BAN TỔ CHỨC KÌ THI

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TUYỂN TẬP
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI
BẮC BỘ NĂM 2014
TIẾNG ANH 11
 KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014

ĐỀ SỐ 1 ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11

Thời gian 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 19/04/2014
A. LISTENING: (15 pts)
Part 1: You will hear a lecturer talking about how to increase sales. Listen and choose the
correct answer: A, B or C. (5 pts)
1. Retailers place popular items
A. in the back of the store.
B. near the front entrance.
C. at the end of the aisle.
2. Carpet patterns are used to
A. help shoppers feel comfortable.
B. appeal to shoppers’ decorative sense.
C. encourage shoppers to walk in certain directions.
3. Retailers can keep customers in the store longer by
A. providing places to sit.
B. keeping the doors closed.
C. lowering the prices.
4. Music is used in stores to
A. entertain customers.
B. slow customers down.
C. make customers shop faster.
5. The scent of vanilla has been used in
A. ice cream shops.
B. bakeries.
C. clothing stores.

Part 2: You will hear a man and a woman talking about a community centre. Listen and fill in
the gaps with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (10 pts)

Days Class/Activity Age Group

Wednesday, Saturday (1). ……………………… Children, teens

(2). ………………………. Tennis (3). ……………………….

Tuesday, Thursday (4). ………………………. Children, teens, adults

Friday Book club (5). …………………….

Membership fees: (6) $ ……………………… (individual)

(7) $ ……………………… (family)
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Located at 107 (8) …………………………… Street
Parking is located (9) …………………………….
The Centre is closed on (10) …………………………..

B. PHONETICS: (5p)
Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others: (2.5p)
1. A. surgical B. surround C. surrender D. survival
2. A. opportunity B. menu C. attitude D. muscular
3. A. physical B. mythology C. rhythm D. psychology
4. A. apartheid B. thorough C. cathedral D. ethnic
5. A. exhausted B. cheetah C. rhinoceros D. alcoholic.
Part 2. Find the word whose main stress is different from that of the others. (2.5 pts)
1. A. Admission B. requirement C. copyright D. vocational
2. A. representative B. satisfactory C. documentary D. deforestation
3. A. acquaintance B. government C. development D. interpret
4. A. misbehaviour B. generational C. disciplinary D. education
5. A. intensity B. apprentice C. attendance D. atmosphere

C. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 PTS)

Part 1. Choose the word/phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. (5pts)
1. The new school complex cost _____ the city council had budgeted for.
A. just twice as much as B. twice more by far than
C. twice much more than D. almost twice as much as
2. Larry _____ forgot where he’d left his keys.
A. momentarily B. directly C. singularly D. shortly
3. The Earth will be a planet where human beings, animals and plants live in peaceful _____.
A. cooperation B. coordination C. corporation D. coexistence
4. James could no longer bear the _____ surroundings of the decrepit old house.
A. oppressive B. domineering C. pressing D. overbearing
5. I find the idea of experimenting on animals _____.
A. disagreeing B. objectionable C. distasteful D. objective
6. He’s a bit timid and hasn’t yet _____ the courage to apply for the job.
A. put on B. get off C. plucked up D. carried through
7. Following the crime in Bradford High Street last Saturday afternoon, the police are checking
_____ anyone who was there at the time.
A. in for B. up on C. out of D. over to
8. According to a Government spokesman, further _____ in the public sector are to be
expected.
A. cutbacks B. breakdowns C. out-takes D. layouts
9. Under the weather or not, Ashcroft _____ 2 mins 13.8 secs, almost a second faster than her
winning time last year.
A. set B. clocked C. gained D. took
10.That judge is feared because she takes a hard _____ in the fight against drugs.
A. line B. lane C. path D. rule

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 11.He will be sued for _____ of contract if he does not do what he promised.
A. fracture B. crack C. rupture D. breach
12.You shouldn’t _____ into other’s people private lives.
A. prowl B. prod C. proceed D. pry
13.Some romantic novelists _____ out books with the same old formula every year.
A. churn B. spill C. ladle D. pour
14.Even the best medicines are not _____.
A. infallible B. unfailing C. fail-proof D. falsified
15.The dog was a little subdued yesterday, but she’s full of _____ this morning.
A. sprouts B. beans C. chips D. berries
16.There are a lot of crooked people in big cities. If you don’t want to be cheated, you’ll need
to keep your _____ about you.
A. mind B. wits C. head D. brain
17.Just because we’ve had a good year, this does not mean that we cannot do better: we must
not _____.
A. have our head in the clouds B. bury our heads in the sand
C. count our blessings D. rest on our laurels
18.There’s nothing as cozy on a cold evening as the warm _____ of a fire.
A. glare B. sparkle C. glow D. flame
19.She seems to be angry with the whole world. She’s got a chip _____.
A. on her shoulder B. in her bonnet C. under her hat D. between the ears
20.How do you calculate the distance to the horizon? As a _____, it’s 7 miles + 1 mile per 100
ft above sea level.
A. trick of the trade B. golden rule C. free hand D. rule of thumb
Part 2: Read the text, find the10 mistakes and correct them. You should indicate in which line the
mistake is. (5 pts)
Thirty years ago, the TV series UFO envisions 1999 as an era when space fighters were launched
from submarines, the world was in threat from alien invaders -and everyone carried a slide rule in a
holster on their belts.
Even as the programme was being made, pocket calculators were coming onto the market. There
was a lesson about the future: it will overtake your wildest imaginings. If you focus on
what existing technologies will develop, you miss the real changes - and threats. This
autumn sees the changeover between keyboards and mice to using the human voice to dictate
directly onto the screen, and to command the computer. Wonderful, you may think. A cure for
repetitive strain injure (RSI), caused by repeated physical actions. Except that it will not be. It will
transfer RSI from the wrist to the throat. The voice box is a very delicate instrument and we are not
used to speak all the time. Even 200 words (taking a little over a minute to say) leaves us clearing
our throats and sipping a drink. There will be catastrophes unless we learn how to use our voices
safe. Students who get up on the morning of an essay deadline to compose 4,000 words on a
voice -operated computer could permanently damage their voices.
Each new technological development tends to bring problems with it. Nobody had heard of RSI
until word processors exploded onto the market. Long hours spent stare into a computer monitor
led to complaints of eyestrain, backache and even worries about radiation leaks from the screen.
Repetitive computer related tasks are such a common features of modern work that many
companies are calling in ergonomic consultants to recommend ways to avoid RSI conditions such
as carpal tunnel syndrome, a wrist condition commonly found in people who use keyboards.
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Companies found that by following their advices, claims for injury or illnesses suffered by
employees were greatly diminished.
Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (5 pts)
1. The ship was bound ……………..Japan when it ran into typhoon.
2. You need to show that picture …………….a dark background.
3. I turned ……………..at the meeting but the others didn’t come.
4. Inside your passport, you should write the name of your next……………..kin.
5. We walked out of the room ……………..tiptoe, so as not to disturb the sleeping baby.
6. After the war, several people were tried for crimes …………….humanity.
7. I hate people who give………………the end of a film that you haven’t seen.
8. Everyone approved of the scheme but when we asked for volunteers they all hung …………………
9. As nobody seems to know what to do next, may I put …………… a proposal?
10. Queen Victoria reigned ……………..Britain and Ireland for over sixty years.
11. The government was finally brought ……………… by a minor scandal.
12. The murderer turned himself ……………….to the police one week after the crime.
13. We saw Ron’s mom lay ………………..him when he came home late last night.
14. Grandfather must be tired. He’s nodding ……………….in his chair.
15. Her husband promised to mend the broken wheel soon………………fail.
16. His business is growing so fast that he must take …………………more workers.
17. Who’ll compensate me ……………… my loss?
18. Her uncle was given the award ………………recognition of his services to the factory.
19. I must ask you not to allude …………….my past indiscretions.
20. John has grown …………………his habit of playing truant.
Part 4. Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the sentences. (5 pts)
1. The tiny village is the birthplace of one of the world’s most beloved bears, Smokey Bear,
(be)____precise!
2. While attempting to curb the inferno, a fire crew (rescue)_____ a badly frightened cub
(cling)____to a burnt pine tree.
3. The finding that the burial chamber (date)______back to 300 B.C has attracted many
archeologists.
4. I was born in an area of southern France where fresh Mediterranean tastes and smells
(abound)_____.
5. The village’s first new houses for 20 years (be)______to be built next to Sane river.
6. What tune (play)____when they (come) ____in?
7. I suppose when I (come) back in two years’ time, they (pull) ______down all these
buildings.
8. It was the dreariest hotel I ( ever have)_____the misfortune (stay)_____in.
9. He would never miss (go)____ to such good party.
10. There was nobody around. John (stand) ____where she (leave) ____him.
11. He wasn’t responsible. He wasn’t (blame)_____.
12. What a dangerous thing to do! You (kill)______.
13. I felt as if I (betray)_____a confidence.
14. The accused denied (be)____in the vicinity of the murder scene.
15. It’s essential that all top security documents (stamp)____CONFIDENTIAL.
Part 5. Complete the text by writing a correct form of the word in CAPITALS . (0) has been done
as an example. (5 pts)

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 IS IT WORTH IT?
It is (0) …commonly… believed that a break from everyday routine can COMMON
only do you good. Every summer, you can spot
prospective (1) ………………….. at airports and waiting for car HOLDAY
ferries. They are (2) …………………… - you can tell them a mile away by their MISTAKE
sun hats and hopeful expressions.
For all their optimism, what often actually happens can be a rude
(3) ……………………. from the blissful holiday dreams of the rest WAKE
of the year. Sunburn, mosquitoes and (4) …………………….. FORESEE
expenses can make you think twice about how (5) ……………….. getting away BENEFIT
from it all really is.
The fact is, the (6) ………………… of something going wrong LIKELY
is maximized when you are abroad and, (7) ………………….., your ability to deal FORTUNE
with crisis and catastrophe is often minimized. This
could be because of language problems, (8) ………………….. with the culture, or FAMILIAR
simply a different climate, all of which make everything seem different and unreal.
So, what is the answer? (9) …………………., an annual escape from DOUBT
normal working life is a very positive thing. However, the
(10) …………………. of seeking an exotic location is questionable when you WISE
think of all the things that can go wrong.
Part 6: Choose the words/ phrases from the table below to complete the passage. TWO
suggested phrases do not fit at all.(5 pts)
on the other for example all things considered for this reason whilst
in contrast secondly thus but furthermore
firstly too

Censorship is an issue which frequently generates a great deal of heated debate, with supporters
maintaining that it is vital in order to protect society, (1) _________ opponents claim that it is an
unjustifiable restriction of public access to information.
(2)__________, all countries have secrets which must be safeguarded for reasons of national
security. For instance, if an enemy country were to acquire such highly sensitive information, the
effects could be catastrophic. Consequently, governments have to have the power to restrict access
to information concerning areas such as the armed forces or particular aspects of foreign policy.
(3) __________, it is often argued that censorship is necessary to prevent the broadcast and
publication of obscene material which is considered offensive and harmful to public morals. Many
people feel that, without censorship the public would be constantly subjected to material that the
majority would find offensive. (4) __________, the government has a duty to impose certain
restrictions on the mass media by censoring films and texts which contain explicit scenes of sex,
violence or foul language.
(5) __________, opponents of censorship point out that when it is abused by governments,
censorship becomes an instrument used to misinform society and maintain power. In order to
control the flow of information which reaches the public, repressive regimes try to put constraints
on the media, (6) __________denying citizens the right to information owing to the fact that
governments believe it may lead them to seek greater freedom.
(7) _____________, it is generally felt that mature adults are able to make informed choices about
what they watch, read and listen to and should, therefore, be permitted to make their own decisions.
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(8) ____________, some comedians make use of offensive language and taboo subjects in their
performances. Critics of censorship argue that the only people who will watch or listen to such
material are adults who have made a conscious decision to do so. Thus, it is claimed, it is unjust to
censor material like this since it is not forced upon people who may subsequently be offended by it.
(9) ____________, it can be concluded that a certain degree of censorship is always necessary. The
best course of action would be to attempt to achieve a balance between the requirements of the
country and the public on the one hand, and individuals’ rights (10) ____________.

C. READING. (25 PTS)

Part 1.For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context.(7.5 pts)
As time 1. ______, the power of newspapers seems to be on the 2. ______ This is odd
because in the relatively 3. ______ past, people were predicting that the influence of the written
word would diminish in 4. ______ proportion to the rate of increase of the spoken word and moving
image through TV and video. As people whole-heartedly 5. ______ the Internet and cable and
satellite television, why don’t we see newspapers 6. ______ out? How have these organs survived,
let alone 7. ______, particularly on a Sunday? Why don’t people who have watched a football
match live on the small screen 8. ______ the wisdom of rushing out the next day to read a 9.
______ version of it in four or five columns? Why would anyone who has seen a film and formed a
10. ______ impression of it the following day read the review of the 11. ______ film in a
newspaper? To see if s/he is right? Isn’t that what friends are for? Don’t we have colleagues for just
that purpose – to see if our ideas on any 12. ______ song, film or program tally with others’? What
is this product that 13. ______ of not much more than outrageous headlines, wayward comment,
subjective editorials and hyperbolic sports pages still doing in our lives? It seems for the time 14.
______ to be leading a charmed life. When it finally goes, though, many may come to mourn its 15.
______
1. A. flies B. passes C. goes D. drags
2. A. increase B. rise C. expansion D. build
3. A. latest B. distant C. immediate D. recent
4. A. exact B. direct C. precise D. equal
5. A. embrace B. view C. agree D. win
6. A. going B. decreasing C. dying D. declining
7. A. flourished B. bloomed C. flowered D. rooted
8. A. press B. question C. ask D. increase
9. A. curtailed B. cut C. reduced D. potted
10. A. vivid B. coloured C. bright D. direct
11. A. exact B. self-same C. last D. copied
12. A. given B. taken C. subjected D. written
13. A. comprises B. contains C. consists D. informs
14. A. out B. being C. given D. present
15. A. perishing B. dying C. falling D. passing

Part 2: Fill ONE suitable word in each blank.(7.5 pts)

Skateboard
Some sports or activities have traditionally been (1)………. with people, even though it is
not always clear why. Skateboarders, for instance, are expected to (2)……….teenagers wearing
clothes four sizes too big for them. When you come to think of it, there’s (3)………..practical
reason why people over the age of 21 shouldn’t take (4)………the sport.
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 Skateboarding involves a certain (5)………. of falling off the board, (6)……..can of course
be painful, but this also (7)………. to other sports like skiing or surfing. Sports should not be
restricted (8)…………teenagers. There is (9)……….wrong with a grown - up gliding down the
road on his or her board.
(10)……………the same time, I must confess that I (11)………. a certain sympathy for my
niece Emily when her father, my older brother Tom, announced that he was going skateboarding
with her. At the age of 14 you are very conscious of (12)…………other people think of you. She
knew all her friends would laugh at her if she arrived for the regular Saturday morning
skateboarding sessions in the local park with her dad.
Emily felt (13)…………embarrassment would be more than she could bear, so she kindly
asked her father (14)…………he could go skateboarding somewhere else. Tom realized how
embarrassed Emily must felt and (15)…………….. out laughing.

Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. (5 points)
Meteorite Impact and Dinosaur Extinction
There is increasing evidence that the impacts of meteorites have had important effects on
Earth, particularly in the field of biological evolution. Such impacts continue to pose a natural
hazard to life on Earth. Twice in the twentieth century, large meteorite objects are known to have
collided with Earth.
If an impact is large enough, it can disturb the environment of the entire Earth and cause an
ecological catastrophe. The best-documented such impact took place 65 million years ago at the end
of the Cretaceous period of geological history. This break in Earth’s history is marked by a mass
extinction, when as many as half the species on the planet became extinct. While there are a dozen
or more mass extinctions in the geological record, the Cretaceous mass extinction has always
intrigued paleontologists because it marks the end of the age of the dinosaurs. For tens of millions
of years, those great creatures had flourished. Then, suddenly, they disappeared.
The body that impacted Earth at the end of the Cretaceous period was a meteorite with amass
of more than a trillion tons and a diameter of at least 10 kilometers. Scientists first identified this
impact in 1980 from the worldwide layer of sediment deposited from the dust cloud that enveloped
the planet after the impact. This sediment layer is enriched in the rare metal iridium and other
elements that are relatively abundant in a meteorite but very rare in the crust of Earth. Even diluted
by the terrestrial material excavated from the crater, this component of meteorites is easily
identified. By 1990 geologists had located the impact site itself in the Yucatán region of Mexico.
The crater, now deeply buried in sediment, was originally about 200 kilometers in diameter.
This impact released an enormous amount of energy, excavating a crater about twice as large
as the lunar crater Tycho. The explosion lifted about 100 trillion tons of dust into the atmosphere, as
can be determined by measuring the thickness of the sediment layer formed when this dust settled to
the surface. Such a quantity of material would have blocked the sunlight completely from reaching
the surface, plunging Earth into a period of cold and darkness that lasted at least several months.
The explosion is also calculated to have produced vast quantities of nitric acid and melted rock that
sprayed out overmuch of Earth, starting widespread fires that must have consumed most terrestrial
forest sand grassland. Presumably, those environmental disasters could have been responsible for
the mass extinction, including the death of the dinosaurs.
Several other mass extinctions in the geological record have been tentatively identified with
large impacts, but none is so dramatic as the Cretaceous event. But even without such specific
documentation, it is clear that impacts of this size do occur and that their results can be catastrophic.
What is a catastrophe for one group of living things, however, may create opportunities for another

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group. Following each mass extinction, there is a sudden evolutionary burst as new species develop
to fill the ecological niches opened by the event.
Impacts by meteorites represent one mechanism that could cause global catastrophes and
seriously influence the evolution of life all over the planet. According to some estimates, the
majority of all extinctions of species may be due to such impacts. Such a perspective fundamentally
changes our view of biological evolution. The standard criterion for the survival of a species is its
success in competing with other species and adapting to slowly changing environments. Yet an
equally important criterion is the ability of a species to survive random global ecological
catastrophes due to impacts.
Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events that were
unsuspected a few decades ago. In 1991 the United States Congress asked NASA to investigate
the hazard posed today by large impacts on Earth. The group conducting the study concluded from
a detailed analysis that impacts from meteorites can indeed be hazardous. Although there is always
some risk that a large impact could occur, careful study shows that this risk is quite small.

1. The word “pose” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. claim B. model C. assume D. present
2. In paragraph 2, why does the author include the information that dinosaurs had flourished for
tens of millions of years and then suddenly disappeared?
A. To support the claim that the mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous is the best-documented
of the dozen or so mass extinctions in the geological record
B. To explain why as many as half of the species on Earth at the time are believed to have become
extinct at the end of the Cretaceous
C. To explain why paleontologists have always been intrigued by the mass extinction at the end of
the Cretaceous
D. To provide evidence that an impact can be large enough to disturb the environment of the entire
planet and cause an ecological disaster
3. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3 about the location of the meteorite
impact in Mexico?
A. The location of the impact site in Mexico was kept secret by geologists from 1980 to 1990.
B. It was a well-known fact that the impact had occurred in the Yucatán region.
C. Geologists knew that there had been an impact before they knew where it had occurred.
D. The Yucatán region was chosen by geologists as the most probable impact site because of its
climate.
4. According to paragraph 3, how did scientists determine that a large meteorite had impacted
Earth?
A. They discovered a large crater in the Yucatán region of Mexico.
B. They found a unique layer of sediment worldwide.
C. They were alerted by archaeologists who had been excavating in the Yucatán region.
D. They located a meteorite with a mass of over a trillion tons.
5. The word “excavating” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. digging out B. extending C. destroying D. covering up
6. According to paragraph 4, all of the following statements are true of the impact at the end of
the Cretaceous period EXCEPT:
A. A large amount of dust blocked sunlight from Earth.
B. Earth became cold and dark for several months.
C. New elements were formed in Earth’s crust.

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D. Large quantities of nitric acid were produced.
7. The phrase “tentatively identified” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. identified after careful study
B. identified without certainty
C. occasionally identified
D. easily identified
8. Paragraph 6 supports which of the following statements about the factors that are essential for
the survival of a species?
A. The most important factor for the survival of a species is its ability to compete and adapt to
gradual changes in its environment.
B. The ability of a species to compete and adapt to a gradually changing environment is not the only
ability that is essential for survival.
C. Since most extinctions of species are due to major meteorite impacts, the ability to survive such
impacts is the most important factor for the survival of a species.
D. The factors that are most important for the survival of a species vary significantly from one
species to another.
9. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the following
sentence?
"Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events that were
unsuspected a few decades ago."
Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Until recently, nobody realized that Earth is exposed to unpredictable violent impacts from
space.
B. In the last few decades, the risk of a random violent impact from space has increased.
C. Since most violent events on Earth occur randomly, nobody can predict when or where they will
happen.
D. A few decades ago, Earth became the target of random violent events originating in outer space.
10. According to the passage, who conducted investigations about the current dangers posed by
large meteorite impacts on Earth?
A. Paleontologists B. Geologists C. The United States Congress D. NASA

Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.(5 pts)
Questions 1 – 4
The reading passage on Deer Farming In Australia has 5 paragraphs (A – E).
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs
A – E. Write the appropriate number (i – viii) next to questions 1 – 4 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
i Industry Structures
ii Disease Affects Production
iii Trends in Production
iv Government Assistance
v How Deer Came to Australia
vi Research and Development
vii Asian Competition

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 viii Industry Development

Ex: Paragraph A – v
1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E
Deer Farming In Australia
Paragraph A
Deer are not indigenous to Australia. They were introduced into the country during the
nineteenth century under the acclimatization programs governing the introduction of exotic
species of animals and birds into Australia. Six species of deer were released at various
locations. The animals dispersed and established wild populations at various locations across
Australia, mostly depending upon their points of release into the wild. These animals formed
the basis for the deer industry in Australia today.
Commercial deer farming in Australia commenced in Victoria in 1971 with the
authorized capture of rusa deer from the Royal National Park, NSW. Until 1985, only four
species of deer, two from temperate climates (red, fallow) and two tropical species (rusa,
chital) were confined for commercial farming. Late in 1985, pressure from industry to increase
herd numbers saw the development of import protocols. This resulted in the introduction of
large numbers of red deer hybrids from New Zealand and North American elk directly from
Canada. The national farmed deer herd is now distributed throughout all states although most
are in New South Wales and Victoria.
Paragraph B
The number of animals processed annually has continued to increase, despite the
downward trend in venison prices since 1997. Of concern is the apparent increase in the
number of female animals processed and the number of whole herds committed for processing.
With more than 40,000 animals processed in 1998/99 and 60,000 in 1999/2000, there is
justified concern that future years may see a dramatic drop in production. At least 85% of all
venison produced in Australia is exported, principally to Europe. At least 90% of all velvet
antler produced is exported in an unprocessed state to Asia.
Schemes to promote Australian deer products continue to have a positive effect on sales
that in turn have a positive effect on prices paid to growers. The industry appears to be showing
limited signs that it is emerging from a state of depression caused by both internal and external
factors that include: (i) the Asian currency downturn; (ii) the industry’s lack of competitive

10
advantage in influential markets (particularly in respect to New Zealand competition), and; (iii)
within industry processing and marketing competition for limited product volumes of venison.
Paragraph C
From the formation of the Australian Deer Breeders Federation in 1979, the industry
representative body has evolved through the Deer Farmers Federation of Australia to the Deer
Industry Association of Australia Ltd (DIAA), which was registered in 1995. The industry has
established two product development and marketing companies, the Australian Deer Horn and
Co-Products Pty Ltd (ADH) and the Deer Industry Projects and Development Pty Ltd, which
trades as the Deer Industry Company (DIC). ADH collects and markets Australian deer horn
and co-products on behalf of Australian deer farmers. It promotes the harvest of velvet antler
according to the strict quality assurance program promoted by the industry. The company also
plans and co-ordinates regular velvet accreditation courses for Australian deer farmers.
Paragraph D
Estimates suggest that until the early 1990s the rate of the annual increase in the
number of farmed deer was up to 25%, but after 1993 this rate of increase fell to probably less
than 10%. The main reasons for the decline in the deer herd growth rate at such a critical time
for the market were: (i) severe drought conditions up to 1998 affecting eastern Australia during
1993-96 and (ii) the consequent slaughter of large numbers of breeding females, at very low
prices. These factors combined to decrease confidence within the industry. Lack of confidence
saw a drop in new investment within the industry and a lack of willingness of established
farmers to expand their herds. With the development of strong overseas markets for venison
and velvet and the prospect of better seasons ahead in 1996, the trends described were seen to
have been significantly reversed. However, the relatively small size of the Australian herd was
seen to impose undesirable restraints on the rate at which herd numbers could be expanded to
meet the demands for products.
Supply difficulties were exacerbated when the supply of products, particularly venison,
was maintained by the slaughter of young breeding females. The net result was depletion of the
industry’s female breeding herds.
Paragraph E
Industry programs are funded by statutory levies on sales of animals for venison, velvet
antler sales and the sale of live animals into export markets. The industry has a 1996 - 2000
five year plan including animal nutrition, pasture quality, carcass quality, antler harvesting,
promotional material and technical bulletins. All projects have generated a significant volume
of information, which compliments similar work undertaken in New Zealand and other deer
farming countries.
Major projects funded by levy funds include the Venison Market Project from 1992 to

11
1996. This initiative resulted in a dramatic increase in international demand for Australian
venison and an increase in the domestic consumption of venison. In an effort to maintain
existing venison markets in the short term and to increase them in the long term, in 1997 the
industry’s top priority became the increase in size and production capacity of the national herd.

Questions 5 – 7
Read the passage about Deer Farming in Australia again and look at the statements below. For
questions 5 – 7 on your answer sheet write:
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in Reading Passage
5. Since 1985 many imported deer have been interbred with the established herds.
6. The drop in deer numbers since 1997 led to an increase in the price of venison.
7. Current economic conditions in Asian countries have had positive effect on the Australian deer
industry.
Questions 8 – 10
Complete each of the following statements (Questions 8 –10) with words taken from Reading
Passage. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
8. A stringent __________ allows the Australian deer industry to maintain their excellence of
product.
9. Herd stock expansion was made difficult by the killing of __________ to continue product
supply.
10. Foreign and home markets for Australian venison increased due to the __________.
E. WRITING: (25 pts)
Part 1. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to
the original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. (5pts.)
1. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us. (TAKEN)
_________________________________________________________________
2. The President was impeached because of his financial misconduct. (GROUNDS)
______________________________________________________________
3. The jumper you knitted for my daughter no longer fits her. (GROWN)
_________________________________________________________________
4. Oskar didn’t feel like going out last night. (MOOD)
________________________________________________________________
5. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night. (EARS)
_________________________________________________________________
6. His father was very angry with him when he heard he had damaged the car. (BLEW)
________________________________________________________________
7. Winning the lottery has its good and bad points. (BLESSING)
12
 _________________________________________________________________
8. He’s a pleasant man socially but he is a tough businessman. (BARGAIN)
___________________________________________________________________
9. The young actress was very nervous before the audition. (BUTTERFLIES)
___________________________________________________________________
10. We were elated by the birth of our first grandchild. (MOON)
___________________________________________________________________

Part 2. Graph description. (10pts)

The table below shows the percentage of the rooms occupied in six hotels during May to September
between 1985 and 2000. The table also indicates the star rating of each hotel.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.
You should write at least 150 words.

Stars 1985 1990 1995 2000

Hotel Concorde ***** 90 90 30 65

Hamilton's ***** 100 100 95 70

The Tower **** 57 85 55 85

Hotel Olivia *** 90 85 89 95

Hampton's *** 100 100 90 100

The Continental *** 79 83 70 80

Part 3. Essay writing (10 pts.)

Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
Parents are the best teachers.
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer. You should give reasons for your
answer using your own ideas and experience. Write about 250 words.

13
 ĐÁP ÁN MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 – ĐỀ SỐ 1.
KỲ THI HSG VÙNG ĐỒNG BẰNG DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
HẢI DƯƠNG 2014
A. LISTENING
Part 1: (5 pts)
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C
Part 2: (10 pts)
1. tutoring 2. Sunday 3. teens, adults 4. yoga 5. adults
sessions
6. 75 7. 225 8. Eliot 9. across the 10. Monday
street/ in the
garage

B. PHONETICS
Part 1: (2.5 pts)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D

Part 2: (2.5 pts)

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D

C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Part 1: (5 pts)
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. A
11. D 12. D 13.A 14. A 15. B 16. B 17.C 18. C 19. A 20. D

Part 2: (5 pts)
1. envision (1)  envisioned 6. speak (11)  speaking
2. in threat (2)  under threat 7. safe (13)  safely
3. what (6)  how 8. stare (16)  staring
4. between (7)  from 9. features (18)  feature
5. injure (9)  injury 10. advices (21)  advice

Part 3 (5 pts)
1. for 2. against 3. up 4. of 5. on
6. against 7. away 8. back 9. forward 10. over
11. down 12. in 13. into 14. off 15. without
16. on 17. for 18. in 19. to 20. out of

Part 4: (5 pts)
1. to be 2. rescued 3. clinging 4. dates
5. abounds 6. are 7. was being played 8. came
9. come 10. will have pulled 11. had …had 12. to stay
13. going 14. stood 15. had left 16. to blame
17. might/could 18. had betrayed 19. being/ having 20. be stamped
have been killed been

Part 5: (5 pts)
1. holidaymakers 6. likelihood
2. unmistakable 7. unfortunately
3. awakening 8. unfamiliarity
4. unforeseeable/ unforeseen 9. undoubtedly
5. beneficial 10. wisdom

Part 6: (5 pts)
1. whilst 6. thus
2. Firstly 7. Furthermore
3. Secondly 8. For example
4. For this reason 9. All things considered
5. In contrast 10. on the other

D. READING
Part 1: (7.5 pts)
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. A
11. B 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. D

Part 2: (7.5 pts)

1. connected 6. which 11. felt
2. be 7. applies 12. what
3. no 8. to 13. the
4. up 9. nothing 14. if
5. amount 10. At 15. burst

Part 3: (5 pts)
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A
6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. D

Part 4: (5 pts)
1. viii 2. i 3. iii 4. vi 5. NG
6. F 7. NG 8. quality 9. breeding 10. Venison
assurance females Market Project
program

E. WRITING
Part 1: (5 pts)
1. We were not taken in by his smooth manner.
2. The President was impeached on the grounds of his financial misconduct.
3. My daughter has grown out of the jumper you knitted for her.
4. Oskar was in no mood/ wasn’t in the mood for going out last night.
5. What the politician was saying last night feel on deaf ears.
6. His father blew up at him when he heard he had damaged the car.
7. Winning the lottery has definitely been a missed blessing.
8. He’s a pleasant man socially but he drives a hard bargain in business.
9. The young actress had butterflies in her stomach before the audition.
10. We were over the moon when our first grandchild was born.
Part 2: (10 pts)
1. Completion: 1 pts
2. Content: 3 pts
- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too much details.
- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.
3. Organisation: 2 pts
- The ideas are well organized
- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs
4. Language: 3 pts
- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure
- Good grammar
5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt
Part 3: (15 pts)
1. Completion: (1 pt.)
2. Content: (2 pts)
Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example
and/or reasonable justification.
3. Organisation: (3 pts)
- Present the right form of a paragraph
- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.
4. Language: (3 pts)
- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures.
- Good use of grammatical structures.
- Present the ideas with clarity.
- Easy to follow.
5. Punctuations and spelling. (1 pts)
HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
KHU VỰC DH & ĐB BẮC BỘ
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC MỞ RỘNG
NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Lớp: …11…..
Ngày thi: 20 tháng 4 năm 2014
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề thi gồm 17 trang

PART ONE: LISTENING (15PTS)

Question 1: Listen and choose the correct answer to each question. Write your
answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (5pts)
1. These sessions with a counselor are _____.
A. compulsory for all students
B. available to any students
C. for science students only
2. The counselor says that new students have to _____.
A. spend more time on the college premises
B. get used to working independently
C. work harder than they did at school
3. John complains that the resource center _____.
A. has limited opening hours
B. has too few resources
C. gets too crowded
4. The counselor suggests to John that _____.
A. most other students can cope
B. he needs to study all the time
C. he should be able to fit in some leisure activities
5. Before being able to help John, the counselor needs to _____.
A. talk with some of his lectures
B. consult his tutor
C. get more information from him
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Question 2: (10pts)
Q1-5: Listen and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
Write your answer (T or F) in the space provided.
1. The Australian Quarantine Service is responsible for preventing diseases from
being introduced into the country.
2. In the past Asian honey bees have been found in Queensland, Australia.
3. A problem with Asian honey bees is that they attack native bees.
4. Australian bees’ size stops them from pollinating some flowers.
5. If Asian honey bees got into Australia, the country’s economy would be affected.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
1
Q6-10: Listen and complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for
each answer. Write your answer in the space provided.

Looking for Asian honey bees

Birds called Rainbow Bee Eaters eat only insects, and cough up small bits of
skeleton and other products in a pellet.
Researchers go to the locations the bee eaters like to use for (6) _____. They collect
the pellets and take them to a (7) _____ for analysis.
Here (8) _____ is used to soften them, and the researchers look for the (9) _____ of
Asian bees in the pellets.
The benefit of this research is that the result is more (10) _____ than searching for
live Asian bees.
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART TWO: PHONETICS (5PTS)

Question 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
the others’ in the same line. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space
provided. (2.5pts)
1. A. universal B. conservation C. newscaster D. consumption
2. A. obliged B. hindsight C. finalize D. expertise
3. A. congenial B. recipient C. appreciation D. refund
4. A. bobtail B. climber C. combing D. debtor
5. A. condemnation B. continuity C. contingency D. contact
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Question 2: Choose the word whose prominent stress is different from the others’
in the same line. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (2.5pts)
1. A. firsthand B. retail C. marquee D. parade
2. A. descale B. descent C. descend D. descant
3. A. petroleum B. mausoleum C. gymnasium D. trapezium
4. A. innovative B. commentary C. alternative D. bodybuilder
5. A. controversially B. respiratory C. agribusiness D. telecommuting
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
2
PART THREE: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30PTS)

Question 1: Choose the word/phrase that best completes each of the following
sentences. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (5pts)
1. The new school complex cost _____ the city council had budgeted for.
A. just twice as much as B. twice more by far than
C. twice much more than D. almost twice as much as
2. Larry _____ forgot where he’d left his keys.
A. momentarily B. directly C. singularly D. shortly
3. The Earth will be a planet where human beings, animals and plants live in
peaceful _____.
A. cooperation B. coordination C. corporation D. coexistence
4. James could no longer bear the _____ surroundings of the decrepit old house.
A. oppressive B. domineering C. pressing D. overbearing
5. I find the idea of experimenting on animals _____.
A. disagreeing B. objectionable C. distasteful D. objective
6. He’s a bit timid and hasn’t yet _____ the courage to apply for the job.
A. put on B. get off C. plucked up D. carried through
7. Following the crime in Bradford High Street last Saturday afternoon, the police
are checking _____ anyone who was there at the time.
A. in for B. up on C. out of D. over to
8. According to a Government spokesman, further _____ in the public sector are
to be expected.
A. cutbacks B. breakdowns C. out-takes D. layouts
9. Under the weather or not, Ashcroft _____ 2 mins 13.8 secs, almost a second
faster than her winning time last year.
A. set B. clocked C. gained D. took
10. That judge is feared because she takes a hard _____ in the fight against drugs.
A. line B. lane C. path D. rule
11. He will be sued for _____ of contract if he does not do what he promised.
A. fracture B. crack C. rupture D. breach
12. You shouldn’t _____ into other’s people private lives.
A. prowl B. prod C. proceed D. pry
13. Some romantic novelists _____ out books with the same old formula every
year.
A. churn B. spill C. ladle D. pour
14. Even the best medicines are not _____.
A. infallible B. unfailing C. fail-proof D. falsified
15. The dog was a little subdued yesterday, but she’s full of _____ this morning.
A. sprouts B. beans C. chips D. berries
16. There are a lot of crooked people in big cities. If you don’t want to be cheated,
you’ll need to keep your _____ about you.
A. mind B. wits C. head D. brain

3
 17. Just because we’ve had a good year, this does not mean that we cannot do
better: we must not _____.
A. have our head in the clouds B. bury our heads in the sand
C. count our blessings D. rest on our laurels
18. There’s nothing as cozy on a cold evening as the warm _____ of a fire.
A. glare B. sparkle C. glow D. flame
19. She seems to be angry with the whole world. She’s got a chip _____.
A. on her shoulder B. in her bonnet C. under her hat D. between the ears
20. How do you calculate the distance to the horizon? As a _____, it’s 7 miles + 1
mile per 100 ft above sea level.
A. trick of the trade B. golden rule C. free hand D. rule of thumb
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Question 2: There are TEN mistakes in this passage. Write them down & give the
correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (5pts.)
1. First come the PC, then the internet and e-mail; now the e-book is
2. upon us, a hand-held device similarly in size and appearance to a video
3. cassette. The user simply rings off the website on their PC, selects
4. the desired books, downloads them onto their e-book machine and
5. sits down to read them. For turning a page, the user simply taps the
6. screen. E-book technology is evolving rapidly, and with some of
7. the newest handholds you will even get internet access.
8. But why would one want an e-book machine with reference to a book?
9. Well, one selling point companies emphasized, when these devices
10. hit the market a few years ago, which is the space they save when going
11. on holiday. E-books enlighten the load, literally. Ten large novels can
12. be put onto a device that weighs less than the average paperback. One
13. can understand why commercial interests seem to want us to change.
14. After all, the whole production process at first plan by author
15. until delivery to the printer had been doing electronically for a while
16. now, so why not save a few million trees and cut out the hard copy?
Your answers:
Line Mistake Correction
1.
2.
3.
4.

4
 5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Question 3: Complete the following sentences with suitable prepositions or

particles. Write your answer in the space provided. (5pts)
1. There was tremendous excitement in the streets and the shouting didn’t die
_____ till after midnight.
2. A new organization is being set _____ for those concerned about the welfare of
dolphins.
3. My father’s going to go _____ the wall when he finds out that I’ve lost the car
keys.
4. She feels it is _____ her to socialise with uneducated people.
5. My teacher and I got _____on the wrong foot, but now we are good friends. off
6. The book centres _____ a woman who becomes an astronaut.
7. I love watching TV, but it does bite _____ my free time.
8. She left the potatoes cooking for so long that the water boiled _____ and the
potatoes were burnt.
9. He thinks I broke his window and threatens to pay me _____ for it.
10.He was wearing very shabby, dirty clothes and looked very down _____ heel.
11.The fitful moonlight was bright enough to see by, so he didn't bother to use his
torch as he threaded his way _____ through the trees.
12.The company has decided to bring _____ a new magazine aimed at the teenage
market.
13.I’m passing the chemist on my way home so I’ll pop _____ and see if the
photos are ready.
14.You let him slipped _____ your fingers again! We had him surrounded.
15.The politician was drowned _____ by people shouting and yelling.
16.He’s not feeling well at the moment, but he should be up and _____ again in a
few days.
17.The second leg was in extra time when the Austrians took a 2-1 lead _____
aggregate.
18.It was my first day on patrol and they threw me _____ the deep end.
19.You’re going to have to knuckle ______ if you don’t want to fail the exam next
month.
20.Even old Henry Spalding, who had returned to Wellington in the spring, added
his signature _____ good measure.
Your answers:

5
 1. 6. 11. 16.
2. 7. 12. 17.
3. 8. 13. 18.
4. 9. 14. 19.
5. 10. 15. 20.
Question 4: Give the correct tenses and forms of the bracketed verbs to complete
the sentences. Write your answer in the space provided. (5pts)
- Look! He (1. put) a ticket on Tom's car. Tom (2. be) furious when he sees it. He
hates getting parking tickets.
- (3. they, take) the necessary measures, this political crisis (4. can, avoid).
- I (5. look) everywhere, but the files appears (6. misplace).
- George mentioned (7. injure) in an accident as a child, but he (8. never, tell) us
the details.
- What time of year do you think it is in this picture? Summer? – No, it must be
winter. If it (9. be) summer the people (10. not sit) round that big fire.
- The speed limit is 30 miles an hour but Tom (11. drive) at 50 miles at that time.
He (12. drive) so fast!
- My family (13. move) to Hanoi in 1994 so by the end of this year, we (14. live) in
Hanoi for twenty years.
- When I open the door, I saw a man on his knees. He (15. clearly, listen) to our
conversation and I wondered how much he (16. hear).
- Thanks for sending back the book you lent you. You (17. not, read) it already!
You (18. be) the world’s fastest reader! Hope you enjoyed it.
- At first I (19. feel) quite flattered, (20. ask) to work with one of the professors.
Your answers:

1. 11.
2. 12.
3. 13.
4. 14.
5. 15.
6. 16.
7. 17.
8. 18.
9. 19.
10. 20.

6
Question 5: Give the correct forms of the bracketed words to complete the passage.
Write your answer in the space provided. (5pts)
SIR WALTER SCOTT
Sir Walter Scott was the key figure in creating a colorful image of Scotland’s past,
initially with his bestselling narrative poems, with his even more celebrated novels,
the first of which was Waverley. It was published (1. ANONYMITY) _____ in 1814
and, in subsequent years, its (2. SUCCEED) _____ were described as being ‘by the
author of Waverley’, which accounts for the term ‘Waverley novels’. Although Scott
made no public (3. KNOW) _____ of his (4. AUTHOR) _____ until 1827, the
writer’s identity was an open secret long before then. He wrote (5. ORDINARY)
_____ quickly, and the first collected edition of the Waverley novels was published
as early as 1819. A set of illustrations by Alexander Nasmyth was produced for the
second collected edition and these drawings were used on the title pages.
Nasmyth has been called the father of landscape painting and, like Walter Scott, he
helped to (6. POPULAR) _____ his country’s romantic and (7. PICTURE) _____
scenery. The drawings were recently presented to the National Library of Scotland,
which now boasts a superb and (8. RIVAL) _____collection of manuscripts and
papers relating to Scott and his circle.
What is less well known about Sir Walter Scott is that after his (9. BANKRUPT)
_____in 1826, his last years were spent in frantic literary activity to pay off all the
(10. CREDIT) _____to whom he owned money.
Your answers:

1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Question 6: Improve the essay by inserting the correct linking words and phrases
chosen from the box. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided.
(5pts)
However Similarly In other words
for instance also rather than
such as Alternatively Now
thus In addition because
in order to Firstly as a result
It is true that many students struggle to produce high-quality essays. Nevertheless, I
don’t agree that there is little you can do to improve your essays or to make the task
less difficult.

