Ep Quiz No 3-6-8

Ep Quiz No.
3 (Questions and Answers)

1. Standards for firefighting services prescribe that municipalities with 10,000 or more population but
below 50,000 should provide at least one fire truck. Adjoining municipalities, however, are allowed to
share one fire truck provided that the distance is within prescribed limits. In such cases, the maximum
travel time between municipalities should be
A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes
2. In the identification of needs and the planning of social welfare programs and services, the planner is
expected to
A. Involve the clientele

B. Involve the national and local governments
C. Involve the private sector
D. All of the choices
3. The law that authorizes the establishment and promulgation of different levels of standards of
economic and socialized housing in urban and rural areas provided under the Subdivision and
Condominium Buyers Protective Decree and the National Building Code is
A. BP 220
B. RA 7279
C. PD 957
D. PD 1216
4. What ratio between sealable and non-saleable portions of the subdivision is required for projects
developed under BP 220 standards?
A. No fixed ratio
B. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
C. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
D. Minimum of 50% open space
5. A single detached dwelling units is defined as a house
A. Good for one household

B. Intended for ownership
C. Completely surrounded by yards***
D. With one or more of its sides abutting the property line
6. A study which includes all the units in the population is called
A. Holistic study
B. Phenomenological
C. Survey
D. Census***
7. The difference between a census and a survey is that
A. Census makes use of questionnaires while surveys make use of interviews for data gathering
B. Census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling***
C. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can be done anytime
D. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can conduct a survey
8. This type of plan shows the allocation of land into broad functional classes, e.g., development areas,
conservation/preservation areas; agricultural area and forest areas.
A. Structure Plan
B. General Land Use Plan
C. Development Plan
D. Comprehensive Plan
9. Agricultural land in its generic synonymous with that basic land classification?
A. Timberland
B. Unclassified public forest
C. Alienable and disposable***
D. Ancestral domain
E. Critical watershed
10. Which of the following is not a factor in determining the suitability of land for an industrial estate?
A. Load-nearing capacity
B. Soil fertility
C. Drainage
D. Slope
E. Location
11. The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four categories. Name the
one that is not among the four
A. Agricultural land
B. Mineral land
C. National park
D. Ancestral domain***
E. Forest land
12. Which of the maps listed below is not a thematic map?
A. Base map
B. Land use map
C. Slope map
D. Geologic map
E. Physical constraint map
13. What class of road is not part of a hierarchy?
A. Arterial
B. Collector
C. Distributor
D. Gravel surfaced
E. Local
14. Which land use type is normally not classified as urban?
A. Institutional
B. Residential
C. Mining and quarrying
D. Industrial
E. Commercial
15. The main regulatory tool for implementing land use plans in the Philippines is
A. Capital investment programs

B. Special assessments
C. Expropriation
D. Zoning
16. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of Government
with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is
A. NEDA
B. DAR
C. HLURB***
D. DPWH
17. The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program is
A. NHA
B. HUDCC***
C. HLURB
D. MMDA
18. The minimum lot area under PD 957 is
A. 100 sq. m.***

B. 72 sq. m.
C. 150 sq. m.
D. 120 sq. m.
19. The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups for the
purpose of systematizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called
A. Public hearing
B. Consultation
C. Coordination***
D. Scoping
20. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may or not be followed is called
A. Consultation***
B. Coordination
C. Public hearing
D. Citizen participation
21. This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustration and diagrams
which describes what the community wants to develop. It is essentially composed of community goals;
objectives, policies, programs and a physical development plan with translate the various sectoral plans.
A. Land Use Plan

B. Action Plan
C. Strategic Plan
D. Development Plan
22. This is the process of appraising the feasibility, credibility and probable impacts or consequences of
alternative schemes of development or specific environmental conditions.
A. Environmental impact assessment

B. Evaluation
C. Diagnostic survey
D. Feasibility study
23. One of these plans is not required under AFMA
A. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan

B. The SAFDZ Integrated Development Plan
C. The Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Plan
D. None of the choices
24. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project or
undertaking and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures.
A. Scoping
B. Initial environmental examination
C. Environmental impact assessment
D. Environmental risk assessment
25. In transportation planning, the collection of data is undertaken through different types of surveys.
The manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel, all passing each station
during specified periods, supplemented by automation traffic recorder counts extending over longer
periods is called
A. Travel time surveys

