4000 √N,
where N is the number of boxes used. Find the percentage change in
storage if the number of boxes is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.75% (b) 0.25% (c) 0.5% (d) 1% (e) 2%

Q38. A optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of

a river 900 meters wide to an office that is located 3000 meters
downstream on the opposite bank. If the cost of laying cable under water
is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter,
find the point downstream where the cable is to cut across the river.
(a) 450 (b) 3900 (c) 1800 (d) 2100 (e) 2700

END OF PART II

PART III

Read the following passages and answer questions under each passage

(16) John is undecided which of the 4 popular novels to buy. He is

considering a spy thriller, a murder mystery, a Gothis romance and a science
fiction novel. The books are written by Rothko, Gorky, Burchfield and
Hopper, not necessarily in that order and published by Heron, Pigeon, Bluejay
and Sparrow, not necessarily in that order.

1. The book by Rothko is published by Sparrow.

2. The spy thriller is published by Herono
3. The science fiction novel is by Buchfield and is not published by Bluejay
4. The Gothic romance is by Hopper.

1. Pigeon publishes:

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(A) The murder mystery
(B) The science fiction novel
(C) The spy thriller
(D) The Gothic romance
(E) The novel by Rothko

2. The novel by Gorky is:

(A) A science fiction novel published by Bluejay

(B) A Gothic romance published by Bluejay
(C) published by Heron and is a murder mystery
(D) published by Pigeon and is a Gothic romance
(E) published by Heron and is a spy thriller

3. John purchases books by the 2 authors whose names come first and third
in alphabetical order. He does not buy:

(A) the murder mystery

(B) the book published by Pigeon
(C) A science fiction novel
(D) the book published by Bluejay
(E) the Gothic romance

4. On the basis of the first paragraphs and statements (2), (3), and (4) only , it
is possible to deduce that

I. Rothko wrote the murder mystery or the spy thriller

I. Sparrow published the murder mystery or the spy thriller
II. The book by Burchfield is published by Sparrow or Pigeon

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III

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(2) On Sunday, December 23, four ships were berthed at the New York City
Municipal Pier at West 55 Street. All four ships were beginning their series of
winter cruises to various ports in the Atlantic and the Caribbean.

Ship W left at 4 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of 8 day cruises to
Bermuda and Nassau.
Ship X left at 4:30 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of alternating
11 and 13 day cruises.
Ship Y sailed at 5 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of 5 day cruises
to Bermuda
Ship Z sailed on Monday, December 24, for a series of 7 day cruises to
Nassau.

Each cruise officially begins on the day after the departure. Each ship is
scheduled to return to New York City early in the morning after the last day of
the cruise and leave again late in the afternoon of the same day.

1. On December 31, which ships will be sailing from New York on a New
Year’s Eve cruise?

(A) W and X
(B) X and Y
(C) W and Z
(D) X and Z
(E) X, Y and Z

2. On how many occasions between Dec. 24 and Feb. 28 will 3 ships be

moored at the pier?

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4

3. On which day of the week will these four ships make most of their
departures?

(A) Sunday
(B) Monday

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(C) Tuesday
(D) Thursday
(E) Saturday

4.On which days of the week in the period between Dec.24 and Feb. 28 will
the pier be least crowded?

(A) Tuesday and Friday

(B) Tuesday and Thursday
(C) Friday and Saturday
(D) Wednesday and Thursday
(E) Thursday and Saturday

(3) Observance of Memorial Day, which falls on Saturday this year will be as
follows for the tristate area (New Albion, New Shetland, New Wales):

Banks and government departments which are normally open on Saturdays

will close.
Those normally closed on Saturdays will close as follows:

Banks will close Friday in Wales and Monday in New Shetland.

State government offices will close Friday in New Albion and New Shetland.
Sanitation pick up in Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up areas will be
cancelled Friday in New Albion and New Shetland, and Monday in New
Wales; pick up in Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday in all three states.

The post office and other federal offices, normally open Monday through
Saturday, will be closed Saturday but open Friday and Monday in all three
states.

(Banks are normally open Saturday only in New Albion; state government
offices are normally open Saturday only in Wales.

1. Which is not available Friday, Saturday, or Monday in New Wales?

(A) Banking services

(B) State government office services
(C) Sanitation pickup in some areas

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(D) Postal services
(E) Federal government office services.

2. Mrs. Semkow goes to the post office, the bank and the state income tax
bureau on Monday. She mat live in:

I. New Albion
II. New Shetland
III. New Wales

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II or III

3. Mr. Rudolph find all but one of the listed services available Friday. He lives
in:

(A) New Albion or New Shetland

(B) A Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up area in New Wales
(C) Any new area in New Albion or New Wales
(D) A Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday pick up area in any of the other three
states
(E) A Monday-Wednesday-Friday area in New Albion

4.In which area(s) is there no deviation from normal service on Monday for
any of the services listed?

(A) All of New Albion

(B) Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up areas in New Albion and New
Wales
(C) Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday pick up areas in New Shetland and New
Wales
(D) All of New Wales
(E) Monday-Wednesday-Friday areas in New Shetland

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