7
(1) _____, let us examine what an essay needs in order to be considered ‘good’. To
begin with, a good essay must answer the question fully. (2) _____, it must address
each of the points raised in the essay title. (3) _____, it must present these points in
an organized and logical way. A good writer will (4) _____ avoid using the same
words and phrases. This can be easily achieved by using techniques (5) _____
paraphrasing. (6) _____, you can use synonyms of words rather than repeating the
same ones. Furthermore, all of the ideas presented in your essay must be relevant and
supported by examples.
(7) _____, let us consider what students can do in order to improve their essay-
writing skills. Clearly, a good knowledge of the language is required to be able to
write an essay that has few errors and communicates well. (8) _____, writing a good
essay requires more than good language skills (9) _____ people often find it difficult
to write essays even in their own language. As with any skill, the best way to learn is
from our mistakes. To learn how to ride a bike you need to get on one and fall off
sometimes. (10) _____, students can improve their essay writing though making and
correcting mistakes and through constant practice.
Your answers:

1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

PART FOUR: READING (25PTS)

Question 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer best fits each
numbered gap. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (7.5pts)
Since the time of Nostradamus, meteorologists have been trying to (1) _____ the
mystery of climate changes. Their (2) _____ has been to be able to precisely (3)
_____ the weather for the days to come. In the past, meteorologists looked skywards
to find hints in the clouds. At present, their eyes are (4) _____ at the spots where the
most intriguing climatic transformations (5) _____ about, namely, the (6) _____
depths of the oceans where swirls, whirlpools and waves (7) _____ the patterns for
the future weather.
The most efficient way of (8) _____ hold of the ever changing map of the swirling
currents circulating their heat around the planet is from space. Weather satellites (9)
_____ with complicated instruments examine the surface and the bottom of the
oceans and determine the exact height of water. The impressive advantage offered by
satellite scanning is that measurements can be (10) _____ even in the most
inaccessible parts of the oceans and can provide daily pictures of the water surface
together with the (11) _____ wave height and wind speed.
8
(12) _____ being a priceless device for predicting climatic conditions for tourists,
farmers or aviators, weather satellites also (13) _____ advance warnings against
storms or typhoons which (14) _____ the coastal populations to (15) _____
themselves against these destructive forces of nature.
1. A. obviate B. account C. decipher D. elaborate
2. A. subject B. objectivity C. subjection D. objective
3. A. unravel B. perceive C. forecast D. explore
4. A. looked B. directed C. focused D. applied
5. A. come B. turn C. bring D. get
6. A. utmost B. indefinite C. terminal D. ultimate
7. A. accomplish B. procure C. generate D. formulate
8. A. getting B. coming C. finding D. making
9. A. equipped B. delivered C. supplement D. donated
10. A. done B. formed C. fulfilled D. taken
11. A. calculated B. amounted C. scored D. enumerated
12. A. Besides B. Apart C. Otherwise D. Whereby
13. A. denote B. proceed C. emerge D. issue
14. A. entitle B. entail C. enable D. enforce
15. A. protect B. ward C. sustain D. preserve
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Question 2: Read the following passage and think of the word which best fits each
numbered gap. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (7.5pts)
LOOKING INTO SPACE
Outer space has intrigued mankind ever since we first gazed upward. It was easy
enough to see stars in the night sky with the (1) _____ eye and many early
civilizations also noticed that certain groups appeared to form familiar shapes. They
used these constellations to help with navigation and as a (2) _____ of predicting the
seasons and making calendars. Ancient astronomers also perceived points of light (3)
_____ moved. They believed they were wandering stars and the word ‘planet’ (4)
_____ from the Greek word for ‘wanderer’. For much of human history, it was also
believed that the Earth was the centre of the Universe and that the planets circled the
Earth, and that falling meteorites (5) _____ solar eclipses were omens of disaster.
It wasn’t (6) _____ the 16th century that Polish mathematician and astronomer
Nicolaus Copernicus presented a mathematical model of (7) _____ the sun actually
moved around the Earth, challenging the prevailing understanding of how the solar
(8) _____ worked. The Italian physicist and astronomer Galileo Galilei then used a
telescope to (9) _____ this theory to be correct.

9
Many (10) _____ advances have allowed us to probe into space since then, and one
of the most pioneering was when the first manned spacecraft, the Apollo 11,
successfully (11) _____ through gravity and touched down on the moon’s surface.
Nevertheless, much of our research must be done from (12) _____ greater distances.
The Hubble Space Telescope was carried into orbit by a space shuttle in April 1990
and it has (13) _____ cosmologists to gather incredible data.
Most significantly, it has provided a great deal of evidence to (14) _____ the Big
Bang theory, that is, the idea that the Universe originated as a hot, dense state at a
certain time in the (15) _____ and has continued to expand since then.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Question 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the
questions. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (5pts)
AQUATIC SCHOOL
Many species of fish, particularly smaller fish, travel in schools, moving in tight
formations often with the precision of the most highly disciplined military unit on
parade. Some move in synchronized hordes, while others move in starkly geometric
forms. In addition to the varieties of shapes of schools of fish, there are countless
varieties of schooling behaviors. Some fish coalesce into schools and then spread out
in random patterns, while others move into close formations at specific times, such as
feeding times, but are more spread out at other times. Some move in schools
composed of members of all age groups, while others move in schools predominantly
when they are young but take up a more solitary existence as they mature. Though
this behavior is quite a regular, familiar phenomenon, there is much that is not
completely known about it, particularly the exact function that it serves and what
mechanisms fish use to make it happen.
Numerous hypotheses have been proposed and tested concerning the purpose of
schooling behavior in fish. Schooling certainly promotes the survival of the species,
but questions arise as to the way the schooling enables fish to have a better chance of
surviving. Certainly, the fact that fish congregate together in schools helps to
ensure their survival in that schooling provides numerous types of protection for
the members of the school. One form of protection derives from the sheer numbers
in the school. When a predator attacks a school containing a huge number of fish, the
predator will be able to consume only a small percentage of the school. Whereas
some of the members of the school will be lost to the predator, the majority of the
school will be able to survive. Another form of protection comes from the special
coloration and markings of different types of fish. Certain types of coloration or
markings such as stripes or patterns in vibrant and shiny colors create a visual effect
10
when huge numbers of the fish are clustered together, making it more difficult for a
potential predator to focus on specific members of the school. A final form of
protection comes from a special sense that fish possess, a sense that is enhanced when
fish swim in schools. This special sense is related to a set of lateral line organs that
consist of rows of pores leading to fluid-filled canals. These organs are sensitive to
minute vibrations in the water. The thousands of sets of those special organs in a
school of fish together can prove very effective in warning the school about an
approaching threat.
[9A] It is also unclear exactly how fish manage to maintain their tight formation. [9B]
Sight seems to play a role in the ability of fish to move in schools, and some
scientists believe that, at least in some species, sight may play the principal role. [9C]
However, many experiments indicate that more than sight is involved. Some fish
school quite well in the dark or in murky water where visibility is extremely limited.
[9D] This indicates that senses other than eyesight must be involved in enabling the
schooling behavior. The lateral line system most likely plays a significant role in the
ability of fish to school. Because these lateral line organs are sensitive to the most
minute vibrations and currents, this organ system may be used by fish to detect
movements among members of their school even when their eyesight is limited or
unavailable.
1. The author mentions the most highly disciplined military unit on parade in
paragraph 1 in order to _____.
A. describe the aggressive nature of a school of fish
B. provide an example of a way that military units travel
C. create a mental image of the movement of a school of fish
D. contrast the movement of a military unit with that of a school of fish
2. All of the following are stated in paragraph 1 about schooling EXCEPT that
_____.
A. it is quite common
B. it can involve large numbers of fish
C. it can involve a number of different fish behaviors
D. it is fully understood
3. Which fish would be least likely to be in a school?
A. A large, older fish B. A smaller, colorful fish
C. A young, hungry fish D. A tiny, shiny fish
4. Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the first
highlighted sentence in paragraph 2?
A. After an attack, the fish that survive tend to move into schools.
B. The survival of fish depends upon their ability to bring new members into
the school.
C. Many facts about the way that fish congregate in schools have been studied.
D. Fish travel in schools to protect themselves in various ways.
5. The phrase ‘sheer numbers’ in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _____.
A. solitude B. interlude C. multitude D. similitude

11
 6. It can be inferred from the passage that, when a predator attacks, _____.
A. it cannot possibly consume all members of a school if the school is large
enough.
B. it rarely manages to catch any fish that are part of a school
C. it is usually successful in wiping out the entire school
D. it attacks only schools that lack sense organs
7. It is stated in paragraph 2 that _____.
A. fish in schools rarely have distinct markings
B. the effect of coloration is multiplied when fish are massed together
C. schooling fish tend to have muted coloration
D. the bright coloration makes it easier for predators to spot fish
8. The author begins paragraph 3 with It is also unclear in order to indicate that
_____.
A. contradictory information is about to be presented
B. it is necessary to clarify a previously made point
C. a second issue is about to be presented
D. it is unclear how a problem can be resolved
9. According to paragraph 3, _____.
A. fish cannot see well
B. not all fish use sight to remain in schools
C. sight is the only sense used by fish to remain in schools
D. fish can see quite well in the dark
10.It is NOT stated in the passage that the lateral line system _____.
A. contains lines or pores
B. can detect movement in the water
C. quite possibly helps fish to remain in schools
D. in fish is similar to sense organs in other animals
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Question 4: (5pts)

Q1-5: Read the following passage and choose the correct headings for each
paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the correct number (A – I) in
the space provided. (2.5pts)

List of Headings
A. The benefits of simple language F. Differing interpretations
B. A necessary tool G. Publicizing new words
C. A lasting way of concealing disasters H. Feeling shut out
D. The worst offenders I. Playing with words
E. A deceptively attractive option

12
 JARGON
0 Jargon is a loaded word. One dictionary defines it, neatly and neutrally, as ‘the
_F_ technical vocabulary or idiom of a special activity or group’, but this sense is
almost completely overshadowed by another: ‘obscure and often pretentious
language marked by a roundabout way of expression and use of long words’.
For most people, it is this second sense which is at the front of their minds
when they think about jargon. Jargon is said to be a bad use of language,
something to be avoided at all costs. No one ever describes it in positive terms
(‘that was a delightful piece of rousing jargon’). Nor does one usually admit to
using it oneself: the myth is that jargon is something only other people employ.
1 The reality, however is that everyone uses jargon. It is an essential part of the
___ network of occupations and pursuits that make up society. All jobs present an
element of jargon, which workers learn as they develop their expertise. All
hobbies require mastery of a jargon. Each society grouping has its jargon. The
phenomenon turns out to be universal – and valuable. It is the jargon element
which, in a job, can promote economy and precision of expression, and thus
help make life easier for the workers. It is also the chief linguistic element
which shows professional awareness (‘know-how’) and social togetherness
(‘shop-talk’).
2 When we have learned to command it, jargon is something we readily take
___ pleasure in, whether the subject area is motorcycles, knitting, cricket, baseball
or computers. It can add pace, variety and humour to speech – as when, with an
important event approaching, we might slip into NASA-speak, and talk about
countdown, all systems go, and lift-off. We enjoy the mutual showing-off which
stems from a fluent use of terminology, and we enjoy the in-jokes which shared
linguistic experience permits. Moreover, we are jealous of this knowledge. We
are quick to demean anyone who tries to be part of our group without being
prepared to take on its jargon.
3 If jargon is so essential a part of our lives, why then has it had such a bad
___ press? The most important reason stems from the way jargon can exclude as
well as include. We may not be too concerned if we find ourselves faced with
an impenetrable wall of jargon when the subject matter has little perceived
relevance to our everyday lives, as in the case of hydrology, say, or linguistics.
But when the subject matter is one where we feel implicated, and think we have
a right to know, and the speaker uses words which make it hard for us to
understand, then we start to complain; and if we suspect that the obfuscation is
deliberate policy, we unreservedly condemn, labeling it gobbledegook and
calling down public derision upon it.
4 No area is exempt, but the fields of advertising, politics and defence have been
___ especially criticized in recent years by the various campaigns for Plain English.
In these domains, the extent to which people are prepared to use jargon to hide
realities is a ready source of amusement, disbelief and horror. A lie is a lie,
which can be only temporarily hidden by calling it an ‘inoperative statement’
13
 or ‘an instance of plausible deniability’. Nor can a nuclear plant explosion be
suppressed for long behind such phrases as ‘energetic disassembly’, ‘abnormal
evolution’ or ‘plant transient’.
5 While condemning unnecessary or obscuring jargon in others, we should not
___ forget to look out for it in ourselves. It is so easy to ‘slip into’ jargon, without
realizing that our own listeners/readers do not understand. It is also temptingly
easy to slip some jargon into our expression, to ensure that others do not
understand. And it is just as easy to begin using jargon which we ourselves do
not understand. The motivation to do such apparently perverse things is not
difficult to grasp. People like to be ‘in’, to be part of an intellectual or technical
elite; and the use of jargon, whether understood or not, is a badge of
membership. Jargon, also, can provide a lazy way into a group or an easy way
of hiding uncertainties and inadequacies: when terminology slips plausibly
from the tongue, it is not essential for the brain to keep up. Indeed some people
have developed this skill to professional levels. And certainly, faced with a
telling or awkward question, and the need to say something acceptable in
public, slipping into jargon becomes a simple way out, and can soon become a
bad habit.
Your answers: (0. __F__)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Q6-10: Complete the summary using the list of words A – L below. Write the
correct letter (A – L) in the space provided. (2.5pts)

A. judgement D. efficiency G. contempt J. pleasure

B. jokes E. know-how H. feeling K. fear
C. shop-talk F. command I. possessiveness L. humour

The Up Side of Jargon

Jargon plays a useful part in many aspects of life including leisure. For example, when
people take up pastimes they need to develop a good (0) _____ of the relevant jargon.
During discussion of these of other areas of interest, conversation can become more
exciting and an element of (6) _____ can be introduced by the use of shared jargon.
Jargon is particularly helpful in the workplace. It leads to more (7) _____ in the way
colleagues communicate during work hours. Taking part in (8) _____ during
moments of relaxation can also help them to bond better.
It is interesting that members of a group, whether social or professional, often
demonstrate a certain (9) _____ towards the particular linguistic characteristics of
their subject area and tend to regard new people who do not wish to learn the jargon
with (10) _____.
Your answers: (0. __F__)
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
14
PART FIVE: WRITING (30PTS)

Question 1: Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to
write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible to the original
sentence. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word
given. Do NOT change the form of the given word. (5pts)
1. Eventually Tim admitted that he was responsible for the error. OWNED
It was _________________________________________________ been
responsible for the error.
2. I have been told that you have been late for work every day this week.
BROUGHT
It _________________________________________________ that you have
been late for work every day this week.
3. I don’t mind which make of car you choose. CONSEQUENCE
It _________________________________________ make of car you choose.
4. Things have changed in a way that we didn’t expect. TURN
There ___________________________________________________events.
5. There is a rumour that he’s going to play for Manchester United. SAY
Manchester United _______________________________________________
to play for.
6. I promised him that the situation would not be repeated in the future. WORD
I ________________________________________________no repetition of
the situation in the future.
7. Being inexperienced was a disadvantage to her when she applied for
promotion. COUNTED
Her ______________________________________________when she applied
for promotion.
8. Susan is far superior to me in terms of technical knowledge. MATCH
When it comes __________________________________________ for Susan.
9. The film was so controversial that it was banned in several parts of the world.
CAUSED
Such was ___________________________________________ film that it was
banned in several parts of the world.
10. I said that I thought he was wrong about the best way for us to proceed. ISSUE
I __________________________________________ best we should proceed.

Question 2: (10pts)
The chart below shows UK and USA energy consumption in 2006.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
You should write at least 150 words.

15
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Question 3: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (15pts)
Extra private lessons outside school hours, where students work alone or in a
small group with a teacher, can help them do better at school.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your
answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
16
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- THE END -

17
HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC MỞ RỘNG
KHU VỰC DH & ĐB BẮC BỘ NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Lớp: …11…..
Ngày thi: 20 tháng 4 năm 2013

ĐÁP ÁN & BIỂU ĐIỂM

PART ONE: LISTENING (15PTS)

Question 1: (5pts = 5 x 1pt/each)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C

Question 2: (10pts = 10 x 1pt/each)

Q1-5:
1. F 2. T 3. F 4. F 5. T
Q6-10:
6. feeding/eating 7. laboratory 8. water 9. wings 10.reliable

PART TWO: PHONETICS (5PTS)

Question 1: (2.5pts = 5 x 0.5 pt/each)

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. C

Question 2: (2.5pts = 5 x 0.5 pt/each)

1. B 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A

PART THREE: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30PTS)

Question 1: (5pts = 20 x 0.25/each)

1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10.A
11.D 12.D 13.A 14.A 15.B 16.B 17.C 18.C 19.A 20.D
Question 2: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each)

Line Mistake Correction

1. 1 come came
2. 2 similarly similar
3. 3 rings off calls up
4. 5 For turning To turn
5. 7 newest handholds latest handhelds
6. 8 with reference to in preference to
7. 10 which is is
8. 11 enlighten lighten
9. 14 at from
10. 15 had been doing has been done

Question 3: (5pts = 20 x 0.25/each)

1. down 6. around 11. forward 16. about
2. up 7. into 12. out 17. on
3. up 8. away 13. in 18. at
4. beneath 9. back 14. through 19. down
5. off 10. at 15. out 20. for

Question 4: (5pts = 20 x 0.25/each)

1. is putting 11. were driving
2. will be 12. shouldn’t have been driving
3. Had they taken 13. moved
4. could have been avoided 14. will have lived/ will have been living
5. have looked 15. had clearly been listening
6. to have been misplaced 16. had heard
7. having been injured 17. can’t have read
8. never told/ had never told 18. must be
9. were 19. felt
10. wouldn’t be sitting 20. being asked
Question 5: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each)
1. anonymously 6. popularize/ popularise
2. successors 7. picturesque
3. acknowledgement 8. unrival(l)ed
4. authorship 9. bankruptcy
5. extraordinarily 10. creditors

Question 6: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each)

1. Firstly 6. Alternatively
2. In other words 7. Now
3. In addition 8. However
4. also 9. because
5. such as 10. Similarly

PART FOUR: READING (25PTS)

Question 1: (7.5pts = 15 x 0.5pt/each)

1. C 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. D
11. A 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. A

Question 2: (7.5pts = 15 x 0.5pt/each)

1. naked 2. means 3. that/which 4. derived/s 5. and
6. until 7. how 8. system 9. prove 10.technological
11.broke 12. far/much 13. allowed/ 14. support 15.past
enabled

Question 3: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each)

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10.D
Question 4: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each)
Q1-5:
1. B 2. I 3. H 4. D 5. E
Q6-10:
6. L 7. D 8. C 9. I 10.G
PART FIVE: WRITING (30PTS)

Question 1: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each)

1. Tim who/that owned up to having
2. has been brought to my attention
3. is of no/ little consequence to me which/ what
4. has been an unexpected turn of
5. is the team people say he’s going
6. gave him my word that there would be
7. lack of experience counted against her
8. to technical knowledge I am no match
9. the controversy (that was) caused by the
10. took issue with him about how
Question 2: (10pts)
Question 3: (15pts)
The mark given to part 3 is based on the following criteria:
1. Content: (6 points)
- Providing all main ideas and details as required
- Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Language: (6 points)
- Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
- Good use and control of grammatical structures
- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
- Legible handwriting
3. Organization & Presentation: (3 points)
- Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
- The essay is well-structured
 SCRIPTS
QUESTION 1:

COUNSELLOR: Well to be quite honest, John, I think they would be useful for everybody but well,
everybody has their own way of going about things. I prefer people just to drop in when they can.
JOHN: Yes.
COUNSELLOR: I find that talking to students about the requirements of a course helps to clarify what
needs to be done. I mean the biggest difference between college and school is that new college students
really have to do a lot of work on their own, and it's sometimes useful to get advice on how to take
control of your time and work effectively.
JOHN: Yes. I mean, it seems like a very light workload until assignment time comes and then I seem to be
working all night sometimes. I'm not the only one. It's ridiculous. The resource centre is very good but
it closes so early. It's in the library and so you'd think you could use it more. It's a real problem for me.
COUNSELLOR: Well, you're certainly not the only person in that position, as I'm sure you've found. It
really comes down to using every available hour in a systematic way. If you do this with a plan, then
you'll find that you still have time for yourself and your hobbies as well.
JOHN: Yeah. I've heard from Thomas that you made him a sort of plan like this, and he's going away for
the weekend with all his work handed in, whereas I haven't even started.
COUNSELLOR: I need to find out a few more things about you first. I'll give you this form to fill in about
your lectures and things before you leave.
COUNSELLOR: Now, what are your main problems?
JOHN: Well, what most concerns me is I'm still not doing very well in my assignments.
COUNSELLOR: Well, I know that you plan your writing carefully, but this can come to nothing if the
assignment doesn't answer the question. That really is the key. You must read the question carefully
and give it a great deal of thought before you even start planning or writing your first draft. It's also
vital to check your work for errors. Everybody makes them, and they can influence the person marking
the work. So, always take time at the end to check what you have written.
JOHN: As far as listening is concerned, I find it hard to keep up sometimes in lectures, especially two-
hour ones. I sometimes just seem to go off into a dream.
COUNSELLOR: It's a good idea to find out from your lecturers if they mind you recording the lectures.
You only need one of those small cassette recorders. The quality is pretty good and a second listening
can really clarify things. Something else you can do is check your notes with a friend after the lecture.
JOHN: Yes. That's a good idea. Thanks. It's hard to do all that all the time though, especially when there's
so much reading to do.
COUNSELLOR: Yes. It's important, though, not to confine yourself to reading on your subject. You
should also read things of general interest that appeal to you. You know, novels, newspapers, that kind
of thing. Do you have a good dictionary?
JOHN: Not really. I've never bothered with one
COUNSELLOR: Mmmm. It would probably be a good idea to get one. Dictionaries are not expensive and
they can help a lot. Also you can underline or highlight new words and ...

QUESTION 2:

PROFESSOR: Good morning everyone. In today's seminar, Grant Freeman, a biologist who specializes in
identifying insects, and who works for the Australian Quarantine Service, has come to talk to us about
his current research work. Right, well, over to you Grant.
GRANT: Good morning, everyone. I'm sure that you know that the quarantine services regulates all food
brought into Austrailia. Well, obviously they want to protect Australia from diseases that might come
 in with imported goods, but they also want to prevent insect pests from being introduced into the
country, and that's where I have a part to play. Anyway, my current research involves trying to find a
particular type of bee, the Asian Honey Bee, and finding out whether there are any of them in
Queensland once and eradicated them. Now, we're pretty keen to make sure that there aren't any more
getting in, particularly to New South Wales and other states.
STUDENT 1: What's wrong with Asian Honey Bees? Are they so different from Australian bees?
GRANT: Well, in fact, they look almost the same, but they are infested with mites - microscopic creatures
which live on them, and which can seriously damage our home-grown bees, or could even wipe them
out.
PROFESSOR: Well, what would happen if Australian bees died out?
GRANT: Well, the honey from Australian bees is of excellent quality, much better than the stuff the Asian
bees produce. In fact, Australia exports native Queen bees to a large number of countries because of
this. When the European Honey Bee was first discovered out in the bush, we found they made really
unpleasant honey and they were also too big to pollinate many of our native flowers here in Australia.
STUDENT 2: That must have had a devastating effect on the natural flora. Did you lose any species?
GRANT: No, we managed to get them under control before that happened but if Asian bees got in there
could be other consequences. We could lose a lot of money because you might not be aware, but it's
estimated that native bees' pollination of flower and vegetable crops is worth 1.2 billion dollars a year.
So in a way, they're the farmers' friend. Oh, and another thing is, if you're stung by an Asian Honey
Bee, it can produce an allergic reaction in some people; so they're much more dangerous than native
bees.
.......................................................................
PROFESSOR: How will you know if Asian bees have entered Australia?
GRANT: We're looking at the diet of the bird called the Rainbow Bee Eater. The Bee Eater doesn't care what it
eats, as long as they're insects. But the interesting thing about this bird is that we are able to analyse exactly
what it eats and that's really helpful if we're looking for introduced insects.
PROFESSOR: How come?
GRANT: Because insects have their skeletons outside their bodies, so the Bee Eaters digest the meat from
inside. Then they bring up all the indigestible bits of skeleton and, of course, the wings in a pellet - a
small ball of waste material which they cough up.
PROFESSOR: That sounds a bit unpleasant. So how do you go about it?
GRANT: In the field we track down the Bee Eaters and find their favorite feeding spots, you know, the
places where the birds usually feed. It's here that we can find the pellets. We collect them up and take
them back to the laboratory to examine the contents.
PROFESSOR: How do you do that?
GRANT: The pellets are really hard, especially if they have been out in the sun for a few days so, first of
all, we treat them by adding water to moisten them and make them softer. Then we pull them apart
under the microscope. Everything's all scrunched up but we're looking for wings so we just pull them
all and straighten them. Then we identify them to see if we can find any Asian bee wings.
PROFESSOR: And how many have you found?
GRANT: So far our research shows that Asian bees have not entered Australia in any number - it's a good
result and much more reliable than trying to find live ones as evidence of introduced insects.
PROFESSOR: Well, that's fascinating! Thank you, Grant, for those insights. I hope that you might inspire
some of our students here to conduct some similar experiments.
 SOURCES
PART 2, Question 2: Michael Vince & Amanda French, IELTS Language Practice, p208 –
MacMillan Education
5. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space.
LOOKING INTO SPACE
Outer space has intrigued mankind ever since we first gazed upward. It was easy enough to see
stars in the night sky with the (1) __A___ eye and many early civilizations also noticed that certain
groups appeared to form familiar shapes. They used these (2) _____ to help with navigation and as a
(3) _____ of predicting the seasons and making calendars. Ancient astronomers also perceived points
of light that moved. They believed they were wandering stars and the word ‘planet’ (4) _____ from the
Greek word for ‘wanderer’. For much of human history, it was also believed that the Earth was the
centre of the Universe and that the planets (5) _____ the Earth, and that falling meteorites and (6)
_____ eclipses were omens of disaster.
It wasn’t until the 16th century that Polish mathematician and astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus
presented a mathematical (7) _____ of how the sun actually moved around the Earth, (8) _____ the
prevailing understanding of how the solar system worked. The Italian physicist and astronomer Galileo
Galilei then used a telescope to (9) _____ this theory to be correct.
Many technological advances have allowed us to probe into space since then, and one of the most
pioneering was when the first (10) _____ spacecraft, the Apollo 11, successfully broke through (11)
_____ and touched down on the moon’s surface. Nevertheless, much of our research must be done
from far greater distances. The Hubble Space Telescope was carried into (12) _____ by a space shuttle
in April 1990 and it has allowed cosmologists to gather incredible data.
Most significantly, it has provided a great deal of evidence to support the Big Bang theory, that
is, the idea that the Universe (13) _____ as a hot, dense state at a certain time in the past and has
continued to (14) _____ since then.
1. A. naked B. bare C. clear D. plain
2. A. systems B. constellations C. arrangements D. classifications
3. A. process B. course C. measure D. means
4. A. calls B. bases C. derives D. develops
5. A. spun B. circled C. surrounded D. enclosed
6. A. sun B. sky C. day D. solar
7. A. form B. model C. mould D. copy
8. A. disagreeing B. objecting C. arguing D. challenging
9. A. prove B. state C. claim D. display
10. A. staffed B. manned C. occupied D. controlled
11. A. gravity B. pressure C. space D. layers
12. A. air B. orbit C. atmosphere D. galaxy
13. A. occurred B. happened C. originated D. sprung
14. A. extend B. lengthen C. expand D. enlarge

Keys: 1.A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. B
6. D 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. B
11. A 12. B 13. C 14. C
 ĐỀ NGUỒN MÔN TIẾNG ANH
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII
KHỐI 11
Thời gian: 180 phút

PART 1: LISTENING
I. You will hear a radio interview with the comedian Brain Conley, who does a
considerable amount of work in panto, a type of family-friendly show which is popular at
Christmas. For questions 1-5, choose the answer which fits best according to what you
hear.
1. Brian likes Birmingham because:
A. It has provided him with a steady income
B. It is where he grew up
C. It was where he first became famous
2. When they discuss children’s participation in panto, Brian says that
A. he prefers children not to come up on stage
B. it’s important to get the parents’ permission if a child wants to participate
C. he thinks that children’s participation adds a certain quality to the show
3. Brian became involved in comedy because
A. He had wanted to do it since he was a child.
B. His friends at school encouraged him to do it.
C. He found he could earn more by doing comedy.
4. What does Brian say about providing comedy for corporate events?
A. It is easy because the audience has had a lot to drink.
B. He has learnt how to respond to comments from the audience.
C. It’s the only way for many comedians to find work.
5. What does Brian feel with regards to nerves?
A. He agrees with a comment someone made early in his career
B. He no longer feels nervous because he is more experienced
C. The extent of his nerves has changed over the years

II. You will listen to a recording about a new kind of school in the U.K. Listen carefully
and supply the blanks with missing information.
  The idea of Studio School comes from an organization named Young Foundation who
has introduced innovations like Open University, Extended Schools, Summer
Universities, School of Everything and (6) __________________________.
 Two problems before the idea of Studio School was found out related to:
(7) _____________________: not seeing any relationship between what they learned
and future jobs.
Employers: complaining that kids coming out of the schools were not ready for work
and did not have (8) _____________________________.
 Cognitive skills: formal academic skills.
 Non- cognitive skills: the skills of (9) _________________________.
 This idea is called “Studio School” originated from the idea of a studio (10)
______________________.
 Characteristics of Studio School:
- Sizes of schools: (11)____________________ pupils at the age of 14 to 19 year-olds.
- 80% of program is studied through practical project, commission to businesses and
(12) ____________________________.
- Percentage of theoretical academic lessons: (13) ___________________.
 Prototyping period:
- 2 first places where the project was carried included: Luton and Blackpool.
- The most important result of trial phase: the pupils who were (14)
______________________ had jumped right to the top
- 35 schools are expected to establish throughout England next year.
- The main method of spreading Studio School is (15) __________________________.

PART 2: PHONETIC
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
16. A. sanctuary B. manky C. sanguine D. redundant
17. A. agog B. agony C. agrarian D. aglow
18. A. mound B. moustache C. mountain D. mouthful
19. A. gratuity B. pasteurize C. maturity D. question
20. A. crescendo B. fluorescent C. sciatica D. sceptre

II. Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each
group.
21. A. internal B. interpret C. interstice D. interleave
22. A. disinter B. cadaver C. cathedral D. atishoo
23. A. heuristics B. negligence C. navigate D. privatize
24. A. dungarees B. virtuoso C. executive D. existential
25. A. simultaneous B. entrepreneur C. advantageous D. magisterial

PART 3: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I. Choose the best answer.
26. The manager of the shop was ____________ she would not give me a refund.
A. adamant B. dedicated C. abusive D. intent
27. In fact, they are probably the biggest ideological ________ for the whole of civilization.
A. purification B. conjoiner C. justification D. generator
28. His daughter asked to go to an all- night party, but he __________ and told her she would
have to be home by midnight.
A. turned a blind eye to it B. put his foot down
C. pulled the wool over his eyes D. put the cat among the pigeons
29. Her friend saw us arrive at the party together and _______.
A. got the wrong end of the stick B. blotted on the landscape
C. kept her hair on me D. got the upper hand
30. To be honest, Harry has _______ than you have.
A. been more helpful considerably B. been considerably more helpful
C. been more considerably helpful D. considerably been more helpful
31. I’m in a real _____ and I just don’t know what to do.
A. dilemma B. paradox C. query D. hunch
32. He remembered the day three months _______ he had walked into the showroom to order
the car.
A. previously when B. previously that
C. previously then D. previously which
33. Modern saw blades are coated with a special ____________ plastic.
A. reduction of friction B. reduced-friction
C. friction is reduced D. friction-reducing
34. My father ____________ when he found out that I'd damaged the car.
A. hit the roof B. saw pink elephants
C. made my blood boil D. brought the house down
35. ______ for many years to live in a highly polluted environment, the people around the Aral
Sea now appear ____ the highest rates of esophageal cancer in the world.
A. To be forced - having B. Having forced – to have had
C. Forcing – having had D. Having been forced – to have
36. If you say a person is disinterested, you mean he or she ___________
A. has lost interest in something
B. is not interested in something
C. has no personal bias when making a decision
D. is not an interesting person
37. After what Maria said, I think we should ____ her ____ the guest list
A. chop off B. drop off C. wipe off D. cross off
38. _____ any change in the condition of the patient, be sure that the nurse in charge is
informed.
A. However slight B. In the event of
C. With the exception of D. Owing to
39. I gave Kelly ______ on her birthday.
A. an action-packed exciting adventure book
B. an exciting action- packed adventure book
C. an adventure exciting action-packed book
D. an adventure action- packed exciting book
40. I could tell at a _______ that nothing had changed between Barbara and Edward.
A. glimpse B. blink C. wink D. glance
41. In spite of his poor education, he was a most______ speaker.
A. articulate B. ambiguous C. attentive D. authoritarian
42. There are______ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to
this fact.
A. a large many B. quite many C. quite a lot D. a great many
43. By the end of the 1800s, the output of European artists, writers and scientists ____ to the
point where it dwarfed the productiveness of the 1700s.
A. accelerating B. accelerates
C. had accelerated D. have accelerated
44. "I'd like _____about the management of your hotel, please." - "Well, you could have
___with the manager. He might be helpful."
A. some information / a word B. some information / some words
C. some informations / a word D. an information / a word
45. Everyone is entitled to a ticket ____ of where they come from.
A. irrelevant B. irrespective C. prerequisite D. incidental

II. There are tea errors in the following passage. Underline them in the text and
correct them in the numbered box. Question (0) has been done as an example.
0. century → a century
For more than century, robberies of every kinds have plagued nations around the world.
Bank and house robberies were common occurrence. As many were caught so those who were
not and over the year, many continued to turn to these get rich quick methods. Despite the
nature of these ‘occupation’, media reports glorified the ingenious ways the robbers managed
to escape with loot. Then, films, too, were made about famous robberies and criminals were
turned for celebrities.
More and more people began robbing houses and banks and its techniques became more
sophisticating, making it close to impossible for them to get caught. To compound this
problem, many robbers returned to their countries where they were no rules of extraditions. As
a result, many of them simply returned to their home countries to prevent the foreign

III. Prepositions & Particles: Fill in each of the blanks with an appropriate preposition or
particle.
56. He showed great ingenuity ______ solving the problem.
57. Don't let him lure you ______ agreeing.
58. You're silly not to avail yourself ______ this good opportunity.
59. The speaker made many allusions ______ the new scheme.
60. John thought he heard a funny noise coming from the car engine, so he pull ______ to
investigate.
61. Children are often fascinated ______ things around them.
62. The man is obsessed ______ the idea that he should become a famous person.
63. Work hard now, or you will end ______ being a miserable person out of work.
64. I’ve got a large family, but they’ve all spread ______ across the whole country.
65. Perhaps, we'd better cross ______ his name because of his too frequent absence from class.
66. He really got his parents ______, losing lots of money in his business.
67. There's a determination to hunt ______ all the bribed officials involved in the "Orange
Five" case.
68. Look ______ sharp stones when you walk on the beach.
69. Several rare species are dying ______ owing to deforestation and careless hunting.
70. We had to take ______ the deliveries to make sure every piece was in good condition.
71. His exhaustion resulted from his having taken ______ too much work.
72. My mother always wins when she wants my father to switch ______ ______ the TV
channel she likes.
73. She was able to carry ______ all the tasks assigned to her.
74. He has been a bit left behind and is now trying to catch ______ ______ others.
75. It is said that his new book will be brought ______ on the occasion of the Liberation Day.
IV. Put each verb in brackets in the correct tense or form.
76. I didn’t see anyone but I felt as though I (watch) ______.
77. Since they had that big argument, he crosses the street whenever he (see) ______her.
78. When she (realize) ______her mistake, she apologized.
79. Suddenly (feel) ______hungry, he stopped to buy a bar of chocolate.
80. Don’t try to phone me. By the time you read this letter, I (leave) ______
81. Tom is a first year student. By the end of next year, he (learn) ______English for two
years.
82. If they had revised the lesson carefully, they (not to fail) ______the exam.
83. (Write) ______the letter, she put it in an envelope.
84. Our classmates couldn’t help (laugh) ______when they heard the teacher’s funny story.
85. This kitchen needs (repair) ______as quickly as possible, for the roof leaks.
86. What a shame that it (decide) ______to cancel the school day!
87. If it (not be) ______for you, I would still be in prison today.
88. I don’t know who rang, but it (can be) ______Jim.
89. It’s your own fault, you (not go) ______to bed so late.
90. If I were (ask) ______you to marry me, what would you say?
91. It seems strange to be standing here, (look) ______out at Sydney Harbour.
92. No wonder he was sacked! He seems (fiddle) ______the accounts for years.
93. It is expected that tax increases (announce) ______in tomorrow’s budget.
94. Police are reported (find) ______illegal drugs in a secret hiding place in the star’s home.
95. ______ (judge) from his expression, you are about to be discipline.

V. Read the following passage and fill in each blank using the correct form of the word in
brackets
FAST BRAIN WAVES
Over half a century ago, scientists found that they could record the electrical signals of
the brain at work. What at first appeared a random hotchpotch of activity became a pattern of
elegant waves (96) _____ (RHYTHM) determined. Ever since, scientists have wondered
whether the secrets of our thoughts (97) _____ (PERCEIVE) and even (98) _____
(CONSCIOUS) itself might be hidden in the patterns of our brain waves. The question of why
we have brain waves is, (99) _____ (ARGUE), as hotly debated today as it was when the
patterns were discovered. But the meaning, and even the existence, of fast rhythms in the alert
brain is highly (100) _____ (CONTROVERSY). What is problematic is that you cannot
perceive these rhythms directly, they are so well hidden in the noise created by other brain
activity, but many (101) _____ (SEARCH) now hold the (102) _____ (CONVINCE) that the
significance of these brain waves should not be (103) _____ (ESTIMATE).The latest
suggestion is that the rhythms could be (104) _____ (DECIDE) in detecting progresses going
on indifferent regions of the brain. Some believe that these rhythms might even interact, and in
doing so help the brain to package information into (105) _______ (COHERE) thoughts. How
we bring together these related signals of the brain is a puzzle as yet unsolved.
VI. Choose the correct answer.
OUT-OF-BODY EXPERIENCES
(106) _______________ most scientists dismiss tales of out-of-body experiences on the
operating table as dreams and delusions, there are some cases which seem to defy rational
explanation. Take Margaret Frobisher. In 2003, she was undergoing a routine operation under
general anaesthetic at Sansdown Hospital in Kent. There were serious complications, (107)
_____________, and her heart stopped beating. Try (108) ____________ they might, the
surgeon and anaesthetist were unable to resuscitate her. Finally, after eight minutes, they
succeeded. (109) _____________ having been clinically dead, Margaret suffered no brain
damage and no adverse side effects. The story doesn’t stop there, (110) ____________. When
the anaesthetist went to visit her in her hospital bed, Margaret Frobisher recounted an amazing
story. She said she vividly remembered floating above the operating table. And (111)
____________ her never having been conscious in that room at any time, she described the
room and the resuscitation attempt in great detail. She said that (112) _____________ three of
the walls were bright white, one was dark grey. This was true. She also said that, on the top of
a cabinet in a corner of the operating theatre, there was an old book. (113) ______________
the anaesthetist didn’t – and couldn’t – believe her, she checked. There, just as Margaret
Frobisher had described it, was the book. (114) _____________ as they tried, no one at the
hospital could explain how Margaret could have known about the book. Even (115)
______________ one does not believe in a “soul” or in life after death, it is difficult to explain
what happened in that operating theatre when Margaret Frobisher’s heart stopped beating.
106. A. Despite B. While C. However D. In spite
107. A. whereas B. although C. however D. despite
108. A. as B. for C. with D. so
109. A. However B. Whereas C. Although D. Despite
110. A. even if B. even though C. although D. though
111. A. in spite of B. although C. however D. while
112. A. nevertheless B. whereas C. in spite of D. however
113. A. In spite B. However C. Even though D. Despite
114. A. Most B. More C. Much D. Many
115. A. so B. if C. though D. that

PART 4: READING
I. Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text.
It only (116) ______ the completion of the reconstruction of the human genetic map for a
whole host of hereditary diseases to be (117) _______. Originally, it was forecast that the
venture would take until the beginning of the 21st century to be (118) ________. At present, it
is clear that the task can be finished much earlier. Hundreds of scholars have gone to (119)
_______ to help (120) _______ the mystery of the human genetic structure with an ardent hope
for (121) _______ mankind from disorders such as cancer, cystic fibrosis or arthritis.

The progress in this incredible undertaking is (122) _______ by an accurate interpretation of

the information (123) _______ in the chromosomes forming the trillions of the cells in the
human body. Locating and characterizing every single gene may (124) _______ an implausible
assignment, but very considerable (125) __________ has already been made. What we know
by now is that the hereditary code is assembled in DNA, some parts of which may be diseased
and (126) ________ to the uncontrollable transmission of the damaged code from parent to
their children.

Whereas work at the completion of the human genome may last for a few years more, notions
like gene therapy or genetic engineering don’t (127) _______ much surprise any longer. Their
potential application has already been (128) ______ in the effective struggle against many
viruses or in the genetic treatment of blood disorders. The hopes are, then, that hundreds of
maladies that humanity is (129) _______ with an present might eventually cause to exist in the
not too (130) _______ future.

116. A. expects B. requires C. anticipates D. remains

117. A. terminated B. interfered C. eradicated D. disrupted

118. A. accomplished B. discharged C. dismantled D. exterminated

119. A. maximum B. utmost C. supreme D. extremes

120. A. dissolve B. interrogate C. respond D. unravel

121. A. liberating B. surviving C. insulating D. averting

122. A. dependent B. reliant C. qualified D. conditioned

123. A. associated B. contained C. involved D. derived

123. A. sound B. hear C. voice D. perceive

123. A. headline B. heading C. headway D. headship

126. A. amiable B. conceivable C. evocative D. conducive

127. A. evoke B. institute C. discharge D. encourage

128. A. examined B. inquired C. accounted D. corroborated

129. A. aggravated B. teased C. persecuted D. plagued

130. A. far-away B. outlying C. distant D. imminent

II. For questions 131-145, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each
space. Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0).
THE WAYS WE HAVE CHANGED
It is hard for almost everyone, but especially the young, to imagine a world (0) WITHOUT
television. We have (131) ___________ to expect that all the important news of the day,
worldwide will be there (132) __________ the touch of a button. In times (133) __________
by, only the literate knew what was going on in the world, and (134) __________ only after a
long delay. But now it is possible for any of us to watch world events as they occur. (135)
__________ has shortened the distance that divides our private lives (136) __________ the
outside world to (137) __________ an extent as television.
Time and (138) __________, television transports us to the habitats of rare animals, and we
may identify (139) __________ them. Concern for damage to the environment extends far and
(140) __________ We worry about the influence of technology not just in our cities but on us
(141) __________ people. Increasingly, we see (142) __________ as part of the planet (143)
__________ than in isolation.
(144) __________ was once the prerogative of scholars is now accessible to countless people
through the medium of television. (145) __________ this form of popular education can be
regarded as superficial, it represents a broadening of knowledge.

