The UPSC CBRT Computer Based Recruitment Test for the post of Assistant

Labour Commissioner: Powered by upsc.smartstudy.co.in

Your answers are shown below:

1. Which one of the following explanations is indicated by the term welfare as a total concept?

It is a desirable state of existence involving physical, mental, moral and emotional well-being
It is the welfare of man, his family and community
It is contingent upon time and space
It demands certain minimum acceptable conditions of existence, biologically and socially

Question was not answered

2. Atonement and Investment are two co-equal aspects of which one of the following labour welfare theory?

The Philanthropic theory

The Placating theory
The Public Relations theory
The Religious theory

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Question was not answered

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3. The first Factories Act for India was enacted in the year

1948

y.
1881
1911
ud
1891

Question was not answered

t
ts

4. Which one of the following statements with regard to the provision for Welfare Officer is NOT correct

This provision is given in the Factories Act 1948

ar

This provision, in case of Mines and Plantations, is given in the central rules of these two Acts but not in the main Acts
For factories and plantations this provision is applicable when 500 or more workers are employed
m

In mines this provision is made applicable when 500 or more workers are employed
.s

Question was not answered

sc

5. Which one of the following is NOT a welfare measure under the Factories Act 1948?

Drinking water
up

Crches
First aid
Canteen

Question was not answered

6. Under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act 1961, what is the amount of medical bonus paid?

Rs. 1,000
Rs. 2500
Rs. 3,000
Rs. 3500

Question was not answered

7. Under the Maternity Benefit Act 1961, what is the minimum number of days a woman employee must have worked under an
employer in the twelve months preceding the date of expected delivery for becoming eligible for maternity benefit?

90 days
80 days
180 days
 240 days

Question was not answered

8. Under the provisions of the Employees Compensation Act 1923, what will be the amount of compensation payable to an
employee suffering from permanent total disability with his monthly salary drawn Rs. 15,800 and the relevant factor 181.37?

Rs. 7,75,376
Rs. 5,40,000
Rs. 8,70,576
Rs. 1,40,000

Question was not answered

9. Who among the following is NOT a dependent under the provisions of the Employees Compensation Act 1923?

A widower
An adult widowed sister
A parent other than a widowed mother
A widowed daughter in law

Question was not answered

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10. Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Medical Benefit Council constituted under the Employees
Insurance Act 1948?

co
The Director General, Health Services, Government of India
The Medical Commissioner of the Employees State Insurance Corporation
The Director General, Employees State Insurance Corporation

y.
Chairman, Medical Council of India
ud
Question was not answered

11. Under the provisions of the Maternity Benefits Act 1961, every women employee after delivery of a child who returns to duty
t
is to be provided with nursing breaks till the child attains the age of:
ts

12 months
ar

15 months
10 months
18 months
m

Question was not answered

.s

12. Which one of the following statements about industrial relations is NOT correct?
sc

Industrial relations have to be managed in the interest of maintaining a viable collaborative structure
Formulation of rules by consensus and their implementation are core to industrial relations
up

The pluralistic framework looks employee participation in industrial relations from a disintegrative perspective
The radicalists consider industrial relations in a distributive sense

Question was not answered

13. Which one of the following is NOT a logic of industrial relations?

The logic of conflict

The logic of competition
The logic of industrial peace
The logic of employment income protection

Question was not answered

14. What is a Wild Cat strike?

Strike called by the workers with the support of union with notice to the employer
Strike called by a group of workers on the spur of the moment without any formal notice to the employer and consent
from the union
Strike called by the union without resorting to strike ballot
Strike called by non-unionised workers, even if notice is given to the employer
Question was not answered

15. Which one of the following is a jurisdictional strike?

Two unions claiming the office space conduct strike

Two unions conduct strike for registration with the same name
Two unions may claim to represent the same set of workers and may clamour for recognition on this claim and go for
a strike to pressurize the management
Two unions claiming possession of a common seal go for strike to elicit the support of workers

Question was not answered

16. What is yellow dog contract?

A contract where a union agrees to inform the employer about the possible strike by a rival union
When Management secures an agreement from the workman that he will not join a union during the course of his
employment
An unwritten contract with the employer, where a faction of the union acts as a whistle blower
The employer promotes a pocket union by entering into an agreement with the trade union