B. Roadside survey
C. Network inventories
D. Zoning
26. This is one of the methods of trip generation modeling, which is concerned with finding the best
functional relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. This
relationship is usually assumed to be linear.
A. Analysis of variance
B. Multiple regression
C. Category analysis
D. Situational analysis
27. This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the transportation
system. It is the process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known set of interzonal
movements so that the relationship between journey time and flow in every link in the network should
be in accordance with that specified for the link.
A. Diversion curves
B. All-or-nothing assignment
C. Capacity resistant
28. These are lands that are capable of sustaining the economic productivity levels of crops/land use
over time in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate and adjoining
environment.
A. Indigenous areas
B. Prime agricultural
C. Environmentally critical areas
D. Agro-industrial zones
29. Areas generally belonging to ICCs/IPs subject to property rights within ancestral domain
A. Indigenous areas
B. Cultural minority
C. Ancestral areas
D. Ancestral domains
30. This refers to a little formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership of ICCs/IPs over
their ancestral domains identified in accordance with the law.
A. Torres Title
B. Cultural minority
C. Land Title
D. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title***
31. The following operating principles are adhered to under the Indigenous People's Right Act, except
A. Biodiversity
B. Career Development of IPs
C. Protection of the Environment
D. Cultural Diversity and Integrity, Consensus and Peace Building and Human Dignity
32. The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall include
A. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions and institutions

B. Right to establish and control educational and learning systems
C. Right to science and technology
D. All of the choices except none
E. None of the choices
33. The primary government agency to implement the policies for the IPs is
A. Office of the Cultural Affairs

B. National Commission for the Cultural Communities
C. Commission for the Philippine Minorities
D. National Commission for Indigenous Peoples
34. Systems, institutions, mechanics and technologies compromising a unique body of knowledge
enclave through time
A. Cultural practices
B. Cultural way of life
C. Indigenous culture
D. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
35. Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in accordance with their respective customary
laws and practices, free from any external manipulation and coercion
A. Indigenous consensus
B. Rights of indigenous people
C. Free and informed consent
36. RA No. 8371 is also known as the
A. NIPAS LAW
B. Conservation and biodiversity
C. Agenda 21
D. Indigenous People Rights Act (IPRA)
37. The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples shall protect the rights of Indigenous peoples,
except those of
A. Children and youth

B. Elders
C. Women
38. How many commissioners comprise the National Commission on Indigenous Peoples?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Nine
D. Eleven
39. It consists or resource flows provided by bilateral sources and multilateral institutions with the
objective of promoting the economic development and welfare of the recipient country.
A. World Bank
B. Official Development Assistance
C. Internal Revenue Allotment
D. Development
40. This law provides a liberalized environment more conducive to private sector investment.
A. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT LAW)

B. Retail Trade Liberalization Act
C. Urban Development and Housing Act
41. A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent is authorized to finance, construct, own,
operate and maintain an infrastructure or development facility from which the proponent is allowed to
recover its total investment, operating and maintenance costs plus a reasonable return thereon by
collecting tools, fees, rentals and other charges from facility users.
A. Build and transfer

B. Build own and operate
C. Build transfer and operate
D. Develop, operate and transfer
42. A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an
infrastructures facility to private entity such that the contractor builds the facility on a turn-key basis,
assuming cost overrun, delay and specified performance risks.
A. Build and transfer

B. Build own and operate
C. Build transfer and operate
D. Develop, operate and transfer
43. The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of potentially
adverse effects which can result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations.
A. Environmental impact statement

B. Environmental risk assessment
C. Scoping
44. Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called
A. Indigenous people
B. Stakeholders
C. Squatters
D. Proponent
45. Which of these projects require an EIS?
A. Golf courses and residential subdivision above 10 hectares