III. Choose the best answer

THE NATURE OF VOLCANOES
Volcanoes are mountains but they are very different from other mountains. They are not
formed by folding and crumpling but by uplift and erosion. Instead, volcanoes are built by the
accumulation of their own eruptive products—lava, bombs, and tephra. A volcano is most
commonly a conical hill or mountain built around a vent that connects with reservoirs of
molten rock below the surface of the Earth. The term volcano also refers to the opening or vent
through which the molten rock and associated gases are expelled.
Driven by buoyancy and gas pressure, the molten rock, which is lighter than the surrounding
solid rock, forces its way upward and may ultimately break through zones of weaknesses in the
Earth’s crust. If so, an eruption begins. And the molten rock may pour from the vent as non-
explosive lava flows, or it may shoot violently into the air as dense clouds of lava fragments.
Some of the finer ejected materials may be carried by the wind only to fall to the ground many
miles away. The finest ash particles may be injected miles into the atmosphere and carried
many times around the world by stratospheric winds before settling out.
Molten rock below the surface of the Earth that rises in volcanic vents is known as magma, but
after it erupts from a volcano it is called lava. Originating many tens of miles beneath the
ground, the ascending magma commonly contains some crystals, fragments of surrounding
rocks, and dissolved gases, but it is primarily a liquid composed principally of oxygen, silicon,
aluminum, iron etc. Magmas also contain many other chemical elements in trace quantities.
Upon cooling, the liquid magma may precipitate crystals of various minerals until
solidification is complete to form an igneous or magmatic rock.
The heat concentrated in the Earth’s upper mantle raises temperatures sufficiently to melt the
rock locally by fusing the materials with the lowest melting temperatures, resulting in small,
isolated blobs of magma. The blobs then collect, rise through conduits and fractures, and some
ultimately may re-collect in larger pockets or reservoirs a few miles beneath the Earth’s
surface. Mounting pressure within the reservoir may drive the magma further upward through
structurally weak zones to erupt as lava at the surface. In a continental environment, magmas
are generated in the Earth’s crust as well as at varying depths in the upper mantle. The variety
of molten rocks in the crust, plus the possibility of mixing with molten materials from the
underlying mantle, leads to the production of magmas with widely different chemical
compositions.
If magmas cool rapidly, as might be expected near or on the Earth’s surface, they solidify to
form igneous rocks that are finely crystalline or glassy with few crystals. Accordingly, lavas,
which of course are very rapidly cooled, form volcanic rocks typically characterized by a small
percentage of crystals or fragments set in a matrix of glassor finer grained crystalline materials.
If magmas never breach the surface to erupt and remain deep underground, they cool much
more slowly and thus allow ample time to sustain crystal precipitation and growth, resulting in
the formation of coarser grained, nearly completely crystalline, igneous rocks. Subsequent to
final crystallization and solidification, such rocks can be exhumed by erosion many thousands
or millions of years later and be exposed as large bodies of so-called granitic rocks, as, for
example, those spectacularly displayed in Yosemite National Park and other parts of the
majestic Sierra Nevada mountains of California.
Lava is red hot when it pours or blasts out of a vent but soon changes to dark red, gray, black,
or some other color as it cools and solidifies. Very hot, gas-rich lava containing abundant iron
and magnesium is fluid and flows like hot tar, whereas cooler, gas-poor lava high in silicon,
sodium, and potassium flows sluggishly, like thick honey in some cases or in others like pasty,
blocky masses.
All magmas contain dissolved gases, and as they rise to the surface to erupt, the confining
pressures are reduced and the dissolved gases are liberated either quietly or explosively. If the
lava is a thin fluid, the gases may escape easily. But if the lava is thick and pasty, the gases will
not move freely but will build up tremendous pressure, and ultimately escape with explosive
violence. Gases in lava may be compared with the gas in a bottle of a carbonated soft drink. If
you put your thumb over the top of the bottle and shake it vigorously, the gas separates from
the drink and forms bubbles. When you remove your thumb abruptly, there is a miniature
explosion of gas and liquid. The gases in lava behave in somewhat the same way. Their sudden
expansion causes the terrible explosions that throw out great masses of solid rock as well as
lava, dust, and ashes.

146. According to the information in paragraph 1, volcanoes are different from ordinary
mountains in the following ways EXCEPT
A. They are different in shape.
B. They are formed through different methods.
C. They are formed with different materials.
D. Volcanoes usually have an opening to let out gases.

147. According to the information in paragraph 2, what travels far away from the volcano
after the eruption?
A. The larger lava fragments.
B. The lava ashes.
C. The dense clouds of lava fragments.
D. The fine ejected lava ash particles.

148. The word so in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. The molten rock is lighter than the surrounding solid rock.
B. The molten rock goes upward and breaks into the Earth’s crust.
C. The surrounding solid rock goes up and breaks into the Earth’s crust.
D. The surrounding solid rock erupts.

149. The word ascending in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.

A. rising
B. advancing
C. extending
D. expanding

150. According to the information in paragraph 3, which is NOT true of magma?

A. It is the preexistence of lava.
B. Before the volcano eruption, it exists deep under the earth.
C. It is a mixture of gases, solids, liquids and chemical minerals.
D. Such elements as iron and silicon are rare in the magma.

151. The word breach in the passage is closest in meaning to _______

A. break
B. uncover
C. breach
D. convert

152. Which of the following inferences can be inferred from the information in paragraph 5?
A. Lavas may be expected near or on the Earth’s surface.
B. In the Yosemite National Park, crystalline and finely grained rocks are displayed.
C. Granitic rocks are huge while volcano rocks are comparatively small.
D. It takes years to form granitic rocks after the volcano eruption.

153. According to the information in paragraph 6, cool gas-poor lava contains abundant
chemical elements including _______.
A. Silicon, and potassium
B. Iron and sodium
C. Magnesium and iron
D. Magnesium and silicon

154. The author explains how the explosive eruption of volcano by _______.
A. Comparing the process to a bottle of a carbonated soft drink opened.
B. Contrasting the thin and thick lava fluid.
C. Comparing lava and other fluids.
D. Analyzing the working theory behind the process.

155. The word abruptly in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.

A. suddenly
B. abundantly
C. acutely
D. momentarily

IV. The following reading passage has twelve paragraphs. Choose the most suitable
headings for paragraph 2-11 from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate
letters (A-P) in the spaces provided.
There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. You may use
any of the headings more than once.
ON THE WING

Suppose a friend told you he had just spent $4,000 on a new hang glider weighing a
mere 601b (27 kilos) which he could transport on top of his car and carry on his shoulder.
Would you believe his plan to fly scores of miles without an engine? A flight of fancy? Not at
all, he would explain. Hang gliding no longer deserves its reputation as a sport for reckless
idiots who get a thrill risking life and limb by leaping off cliffs and mountains.

156. _____________

Accidents still happen, but they are usually caused by pilot error. Equipment failure is
rare and most mishaps result in nothing more than a bit of bent aluminium and a bruised ego.
Hang Gliding, a magazine for American enthusiasts, reckons that for every 100,000
participants the number of fatalities each year for hang gliding is 22. This, it claims, makes
pilots of hang gliders less intrepid than balloonists (death rate 67) or airline pilots (97).

157. ______________

Hang gliders are a marvel of simplicity and strength. A tough framework of aluminium
tubing supports a tailored sail stiffened by lots of alloy battens (these hold the wing in shape).
The whole structure is braced by stainless-steel rigging wires. Tolerances are so fine that
manufacturers have to cut the entire sail on the same day to avoid variations induced by
changes in temperature and humidity. And the designs of hang gliders have changed radically
from early prototypes made from bamboo and polythene.

158. _____________

This unusual form of unpowered flight traces its origins back to the work of a German
pioneer, Otto Lilienthal, in the 1890s. He carefully recorded the results of more than 2,000
experimental flights by man-carrying gliders, many of them made from a 50-foot (15-metre)
high purpose-built hill near Berlin.

159. ______________

But modern hang gliding owes everything to a pioneer who is still alive: Francis
Rogallo. Ha was employed in America’s space effort during the 1950s to design a steerable
parachute for space-capsule reentry. His work was never used for its intended purpose, but
adapted instead by water-skiers to produce a simple kite which could be towed aloft. It was a
small step from this to attempting to make foot-launched flights on these fragile craft, from the
gentle and forgiving sand dunes of coastal California. By the early 1960s, hang gliding was
reborn.

160. ______________

Since then home-built kits have been replaced by production-line models made by about
20 manufacturers. Flights used to last a minute or two. Today’s pilot can remain aloft for hours
while travelling huge distances. The world distance record is currently held by an American,
Larry Tudor, at 303 miles (488 km). It took him nearly nine hours to travel from Hobbs, New
Mexico, to Elkhart, Kansas.

161. ______________
 Once airborne, actually flying requires subtlety rather than strength – one reason why
women pilots often perform better than men. The pilot is suspended prone in a cocoon-like
harness and controls direction and speed through gentle shifts of body weight. Launching the
machine demands a committed run of just a few steps down a slope facing the prevailing wind.
Lading is harder. The pilot needs the same kind of precision possessed by large birds when
they land on level ground.

162. ______________

The necessary accessories include a helmet, gloves, an emergency parachute and a

variety of instruments, including a variometer. This clever box of electronics detects tiny
changes in air pressure, and relays this information as an audio tone and visual readout.
Changes occur as the pilot climbs (lower pressure) or descends (higher pressure). The skill is in
loitering in the rising air and avoiding the inevitable sink.

163. ______________

All new gilder designs undergo rigorous tests before being certified airworthy. There are
no internationally agreed standards, but it is generally accepted that the systems adopted by
Germany and Britain are especially stringent.

164. ______________

In Britain, the British Hand Gliding and Paragliding Association (BHGPA) employs a
mobile test rig upon which the aircraft is mounted. The whole unit is towed at high speeds
behind a suitable vehicle, allowing various flying profiles to be tested and measured against the
required extremes.

165. ______________

Training and coaching have also kept pace with technology and design. In Britain, full-
time BHGPA officers regulate training for beginners in commercial schools, and volunteer
coaches at the 40 local clubs throughout the country provide further training for their 3,500
members. Different countries have different systems for rating the proficiency of pilots, but all
aim to measure attainment, skill and knowledge through practical asks and written
examinations.

Hang gliding attracts the sort of people who enjoy a sense of freedom and adventure.
What organization there is exists mainly to stave off the threat of external controls and to foster
competition at the highest level. At the 1991 World Championships in Brazil, 114 pilots
represented 30 countries. The 1993 event, to be held at Owens Valley, California, from June
26th to July 10th, is expected to attract an even wider international field. Quite a change since
foolhardy Germans jumped off Otto Lilienthal’s hill.

Lists of headings
A. What else is needed to fly
 B. Hang gliders’ German origin
C. Unpowered flying – a flight fancy?
D. The function of battens
E. Training of hang glider fliers
F. The British test
G. Flying a hang glider
H. What to do in case of emergency
I. Hang gliders can fly hundreds of miles
J. Development of hang gliders in America
K. Testing systems to ensure safety
L. The structure of hang gliders
M. Safer than balloons and airplanes

PART 5: WRITING
I. Rewrite the sentences using words given.
166. The minister gave no precise figures about the casualties.
→ The minister didn't go _____________________________________.
167. Every possible effort was made by orphanage to find the boy's parents.
→ The orphanage left no stone ________________________________.
168. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
→ Refusal ________________________________________________.
169. I’m sure I can solve your problem for you.
→ I know I can sort ________________________________________.
170. Don’t tell my mother any about it.
→ Don’t breathe ___________________________________________.
171. The music teacher was the only member of staff not to attend the farewell party.
(EXCEPTION)
→ _______________________________________________________________.
172. Digging the garden always makes me feel hungry. (GIVES)
→ _______________________________________________________________.
173. After a while, I realized that I’d made a terrible mistake (DAWNED)
→ _______________________________________________________________.
174. He said that the crisis wasn’t important. (LIGHT)
→ _______________________________________________________________.
175. The neighbours were arguing. (ROW)
→ _______________________________________________________________.
II. This graph below shows the immigration into the United States from 1861 to 2010.
Write a report (of 150 words) on the changes over the period of 150 years. You may add
comments and reasons to enliven your report.

_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________

III. Should art be taught in public schools? Why or why not?

In about 250 words, write an essay to express your point of view on this idea. Use reasons
and examples to support your argument.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
 ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ NGUỒN MÔN TIẾNG ANH
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII
KHỐI 11
Thời gian: 180 phút

PART 1: LISTENING
I.
1. A 4. B
2. C 5. A
3. C
II.
6. Schools for Social Entrepreneurs
7. Bored teenagers
8. right attitudes and experiences
9. motivation, resilience
10. where work and learning are integrated
11. about 300, 400
12. through real life
13. 20%
14. in the lowest performing groups
15. word of mouth

PART 2: PHONETIC
I.
16. D 19. B
17. B 20. A
18. B
II.

21. D 24. C
22. A 25. B
23. A

PART 3: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I.

26. A 30. B
27. C 31. A
28. B 32. A
29. A 33. D
34. A 40. D
35. D 41. A
36. C 42. D
37. D 43. C
38. B 44. A
39. B 45. B

II.

46. kinds → kind 51. loot → the loot

47. common → a common 52. for → into
48. so → as 53. its → theirs
49. year → years 54. sophisticating → sophisticated
50. these → this 55. they → there

III.

56. in 66. down

57. into 67. down
58. of 68. out for
59. to 69. out
60. over 70. out
61. with 71. on
62. by / with 72. on to
63. up 73. out
64. out 74. up with
65. out / through 75. in / out

IV.

76. had been watched 86. has been decided

77. sees 87. hadn’t been
78. realized 88. could have been
79. feeling 89. shouldn’t have gone
80. will have left 90. to ask
81. will have learned/ will have been 91. looking
learning 92. to have been fiddling
82. would not have failed 93. will be announced
83. having written 94. to have found
84. laughing 95. judging
85. repairing / to be repaired
V.

96. rhythmically 101. researchers

97. perception(s) 102. conviction
98. consciousness 103. underestimated
99. (un)arguably 104. decisive
100. controversial 105. coherent

VI.

106. B 111. A
107. C 112. B
108. A 113. C
109. D 114. C
110. D 115. B

PART 4: READING
I.

116. B 124. A
117. C 125. C
118. A 126. D
119. D 127. A
120. D 128. A
121. A 129. D
122. D 130. C
123. B

II.

131. come / learnt / learned 142. ourselves

132. at 143. rather
133. gone 144. what
134. then 145. although / though / while / whilst
135. nothing
136. from
137. such
138. again
139. with
140. wide
141. as
III.

146. C 151. A
147. D 152. D
148. B 153. A
149. A 154. A
150. D 155. A

IV.

156. M 161. G
157. L 162. A
158. B 163. K
159. J 164. F
160. I 165. E

PART 5: WRITING
I.
166. The minister didn't go into details about the casualties.
167. The orphanage left no stone unturned in their attempt to find the boy's parents.
168. Refusal to give a breath sample (to the police) could lead to your arrest.
169. I know I can sort out your problem for you.
170. Don’t breathe a word of it to my mother.
171. With the exception of the music teacher, every member of the staff / all the staff
attended the farewell party.
172. Digging the garden always gives me an appetite / a good / big appetite.
173. After a while, it dawned on me that I’d made a terrible mistake.
174. He made light of the crisis.
175. The neighbours were having a row.
 TAPESCRIPT LISTENING
PART I:
Radio interviewer: I’m backstage at the Birmingham Hippodrome with the comedian Brian
Conley. Hello Brian. Nice to see you again.
Brian: Nice to see you too.
Radio interviewer: Birmingham’s done well for you over the years, hasn’t it?
Brain: It certainly has. It’s paid my mortgage, definitely. I mean, it’s not far from where
I live, it’s just up the motorway, and I love this theatre. I’ve got some great memories of
here. Back in the 90s, especially, when I was doing panto with Britt Eckland, that was a really
good time.
Radio interviewer: You mention panto, which has, of course an element of audience
participation and rowdiness. How do you cope with that? Is it something that’s difficult for
you?
Brian: It is difficult, especially with the kids, you never know what they’re going to
come up with. But I’m up for that. Some theatres don’t like the kids to come up on stage any
more, they just finish with a musical number and that’s it, but I think that’s a shame,
especially now I’ve got kids of my own. What a lot of theatres do now is get the parents to
come down and stand in the aisles, and if there’s a rowdy kid, we bring the parent up, and that
puts the onus on the parent to keep the kid in check. But I like all that participation. It’s what
gives it energy and makes it live.
Radio interviewer: You do a range of different shows though, don’t you?
Brian: Yes, I do musical theatre and corporate work as well as panto, but panto’s the
best. It plays to my strengths, you know. I like the fact that it’s got everything, singing,
dancing, comedy, and if there’s something in the papers that day, I can pick up on it and put it
in the show. And that’s something that only I can do, as the comedy character. The other
characters in the show can’t diverge from the script so much. But I can ad lib. It’s
great. When I work in musical theatre, I can’t do that. I have to stick to the script.
Radio Interviewer: So where did it all begin, this comedy career? When was your first time
on stage?
Brian: The first time I was on stage was when I was two. I was at this holiday camp and
my mum and dad lost me in the dance hall. Then they heard loads of people laughing and
they saw me up on stage making a fool of myself. That was it after that. I was hooked. But
what has also driven me is the fact that I was dyslexic. I found it difficult to keep up at
school, because my writing was bad, so I naturally became the class clown, the school
joker. But I was always a good singer, and singing was always my first love. Comedy came
later. When I started doing clubs when I was 17, I found that you get paid more for doing
comedy than you do for singing.
Radio Interviewer: And you still do comedy now.
Brian: Yeah, I do. Most of the comedy I do now is actually corporate work. You know,
these big work events, where there’s free food and drink. It’s very lucrative, but it’s a tough
crowd. They’ve got a load of free alcohol and they get boozed up. There’s a big demand for
it these days, but a lot of famous comedians can’t do it. I’ve learnt how to handle it over the
years, and I’ve got an answer for every situation now. I had to fall into it really, it pays the
mortgage.
Radio Interviewer: And you still get nerves?
Brian: A guy once said to me that it doesn’t get any easier. I dismissed that. I used to
reckon that as I got older and more experienced I’d be more relaxed and I wouldn’t get so
nervous. But I realize that he was right. I want to do well, and that effects how you feel
before the performance.
Radio Interviewer: Brain Conley, thank you very much.
PART II:
We are pleased to be able to recommend Anna Brown's "Go Organic", the essential book for
all concerned consumers.
"Go Organic" is a fresh, modern, and inspiring sourcebook which has started a revolution in
favour of organic living. It can help you make simple lifestyle changes that will have a big
impact on our planet.
Part of the reason for our support is that we think naturally grown produce, and pesticide and
chemical-free meat and poultry taste so good. It is honestly produced, marketed fresh, more
flavourful and better for our health than intensively produced food.
But our interest in the subject also reflects the anxieties so many of us feel about big
agribusiness meat and vegetables. We all want to know where our food has come from and
what has been put on it. Intensively-reared dairy cows and farm animals are fed a dangerous
cocktail of growth promoting drugs, antibiotics and anti-parasite drugs on a daily basis,
whether they have an illness or not. These drugs are passed directly onto the consumers of
their dairy produce or meat., which must be a contributing factor to meat-related diseases like
coronaries and high blood pressure.
None of us likes the idea of hormones and growth promoters, or pigs and chicken kept in
crowded , cramped conditions. We hate the idea of chickens having to be debeaked so they
don't peck each other, or pigs having their tails cropped.
We dislike feeding our children - and ourselves - on vegetables that have been pumped up
with chemical fertilizers, then sprayed with pesticide to keep the apples glossy and the pears
unblemished. Over £2.5 million of public money is spent every year just to monitor the use of
pesticides when a rational food and agriculture policy would find means of eliminating this
source of pollution from the food chain altogether - or, at least, of reducing it so the costs are
less ridiculous.
We spend billions of pounds every year cleaning up the mess that agro-chemicals make to our
natural water supply.
The average conventionally-grown apple has 20-30 artificial poisons on its skin, even after
rinsing.
Fresh organic produce contains on average 50% more vitamins, minerals, enzymes and other
micro-nutrients than intensively farmed produce.
We don't want to buy tomatoes that have been genetically modified (that is, GM) with the
DNA of a fish just to expand their shelf life for the convenience of the wholesaler and retailer.
And we don't want to buy tomato paste made from GM tomatoes. At the very least, we want
GM products to be clearly labelled as such, so that we have the choice of buying non-GM
merchandise.
Organic foods cost more at the moment, but prices are coming down - the more we buy, the
cheaper it will get. This is one area where the consumer is sovereign -it is the consumers who
have made the organic food revolution.
Intensive farming can seriously damage farm workers' health. There are much higher
instances of cancer, respiratory problems and other major diseases in farm workers from non-
organic farms. This is particularly true in developing countries, and for agrochemical farms
growing cotton. So we need to go organic if we care about other people.
The trouble is, it can be difficult to shop organically –there are competing interests with
competing claims - and different labels.
If you want to safeguard you and your family's health, you should go organic. Going organic
is the only practical way to avoid eating genetically modified food. And if you want to go
organic, you cannot miss reading "Go Organic", the book for everyone who aspires to a better
lifestyle and a better world.
 REFERENCE
PART I: LISTENING
I. CAE Listening 3
II. TED - Geoff Mulgan: A short intro to the Studio School

PART II: PHONOLOGY

II. Identify 10 mistakes: Olympic 2011 -TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ HỒNG PHONG –TP.
HỒ CHÍ MINH
IV. Read the following text and fill in each blank using the correct form of the word in
brackets. – Olympic 2013 - TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TRẦN ĐẠI NGHĨA –TP. HỒ CHÍ
MINH
VI. Linking words – Destination C1&C2

PART IV: READING

I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space - English
Advanced Vocabulary and Structure Practice test 5.
II. Fill each blank with ONE word - CPE practice test – Mac Harrison
III. Reading THE NATURE OF VOLCANOES – TOEFL Complete test-Reading.
IV. Reading ON THE WING – IELTS Reading Strategy.
SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC GIANG ĐỀ THI HSG KHU VỰC DH - ĐBBB
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BG NĂM 2014
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 11
(Đề thi gồm 16 trang)
_______________________________________________________________________

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 POINTS)

I. You will hear a student and an advisor talking about the facilities at the college.
Listen carefully and answer questions from 1 to 5. You will hear the information
twice. (5 pts)
1. If the student has to get medicines, there’s a prescription charge of _____.
A. £ 6.15 B. £ 6.50 C. £ 5.16 D. £ 5.60
2. Where is the student living at the moment?
A. at a hotel B. at a hostel
C. in the Sport Centre D. at his own apartment
3. Counseling service is on the _____.
A. North Campus B. Central Campus
C. South Campus D. West Centre
4. If the student wants to make a note, the number is _____.
A. 09100625913 B. 90100625913
C. 09100762593 D. 09007625913
5. The fee you have to pay to get a pass is _____.
A. £ 12 B. £ 22 C. £ 32 D. £ 42
II. You will hear part of a lecture on Wildlife. Listen carefully and answer
questions from 1 to 10.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A NUMBER for each answer.
You will hear the information twice. (10 pts)
The European Starling.
Length: (1) ___________________.
Colour: black or grey, white spots.
Nesting sites: Trees and (2) _________________.

1
Diet: (3) _________________ and fruit.
Natural range: British Isles, Finland
Population: British Isles, Finland: in decline
USA: (4) _________________ birds
Some of the problems created by large numbers of starlings.
On wildlife: They compete with other species for (5) _________________ places.
On agriculture: They feed on (6) _________________ crops.
They cause (7) _________________.
On human life: They may cause (8) _________________.
Possible solutions.
There are (9) _________________ approaches in theory. The best
one, of course, is (10) _________________.
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 POINTS)
I. Choose letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions. (2,5p)
1. A. consequence B. television C. benefit D. facility
2. A. cultural B. advantage C. priority D. occurrence
3. A. destructive B. ecology C. comfortable D. security
4. A. individual B. opposition C. extinction D. universal
Your answers:
5. A. alternative 2. 3. 4. 5.
II. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced
differently from the rest by circling A, B, C or D. (2,5p)
1. A. industry B. inhibit C. prestigious D. requirement
2. A. distribution B. redundant C. community D. confused
3. A. helicopter B. exhibition C. handle D. hedgehog
4. A. growth B. math C. brother D. strength
5. A. special B. education C. economy D. uncommon
Your answers:

2
 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 POINTS)

I. Choose the correct answer to fill in each blank. (5p)
1. Don't go to the city centre during rush hour. You will be _____ like sardines.
A. canned B. packed C. pressed D. pushed
2. Last week, my mother gave me a _____ of ten-thousand notes to buy a bike.
A. fistful B. fist C. fisted D. fisticuff
3. They did have a ____escape. Their car stopped right at the river bank.
A. narrow B. small C. near D. slight
4. It was Tony who ____in asking for another glass of brandy and got drunk in the end.
A. endured B. kept C. persisted D. maintained
5. I had to _____ to make myself heard.
A. cry out B. yell C. shout D. scream
6. He is a teacher not for earning money but as a/n _____ of love
A. labor B. work C. job D. occupation
7. The workers are paid weekly. Their _____ though not much can chiefly help them
afford all their necessities.
A. payments B. earnings C. salaries D. wages
8. Betty says she cannot stand looking at the rat, _____touching it.
A. even so B. let alone C. what if D. as far as
9. Something began to go ____with the experiment when the two scientists were forced
to retire.
A. wrong B. stale C. ill D. faulty
10. However strict ____we took, we couldn’t eliminate the risk of any further riots in the
streets.
A. controls B. discipline C. measures D. regulations
11. He gave me a furious look and ______ out of the room.
A. stormed B. hurled C. surged D. burst

3
12. My secretary was ______ to have typed those letters already.
A. asked B. supposed C. requested D. ordered
13. He seemed very quiet, but it would be a mistake to ______ his intelligence.
A. devalue B. depreciate C. underrate D. minimize
14. I am well ______ with the problems encountered in starting a business.
A. aware B. informed C. acquainted D. knowledgeable
15. If production in that factory exceeds the target, the workers get a ______.
A. bonus B. gratuity C. donation D. subsidy
16. Because the law moves so slowly, there is a considerable ______of untried cases.
A. hangover B. remainder C. backlog D. reserve
17. You needn’t have made extra copies of the booklet. We have got plenty to ___round.
A. circulate B. go C. spread D. suffice
18. John's in hospital again. The poor chap seems ______ to accidents.
A. prone B. disposed C. bound D. destined
19. 'I know that you have an appointment in ten minutes, so I shall not ______ you long,'
the professor remarked.
A. retard B. withhold C. postpone D. detain
20. I can’t do whatever I want because I am still financially ____ on my parents.
A. determined B. subject C. reliant D. dependable
Your answers:
Q# 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A
II. Find and correct the mistake in each sentence. (5p)
1. In the past, people used to barter goods to goods.
2. Lung cancer is one of the most communal cancers among men.
3. The novelist used much imagination to write about imaginative planets in the
universe.
4. No more do we have to worry because our coal and oil stocks are petering out. We
have nuclear power in our disposal.

4
5. Her mother is a teacher of French no longer.
6. It is advisable to put all of your spent money in a bank.
7. By a strange coincide, we happened to be traveling on the same train.
8. Using gas is much more economic than using electricity.
9. The workers are on strike at the moment. They are demanding prompt paying from
their employers.
10.People could only exchange what they considered to be for equal value.
Your answers:
Sent Mistake Correction
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
III. Supply the correct prepositions in the blanks. (5p)
1+2. I like solving crossword puzzles. I don’t do it ..… prizes. I enjoy puzzling them…,
just for the fun of it.
3+4. There is a page missing …….the book, it looks as if someone has torn it …...on
purpose.
5+6. He was far ….satisfied with the way things had turned out. He sat in an armchair,
lost ….thought.
7+8. Say something to cheer her ……, she’s …….low spirits today.
9+10. She tried …….several coats before she found one entirely ……her taste.
11. This car is inferior ............... the one I bought last year.

5
12. We’ll take this problem ................ consideration next week.
13. I'm grateful to you for being so patient ............... my stupid son.
14. Mr. Thomson has been appointed ................. the post of manager.
15. Can I go ............. to what you said at the beginning of the meeting?
16+17. I hoped she'd come ......... ............... some more information.
18. The Buddhist monk told me that the old woman had not really died. He said she had
simply passed ............. her next life.
19. A good citizen is always loyal ............ his government.
20. He has a great capacity .............. mathematics.
Your answers:
1. 6. 11. 16.
2. 7. 2. 17.
3. 8. 13. 18.
4. 9. 14. 19.
5. 10. 15. 20.
IV. Supply the correct verb form. (5p)
1. We (wait) _____ for Nina for over two hours before she finally arrived.
2+3. By the time you (arrive) ____ we (finish) ____ our task and we can go out for
dinner in the evening.
4+5. The Browns (live) _____ in Paris for 20 years when the Second World War (break)
___ out.
6. One of the most famous monuments in the world, the Statue of Liberty (present)
_____ to the US in the 19th century.
7+8. You'd better (phone) ______ me at about 10 o'clock tonight. I (not do) _____
anything at that time.
9. Had you listened to your mother, you (not make) ______ that stupid mistake.
10.A woman collapsed at the supermarket checkout. She (smuggle) ____ out a frozen
chicken under her hat.
11+12. (They not invent) _____ satellites, we (not watch) _____ live programs on TV.

6
13-18. We (run) _____ out of petrol!
I'm not surprised. I (notice) _____ that the tank (be) _____ nearly empty when we
(leave) _____ home. You (tell) _______ me! We (get) ____ petrol at the last village. Now
we've got a 10-mile walk!
19+20. When I met him he (look) _____ frightened as if he (see) _____ a ghost.
Your answers:
1. 6. 11. 16.
2. 7. 2. 17.
3. 8. 13. 18.
4. 9. 14. 19.
5. 10. 15. 20.
V. Give the correct form of the words that fit in each gap in the passage. (5p)
SKIING HOLIDAYS IN COLORADO
To ski or snowboard in Colorado is to experience the pinnacle of winter sports. The
state of Colorado is known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) ____ views,
which inspire today's travelers as much as they spurred on the (2. SETTLE) ____ who
first arrived in this part of the US over a century ago. And whether you're seeking the
outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE) ____ exciting nightlife or a great family getaway,
Colorado has everything you need.
November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) ____ and reliable,
featuring Colorado's (5. LEGEND) ____ “champagne powder” snow. Extensive snow
making and grooming operations always keep trails in top shape.
The mountain destinations in the Colorado Rockies can turn your wildest ski dreams
into thrilling (6. REAL) ______.There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding on
(7. PICTURE) ____ slopes, as well as the finest ski schools in the US. Together, they
present an (8. PARALLEL) ____ winter paradise. And the best part is that you'll enjoy
friendly, (9. CARE) ____ service in resorts that are (10. COMMIT) ____ to delivering
the highest quality amenities.
Your answers:

7
 1. ……………………….. 6. ………………………..
2. ……………………….. 7. ………………………..
3. ……………………….. 8. ………………………..
4. ……………………….. 9. ………………………..
5. ……………………….. 10. ………………………..
VI. Fill in each blank with one suitable word. (5p)
Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning
whether exposure to these radio waves might (1) ____ to brain cancer. So far, the data
are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not (2) ____ us to say with certainly that
mobile phones are categorically (3) ____. On the other hand, current research has not yet
(4) ____ clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.
Numerous studies are now going (5) ____ in various countries. Some of the results
are contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and
cancer. (6) ____, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long - term
investigation.
(7) ____ the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use
mobile phone for long (8) ____ of time. Don't think that hands free phones are any safer
either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the (9) ____ and they may be just as
dangerous. It is also thought that young people (10) ____ bodies are still growing may
be at particular risk.
1. A. lead B. bring C. produce D. cause
2. A. make B. let C. able D. enable
3. A. risky B. secure C. safe D. unhealthy
4. A. proved B. created C. demonstrated D. caused
5. A. on B. about C. through D. by
6. A. While B. However C. Additionally D. Though
7. A. Until B. When C. Provide D. As
8. A. quantities B. periods C. amounts D. intervals
9. A. way B. truth C. opposite D. fact
10. A. as B. that C. with D. whose

8
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (25POINTS)
I. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Write
A, B, C, or D in the spaces provided to indicate your answer. (7,5p)
Reports that government is about to ( 1) _____ the go-ahead to plans for the building
of a new runway at London’s Gatwick airport have angered local (2) _____ and raised
fears of increased noise and exhaust pollution. The (3) _____ plans also include
permission for additional night flights and will (4) _____ the compulsory purchase of
farmland, (5) _____ the demolition of a number of private homes. According to the
sources close to the Ministry of Transport, the government is known to be concerned by
the increasing (6) _____ of traffic at London Heathrow, where there are no plans for
further runways in the foreseeable (7) _____ . Gatwick is widely (8) _____ as a better
(9) _____ for expansion than London’s third airport, Standsted, which still (10) _____
from poor transport links. A spokesperson for the keep Gatwick Quiet association, (11)
_____ up of local people, accused the government of (12) _____ back on promises made
before the general Election. “We were told then that the airport authority had no (13)
_____ of building another runway, and we believe that the government has a duty to
(14) _____ its pledge”. Prominent figures in the government are also believed to be
concerned at the news, although the Prime Minister, interviewed last night, is (15) _____
as saying that reports were “misleading”. However, he would not give an assurance that
plans for building a runway had definitely been repaired.
1. A. sign B. make C. give D. approve
2. A. inhabitants B. dwellers C. occupants D. residents
3. A. controversial B. debatable C. notorious D. doubtful
4. A. involve B. concern C. assume D. need
5. A. further to B. as well as C. moreover D. what’s more
6. A. sum B. size C. volume D. length
7. A. years B. period C. time D. future

9
8. A. regarded B. believed C. felt D. held
9. A. potential B. outlook C. prospect D. likelihood
10. A. affects B. undergoes C. experiences D. suffers
11. A. made B. set C. brought D. taken
12. A. getting B. falling C. going D. turning
13. A. desire B. intention C. wish D. objective
14. A. bear out B. count on C. pull off D. stand by
15. A. quoted B. known C. thought D. written
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

II. Fill in each blank in the following passage with a suitable word. (7,5p)
The eighteen-century artist, Chardin, is recognized as the master of (1).......is
known as still life, painting of simple household objects. (2)......a long time art critics
considered this form of art inferior (3)........other subjects, for, after all, what does such a
picture show other (4).......things that (5).......one of us might find in the kitchen? In this
picture of a glass of water and a coffee pot, for example, (6)......seems at first sight to be
(7)......special about their arrangement or any natural relationship between them. It looks
as though the artist has (8).......to a great deal of trouble to paint nothing at (9)...... . But
if you study the painting, you realize that the objects are linked (10) .........by the
atmosphere, the light that falls over the whole composition. Chardin did not only paint
inanimate objects, of course. He loved to picture children playing and just (11).......the
best photographs of children are often taken when they are not aware of
(12).......photographed, so his best paintings seem to have been painted when he caught
the child off his guard, in a manner of speaking. This was, and still (13)......, an original
approach to a human subject. Most of these paintings are portraits and the sitter is
provided with a suitable expression. But in Chardin’s picture of a young man blowing
bubbles, the man is concentrating on (14)........a simple action that it does not require
very (15).......effort and so there is no expression on his face, yet the picture is

10
memorable because it is entirely natural.
Your answers:
1. 6. 11.
2 7. 12.
3. 8. 13.
4. 9. 14.
5. 10. 15.
III. Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 10. (5p)
"The economic history of the United States", one scholar has written, "is the history
of the rise and development of the capitalistic system". The colonists of the eighteenth
century pushed forward what those of the seventeenth century have begun: the
expansion and elaboration of an economy born in the great age of capitalist expansion.
Our excellent natural resources paved the way for the development of abundant
capital to increase our growth. Capital includes the tools - such as: machines, vehicles,
and buildings - that makes the outputs of labor and resources more valuable. But it also
includes the funds necessary to buy those tools. If a society had to consume everything
it produced just to stay alive, nothing could be put aside to increase future productions.
But if a farmer can grow more corn than his family needs to eat, he can use the surplus
as seed to increase the next crop, or to feed workers who build tractors. This process of
capital accumulation was aided in the American economy by our cultural heritage.
Saving played an important role in the European tradition. It contributed to American’s
motivation to put something aside today for the tools to buy tomorrow.
The great bulk of the accumulated wealth of America, as distinguished from what
was consumed, was derived either directly or indirectly from trade. Though some
manufacturing existed, its role in the accumulation of capital was negligible. A
merchant class of opulent proportions was already visible in the seaboard cities, its
wealth as the obvious consequence of shrewd and resourceful management of the
carrying trade. Even the rich planters of tidewater Virginia and the rice coast of South

11
Carolina finally depended for their genteel way of life upon the ships and merchants
who sold their tobacco and rice in the markets of Europe. As colonial production rose
and trade expanded, a business community emerged in the colonies, linking the
provinces by lines of trade and identity of interest.
1. With what subject is this passage mainly concerned?
A. Geography B. Finance C. Economics D. Culture
2. The phrase ‘paved the way’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____.
A. paid for B. supported C. accumulated D. resembled
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the European ancestors of early Americans __.
A. sent many tools to America B. taught their skills to their offspring
C. were accustomed to saving D. were good farmers
4. The word ‘funds’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____.
A. money B. resource C. labor D. capital
5. According to the passage, which of the following would lead to accumulating capital?
A. Training workers who produce goods. B. Studying the culture history of the country
C. Consuming what is produced D. Planting more of a crop than what is needed
6. The word ‘it’ in the third sentence of paragraph 2 refers to ____.
A. growth B. resource C. labor D. capital
7. According to the passage, capital includes all of the following EXCEPT _.
A. factories B. tractors C. money D. workers
8. According to the passage, the emergence of a business community in the colonies was
a result of ____.
A. efficient saving B. the immigration
C. the success of production and trade D. the existence of manufacturing
9. The word ‘negligible’ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ____.
A. very important B. not very important
C. necessary to be neglected D. able to be neglected
10. The phrase ‘put aside’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _.
A. hidden B. saved C. reviewed D. consumed

12
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

IV. 5pts
1. Below is an article on space travel from which some paragraphs have been
removed. Choose from the paragraphs A-G the one which fits each gap (1-5).
There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. 0 is an example. (2,5p)
Cheap Access to Space
Charles Conrad went to the moon with Apollo 12 and circled the Earth in Skylab. But
from now on, he is going to aim high for himself. His company, Universal Space Lines,
hopes to produce a more economic rocket that will be able to go into space again and
again.
0. ______G_______
NASA, the U. S. government-owned space program, plans to develop such a rocket.
However, the immediate priority is missions to Mars, which will require different
technology. So it is more likely that people outside the NASA program will develop
reusable rocket design. Rick Tumlinson runs an independent organization called the
Space Frontier Foundation and firmly believes that it is time for businesses to get
involved.
1. ______________ So Tumlinson is also in business to prove a point. Space is our
destiny, he says, so why not get on with it a bit more eagerly? To this end, the SFF is
holding a conference in Los Angeles shortly, to be called Space Open for Business.
2. ______________ Another company, Kistler Aerospace, has similar plans: "Our goal
is to become a delivery service to low Earth orbit that will radically re-align the
economics of doing business in space. Satellites will be our parcels; our vehicles will be
operated in repeated flights with air freight efficiency."
3. ______________ Their own view is that it is impossible for NASA, which is
government-owned, to offer an 'open frontier'. This is not a matter of budgets or
schedules, but of fundamental purpose and design. NASA is 'elitist and exclusive',

13
whereas the SFF believe in opportunities for everyone: 'a future of endlessly expanding
new choices'.
4. ______________ Of course, the ex-astronaut and businessman Charles Conrad
agrees: "I'm trying to get affordable space transportation up and operative so that
everybody can go enjoy space. And by the way, the Japanese are hard at work building a
space hotel."
5. ______________ If he is right, mass space travel will have arrived by 2010 and space
tourism will have become a viable industry. More importantly, the human race will have
made serious progress in crossing that final frontier.
A. Companies will always be looking for profit. For this reason, the SFF is not in favor
of American missions to Mars, claiming that there's nothing in it for investors. At the
same time, they do accept that these missions could bring scientific benefits.
B. He sees the NASA program as a bit of a dinosaur: "25 years after the Wright
Brothers, people could buy a commercial plane ticket ... but 25 years after landing on
the moon, we sat around watching old astronauts on TV talking about the good old
days."
C. In 1997, the SFF ran a survey on the Internet, called 'Cheap Access to Space', where
it asked American taxpayers for their views on the US space program and on what
America's future priorities should be in space transportation.
D. US government officials don't see a future for space tourism. Here again, private
companies may well prove them wrong. David Ashford, director of Bristol Space-
planes Limited, once said that space tourism would begin ten years after people
stopped laughing at the concept. Recently, he added this striking comment: "People
have stopped laughing."
E. Charles Conrad is due to speak there. But his company is in fact only one of several
that already have blueprints for getting into space and back cheaply. Rotary is
working on something that would be launched like a rocket but return like a
helicopter. Pioneer Rocket-plane believes there could be a million dollar market in
delivering packages from one side of the planet to the other in an hour.

14
F. They would like to see 'irreversible human settlement' in space as soon as possible
and maintain that this will only happen through free enterprise. "Building buildings
and driving trucks is not what astronauts should be doing; that's what the private
sector does."
G. 'Cheap' is an important word in space technology nowadays and reusable rockets will
be a key way of controlling costs. They will deliver things to orbit, bring stuff back
to Earth and then go up again, perhaps with machinery for a space factory, or even
carrying tourists.
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5
2. Read a magazine article about acupuncture treatment. Six paragraphs have been
removed from the article. Choose from the paragraph A-G the one which fits each
space. There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. There is an
example at the beginning (0). (2,5p)
Pins and needles
I was curious to find out more about acupuncture as I’d heard a lot about its beneficial
effects. However, I didn’t feel in any particular need of treatment myself so I decided to
ask a friend of mine if I could observe her receiving treatment.

I asked Joan Hughes, who I knew had been complaining of muscular stiffness for some
time. She agreed, so excitedly we attended her first appointment at the local centre.

The Traditional Acupuncture Centre was just as you’d expect: the incense, rubber plants
and charts on the wall. These mapped out the body’s energy channels. They seem to be
the typical wall coverings of an alternative health centre.

0. E
Nina returned and explained that she needed to ask Joan questions about her health,
lifestyle, diet and personal history. She began by asking why Joan wanted acupuncture.