Question was not answered

17. The Institution of Voluntary Arbitration as a method of settling industrial disputes was strongly favoured by:

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Gulzari Lal Nanda
V V Giri

co
Lala Lajpat Rai
Mahatma Gandhi

y.
Question was not answered
ud
18. The Industrial Disputes Bill 1947 observed that industrial peace will be most enduring where it is founded on voluntary
settlement. Which one of the following machineries under the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 was created for this purpose?
t
Works Committee
ts

Board of Conciliation
Court of Enquiry
ar

Labour Court

Question was not answered

m

19. In India, which one of the following systems prevails in respect of adjudication in industrial disputes?
.s

Voluntary reference and voluntary acceptance of the award

sc

Voluntary reference but compulsory acceptance of the award

Compulsory reference but voluntary acceptance of the award
Discretionary reference and compulsory acceptance of the award
up

Question was not answered

20. In India which one of the following bodies was created particularly to focus on social and labour issues arising out of
economic reforms in 1991?

Joint Consultation Board

National Apex Body
Special Tripartite Committee
Standing Labour Committee

Question was not answered

21. Which one of the following was NOT recommended by the Second National Commission on Labour?

Labour Management Relations Law consolidating the relevant laws be enacted

Go Slow and Work to Rule be regarded as misconducts
Strike Ballot for public utility services
All the three methods of union recognition namely Membership verification, Secret Ballot, and Check-Off be the basis
for choosing a bargaining agent
Question was not answered

22. The view that people can learn through observation and direct experience is associated with which one of the following
theories of learning?

Social learning
Operant conditioning
Reinforcement
Classical conditioning

Question was not answered

23. Employees belief in the degree to which they affect their work environment, their competence, the meaningfulness of their
job and their perceived autonomy in their work indicates:

Organisational commitment
Psychological empowerment
Affective commitment
Job satisfaction

Question was not answered

24. The tendency of individuals to attribute their own success to internal factors and put the blame for failures on external

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factors indicates

Fundamental attribution error

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Self-serving bias
Selective perception
Contrast effects

Question was not answered

y.
ud
25. Intuitive decision making means:
t
a non-conscious process created out of distilled experience.
ts

making decisions by constructing simplified models without capturing complexity

behaving in such a way so as to maximize output
ar

developing alternatives consciously.

Question was not answered

m

26. A group, whose efforts result in performance that is greater than the sum of the individual inputs, is called:
.s

Work Group.
sc

Work Team.
Virtual Team.
Self-managed Group.
up

Question was not answered

27. The concept that a subordinate should have only one superior to whom he or she is directly responsible is known as:

Span of control.
Unity of command.
Chain of command.
Authority control

Question was not answered

28. Which one of the following appraisal methods combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents and quantified scales by
assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance?

Forced distribution
Alternation ranking
Behaviourally anchored rating scale
Graphic rating scale

Question was not answered

29. Which one of the following demographic characteristics reflects surface-level diversity?

Differences in value
Ethnicity
Personality
Work preferences

Question was not answered

30. A SMART mnemomic criterion is used in:

Selection process.
Job rotation.
Performance management
Compensation management.

Question was not answered

31. Outplacement is the process of:

removal of employees from the job.

transferring the employee out of the country.
helping redundant employees to find new job.

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sending the employee on deputation to other organizations.

Question was not answered

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32. The principles of natural justice have emanated from:

y.
religious doctrines.
constitutional law.
ud
common law
social norms
t
Question was not answered
ts

33. If an aggrieved employee is NOT satisfied with the proceedings of the enquiry, he may ask for:
ar

ex-parte enquiry
de-novo enquiry
m

legal enquiry
domestic enquiry
.s

Question was not answered

sc

34. In case of disciplinary action, the principles of natural justice have given rise to which one of the following procedural
safeguards?
up

Charge-Sheet
Punishment without enquiry
Disproportionate punishment
First information report

Question was not answered

35. Audi alteram partem is associated with:

Strikes
Disciplinary Action
Trade Union
Closure

Question was not answered

36. Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act 1926, what is the maximum time period for which the members of the executive
and other office bearers of a trade union shall be elected?

One Year
 Two Year
Four Year
Three Year

Question was not answered

37. Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act 1926, what is the minimum amount of subscription that can be fixed for the
members of a trade union of rural workers?

Three Rupees per annum

One Rupee per month
One rupee per annum
Six rupee per annum

Question was not answered

38. Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act 1926, ordinarily what is the minimum age a person should have attained to
become a member of a registered trade union?