B. Drugstore and backyard piggery
C. Projects under Kalakalan 20
46. Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the
range considered normal for a human being as a result of mental, physical or sensory impairment.
A. Physically challenged
B. Impaired
C. Disabled
D. Disadvantaged
47. Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most influential among the Great Thinkers in modern urban
and regional planning. His famous book, first published in 1898, the revised was titled:
A. Garden Cities
B. Garden Cities of To-morrow***
C. Tomorrows Cities
D. To-morrow: A Peaceful Path for Real Reform
48. Ebenezer Howards ideas were adopted by the British Governments in the enactment of the New
Towns Act of 1947. The new towns concept, according to historians, has been illustrated by Howard on a
paper napkin, This famous diagram consists of :
A. One Magnet
B. Two Magnets
C. Three Magnets
D. Four Magnets
49. Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town deliberately outside normal commuter range of the old
city. It would be fairly small. Its population size shall be:
A. Ten thousand
B. Twenty thousand
C. Twenty-two thousand
D. Thirty thousand
50. The first new town built following Ebenezer Howards idea is known as:
A. Letchworth
B. Soltaire
C. Sterenage
D. Welwyn
Ep Quiz No.6 (Questions and Answers)

1. The counterpart of Geddes in the University States is Lewis Mumford. Hisstreatise is entitled:
A. Culture and Cities

B. Cities and Culture
C. The Cities of Culture
D. The Culture of the Cities
2. The advocates of the systems view planning does not include one of thefollowing:
A. G. Wilson
B. George Chadwick
C. J.B. McLoughlin
D. Stuart Chapin
E. Andreas Faludi
3. What does reviews Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of componentcities and municipalities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
E. All of the choices except none
4. What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?

A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
5. What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
6. What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
7. What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
8. A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must meet the following criteria:
A. Technical feasibility
B. Socio-economical and financial possibility
C. Political viability
D. Administrative operability
E. All of the choices
9. Choose the relevant criteria for he best strategic option
A. Sustainability
B. Feasibility
C. Desirability
D. Critical and urgent
F. All of the choices except none
10. What are the techniques relevant to land use planning?

A. Sieve Mapping
B. Area Ecological Profiling
C. Land Use Accounting
11. What technique is useful for determining strategies?
A. Situational analysis
B. SWOT analysis
C. Land use survey
12. What are the legal basis for the states regulation of land use?
A. Police power
B. Laws against nuisance and pollution
C. The policy that property has social function
D. The rule that a person must not do wrong to another person
13. What kind of project requires an environmental compliance certificate?
A. Environmentally critical projects

B. Projects in environmentally critical areas
C. All of the choices except none
14. Where can we find the highest level policy statements on environmentalprotection?
A. Constitution
B. PD 1151
D. None of the Choices
15. What projects require an environmental impact statement (EIS)
A. Environmentally critical projects

B. Projects in environmentally critical areas
C. Gold courses, major roads and bridges, infrastructure
E. None of he choices
16. What law lays down the mandates and functions of the Housing and Land UseRegulatory Board?
A. EO 949
B. EO 90
C. PD 933
D. PD 957
17. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting land use is:
A. Comprehensive Land Use Plan

B. Zoning Ordinance
C. Cadastral Survey
D. Tax Declaration
18. A special locational clearance which grants a property owner relief from certainprovisions of the
zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physicalsurrounding, shape or topographical
conditions of the property, compliance withheight, area, bulk, setback and/or density would result in
particular hardshipupon the owner is called:
A. Certified of Non-Conformance
B. Exception
C. Variance
D. None of the choieces
19. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of aZoning ordinance where,
because of the specific use would result n a particularhardship to the owner.
A. Variance
B. Certificate of Non- Conformance
C. Exception
D. Development
20. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion andother built-up areas
including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areasand whereat least 50% of the population
area engaged in non-agriculturalactivities:
A. Central business district

B. Urban area
C. City center
D. Suburban area
21. The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest orplanning groups for the
purpose of systemizing, harmonizing and facilitatingoperations is called:
A. Public hearing
B. Consultation
C. Coordination
D. Scooping
22. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may not be followedis called.
A. Consultation
B. Coordination
C. Public hearing
D. Citizen participation
23. This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps,illustrations and diagrams
which describes what the community wants tobecome and how it wants to develop. It is essentially
composed of communitygoals, objectives, policies, programs and physical development plan
whichtranslates the various sectoral plan:
A. Land Use Plan

B. Action Plan
C. Strategic Plan
D. Development Plan
24. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policiesof Government
with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is:
A. NEDA
B. DAR
C. HLURB
D. DPWH
25. What is zoning?
A. It is the designation of species areas of a community as functional land uses of land may be allowed or
regulated on accordance with the development plan.
B. It is a tool to implement the development plan
C. It is a means of redistributing land acquisition and disposition
26. What are the tools for plan implementation?