15
Joan described the shoulder stiffness and backache that had bothered her for years.
1. ______________
Nina then explained that in Chinese medicine, physical and emotional aspects are not
distinct. An imbalance of either manifests itself in the same way. The division between
mind and body is a Western idea.
2. ______________
Nina opened a sachet of sterile 4 cm long needles. They were fine and flexible, but Joan
was still apprehensive. Nina took a pulse at six points on each of Joan’s wrists, looking
for certain “qualities” that she would then treat.
3. _______________
Nina inserted the first needle into Joan’s shin. It went in a surprisingly long way before
she twisted it to the right and Joan’s leg shot up suddenly. “Oh” she exclaimed. She was
visibly tense, but Nina inserted the next needle it wasn’t so bad.
4. ________________
When the time came to remove the needles, Joan was more relaxed, though she flinched
as they came out. All the time Nina was reassuring her. She informed Joan that the
shocks she felt were due to blockages of the energy channels.
5. ________________
I asked Joan the next day about how she felt. She said that she felt a little more relaxed
and that she had slept deeply that night. However, she really felt that she needed a
course of treatment to be able to assess its effectiveness.
A. Nina said that she felt Joan’s problems with her back and her shoulder stiffness
came from her office job. She recommended that Joan do yoga exercises at work,
as this kind of relaxation had many benefits for mind and body.
B. Nina finished with a pressure point massage on Joan’s shoulder and back. “I’m
looking forward to seeing you again,” Nina said, as she bade a relieved Joan a
fond farewell. Nina left the decision to Joan about arranging another appointment.
C. Our health apparently depends on the motivating energy, or chi, made up of the
equal and opposite qualities of Yin and Yang. When these are unbalanced, one

16
 can become ill. By inserting needles into points on the energy channels, healing
responses are stimulated and the balance id restored.
D. Surprisingly, these questions went on for a whole hour. Joan was asked about her
attitudes to many things, including work and relationships. She was also asked
about her attitude to herself on several occasions.
E. Nina Doughty, the acupuncturist, introduced herself and then slipped away to
prepare the treatment room. Joan was anxious. “I hope this does not hurt too
much” she murmured.
F. She also looked at Joan’s tongue, an indicator of her general state of health. At
this point, Joan felt that the experience was rather like being at the dentist.
However, at the dentist one usually knows where the needle will be inserted.
G. She placed more needles in Joan’s ankles, feet, lower back and forearms. She
tweaked them as she put them in, regularly checking Joan’s pulse, then left them
for 20 minutes. Joan lay on the bed all this time.
Your answers:
1 2. 3. 4. 5.
SECTION E: WRITING ( 30 POINTS)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one,
using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between thee
and six words, including the word given. (5p)
1. The product launch is unlikely to be successful unless it is planned in great detail.
essential
 Detailed ...............................................................................of the product launch.
2. She’s forever warning her husband about driving too fast, but he pays no attention.
often
 No .........................................her husband about driving too fast, he pays no attention.
3. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language.
talked
 My father ......................................................... another foreign language.

17
4. The team are determined to finish the race however tough it is.
matter
 The team are determined to finish the race............................................................. be.
5. I doubt that Simon will lend us the money.
chance
 I think ..................................................................... of Simon lending us the money.
6. Not many people attended the meeting.
turnout
 There was .....................................................................................................................
7. Jill wished she had tried to have a better relationship with her father.
get
 Jill regretted ...........................................................................better with her father.
8. He would do almost anything to win the girl’s hand.
lengths
 He would ................................................................................the girl’s hand.
9. The interviewers will assume that you have found out something about the company
and the job.
granted
 The interviewers ......................................................that you have found out
something about the company and the job.
10. I know it was a bad idea to include my telephone number on the advertisement.
put
 I really oughtn’t...............................................................on the advertisement.
II. Graph description. (10p)
The table below shows the percentage of the rooms occupied in six hotels during May to
September between 1985 and 2000. The table also indicates the star rating of each hotel.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.
You should write at least 150 words.

18
 Stars 1985 1990 1995 2000

Hotel Concorde ***** 90 90 30 65

Hamilton's ***** 100 100 95 70
The Tower **** 57 85 55 85
Hotel Olivia *** 90 85 89 95
Hampton's *** 100 100 90 100
The Continental *** 79 83 70 80
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III. Essay writing. (15p)
Nowadays, most students take extra classes. Do you think this is a good idea? Or
would it be better for students to invest all that time in self-study?
Write an essay of 250 words. Support your points with examples and relevant evidence.
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The end

21
SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC GIANG ĐÁP ÁN
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BG ĐỀ THI HSG KHU VỰC DH - ĐBBB
NĂM 2014
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 11
(Đáp án gồm 02 trang)
_______________________________________________________________________
SECTION A: LISTENING (15PTS)
I. (5 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. B
II. (10 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm
1. 12/ twelve inches 2. buildings 3. insects 4. 170 million 5. nesting
6. commercial 7. financial damage 8. diseases 9. 3/three 10. prevention
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5PTS)
I. 2,5 pts – Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D
II. 2,5 pts – Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm
1D 2B 3B 4C 5A
SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30PTS)
I. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm
1B 2A 3A 4C 5C 6A 7D 8B
9A 10C 11A 12B 13C 14C 15A 16C
17B 18A 19D 20C
II. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm
1. to - for 6. spent - unspent
2. communal - common 7. coincident - coincidence
3. imaginative - imaginary 8. economic - economical
4. in - at 9. paying - payment
5. is no longer … 10. for - of
III. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm

22
1+2. for – out 3+4. from – off 5+6. from – in 7+8. up– in 9+10. on – to
11. to 12. into 13. with 14. to 15.back
16+17. up – with 18. into 19. to 20. for
IV. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm
1. had been waiting
2+3. arrive/will have finished
4+5. had been living (had lived)/broke out
6. was presented
7+8. phone/ won't be doing
9. would not have made
10. had smuggled
11+12. Had they not invented/couldn’t watch
13 > 18. have run/noticed/was/were leaving/should have told/would have got
19+20. looked / had seen
V. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm
1. breathtaking 2. settlers 3. lifetime 4. consistent 5. legendary
6. reality 7. picturesque 8. unparalleled 9. caring 10. committed
VI. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm
1A 2D 3C 4A 5A 6B 7A 8B 9C 10D
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (25 PTS)
I. 7,5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm
1C 2D 3A 4A 5B 6C 7D 8A 9C 10D
11A 12C 13B 14D 15A
II. 7,5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm
1. what 2. for 3. to 4. than 5. any 6. there 7. nothing
8. gone 9. all 10. together 11. as 12. being 13. is 14. such
15. much
III. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm
1C 2B 3C 4A 5D 6D 7D 8C 9B 10B

23
IV. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm
1. 2,5p
1B 2E 3C 4F 5D
2. 2,5p
1D 2C 3F 4G 5B
SECTION E: WRITING (30 PTS)
I. 5pts - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,5 điểm
1. ..... planning is essential to the success......
2. ..... matter how often she warns ..........
3. ......talked me into learning .......
4. ......no matter how tough it will .....
5. ..... there is no chance of ....
6. ..... a low turnout at the meeting
7. ......not trying to get on .....
8. ......go to great lengths to win ...........
9. ......will take it for granted.........
10. ....have put my telephone number .........
II. Graph description: 10 pts
III. Essay writing: 15pts
The end

24
 Đề thi đề xuất của Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Kì thi HSG Đồng Bằng Bắc Bộ
Môn: Tiếng Anh 11
I. LISTENING
SECTION 1 Questions 1 – 5
You will hear an interview with an engineer called Roger Moffat, whose
working life has changed dramatically over the last ten years. For questions 1 –
5, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
1. The interviewer says that Roger is the kind of person who
A. is reluctant to try something different.
B. does not want to spend his money.
C. enjoys entertaining others
D. is happy to reveal the tricks of his trade.
2. How did Roger feel initially about what happened ten years ago?
A. angry B. resigned C. disinterested D. depressed
3. What does Roger feel is the greatest benefit of running his own business?
A. He arranges his free time as he pleases.
B. He gets on better with other people.
C. He is free of an environment he disliked.
D. He has more leisure time than before.
4. What is Roger’s attitude towards his future?
A. He thinks he’ll be more vulnerable than he used to be.
B. He considers his position to be no less secure than before.
C. He’d feel financially more secure working for someone else.
D. He considers himself too old to change direction again.
5. What does Roger find most satisfying about the ‘tools of his trade’?
A. They are intricate beyond belief. B. They are the creations of colleagues.
C. They are theoretical in design. D. They are exciting to contemplate.

1
SECTION 2 Questions 6 - 15
Questions 6 - 11
Complete the lecture notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
for each answer.
The Super Volcano
* No specifically defined scientific meaning - refers to volcanoes that have
generated the Earth’s largest volcanic eruptions.
* Super volcano eruption form calderas. Whereas normal volcano craters are
measured in the hundreds of metres, a caldera can be easily as large as
(6)__________ miles wide.
Super Volcano Caldera Locations: (not all active)
Long Valley, Eastern California
Toba, Indonesia
Lake Taupo, (7) __________
Japan
Indonesia
Scotland
Alaska
Normal Volcano Formation- Magma column rises from Earth, erupts and hardens
down sides creating the familiar (8) __________ mountain
Super Volcano Formation- Magma rises from Earth’s mantle creating
(9)__________ in the Earth’s crust. Chamber increases to enormous size,
creating colossal pressure. Eruption finally forms massive caldera.
Results of Super Volcano Eruption
* Ash, dust and sulphur dioxide ejected, blocking sun & creating cold wave
lasting several years. Plants and animals (including humans) would die.
* Most recent caldera-forming eruption ((10) __________ ago approx.). Ash,
pumice, and gases covered more than 3000 square miles and also went high into
the stratosphere to circle the Earth, affecting its temperature. Ash from this
eruption still found in Iowa and in (11) __________ from the Gulf of Mexico.
2
Questions 12 - 15
According to the Earth Sciences lecture, which FOUR of the following facts
are NOT true?
Choose FOUR letters (A - H) and write them in any order in numbers 12 – 15
on your answer sheet.
12…………. 13………… 14………… 15……………
A Yellowstone Park has previously suffered three enormous eruptions.
B The first super eruption in Yellowstone was over three million years ago.
C The first super eruption in Yellowstone Park created a caldera bigger than
another state of the US.
D Scientists say Yellowstone Park should erupt approximately every 600 000
years.
E The ground level of Yellowstone Park has increased by over half a metre
over the last 10 years.
F A taskforce has been set up to plan for the possible devastation that a
Yellowstone eruption would cause.
G Evidence suggests that the super-eruption at Toba caused the Earth’s
population of humans to drop to about 10 000.
H A super-eruption could make the Earth’s temperature drop to 5 to 10 degrees
Celsius.
II. PRONUNCIATION
Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest’s in each of
the following questions.
1. A. recommend B. recollect C. reclaim D. recognition
2. A. preferable B. derivation C. preparation D. preliminary
3. A. credit B. soldier C. education D. procedure
4. A. earflaps B. attached C. delicate D. astrology
5. A. essence B. press C. obsess D. scissors

3
Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the
following questions.
1. A. irrigate B. discover C. vaporize D. aggravate
2. A. dynamite B. departure C. equipment D. approval
3. A. guidebook B. resort C. hotel D. advice
4. A. enormous B. tremendous C. mischievous D. impervious
5. A. estimation B. influential C. propaganda D. euphemism
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1: Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.
1. Don’t ____________ to any conclusion before you know the full facts.
A. fly B. rush C. leap D. dive
2. Scott Fitzgerald’s early literary success led to extravagant living and
__________ a large income.
A. a need for B. needed for
C. to need for D. for he needed
3. The manager promised to replace the damaged television free of _________.
A. cost B. price C. expense D. charge
4. Amnesia is the __________ or total loss of memory concerning past
experiences.
A. partially B. partial C. part D. partly
5. Before the group of doctors would give their opinion they wanted to _______
with each other.
A. confess B. confer C. confirm D. confide
6. Many people find chocolate __________.
A. mild B. tender C. tempting D. temperate
7. The company was so successful during the 1900s that it ____________ 500
new employees in a period of six months.
A. put on B. laid on C. caught on D. took on

4
8. The use of robots and automated machinery has eliminated certain ________
factory jobs.
A. thriving B. timid C. thrilling D. tedious
9. The detectives made a ___________ search of the suspect’s house.
A. solid B. whole C. deep D. thorough
10. Let us hope that ____________ a nuclear war, the human race still survive.
A. in relation to B. with reference to
C. in the event of D. within the realm of
11. He didn’t sleep very well – the rain was dripping through his roof all
________ the night.
A. in B. over C. through D. along
12. While preparing an issue, newspaper editors decide what _______ in the
editorials.
A. viewpoint takes B. take a viewpoint
C. takes to a viewpoint D. viewpoint to take
13. The company directors asked the government to _________ in the dispute
and prevent a strike.
A. intervene B. interact C. intercept D. interpose
14. Things are never boring when he’s there. You could say he’s ___________
A. an extrovert B. energetic C. active D. sociable
15. Suddenly, _______ a helicopter.
A. it flew over the hill B. flew over the hill
C. over the hill flew D. there flew over the hill
16. Her heart ______ when she learnt that she had not been given the job.
A. jerked B. sank C. jumped D. shattered
17. He was given the cold ______ at the meeting.
A. feet B. shoulder C. front D. heart
18. You can eat to your ______ content at the buffet dinner.
A. stomach’s B. heart’s C. belly’s D. mouth’s
19. She likes spoiling people's fun. She is really a ______.
5
 A. couch potato B. wet blanket C. hard nut D. hard bargain
20. We must get to the ______ of the problem and solve it once and for all.
A. root B. stem C. fruit D. seed
Exercise 2: There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find the mistakes
and correct them.
The main sources of energy in the world are fossil fuels - coal, oil and natural
gas. Fossil fuels are non-renewable - this mean that nature cannot recreate them
as fast as people using them up today. Sometimes in the future, all of them will
run out and we will need other renewable sources of energy. Some renewable
energy sources are being available now. One of them is water, what has been
used to create energy for thousands of years. Today, hydro-or water
power, generate by huge dams, is a major source of electric in many parts of the
world. But hydropower has its own costs. When dams are built, the area above
them is flooded, even for miles. In some places, people lose their homes as well
as the rich soil river in which they once growed their crops. In other places,
wonderful wild landscapes buried forever under new, artificial lakes. Below the
dams, the natural habitats of fish and wildlife in the river valley are destroyed as
the course of the river is changed.
Exercise 3: Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition or particle.
1. Instead of dwelling ______ past glories, the country's leaders should map out
concrete plans to tackle the current problems.
2. The teacher's voice was drowned ______ by the incessant flow of traffic.
3. The authorities are worried about the recent phenomenon of students
dropping ______ of college to seek employment.
4. The children are well-behaved in school. They only act ______ when their
parents are around.
5. He had been arrested for murder, but the evidence just did not add______.
6. The climbers' hopes of reaching the summit began to peter ______ when they
realized that the storms were getting worse.

6
7. The consumers had become suckers as the claims made for the health products
were not borne ______ by the results.
8. The storm continued for three hours, with no sign of letting ______.
9. He backed ______ in the face of strong opposition.
10. Someone had better come up ______ a solution fast or else we would be in
deep trouble.
11. Hopes of a peace settlement began to fade ______ as the two sides refused
to compromise.
12. The workers refused to knuckle ______ and continued with their strike
despite threats and intimidation from the management.
13. The female customer kicked ______ a fuss when the waitress was slow in
attending to her.
14. We were doing a project when Peter hit ______ this ingenious method of
freezing food.
15. Jane had long wished to have a baby, but giving birth to triplets was certainly
more than she had bargained ______.
16. They wanted to get out of the country before things boiled ______ into a civil
war.
17. Unfortunately, peace talks have broken ______ over the question of
reparations.
18. At dawn, 300 tanks were ready to break ______ the heavily fortified enemy
lines.
19. The President has brushed ______ the opposition's demands for a public
enquiry into the assassination attempt.
20. There was strong evidence to suggest that the judge presiding the case had
been bought ______ by the mafia.
Exercise 4: Provide the correct tense forms of the verbs in the
brackets.
1. It (rain) since last night, and it (look) as if it may rain for the rest of the day.
2. The taxi (come) yet? It is already ten minutes late. I hope it (be) here soon.
7
3. Your friends (wait) for you for over an hour. Where you (be) all this time?
You were out for almost four hours.
4. The police (investigate) the robbery that (take) place last week. So far, they
(discover) nothing and (arrest) no one.
5. She (look) very worried for the past few days; but when I (ask) what the
matter was, she (say) that it (be) nothing.
6. She says that she sent the letter a month ago; but, so far, she (not receive) any
reply. She (think) that her letter was lost in the post.
7. He walked along the road, wondering what (happen) and where all the people
(go). The streets (desert), and the stalls (leave) as they were, with fruit and
vegetables arranged in neat rows.
Exercise 5: Fill in each blank with the suitable form of the word in capital.
It’s noisy in space!
Inside the International Space Station, it is so noisy that the
astronauts cannot hear one another. As a result, United States and
Russian engineers have launched a (1)__________ repair PRIOR
programme which they hope will lead to the (2)__________ of the REDUCE
station’s 72-decibel roar: the equivalent of standing beside a busy
motorway. ‘It is not a (3)__________ situation,’ said Mike Engle, a HEALTH
(4)__________ for the engineering team. ‘Apart from astronauts SPEAK
losing sleep, there is a danger one of them will (5)__________ a HEAR
colleague’s instruction and press an incorrect button!’
(6)__________, most of the noise comes from the equipment IRONY
needed to keep them (7)__________. ‘The coolers are the worst,’ LIFE
Mr Engle explained. ‘But without them, the station would become
(8)__________ hot! When we put together the station we faced a BEAR
choice. We could either spend extra years (9)__________ that the SURE
station would be totally quiet, or we could get on and build the
thing. Now it’s assembled, we are doing our best to

8
 (10)__________ it down. QUIET
Exercise 6: Fill in each blank with the suitable word from the box.
Firstly, moreover, in contrast, first of all, on the other hand,
in conclusion, however, in addition, on the whole, as a result
Living in the country is something that people from the city often dream
about. 1...., in reality, it has both its advantages and disadvantages.
There are certainly many advantages to living in the country. 2....... we can
enjoy peace and quiet. 3...., people tend to be friendlier and more open. A further
advantage is that there is less traffic, so it is safer for young children. 4......, there
are drawbacks to life outside the city. 5....., because there are fewer people, we
are likely to have fewer friends. 6....., entertainment is difficult to find,
particularly in the evening. Furthermore, the fact that there are fewer shops and
services means that it is harder to find work. 7...., we may have to travel a long
way to work, which can be extremely expensive.
8......., it can be seen that the country is more suitable for some people than
others. 9..., it is often the best place for those who are retired or who have young
children. 10...., young, single people who have a career are better provided for in
the city.
IV. READING
Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Are “all-natural” products really better?
Unless you’ve slept through the last decade, you know that protecting the
environment is a __(1)___. But when it __(2)___to beauty products, natural
doesn’t always equal pure and doesn’t __(3)___mean better. Before rushing to
the register with your 100 percent green beauty gear, __(4)___a few things.
According to the FDA (Food and Drug Administration), the
__(5)___“natural” is used very __(6)___in the cosmetics world; any company
can __(7)___a product natural. __(8)___natural products are made from plant-
based (as opposed to man-made) ingredients and do not __(9)___artificial dyes
9
and fragrances. The advantage: plant-based ingredients are renewable
__(10)___that are safer for the environment than __(11)___man-made or natural,
but highly processed ones (which can produce toxic __(12)___during the
manufacturing process and be nonbiodegradable). The disadvantages: some
natural ingredients, like __(13)___which help keep products germ-free, aren’t as
effective as their synthetic counterparts. Since natural ingredients haven’t been
__(14)___as much as man-made ones, you shouldn’t assume they’re gentler
(especially if you’re allergy-prone or have __(15)___skin).
1. A. may B. must C. can D. should
2. A. comes B. refers C. reaches D. arrives
3. A. absolutely B. definitely C. obligatorily D. necessarily
4. A. study B. consider C. think D. consult
5. A. definition B. term C. phrase D. idea
6. A. freely B. loosely C. liberately D. easily
7. A. name B. call C. baptize D. entitle
8. A. Truly B. Exactly C. Truthfully D. Really
9. A. enclose B. involve C. incorporate D. contain
10. A. essences B. supplies C. resources D. sources
11. A. guaranteed B. certain C. definite D. sure
12. A. rubbish B. debris C. garbage D. waste
13. A. medicines B. conservatives C. preservatives D. preserves
14. A. searched B. examined C. tried D. tested
15. A. sensible B. sensitive C. delicate D. sensational
Exercise 2: Fill in each blank with the most suitable word.
Many of us regard the mosquito as a pest. Indeed, a mosquito bite can be painful
and irritating. ___1___ a mosquito bites, it pierces its powerful feeding tube
___2___ the skin of its victim. The mosquito would then mix ___3___ saliva
with the blood. This is ___4___ to prevent the blood from clotting. The mosquito
would normally suck up blood as much as two to three times its own weight.

10
However, ___5___ all mosquitoes bite. In fact, ___6___ the female of the species
sucks blood as they need the protein ___7___ their eggs. Male mosquitoes live
mainly on plant juices or nectar from flowers.
Mosquitoes detect their victims ___8___ the carbon dioxide that people and
animals breathe ___9___. Although holding your breath may not ___10___ these
creatures from detecting your ___11___, you can still reduce the risk of
___12___ bitten. The mosquito appears to be attracted wearing dark-coloured
clothing. Thus, by ___13___ light coloured clothing, you would probably be
bitten less. You could try wearing light coloured pants instead of jeans the next
time you ___14___ a mosquito-infested place. Surprisingly, the mosquito is also
attracted to ___15___ like cologne or aftershave lotion. No one really knows why
this is so.
Exercise 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on
your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Sir Anthony Van Dyck, one of the world’s greatest masters of portraiture, was
born in Antwerp and was the seventh of twelve children. His affluent father
apprenticed him to a painter when he was just a little over ten. Having become a
member of the Antwerp Guild of painters before he was nineteen, he worked in
the studio of Peter Paul Rubens for several years. In Italy, Van Dyck studied the
great Venetian masters and painted flattering portraits of gorgeous ladies and
haughty nobles in gilded velvet robes with lace and pearls. While he was sought
after by the aristocracy for his acclaimed loose brushwork, his engravings and
etchings also evinced his outstanding talent. Upon his return to Antwerp in 1628,
he was influenced by Ruben’s interpretation of the artistic form and produced
numerous religious paintings while holding an appointment as the court painter.
During his tenure, he proved that his use of color, his sensitive elegance, and his
remarkable insight were unexcelled.
His fame preceded him to England, where he was invited by King Charles I.
After years of faithful service, he was knighted in recognition of his
achievements in painting countless portraits of the king, the queen, the royal
11
children, and the titled nobility of England. However, Van Dyck’s greatest piece
is one of his religious works, a true masterpiece displayed in the Antwerp gallery.
This group scene exhibits his artful polish in painting the folds of fabric, the
delicacy of human skin, landscape, and other externals, and puts him above other
accomplished contemporary masters. Although Charles paid Van Dyck a salary
and granted him a pension, the painter’s extravagant life-style and penchant for
luxuries led him into debt, and he died without means.
1. It can be inferred from the passage that Van Dyck was raised___________
A. in a stable and loving household B. in a large and wealthy family
C. by his father alone D. without good work habits
2. The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck __________
A. had a great artistic talent even when he was young
B. worked very hard in his youth to make a living
C. joined other painters when he had little to occupy him
D. had produced great paintings before he turned nineteen
3. It can be inferred from the passage that after Van Dyck left Rubens
_________
A. he refined his artistic tastes and skills
B. he accrued considerable wealth
C. he became a militant aristocrat
D. he incorporated southern styles in his art
4. The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck’s fame had largely to do with
his __________
A. elegance in clothing B. religious beliefs
C. artful portraits D. wealthy family
5. The word “acclaimed” in bold is closest in meaning to ___________
A. rectified B. reclaimed
C. recognized D. recommended
6. According to the passage, when Van Dyck returned to Antwerp, he
__________
12
 A. modeled elegant clothing for his religious paintings
B. proved that he was the best painter of his time
C. found employment with a religious institution
D. had to schedule appointments at the court
7. How did Charles I honor Van Dyck?
A. Van Dyck received a noble title.
B. Van Dyck was allowed to travel widely.
C. Van Dyck painted members of the royal court.
D. Van Dyck displayed his works in the royal palace.
8. What does Van Dyck’s masterpiece attest to?
A. His exorbitant tastes and habits. B. His refined sense for texture.
C. His remarkable religious fervor. D. His keen eye for polished
surfaces.
9. The phrase “this group scene” in bold refers to ___________
A. the masterpiece B. the Antwerp gallery
C. the titled nobility of England D. Van Dyck’s religious works
10. What are the reasons given for Van Dyck’s financial decline?
A. His miserly attitudes.
B. His employer’s lack of generosity.
C. His ill health and lack of revenue.
D. His lavish spending.
Exercise 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
Questions 1 – 4
The reading passage on Deer Farming In Australia has 5 paragraphs (A – E).
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs
A – E. Write the appropriate number (i – viii) next to questions 1 – 4 on your
answer sheet.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
i Industry Structures

13
 ii Disease Affects Production
iii Trends in Production
iv Government Assistance
v How Deer Came to Australia
vi Research and Development
vii Asian Competition
viii Industry Development

Ex: Paragraph A – v
1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E
Deer Farming In Australia
Paragraph A
Deer are not indigenous to Australia. They were introduced into the
country during the nineteenth century under the acclimatization programs
governing the introduction of exotic species of animals and birds into Australia.
Six species of deer were released at various locations. The animals dispersed and
established wild populations at various locations across Australia, mostly
depending upon their points of release into the wild. These animals formed the
basis for the deer industry in Australia today.
Commercial deer farming in Australia commenced in Victoria in 1971 with
the authorized capture of rusa deer from the Royal National Park, NSW. Until
1985, only four species of deer, two from temperate climates (red, fallow) and
two tropical species (rusa, chital) were confined for commercial farming. Late in
1985, pressure from industry to increase herd numbers saw the development of
import protocols. This resulted in the introduction of large numbers of red deer

14
hybrids from New Zealand and North American elk directly from Canada. The
national farmed deer herd is now distributed throughout all states although most
are in New South Wales and Victoria.
Paragraph B
The number of animals processed annually has continued to increase,
despite the downward trend in venison prices since 1997. Of concern is the
apparent increase in the number of female animals processed and the number of
whole herds committed for processing. With more than 40,000 animals processed
in 1998/99 and 60,000 in 1999/2000, there is justified concern that future years
may see a dramatic drop in production. At least 85% of all venison produced in
Australia is exported, principally to Europe. At least 90% of all velvet antler
produced is exported in an unprocessed state to Asia.
Schemes to promote Australian deer products continue to have a positive
effect on sales that in turn have a positive effect on prices paid to growers. The
industry appears to be showing limited signs that it is emerging from a state of
depression caused by both internal and external factors that include: (i) the Asian
currency downturn; (ii) the industry’s lack of competitive advantage in influential
markets (particularly in respect to New Zealand competition), and; (iii) within
industry processing and marketing competition for limited product volumes of
venison.
Paragraph C
From the formation of the Australian Deer Breeders Federation in 1979,
the industry representative body has evolved through the Deer Farmers
Federation of Australia to the Deer Industry Association of Australia Ltd
(DIAA), which was registered in 1995. The industry has established two product
development and marketing companies, the Australian Deer Horn and Co-
Products Pty Ltd (ADH) and the Deer Industry Projects and Development Pty
Ltd, which trades as the Deer Industry Company (DIC). ADH collects and
markets Australian deer horn and co-products on behalf of Australian deer

15
farmers. It promotes the harvest of velvet antler according to the strict quality
assurance program promoted by the industry. The company also plans and co-
ordinates regular velvet accreditation courses for Australian deer farmers.
Paragraph D
Estimates suggest that until the early 1990s the rate of the annual increase
in the number of farmed deer was up to 25%, but after 1993 this rate of increase
fell to probably less than 10%. The main reasons for the decline in the deer herd
growth rate at such a critical time for the market were: (i) severe drought
conditions up to 1998 affecting eastern Australia during 1993-96 and (ii) the
consequent slaughter of large numbers of breeding females, at very low prices.
These factors combined to decrease confidence within the industry. Lack of
confidence saw a drop in new investment within the industry and a lack of
willingness of established farmers to expand their herds. With the development of
strong overseas markets for venison and velvet and the prospect of better seasons
ahead in 1996, the trends described were seen to have been significantly reversed.
However, the relatively small size of the Australian herd was seen to impose
undesirable restraints on the rate at which herd numbers could be expanded to
meet the demands for products.
Supply difficulties were exacerbated when the supply of products,
particularly venison, was maintained by the slaughter of young breeding females.
The net result was depletion of the industry’s female breeding herds.
Paragraph E
Industry programs are funded by statutory levies on sales of animals for
venison, velvet antler sales and the sale of live animals into export markets. The
industry has a 1996 - 2000 five year plan including animal nutrition, pasture
quality, carcass quality, antler harvesting, promotional material and technical
bulletins. All projects have generated a significant volume of information, which
compliments similar work undertaken in New Zealand and other deer farming
countries.

16
 Major projects funded by levy funds include the Venison Market Project
from 1992 to 1996. This initiative resulted in a dramatic increase in international
demand for Australian venison and an increase in the domestic consumption of
venison. In an effort to maintain existing venison markets in the short term and to
increase them in the long term, in 1997 the industry’s top priority became the
increase in size and production capacity of the national herd.

Questions 5 – 7
Read the passage about Deer Farming in Australia again and look at the
statements below. For questions 5 – 7 on your answer sheet write:
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in Reading Passage
5. Since 1985 many imported deer have been interbred with the established herds.
6. The drop in deer numbers since 1997 led to an increase in the price of venison.
7. Current economic conditions in Asian countries have had positive effect on
the Australian deer industry.
Questions 8 – 10
Complete each of the following statements (Questions 8 – 10) with words taken
from Reading Passage. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer. Write your answers next to questions 8 – 10 on your answer sheet.
8. A stringent __________ allows the Australian deer industry to maintain their
excellence of product.
9. Herd stock expansion was made difficult by the killing of __________ to
continue product supply.
10. Foreign and home markets for Australian venison increased due to the
__________.
V. WRITING
Exercise 1: Rewrite the sentences using the provided words.
1. Organic vegetables are said to be health. WONDERS
17
2. I never thought of going by train. OCCURRED
3. The young man was very embarrassed because his proposal was turned down.
REJECTION
4. The model’s clothes lay all over the floor. STREWN
5. When she left home, she had to do everything on her own. FEND
6. It’s not certain whether I’ll be able to pay the bills this month. TOUCH
7. Andrew doesn’t claim to have a lot of musical talent. PRETENCE
8. I could tell by the tone of his voice how serious the situation was. HOME
9. You look grumpy this morning. BED
10. Selling antiques made him a little extra money. DABBLED
Exercise 2:
The charts A and B show the share of the UK and Australian cinema market in
2001 and cinema admission in the UK and Australia from 1976 to 2006.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features and
make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.

18
 Sources: Admission data: BFI, Motion Picture Distributors Association of
Australia (MPDAA).

Exercise 3:
Write about the following topic:
The lottery does more good than harm. Discuss.

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.

Write at least 250 words.

19
 KEY
I. LISTENING
SECTION 1 Questions 1 – 5
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. B
SECTION 2 Questions 6 – 15
31. 40 or 50 36. drill cores
32. New Zealand 37. B*
33. cone-shaped 38. E*
34. a boiling reservoir 39. F*
35. 650 000 years 40. H*
Answers for questions 37 – 40: these answers in any order
II. PRONUNCIATION
Exercise 1:
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. D
Exercise 2:
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. D
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1:
20
1. C 6. C 11. C 16. B
2. A 7. D 12. D 17. B
3. D 8. D 13. A 18. B
4. B 9. D 14. A 19. B
5. B 10. C 15. C 20. A
Exercise 2:
1. mean => means 6. generate => generated
2. using => are using 7. electric => electricity
3. Sometimes => Sometime 8. soil river => river soil
4. being => x 9. growed => grew
5. what => which 10. buried => are buried
Exercise 3:
1. on 6. out 11. away 16. over
2. out 7. out 12. under 17. down
3. out 8. up 13. up 18. through
4. up 9. down 14. upon 19. off
5. up 10. up with 15. for 20. off
Exercise 4:
1. has been raining / looks
2. Has … come / will be
3. have been waiting / have … been
4. are investigating (have been investigating) /took / have discovered / have
arrested
5. had been looking / asked / said / was
6. has not received / thinks
7. had happened / had gone/ were deserted/ were left
Exercise 5:

21
1. priority 6. Ironically
2. reduction 7. alive
3. healthy 8. unbearably
4. spokesman/spokesperson 9. ensuring
5. mishear 10. quieten
Exercise 6:
1. however 6. moreover / in addition
2. firstly / first of all 7. as a result
3. moreover / in addition 8. in conclusion
4. on the other hand 9. on the whole
5. firstly / first of all 10. in contrast
IV. READING
Exercise 1: 1. B
2. A 7. B 12. D
3. D 8. A 13. C
4. B 9. D 14. D
5. B 10. C 15. B
6. B 11. B
Exercise 2:
1. When 6. only 11. presence
2. into 7. for 12. being
3. its 8. by 13. to
4. done 9. out 14. visit
5. not 10. prevent 15. scents
Exercise 3:
1. B 4. C
2. A 5. C
3. A 6. B
22
7. A 9. A
8. D 10. D
Exercise 4:
1. viii 6. F
2. i 7. NG
3. iii 8. quality assurance program
4. vi 9. breeding females
5. NG 10. Venison Market Project
V. WRITING
Exercise 1:
1. Organic vegetables are said to do wonders for one’s health.
2. The thought of going by train never occurred to me/ It never occurred to me to
go by train.
3. The rejection of his proposal greatly embarrassed the young man.
4. The floor was strewn with the model’s clothes.
5. When she left home, she had to fend for herself.
6. It’s touch and go whether I’ll be able to pay the bills this month.
7. Andrew makes no pretence of having a lot of musical talent.
8. The tone of his voice brought it home to me how serious the situation was.
9. You get out of bed on the wrong side this morning.
10. He dabbled in antiques, which made … money. / He made … as he dabbled in
antiques.
Exercise 2:
Exercise 3:

23
Tape script
SECTION 1
Interviewer: It seems only fitting that former construction engineer Roger
Moffat should’ve used his redundancy money to change
direction and break into Hollywood, creating special effects for
film and television, for, by his own flamboyant admission, he’s
no conventional engineer, but a born performer who loves an
audience.
Do you remember a certain car commercial in which the car
was driven down the side of a skyscraper? The building façade
and windows were built by Roger’s own company for a daring
stunt whose trade secret he will own company for a daring stunt
whose trade secret he will not divulge. He also constructed
sections of a bridge for the film Mary Reilly, which starred
Julia Roberts and John Malkovich. So, Roger, how did it all
Roger Moffat: start?
Well, about ten years ago I had a heart by-pass operation and,
about the same time I was made redundant. I was feeling pretty
low at the time, so I decided that the only thing to do was to
Interviewer: take my working life into my own hands and set up my own
Roger Moffat: business.
And what kind of success did you have in the early days?
You could say it was a bit like taking a roller coaster ride and
wondering when you were going to come flying off at break-
Interviewer: neck speed! Everything was a challenge: finance, production,
marketing.
But that’s all in the past, you’re … you’re apparently much
Roger Moffat: sought after now. I hear forthcoming film productions are
queuing up for your services.

24
 Some – yes. There’s no doubt that we’re certainly growing
rapidly but we’re still small, and I think it’s probably important
to remain that way. I’ve seen too many organizations just grow
Interviewer: and grow and in the end they finish up over-reaching
themselves – stretching themselves to the limit.
Roger Moffat: Do you have any regrets about the way things have gone? –
about the way your life has taken a different turn?
To be honest, none at all. I feel that I’ve escaped being a slave
to a regular income, from commuting, from having to justify
my actions to everyone, from having to attend the office party,
from having to book my holidays in advance – actually, I don’t
Interviewer: have any holidays at all at the moment, come to think of it. I’m
too busy! But best of all, I’ve nothing to do with office politics!
Roger Moffat: Probably the biggest advantage of all. So, what’s the secret of
your meteoric rise?
Oh, I couldn’t have done anything without the support of my
wife, Lili, who’s also my business partner, and there’s our two
Interviewer: daughters, of course, Natasha and Katia. They’ve all been
Roger Moffat: wonderful.
So what kind of job did you start out doing?
I graduated in mechanical engineering and then spent about 20
years in industry. Then my job – I was the chief engineer in an
air-conditioning firm – just disappeared overnight. Anyway,
Interviewer: after that, I set up my own computer-aided system that makes
really intricate architectural models.
And you also supply components for the aerospace industry,
don’t you?
Interviewer: We do, but I have to admit that it’s the film work that really
Roger Moffat: interests me most.

25
 Do you worry about the future?
No more than anyone else. I mean, there’s no job security
anywhere these days, is there? Of course, it’s a risk running
your own company, but then you’re equally as vulnerable
staying employed. I decided it was safer to be in charge of my
own show than to be a part of someone else’s. naturally, I’ve
had problems. We had to sell the family house, the one I built
myself. But, looking back, it all seems worth it. I was always
Interviewer: infuriated by having to justify myself to people whom I didn’t
consider to be my intellectual superiors!
Roger Moffat: How would you describe yourself? What are your strengths,
weaknesses?
I think I’m a bit of an oddball character really. I suppose you
might say that I was a hard-headed romantic. I believe that an
engineer has to invent ideas. You need to be very talented. You
need to have a feeling for balance and form. You also need to
feel you have status and that people value what you’re doing.
I’ve always seen engineers as sort of visionaries, if you like.
Engineering can give you great power, a position in the world
and, if you don’t look after your engineers, then you’re in great
danger of losing your prestige, your position. Engineering’s
still the ‘workshop of the world’ in every country. We’ve built
Interviewer: superb ships, motorbikes, motorcars. Now we’re entering a new
Roger Moffat: phase with new challenges.
And what about the tools of your trade? How do you view
those?
To me, mechanical things are magical: a motor car is a thrilling
bit of science. The microchip is a masterpiece of theoretical
design; machines of unbelievable complexity make them. But

26
 from my point of view, the most rewarding thing of all is that
Interviewer: all these things are designed by engineers.
You certainly seem to have a passion for your profession. I
think the mystique of the film world will be pretty safe in your
hands. Thanks for coming to talk to us today, Roger.

SECTION 2
Good morning and welcome to this earth sciences lecture. We’ve been looking
recently at such phenomena as earthquakes, tsunami, volcanic eruptions and
other natural occurrences. Today we are going to look at a lesser known feature
of the earth which is known as the super volcano.
As the name implies this is a volcano of a much larger size than what we
normally imagine a volcano to be. The term super volcano has no specifically
defined scientific meaning. It is used to refer to volcanoes that have generated
Earth’s largest volcanic eruptions. As such, a super volcano would be one that
has produced an exceedingly large, catastrophic explosive eruption and a giant
caldera, a caldera being the gigantic crater that the eruption creates. Whereas
normal volcano craters are measured in the hundreds of metres, a caldera can
easily be as large as 40 or 50 miles wide. Around the world there are several
volcanic areas that can be considered super volcanoes such as Long Valley in
eastern California, Toba in Indonesia and Lake Taupo in New Zealand. There
are also other large calderas in Japan, Indonesia, Scotland and Alaska. Not all
the calderas are active though.
Normal volcanoes are formed by a column of magma, rising from deep within
the Earth, erupting on the surface, and hardening in layers down the sides. This
forms the familiar cone-shaped mountain we associate with volcanoes. Super
volcanoes, however, begin life when magma rises from the Earth’s mantle to
create a boiling reservoir in the Earth’s crust. This chamber increases to an
enormous size, building up colossal pressure until it finally erupts. An explosion
like this could send ash, dust, and sulphur dioxide into the atmosphere,
27
reflecting the sun’s rays and creating a cold wave lasting several years. Crops in
many areas would fail and many species of animals and plants, including
humans, would face extinction.
The most recent caldera-forming eruption in the US was about 650 000 years
ago in the north east United States. During that eruption, ground-hugging flows
of hot volcanic ash, pumice, and gases swept across an area of more than 3000
square miles. The eruption also shot a column of volcanic ash and gases high
into Earth’s stratosphere. This volcanic cloud circled the globe many times and
affected the Earth’s climate by reducing the intensity of solar radiation reaching
the lower atmosphere and surface. Fine volcanic ash that fell downwind from the
eruption site blanketed much of North America. This ash layer is still preserved
in deposits as far away as Iowa, where it is a few inches thick, and the Gulf of
Mexico, where it is recognizable in drill cores from the sea floor.
You now have some time to look at questions 37 to 40.
(20 second gap)
Now listen to the rest of the lecture and answer questions 37 to 40.
It is little known that lying underneath one of The United States’ largest and
most picturesque National Parks, Yellowstone Park, is one of the largest super
volcanoes in the world. Volcanic activity began in the Yellowstone National
Park region about 2 million years ago. Magma rising from deep within the Earth
has produced three cataclysmic eruptions more powerful than any in the world’s
recorded history. The first caldera-forming eruption occurred about 2.1 million
years ago. The eruptive blast removed so much magma from its subsurface
storage reservoir that the ground above it collapsed into the magma chamber and
left a caldera larger than the state of Rhode Island. The huge caldera measured
as much as 50 miles long, 40 miles wide and hundreds of meters deep, extending
from outside Yellowstone National Park into the central area of the Park.
Scientists have revealed that Yellowstone Park has been on a regular eruption
cycle of 600 000 years. The last eruption was 640 000 years ago so the next is
overdue. The next eruption could be 2 500 times the size of the 1980 Mount St.
28
Helens eruption. Volcanologists have been tracking the movement of magma
under the park and have calculated that in parts of Yellowstone the ground has
risen over point seven of a metre this century. This means the magma is rising.
Geologists have called for a taskforce to be set up to consider emergency
management in the event of a massive volcanic eruption, or super-eruption.
Experts say such an event would have a colossal impact on a global scale.
The fallout from a super-eruption could cause a “volcanic winter”, devastating
global agriculture and causing mass starvation. One past super-eruption struck at
Toba in Sumatra 74 000 years ago and is thought by some to have driven the
human race to the edge of extinction. Signs from DNA suggest human numbers
could have dropped to about 10 000, probably as a result of the effects of
climate change. The volcanic winter resulting from a super-eruption could last
several years or decades, depending on the scale of an eruption, and according to
recent computer models, could cause cooling on a global scale by 5 to 10
degrees Celsius.