Fourteen years
Fifteen years
Sixteen years
Eighteen years

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Question was not answered

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39. Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act 1926, what is the minimum number of members engaged in the establishment
as workmen required for registration of a trade union?

y.
Seven
One Hundred
ud
Ten percent of the total employees
Twenty one
t
Question was not answered
ts

40. Which one of the following can be considered a precursor of the Trade Union Movement in India?
ar

Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association

Madras Labour Union
m

Bombay Milihands Association

Kamgar Hitbardhak Sabha
.s

Question was not answered

sc

41. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of establishment of trade union federations in India starting with the
earliest?
up

INTUC, HMS, AITUC, CITU, BMS

AITUC, INTUC, HMS, BMS, CITU
AITUC, INTUC, BMS, CITU, HMS
INTUC, AITUC, BMS, HMS, CITU

Question was not answered

42. Who among the following was the first President of the All India Trade Union Congress?

Mahatma Gandhi
N M Joshi
Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
Lala Lajpat Rai

Question was not answered

43. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Council of Indian Employers (CIE) is NOT true?

It was formed in the year 1956

It unified the All India Organisation of Employers (AIOE) and the Employers Federation of India (EFI)
 The Standing Conference on Public Enterprises has not joined the CIE
The AIOE and EFI still retain their identity while sending equal number of representatives to the CIE

Question was not answered

44. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, the average pay for a monthly paid workman means the average
of the:

wages payable in six completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average pay becomes payable
wages payable in three completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average pay becomes
payable.
wages payable in four completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average pay becomes payable
wages payable in twelve completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average pay becomes payable

Question was not answered

45. What is the time period within which the Grievance Redressal Committee constituted under the provisions of the Industrial
Disputes Act 1947 is to complete its proceedings on receipt of a written application by or on behalf of the aggrieved party?

15 days
21 days
30 days
45 days

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Question was not answered

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46. Which one of the following statements as per the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 is NOT correct?

Court of Inquiry is constituted by the appropriate Government

y.
Conciliation officers for conciliating industrial disputes in Central Government Public Sector Undertakings are
appointed by the Central Government
ud
The National Tribunal is constituted by both the Central Government and State Governments
A Board of Conciliation consists of a Chairman and two or four Members, as the appropriate Government thinks fit
t
Question was not answered
ts

47. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, what is the time period within which the appropriate Government
ar

has to publish the award of a Labour Court, Industrial Tribunal and National Tribunal from the date of receipt of the same?

30 days
m

60 days
90 days
.s

45 days
sc

Question was not answered

48. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, which one of the following is considered to be retrenchment?
up

Voluntary retirement of a workman

Termination of services of a workman, otherwise than as punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action
Termination of service of workman on the ground of ill health
Termination of service of a workman as a result of non-renewal of contract of employment between the employer and
workman concerned on its expiry

Question was not answered

49. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, what is the time period within which if no communication has been
received by an employer in response to his application to the appropriate Government for retrenchment of workmen, then it will
be deemed that permission for retrenchment has been granted?

90 days
45 days
30 days
60 days

Question was not answered

50. The term Protected Workmen is defined in:

 Trade Union Act 1926.
Industrial Disputes Act 1947.
Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970.
Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act 1996.

Question was not answered

51. Which one of the following statements explains that a strike is legal under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act
1947?

A strike declared in consequence of an illegal lock-out

A strike declared during the pendency of conciliation proceedings before a Board and seven days after the conclusion
of such proceedings
A strike declared during any period in which a settlement or award is in operation in respect of any matter covered by
the settlement or award
A strike declared during pendency of proceedings before a Labour Court or Tribunal and two months after the
conclusion of such proceedings

Question was not answered

52. The provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936 shall be made applicable to an employed person drawing a monthly
wages NOT exceeding:

.in
Rs. 18000
Rs. 10000
Rs. 12000

co
Rs. 15000

Question was not answered

y.
53. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936, the total amount of fine that may be imposed in any one wage
ud
period on any employed person shall NOT exceed an amount equal to:

Four percent of wages

t
Five percent of wages
ts

Three percent of wages

Six percent of wages
ar

Question was not answered

m

54. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936, NO fine shall be imposed on any employed person who is under
the age of:
.s

15 years
sc

16 years
17 years
up

18 years

Question was not answered

55. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936, fine imposed on any employed person can NOT be recovered
after expiry of how many days from the day it was imposed?

100 days
90 days
120 days
180 days

Question was not answered

56. Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948, which one of the following is a component of Wages?

