MCQ 2

1. Features of pemphigus vulgaris

i. Subepithelial bullae
ii. intraepithelial bullae
iii.Tzanck Cells in vesicles
iv. Reaction by IgG autoantibodies against intercellular antigen
v. Reaction by IgG autoantibodies against basement membrane antigen
A. i, ii, v
B. i, iii, v
C. ii, iii, iv
D. iii, iv, v
E. iv, v

2. Features of oral melanoma EXCEPT

A. surgery remain primary mode of treatment.
B. Oral lesion have better prognosis than cutaneous lesion
C. palate and gingiva are high risk site
D. children are rarely affected
E. May initially have a relatively innocuous appearance.

5. The following are clinical features seen in McCune Albright syndrome, EXCEPT
A. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
B. Cafe au lait spots on oral mucosa
C. Hypodontia
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Precocious puberty

6. Which of the following benign fibrous osseos lesion usually had poorly defined radiograpgic shape and
border that blends with normal bone
A. Periapical cemental dysplasia
B. Florid cemento osseos dysplasia
C. Focal cemento osseos dysplasia
D. Cemento ossifying fibroma
E. Craniofacial fibrous dysplasia

10. compound odontoma differ from complex odontoma in the former :

A. is composed of tooth like structure
B. has unlimited growth potential
C. is composed of primarily pulp tissue
D. is located in posterior mandible (answer)
E. never be lined by capsule

PREPARED BY SUNSHINES 14/15

11. minimum incision of normal tissue that needed in surgical excision is
A. 0.5 cm
B. 1.0 cm
C. 1.5 cm
D. 2.0 cm
E. 3.0 cm

13. TNM staging for primary tumour. What mean by T2

A. Tumour 2 cm in greatest dimension
B. Tumour greater than 2cm but less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
C. Tumour greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
D. Tumour

14. What mean by Radical Neck Dissection

A. The removal of all lymph node group from level I-V with sacrifice of internal jagular vein,
strenocleidomastoid muscle, and spinal nerve injury

16. Segmental resection of mandible refers to :

A. Resection with disruption of continuity of bone.
B. Resection by removing full thickness of part of mandible.
C. Resection with removal of lymphnodes.
D. Resection woth removal of lymphnodes and adjunct soft tissues.
E. Resection with 1/2 of mandible

17. restoration in permanent teeth

I. unfilled composite can be placed in pit and fissure
II amalgam must be placed in proximal cavity only
III. bitewing radiograph are helpful in identifying teeth with proximal caries.
IV. early clinical investigation of the stained fissure can assist to conserve the tooth.
V. proximal caries is easy to diagnose clinically.
A. I,II,III
B. I,III,IV
C. II,III,IV
D. III,IV,V
E. All of the above

18. The success of sealant mainly depend on

A. proper washing of occlusal surface
B. etching
C. proper isolation
D. proper washing of etching
E. use of bonding agent

PREPARED BY SUNSHINES 14/15

19. The following are TRUE regarding types of dental trauma EXCEPT:
A. Complicated crown fracture refers to enamel and dentine fracture involving the pulp.
B. subluxation refers to injury to the tooth-supporting structure with abnormal loosening but with
displacement.
C. Root fracture refers to dentine and cementum fracture involving the pulp.
D. intursion refers to apical displacement into alveolar bone
E. avulsion refers to complete displacement out of socket

25.Enamel pearl :
A.consists of enamel,dentin,cementum and pulp
B. tumour of external enamel epithelium
C. droplets of enamel
D.
E.

26. Interpretaion of 'false negative' EXCEPT ,

A.incomplete contact of electrode
B.wet surface
C.calcified canal
D.open apex
E.traumatic teeth

27. following statement regarding ameloblastoma

a)it is a multilocular cyst like radiolucency may resemble fibromyxoma
b)never cause buccal lingual expansion
c)will not cause displacement of neurovascular bundle at the inferior border
d)plexiform type are more common
e) cant involve soft tissue if left untreated

29. nerve affected in fractured of body of mandible in between 45 & 46

a)chorda tympani
b)long buccal
c)lingual nerve
d)hypoglossal nerve
e)mental nerve

38. which of the following periapical radiopacities associated with non vital teeth?
A. periapical cemental dysplasia
B. condensing osteitis
C. Osteosclerosis
D. cementoblastoma
E. odontoma

PREPARED BY SUNSHINES 14/15

39. The following are signs of left condylar fracture EXCEPT
A. left ear bleed
B. limited mouth opening
C deviation to the right upon opening
D. right open bite
E. tender on left pre tragal area.

40. Ideal Timing for splinting of traumatic teeth

i. instrussive luxation 2 weeks,
ii.extrusive luxation,
iii. root fracture(middle 3rd) 4 weeks
iv. dento alveolar fracture 4 weeks

41.Which of the following clinical sign is NOT associated with mandibular fracture?
A.sublingual hematoma
B. Step deformities
C.Limited mouth opening
D. Bleeding surrounding ear
E.Guerin sign

42. in cpr,the sternum of patient is depressed

A. 1.5-2cm
B. 4-5cm
C. 6-8cm
D. 8-9cm
E. 9-10 cm

43. best radiographic view that aids in diagnosis of condyle fracture

a) reverse town's view
b)pa mandible
c) left oblique view
d) dental panoramic view
e) lower occlusal view

44. What is suitable media for avulsed tooth?

i.saliva
ii.saline
iii.water
iv.milk

PREPARED BY SUNSHINES 14/15

45.66 yrs old pt come to clinic with history of Insulin dependent diabetis mellitu IDDM loss conciousness
during dental tx.what is most likely
A. addison's crisis
B. anaphylaxis
C. hyperglycaemic
D. vasovagal reflex
E. hypoglycaemic

PREPARED BY SUNSHINES 14/15