29
 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BIÊN HOÀ- HÀ NAM
ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CỤM CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
NĂM 2014
Giáo viên soạn: Đoàn Hồng Anh
Trương Thị Phương Thanh
SECTION 1: LISTENING
Part 1. You will hear part of a lecture in which a man called Tom Trueman talks about golf
courses and the environment. For questions 1-8, complete the sentences by writing no more
than three words and/or a number for each answer. (8pts)
You will hear the recording twice
1. The recent popularity of golf resulted from local success in ………………………...........
2. A demand for new golf courses attracted the interest of both ………………………..........
3. Many developers made the mistake of building golf courses to ………………..................
standards.
4. Golf courses tend to be used by people who live in …………………….............................
5. Some people think that golf courses look too much like …………………..........................
6. Trees planted on golf courses are often chosen because they ……………………..............
7. Tom suggests that golf courses could be ……………………..................................as well.
8. Tom would like to see golf courses integrated into both the ……………….................and
the ecology.
Part 2. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chef who
both won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the
correct answer A, B, C, or D. You will hear the recording twice. (7 pts)
1. What was Chris’s attitude to the competition?
A. He was worried about the quality of his dishes.
B. He was afraid time might be a bit of a problem.
C. He admitted he’d been looking forward to the challenge.
D. he said conditions were similar to his routine.
2. Jane admitted that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was having to
A. work in a very small space. B. be original when travelling at speed.
C. prepare a meal so quickly. D. create a meal with so little money.
3. What do both Chris and Jane feel is unique about their job?
A. the close contact with the customers
B. the necessary to do everything the same time
C. the opportunity to be creative
D. the need to be focused on the job
4. What do Chris and Jane feel about what they cook on board the train?
A. They approve of the menus created for them.
B. They consider themselves more adventurous than other chefs.
C. They would like to have more freedom of choice.
D. They are happy to adapt their ideas to suit the job.
5. Chris thought being a railway chef would suit him mainly because it would enable him to
A. show his ability to work under pressure. B. use the skills he had been trained for.
C. do something out of the ordinary. D. satisfy his love of training.
1
6. What is often Jane’s initial reaction when things spill over?
A. She asks another member of staff to help her clear up.
B. She blames the train driver for the accident.
C. She feels herself to keep a closer watch next time.
D. She says nasty things to the other staff.
7. How does Jane react to Chris’s suggestion for the future?
A. She’s determined that she’ll join him if she can.
B. She’s looking forward to a challenge of that kind.
C. She’s afraid Chris wouldn’t want her company.
D. She’d be unable to take part in that kind of activity.
SECTION 2: PHONOLOGY
Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other
three. (2.5 pts)
1. A. asymmetric B. ahistorical C. oceanic D. aide
2. A. exaggerate B. exhort C. exhilaration D. exhale
3. A. etiquette B. conqueror C. bequest D. statuesque
4. A. champagne B. chlorine C. charisma D. archive
5. A. confusedly B. allegedly C. supposedly D. wickedly
Part 2. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (2.5 pts)
6. A. accompany B. comfortable C. interview D. dynamism
7. A. disrespectful B. attentiveness C. superior D. untrustworthy
8. A. argumentative B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive
9. A. diplomacy B. delicacy C. peninsula D. pneumonia
10. A. trigonometry B. explanatory C. immediately D. democracy
SECTION 3. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
Part 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to
indicate the correct answer. (10 pts)
1. The better _______ you have of words, the better meaning you can express.
A. demand B. command C. market D. performance
2. The late Vietnamese leader Le Duan was recognized as the _________ Architect of
Vietnam’s reform, opening and modernization.
A. Main B. Principal C. Chief D. Primary
3. She ________ agreed to go with him to the football match although she had no interest in
the game at all.
A. apologetically B. grudgingly C. shamefacedly D. discreetly
4. Police couldn’t persuade the man to _________ the source of his information.
A. uncover B. discover C. divulge D. concede
5. On the way to Cambridge yesterday, the road was blocked by a fallen tree, so we had to
make a _____________.
A. deviation B. digression C. detour D. departure
6. Luckily, the rain ___________ so we were able to play the match.
A. watered down B. gave out C. got away D. held off
7. All his hard work ________ in success.
A. accounted B. merged C. culminated D. succumbed
8. We finally managed to __________ our point of view.
A. bring her round to B. fool her into C. take her up on D. fix her up with

2
9. Things are going well. In fact, business is __________.
A. soaring B. rolling C. blooming D. leaping
10. The smoke ___________ from the burning tyres could be seen for miles
A. sweeping B. billowing C. radiating D. bulging
11. I couldn’t tell what time it was because workmen had removed the ________ of the clock .
A. hands B. pointers C. arms D. fingers
12. At the end of the winter, the price of winter clothes in the shop usually _________.
A. reduces B. lowers C. sinks D. drops
13. “I can’t remember us ever _________,” replied the stranger.
A. to meet B. to have meet C. being met D. having met
14. _________ for director must have surprised you.
A. You nominated B. You’re being nominated
C. Your being nominated D. Your nominating
15. Although he was completely _________ as a furniture-maker, he produced the most
beautiful chairs.
A. unable B. uneducated C. incapable D. untrained
16. The firm went bankrupt and then shares became _________.
A. priceless B. worthless C. unworthy D. invaluable
17. She's certainly a _________ writer; she has written quite a few books this year.
A. fruitful B. fertile C. prolific D. successful
18. They live in a very _____________ populated area of Italy .
A. sparsely B. scarcely C. hardly D. barely
19. The _________ exam in January prepared pupils for the real thing in June .
A. false B. unreal C. untrue D. imaginary
20. Some very important issue was __________ all his attention .
A. taking up B. taking off C. taking out D. taking in
Part 2. The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline and correct them. (00) has been
done as an example. (5 pts)
Example: hotter  hottest
Leonardo DiCaprio is one of the hotter young film stars around at the moment. His face has
been on the covers of all the top movies and young magazines over the last few months and
he has been the subject of countless articles, rumours and showbiz gossip. Leonard doesn’t
like reading about him because “I read things about me that I’ve never said in my life and
never did" .
Leonardo DiCaprio was born in Los Angeles on 11 November, 1974. He’s a Scorpio. His full
name is Leonardo Wilhelm DiCaprio. His mother is Germany and his father Italian-
American. They called him Leonardo because when his mother was still pregnant, he started
kicking while she was stood in front of a painting by Leonardo Da Vinci. His friends call him
Leo. He has a scar from when he was stinging by a Portuguese man-of-war. His parents
separated before he was born, so his mother moved to a poor neighbourhood of Hollywood
there Leo grew up . At school he was very good at imitating people, especially Michael
Jackson. This made him very popularly. His childhood hero was Poseidon, the Greek god of
the sea.
After appearance in TV commercials and episodes of Roseanne, he played the cast of
Roseanne, the TV sitcom starring Kirk Cameron. Leonard played the part of Luke, a
3
 homeless boy. Lately, he played the part of Jim Carroll in The Basketball Diaries. But he has
really become famous since he acted in the film Titanic.
Part 3. Read the following passage and fill the gaps with appropriate prepositions.(5 pts)
The writing is on the wall for the brilliant but bullying boss. Driving ambition and a
high IQ might give you a head start in the race for the top, but a lack of “emotional
intelligence” will be a hindrance (1)……………..achieving medium to long-term success.
Senior managers have long been convinced (2)………………the value of interpersonal
skills in the workplace. The concept that emotional intelligence can account
(3)…………….the difference (4)…………….outstanding and average performance, however,
is comparatively new. But what exactly is emotional intelligence? One psychologist defined it
(5)…………….the ability to regulate your behaviour so that there is a balance
(6)………….personal feelings, emotions and drives, and the feelings and needs of others. It is
about being able to resolve the conflict that may arise (7)…………. high motivation and
conscientiousness and integrity. People with low emotional intelligence don’t get promoted
because others object (8)……………working with them.
In the workplace, there is a great need (9)………………sensitivity in relationships, and
people in managerial jobs should focus more (10)……………..understanding people’s
feelings (11)……………..change and their fears (12)………………..redundancy. An
organization which attaches importance (13)………………..the emotions of the employees is
more likely to be an effective organization. If a manager regularly compliments his staff
(14)……………..their work, and sympathises (15)……………….them when they have
problems, the profits of the company will increase (16)……………..a greater rate. And people
will enjoy working with each other.
Getting in touch with your own feelings has benefits which extend (17)…………..the
workplace. If you are only working with your brain, you won’t see the emotional cost to
yourself. Making a move that is beneficial (18)…………..your career but means traveling all
the time could result (19)…………….the destruction of your relationship with your partner
and children. Without emotional intelligence, (20)……………..the medium to long-term, you
will have a less balanced personal life and make a lot of enemies.
Part 4. Read the following passage and supply the correct verb forms and tenses. (5 pts)
AFTER THE FIRE
Firemen (1. fight) ………….. the forest fire for nearly three weeks before they
(2. can get ) …………..it under control. A short time before, great trees (3. cover) …………
the countryside for miles around. Now, smoke still (4. rise up) ………… from the warm
ground over the desolate hills. Winter (5. come) …………. on the hills threatened the
surrounding villages with destruction, for heavy rain would not only wash away the soil but
would cause serious floods as well. When the fire ( 6. at last/ put out) …………………., the
forest authorities ordered several tons of a special type of grass seed which (7. grow)
…………….. quickly. The seed was sprayed over the ground in large quantities by airplanes.
The planes (8. plant ) …………….. seed for nearly a month when it began to rain. By then,
however, in many places the grass (9. already take) ………….. root. In place of the great trees
which had been there for centuries, patches of green (10. begin) …………. to appear in the
blackened soil.

4
Part 5. Read the following passage and supply the correct verb forms. (5 pts)
Tube Inspired a Book
For many people, the London Underground is a grim(0. NECESSARY) ......... that gets
them from A to B. But for (1. BUD )……………… author Preethi Nair, it is a source of
inspiration. She has just published her first novel, Gypsy Masala - a tale she dreamt up whilst
commuting on the Metropolitan Line. “Have you observed people on the tube?” she asks (2.
ENTHUSE)…………… “Everyone is in their own little world. I just used to sit there and
imagine what kind of lives they led.”
Gypsy Masala charts the adventures and (3. INNER)……………… thoughts of three
members of an Indian family living in London, as they search for happiness. “It is a story
about following your dreams,” says Preethi, who gave up her high-pressure job as a
management (4. CONSULT)……………. in order to go in (5. PURSUE)………….. of her
ambition of becoming a writer. “It was a big risk but it was definitely the right decision in
terms of peace of mind and (6. CONTENT)……………. ," she explains.
Preethi was born in a small village in the Indian state of Kerala and moved to London
with her parents at the age of three. She says the striking contrast in cultures made a (7.
LAST)……………… impression and is reflected in her story, which flits between the suburbs
of London and (8. FAR)…………….. India. Many of the scenes in the book are based on the
place where she was born and spent long summer holidays.
“It is a tiny village that is lost in time. There is still no(9. RUN) water and it is quite
difficult to get to. It is completely (10. TOUCH)………….. , and so beautiful,” she says.
Part 6. Read the following passage and choose from the list A – P the best phrase to fill each
gap. Use each correct phrase only once. There are six extra phrases which you do not need
to use. Write your answers in the spaces provided.(5 pts)
Archaeologists in Iraq have discovered the world’s oldest “statue” = a stone, standing
four feet high, covered with plaster (1)……….of a human being. This “stone man”, dating
from 11,000 years ago, (2)………who were emerging from the pre-agricultural Stone Age into
the Neolithic world of early farming.
The statue, probably of religious significance, was located inside a prehistoric house –
one of the earliest sophisticated buildings (3)…….. Investigations have shown that the house
had (4)……clay-coated, lime-plastered walls and floor.
So far excavations have unearthed three buildings containing seven standing stones,
(5)…….retain traces of the lime plaster which once covered them. However, (6)…….shows
evidence of having been shaped into the likeness of a human being. It is 30 centuries older
(7)……..previously known oldest statue. (8)………that each building appears to have had at
least one standing stone inside it, and that one house actually had three. The plaster-covered
human shaped obelisk (9)……..shoulders and the stumps of arms and part of a neck. The
“head”, however, (10)………
A. ever discovered by archaeologists. I. beautifully finished
B. moulded into the shape J. than the remaining
C. to have been built K. has what appear to be
D. strangely carved L seems to have broken off
E. was fashioned by a people M. four of which
F. excavations have revealed N. has been missing
G. only one of these O. it has been decided
H. neither of them P. than the world’s

5
SECTION 4: READING
Part 1. Fill in each blank in the following passages with ONE suitable word to make
meaningful passages. (5 pts)
Advances in technology have done much to change the way we live and communicate,
but no breakthrough revolutionized life as much as the advent of wireless technology,
according to a panel of experts assembled by CNN 2010. Back in 1980, when it (1)………..to
communication technology, telephones were stuck to walls, facts were found in books, and
people had to browse shelves in a record store if they wanted to buy the latest music.
However, developments that occurred at the start of the twenty century (2)…………..we could
access all that information just by reaching into our pockets for our mobile phone. Form the
(3)………………beginning of the Information Age, having immediate access to data was
fundamental to progress. In some cases, technological advances (4)…………to overhaul
industries at a lightning –fast pace. For example, the internet helped tech-savvy music lovers
to force changes in the way the music industry did (5)…………, while text messaging over
cell phones made written (6)…………..more immediate.
We embraced information technology to such an (7)……………..that having computer
access in our homes was not (8)……………enough. We wanted to use these tools everywhere.
Wireless hot spots popped up in cafes, airports, universities – even the whole city blocks. And
just as computer use worldwide exploded, the brains behind them – the processors – became
increasingly smaller. A computer chip that you could balance on your fingertips could hold
massive (9)…………..of data. This ability to store portable. The entertainment industry
harnessed satellite technology to give consumers more choice, and video game technology
developed to the (10)……………where it became a $ 10 billion a year industry, producing
games that invite players into a virtual world of fantasy, sport or even war.

Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks.
(7.5 pts)
Stories about how people somehow know they are being watched have been going
around for years. However, few attempts have been made to investigate the phenomenon
scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the so-called staring
effect, there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and (1)…………..sixth sense.
The study (2)……………hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes
(3)………….. so they could not see, and with their backs to other children, who were told to
either stare at them or look away. Time and time again the results showed that the children
who could not see were able to (4)……………when were being stared at. In a (5)………..of
more than 18,000 trials (6)…………..worldwide, the children (7)…………sensed when they
were being watched almost 70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the
(8)………….precaution of putting the children who were being watched outside the room,
(9)…………from the stares by the windows. This was done just in case there was some
(10)…………..going on with the children telling each other whether they were looking or not.
This (11)……………the possibility of sounds being (12)…………between the children. The
results, though less impressive, were more or less the same. Dr Sheldrake, the biologist who
designed the study, believes that the results are (13)………..enough to find out through further
experiments (14)………..how the staring effect might actually (15)…………
1. A. genuine B. accepted C. received D. sure
2. A. involved B. contained C. comprised D. enclosed

6
3. A. shaded B. wrapped C. masked D. covered
4. A. find B. notice C. tell D. reveal
5. A. sum B. collection C. mass D. total
6. A. worked over B. worked through C. carried on D. carried out
7. A. correctly B. exactly C. thoroughly D. perfectly
8. A. attached B. added C. connected D. increased
9. A. separated B. parted C. split D. divided
10. A. pretending B. lying C. cheating D. deceiving
11. A. prevented B. omitted C. evaded D. ended
12. A. delivered B. transported C. transmitted D. distributed
13. A. satisfying B. convincing C. concluding D. persuading
14. A. really B. carefully C. definitely D. precisely
15. A. come about B. be looked at C. set out D. be held up

Part 3. Read the following passage. (7.5 pts)

Questions 1-7: Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings
below. Write the correct number, i- ix, in blanks.
List of headings
i. The reaction of the Inuit community to climate change
ii. Understanding of climate change remains limited
iii. Alternative sources of essential supplies
iv. Respect for Inuit opinion grows
v. A healthier choice of food
vi. A difficult landscape
vii. Negative effects on well-being
viii. Alarm caused by unprecedented events in the Arctic
ix. The benefits of an easier existence
Your answers:
Paragraph A Paragraph B Paragraph C Paragraph D Paragraph E Paragraph F Paragraph G
…………… ………….. …………… ……………. ……………. …………… ……………

Climate Change and the Inuit

A. Unusual incidents are being reported across the Arctic. Inuit families going off on
snowmobiles to prepare their summer hunting camps have found themselves cut off
from home by a sea of mud, following early thaws. There are reports of igloos losing
their insulating properties as the snow drips and refreezes, of lakes draining into the sea
as permafrost melts, and sea ice breaking up earlier than usual, carrying seals beyond
the reach of hunters. Climate change may still be, a rather abstract idea to most of us,
but in the Arctic it is already having dramatic effects – if summertime ice continues to
shrink at its present rate, the Arctic Ocean could soon become virtually ice-free in
summer. The knock-on effects are likely to include more warning, cloudier skies,
increased precipitation and higher sea levels. Scientists are increasingly keen to find out
what’s going on because they consider the Artic the ‘canary in the mine’ for global
warming – a warning of what’s in store for the rest of the world.
B. For the Inuit the problem is urgent. They live in precarious balance with one of the
toughest environments on earth. Climate change, whatever its causes, is a direct threat to
7
 their way of life. Nobody knows the Artic as well as the locals, which is why they are
not content simply to stand back and let outside experts tell them what’s happening. In
Canada, where the Inuit people are jealously guarding their hand-won autonomy in the
country’s newest territory, Nunavut, they believe their best hope of survival in this
changing environment lies in combining their ancestral knowledge with the best of
modern science. This is a challenge in itself.
C. The Canadian Arctic is a vast, treeless polar desert that ‘s covered with snow for most of
the year. Venture into this terrain and you get some idea of the hardships facing anyone
who calls this home. Farming is out of the question and nature offers meager pickings.
Humans first settled in the Arctic a mere 4,500 years ago, surviving by exploiting sea
mammals and fish. The environment tested them to the limits: sometimes the colonists
were successful, sometimes they failed and vanished. But around a thousand years ago,
one group emerged that was uniquely well adapted to cope with the Arctic environment.
These Thule people moved in from Alaska, bringing kayaks, sleds, dogs, pottery and
iron tools. They are the ancestors of today’s Inuit people.
D. Life for the descendants of the Thule people is still harsh. Nunavut is 1.9 million square
kilometers of rock and ice, and a handful of islands around the North Pole. It ‘s
currently home to 2,500 people, all but a handful of them indigenous Inuit. Over the past
40 years, most have abandoned their nomadic ways and settled in the territory’s 28
isolated communities, but they still rely on nature to provide food and clothing.
Provisions available in local shops have to be flown into Nunavut on one of the most
costly air networks in the world, or brought by supply ship during the few ice-free
weeks of summer. It would cost a family around £ 7,000 a year to replace meat they
obtained themselves through hunting with imported meat. Economic opportunities are
scarce, and for many people state benefits are their only income.
E. While the Inuit may not actually starve if hunting and trapping are curtailed by climate
change, there has certainly been an impact on people’s health. Obesity, heart disease and
diabetes are beginning to appear in a people for whom these have never before been
problems. There has been a crisis of identity as the traditional skills of hunting, trapping
and preparing skins have begun to disappear. In Nunavut‘s ‘igloo and email’ society,
where adults who were born in igloos have children who may never have been out on
the land, there ‘s high incidence of depression.
F. With so much at stake, the Inuit are determined to play a key role in teasing out the
mysteries of climate change in the Arctic. Having survived there for centuries, they
believe their wealth of traditional knowledge is vital to the task. And Western scientists
are starting to draw on this wisdom, increasingly referred to as ‘Inuit
Qaujimajatuqangit’, or IQ. ‘ In the early days scientists ignored us when they came up
here to study anything. They just figured these people don’t know very much so we
won’t ask them,’ says John Amagoalik, an Inuit leader and politician. ‘ But in recent
years IQ has had much more credibility and weight.’ In fact it is now a requirement for
anyone hoping to get permission to do research that they consult the communities, who
are helping to set the research agenda to reflect their most important concerns. They can
turn down applications from scientists they believe will work against their interests, or
research projects that will impinge too much on their daily lives and traditional
activities.

8
 G. Some scientists doubt the value of traditional knowledge because the occupation of the
Arctic doesn’t go back far enough. Others, however, point out that the first weather
stations in the far north date back just 50 years. There are still huge gaps in our
environmental knowledge, and despite the scientific onslaught, many predictions are no
more than best guesses. IQ could help to bridge the gap and resolve the tremendous
uncertainty about how much of what we’re seeing is natural capriciousness and how
much is the consequence of human activity.
Questions 8-15: Choose no more than two words from paragraphs C and D to complete
their following summary.
If you visit the Canadian Arctic, you immediately appreciate the problems faced by
people for whom this is home. It would clearly be impossible for the people to engage in
(8)……………………as a means of supporting themselves. For thousands of years they have
had to rely on catching (9)…………………….and (10)………………as a means of
sustenance. The harsh surroundings saw many who tried to settle there pushed to their limits,
although some were successful. The (11)………………people were an example of the latter
and for them the environment did not prove unmanageable. For the present inhabitants, life
continues to be a struggle. The territory of Nunavut consists of little more than ice, rock and a
few (12)………………….. .In recent years, many of them have been obliged to give up their
(13)………………….lifestyle, but they continue to depend mainly on (14)…………………..
for their food and clothes. (15)……………..produce is particularly expensive.
Part 4. Read the following passage and choose the best answers. (5pts)
Free-standing sculpture that is molded or carved is a type familiar to almost everyone.
Although certain free-standing figures or groups of figures can have only a single side
intended for viewing, others are completed on all sides. As with all other forms of art, the
ultimate shape of a sculpture reflects the artist‘s vision of individuals or experiences
represented by the work. Throughout history, people everywhere have discovered a need for
sculpture as a record of events and feelings.
Materials which can be sculptured do much to contribute to the artist’s imagination.
Wood, stone, metal, and various types of plastic and synthetics are all used as sculpting media.
When sculptures are made of stone, wood, ivory, or even ice, the sculptor carves or chips the
substance to reduce it to the necessary shape. Developing a sculptured image on all sides
represents a change from the older approach when artists left the back portion of the figure
unfinished and rough. In fact, sculpture in relief is completely attached to the flat background
material and appears to be a part of it. Relief, which is completed only on one side intended for
viewing, was the first type of sculpture created by man, when ancient sculptors removed the
background material in a side of a tree or a cave to make their drawing appear more realistic.
While creating a statue, the artist depends on the appropriate lighting to develop the
figure because the quality of the final product relies on the interplay between light and shade.
When the work is finished, the sculpture must be displayed in the same light as it was
originally created. If a light from a source is too weak or too strong, the effect that the sculptor
intended may be lost. For example, in painting, the light and shade give the image shape and
solidity that cannot be altered by an external light in which it is displayed. When a sculpture is
exhibited, the artist’s work is brought to life by light, and its character can be altered by the
control of the light source. A fundamental difference between a painting and a sculpture is that
when viewing a painting, the audience can only see the point of view that the painter had
intended. A free- standing sculpture can be seen from practically any angle. The job of the

9
sculptor is then to attain the quality and the volume of the image from any possible point of
view.
In addition to carving a work, sculptures can be cast. In the process of casting, a
sculpture can be reproduced in a mold when a liquefied medium is poured into shape. After
the material from which the sculpture is made hardens, the mold is removed, and the work is
cleaned of the excess and polished. Casting allows the artists to produce as many replicas as
needed. Most commercially sold sculptures are made in this way. Casting metals requires
special care and skill. Bronze is the preferred metal because of its versatility and malleability.
To make bronze sculpture, the space in a mold is filled with wax until it is melted by the
heated metal. This process, sometimes called lost-wax, was favored by Benvenuto Cellini and
was common among the artists in ancient China.
1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. Differences between painting and sculpture
B. Sculpting techniques and media
C. Types of commercially produced sculptures
D. Reasons for enjoying sculpture
2. The word “ ultimate” is closest in meaning to
A. ulterior B. final C. formal D. formidable
3. According to the passage, the purpose of sculpture as a form of art is to
A. Display a group of figures B. Reflect a human need for freedom
C. Express an artistic vision D. Commemorate individuals and events
4. According to the passage, all the following are true of sculpture EXCEPT that
A. it can be found in all parts of the world B. it has undergone change since the early times
C. it can be created from many substances D. it is no longer useful for people
5. The author of the passage implies that the most important factor in showing a sculpted
work is
A. the strength of the light source B. the development of the sculpted figure
C. the shape of the material for sculpting D. the effect of light on the sculpted image
6. The word “ audience” is closest in meaning to
A. listeners B. viewers C. public D. artists
7. What does the author mention as an important difference between a painting and a
sculpture?
A. A painting does not need shading to be displayed.
B. A painting can be viewed from only one position.
C. A sculpture needs to have proper light.
D. A sculpture does not look good from all angles.
8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a sculpturing medium?
A. Ice B. Ivory C. Stone D. Wax
9. The word “ replicas” is closest in meaning to
A. replacements B. molds C. reproductions D. monuments
10. According to the passage, what are the two basic methods for making sculptures?
A. Carving and casting B. Free- standing and relief
C. Hardening and melting C. Stone and metal

SECTION 5: WRITING
Part 1. Rewrite the following sentences using the cues given. (5 pts)

10
1. We were very impressed by the new camera but found it rather expensive.
Impressed _________________________________________________________
2. "I'm innocent," she said, and the court believed her.
She convinced ______________________________________________________
3. Under no circumstances should you phone the police.
The last ____________________________________________________________
4. You were so gullible! How could you believe the lies he told you?
Weren't ____________________________________________________________
5. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications.
The more __________________________________________________________
6. His irresponsible attitude is endangering his career as a doctor. (JEOPARDY)
________________________________________________________________
7. That wasn't what I meant at all. You've completely misunderstood me as usual. (STICK)
________________________________________________________________
8. I don't like him because he boasts a lot. (MOUTH)
________________________________________________________________
9. He liked the new job straight away. (DUCK)
________________________________________________________________
10. Your attitude will have to change if you want to succeed. (LEAF)
________________________________________________________________

Part 2. Study the chart below and write a report of about 150 words describing the
information given in the chart.(10 pts)

Part 3. Write an essay (of about 250 words) to answer the following question:(15pts)
Some people think that the automobile has improved modern life. Others think that the
automobile has caused serious problems. What is your opinion? Use specific reasons and
examples to support your answer.

THE END
11
 ANSWER KEYS

SECTION 1: LISTENING
Part 1. You will hear part of a lecture in which a man called Tom Trueman talks about
golf courses and the environment. For questions 1-8, complete the sentences.
You will hear the recording twice
1. international (golf) competition(s)/ golf internationally
2. ( the) landowners/ land – owners 3. championship
4. (the) cities/ (the) urban areas / the city 5. (urban) parks / a park
6. grow fast/ quickly 7. (a) nature reserve(s)
8. (local) community / (local) communities
Part 2. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chef who
both won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the
correct answer A, B, C, or D. You will hear the recording twice.
1.D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. D

SECTION 2: PHONOLOGY
Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other
three.
1. C 2. D 3. C 4.A 5. A
Part 2. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A
SECTION 3: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
Part 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to
indicate the correct answer. (10 pts)
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C. 5. C. 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. C. 10. B
11. A 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. A
Part 2. The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline and correct them. (00) has been
done as an example. (5 pts)
1. young --> youth 2. him --> himself 3. did--> done
4.Germany--> German 5. stood  standing 6. stinging--> stung
7. there --> where 8. popularly -->popular 9. appearance --> appearing
10. Lately --> Later
Part 3. Read the following passage and fill the gaps with appropriate prepositions.(5 pts)
1. to 2. of 3. for 4. between 5. as
6. between 7. from 8. to 9. for 10. on
11. about 12. of 13. to 14. on 15. with
16. at 17. beyond 18. to 19. in 20. in
Part 4. Read the following passage and supply the correct verb forms and tenses. (5 pts)
1/. had been fighting 6/. had at last been put out
2/. could get 7/. would grow
3/. had covered 8/. had been planting
4/. rose up 9/. had already taken
5/. was coming 10/. had begun
Part 5. Read the following passage and supply the correct verb forms. (5 pts)

12
1. budding 2. enthusiastically 3. innermost 4. consultant
5. pursuit 6. contentment/contentedness 7. lasting
8. far-away/far-off 9. running 10. untouched

Part 6. Read the following passage and choose from the list A – P the best phrase to fill each
gap. Use each correct phrase only once. There are six extra phrases which you do not need
to use. Write your answers in the spaces provided.

1. B 2. E 3. A 4. I 5. M 6. G 7. P 8. F 9. K 10. L

SECTION 4: READING
Part 1. Fill in each blank in the following passages with ONE suitable word to make
meaningful passages.
1. came 2. meant 3. very 4. served 5. business 6. communication
7. extent 8. quite 9. amounts 10. point
Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks.
1. A 2.A 3.D 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. B
9.A 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A
Part 3. Read the following passage.
Questions 1-7: Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings
below. Write the correct number, i- ix, in blanks.
1. Paragraph A – viii 5. Paragraph E - vii
2. Paragraph B – i 6. Paragraph F - iv
3. Paragraph C - vi 7. Paragraph G - ii
4. Paragraph D- iii
Questions 8-15: Choose no more than two words from paragraphs C and D to complete
their following summary.
8. farming 9-10. sea mammals- fish ( in either order) 11. Thule 12. islands
13. nomadic 14. nature 15. imported
Part 4. Read the following passage and choose the best answers.
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A
SECTION 5. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences using the cues given. (5 pts)
1. Impressed (by the new camera) as / though we were / might be (by the new camera), we
found it rather expensive.
2. She convinced the court that she was innocent. / She convinced the court of her innocence.
3. The last thing you can / could do is to phone the police.
4. Weren't you so gullible, you couldn't have believed the lies he told you.
5. The more qualifications you are able to / can amass, the more success you (can / will) make
/ successful you become in the academic field. ).
6. His career (as a doctor) has been put in jeopardy because of his irresponsible attitude. / His
irresponsible attitude is putting his career (as a doctor) in jeopardy.
7. That wasn't what I meant at all. You've got (hold of) the wrong end of the stick.
8. I don't like him because he has a big mouth.
9. He took to the new job like duck to water.
10. You will have to turn over a new leaf if you want to succeed.

13
II. (10 pts)
III. (15 pts)
The impression mark given to each of II and III is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

Transcript
Part 1.
Good afternoon. I’m here to talk about the rather delicate question of golf courses in the
countryside. I want to look at the growth of golf in this country and make some suggestions
regarding its future development.
A few years ago, a report was published by the body that governs the sport nationally.
At that time, the popularity of golf was expanding rapidly on the back of all the publicity
surrounding the success of certain local golfers in international competitions.
The report said that people who didn’t belong to existing golf clubs, but who wanted to
start playing the game, found that there simply weren’t enough facilities to go round. So, the
report concluded, around 700 courses would have to be built to meet the demand.
Following that report, there was , as you can imagine, enormous interest amongst
landowners, not to mention businessmen, who suddenly realized that there was money to be
made out of golf. Now, the ordinary beginner couldn’t really afford to pay for a high standard
of facilities, but, for some reason, developers tended to build championship golf courses, so
that quite a few of the hundreds built across the country failed financially.
And, of course, not everybody likes golf courses anyway. They cause changes to the
local environment and are used only by those with money, and that often means people driving
out from the cities, rather than the local population.
A further objection to golf courses is that, although they don’t involve much building,
the smooth close-cut grass gives them the ordered appearance of urban parks, because
developers seem to be obsessed with the idea of stripping everything out and starting again.
The land is leveled out, then artificial bumps are introduced, alien species of plants, often
imported form abroad, are put in; trees that grow fast are particularly popular, as are new
varieties of grass that provide a good walking surface. And, of course, this means r\that wild
animals and forms of native wildlife are uprooted and suffer as a result.
But my point is why should all this destruction be necessary? Why do all golf courses
have to look the same? I believe that, with a little bit of imagination, many courses could
easily be turned into nature reverses, where interesting or rare plant varieties could be
preserved. Many of the arguments raised by the critics would be answered in this way and I
think this is an approach that should be considered before any more golf courses are built in
this country. Most importantly, courses should be designed to attract rather than drive away
wildlife. A knock-on effect of this would be another layer of use, as schoolchildren and others
could come to study the natural habitats that would be preserved, making the golf course much
more an integral part of the local community as well as the local ecology.
So, what can…

14
Part 2.
Greg: Serving more than 200,000 meals a year would be a challenge for any chef, but step up
constraints of time, space and a demand for culinary excellence and you have the life of a
railway chef. Chris and Jane, the idea of having to cook in cramped surroundings, with limited
ingredients and a very tight schedule, as you did in the recent competition, must have been a
terrifying prospect…
Chris: Well hardly – I actually operate under those restrictions every day!
Jane: That’s true, of course, we both do- but there ‘s always the added danger that things can
go wrong, and the challenge of preparing a top-quality, three-course meal for four – which
costs no more than £ 50m – and in front of all those judges!
Greg: Well, Jane, you were a runner up and Chris came first. I gather you faced some stiff
competition form the other finalists.
Jane: No doubt about that. All the chefs who entered the competition were brilliant in their
own way – but someone has to win! But the real problem is trying to be creative, as the train
hurtles through the countryside at over 100 miles an hour – there’s little room for mistakes-
and you have to be able to keep your balance!
Chris: Actually, I’d only been a railway chef for three months. And I can tell you that life on
board is no easy ride. There ‘s no nipping out to get the extra bunch of parsley, or a lemon.
Greg: But you ‘re used to working under pressure all the same, aren’t you? How do you set
about being organized?
Chris: You’ve just got to make sure you’re focused on the job. Being able to keep an eye on a
dozen things at once is also an advantage!
Greg: But do you actually enjoy what you ‘re doing?
Jane : There’s plenty of scope to express yourself as a chef in the job – and the open kitchen
means that customers will often compliment you personally on the food. That’s one of the
biggest highlights of the job.
Chris: I’d certainly go along with tat. Very few restaurant chefs have the chance to experience
that.
Greg: And what about the menus, who decides what to cook?
Jane: They ‘re decided in advance for the whole railway network by two extremely famous
chefs, who are actually brothers. I suppose we both find it restricting.
Chris: Hmm, I do get a bit frustrated form time to time – think I could be a little more
adventurous – but it’s all a question of adaptability – which I suspect Jane is better at than I
am!
Jane: Not at all – I can be quite inflexible when the mood takes me!
Greg: So what would be a typical routine for you both?
Chris: You have to start at around 5.30 in the morning – check that all the ingredients have
been delivered – then it’s a mad rush to get everything ready.
Jane: And precious little time to rest any other time during the day, as you often have to set
tables ob other trains and help other staff. Timing ‘s particularly tight, you see. In other
restaurants orders come in and go out over two or three hours, but we have to turn round
before the passengers reach their stations. It’s all a bit nerve –racking.
Greg: So what motivated you to do this in the first place?
Chris: I’ve been on the move ever since I left college. So when I got engaged, I decided it was
time to settle down. So when I saw this job, it seemed a reasonable compromise between
personal commitments any my reluctance to stay in one place.

15
Jane: for me it was something that just caught my eye – not just ordinary run of the mill stuff.
And, if you get the time, you get a good view out of the windows!
Greg: And how do you stop things form spilling over when the train moves?
Chris: It’s not a problem for me. I was a chef on a liner, so I’ve got plenty of experience if
cookery in motion!
Jane: Yes, but I think it helps if you only half fill saucepans with boiling water – even so, they
often spill over and you start saying nasty things to yourself about the driver – and it’s not
usually his fault!
Chris: Let’s just say that you quickly learn not to put thins under the grill without keeping an
eye on them !
Greg: Has either of you had any major disasters?
Chris: I’d only been in the job for three days and I had this huge roast in the oven. I opened the
door, turned around for a moment, distracted, I suppose and it just flew out. Fortunately it
landed in the sink, so it was okay.
Greg: And what qualities would you say it was necessary for a railway chef to have ?
Jane: From my point of view, dedication and determination – you won’t get anywhere without
these!
Chris: And, let ‘s admit it – a sense of humour. There have been times when I would have
resigned long ago if I hadn’t that!
Greg: And what of the future?
Chris: Who knows? – perhaps the first chef on a trip to the Moon?
Jane : Now, that would be a challenge! But somehow, I doubt I’ll be with you on that one. I’m
terrified of flying!
Greg: Well, now if you don’ mind, we thought our listeners might be interested in the recipes
for your prize-winning meals….

16
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN QUẢNG TRỊ
Đề thi đề nghị
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ VII- NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Khối: 11
Thời gian: 180 phút
(Đề thi gồm có 26 trang)

I. LISTENING: (15pts)

Part 1: (5pts) You will hear a radio discussion about shoppers’ attitudes towards
different makes or brands of goods. Choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which fits best
according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
You will hear the recording TWICE.

1. Why, according to Bill Pearson, are consumers so keen on brand names?

A. Companies encourage loyalty in customer groups.
B. Brands provide a sense of identity which society no longer can.
C. Fashion is becoming increasingly important to young people.
D. Social life depends on having the right brands.
2. According to Bill Pearson, when people buy a particular item, they are
A. unconsciously deceiving themselves.
B. stating membership of their social class.
C. demonstrating their future ambitions.
D. choosing a symbol for their lives.
3. What, according to Bill Pearson, are some global companies having to do?
A. recognize national distinctiveness
B. change their image worldwide
C. display the flag of the host nation
D. move out of certain countries

1
 4. What, according to Bill Pearson, is one of the reasons why customers stop supporting a
brand?
A. The company’s ethics are questionable.
B. The company’s board are corrupt.
C. The products’ quality is substandard.
D. The cost of the goods is excessive.
5. The presenter concludes by asking whether
A. branding deserves to be such a burning issue.
B. a brand’s success depends on young people’s desires.
C. parents give in too easily to children’s demands.
D. well-known brands are a waste of money.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2: (10pts) Listen and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
You will hear the recording TWICE.

Answer the following questions. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer.

1. According to Fiona, what is best to do before going for a job interview?

……………………………………………………………….
2. What does the talk offer to students with special needs?

……………………………………………………………….
3. What kinds of jobs are the students interested in?

………………………………………………………………
4. What should students make before applying for a job?

……………………………………………………………….
5. What has the university established with the companies?

…………………………………………………………………
2
Complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

6. Students that are applying for jobs independently need to ……………………….

7. ……………………………….in buildings must be barrier free for direct access.
8. The location of ……………………………. in the buildings is extremely important.
9. Students must ensure they get ………………………working hours.
10. Car owners need to check the availability of …………………….
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. PHONETICS: (5pts)

Part 1: (2.5) Find the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from the
other three in each question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. A. montage B. milage C. massage D. sabotage

2. A. orchid B. orchestra C. archive D. orchard
3. A. endeavor B. demeanor C. meager D. beaver
4. A. luxury B. exhausted C. exhibit D. anxiety
5. A. danger B. angel C. ankle D. ancient
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2: (2.5) Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. A. intimate B. pertinent C. malicious D. negligent

2. A. admirable B. advantageous C. conscientious D. analytic
3. A. decimal B. delinquent C. dilemma D. memorial
4. A. competence B. democrat C. jeopardy D. complacent
5. A. comrade B. repel C. asset D. conquer
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

3
III. LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (30pts)

Part 1: (5pts) Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions and
write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. James had, ___________, saved the manuscript of his first novel from the burning
house.
A. lastly B. at last C. lately D. at least
2. The ministry refused to ___________ the figures to the press.
A. release B. leak C. show D. add
3. The racing-driver climbed out of the wreckage completely ___________.
A. unwounded B. intact C. unscathed D. well-preserved
4. The King showed his mercy by ___________ the rebels’ lives.
A. saving B. sparing C. granting D. accepting
5. At the end of the day, the shopkeeper walked to the bank, carrying the day’s
___________.
A. income B. takings C. earning D. profits

6. There are still a few ____________ problems with the computer program.

A. superfluous B. excessive C. surplus D. residual

7. This man is so arrogant that he is completely _________ to all criticism.

A. impervious B. unaware C. regardless D. unconscious

8. The speed limit must be _____________ enforced.

A. tightly B. tautly C. rigidly D. stiffly

9. When I first saw Pat, my heart ______________ a beat. I knew he would be important to
me.

A. lost B. missed C. failed D. skipped

10. It was getting ______________ dark, so we decided to head for home.

4
A. utterly B. absolutely C. totally D. fairly

11. She’d go to the ends of the ______________ to save her children.

A. house B. life C. earth D. world

12. We are pleased to inform you that we have decided to ____________ your request for
British citizenship.

A. give B. grant C. permit D. donate

13. I always clean the flat before my mum comes round, but she always finds at least one
_____________ of dust and says it’s filthy!

A. scrap B. gust C. speck D. blade

14. She’s joining a health club so as to get herself into _______________.

A. shape B. form C. figure D. posture

15. Instant Power is ready to take over when the rechargeable battery goes ___________ at
an inconvenient time.

A. dry B. flat C. dull D. blank

16. As the teacher was again droning on about that historical event, Nancy couldn’t help
feeling bored, and she covered her mouth to __________ a yawn.

A. prevent B. hamper C. stifle D. hold

17. He ran ahead, with the others hot on his ___________.

A. heels B. knees C. paces D. steps

18. Among scientists and non-scientists ___________, many now say that it’s a given that
human-induced warming threatens to disrupt life on Earth.

A. respectively B. alike C. both D. likewise

19. This winter wasn’t ___________ as difficult as last winter.

5
A. almost B. nearly C. closely D. just

20. My uncle pulled a few __________ and got me a job in the company where he works.

A. ropes B. chords C. threads D. strings

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 2: (5pts) The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them.
Write your answers in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as
an example.

It is hard for most everyone, but especially the young, to imagine a 0. most-> almost
world with television. We have come to expect that all the important 1. …………………
news of the day, worldwide will be there by the touch of a button. In 2. …………………
times going by, only the literate knew what was going on in the 3. …………………
world, and then only after a long delay. But now it is possible for
any of us to watch world event as they occur. Nothing has shortened 4. …………………
the distance that divides our private lives from the outside world to
such an extent as television.
Time and again, television transports us to the habitats of rare
animals, and we may identify among them. Concern for damage to 5. …………………
the environment extends far and away. We worry about the 6. …………………
influence of technology not just in our cities but on us like people. 7. …………………
Increasingly, we see us as part of the planet rather than in isolation. 8. …………………
There was once the prerogative of scholars is now accessible to 9. …………………
countless people through the medium of television. Because this 10. …………………
form of popular education can be regarded as superficial, it
represents a broadening of knowledge.
6
Part 3: (5pts) Complete each of the following sentences with ONE correct preposition.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. William is an authority ___________ medieval tapestries.

2. Many of his best photographs of the conflict were taken when he was actually
___________ fire.
3. When both parents went to prison, social workers took the children ___________
care.
4. We all have to follow the rules, and all of us are _________ the law.
5. He is a man known __________ the police.
6. We are in ___________ a lot of trouble unless George manages to repair the radio
station.
7. For my part, it doesn’t interest me ___________ the least whether you keep this
money or give it away.
8. __________ hindsight, it was a bad idea to pay him in cash.
9. I remind you that you are two months ___________ with your essays. Deliver them
by next Friday or I’ll have to contact your parents.
10. If you give him more money, he will certainly find it ___________ use.
11. She got the job ________ virtue of her greater experience.
12. __________ no fault of his own, Brian was an hour late for the meeting.
13. Now that the case is __________ my hands, I don’t need to worry more. The other
barrister has taken it over.
14. His idea about the future of the company did not tally ___________ those of the
chairman.
15.In this quiz you have the chance to pit your wits __________ the most intelligent
people in England.
16. In the area, Thailand is head and shoulders __________ all other countries in
football.
17. Few doubt that, by the end of the decade, living standards in Singapore will be
___________ a par with those of the developed world.
18.Would you like to arrange to pay ___________ direct debit?
7
 19.If you are ___________ a loose end, you could help me in the garden.
20. He walked from the court a free man, having been acquitted __________ murder.
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 4: (5pts) Write the most appropriate tense/ form of the verb in each of the following
sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. “Why are they taking down the decorations?”