Value of house accommodation

Value of medical attendance
Travelling Allowance
House Rent Allowance

Question was not answered

57. What is the extent of representation of independent persons in the Committees and Sub-Committees constituted under the
provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948?

One half of the total members

One fourth of the total members
One third of the total members
Two thirds of the total members

Question was not answered

58. Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948, which one of the following bodies is appointed by the appropriate
Government for the purpose of coordinating the works of the Committees and Sub-Committees and for advising the appropriate
Government in matters of fixing and revising minimum wages?

State Advisory Council

Advisory Board
State Monitoring Authority
State Advisory and Monitoring Board

Question was not answered

59. Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948, who among the following can NOT be appointed as the Authority by
the appropriate Government to hear and decide any claims arising out of payment of less wages than the minimum rates of

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wage?

Labour Commissioner of a State Government

co
Regional Labour Commissioner (Central)
Commissioner for Workmens Compensation
Assistant Labour Commissioner (Central)

Question was not answered

y.
ud
60. Under the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970, how many members may be nominated by
the Central Government while constituting the Central Advisory Board?
t
ts

Not exceeding seventeen but not less than eleven

Not exceeding fifteen but not less than ten
ar

Not exceeding twenty but not less than fifteen

Not exceeding twelve but not less than seven
m

Question was not answered

.s

61. Under the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970, a contractor has to provide and maintain a
canteen wherein ordinarily a minimum of:
sc

50 contract workers are employed by a contractor

100 contract workers are employed by a contractor
up

20 contract workers are employed by a contractor

70 contract workers are employed by a contractor

Question was not answered

62. Which one of the following provisions is NOT covered under the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?

Sufficient supply of wholesome drinking water

Rest rooms
First aid facilities
Creches

Question was not answered

63. Under the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970, which one of the following statements is
true relating to the appointment of the Chairman of the State Advisory Board?

The Chairman is to be appointed by the State Government

The Labour Commissioner of the State shall be the ex-officio Chairman
The Chairman is to be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the Central Government
Labour Minister of the State shall be the ex-officio Chairman
Question was not answered

64. Under the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986, the Child Labour Technical Advisory
Committee consists of a Chairman and such other members NOT exceeding:

5
10
15
20

Question was not answered

65. Under the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986, the list of occupations in which children are
prohibited to be employed is provided in :

Part B of the Schedule under the Act

Section 4 of the Act
Section 6 of the Act
Part A of the Schedule under the Act

Question was not answered

66. Which one of the following is to be constituted under the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act

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1986?

Child Labour Advisory Board

co
Child Labour Technical Advisory Committee
Child Labour Regulating Machinery
Child Labour Regulating Advisory Board

Question was not answered

y.
ud
67. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct under the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation)
Act 1986?
t
ts

No child shall be permitted to work between 7 pm and 8 am

The total period of work including interval for rest shall not spread over more than six hours
ar

A child may be permitted to work overtime maximum for two hours in a day
No child shall work for more than three hours before he has had an interval for rest for at least one hour
m

Question was not answered

.s

68. Under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, an employer is liable to pay the amount of gratuity within:
sc

15 days
30 days
45 days
up

60 days

Question was not answered

69. Under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, what is the maximum amount of gratuity payable?

3.5 lac
7.5 lac
10 lac
5 lac

Question was not answered

70. Under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, who among the following is NOT part of the family of a male
employee?

His children whether married or unmarried

Children of his predeceased daughter
Hid dependent parents
Dependent parents of his wife
Question was not answered

71. Under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, what is the minimum period of service an employee must have
served to make him eligible for gratuity on his retirement or resignation?

10 years
5 years
7 years
6 years

Question was not answered

72. Under the provisions of the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service)
Act 1996, employment of how many female construction workers make it mandatory for providing crche facilities?

More than twenty

More than thirty
More than forty
More than fifty

Question was not answered

73. Which one of the following is NOT a statutory provision under the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of

.in
Employment and Conditions of Service) Act 1996?