A. Zoning ordinance, taxation and eminent domain
B. Zoning, subdivision and building ordinance
C. Zoning ordinance, local investment
D. Urban land reform
27. What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs) in preparingtheir own
comprehensive land use plans (CLUPs)?
A. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term Development Plans

B. Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional Development Plans
C. Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development Plans
28. What is the highest planning body at the regional level?

A. NEDA
B. The Regional Development Council
C. HLURB
29. The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoraldevelopment plains initiated
by their development councils and approved bytheir Sanggunian is:
A. PD 399
B. Executive Order No.72
C. RA 7160
D. PD 1517
30. The new law regulating the practice of environmental planning is:
A. RA 10587
B. PD 1517
C. PD 957
D. None of the above
31. The law proclaiming certain areas and types of projects as environmentally critical and within the
scope of the EIS system:
A. PD 1586
B. Proclamation No. 2146
C. PD 1152
D. DAO 96-37
32. Reclassification of the land highly in urbanized areas, after conducting publichearings for the
purpose, shall be limited to:
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
33. Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of agricultural land incomponent cities and to
first to third class municipalities shall be limited to:
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 5%
34. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection ofeducational institutions
offering courses in environment planning is theresponsibility of the :
A. Commission on Higher Education

B. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
C. Board of Environmental Planning
D. School of Urban and Regional Planning
35. A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or association mayengage on the practice of
environmental planning in the Philippines, providedthat:
A. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be registered environmental
planners
B. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by registered environmental planners
C. At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is composed of ENPs and 75% of the
capitalization is owned by them
D. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is owned by registered
environmental planners
36. Ancestral domains refer to areas that:
A. Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters, coastal areas and natural resources therein
B. Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied by communities for 5 years before the
designation of the same as protected areas in accordance with the NIPAS Act.
C. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the environment adapt to
modern technology at their pace
D. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are normally with difficult access.
37. This law provides for the establishment and management of National IntegratedProtection Areas
System:
A. RA 8371
B. RA 7586
C. RA 7279
D. None of the above
38. RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997strives to provide full and
adequate support to the sustainable development of ahighlt modernized agriculture and fishery industry
in the Philippines. UnderAFMA, one of the following has been d-prioritized
A. Identification and establishment of model farm

B. On-farm production enhancement technologies
C. Small-scale irrigation systems
D. Research, development and training facilities
39. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-IndustrialDevelopment
(NPAAAD), it provides the physical basis for the proper planningof sustainable agriculture and fishery
development and in the identification of24 suitable crops, livestock for local and international markets
without creatingirreversible environmental and human health problems.
A. The watershed areas

B. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
C. Integrated Area Development
D. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery Development Zone
40. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling under various legalissuances, e.g. Local
Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of theSAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while
the LGC limits to:
A. 15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and 1st class Municipalities
B. 10% of total arable lands in any town
C. 5% of total arable land in any city
D. All of the above
41. The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain onti fourcategories. Name pf
the one that is not among four
A. Agricultural land
B. Mineral land
C. National park
D. Ancestral domain
E. Forest land
42. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, theNational Government
transfers these funds to LGUs for their administrative,public order and safety operations
A. Internal Revenue Allotments

B. Budgetary Allocation
C. Local Development Allotment
D. LGU Budgetary Allotment
43. As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning guidelines, therequired easement in urban
areas from the banks of rivers/streams, seas andlakes is:
A. 3 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 100 meters
44. Variances and exemptions from the land use plan/zoning map are secured fromthe:
A. Zoning Administrator/Officer
B. Municipal Mayor
C. Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator (MPDC)
D. Local Zoning Board of Adjustments and Appeals (LZBAA)
45. A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from theapproved zone of the
area for certain reason is called:
A. Spot zoning
B. Flexible zoning
C. Euclidean zoning
D. Large lot zoning
46. Any amendment to the provisions of the zoning ordinance for component citiesand municipalities
can only take effect approval and authentication by the:
A. Sangguniang Panlalawigan
B. HLURB
C. Local Zoning Review Committee
D. Local Zoning Board of Adjustment and Appeals (LZBAA)
47. Alarm over increasing world population may be traced to Thomas Malthustheory that states
A. Population grows geometrically while food supply grows arithmetically