“The concert (be) ________ over, they are putting everything back in its place.”
2. “Did you see the new play at the theatre last night?”
“Oh yes! And it (not be) _________ a more delightful evening.”
3. “Does Nina make a lot of money?”
“Of course not. Otherwise, she (not have to) ________ borrow money all the time.”
4. “Are you very shortsighted?”
“Yes, but I wish I (not need) _________ to wear glasses.”
5. The plane (not divert)_________, they would have arrived early.
6. “Why was Tim upset?”
“He realized he (lose) __________ his wallet.”
7. They directed that the building (pull down) ___________.
8. “Are you certain Malcolm has the briefcase with him?”
“Yes, I saw him (carry) _______ it.”
9. “Why did you tell my son he was stupid?”
“I didn’t say that, Mrs. Coghill. There seems (be) _________ a misunderstanding.”
10. “You didn’t have to scold him so harshly.”
“What you (do) _________?”
11. “Oh look, the door’s wide open!”
“Oh no! Brad (leave) __________ it open again.”

8
 12. “How was the concert?”
“I’d rather (stay) _________ at home.”
13. Look! The car is running at full speed. It (crash) ________ soon.
14. “Wait a minute,” said Frank, (run) __________ through the floor.
15. “While we’re in Leeds, shall we go and see Mark?”
“But it’s been nearly 20 years since we last saw him. He (not remember) _______ us.”
16. “Are you fed up with his behavior?”
“Yes, I (have) _________ enough of it.”
17. Your eyes are red – you (cry)_________?
18. “Why was Jane so surprised by the bouquet?”
“I guess she’s not used to (give) _________ flowers.”
19. “Have you heard from Bob yet?”
“No, but he (call) _________, I’ll let you know.”
20. “Why didn’t you go to the wedding?”
“Only if they had invited me I (go) ________.”

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
9. 10. 11. 12.
13. 14. 15. 16.
17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 5: (5pts) Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space
provided in the column on the right.

Your answers:

Most snap judgments about people are formed of the basis of their
(1. FACE) _____________ features. The eyes, regarded as clues to 1. …………………
one’s true character, are said (2. POETRY)______________to be 2. …………………

9
the windows of the soul: closely positioned, they imply (3. SLY) 3. …………………
_____________; set wide apart they suggest honesty and directness. …………………..
Thin mouths are equated with meanness and full mouths with
(4. SENSUAL) ______________. Unconsciously, we make such 4…………………..
instant judgments and they are made about us.
There is no hiding place for the place. Always (5. EXPOSE) 5…………………..
___________ and vulnerable, it (6. VOLUNTEER) 6. …………………
______________ expresses happiness, desire and joy, anger, fear,
shame and (7. LOATHE) _______________. Precisely for that 7. …………………
reason, a (8. MASK)____________ face evokes fear and horror: 8…………………..
once someone’s distinguishing characteristics are hidden, we cannot
read or recognize the person and fear of the (9. KNOW) 9…………………..
______________ immediately arouses (10. SUSPECT) 10. ………………..
_____________.

Part 6: (5pts) Add linking words/ phrases from the table below. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. TWO suggested answers do not fit at all.

on the other for example all things considered for this reason whilst
in contrast secondly thus but furthermore
firstly too

Censorship is an issue which frequently generates a great deal of heated debate, with
supporters maintaining that it is vital in order to protect society, (1) _________ opponents
claim that it is an unjustifiable restriction of public access to information.

(2)__________, all countries have secrets which must be safeguarded for reasons of national
security. For instance, if an enemy country were to acquire such highly sensitive information,
the effects could be catastrophic. Consequently, governments have to have the power to

10
restrict access to information concerning areas such as the armed forces or particular aspects
of foreign policy.

(3) __________, it is often argued that censorship is necessary to prevent the broadcast and
publication of obscene material which is considered offensive and harmful to public morals.
Many people feel that, without censorship the public would be constantly subjected to
material that the majority would find offensive. (4) __________, the government has a duty
to impose certain restrictions on the mass media by censoring films and texts which contain
explicit scenes of sex, violence or foul language.

(5) __________, opponents of censorship point out that when it is abused by governments,
censorship becomes an instrument used to misinform society and maintain power. In order to
control the flow of information which reaches the public, repressive regimes try to put
constraints on the media, (6) __________denying citizens the right to information owing to
the fact that governments believe it may lead them to seek greater freedom.

(7) _____________, it is generally felt that mature adults are able to make informed choices
about what they watch, read and listen to and should, therefore, be permitted to make their
own decisions. (8) ____________, some comedians make use of offensive language and
taboo subjects in their performances. Critics of censorship argue that the only people who
will watch or listen to such material are adults who have made a conscious decision to do so.
Thus, it is claimed, it is unjust to censor material like this since it is not forced upon people
who may subsequently be offended by it.

(9) ____________, it can be concluded that a certain degree of censorship is always

necessary. The best course of action would be to attempt to achieve a balance between the
requirements of the country and the public on the one hand, and individuals’ rights (10)
____________.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11
IV. READING: (25pts)

Part 1: (7.5pts) Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the passage and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

Sleeping disorders like insomnia can (1) ____________ to be a worrying question for many
of us. Almost anyone can easily conjure (2) ____________ at least one sleepless night of (3)
____________ and turning in bed awaiting the bliss of a deep dream. Most probably, a third
of us (4) ____________ the distressing experience at least once a week.

Even though it is possible for people to (5) ____________ without any sleep at all for a
certain period of time, such occurrences are rather few and far (6) ____________ and there is
no evidence to (7) ____________ this assumption. What is sure, however, is the fact that we
do need some sleep to regenerate our strength and to (8) ____________ the brain to its
proper activity. No wonder, then, that the tiredness and fatigue that appear after a sleepless
night (9) ____________ many of us to go for chemical support in the form of sleep (10)
____________ tablets and powders.

However long the problem of sleepless has afflicted many individuals, very little has been
(11) ____________ in the question of its original causes. We are conscious that it usually
(12) ____________ those who are exposed to a great deal of stress, anxiety or depression. It
may also be (13) ____________ by overworking or unfavorable surroundings with scarcity
of fresh air.

Sleeping pills may provide some relief and can act as an alternative in this desperate
situation. Yet, they do little to combat the ailment in full. Consequently, our hopes should be
(14) ____________ on the medical authorities to (15) ____________ the root cause of
insomnia before we take to being nocturnal leading our noisy lives in the dead of night.

1. A. present B. entail C. realize D. prove

2. A. up B. about C. off D. out
3. A. rolling B. wriggling C. tossing D. spinning
4. A. underpass B. undergo C. underline D. undertake
5. A. operate B. process C. function D. perform
12
 6. A. between B. along C. within D. beyond
7. A. proclaim B. endure C. invalidate D. substantiate
8. A. recuperate B. restore C. revive D. resume
9. A. exert B. affect C. enforce D. compel
10. A. inducing B. attaining C. exacting D. contributing
11. A. disparaged B. retrieved C. detected D. originated
12. A. betrays B. besets C. bemoans D. bestows
13. A. engendered B. applied C. instigated D. evolved
14. A. placed B. ascribed C. focused D. attached
15. A. emerge B. release C. determine D. confess

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 2: (7.5pts) Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use
only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0)
has been done as an example.

Parents- as you are probably (0) __________ aware- are easily shockable. No matter (1)
__________ hard they try to be trendy and to keep up to date with modern fads, they (2)
____________ never quite help being a generation removed. Life simply moves too quickly
for them. They will in (3) ____________ likelihood attempt to maintain some sort of
dialogue with you by going out and buying the latest CDs, only (4) ____________ find a few
months later the charts are filled by acts (5) _____________ names they have never heard of.
Then they get frustrated and it all comes pouring out during an edition of some chart show on
TV when they moan that there has never been anything (6) ___________ listening to since
their day- whenever that happened to be.

Other parents don’t even try to understand their kids. They occupy the moral high (7)
___________ and dismiss anything that has happened since their youth (8) ____________

13
decadent. Naturally, as lovers of folk music or slushy ballads, their principal complaint
against rock music is that they can’t make (9) ____________ the words. Hardly a day seems
to go by (10) _____________ you incurring their displeasure one way or (11)
______________, whether it’s your hair, your clothes (12) ____________ the fact that you
stayed out till three. So (13) ____________ bother trying to please them? You might just
(14) ____________ well wind them (15) ___________ even more.

0. well

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 3: (5pts) Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

DESERT FORMATION

The deserts, which already occupy approximately a fourth of the Earth's land surface,

have in recent decades been increasing at an alarming pace. The expansion of desertlike

conditions into areas where they did not previously exist is called desertification. It has been

estimated that an additional one-fourth of the Earth's land surface is threatened by this

process.

Desertification is accomplished primarily through the loss of stabilizing natural

vegetation and the subsequent accelerated erosion of the soil by wind and water. In some

cases the loose soil is blown completely away, leaving a stony surface. In other cases, the
finer particles may be removed, while the sand-sized particles are accumulated to form
mobile hills or ridges of sand.
14
Even in the areas that retain a soil cover, the reduction of vegetation typically results in

the loss of the soil's ability to absorb substantial quantities of water. The impact of raindrops

on the loose soil tends to transfer fine clay particles into the tiniest soil spaces, sealing them

and producing a surface that allows very little water penetration. Water absorption is greatly

reduced; consequently runoff is increased, resulting in accelerated erosion rates. The gradual

drying of the soil caused by its diminished ability to absorb water results in the further loss of
vegetation, so that a cycle of progressive surface deterioration is established.

In some regions, the increase in desert areas is occurring largely as the result of a trend

toward drier climatic conditions. Continued gradual global warming has produced an
increase in aridity for some areas over the past few thousand years. The process may be
accelerated in subsequent decades if global warming resulting from air pollution seriously
increases.

There is little doubt, however, that desertification in most areas results primarily from

human activities rather than natural processes. The semiarid lands bordering the deserts exist

in a delicate ecological balance and are limited in their potential to adjust to increased

environmental pressures. Expanding populations are subjecting the land to increasing

pressures to provide them with food and fuel. In wet periods, the land may be able to respond

to these stresses. During the dry periods that are common phenomena along the desert

margins, though, the pressure on the land is often far in excess of its diminished capacity,
and desertification results.

Four specific activities have been identified as major contributors to the desertification

15
processes: overcultivation, overgrazing, firewood gathering, and overirrigation. The

cultivation of crops has expanded into progressively drier regions as population densities
have grown. These regions are especially likely to have periods of severe dryness, so that
crop failures are common. Since the raising of most crops necessitates the prior removal of
the natural vegetation, crop failures leave extensive tracts of land devoid of a plant cover and

susceptible to wind and water erosion.

The raising of livestock is a major economic activity in semiarid lands, where grasses are

generally the dominant type of natural vegetation. The consequences of an excessive number

of livestock grazing in an area are the reduction of the vegetation cover and the trampling
and pulverization of the soil. This is usually followed by the drying of the soil and
accelerated erosion.

Firewood is the chief fuel used for cooking and heating in many countries. The increased

pressures of expanding populations have led to the removal of woody plants so that many

cities and towns are surrounded by large areas completely lacking in trees and shrubs. The

increasing use of dried animal waste as a substitute fuel has also hurt the soil because this

valuable soil conditioner and source of plant nutrients is no longer being returned to the land.

The final major human cause of desertification is soil salinization resulting from

overirrigation. Excess water from irrigation sinks down into the water table. If no drainage

system exists, the water table rises, bringing dissolved salts to the surface. The water

evaporates and the salts are left behind, creating a white crustal layer that prevents air and

water from reaching the underlying soil.

16
The extreme seriousness of desertification results from the vast areas of land and the

tremendous numbers of people affected, as well as from the great difficulty of reversing
or even slowing the process. Once the soil has been removed by erosion, only the passage
of centuries or millennia will enable new soil to form. In areas where considerable soil still

remains, though, a rigorously enforced program of land protection and cover-crop planting

may make it possible to reverse the present deterioration of the surface.

1. According to paragraph 3, the loss of natural vegetation has which of the following
consequences for soil?
A. Increased stony content C. Increased numbers of spaces in the soil
B. Reduced water absorption D. Reduced water runoff
2. The word delicate in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. fragile C. complex
B. predictable D. valuable
3. According to paragraph 5, in dry periods, border areas have difficulty
A. adjusting to stresses created by settlement
B. retaining their fertility after desertification
C. providing water for irrigating crops
D. attracting populations in search of food and fuel
4. The phrase devoid of in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to
A. consisting of B. hidden by C. except for D. lacking in
5. According to paragraph 6, which of the following is often associated with raising
crops?
A. Lack of proper irrigation techniques
B. Failure to plant crops suited to the particular area
C. Removal of the original vegetation
D. Excessive use of dried animal waste
6. According to paragraph 9, the ground’s absorption of excess water is a factor in
desertification because it can
17
 A. interfere with the irrigation of land
B. limit the evaporation of water
C. require more absorption of air by the soil
D. bring salts to the surface
7. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to desertification
EXCEPT
A. soil erosion C. insufficient irrigation
B. global warming D. the raising of livestock
8. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the sentence
in bold?
A. Desertification is a significant problem because it is so hard to reverse and affects
large areas of land and great numbers of people.
B. Slowing down the process of desertification is difficult because of population
growth that has spread over large areas of land.
C. The spread of deserts is considered a very serious problem that can be solved only
if large numbers of people in various countries are involved in the effort.
D. Desertification is extremely hard to reverse unless the population is reduced in the
vast areas affected.
9. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most likely believes which of the
following about the future of desertification?
A. Governments will act quickly to control further desertification.
B. The factors influencing desertification occur in cycles and will change in the future.
C. Desertification will continue to increase.
D. Desertification will soon occur in all areas of the world.
10. Where would the following sentence best fit in paragraph 7?

This economic reliance on livestock in certain regions makes large tracts of land
susceptible to overgrazing.

18
A The raising of livestock is a major economic activity in semiarid lands, where grasses are
generally the dominant type of natural vegetation. B The consequences of an excessive
number of livestock grazing in an area are the reduction of the vegetation cover and the
trampling and pulverization of the soil. C This is usually followed by the drying of the soil
and accelerated erosion. D

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: (5pts) Read the passage below and complete the summary. Use ONE WORD ONLY
FROM THE PASSAGE to complete each blank space. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.

Example: Latin and Greek are known as the ____________.

Answer: classics

Classical and modern

In the United Kingdom at university level, the decline in the study of Latin and Greek, the
classics, has been reversed. As a result of renewed interest in reading classical literature and
history, more and more students are enrolling on classical studies courses. The purists may
deplore this development - ‘it is yet another example of the ‘dumbing down’ of tertiary
education with students studying classical literature and history in English rather than the
original languages’. And, I must admit, they do have a point. But the situation is surely not
as dire as the ultimate demise of classics as an intellectual discipline.

A classical education is a boon and should be encouraged. But, before looking at the
advantages of studying the classics, which appear, incidentally, more indirect and less
tangible than other disciplines, let us examine the criticisms that are often levelled against
studying Latin and Greek.

19
The decline in the teaching of classics

The 60s with their trendy ideas in education are blamed for the steady decline in studying the
classics. But the rot had set in much earlier, when Latin and Greek were no longer required
for university entrance. With the introduction of the National Curriculum in secondary
schools came the biggest blow. Schools came under pressure to devote more time to core
subjects like English, mathematics, the sciences, history and geography. This left scant room
for the more ‘peripheral’ subject areas like the classics. There was a further squeeze with the
rush into teaching IT and computing skills. As schools could no longer choose what they
wanted to teach, so subjects like the classics were further marginalized. Take Latin. In 1997,
11,694 pupils took Latin GCSE, while, in 1988, the number was 17,000. Comprehensive
schools now supply 40% fewer Latin candidates, whereas grammar schools have seen a 20%
decline. Latin candidates from Independent schools have fallen by only 5%. As a
consequence, classics has been relegated to the ‘better’ grammar or comprehensive schools,
and the minor and great public schools. Only one third of Latin GCSE entries come from the
state sector. It can, therefore, be of no surprise to anyone when the pursuit of a classical
education is attacked as elitist.

Tainted by this misconception, the classics are then further damned as being irrelevant in the
modern world. Having been pushed into such a tight corner, it is difficult to fight free. A
classical education is so unlike, say, business studies or accountancy where young people can
go directly into a profession and find a job easily. For classicists, this is not an option. Other
than teaching, there is no specific professional route after leaving university. And, with the
pressure in the present climate to have a job, it is less easy than previously for young people
to resist the pressure from the world outside academia, and from their families, to study
something else that will make them money. The relevancy argument is a hard nut to crack.

The pertinence of a classical education

Latin and Greek have been damned as dead languages that offer us nothing. The response to
this criticism is, in fact, straightforward. Most European languages are a development of the
classical continuum. And so having even a rudimentary knowledge prepares pupils for

20
understanding other modern European languages. As for pertinence in the modern world,
learning Latin and Greek is highly relevant. The study of these languages develops analytical
skills that have, to a large extent, been lost. They teach discipline and thinking and open up
the whole of Western civilisation just as the discovery of the classical world did during the
Renaissance.

Latin has also been called food for the brain. It gives students a grounding in the allusions in
much of European literature and thought. Modern writers do not use these allusions
themselves, first, because they do not know them, and, second, because their audience does
not know them either. Sadly, most people no longer have the ability to interpret the allusions
in art and the same has happened with the classics vis- à- vis literature.

The danger to Western and world culture is great if the classical tradition is lost. The spiral of
decline is not just restricted to the United Kingdom. Other European countries face the same
loss to their heritage. If we abandon the classics, we will not be able to interpret our past and
to know where we have come from. A common refrain in modern society is the lack of
thinking ability among even the best graduates. They enter work, perhaps as bright as any of
their predecessors. But without the necessary skills they run around trying to reinvent the
wheel. As Ecclesiastes says: nihil novum sub sole est.

But help is at hand. Concerned by the fact that fewer and fewer teenagers have access to a
range of foreign languages, the government is harnessing the power of the Internet to
introduce a distance-learning programme, where pupils will study Latin and other minority
languages at their own pace. Initially piloted in 60 schools from autumn 2000, the internet-
based courses will enable pupils to access advice from specialists by e-mail.

SUMMARY

The writer considers a classical education to be a (1) ___________. He believes that, in

secondary schools, the teaching of classics has been (2) ___________ by the introduction of
the National Curriculum. This has further led to the studying of the (3) ___________ being
attacked as elitist. In addition, studying Latin and Greek, is wrongly (4) ___________ as
being irrelevant, because (5) ___________ have no specific professional route to follow. As
21
young people are pressurised to make (6) ___________, the writer feels that the relevancy
argument is difficult to counter.

In spite of the (7) ___________ levelled at a classical education, the writer feels that
learning Latin and Greek is highly relevant. And he fears that there is a danger that the
classics as a (8) ___________ will be (9) ___________. But help is at hand from a new
Internet-based distance- learning programme being (10) ___________ in 60 schools from
autumn 2000. The pilot study will allow pupils to study Latin at their own pace.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6 7. 8. 9. 10.
V. WRITING: (30pts)

Part 1: (5pts) Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do NOT change the word given. You must use between
THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. (0) has been done as an
example.

0. Jane regretted speaking so rudely to the old lady. (MORE)

Jane … WISHED SHE HAD SPOKEN MORE …..politely to the old lady.

1. Inefficient treatment of customers creates a bad impression of the company.

(REFLECTS)

Treating customers with a lack ………………………………………. ………..the

company.

2. Daniel didn’t get the job because he was considerably less experienced than Hannah.
(DEAL)

Hannah got the job because she had ………………………………………… Daniel.

22
3. Although Rudy really didn’t want to play cricket on Sunday, he agreed in the end.
(DEAD)

Despite ……………………………………………….cricket on Sunday, Rudy agreed in

the end.

4. Josh doesn’t usually tell lies. (LIKE)

It……………………………………lies.

5. Francis chose computing rather than marketing for his next course. (PREFERENCE)

Francis opted …………………………………………….. for his next course.

6. Smokers are more likely to be affected by heart attacks than non-smokers. (SUBJECT)

Smokers………………………………………..non-smokers..

7. The decision was made while I was not there. (ABSENCE)

The decision …………………………………………………………….

8. She didn’t even make the effort to find out how to spell my name. (TROUBLE)

She didn’t even ……………………………………………find out how to spell my name.

9. Why didn’t you search everywhere for your wallet? Then you might have found it.
(LOW)

Had ……………………………………………………., you might have found it.

10. It was not until the storm subsided that we knew how much damage had been done.
(EXTENT)

Only when the storm subsided ……………………………………………………damage.

23
.Part 2: (10pts) The pie graphs below show the results of a survey of children’s activities.
The first graph shows the cultural and leisure activities that boys participate in, whereas the
second graph shows the activities in which girls participate.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write about 150 words.

...........................................................................………………………………………………
………................................................................................................................................

...................................................................……………………………………………………
….......................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................…………
……………………………………………...........................................................................

...........................................................................………………………………………………
………................................................................................................................................

...................................................................……………………………………………………
…........................................................................................................................................

24
...................................................................................................................................…………
……………………………………………...........................................................................

...........................................................................………………………………………………
………................................................................................................................................

...................................................................……………………………………………………
…........................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................…………
……………………………………………............................................................................

...........................................................................………………………………………………
………................................................................................................................................

...................................................................……………………………………………………
….......................................................................................................................................

Part 3: (15pts) Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic:

The Vietnamese educational system is undergoing dramatic changes to improve itself. In

response to these changes, some people think that students should be allowed to grade their
teachers. Others are strongly opposed to the idea, saying it is disrespectful to teachers.
What’s your opinion on this issue?

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THE END
26
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN QUẢNG TRỊ KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ VII- NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014
Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Khối: 11

ĐÁP ÁN
I. LISTENING (15 pts)
Part 1: (5pts)
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. D

Part 2: (10pts)
1. to be prepared 2. guidance and 3. holiday jobs 4.informed 5.good working
support choices relationships

6. plan ahead 7. public areas/ 8. ramps 9.flexible 10. disabled

public parking
spaces/toilets (spaces)/
wheelchair
accessible
entrance/ramp

II. PHONETICS: (5pts)

Part 1: (2.5pts)
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. C

Part 2: (2.5pts)
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B

III. LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (30pts)

1
Part 1: (5pts)
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B
6. D 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D
11. C 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B
16. C 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. D

Part 2: (5pts)

It is hard for most everyone, but especially the young, to imagine a 0. most-> almost
world with television. We have come to expect that all the important 1.with -> without
news of the day, worldwide will be there by the touch of a button. In 2. by -> at
times going by, only the literate knew what was going on in the 3. going -> gone
world, and then only after a long delay. But now it is possible for
any of us to watch world event as they occur. Nothing has shortened 4. event -> events
the distance that divides our private lives from the outside world to
such an extent as television.
Time and again, television transports us to the habitats of rare
animals, and we may identify among them. Concern for damage to 5. among -> with
the environment extends far and away. We worry about the 6. away -> wide
influence of technology not just in our cities but on us like people. 7. like -> as
Increasingly, we see us as part of the planet rather than in isolation. 8. us -> ourselves
There was once the prerogative of scholars is now accessible to 9. There-> What
countless people through the medium of television. Because this 10. Because ->
form of popular education can be regarded as superficial, it Although/ Though
represents a broadening of knowledge.

Part 3: (5pts)
1. on 2. under 3. into 4. above 5. to

6. for 7. in 8. With 9. behind 10. of

11. by/in 12. Through 13. off 14. with 15. against

16. above 17. on 18. by 19. at 20. of

Part 4: (5pts)
1. being 2. couldn’t have 3. wouldn’t have 4. didn’t need
been to
2
 5. Had the plane 6. had lost 7. (should) be 8. carrying
not been pulled down
diverted
9. to have been 10. would you 11. must have left 12. have stayed
have done
13. is going to 14. running 15. might/may not 16. have had
crash remember
17. have you been 18. being given 19. should he call 20. would I have
crying gone
Part 5: (5pts)

Most snap judgements about people are formed of the basis of their 1. facial
(1. FACE) _____________ features. The eyes, regarded as clues to 2. poetically
one’s true character, are said (2. POETRY)______________to be 3. slyness
the windows of the soul: closely positioned, they imply (3. SLY)
_____________; set wide apart they suggest honesty and
directness. Thin mouths are equated with meanness and full mouths 4. sensuality
with (4. SENSUAL) ______________. Unconsciously, we make
such instant judgements and they are made about us. 5. exposed
There is no hiding place for the place. Always (5. EXPOSE) 6. involuntarily
___________ and vulnerable, it (6. VOLUNTEER)
______________ expresses happiness, desire and joy, anger, fear, 7. loathing
shame and (7. LOATHE) _______________. Precisely for that 8. masked
reason, a (8. MASK)____________ face evokes fear and horror:
once someone’s distinguishing characteristics are hidden, we 9. unknown
cannot read or recognise the person and fear of the (9. KNOW) 10. suspicion(s)
______________ immediately arouses (10. SUSPECT)
_____________.

Part 6: (5pts)

1. whilst 2. Firstly 3. Secondly 4. For this 5. In contrast

reason
6. thus 7. Furthermore 8. For example 9. All things 10. on the other
considered
IV. READING: (25pts)
Part 1: (7.5pts)
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C

6. A 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. A
3
11. C 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C

Part 2: (7.5pts)

1. how 2. can 3. all 4. to 5. whose

6. worth 7. ground 8. as 9. out 10. without

11. another 12. or 13. why 14. as 15. up

Part 3: (5pts)
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. C

6. D 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. B

Part 4: (5pts)

1. boon 2. marginalis/zed 3. classics 4. damned 5. classicists

6. money 7. criticisms 8. discipline 9. lost 10. piloted

V. WRITING: (30pts)
Part 1: (5pts)
1. Treating customers with a lack OF EFFICIENCY REFLECTS BADLY ON the company.
2. Hannah got the job because she had A GREAT DEAL MORE EXPERIENCE THAN
Daniel.
3. Despite (HIS/HIM) BEING DEAD (SET) AGAINST PLAYING cricket on Sunday, Rudy
agreed in the end.
4. It ISN’T LIKE JOSH TO TELL lies.
4
5. Francis opted FOR COMPUTING IN PREFERENCE TO MARKETING for his next
course.
6. Smokers ARE MORE SUBJECT TO HEART ATTACKS THAN non-smokers.

7. The decision WAS MADE IN MY ABSENCE.

8. She didn’t even TAKE THE TROUBLE TO find out how to spell my name.

9.Had YOU SEARCHED HIGH AND LOW FOR YOUR WALLET, you might have found
it.

10. Only when the storm subsided DID WE KNOW THE EXTENT OF THE damage.

.Part 2: (10 pts)

Part 3: (15pts)
Content (ideas and details): 50% of total mark
Language (vocabulary and structures): 30% of total mark
Presentation (coherence, cohesion and style): 20% of total mark

TAPESCRIPT
Part 1:
Presenter: Britain has been called a nation of shopkeepers and in a recent survey shopping
came high on the list of the nation’s favourite leisure pursuits. In order to discuss our
attitudes to what we buy I have in the studio today Bill Pearson, a retail analyst. Now, Bill,
I’ve recently had the experience of teenage sons insisting on me buying them particular
makes or brands of jeans and T-shirts with a trendy logo on the front, whereas, when I was
young, my brothers couldn’t care which manufacturer’s clothes they wore. Are we obsessed
with brands do you think nowadays?

Bill: I think we are. I think it permeates through every level of society. It affects everything
from the classic thing of trainers or jeans for teenagers, through clothes, spectacles, holidays,
foods. Everything has brands which we relate to. In a sense consumers have hijacked brands
for their own purposes. There are a number of cultural and unconscious reasons for this. The
most obvious one is that up to fifty years ago we were all born into existences which one
could classify as ‘branded’ in a sense, by our communities, extended family groups, fathers’
5
occupations and so on. Some of these institutions have been slipping into crisis over the last
few decades. With old-fashioned communities decaying, it’s much harder now to see who
you are for many people, so a vacuum has been created that in now being filled, almost by
default, by commercial brands.

Presenter: But how do brands help solve this problem exactly?

Bill: Well, by carrying the symbol of the clothes you’re wearing and the food that you’re
eating or the car that you’re driving, these work as badges of our aspirations to some extent.
They help us to tell a story to both ourselves and other people about who we aspire to be. In a
sense, you know, the unconscious looks for symbols and signifiers in order to tell a story and
brands fulfil this need perfectly.

Presenter: So that’s how it works here in the UK, but it there any difference between
consumers’ reactions to brands in different countries?

Bill: Interestingly, in some countries, people seem to have a stronger sense of self. Some
huge multinational fast food corporations, for example, are having to change the look of their
outlets in one or two countries so that it reflects national tastes in décor and style. So in that
case, consumers are demanding that their identity be affirmed by no matter which brand
wants to come into their country. It must still, metaphorically, carry the flag of the nation.

Presenter: But once we’ve turned to a brand it is possible that we will turn against it again.

Why do we do that?

Bill: Brands are very, very fragile. Corporate reputation is one of the factors that can damage
a brand. Customers can turn away from, say, a clothing manufacturer, when there are stories
in the press about the poor conditions endured by their labour force in order to maintain
profits. These days everything has to be transparent and above board and some Managing
Directors quake in their shoes now that corporate social responsibility is an issue. But in
addition, unless a brand can retain itself as the object of desire, can stay aspirational, you
know – um – because there is so much choice, consumers will quickly look elsewhere.

Presenter: So, all this discussion that we’ve had boils down to the one point – are we just
ripping ourselves off when we insist on buying well-known, high priced products in order to
keep up with our peers or satisfy our kids’ desires?

Bill: Well, that’s a question of opinion. All I can say personally is that if we’re prepared to
pay for them, then so be it.

Presenter: Thank you very much, Bill Pearson. That was most illuminating.
6
Part 2:
Hello and thanks everyone for coming here today. I know it’s always a bit stressful going for
a job interview, but it’s best to be prepared. For any of you who may not know me, my name
is Fiona Ogilvy and my job is to offer guidance and support for students with special needs.
Now you wouldn’t be here today if you weren’t interested in finding a job in the holidays so
let’s get down to it and see what things you need to be looking out for. Most of you, I hope,
will be applying for jobs with the companies that have been recommended by the university.
The reason for this is that we here at the university, already know these companies and have
established good working relationships with them. I’ve also been to visit all of them and
checked out the facilities they have to offer. You really need to make informed choices
when you’re looking for a job and make sure you know before you even get to the interview
stage, that your needs will be met. But I know that some of you are applying for jobs
independently and have looked at companies outside the university recommended list so for
you it’s best to plan ahead and be aware of what it is you may need while you’re working.
Things that you need to check when you go for an interview are: are there enough toilet
facilities and are these easily accessible? Also, you want to check that all the public areas
inside the building are barrier free so you can get direct access to these public spaces
whenever you need to. And ask about ramps into the building so you know how many there
are and where they are located. These kinds of things are so much more difficult to sort out
when you’ve started work as they take time. But ramps are an absolute must so please make
sure you know where they are. Another thing you must make sure of is that the lifts have the
correct lowered control panels. Ask if all the lifts have this facility or if it’s only certain ones.
Now something I think that is often overlooked is that you get flextime. This basically means
that your working hours are flexible and you can clock on and clock off in times that suit
you- within reason of course! Most companies do recognize that it takes much longer for
someone in a wheelchair to get on and off buses and trains- public transport can take that
much longer so you need to be organized and prepared. And for those of you lucky enough to
own a car, check how many disability parking spaces are available. Remember that it’s your
right to have a disabled parking space. These also need to be near enough to a wheelchair
accessible entrance or ramp. Ok, are there any questions before we move on?

THE END

7
SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG NAM KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ

NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM LẦN THỨ VII, NĂM 2014

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11

PART I. LISTENING (15 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

 Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây,
mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe đều có tín hiệu.
 Thí sinh có 2 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài nghe.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đều có trong bài nghe.
Part 1: You will hear an interview with a robot scientist. For questions 1-5, choose the
best answer (A, B, C or D).

1. What does Keith say about his company's latest project?

A. He does not want to talk about it.
B. He is not allowed to talk about it.

C. He does not know much about it.

D. He does not understand it at all.

2. What does Keith say about robots in films?

A. They are not always shown in a positive light.

B. They often have a good sense of humour

C. They are not particularly well designed.

D. They always make jokes.

3. Keith expresses concern that robots might cause us __________

A. to do less physical exercise.

1
 B. to make great efforts to think.

C. to think less for ourselves.

D. to become less intelligent.

4. Keith says that progress in the robotics industry ___________

A. has been as fast as that of computers.

B. has been slower than predicted.

C. has been constant over the last century.

D. has been so quicker than expected.

5. What does Keith say about humanoid robots?

A. They are unable to perform many tasks.

B. Many people consider them to be a toy.

C. People are getting used to seeing them.

D. They look like television sets.

Part 2: You will hear a man talking on the radio about Welsh speakers in Patagonia,
Argentina. For questions 6-15, which summarize what he says. Write NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS in each space provided.

A popular place for tourists to visit in Patagonia is a Welsh (1)

____________________________. There are estimated to be (2)
___________________________ speakers of Welsh in Patagonia. The first settlers
wanted to establish a colony in an area which was (3) ____________________________.
There were very few (4) _____________________________ among the first Welsh
settlers. The settlers soon became friendly with the (5) ____________________________.
The name for the Andean region where the Welsh settled means (6)
“_________________________”. A Welsh (7) ___________________________ festival
is held each year in Patagonia. The National Assembly for Wales sends (8)
_____________________________ to Patagonia each year. The streets and houses of
Gaiman are decorated with (9) ______________________________. The speaker
decides to eat (10) _____________________________ with his tea.

PART 2: PHONETICS. (5 pts)

2
Question 1. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different that of the others.(2.5 pts)
1. A. commentary B. intimacy C. amphibian D. preferable
2. A. impetuous B. pantomime C. orchestra D. corpulent
3. A. painstakingly B. condolence C. communism D. obstinacy
4. A. consensus B. lucrative C. proponent D. proposal
5. A. Arabic B. lunatic C. politics D. aerobics
Question 2. Pick out the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced from
that of the others. (2.5 pts)
1. A. confusedly B. wickedly C. allegedly D. supposedly
2. A. anxiety B. complexion C. anxious D. luxury
3. A. complain B. bargain C. ascertain D. campaign
4. A. external B. expunge C. extenuating D. expurgate
5. A. sprout B. dough C. scowl D. frown

PART 3: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES.(25 pts)

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B , C or D) which best completes each
sentence. (5 pts)
1. I hope the computer course starts this term. We've all as keen as ................ to get going.
A. coffee B. cornflake C. mustard D. a gigolo
2. People living abroad are not ................................ to enter for this competition.
A. capable B. enable C. eligible D. permissible
3. The escaped prisoner fought ............................ before he was finally overpowered.
A. foot and mouth B. heart and soul C. head over heels D. tooth and nail
4. Although he was a hardened criminal, his one ............................... feature was his love
of children.
A. redeeming B. acquitting C. saving D. recovering
5. David is the captain of the school baseball team, ................................... his father
before him.
A. as well as B. similar to C. just like D. such as
6. Once the air warms up, the snow should start to ..................................
A. liquefy B. thaw C. defrost D. dissolve
7. After months of bitter arguing the couple had to accept that they were ...........................
A. incompatible B. disaffected C. incongruous D. dissident
8. Our hosts had prepared a .................................. meal with seven courses to celebrate
our arrival.
A. generous B. lavish C. spendthrift D. profuse
3
 9. We might just as well have stayed at home ................................ the enjoyment we had.
A. for all B. on account of C. so far as D. concerning
10. They are happily married although, of course, they argue ...............................
A. on the occasion B. from day to day C. every now and then D. most times
11. The BBC has ............................ a young composer to write a piece of music for the
Corporation's centenary.
A. commissioned B. decided C. ordered D. consulted
12. He's applied for a(n) .......................... a lot of jobs but he's only been short-listed once.
A. awful B. wide C. enormous D. dreadful
13. I was proud to be ............................. out for special praise for my performance.
A. separated B. selected C. singled D. distinguished
14. His English was roughly ................................... with my Greek, so communication
was rather difficult.
A. in tune B. equal C. level D. on a par
15. He was so ............................... in answer to my questions that I knew he had
something to hide.
A. effusive B. allusive C. evasive D. elusive
16. If you don't stop smoking, you ............................... this risk of developing bronchitis.
A. make B. bear C. suffer D. run
17. When we got to the box office the question of who should pay ...........................
A. came B. arose C. appeared D. raised
18. Police have warned people to be ..................................... when strangers call at the
door and to ask to see proof of identity.
A. wary B. scary C. cagey D. choosy
19. I don't like down work, but I'll have to, I'm afraid. I've got far too much
......................... at the moment.
A. on my mind B. in effect C. up my sleeve D. on my plate
20. The 10% rise in the cost of living is almost unbelievable until one looks at it in the
............................. of world price rises.
A. relationship B. context C. significance D. situation
Your answer:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

4
Question 2. There are 10 mistakes in the passage below. Find out the mistakes and
write the correct forms. (O) has been done as an exampe. (5 pts)
Line DISAPPEARING WORLD
0 The destruction of the rainforests is a pressed problem of our times but not one
1 that is regarded equally serious by everyone. The more affluent nations regard the
2 issue as one of preservation; deforestation must stop. When it comes to the poorer
3 countries, the issue is not so cut and dried. For these people, the rainforests
4 represent a source of economic prosperity, a point that obviously takes
5 precedence on ecological concerns. A solution must be found before the damage
6 caused by the deforestation that is destroying the rainforests becoming
7 irrevocable. Deforestation is carried out by those involving in the timber industry
8 and also by migrant farmers. The later occupy an area of land, strip it, farm it until
9 its natural mineral supply is used up and then move on. The land is left useless
10 and exposed and a process of erosion comes into effect, washing soil into rivers
11 thereby killing fish and blocking the water's natural course. The land is not the
12 only victim. Rainforests are a rich populated habitat. In the rainforests of
13 Madagascar there are at most 150,000 individual species of plants and animals
14 which are found anywhere else in the world and more are being discovered all the
15 time. Furthermore, approximately 50% of all endangered animal species live in
16 the world's rainforests. The destruction of the forests effectively represents a
17 complete removal of all these plants and animals. Deprived of their natural
18 environments, they will disappear altogether. Again, this process is reversible.
19 Man, no matter how powerful he considers himself, does not have the power to
20 establish the species he is so willfully destroying.
Your answer:
Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction
0 Pressed Pressing

Question 3: Fill in each blank with the correct preposition(s)/ particle(s). (5 pts)
1. Several of us hang …………………….. entering the cave, as we were unsure what we
would find in there.

5
2. The radio DJ broke …………………….. the caller, in a desperate attempt to change
the subject.
3. Jarvis can no longer afford to heat the flat, and in any case, his electricity was cut
…………………….. last Friday.
4. He explained that shortly after they bought the house together, his wife Julia ran
…………………….. a Welsh mechanic.
5. Did you know that Samantha has taken …………………….. Martin again – they’re
spending lots of time together.
6. Molly got ……………….. going to visit her relatives by saying she felt violently sick.
7. The judge closed the club …………………….. the grounds there was too much noise
being made.
8. The paintings were given to the state by the millionaire ………………….. lieu of taxes.
9. The class were …………………….. edge the morning before they took the exam.
10. The local council believe the new development isn’t …………………….. keeping
with the rest of the town.
11. The journalist reported that the city was …………………….. the brink of a crisis.
12. The staff pay rise was …………………….. the region of 3%.
13. My brother has always been …………………….. the fringe of the Labour party,
never at the centre.
14. Three masked men tried to hold …………………….. the security van last week.
15. I wouldn't have any doubts about trusting him; I'm sure he's completely
…………………….. the level.
16. John has a tendency to bury his head …………………….. the sand.
17. Several flights were delayed and so the departure lounge was jam-packed
…………………….. angry travelers.
18. My husband’s always lazing …………………….. while I’m always busy .
19. I’ve been asked to key information …………………….. the computer immediately.
20. As he wanted to go to university, David decided to turn …………………….. a new
leaf and study harder.

Question 4. Put the verbs in the brackets into the correct Form/ Tense. (5 pts)
 If it (0) hadn't been (not/be) for Louis, Joan (1)................................... (never/survive)
her trip to Paris last month. She (2) ................... (not/meet) him before, but she (3)
......................... (be) certainly glad that she had by the end of her stay. The first thing
that (4) ......................... (happen) was that the hotel where she (5) ...........................

6
 (plan) to stay (6) ................... (not/receive) her booking, so they had no room for her.
Then, as she (7) ..................... (try) to get a taxi to take her to another hotel, someone
on a motorbike (8) ........................ (snatch) her bag with all her tickets and credit cards
in it. As her French (9) ................. (be) quite rusty, she (10) ....................... (not/know)
how to explain what (11) ............................. (happen). It was then that Louis (12)
............................. (approach) her and (13) ................................ (introduce) himself.
 A student of mine (14) …………………. (talk/ forever) in class, many a time she (15)
……………… (expel) from class.
 Her mother (16) ……………….. ( go) abroad last month, so it (17) ………………. .
(not be) her you saw at the theatre last Sunday
 How about your job in the new city? – It’s alright, but I’d rather (18) ……………..for
the job in your company.
 The car broke down, but for that, we (19) ……………….. (be) on time.
 His (20) ……………………..( take) ill suddenly last night took me by surprise.
Your answer:
1 6 11 16
2 7 12 17
3 8 13 18
4 9 14 19
5 10 15 20

Question 5. Complete the text by writing a correct form of the word in CAPITALS . (0)
has been done as an example. (5 pts)
IS IT WORTH IT?
It is (0) …… ……… believed that a break from everyday COMMON
routine can only do you good. Every summer, you can spot
prospective (1) ………………….. at airports and waiting for car HOLDAY
ferries. They are (2) …………………… - you can tell them a mile MISTAKE
away by their sun hats and hopeful expressions.
For all their optimism, what often actually happens can be a rude
(3) ……………………. from the blissful holiday dreams of the rest WAKE
of the year. Sunburn, mosquitoes and (4) …………………….. FORESEE
expenses can make you think twice about how (5) ……………….. BENEFIT
getting away from it all really is.
The fact is, the (6) ………………… of something going wrong LIKELY
7
is maximized when you are abroad and, (7) ………………….., your FORTUNE
ability to deal with crisis and catastrophe is often minimized. This
could be because of language problems, (8) ………………….. with FAMILIAR
the culture, or simply a different climate, all of which make everything
seem different and unreal.
So, what is the answer? (9) …………………., an annual DOUBT
escape from normal working life is a very positive thing. However, the
(10) …………………. of seeking an exotic location is questionable WISE
when you think of all the things that can go wrong.
Your answer:
0. ………… commonly …………..
1. ………………………………….… 6. ……………………………………..
2. ……………………………………. 7. ……………………………………..
3. …………………………………….. 8. ……………………………………..
4. …………………………………….. 9. ……………………………………..
5. …………………………………….. 10. ….………………………………..