Drinking water

co
Accommodation
Latrines and urinals
Rest rooms and lunch rooms

Question was not answered

y.
ud
74. Under the provisions of the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service)
Act 1996, the employer of an establishment has to appoint a Safety Officer if there are:
t
ts

five hundred or more building workers.

two hundred and fifty or more building workers
ar

three hundred or more building workers

one hundred or more building workers
m

Question was not answered

.s

75. Under the provisions of the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service)
Act 1996, a building worker who has been registered as a beneficiary can contribute to the Fund created under the Act till he
sc

attains the age of:

Sixty two years

up

Sixty years
Fifty eight years
Sixty five years

Question was not answered

76. Under the fundamental rights in the Constitution of India, Right to religion is NOt restricted by:

Public Order
Morality
Health
To acquire and administer property

Question was not answered

77. Right to Privacy is an implied Fundamental Right traceable to:

Right to Equality
Right Against Exploitation
Right to Freedom of Religion
Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Question was not answered

78. Who appoints the Judges of Hight Court of a State?

The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

The President of India
The Governor of the concerned State
The Prime Minister of India

Question was not answered

79. The concurrent list to the Constitution of India was first introduced by:

The Government of India Act, 1919

The Government of India Act, 1935
The Constitution of India Act, 1950
The Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question was not answered

80. The Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India was set up under the:

Joint Resolution of Provincial Legislatures and Princely States, 1946.

.in
Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946.
Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Mountbatten Plan, 1947.

co
Question was not answered

y.
81. The Proclamation, under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, imposing Presidents Rule in a State, has to be approved
by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament before the expiration of:
ud
Six months
Six weeks
t
Two months
ts

Two weeks
ar

Question was not answered

82. The President of India has the power to nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from:
m

SC and ST
.s

OBC
persons of eminent category
sc

Anglo-Indian Community

Question was not answered

up

83. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments accorded position of primacy to Directive Principles of State Policy
over Fundamental Rights?

16 Amendment
25 Amendment
42 Amendment
44 Amendment

Question was not answered

84. Article 155-156 of the Constitution of India deal with:

Inter State Commerce Commission

Election Commission
Inter State Council
The power of President to appoint and dismiss State Governors.

Question was not answered

85. The President of India has been empowered to return a Bill, as soon as possible, on presentation to him after its having
been passed by the Houses of Parliament for assent, except in the case of:

Ordinary Bill
Money Bill
Ordinance
Statute

Question was not answered

86. Which one of the following is NOT covered under the Seventy Third Amendment of the Constitution of India?

Provision for the State Finance Commission

Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Women
Provision for the State Planning Commission
Provision for the State Election Commission

Question was not answered

87. The seventh schedule of the Constitution of India contains:

Salaries of the President and Vice-President.

Tribal areas, Scheduled areas.

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Union List, State List and Concurrent List
Languages.

co
Question was not answered

88. Who among the following is the ex officio Chairman of the Council of States?

President
y.
ud
Vice President
Prime Minister
Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
t
ts

Question was not answered

ar

89. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to create one or more All India
Services?
m

Article 312(1)
Article 300
.s

Article 301
Article 304
sc

Question was not answered

up

90. How many members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha?

14
12
20
15

Question was not answered

91. The One Hundred and Sixth Constitutional Amendment Bill relates to:

Tribal Governance
Co-operative Societies
Amendment of Article 311
Office of Profit

Question was not answered

92. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
 It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
It allocates seats in the Council of States

Question was not answered

93. Adjudication of disputes relating to the inter-state river water are made by:

Union Parliament
High Court of Affected States
Supreme Court of India
Tribunals set up by the Union Government

Question was not answered

94. The Reports of the State Public Service Commissions are presented annually to the:

President of India directly to be laid before each House of Parliament.

respective Governors of States, who then forward the Reports to the Government of India.
respective Governors who then forward the Reports to the State Legislatures concerned
respective Committees of State Legislatures

Question was not answered

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95. Which one of the following is NOT correct with regard to Article 243 ZD of the Constitution of India?

co
In every State at the district level, there shall be a District Planning Committee to prepare a draft development plan for
the district
The draft development plan must have regard to matters of common interest between the Panchayats and the

y.
Municipalities in the district
The Legislature of a State may make provision for the composition of the District Planning Committee
ud
The development plans are forwarded to the State Planning Commissions for mandatory consideration

Question was not answered

t
ts

96. In 1947, India had municipal corporations at:

ar

Madras, Calcutta and Delhi

Lucknow, Calcutta and Bombay
Madras, Calcutta and Bombay
m

Lucknow, Calcutta and Madras

.s

Question was not answered

sc

97. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of Non-Aligned Movement?

Establishment of world peace

up

To contribute to the game of power politics

Removal of racial discrimination
To play a role in the process of decolonization of the slave countries

Question was not answered

98. According to Article 107 of the Constitution of India, in matters of Ordinary Legislation:

Lok Sabha has been given more powers.