B. Population grows arithmetically while food supply grows geometrically
C. Population and food grows geometrically
D. Population and food grows arithmetically
48. Many industries want to locate near urban cities because they want to be
A. Close to large market

B. Close to a major transportation hub
C. Avail of urban services and facilities
49. In general, an Economic Base ration or Economic Base Multiplier expressed interms of employment
indicates:
A. A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in an industry
B. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of number of jobs created in the entire
country
C. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in the entire
region
D. The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a result of a number of jobs created in an
industry.
50. Traditional location theory analyzes the location of industries by considering

A. The cost of marketing and advertising
B. Labor wages
C. The cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the market
D. The costs of transporting consumers to market centers
Ep Quiz No.8 (Questions and Answers)

1. The slope range that is prescribed as production land use is
A. 0-18%
B. Above 50%
C. 16-50%
D. 0-8%
2. The elevation reserved for protection land use is
A. Above 500
B. Above 100
C. Above 2,000
D. Above 1,000 mtrs.
3. Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System, the classification leveldepicted in the Bureau
of Soils and Water Management is the
A. Soil order
B. Soil type
C. Soil great group
D. Soil series
4. A Philippine climatic type characterized by rainfall evenly distributed throughoutthe years refers to:
A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type I
5. The Philippine forest type that is adapted to growing in steep slopes and inplaces with a distinct wet
and dry season is the
A. Pine/saleng
B. Diptrocarp
C. Molave/molawin
D. Mangrove
6. The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoraldevelopment plan initiated by
their development councils and approved by theirSanggunians is:
A. PD 399
B. Executive Order No. 72
C. RA 7160
D. PD 1517
7. The law regulating the practice of environmental planning is
A. PD 1308
B. PD 1517
C. PD 957
E. PD1096
8. The Law proclaiming of land certain areas and types of projects asenvironmentally critical and within
the scope of the EIS system
A. PD 1586
B. Proclamation No. 2146
C. PD 1152
D. DAO 96-37
9. Reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas, after conducting publichearing for the purpose,
shall be limited to
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
10. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting the land use is
A. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
B. Zoning Ordinance
C. Cadastral Survey
D. Tax Declaration
11. A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certainprovisions of the
zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physicalsurrounding, shape or topographical
conditions of the property, compliance withheight, area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a
particular hardship to theowner
A. Certificate of Non-Conformance
B. Exception
C. Variance
E. Zoning Clearance
12. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of aZoning ordinance where,
because of the specific use would result in a particularhardship to the owner
A. Variance
B. Certificate of Non-Conformance
C. Exception
D. Development
13. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion andother built-up areas
including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areasand whereat least 50% of the population
area engaged in non-agriculturalactivities:
A. Central business district

B. Urban area
C. City center
D. Suburban area
14. Cities with a minimum population of 200,000 inhabitants as certified by theNational Statistics Office
and with latest annual income of at least P 50,000,000based on 1996 constant prices as certified by the
City Treasurer are called
A. Independent Component Cities