PART 4: READING (25 pts)

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B , C or D) that best fits each gap. (0) has
been done as an example. (7.5 pts)
SMILE POWER

The exprssion on your face can actually dramatically (0)………………. your

feelings and perceptions, and it has been proven that (1) …………………..smiling or
frowning can create corresponding emotional responses. The idea was first (2)
……………by a French physiologist, Israel Waynbaum, in 1906. He believed that
different facial (3) ………………. affected the flow of blood to the brain, and that this
could create positive or negative feelings. A happy smile or irrepressible (4)
……………….. increased the bood flow and contributed to joyful feelings. But sad, angry
expressions decreased the flow of oxygen-carrying blood, and created a vicious (5)
…………………. of gloom and depression by effectively (6) …………………. the brain
of essential fuel.

Psychologist Robert Zajonc rediscovered this early (7) ……………….., and (8)
……………… that the temperature of the brain could affect the production and synthesis
of neurotransmitters – which definitely influence our moods and energy levels. He agues
that an impaired blood flow could not (9) ………………………. deprive the brain of
8
oxygen, but create further chemical imbalance (10) …………………….. inhibiting these
vital hormon messages. Zajonc goes on to propose that our brains remember that smiling
is associated with being happy, and that by deliberately smiling through your tears you
can (11) …………………. your brain to release uplifting neurotransmitters – replacing a
depressed condition (12) …………………. a happier one. People suffering from
psychosomatic (13) …………………., depression and anxiety states could (14)
………………….. from simply exercising their zygomatic (15) ………………….- which
pull the corners of the mouth up and back to form a smile – several times an hour.

0 A. Effect B. alter C. arrange D. reduce

1 A. desperately B. determinedly C. deliberately D. decidedly
2 A. put off B. put down C. put by D. put forward
3 A. aspects B. looks C. expressions D. appearances
4 A. laughter B. sadness C. humour D. depression
5 A. Cycle B. spiral C. circle D. vortex
6 A cutting B. starving C. removing D. eliminating
7 A. Result B. subject C. research D. experiment
8 A. advises B. wants C. demands D. suggests
9 A. Even B. Only C. ever D. always
10 A. By B. without C. when D. from
11 A. Make B. persuade C. allow D. decide
12 A. through B. By C. after D. with
13 A. disease B. illness C. infection D. ailment
14 A. recover B. improve C. benefit D. progress
15 A. muscles B. nerves C. veins D. bones
Your answer:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B

Question 2. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (0) has been done as an
example. (7.5 pts)

THAT’S ENTERTAINMENT

There has been a significant shift (0) …………in……………..entertainment trends

over the last twenty years or so. Entertainment used to be public; now it is becoming more
9
and (1) ……………………….. private. Formerly, people wanting to amuse themselves
did so in groups; these (2) ……………………….., people increasingly entertain
themselves on (3) ……………………….. own.

Long, long (4) ……………………….., there were storytellers. They used to travel
around the country and their arrival was awaited (5) ……………………….. eager
anticipation. In the more recent (6) ……………………….., people used to have musical
evening, they used to play games (7) ……………………….. or simply sit around the fire
and chat.

Nowadays, (8) ……………………….. of playing board gmes in a group, children

play video games alone or with one other person. People of all (9) ………………………..
spend their evenings alone watching television, videos and DVDs. And large numbers of
young (and not (10) ……………………….. young ) enthusiasts spend their free time
surfing the net, (11) ……………………….., by its very nature, tend to be a solitary
activity.
Forms of entertainment have always been changing, of course, but (12)
……………………….. could be said that these recent changes – all products (13)
………………………..technological development - mark a more fundamental shift. One
could further argue that this shift is symbolized by the earphones that (14)
……………………….. in evidence everywhere. Can this deliberate attempt to shut out
the rest of the world really be (15) ……………………….. entertainment?

Question 3: Read the following passage and choose the correct answers to the questions
that follow. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the space provided below: (5 pts)

COMMUNICATING WITH THE FUTURE

In the 1980s the United States Department of Energy was looking for suitable sites
to bury radioactive waste material generated by its nuclear energy programs. The
government was considering burying the dangerous wastes in deep underground chambers
in remote desert areas. The problem, however, was that nuclear waste remains highly
radioactive for thousands of years. The commission entrusted with tackling the problem of
waste disposal was aware that the dangers posed by radioactive emissions must be
communicated to our descendants of at least 10,000 years hence. So the task became one
of finding a way to tell future societies about the risk posed by these deadly deposits.

10
 Of course, human society in the distant future may be well aware of the hazards of
radiation. Technological advances may one day provide the solutions to this dilemma. But
the belief in constant technological advancement is based on our perceptions of advances
made throughout history and prehistory. We cannot be sure that society won’t have
slipped backward into an age of barbarism due to any of several catastrophic events,
whether the result of nature such as the onset of a new ice age or perhaps mankind’s
failure to solve the scourges of war and pollution. In the event of global catastrophe, it is
quite possible that humans of the distant future will be on the far side of a broken link of
communication and technological understanding.

The problem then becomes how to inform our descendants that they must avoid
areas of potential radioactive seepage given that they may not understand any currently
existing language and may have no historical or cultural memory. So, any message
indicated to future reception and decipherment must be as universally understandable as
possible.

It was soon realized by the specialists assigned the task of devising the
communication system that material in which the message was written might not
physically endure the great lengths of time demanded. The second law of thermodynamics
shows that all material disintegrates over time. Even computers that might carry the
message cannot be expected to endure long enough. Besides, electricity supplies might not
be available in 300 generations. Other media storage methods were considered and
rejected for similar reasons.

The task force under the linguist Thomas Sebeok finally agreed that no foolproof
way would be found to send a message across so many generations and have it survive
physically and be decipherable by a people with few cultural similarities to us. Given this
restriction, Sebeok suggested the only possible solution was the formation of a committee
of guardians of knowledge. Its task would be to dedicate itself to maintaining and passing
the knowledge of the whereabouts and dangers of the nuclear waste deposits. This so-
called atomic priesthood would be entrusted with keeping knowledge of this tradition
alive through millennia and developing the tradition into a kind of mythical taboo
forbidding people to tamper in a way with the nuclear waste sites. Only the initiated
atomic priesthood of experts would have the scientific knowledge to fully understand the
danger. Those outside the priesthood would be kept away by a combination of rituals and
legends designed to warn off intruders.

11
 This proposal has been criticized because of the possibility of a break in continuity
of the original message. Furthermore, there is no guarantee that any warning or sanction
passed on for millennia would be obeyed, nor that it could survive with its original
meaning intact. To counterbalance this possibility, Sebeok’s group proposed a “relay
system” in which information is passed on over relatively short periods of time, just three
generations ahead. The message then to be renewed and redesigned if necessary for the
following three generations and so on over the required time span. In this way information
could be relayed into the future and avoid the possibility of physical degradation.

A second defect is more difficult to dismiss, however. This is the problem of social
exclusiveness brought about through possession of vital knowledge. Critics point out that
the atomic priesthood could use its secret knowledge to control those who are
scientifically ignorant. The establishment of such an association of insiders holding
powerful knowledge not available except in mythic form to nonmembers would be a
dangerous precedent for future social developments.

1. The word "chambers" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. partitions B. openings C. cavities D. fissures
2. What problem faced the commission assigned to deal with the burial of nuclear waste?
A. How to reduce the radioactive life of nuclear waste materials
B. How to form a committee that could adequately express various nuclear risks
C. How to notify future generations of the risks of nuclear contamination
D. How to choose burial sites so as to minimize dangers to people.
3. In paragraph 2, the author explains the possible circumstances of future societies
A. to warn about the possible natural catastrophe
B. to question the value of advances
C. to highlight humankind's inability to resolve problems
D. to demonstrate the reason nuclear hazards must be communicated
4. The word "scourges" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. pressures B. afflictions C. worries D. annoyances
5. In paragraph 4, the author mentions the second law of thermodynamics
A. to support the view that nuclear waste will disperse with time
B. to show that knowledge can be sustained over millennia
C. to give the basic scientific reason behind the breakdown of material objects
D. to contrast the potential life span of knowledge with that of material objects
6. The word "Its" in the passage refers to
A. knowledge B. committee C. solution D. guardians
12
7. In paragraph 5, why is the proposed committee of guardians referred to as the "atomic
priesthood"?
A. Because they would be an exclusive group with knowledge about nuclear waste
sites.
B. Because they would use rituals and legends to maintain their exclusiveness
C. Because they would be an exclusive religious order
D. Because they would develop mythical taboos surrounding their traditions
8. According to the author, why did the task force under Sebeok propose a relay system
for passing on information?
A. To show that Sebeok 's ideas created more problems than they solved
B. To support the belief that breaks in communication are inevitable over time
C. To contrast Sebeok's ideas with those proposed by his main critics
D. To compensate for the fact that meaning will not stable over long periods of time
9. According to paragraph 7, the second defect of the atomic priesthood proposal is that it
could lead to
A. the nonmembers turning knowledge into dangerous mythical forms
B. the possible misuse of exclusive knowledge
C. the establishment of a scientifically ignorant society
D. the priesthood's criticism of points concerning vital knowledge
10. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as difficulties in devising a
communication system with the future EXCEPT
A. the failure to maintain communication link
B. the loss of knowledge about today's civilization
C. the inability of materials to endure over time
D. the exclusiveness of priesthood
Your answer:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Question 4. Read the passage carefully and do the exercise below. (5 pts)
THE CALL OF NATURE

One of the most popular characters in Dr. Who, a British television science-fiction
series, was a robotic dog called K9. On June 1st science fiction became fact when Sony
launched its latest product, Ambo. Described as “a one-of-a-kind artificially intelligent

13
pal”, Aibo is a dog that never needs to be walked, fed or washed. Nor does it make a mess
or get into fights with other dogs. It has stereo microphones for ears, can recognize
colours and shapes, and emits a variety of bleeps and chirps. A sensor in its head can
distinguish between an amiable pat and a reproachful slap. And the pause button on his
chest means it can be switched off and left in a cupboard when you go on holiday.
A good joke, and a profitable one (the first batch of 3,000 machines, priced at just
over $2,000 each, sold out within 20 minutes). But behind the marketing spiel about
Aibo’s autonomous behavior patterns, simulated emotions and instincts, “lovable shape”
and “four highly expensive legs”, lurks a serious point. Aibo is merely the latest example
of a robot inspired by biology.
This makes sense. Millions of years of evolution have already solved difficult design
problems in locomotion, manipulation, sensing and navigation in almost every
environment in which a robot might conceivably need to operate. Accordingly, a
menagerie of “biomorphic” robots can now be found scuttling, squirming and swimming
in laboratories all round the world.
For instance, several separate efforts are now under way to build robotic fish that
could be used to locate mines or take environmental readings. Understanding how fish
manage to swim so quickly but expend so little energy could also lead to new propulsion
systems for ships and submarines. This may explain why Mitsubitshi Heavy Industries, a
Japanese company whose activities include shipbuilding, has spent four years and $1m
building an incredibly lifelike robotic sea bream. (The company now plans to move on to
recreating extinct fish for display in museums.). Similarly inspired robotic pike and tuna
have been built at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology.
But a robot does not have to look like an animal to borrow useful ideas from the
animal kingdom. Mark Tilden and his colleagues at Los Alamos National Laboratory in
New Mexico, who have been building animal-like robots for years, have now applied their
knowledge to create a system that will operate in one of the environments that natural
selection has not yet managed to penetrate – outer space. Their latest robot is designed to
keep satellites on station.
Dr. Tilden is concerned not so much with what animals look like as with how their
nervous systems work. As every schoolboy discovers, pulling some of the legs off a spider
does not stop it walking. Its nervous circuitry can adjust to such injuries. That is because,
unlike most modern computers (including those that control Aibo), much of that circuitry
is analogue rather than digital.
In a digital computer, information is sent around as discrete bits and bytes. If a critical
bit goes missing, and the programme has not been prepared in advance for the possibility
14
of such a loss, it breaks down. With analogue circuitry, however, there is no such thing as
an independent, critical piece of data – everything is coupled together as one continuous
flow of current. If some information goes missing ( for example, because a schoolboy has
amputated a leg), the output will change – but it could still be meaningful. Dr. Tilden’s
robots use cheap and basic electronic components such as transistors, resistors, capacitors,
rather than fancy microelectronic silicon chips. Yet their behavior is so lifelike that they
can sometimes “spook” those afraid of real spiders.
These robots, like Aibo, are toys. But a satellite-navigation system is a serious,
practical application. Dr. Tilden’s design for such a system is being tested in an
experimental Swedish satellite called Hugin. Its task is to keep Hugin’s electricity-
generating solar panels pointed at the sun. It has a dozen light-sensors, each connected to a
circuit whose natural oscillation is modulated by the strength of the incoming
illumination. Those circuits, in turn, control the satellite’s attitude jets. If the satellite
moves off station, the amount of light falling on the sensors will change, and its analogue
circuitry will tell the jets how much to fire to bring it round to face the correct way. It may
not be as photogenic as a robot dog, but it is certainly a lot more useful.
Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from
the reading passage .
The Japanese company Sony has launched its latest product, a robotic dog, on the
market. The robotic dog is advertised to have (1)……………….. behaviour patterns and
(2)………………. feelings. In fact, the robotic dog was designed under the inspiration of
(3)……………… rather than technology. For example, finding why fish moves so quickly
with so little energy consumed will help produce (4)………………… for submarines.
That is why Mitsubitshi Heavy Industries has been building a robotic sea bream and MIT
has already produced robotic pike. Knowledge of (5)……………………has also been
used in creating a system operating in (6)………………………. In designing such a
system, what scientists are most (7)…………. is not what animals look like, but how
(8)……………. work, because if computers have analogue circuitry rather than digital
one, computers will not (9)…………………. if a critical piece of information goes
missing A satellite-navigation system is now (10)…………………….. in a Swedish
satellite. It may not be as pleasant-looking but it will be more useful than a robotic dog.
Your answer:
1. 4. 7.
2. 5. 8.
3. 6. 9.

15
 10.

PART 5: WRITING (30 pts)

Question 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence using the words given. Do not change the word given. You must use between
three and eight words, including the word given. (5 pts)

1. She vividly described the expedition and that made it seem exciting. LIFE
 The thing .................................................................... was her vivid description.
2. Please don't tell anyone about this for the time being. SOONER
 I .................................................................... let anyone know about this for the time
being.
3. Elaine is very bright so she won't have been taken in, whatever they said. UPTAKE
 Elaine is very .................................................................... so she won't have been taken
in, whatever they said.
4. My new job is much more satisfying than any job I've ever had. AWAY
 My new job is .................................................................... one I've ever had.
5. I couldn't stop thinking about the exam despite playing backgammon with Paul. MIND
 playing backgammon with Paul .................................................................... the exam.
6. Bill changed his ways when he came out of prison. LEAF
 Bill .................................................................... since he came out of prison.
7. We honestly all found it almost impossible not to laugh when we saw Josh's new
haircut. FACE
 Honestly, .................................................................... almost impossible when we saw
Josh's new haircut.
8. Don't let her give in however hard they try to persuade her. GUNS
 Make sure she .................................................................... however hard they try to
persuade her.
9. It was a bad idea to turn up unexpectedly without calling first. BLUE
 You should .................................................................... without calling first.
10. The phone bill was so expensive that Dave was furious. ARMS
 Dave was .................................................................... an expensive phone bill.
\Question 2: Graph description. (10 pts)

16
The bar graph below shows the amount of carbon emissions in different countries during
three different years. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main
features, and make comparisons where relevant.(150 – 200 words)

……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

17
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
Question 3: Essay writing. (15 pts)

Some people believe that it is better to have children when couples are young and
are physically equipped to raise them, while others believe that parenting requires
maturity and the solid financial foundation that often comes later in life.

Write an essay (250 – 300 words) to express your opinion on the topic.

……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
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18
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
----- The End -----

SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG NAM KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ NĂM 2014
NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH, LỚP 11
( Thời gian: 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)

PART I. LISTENING (15 points)

Part 1: You will hear an interview with a robot scientist. For questions 1-5, choose the
best answer (A, B, C or D).

1B 2A 3C 4B 5C

Part 2: You will hear a man talking on the radio about Welsh speakers in Patagonia,
Argentina. For questions 6-15, which summarize what he says. Write NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS in each space provided.

6. tea house
7. several hundred
8. isolated
9. farmers
10. (local) Indians
11. beautiful valley
12. song and dance
13. (groups of) teachers
14. (Welsh) flags
15. chocolate cake

PART 2: PHONETICS. (5 pts)

Question 1. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different that of the others.(2.5 pts)
1C 2A 3B 4B 5D
19
Question 2. Pick out the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced from
that of the others. (2.5 pts)
1A 2A 3B 4D 5B

PART 3: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES.(25 pts)

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B , C or D) which best completes each
sentence. (5 pts)
Your answer:
1C 2C 3D 4A 5A 6B 7A 8B 9A 10C
11A 12A 13C 14D 15C 16D 17B 18A 19D 20B

Question 2. There are 10 mistakes in the passage below. Find out the mistakes and
write the correct forms. (O) has been done as an exampe. (5 pts)
Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction
0 pressed pressing 12 rich richly
1 serious seriously 13 most least
5 on over 14 anywhere nowhere
6 becoming becomes 18 reversible irreversible
7 involving involved 20 establish re-establish
8 later latter

Question 3. Fill in each blanks with the correct preposition(s)/ particle(s). (5 pts)
1.back from 5.up with 9.on 13.on 17.with
2.in on 6.out of 10.in 14.up 18.about
3.off 7.on 11.on 15.on 19.in/into
4.off with 8.in 12.in 16.in 20.over

Question 4. Put the verbs in the brackets into the correct Form/ Tense. (5 pts)
1.would never have 6.had not received 11.had happened 16.went
survived
2.hadn’t met 7.tried 12.approached 17.can’t/ couldn’t
have been
3.was 8.snatched 13.introduced 18.have applied
4.happened 9.was 14.is forever talking 19.would have been
5.had planned 10.didn’t know 15.has been 20. being taken
20
 expelled

Question 5. Complete the text by writing a correct form of the word in CAPITALS . (0)
has been done as an example. (5 pts)
IS IT WORTH IT?
1. holidaymakers 6. likelihood
2. unmistakable 7. unfortunately
3. awakening 8. unfamiliarity
4. unforeseeable/unforeseen 9. Undoubtedly/ doubtless
5. beneficial 10. wisdom

PART 4: READING (25 pts)

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B , C or D) that best fits each gap. (7.5 pts)
SMILE POWER

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B C D C A C B C D B A B D B C A
Question 2. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (7.5 pts)

THAT’S ENTERTAINMENT

1. more 6. past 11.which

2. days 7. together 12.it
3. their 8. instead 13.of
4. ago 9. ages 14. are
5. with 10.so 15. called
Question 3: Read the following passage and choose the correct answers to the
questions that follow. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the space provided
below: (5 pts)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C D B C B A D B D

Question 4. Read the passage carefully and complete the summary below. Choose NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the reading passage . (5 pts)
Your answer:
1. autonomous 4. new propulsion systems 7. concerned with
21
2. simulated 5. the animal kingdom 8. their nervous systems
3. biology 6. outer space 9. break down
10. being tested

Part 5 : WRITING

Question 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence using the words given. Do not change the word given. You must use
BETWEEN THREE AND EIGHT WORDS, including the word given.

1. that brings the expedition to life

2. would sooner you didn't
3. quick on the uptake
4. Far and away the most satisfying
5. didn't / failed to take my mind off
6. has turned over a new leaf
7. keeping a straight face was
8 .sticks to her guns
9. not have turned up out of the blue
10. up in arms about such
Question 2: Graph Description (150 -200 words)(10 pts)

Điểm tối đa của từng phần như sau:

- Completion:1
- Content: 5
- Organization: 2
- Coherence: 1
- Vocabulary, Structure, Length:1

Question 3: Writing an essay (250 -300 words).(15 pts)

Điểm tối đa của từng phần như sau:

- Completion:2
- Idea: 6
- Organization: 2
- Coherence: 2
- Vocabulary, Structure:2
22
- Length:1

----- The End -----

23
 TAPESCRIPTS OF PART 1

P = Fmeal presenter K = Kelth Wells

P: My guest today is robot scientist Keith Wells. Keith's company, ELA Robotics, hit the news last year
with their Home Help robot, the first of Us kind to lie able io perform more ihan one domestic task. Whai
are you working on now, Keith?

K: I can't really tell you that. I'm afraid. It's not that I don’t want to, it's just that we’ve all been given our
Instructions and signed an agreement not to give anything away until it actually comes onto the market. I
don't quite know when that will be, but probably some time early next year.

P: OK, well we’ll look forward to that. In the mean time, perhaps you could tell us what you think are the
most important applications of robots in our lives. Why are they useful?

K: Well, they help us to do what we call 'the 3 Ds". That's anything which is dull, dirty or dangerous. They
can be used in the home or in the car manufacturing industry, to do dull or monotonous work; they're
used for doing dirty jobs like mining or cleaning toxic waste; and then they have applications in the
military or in the dangerous business of space travel. Of course, that's not an exhaustive list, hul it gives
you an idea of the range of different uses they have - and also of the variety involved in my line of work.

P: Yes, indeed. Let's talk if we may aboul one area in particular, though, the more humanoid robots, the ones
with a recognizable human form. What are the lalest developments there?

K: Yes, the ones being built now are able to see, hear, touch and even smell and taste. In the future they
should also be able to display a range of emotions. They might feel happy for example that they have
carried out a domestic task particularly well, or sad and guilty because they haven't. That way they will
have a season to go on doing the same task in the future, either to match their last performance or 10
improve on it. A robot with emotions is a robot with goals,

P: Amazing, But isn't all this a little bit worrying - robots with emotions? Isn't there a danger of science
fiction becoming science fact, with robots taking over?

K: Yes. unfortunately, robots do get rather a bad press sometimes, don't they? Particularly in films and video
games where they're either objects of humour and ridicule which we laugh at or else they're menacing
characters which threaten to destroy the whole human race. But no, there is actually an ethical code
which sets out what we can and can't do in robot design - and one thing we won't do is allow ourselves to
lose control over our creations.

P: Don't you think, though, that robots will make us lazy, that well no longer want to do anything that
jequires any effort?

24
K: I think the car's already done I hat lo us. It's made us physically very lazy. We don't walk so much as we
used to and our bodies have suffered as a result, I think robots could well have the same effect on our
brains. If we let intelligent robots do all of our thinking for us, there is a danger we won't be able to make
any of our own decisions, that well become mentally lazy. And that, I think, is just as worrying.

P: Do you really think that the day will come when most homes have their own robot?

K: If you think back to just twenty-five years ago, few of us then would have predicted that we'd soon have a
personal computer in our home, be logging onto the Internet and downloading hundreds of songs onto a
thing called an MP3 player. So why shouldn'1 we all have robots? The truth is that we've been talking
about robots for nearly a century and their development hasn't been quite as fast as we thought it would
be, but now with advanced computer technology available, that should all change very soon.

P: How soon?

K: Well, it's changing already. The first humanoid robots at the end of the 1990s could do very little, then
later models learnt lo sit down and stand up, then talk, walk around, dance and so on. It's rather like
watching a child grow. Through television and other media, the public is slowly growing accustomed to
the idea of robots as a reality, and when they eventually become widely available, people will be ready
for them.

P: Thank you, Keith, It's been fascinating having you on the programme.

TAPESCRIPTS OF PART 2

Argentina is a country known internationally for the tango, gaucho cowboys and premium quality beef.
To many people, therefore, it comes as some surprise to discover that in certain parts of Patagonia, in the
south of the country, one of the 'musts' for any tourist is a visit to a Welsh tea house, a place where you
can sip tea and enjoy delicious cakes, baked according to traditional Welsh recipes. Perhaps even more
surprising, though, is the fact that some of the locals can actually be heard speaking in Welsh. Exactly
how many native Welsh speakers there are in the region is not known, but most estimates put the figure
at several hundred, a relatively high number, given that there are just under 600,000 speakers of the
language in Wales itself.

But how did these Welsh speakers come to be there? The first wave of settlers arrived from Wales in
1865. Unhappy with conditions at home, they were looking for an isolated area to set up a colony, a place
where their language and identity would be preserved intact and not assimilated into the dominant
culture, as had already happened in the United States. The 153 colonists who landed on the cast coast of
Argentina included carpenters, tailors and miners, but no real doctors and just one or two farmers. This
was rather worrying, since the Chubut valley where they settled was virtually a desert, and what they
needed most of all were agricultural skills.

Against all the odds, though, they survived, overcoming droughts, floods and a succession of crop
failures. They were also quick to establish friendly relations with the local Indians, who helped the Welsh
through the hard times and taught them some of their ways, how to ride and how to hunt. Twenty years
25
after their arrival, some of the settlers moved up into a green fertile region of the Andes mountains, an
area which they named Cwm Hyfryd, meaning 'beautiful valley'. Indeed, quite a number of places in
Patagonia still bear Welsh names: Bryn Gwyn which means 'white hill', Trevelin, meaning 'milltown' and
Trelew or'Lewistown', named after Lewis Jones, one of the founders.

The Welsh have left their mark in other ways, too. Their windmills aud chapels can be found throughout
the region and there are a number of cultural activities, such as poetry readings, male voice choirs and the
annual Welsh song and dance festival, a smaller version of the International Eisteddfod held in Wales
each year. All of this helps to keep the language and traditions alive in a small corner of the world, 8,000
miles from the homeland. And so too does the fact that every year, as part of a programme administered
by the National Assembly for Wales, groups of teachers come to Patagonia to teach the language to the
growing number of people who are interested in learning it.

And then, of coursc, there are the Welsh teas. For my afternoon treat, I visit Nain Ceri reputed to be one
of the best tea houses in Gaiman, where the streets and houses are adorned with Welsh flags, a reminder
to visitors that they are in the self-proclaimed Patagonian-Welsh capital of Chubut. Inside, Main Ceri is
decorated with prints and paintings of Wales and the music playing is that of a traditional all-male choir.
I sit next to the fireplace and my mouth begins to water as I look at the various cakes on offer. I am about
to order the cream- topped apple pie to accompany my tea, when I catch sight of an irresistible-looking
chocolate cake and choose that instead. I am not disappointed - it is absolutely delicious, Afterwards, I
chat at length to the owner, Ceri Morgan - in Spanish, as she speaks no English and I speak no Welsh.
She tells me a little more about the history of ...

26
 SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH KỲ THI OLYMPIC
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH KHU VỰC DH-ĐBBB
Tổ: Ngoại ngữ Lần thứ VII- Năm học: 2013 - 2014
ĐỀ ĐỀ NGHỊ ĐỀ THI: MÔN TIẾNG ANH, LỚP 11
------------------- (Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút)

PART I: LISTENING (15 pts)

Questions 1: You are going to hear a travel Agent discussing a holiday booking with two
Customers. Listen to their conversation and answer questions.(5p)
1D 2C 3C 4D 5A

Tape scripts:
Agent: Good morning. Can I help you?
Customer 1: Yes, good morning. We’d like to book a holiday for July, please.
Agent: Certainly. Where did you have in mind?
Customer 1: Oh, well, we haven’t thought a lot about it, really. We’d just like to go somewhere
hot, you know, and it must be in July.
Agent: I see. Well, let’s get the dates cleared up first, then we can see about availability. What
part of July were you thinking of?
Customer 2: Oh, well, you see, we have slightly different holidays. I’ve got the whole month
except for the last five days, I could go from the first to the twenty-sixth, but my friend here
doesn’t start until the seventh, so I suppose it will have to be the middle two weeks really.
Customer 1: Yes, but I’ve got to be back before the twenty-third.
Agent: OK. Now, let’s find a destination. Any preferences … France … Italy …?
Customer 1: Oh, not France. We went there last year and it was absolutely packed with
teenagers making noise and getting drunk all the time.
Customer 2: Yes, it was terrible. We definitely want somewhere quieter this year.
Agent: Well, of course it depends more on the resort rather than the country. There are resorts
in every country which cater for the family or the slightly older person. They are usually a
shade more expensive, though, as you might expect …
Customer 1: Oh, well, we don’t mind paying a bit more if it means more peace and quiet, do
we?
Customer 2: Definitely not. It’ll be well worth it.
Agent: All right. Let’s have a look at what we’ve got on the computer. … July … was it ten or
fourteen nights you wanted?
Customer 1: Oh, the fortnight, please.
Agent: Right. Well, let’s start with Italy. Umm, we’ve got fourteen nights bed and breakfast in
Sorrento for three hundred and forty-five pounds, from Manchester, on the fourteenth, or,
we’ve got …
Customer 1: No, wait a minute, that’s no good for me. We wouldn’t get back till twenty-eighth,
and I’ve got to be back at work before that.
Agent: Oh, yes, Umm … How about Sweden, two weeks, half-board …
Customer 2: How much would that be?
Agent: That would be five hundred and forty pounds, from Manchester again.
Customer 1: Well, five hundred and forty … er … that seems too much.

Page 1/5
Agent: Well, madam, there’s a surcharge for the airport, and it is a five-star hotel.
Customer 2: Oh, well, it’s a bit over our budget, really …
Agent: All right. Let’s try somewhere else. How about Portugal?
…
Questions 2: You will hear a dialogue between two friends. As you listen, fill in missing
words and indicate whether the following statements are true or not. (10p)
1. accident 2. avoid 3. changing 4. slow down 5. police car
6.F 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. ?

Tape scripts:
Richard: Hi, Linda, did you have a nice holiday?
Linda: Yes, I went to visit my aunt Cathy in Chase Village for a week.
Richard: Oh, you went to Chase Village? I know the place. My sister lives there. How is the
traffic there?
Linda: Not too bad. Why do you ask about the traffic?
Richard: You know, I went to the traffic 3 years ago. There was a lot of traffic in Chase
Village. People drove too fast. I had a very serious accident on Newland Street. I was afraid
to drive there, so I always try to avoid that road when I visit my sister.
Linda: Things are changing no. You know, people put on their brakes and slow down on New
Land Street because they can see a police car there with a police officer in it.
Richard: Oh, it’s good to have a policeman there because there were many accidents that
happened on that road. But the police officer wouldn’t be there all the time, so some people
wouldn’t be too careful about the police. Sometimes they just took a risk.
Linda: You know, the police officer has been working on that road 24 hours a day, seven days a
week for a bout two and a half years now.
Richard: Oh, how can a policeman do this without any break?
Linda: No break at all.
Richard: How much does he get paid for the overtime work?
Linda: In fact, he doesn’t get any pay at all.
Richard: What is his name? He must be a volunteer there but I can’t believe it.
Linda: His name is Officer Springirth. The police department put him to work there.
Richard: What do you mean? Why did police department put him to work there?
Linda: In fact, he isn’t a real man. He is a mannequin. Before he was put there, people broke
into 16 cars in two months in the village. When the police department put Officer
Springirth on that road there were no more break-ins in that area.
Richard: I’m glad to hear it. I think the police department should put more mannequins on
other roads which often cause accidents.
Linda: It’s a good idea. You know, the crime rate in Chase Village is very low compared to the
neighbouring village.
Richard: So, the most important effect Officer Springirth has is reducing the crime rate.
Linda: Exactly.
Richard: I will go to visit my sister next month so I will try that road again.
Linda: Yes, please do. You will see the changes.

PART II: PHONETICS (5p)

Page 2/5
Questions 1: Choose one word marked A, B, C or D whose stress pattern is different from the
others in each groups. (2.5p)
1A 2D 3D 4A 5B
1. A. monetary B. paralysis C. protagonist D. analogous
2. A. tuberculosis B. mathematician C. communication D. inheritance
3. A. magnificent B. memorial C. tobacconist D. humanism
4. A. trigonometry B. explanatory C. immediately D. democracy
5. A. confer B. offer C. prefer D. deter

Questions 2: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the others. (2.5p)
1. A 2.D 3. A 4. C 5.B
1. A. months B. mouths C. wreaths D. youths
2. A. substitute B. muddled C. shutter D. substantial
3. A. surgical B. surround C. surrender D. survival
4. A. equation B. television C. mention D. decision
5. A. microscope B. microscopic C. atrocious D. cone

PART III: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 pts)

Question 1: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D in each sentence to complete it. (5 p)
1D 2B 3D 4D 5D 6B 7C 8A 9B 10D
11C 12D 13C 14B 15D 16A 17A 18B 19B 20C
Question 2: The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them (5 pt)
1. include --> includes 2. strict --> strictly 3. that --> which 4. receiving --> received
5. masses --> mass 6. so --> such 7. leaf --> leaves 8. a few --> few 9.
depends --> depending 10. and --> or
Whirlwind, any rotating air mass, include the tornado and the large cyclonic and anti-
cyclonic storm. In meteorology, the term whirlwind is more strict applied to the smaller
swirling atmospheric phenomenon commonly known as dust devil or dust whirl, that occurs
mostly over deserts and semiarid plains during hot, calm days. The principal cause of
whirlwinds is intense insulation, or incoming solar radiation receiving by the earth, which
produces an overheated air mass just above the ground. This air masses rises, usually in the
form of a cylindrical column, sucking up loose surface material, so as dust, sand, and leaf.
Whirlwinds vary in height from 30 to 152 m, but exceptionally vigorous dust devils may
exceed 1524 m in height. The vortices of whirlwinds range in size from few meters to several
hundred meters and, depends on their force and size, dust devils may disappear in seconds and
last several hours. Brief whirlwinds are erratic in motion, but the longer-lasting ones move
slowly with the prevailing winds.

Question 3: Complete each space with a suitable particle or preposition (5 pt)

1. of 6. with 11. by 16. in
2. in 7. in 12. in 17. of
3. on 8. from 13. to 18. without
4. on 9. through 14. onto 19. by

Page 3/5
 5. at 10. in 15. after 20. from

Question 4: Give the correct form/ tense of the verb given below (5 pts)
A. 1. Lives 2. Lived/was living 3. Wrote 4. Invited 5. Have had
6. Wonder 7. Have also had 8. Applied 9. Was 10. have

B. 1. should have rung 2. have worked 3. haven’t had 4. to have

5. is going 6. has told 7. Leaves 8. hadn’t been given 9. would come
10.was/have been given

Question 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the number space provided
in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (5p)
Example: 0. existence
1. Characteristic 2. Recognizable 3. Unceremoniously 4. independent
5. extraordinary 6. Rigidity 7. Zealous 8. conservative
9. surrounding 10. increasingly

Question 6: Fill in each blank in the passage with the most suitable linking word given in the
box. (5p)
(1.) therefore (2.) Although (3.) Secondly (4.) However (5.) In addition
(6.) Furthermore (7.) not only (8.) but (9.) In general (10.) even though

PART IV: READING (25P)

Question 1: Read the following passage carefully and choose the best option to each of the
questions. (7.5p)
1B 2A 3B 4D 5A 6A 7B
8A 9B 10D 11A 12D 13D 14B 15D
Question 1: A. fact B. return C. exchange D. short
Question 2: A. engineers B. workers C. electrician D. trainers
Question 3: A. under B. performed C. hold D. accepted
Question 4: A. demonstrate B. tell C. indicate D. govern
Question 5: A. long B. far C. often D. good
Question 6: A. waste B. wasting C. spend D. spending
Question 7: A. consistently B. continually C. constructively D. chronically
Question 8: A. averse B. brave C. impolite D. intimate
Question 9: A. encouraging B. correcting C. scolding D. criticizing
Question 10: A. reason B. target C. task D. object
Question 11: A. most B. best C. bad D. good
Question 12: A. interest B. pleasure C. passion D. pride
Question 13: A. The other B. An other C. Ones D. Others
Question 14: A. rest B. relax C. restrain D. relieve
Question 15: A. trainees B. interviewees C. employers D. employees

Question 2: Fill in the blank with a suitable word. Use only one word in each space. (7.5p).

Page 4/5
1. odds 2. concerned 3. long 4. play 5. its 6. another 7. par 8. reverse
9. tend 10. rise 11. puts 12. sexes 13. on 14. neither 15. term

Question 3: Read the passage then circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the
following questions or statements (10 pts)
1A 2A 3C 4A 5C 6D 7B 8A 9A 10C

Question 4: From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for each
paragraph in the passage and choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage to complete the sentences. (10 pts)
1. ii 2. vi 3. iv 7. a 100 years
4. i 5. ix 6. v 8. mentally confused
9. (well-developed) language
10. an IQ test

PART V: WRITING (30 PTS)

A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (2.5 points)
1. It’s too wonderful an opportunity for us to miss.
2. Nowhere else am I as practical as you are.
3. It doesn’t take much time for Jack to lose his temper.
4. Thought must be given to ways of improving the transport system.
5. Jane must have been at work today.

B. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in CAPITALS, and so that the
meaning stays the same. (2.5 points)
1. David was instrumental in drafting the proposal.
2. On no account/Not on any account should the house be left unlocked.
3. She passed her final exams with flying colors.
4. His name doesn’t ring a bell with me at all.
5. Theories about the causes of bird flu have changed in the light of recent research

Question 2: Study the chart that shows the participation in social work by men and women of
the country of Fancy from 1992 to 2000 and write a report of about 150 words describing
their contribution (10 pt).

Question 3: Essay writing (15 p)

Teenagers can make their own decisions; older people do not need to make decisions for
them. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer and include
any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
You should write at least 250 words. You are recommended to spend approximately 40
minutes on this task.
Marking scheme
The impression mark given to each of parts 3 and 4 is based on the following scheme:

Page 5/5
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

Page 6/5
 ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT HSG TIẾNG ANH 11 (DHBB) LẦN THỨ VIII (2013-2014)
Trường THPT Chuyên Bắc Ninh
PART I: LISTENING (15 pts)
Questions 1: You are going to hear a travel Agent discussing a holiday booking with two
Customers. Listen to their conversation and answer questions.(5p)
1D 2C 3C 4D 5A

Tape scripts:
Agent: Good morning. Can I help you?
Customer 1: Yes, good morning. We’d like to book a holiday for July, please.
Agent: Certainly. Where did you have in mind?
Customer 1: Oh, well, we haven’t thought a lot about it, really. We’d just like to go somewhere
hot, you know, and it must be in July.
Agent: I see. Well, let’s get the dates cleared up first, then we can see about availability. What
part of July were you thinking of?
Customer 2: Oh, well, you see, we have slightly different holidays. I’ve got the whole month
except for the last five days, I could go from the first to the twenty-sixth, but my friend here
doesn’t start until the seventh, so I suppose it will have to be the middle two weeks really.
Customer 1: Yes, but I’ve got to be back before the twenty-third.
Agent: OK. Now, let’s find a destination. Any preferences … France … Italy …?
Customer 1: Oh, not France. We went there last year and it was absolutely packed with
teenagers making noise and getting drunk all the time.
Customer 2: Yes, it was terrible. We definitely want somewhere quieter this year.
Agent: Well, of course it depends more on the resort rather than the country. There are resorts
in every country which cater for the family or the slightly older person. They are usually a
shade more expensive, though, as you might expect …
Customer 1: Oh, well, we don’t mind paying a bit more if it means more peace and quiet, do
we?
Customer 2: Definitely not. It’ll be well worth it.
Agent: All right. Let’s have a look at what we’ve got on the computer. … July … was it ten or
fourteen nights you wanted?
Customer 1: Oh, the fortnight, please.
Agent: Right. Well, let’s start with Italy. Umm, we’ve got fourteen nights bed and breakfast in
Sorrento for three hundred and forty-five pounds, from Manchester, on the fourteenth, or,
we’ve got …
Customer 1: No, wait a minute, that’s no good for me. We wouldn’t get back till twenty-eighth,
and I’ve got to be back at work before that.
Agent: Oh, yes, Umm … How about Sweden, two weeks, half-board …
Customer 2: How much would that be?
Agent: That would be five hundred and forty pounds, from Manchester again.
Customer 1: Well, five hundred and forty … er … that seems too much.
Agent: Well, madam, there’s a surcharge for the airport, and it is a five-star hotel.
Customer 2: Oh, well, it’s a bit over our budget, really …
Agent: All right. Let’s try somewhere else. How about Portugal?
…
Page 1/5
Questions 2: You will hear a dialogue between two friends. As you listen, fill in missing
words and indicate whether the following statements are true or not. (10p)
1. accident 2. avoid 3. changing 4. slow down 5. police car
6.F 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. ?

Tape scripts:
Richard: Hi, Linda, did you have a nice holiday?
Linda: Yes, I went to visit my aunt Cathy in Chase Village for a week.
Richard: Oh, you went to Chase Village? I know the place. My sister lives there. How is the
traffic there?
Linda: Not too bad. Why do you ask about the traffic?
Richard: You know, I went to the traffic 3 years ago. There was a lot of traffic in Chase
Village. People drove too fast. I had a very serious accident on Newland Street. I was afraid
to drive there, so I always try to avoid that road when I visit my sister.
Linda: Things are changing no. You know, people put on their brakes and slow down on New
Land Street because they can see a police car there with a police officer in it.
Richard: Oh, it’s good to have a policeman there because there were many accidents that
happened on that road. But the police officer wouldn’t be there all the time, so some people
wouldn’t be too careful about the police. Sometimes they just took a risk.
Linda: You know, the police officer has been working on that road 24 hours a day, seven days a
week for a bout two and a half years now.
Richard: Oh, how can a policeman do this without any break?
Linda: No break at all.
Richard: How much does he get paid for the overtime work?
Linda: In fact, he doesn’t get any pay at all.
Richard: What is his name? He must be a volunteer there but I can’t believe it.
Linda: His name is Officer Springirth. The police department put him to work there.
Richard: What do you mean? Why did police department put him to work there?
Linda: In fact, he isn’t a real man. He is a mannequin. Before he was put there, people broke
into 16 cars in two months in the village. When the police department put Officer
Springirth on that road there were no more break-ins in that area.
Richard: I’m glad to hear it. I think the police department should put more mannequins on
other roads which often cause accidents.
Linda: It’s a good idea. You know, the crime rate in Chase Village is very low compared to the
neighbouring village.
Richard: So, the most important effect Officer Springirth has is reducing the crime rate.
Linda: Exactly.
Richard: I will go to visit my sister next month so I will try that road again.
Linda: Yes, please do. You will see the changes.