Rajya Sabha has been given more powers.
Speaker of Lok Sabha has been given more powers.
Both the Houses have been given equal powers.

Question was not answered

99. The members of the Union Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to:

Rajya Sabha
Lok Sabha
President
Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Question was not answered

100. Which one of the following festivals is celebrated every year in Ladakh in the month of February?

Labrang
Dosmoche
Saga Dawa
Zamling Chisang

Question was not answered

101. In February 2015, India signed a bilateral agreement on civil nuclear cooperation with:

Bangladesh
Nepal
Shri Lanka
Bhutan

Question was not answered

102. What is Vanaj 2015?

International ayurvedic conference hosted by India

.in
National tribal festival held recently in Delhi
A dance festival of Telangana
Guerilla warfare exercise held recently between Border Security Force and Bangladesh Rifles

co
Question was not answered

y.
103. The Thirty Fifth National Games of India 2015 was held in:
ud
Karnataka
Kerala
West Bengal
t
Assam
ts

Question was not answered

ar

104. Who among the following is the Fiftieth recipient of the Jnanpith Award?
m

Bhalachandra Nemade
U R Ananthamurthy
.s

Kedarnath Singh
Pratibha Ray
sc

Question was not answered

up

105. Who among the following is the winner of the Australian Open Mens Single Tennis Tournament (2015)?

Roger Federer
Novak Djokovic
Andy Murray
Simone Boleli

Question was not answered

106. Mr. M can drive from Rampur to Sitapur by two alternative roads in same time. Road I is 20 km longer than road II, but is in
a good condition and he can drive at a constant normal speed. Road II is in bad condition and he has to drive at a speed of 20
km/hr slower. After road II is repaired, how long will it take him at normal speed?

Less than 1 hour

More than 1 hour
Exactly 1 hour
Cannot be ascertained from the given information

Question was not answered

107. R was born when his father A was 27 years old. As brother is of same age as of Rs mother. R married on his mothers
fiftieth birthday. A is three years older than his brother. How old was R on his marriage day?

28 years
26 years
27 years
25 years

Question was not answered

108. Which one of the following is the next entry in the series ZYX, WUS, TQN,?

QMI
QNH
PLG
RNK

Question was not answered

109. Which one of the following is the next entry in the series 987, 000, 123,.?

654
000

.in
246
243

co
Question was not answered

110. A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3189 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?

1069
y.
ud
1071
1074
1075
t
ts

Question was not answered

ar

111. In a certain code language 123 means bright little boy, 145 means tall big boy and 637 means beautiful little flower.
Which one the following digits in that language imply bright?
m

2
3
.s

4
6
sc

Question was not answered

up

112. Find out odd one out from the following:

Circle
Ellipse
Parabolla
Sphere

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113. If P is twice of Q, Q is thrice of R, R is four times of S and S is equal to 2, what is P?

24
48
32
64

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114. The ratio of areas of circles inscribed and circumscribed of an equilateral triangle is:

1:2
 1:3
1:4
1:9

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115. A man invests Rs. 100 for 3 years at the compound interest rate of 4% per annum for the first year and 5% per annum for
the second and third years. How much money will he get after 3 years?

Rs. 114.00
Rs. 114.66
Rs. 114.20
Rs. 114.40

Question was not answered

116. Distance from point A to point B is 20 km. A person is driving a car at the rate of 40 km per hour. Each wheel of the car is
rotated 10,000 times by the time it reaches from point A to point B. If the person drives the car at the rate of 60 km per hour,
then to reach from point A to point B, each wheel of the car rotates:

10000 times
15000 times
25000 times

.in
40000 times

Question was not answered

co
117. A cube of the side 4 cm is painted on all 6 faces with the same colour. It is then broken up into smaller cubes, each of side
1 cm. What is the proportion of the number of cubes with no paint to the number of cubes with exactly one face painted and to

y.
those with exactly two sides painted?
ud
1:2:3
3:6:8
1:3:4
t
1:3:3
ts

Question was not answered

ar

118. Three of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does NOT belong to that group?
m

Needle
Nail
.s

Pin
Hammer
sc

Question was not answered

up

119. In a certain code RAINBOW is coded as XPCOJBS. What is the code of RINGLET?

LETRING
UFMFMJS
UFMHOJS
TELGNIR

Question was not answered

120. The probability of happening an event can never be:

1
0.5
0
-1

Question was not answered