B. Regional Centers
C. Highly Urbanized Cities
D. Component Cities
15. Urbanization began around 4,000 B.C. in the area known as the
A. Fertile Crescent
B. Mediterranean
C. Babylon
D. Asia
16. The primary factor/s in the location of cities during the Bronze Age along theIndus Valley is/are:
A. Transport
B. Agriculture
C. Defense
17. He developed the first theoretical basis for physical planning
A. Hippodamus
B. Nicodemus
C. Nostradamus
D. Aristotle
18. They understood the importance of transportation and thus emerges as the firstregional planners of
the world.
A. Greeks
B. Romans
C. Sumerians
D. Egyptians
19. It was during this period that the concept of urban design was established
A. Renaissance
B. Bronze Age
C. Medieval Period
D. Atomic Age
20. The Garden City as a solution to urban planning problems
A. Malthus
B. Ebenezer Howard
C. Nicodemus
D. Adam Smith
21. He theorized that physical planning could not improved urban living conditionsunless it was
integrated with social and economic planning in a context odenvironmental concerns.
A. William Penn
B. Patrick Geddes
C. Peirre L Enfant
D. None of the Choices
E. Allan Carreon
22. The Architect Planner who designed Luneta, Tagaytay and Baguio
A. Burnham
B. Concio
C. Faithful
E. Lynch
23. Rectangular streets are examples of the
A. Grid Iron Pattern

B. Axial
C. Radial
D. Ribbon-Type
24. What was the most important factor in designing settlement patterns during theSpanish Period in
the Philippines?
A. Plaza
B. Economy
C. Transportation
D. Religion
25. Aside from volume and growth, what is the other key point that a tourism analystshould consider in
analyzing tourist arrivals?
A. Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals

B. Socio-cultural changes
C. Political changes
E. Tourist Comfort
26. The tourist market can be classified into business, mass holiday, and _____markets.
A. Eco-tourism
B. Historical
C. Location specific natural and cultural
E. Global
27. Tourist may create the type of employment opportunities in the area. These aredirect, indirect and
____ jobs.
A. Multiplier
B. Induced
C. Locational
D. Service
28. The four in typical economic cycle are recession ______, recovery and boom.
A. Slump
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Sustainable growth
29. In formulating its industrial program, the government should consider equity,technical efficiency
and ______
A. Allocative efficiency
B. Comparative advantages
C. Resource collection
D. Availability of skilled labor
30. Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastesfrom existing disposal
facilities within a period of:
A. 10 years
B. 2 years
C. 5 years
D. 1 year
31. At the national level, RA 9003 mandates the creation of National Solid WasteManagement
Commission under the office of:
A. President
B. DENR
C. DILG
D. NEDA
32. Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National Ecological Solid WasteManagement Program
seeks to:
A. Promote public health and environment protection

B. Encourage greater private sector participation while retaining the primary enforcement and
responsibility with the LGUs
C. Mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes from disposal facilities through reuse,
recycling, composting and other resource recovery activities
33. The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be formulated andshall include the
following:
A. Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends, projections of solid waste management on the
national, provincial, ad municipal levels
B. Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage, processing, disposal, operating methods,
techniques and practices are conducted, taking into account the nature of the waste
34. It refers to the discipline associated with the control of generations, storage,collection, transfer and
transport, processing and disposal of solid wastes in amanner that is in accord with the best principles of
public health, economies,engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental considerations
andwhich is also responsive to public attitudes
A. Environmental Impact Assessment

B. Development Planning
C. Waste Segregation
D. Solid Waste Management
35. The Local Government Solid Management Plan shall include, but not limited tothe following
components:
A. City or Municipal profile

B. Waste characterization
C. Collection and transfer
D. Source reduction
36. Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the mandatory segregation of solidwastes. Specifically, the
LGUs shall promulgate regulations, requiring the owneror person in charge of premises
containing:______________to provide for the residents a designated area and containers in which
toaccumulate source separated recyclable materials to be collected by the municipal orprivate center.
A. Five residential units

B. Six residential units
C. Six or more residential units
D. At least ten residential units
37. The following are the minimum criteria siting of sanitary land fills
A. The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the LGU
B. The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares
C. The site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily handled and compacted
D. All of the Choices except none
38. Guidelines for identification of common solid waste management problems andare appropriate for
clustered solid waste management services shall be based onthe following:
A. Available means of cording local government planning between and among LGUs and for the
integrated of such with the national plan
B. Size and location of areas which should be included
C. Volume of solid waste which should be generated
D. Possible life span of the disposal facilities
39. The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the cost preparing,Adopting, and
implementing a solid waste management plan. Such fees shall bebased on the following minimum
factors:
A. Type of solid waste

B. Amount/volume of solid waste
C. Distance of transfer station to the waste management facility
40. Areas with high biodiversity value which shall be closed to all human activityexcept for scientific
studies and/or ceremonial or religious use by indigenouscommunities
A. Restoration Zone
B. Habitat Management Zone
C. Bypass Zone
D. Strict Protection Zone
41. Each establishment protected area shall be administered by:

A. Office of the Mayor
B. Sanggunian Bayan
C. Planning Officer
D. Protected Area Management Board
42. This is an organizational process for determining systematically and objectivelythe relevance,
efficiency, effectiveness and impact of activities in the light of theirobjectives
A. Planning
B. Project Identification
C. Resource Generation
D. Evaluation
43. This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years after project completionwhen full project
benefits and impact are expected to have been realized.
A. Terminal Evaluation
B. On-going Evaluation
C. Ex-post Evaluation
D. Pre-Evaluation
44. The Monitoring & Evaluation (M&E) strategy should carefully examine
A. The contents, i.e. the date and indicators used

B. The format
C. The frequency of existing reports
45. A project with negative Net Present Value(NPV) means;
A. Benefit cost ration is higher that 1

B. Present value of benefits is higher than present value of roots
C. IRR is higher than prevailing interest rate
D. Discount rate used is higher that IRR
46. When projecting market demand for a project, which of the followingcombination of techniques is
not advisable:
A. Survey/planning standards
B. Market testing/time series analysis
C. Experts opinion/census
D. Statistical demand analysis/time series analysis
47. This indicate the number of years it would take to recoup the investments in heproject
A. Payback Period
B. Retention Period
C. Return on Investment
D. Profit Margin
48. Money is more valuable now that tomorrow not because of
A. Uncertainty of risk
B. Income opportunities now
C. Better prospects in the future
D. Present consumption
49. Millenium Development Goals (2000-2015) except:
A. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger

B. Promote gender equality and empower women
C. Reduce Child mortality
D. Minimize Government Corruption
E. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases
50. As per RA7279 of 1992,the acquisition of land at values based on existing use inadvance of actual
need to promote planned development and socialized housing programs is called
A. Land banking
B. Land assembly or consolidation
C. Land swapping
D. Land promotion

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Ep Quiz No.

3 (Questions and Answers)

A. Involve the clientele

5. A single detached dwelling units is defined as a house

A. Good for one household

6. A study which includes all the units in the population is called

7. The difference between a census and a survey is that

12. Which of the maps listed below is not a thematic map?

13. What class of road is not part of a hierarchy?

14. Which land use type is normally not classified as urban?

A. Capital investment programs

17. The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program is

18. The minimum lot area under PD 957 is

A. 100 sq. m.***

A. Land Use Plan

A. Environmental impact assessment

23. One of these plans is not required under AFMA

A. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan

A. Travel time surveys

32. The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall include

A. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions and institutions

A. Office of the Cultural Affairs

36. RA No. 8371 is also known as the

A. Children and youth

A. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT LAW)

A. Build and transfer

A. Build and transfer

A. Environmental impact statement

45. Which of these projects require an EIS?

A. Golf courses and residential subdivision above 10 hectares

Ep Quiz No.6 (Questions and Answers)

A. Culture and Cities

4. What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?

5. What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?

6. What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities?

7. What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?

9. Choose the relevant criteria for he best strategic option

10. What are the techniques relevant to land use planning?

11. What technique is useful for determining strategies?

13. What kind of project requires an environmental compliance certificate?

A. Environmentally critical projects

15. What projects require an environmental impact statement (EIS)

A. Environmentally critical projects

A. Comprehensive Land Use Plan

A. Central business district

A. Land Use Plan

25. What is zoning?

26. What are the tools for plan implementation?

A. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term Development Plans

28. What is the highest planning body at the regional level?

A. Commission on Higher Education

36. Ancestral domains refer to areas that:

A. Identification and establishment of model farm

A. The watershed areas

A. Internal Revenue Allotments

A. Population grows geometrically while food supply grows arithmetically

A. Close to large market

50. Traditional location theory analyzes the location of industries by considering

Ep Quiz No.8 (Questions and Answers)

2. The elevation reserved for protection land use is

A. Central business district

A. Independent Component Cities

17. He developed the first theoretical basis for physical planning

20. The Garden City as a solution to urban planning problems