PART II: PHONETICS (5p)

Questions 1: Choose one word marked A, B, C or D whose stress pattern is different from the
others in each groups. (2.5p)
1A 2D 3D 4A 5B
1. A. monetary B. paralysis C. protagonist D. analogous
Page 2/5
2. A. tuberculosis B. mathematician C. communication D. inheritance
3. A. magnificent B. memorial C. tobacconist D. humanism
4. A. trigonometry B. explanatory C. immediately D. democracy
5. A. confer B. offer C. prefer D. deter

Questions 2: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the others. (2.5p)
1. A 2.D 3. A 4. C 5.B
1. A. months B. mouths C. wreaths D. youths
2. A. substitute B. muddled C. shutter D. substantial
3. A. surgical B. surround C. surrender D. survival
4. A. equation B. television C. mention D. decision
5. A. microscope B. microscopic C. atrocious D. cone

PART III: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 pts)

Question 1: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D in each sentence to complete it. (5 p)
1D 2B 3D 4D 5D 6B 7C 8A 9B 10D
11C 12D 13C 14B 15D 16A 17A 18B 19B 20C
Question 2: The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them (5 pt)
1. include --> includes 2. strict --> strictly 3. that --> which 4. receiving --> received
5. masses --> mass 6. so --> such 7. leaf --> leaves 8. a few --> few 9.
depends --> depending 10. and --> or
Whirlwind, any rotating air mass, include the tornado and the large cyclonic and anti-
cyclonic storm. In meteorology, the term whirlwind is more strict applied to the smaller
swirling atmospheric phenomenon commonly known as dust devil or dust whirl, that occurs
mostly over deserts and semiarid plains during hot, calm days. The principal cause of
whirlwinds is intense insulation, or incoming solar radiation receiving by the earth, which
produces an overheated air mass just above the ground. This air masses rises, usually in the
form of a cylindrical column, sucking up loose surface material, so as dust, sand, and leaf.
Whirlwinds vary in height from 30 to 152 m, but exceptionally vigorous dust devils may
exceed 1524 m in height. The vortices of whirlwinds range in size from few meters to several
hundred meters and, depends on their force and size, dust devils may disappear in seconds and
last several hours. Brief whirlwinds are erratic in motion, but the longer-lasting ones move
slowly with the prevailing winds.

Question 3: Complete each space with a suitable particle or preposition (5 pt)

1. of 6. with 11. by 16. in
2. in 7. in 12. in 17. of
3. on 8. from 13. to 18. without
4. on 9. through 14. onto 19. by
5. at 10. in 15. after 20. from

Question 4: Give the correct form/ tense of the verb given below (5 pts)
A. 1. Lives 2. Lived/was living 3. Wrote 4. Invited 5. Have had
6. Wonder 7. Have also had 8. Applied 9. Was 10. have
Page 3/5
B. 1. should have rung 2. have worked 3. haven’t had 4. to have
5. is going 6. has told 7. Leaves 8. hadn’t been given 9. would come
10.was/have been given

Question 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the number space provided
in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (5p)
Example: 0. existence
1. Characteristic 2. Recognizable 3. Unceremoniously 4. independent
5. extraordinary 6. Rigidity 7. Zealous 8. conservative
9. surrounding 10. increasingly

Question 6: Fill in each blank in the passage with the most suitable linking word given in the
box. (5p)
(1.) therefore (2.) Although (3.) Secondly (4.) However (5.) In addition
(6.) Furthermore (7.) not only (8.) but (9.) In general (10.) even though

PART IV: READING (25P)

Question 1: Read the following passage carefully and choose the best option to each of the
questions. (7.5p)
1B 2A 3B 4D 5A 6A 7B
8A 9B 10D 11A 12D 13D 14B 15D
Question 1: A. fact B. return C. exchange D. short
Question 2: A. engineers B. workers C. electrician D. trainers
Question 3: A. under B. performed C. hold D. accepted
Question 4: A. demonstrate B. tell C. indicate D. govern
Question 5: A. long B. far C. often D. good
Question 6: A. waste B. wasting C. spend D. spending
Question 7: A. consistently B. continually C. constructively D. chronically
Question 8: A. averse B. brave C. impolite D. intimate
Question 9: A. encouraging B. correcting C. scolding D. criticizing
Question 10: A. reason B. target C. task D. object
Question 11: A. most B. best C. bad D. good
Question 12: A. interest B. pleasure C. passion D. pride
Question 13: A. The other B. An other C. Ones D. Others
Question 14: A. rest B. relax C. restrain D. relieve
Question 15: A. trainees B. interviewees C. employers D. employees

Question 2: Fill in the blank with a suitable word. Use only one word in each space. (7.5p).
1. odds 2. concerned 3. long 4. play 5. its 6. another 7. par 8. reverse
9. tend 10. rise 11. puts 12. sexes 13. on 14. neither 15. term

Question 3: Read the passage then circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the
following questions or statements (10 pts)
1A 2A 3C 4A 5C 6D 7B 8A 9A 10C

Page 4/5
Question 4: From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for each
paragraph in the passage and choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage to complete the sentences. (10 pts)
1. ii 2. vi 3. iv 7. a 100 years
4. i 5. ix 6. v 8. mentally confused
9. (well-developed) language
10. an IQ test

PART V: WRITING (30 PTS)

A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (2.5 points)
1. It’s too wonderful an opportunity for us to miss.
2. Nowhere else am I as practical as you are.
3. It doesn’t take much time for Jack to lose his temper.
4. Thought must be given to ways of improving the transport system.
5. Jane must have been at work today.

B. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in CAPITALS, and so that the
meaning stays the same. (2.5 points)
1. David was instrumental in drafting the proposal.
2. On no account/Not on any account should the house be left unlocked.
3. She passed her final exams with flying colors.
4. His name doesn’t ring a bell with me at all.
5. Theories about the causes of bird flu have changed in the light of recent research

Question 2: Study the chart that shows the participation in social work by men and women of
the country of Fancy from 1992 to 2000 and write a report of about 150 words describing
their contribution (10 pt).

Question 3: Essay writing (15 p)

Teenagers can make their own decisions; older people do not need to make decisions for
them. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer and include
any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
You should write at least 250 words. You are recommended to spend approximately 40
minutes on this task.
Marking scheme
The impression mark given to each of parts 3 and 4 is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

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 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HẠ LONG ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
TỈNH QUẢNG NINH DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11
Thời gian: 180 phút

PART 1: LISTENING (15 points)

Activity number 1 (5 points)
You will hear part of an interview with a woman called Barbara Darby, who works
as a casting director in the film industry. Choose the answer which fits best
according to what you hear.
1. According to Barbara, a casting director needs above all
A. to learn from experience B. to be a good communicator
C. to have a relevant qualification D. to have a natural feel for the job
2. Barbara says that she looks for actors who
A. can play a variety of roles B. complement each other
C. accept her way of working D. think deeply about a part
3. At which stage in the casting process does Barbara meet the actors?
A. before she goes to see them performing live
B. once the director has approved them
C. before a final short list is drawn up
D. as soon as a final selection is made
4. Barbara explains that what motivates her now is a need for
A. personal satisfaction B. professional recognition
C. a glamorous lifestyle D. financial security
5. What made Barbara give up her job for a while?
A. She'd become tired of travelling
B. She was ready to try something new
C. She felt she'd been put under too much pressure
D. She found that she was no longer as committed to it

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Activity number 2 (10 points)
Questions 1 - 3
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A
NUMBER for each answer
Presentation focus: 1. ____________________ animals
Presentation time: 20 minutes
Pros: Plenty of 2. ____________________ for the presentation;
interesting subject
Cons: Difficult to 3. ____________________
Questions 4 - 6
Choose THREE letters A - G.
Which THREE ways does the tutor suggest Katie and Ian can improve their
presentation?
A. Do their research on the Internet
B. Limit the amount of detail within the presentation
C. Separate the presentation into clearer sections
D. Use some video clips
E. Focus on only a selection of animals
F. Make sure they practise the presentation
G. Think of some discussion questions for the audience

4. _________ 5. _________ 6. _________

Questions 7 - 10
Complete the diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A
NUMBER for each answer

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 7

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PART 2: PHONETICS (5 points)

I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the other three. (2.5 points)
1. A. tension B. measure C. confusion D. explosion
2. A. decided B. hatred C. sacred D. warned
3. A. vintage B. montage C. advantage D. average
4. A. archive B. orchid C. orchard D. orchestra
5. A. pirate B. inflate C. private D. moderate
II. Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three.
(2.5 points)
1. A. habitable B. infamously C. geneticist D. communism
2. A. palatable B. palatal C. palate D. palatial
3. A. secretarial B. sedentary C. sedative D. sectional
4. A. tranquil B. transcript C. transient D. transitor
5. A. organism B. orient C. origami D. ornament

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PART 3: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 points)
I. Choose the correct answer. (5 points)
1. With _________, it’s easy to see that a mistake has been made.
A. rear view B. overlook C. retrospect D. hindsight
2. In August we always go to this wonderful little Greek village, miles from anywhere
and really off the beaten _________.
A. road B. track C. path D. lane
3. The woman accused of shoplifting was found not guilty and was _________.
A. acquitted B. liberated C. excused D. interned
4. You’re not supposed to park on the hard _________ except in an emergency.
A. lane B. shoulder C. leg D. area
5. We can always find out what books the author consulted by referring to the
_________.
A. index B. bibliography C. key D. dust jacket
6. I know you have a good voice and have ambitions to be an opera singer but don't give
up your day ________ yet!
A. situation B. work C. job D. place
7. I am in the __________ as to where Chris was last night.
A. shade B. dark C. pink D. black
8 Breaking his leg dealt a __________ to his chances of becoming a professional
footballer.
A. thump B. strike C. hit D. blow
9 Jane is a sympathetic listener. She lent me a(n) __________when I lost my job.
A. mind B. mouth C. ear D. eye
10. Let's make a dash for the train now as the rain seems to be __________ off.
A. easing B. slowing C. reducing D. running
11. Our journey was ____________by the icy roads, forced us to drive very slowly.
A. obstructed B. impeded C. barred D. blocked
12. Before the parachute jump he was carefully __________ in safety procedures.

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A. shown B. instructed C. presented D. familiarised
13. She __________ her daughter to the care of a babysitter for the evening.
A. entrusted B. consigned C. confided D. resigned
14. The engineer __________ the machine with a hammer and, miraculously, it roared
back to life.
A. slapped B. smacked C. whacked D. punched
15. Fighting among rebel soldiers _________ last night and a curfew has now been
imposed on the city.
A. enhanced B. aggravated C. heightened D. intensified
16. While other companies collapsed in the economic recession, Cartwright Ltd
__________ and share prices rose.
A. earned B. exploited C. profited D. gained
17. Rebecca __________ her fiancé across the face during an argument and walked out
of the restaurant.
A. smashed B. slapped C. struck D. punched
18. The judge's ruling __________ a wave of protest campaigns across the country.
A. provoked B. instigated C. launched D. commenced
19. Although she was able to walk with the aid of crutches, having a broken ankle
__________ her movements considerably.
A. barred B. hindered C. intervened D. blocked
20. The Oscar winning actress simply _________ charm and professionalism in her
acceptance speech.
A. exuded B. excluded C. expunged D. extricated
II. Find ten mistakes in this passage and correct them. (5 points)
Line
RELAXATION
1 True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping on in front of the
2 television with a welcome drink. Also is it about drifting into an exhausted sleep.
3 Useful though these responses to tension and over-tiredness may be, we should

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4 distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in spite of quality and effect.
5 Regardless of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same
6 time passive awareness, in which our bodies are in rest while our minds are awake.
7 Moreover, it is so natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as
8 resting. Having relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to
9 everything we do, so as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day,
10 more than one of exhaustion.
11 Unfortunately, as a result of living in today competitive world, we are under
12 constant strain and have difficulty in coping, feeling alone nurturing our body's
13 abilities. That needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With this in mind
14 we must apply ourselves to understanding stress and the nature of its causes,
15 however deep-seated.

Your answer:
Line Mistakes Corrections
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

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III. Complete the following sentences with suitable prepositions or particles. (5
points)
1. Faced with such formidable opposition to his proposal, he had no choice but to back
______________.
2. I don't know what he's been ________________ but he looks very embarrassed.
3. The children were late and had to make a dash _______________the school bus.
4. Strictly ____________ the record, his work is below standard.
5. This diamond ring came ______________ me from my great-grandmother.
6. She drew the lecture ______________ to nearly three hours although it was only
supposed to last an hour.
7. I'm afraid their business is on the verge of folding ______________ due to a lack of
orders.
8. She doesn't eat crisps or chocolate; she's _______________ health food.
9. Our dog has been _______________ its food for days now.
10. Do you know what's _______________ at the cinema tonight?
11. I've met Elizabeth Taylor _______________ the flesh. I even shook her hand.
12. The roses have been _______________ for a few days now.
13. Susan gets all the perks because she's _______________ the administration.
14. The child showed no animosity _______________ her new stepbrother.
15. We were shocked when she called him an idiot ____________ his face.
16. Half the staff are ______________ the flu this week.
17. She feels it is _______________ her to socialise with uneducated people.
18. As a vegetarian, Paul is _______________ people who eat meat.
19. He'll be _______________ it when his parents discover he took the money.
20. If you can bear _______________ me a little longer, I'll try to explain the reasons
behind our actions.

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IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the verbs given. (5
points)
a. Hello, you (1. be) ______________________ Helen. I'm Peter's brother, George.
b. We (2. help) ______________________ but you didn't tell us that you were in trouble.
c. The girl got into a lot of trouble. She (3. not/ tell) ______________________ a lie.
d. The huge damage (4. now/ report) ______________________ (5. cause)
______________________ by the recent violent earthquake.
e. I don't approve of people (6. smoke) ______________________ in public places.
f. If you don't mind, I'd sooner you (7. practice) ______________________ your violin
somewhere else.
g. They were fortunate (8. rescue) ______________________ from the fire before the
building collapsed.
h. She regretted (9. not/ learn) ______________________ how to ride a bicycle when she
was young.
i. The US postal service policy for check approval includes a requirement that two pieces
of identification (10. present) ______________________
j. The uneaten breakfast was still on the table. She (11. must/ call)
______________________ away in a hurry.
k. You (12. speed) ______________________ then; otherwise, the policeman (13. not/
stop) ______________________you.
l. The faulty goods had better (14. return) ______________________ to the shop by
Friday.
m. I'm on the island for my two-week vacation and I (15. love)
______________________ every minute of it.
n. You (16. be) ______________________ sure the answer (17. be)
______________________ what it (18. be) ______________________? In my opinion,
it isn't right. Surely you (19. forget) ______________________ (20. include)
______________________ something essential?

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V. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that
fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (0). (5 points)
Example: 0. COURTEOUS
BOOK PUBLICISTS
The (0) _____________________ smile of an author selling COURTESY
books, signing copies or chatting on television shows can be (1)
_____________________. Behind the scenes of the book tour that DECEIVE
has become as much a part of the modern bestseller as print and
paper, the writer may be a (2) _____________________ for a CONTEND
Golden Dartboard Award.
This is the Oscar for authors (3) _____________________ ALLEGE
behaving badly, an informal award nominated by the weary,
sometimes (4) _____________________ publicists who travel TRAUMA
from city to city garnering publicity and sales. They call
themselves "(5) _____________________" and "wet nurses" as BABY
they tend to fragile egos and (6) _____________________ CONVENTION
demands of authors freed from their word processors.
Among the most feared (7) _____________________ for the ASSIGN
publicists are the feminist writer who is remembered for yelling at
her publicists in public and in (8) _____________________ COLOUR
language, and the thriller writer whose publicists report that they
have instructions from his publisher to speak only when spoken to.
One (9) _____________________ of a tour with him, who SURVIVE
nominated him for a Golden Dartboard, says, "He treats us all as
his inferiors". However, publicists on his most recent tour say that
he was an absolute (10) _____________________ to work with. ENJOY

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PART 4: READING (25 points)
I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
(7.5 points)
Sad as it is, a social misperception of the disabled is still _________ (1) in many
communities. It is only in a few highly civilised states where the problems and needs of
people with physical or mental incapacities are given the proper _________ (2). In the
remaining countries, the discrimination against the disabled is still practiced in many
_________ (3) of social life. As in the past, they are ignored, denounced and forced to
stay away from the normal community which, unfortunately, isn’t capable of making any
_________ (4) for its less fit members.
For decades, the _________ (5) and hearty part of every society has _________ (6)
the disabled of their fundamental rights as their job applications have been _________ (7)
down, their active participation in business life has on most _________(8) been
disallowed and there has been little concern of their convenience in _________ (9) to
public transport. Equally little effort has been made to help the disabled fully _________
(10) with the able-bodied thus laying _________ (11) for greater community awareness
of the drawbacks that the handicapped have to wrestle with daily.
There’s an urgent need to offer the disabled more adequate assistance and support in
their struggle for putting their basic rights into _________ (12). The key principle is that
the stereotyped approach towards the impaired individuals ought to be _________ (13)
for a more considerate one. Another pressing matter is that the disabled shouldn’t be
_________ (14) on the basic of their handicap, but society should rather focus on
providing them with complete acceptance _________ (15) of any imperfections thus
treating them as fully-fledged citizens.

1. A. infinite B. universal C. abundant D. prevalent

2. A. relevance B. consideration C. approach D. esteem
3. A. ranges B. fractions C. realms D. areas
4. A. accounts B. provision C. measures D. concerns

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5. A. hale B. vivid C. fit D. right
6. A. shelled B. sneaked C. seized D. stripped
7. A. pulled B. turned C. passed D. brought
8. A. occasions B. times C. instances D. events
9. A. entry B. admittance C. access D. exploitation
10. A. collaborate B. incorporate C. ally D. integrate
11. A. foundations B. bases C. grounds D. rudiments
12. A. handling B. operation C. activation D. performance
13. A. replaced B. deputized C. exchanged D. substituted
14. A. measured B. deduced C. reckoned D. appraised
15. A. despite B. irrespective C. except D. nonetheless

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only
one word in each space. (7.5 points)
DANGERS OF TECHNOLOGY
Much has been heard recently (0) about possible health hazards, including memory
loss and brain tumours, from the use of mobile phones. With the possible half a billion
mobile phones in (1) _______________ throughout the world, in Britain (2)
_______________, one person in four owns one, (3) _______________ is worrying
enough, even if, so far, no concrete evidence has come to (4) _______________.
One study by Dr. Alan Preece and his team at Bristol University has shown, however,
in a report in the International Journal of Radiation Biology, that tests on volunteers
demonstrated no effect on (5) _______________ short-term memory or attention span.
Subjects (6) _______________ exposed to microwave radiation for (7)
_______________ to thirty minutes, but the one noticeable effect was positive (8)
_______________ than negative; the subjects reacted more rapidly in one test (9)
_______________ a visual choice. One explanation of (10) _______________ is that
following the transmissions, a warming of the blood led to increased blood flow.

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 For the experiment, places were chosen where the signal was good and the microwave
dose light, and then where the signal was poor and the dose (11) _______________
higher. The subjects were tested for recall and mental alertness (12) _______________
exposure to microwaves characteristic of analogue phones, digital phones or no phones at
all, without knowing (13) _______________ they were exposed to.
It is, of course, early days (14) _______________ and the sample may not be large
(15) _______________ to generalise from. More research needs to be done.

III. Read the passage and answer the following questions. (5 points)
Meteorite Impact and Dinosaur Extinction
There is increasing evidence that the impacts of meteorites have had important
effects on Earth, particularly in the field of biological evolution. Such impacts continue to
pose a natural hazard to life on Earth. Twice in the twentieth century, large meteorite
objects are known to have collided with Earth.
If an impact is large enough, it can disturb the environment of the entire Earth and
cause an ecological catastrophe. The best-documented such impact took place 65 million
years ago at the end of the Cretaceous period of geological history. This break in Earth’s
history is marked by a mass extinction, when as many as half the species on the planet
became extinct. While there are a dozen or more mass extinctions in the geological
record, the Cretaceous mass extinction has always intrigued paleontologists because it
marks the end of the age of the dinosaurs. For tens of millions of years, those great
creatures had flourished. Then, suddenly, they disappeared.
The body that impacted Earth at the end of the Cretaceous period was a meteorite
with a mass of more than a trillion tons and a diameter of at least 10 kilometers. Scientists
first identified this impact in 1980 from the worldwide layer of sediment deposited from
the dust cloud that enveloped the planet after the impact. This sediment layer is enriched
in the rare metal iridium and other elements that are relatively abundant in a meteorite but
very rare in the crust of Earth. Even diluted by the terrestrial material excavated from the
crater, this component of meteorites is easily identified. By 1990 geologists had located
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the impact site itself in the Yucatán region of Mexico. The crater, now deeply buried in
sediment, was originally about 200 kilometers in diameter.
This impact released an enormous amount of energy, excavating a crater about twice
as large as the lunar crater Tycho. The explosion lifted about 100 trillion tons of dust into
the atmosphere, as can be determined by measuring the thickness of the sediment layer
formed when this dust settled to the surface. Such a quantity of material would have
blocked the sunlight completely from reaching the surface, plunging Earth into a period
of cold and darkness that lasted at least several months. The explosion is also calculated
to have produced vast quantities of nitric acid and melted rock that sprayed out over
much of Earth, starting widespread fires that must have consumed most terrestrial forests
and grassland. Presumably, those environmental disasters could have been responsible for
the mass extinction, including the death of the dinosaurs.
Several other mass extinctions in the geological record have been tentatively
identified with large impacts, but none is so dramatic as the Cretaceous event. But even
without such specific documentation, it is clear that impacts of this size do occur and that
their results can be catastrophic. What is a catastrophe for one group of living things,
however, may create opportunities for another group. Following each mass extinction,
there is a sudden evolutionary burst as new species develop to fill the ecological niches
opened by the event.
Impacts by meteorites represent one mechanism that could cause global catastrophes
and seriously influence the evolution of life all over the planet. According to some
estimates, the majority of all extinctions of species may be due to such impacts. Such a
perspective fundamentally changes our view of biological evolution. The standard
criterion for the survival of a species is its success in competing with other species and
adapting to slowly changing environments. Yet an equally important criterion is the
ability of a species to survive random global ecological catastrophes due to impacts.
Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events
that were unsuspected a few decades ago. In 1991 the United States Congress asked
NASA to investigate the hazard posed today by large impacts on Earth. The group

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conducting the study concluded from a detailed analysis that impacts from meteorites can
indeed be hazardous. Although there is always some risk that a large impact could occur,
careful study shows that this risk is quite small.

1. The word “pose” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. claim B. model C. assume D. present
2. In paragraph 2, why does the author include the information that dinosaurs had
flourished for tens of millions of years and then suddenly disappeared?
A. To support the claim that the mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous is the best-
documented of the dozen or so mass extinctions in the geological record
B. To explain why as many as half of the species on Earth at the time are believed to have
become extinct at the end of the Cretaceous
C. To explain why paleontologists have always been intrigued by the mass extinction at
the end of the Cretaceous
D. To provide evidence that an impact can be large enough to disturb the environment of
the entire planet and cause an ecological disaster
3. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3 about the location of the
meteorite impact in Mexico?
A. The location of the impact site in Mexico was kept secret by geologists from 1980 to
1990.
B. It was a well-known fact that the impact had occurred in the Yucatán region.
C. Geologists knew that there had been an impact before they knew where it had
occurred.
D. The Yucatán region was chosen by geologists as the most probable impact site
because of its climate.
4. According to paragraph 3, how did scientists determine that a large meteorite had
impacted Earth?
A. They discovered a large crater in the Yucatán region of Mexico.
B. They found a unique layer of sediment worldwide.

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C. They were alerted by archaeologists who had been excavating in the Yucatán region.
D. They located a meteorite with a mass of over a trillion tons.
5. The word “excavating” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. digging out B. extending C. destroying D. covering up
6. According to paragraph 4, all of the following statements are true of the impact at
the end of the Cretaceous period EXCEPT:
A. A large amount of dust blocked sunlight from Earth.
B. Earth became cold and dark for several months.
C. New elements were formed in Earth’s crust.
D. Large quantities of nitric acid were produced.
7. The phrase “tentatively identified” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. identified after careful study
B. identified without certainty
C. occasionally identified
D. easily identified
8. Paragraph 6 supports which of the following statements about the factors that are
essential for the survival of a species?
A. The most important factor for the survival of a species is its ability to compete and
adapt to gradual changes in its environment.
B. The ability of a species to compete and adapt to a gradually changing environment is
not the only ability that is essential for survival.
C. Since most extinctions of species are due to major meteorite impacts, the ability to
survive such impacts is the most important factor for the survival of a species.
D. The factors that are most important for the survival of a species vary significantly
from one species to another.
9. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
following sentence?
"Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events that
were unsuspected a few decades ago."
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Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
A. Until recently, nobody realized that Earth is exposed to unpredictable violent impacts
from space.
B. In the last few decades, the risk of a random violent impact from space has increased.
C. Since most violent events on Earth occur randomly, nobody can predict when or where
they will happen.
D. A few decades ago, Earth became the target of random violent events originating in
outer space.
10. According to the passage, who conducted investigations about the current dangers
posed by large meteorite impacts on Earth?
A. Paleontologists
B. Geologists
C. The United States Congress
D. NASA

IV. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (5 points)
Questions 1-6
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs (A-G). Choose the most suitable headings for
paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below.
List of Headings
(i) A conventional way to process drinking water
(ii) Removals of bacteria and viruses
(iii) New methods are called for
(iv) An ambitious plan
(v) The continuous microfiltration system
(vi) The future of microfiltration plants
(vii) New focus: environment-friendly technology
(viii) Disadvantages of septic tanks
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(ix) The expansion of Memtec
(x) Public’s concerns for waste disposals
(xi) A different approach to cleaning the filter

Example: Paragraph A Answer: iii

1. Paragraph B __________
2. Paragraph C __________
3. Paragraph D __________
4. Paragraph E __________
5. Paragraph F __________
6. Paragraph G __________
Treatment of Waste from Water
A
Conventional approaches to waste disposal are becoming untenable. Most systems bring
sewage in from the surrounding areas to a central plant for treatment, then transport to the
processed waste to the nearest river or sea for disposal. This is inefficient, as it takes 1
million litres of water to transport 200 litres of waste. It also involves heavy investment
in pipes. Indeed, transport accounts for about 80% of waste-disposal system costs, while
treatment accounts for just 20%.
B
This must change, especially as demands on treatment grow. Tap water is increasingly
subject to pollution, from both the atmosphere and waste disposal. Regulations governing
water quality are being tightened in response, but conventional treatment systems are not
up to the job. These systems typically date back to the last century, and they are based on
principles known to the Romans. For example, drinking water in Yokohama, Japan,
comes from a plant that originated in 1887. At the plant, incoming water flows through a
coarse filter to eliminate large particles, then through a sand filter to remove smaller
particles and bacteria. But because viruses are small enough to slip through sand, the

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water still must be disinfected with chlorine and left to stand for several hours before it is
drinkable.
C
As population densities in cities increase, appropriate methods for treating waste water
are needed urgently. In Japan, engineering companies are eyeing emerging markets for
environmentally sound treatment systems. Authorities are also looking to upgrade
backward infrastructure, as 44% of Japanese homes are connected to sewage systems and
the remainder on septic tanks. But they would prefer not to spend a fortune on pipes.
Japan’s Health and Welfare Ministry began experiments to develop new technology for
clean-water systems. The project’s focus is to evaluate systems that use sophisticated
filtration techniques based on membranes.
D
Perhaps the most distinctive of the systems under trial is one developed by Memtec, an
Australian company. Its continuous microfiltration system consists of a tube into which is
packed thousands of thin polyethylene fibres. The walls of the hollow fibres are highly
porous, allowing liquid to pass, but blocking particles larger than 0.2 micrometres. That
is small enough to exclude bacteria and viruses.
E
But the clever part involves how the filter is cleaned. Conventional microfiltration
systems dislodge solids that have accumulated on the surface of their membranes by
pumping filtered liquid back through them at high speed. This takes a lot of energy and
means membranes must be replaced often. Memtec’s system adopts a different approach.
At regular intervals, says every half an hour, input to the filter is shut off, and all liquid
except the amount trapped in the pores of the membrane. Then a fast-activating valve is
opened to reduce the pressure on the outside. The still-pressurized air inside the fibre
burst across the membrane, pushing the liquid out of the pores. The wall of water is
powerful enough to lift the solids of the surface. In effect, the membrane cleans itself.
And because it is not subject to stress, the filter lasts for several years.
F
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Memtec’s system has been successful in low-volume, high value-added applications. It is
widely used in the drinks business to filter fruit juice, wine, beer and sake. Now the
company has scaled up its membranes for use in high-volume markets such as drinking
water and waste-water treatment. It is trying to persuade other large engineering
companies to design its filters into their integrated treatment systems. The company has
already demonstrated that its membranes can be applied on a large scale. They form the
core of what is believed to be the world’s largest continuous microfiltration plant build at
Blackheath in the Blue Mountains near Sydney. During 21 weeks of trials, the A$2.3-
million (US$1.7 million) plant treated 3 million litres of sewage daily. Measurements
showed that the filtered water contained no bacteria or viruses. In fact, it was cleaner than
the river into which it was released.
G
Plants such as this have the potential to revolutionise water-treatment infrastructure.
Huge centralised plants connected by hundreds of kilometres of pipes can be replaced
with compact units located next to the communities they serve, returning the water they
treat to adjacent streams. Because the plants are energy-efficient, they will be cheap to
operate. The benefits to the environment will be huge.

Questions 7-1: Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the
above reading passage? Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the writer;
NO if the statement does not agree with the writer;
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage.
Example: Conventional treatment of waste water should be modernised. Answer: YES
______ 7. Septic tanks in Japan are part of the modern technology of waste-water
treatment.
______8. Compression and sudden decompression are the basic working principle for
cleaning microfiltration filters developed by Memtec.
______9. Conventional water treatment systems include microfiltration.

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______10. Japan is facing a more serious problem of waste-water disposal than Australia.

PART 5: WRITING (30 points)

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three
and eight words, including the word given. (5 points)
1. Tim tried to be like one of his heroes when he was a young musician. modelled
 As ____________________________________________ one of his heroes.
2. I don't mind staying in on a Saturday night if I have good company. averse
 I'm __________________________________________ night if I have good company.
3. I'm doubtful that this plan is very realistic. reservations
 I ___________________________________________________ realistic this plan is.
4. Being inexperienced was a disadvantage to her when she applied for promotion.
counted
 Her _______________________________________ when she applied for promotion.
5. Victory was stolen from the sprinter at the finish of the race. robbed
The sprinter _______________________________________________________ line.
6. It is usual for young children to ask a lot of questions. apt
 Young _______________________________________________________ questions.
7. Some people accept that life is full of problems. resigned
 Some people ____________________________________________ full of problems.
8. Some friends nominated him as a spokesman. forward
 Some friends ________________________________________________ spokesman.
9. They may have escaped through the back door. getaway
 They ______________________________________________________ back door.
10. You've been looking miserable all day. moon
 You've _______________________________________________________all day.

20
II. The bar chart below shows the employment of all male and female workers by
occupation in the UK in the year 2005.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
You should write about 150 words. (10 points)

All in employment: by sex and occupation, 2005, UK

* elementary occupations = laborers and catering assistants

________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

21
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

III. Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic (15 points)
With recent developments in technology like e-books, some people feel that printed
media like books, newspapers, and magazines will soon be a thing of the past. Others
feel that these forms of media will never disappear. What is your opinion?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
-The End-
22
 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HẠ LONG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
TỈNH QUẢNG NINH DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11
Thời gian: 180 phút

PART 1: LISTENING (15 points)

I. Activity Number 1: You will hear part of an interview with a woman called Barbara Darby,
who works as a casting director in the film industry. Choose the answer which fits best according
to what you hear.
(5 points - 1 point/ correct answer)
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C

II. Listening Activity Number 2: (10 points - 1 point/ correct answer)

1. nocturnal 2. visual aids 3. narrow down 4. D 5. E
6. G 7. long strides 8. doughnut- 9. lower 10. retractable
shaped/
donut-shaped/
doughnut shaped/
donut shaped
* Note: Answer to questions 4, 5, 6 can be in any order

PART 2: PHONETICS (5 points)

I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other
three. (2.5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer)
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B

II. Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three. (2.5 points -
0.5 points/ correct answer)
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C

PART 3: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 points)

I. Choose the correct answer. (5 points - 0.25 points/ correct answer)
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A
11. B 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. A

II. Find ten mistakes in this passage and correct them. (5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer)
Line Mistakes Corrections
1 1 On Down
2 2 Also Nor
3 4 Spite Terms
4 6 In At
5 7 So As
6 8 Having Being
7 10 More Rather
8 11 Today Today's
9 12 Feeling Let
10 13 That What

1
III. Complete following sentences with suitable prepositions or particles. (5 points - 0.25 points/
correct answer)
1. down 2. up to 3. for 4. off 5. down 6. out 7. up 8. 9. off 10. on
to towards
11. in 12. out 13. in 14. 15. to 16. 17. 18. 19. in 20. bear
with towards down beneath down for
with on

IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the verbs given (5 points - 0.25
points/ correct answer)
1. must be 2. could have 3. shouldn't have 4. is now reported 5. to have been
helped told caused
6. smoking 7. practised 8. to have been 9. not learning/ 10. (should) be
rescued not having learnt presented
11. must have 12. must have 13. wouldn't have 14. be returned 15. am loving
been called been speeding stopped
16. Are you sure 17. is 18. should be 19. have you 20. to include
forgotten

V. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the
space in the same line. (5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer)
1. deceptive 2. contender 3. allegedly 4. traumatized 5. babysitters
6. unconventional 7. assignments 8. colourful 9. survivor 10. joy

PART 4: READING (25 points)

I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. (7.5 points - 0.5
points/ correct answer)

1. D 2. B 3.D 4.B 5.A 6.D 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.D 11.A 12.B 13.C 14.D 15.B

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in
each space. (7.5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer)
1. use 2. today/ alone 3. which 4. light 5. their
6. were 7. up 8. rather 9. to/ with 10. this
11. much 12. after/ 13. what 14. yet 15. enough
following

III. Read the passage and answer the following questions. (5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer)
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. D

IV. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 5 points - 0.5 points/ correct
answer)
1. i 2. vii 3. v 4. xi 5. ix
6. vi 7. NO 8. YES 9. NO 10. NOT GIVEN

PART 5: WRITING (30 points)

I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer)
1. As a young musician, Tim modelled himself on one of his heroes.

2
2. I'm not averse to staying in on a Saturday night if I have good company.
3. I have/ am having (some) reservations as to/ concerning/ about/ regarding how realistic this plan is.
4. Her lack of experience/ inexperience counted against her when she applied for promotion.
5. The sprinter was robbed of victory at the finishing line.
6. Young children are apt to ask a lot of questions.
7. Some people are resigned to life being/ the fact that life is full of problems.
8. Some friends put his name forward as a spokesman.
9. They may have made their getaway through the back door.
10. You've done nothing but moon about/ around all day.

II. The bar chart below shows the employment of all male and female workers by occupation in
the UK in the year 2005.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where
relevant.
You should write about 150 words.

III. Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic (15 points)
With recent developments in technology like e-books, some people feel that printed media like books,
newspapers, and magazines will soon be a thing of the past. Others feel that these forms of media
will never disappear. What is your opinion?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.

The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with
coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-
secondary school students.
3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

3
 TRANSCRIPT
Activity number 1 (CAE practice test plus - test 5 - part 3)
Interviewer: My guest today is Barbara Darby. Her name has appeared on the credits of many well-
known films. Although her role in making those films successful was crucial, you've
probably never heard of her because she works as a casting director. Barbara, welcome.
Barbara: Hello
Interviewer: So it's quite a big responsibility, is it, Barbara, finding the actors for a film?
Barbara: The job of casting director is a highly-skilled one actually, because without the right
cast, there's no movie. Although experience counts of course, intuition is the essential
quality for the job, and that's not something you can learn. You signal things to the
audience through the kind of actors you cast and those signals have got to reflect the
central message of the script and the director's vision.
Interviewer: So how do you go about it?
Barbara: It's an odd process, because it's not just about casting a certain number of actors in role.
The dynamic is incredibly important: if you have a comedian, you have to cast a
particular type of person against them. And it's also about energy; if one person has
quite a low-energy style, then you need someone opposite them to gee them up a bit.
When I meet an actor, I'm trying to find a quality in that person that reflects into the
part in an interesting way, although actors don't really like people saying that, as they
believe they can act every part. But that's how I do it.
Interviewer: And do you do the whole range of films, do you get to choose?
Barbara: I do say no to quite a lot of scripts. I only do films that I feel have something important
to say, or that see life in an interesting way, or are being made by people that I know I
like. After I've read the script, I start to have ideas and talk to people.
Interviewer: And the director leaves it all to you?
Barbara: Well, I do all preparatory work. The first stage is that agents send in photos, and
videotapes and resume' of actors that I've requested or that they think are good. I watch
loads of tapes. If I like an actor, I'll meet them, or go to see them in a play. Then they
go to meet the director who makes the final selection from my shortlist. On average
they see about eight or nine actors per part, but I see many more. When I take on a
film, I'll cast the whole thing, even if a person doesn't speak in a role.
Interviewer: So how did you get into this in the first place?
Barbara: I didn't so much choose my career as fall into it actually. I was hanging around
London, working as a stagehand at the National Theatre and I met someone there who
thought I'd be good at it. He was an agent and he got me a job as an assistant. I've
always been drawn to the bright lights, and this was a step up from what I'd been doing.
Interviewer: And you were ambitious?
Barbara: Yes, but I don't believe anyone who does well isn't. I was initially attracted by the
glamour of it all, but I'm definitely not driven by money, because I still don't have any.
What absolutely drives me now in all parts of my life is that I don't want to be old and
have regrets. We are all able to do something successfully, and I think it's a shame if
you don't achieve that.
Interviewer: But you took a break from your career at one time, didn't you?
Barbara: That's right. I was working on a film which was set in the rainforests of South America.
I loved the place, but I had such a horrible time on the film that as soon as I came back,
I put my whole office into nine binbags and threw them out of the window. I said, "If
that's what the film industry is about, I'm giving up". I stayed away for nine months.
Interviewer: But what went wrong, why did you give up?
Barbara: The worst aspect of the job is that the casting stage is a stressful time in the making of
a film. It takes a lot longer than people think - a big film can take six months. An awful
4
 lot of other people's frustration can land on you, and I've never really learnt how not to
take it personally. I guess it goes with commitment.
Interviewer: But in the end they tempted you back, didn't they?
Barbara: The only reason I came back was because one of my favourite directors handed me a
lovely script. It wasn't even that I wanted it, I'd got plenty of theatre work which I was
enjoying....

Activity number 2 (Collin listening for IELTS - Practice Test - Section 3)

Tutor: Hi, Katie. Hi, Ian. Come on in!

Katie: Hi, Professor Gordon. We wanted to talk to you about our wildlife presentation next week.
Tutor: Have you decided how to organise it?
Ian: Yes, Professor. At first, we were going to focus on the cat family, but then we decided to talk
about nocturnal animals instead.
Tutor: Yes, good idea. And how is your planning going?
Katie: It's going well. We think we have enough material for twenty minutes. The advantage is that
there are so many visual aids we can use. We've found lots on the Internet which we think
will be really interesting for people.
Ian: The problem is that this topic has been hard to narrow down. If anything, we've got too much
information for just twenty minutes. How do you think we could narrow it down further?
Tutor: It is a broad subject. There are a few ways you could do it, but I'd recommend just looking at
a representative sample of nocturnal animals, just four or five.
Ian: Yes, and maybe we could choose one animal from each continent, or a land creature, a
marine creature and a winged animal.
Katie: I like the idea of separating it by different types of animals. And if we limit the detail, we'll
definitely have enough time!
Tutor: But don't limit the detail too much. Also, think how you're going to interest the audience.
Katie: Well, we're going to have a picture for each animal so we can talk through the picture.
Tutor: That's a nice idea, but don't limit yourself to pictures. If you can find any clips of the animals,
use them! Showing brief video clips can keep an audience interested.
Ian: I'll look on the Internet tonight.
Tutor: And think of questions to ask your audience. People like to be involved!
Katie: Yes, that's a great idea. Anyway, Professor, we've been practising our presentation and we'd
like to show you a small section. Is that OK?
Tutor: Well, we just have a couple of minutes left, but go ahead!
Katie: Well, we were thinking of presenting each animal with a picture and describing their physical
characteristics.
Tutor: OK, but not in too much detail. That's just background information.
Ian: We'll start with the jaguar. I'll introduce it by saying that the jaguar is a nocturnal animal and
the only species of the genus Panthera to be found in the Americas. Like any cat, it has
whiskers and it can move quickly. Its spine has great movement, meaning a jaguar can take
long strides, sometimes up to five and a half metres. This can make it a deadly predator as
you can imagine! Moving on to the fur... Its fur is quite distinct. The markings are like black
doughnut - shaped spots on its otherwise yellow fur. People often confuse them with the
leopard for this reason. Now the tail is interesting. Although people think that the tail has
stripes on it, the fur on the tail actually is similar to the body with black circles around the
lower section. The jaguar is generally a creature to be feared...Oh, yes, I should have
mentioned this earlier. Sorry. Like most cats, it has sharp, retractable claws.
Tutor: Yes, that's fine, but be careful. The jaguar is usually though of as nocturnal, but strictly
speaking, it's crepuscular, in other words, most active between dusk and dawn, but as you
5
 mention this, you can put it under the umbrella of nocturnal. Is that all?
Katie: Yes, I think so. Thanks, Professor.

6
 Sở Giáo Dục Và Đào tạo Thái ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
Bình
Trường THPT chuyên Thái Bình

TRANG PHÁCH

MÔN: Tiếng Anh (khối 11) Chữ ký giám thị 1:

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút. ...............................
(không kể thời gian giao đề)
Chữ ký giám thị 2:
...............................

PART I : LISTENING: You are going to listen to the tape recordings twice.
Section 1: Listen to the news item and answer following questions
1. Who thinks too much televison is bad for children? -
…………………………………………………….
2. Why do children spend time watching television?-
…………………………………………………….
3. What does the woman think about the research?-
…………………………………………………….
4. What is happening to many children at school?-
…………………………………………………….
5. Who does the agency aim to help? -
…………………………………………………….

Section 2: A woman is telling a strange story. Listen to the recording and choose the best
answer (A, B, or C) for each of the following questions(10pts.)
1. What is the story about?
A. How superstitious the speaker is.
B. How he has become superstitious.
C. A ghost story the speaker has imagined.
2. When did the story take place?
A. Two years ago. B. Two months ago. C. Two weeks ago.
1
3. Where was the speaker living at the time?
A. France. B. Frankfort, Germany C. Franklin
4. What did he do at that time?
A. He was a businessman. B. He was involved in finance. C. He was a reporter on
finance.
5. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. The visitor was one of the speaker’s closest friends.
B. The visitor and the speaker went to the same university.
C. The visitor would come by train.
6. When did the telephone ring for the first time?
A. At three Saturday morning. B. At three Saturday afternoon. C. At three Sunday morning.
7. How many times did the telephone ring?
A. Twice. B. Three times. C. Four times.
8. What was the speaker doing when there was knock at the door?
A. He was boiling some water. B. He was cooking in the kitchen. C. He was making
some coffee.
9. Which of the following does not describe Roger?
A. Man of a few words. B. Introvert. C. Talkative.
10. What did the speaker do after letting Roger in?
A. He sat down and talked with Roger.
B. He went to the kitchen to bring out the coffee.
C. He went to the kitchen to finish pouring the coffee.
PART II: PHONETICS
1.Find word that has underlined part pronounced differently from the other three words
in each question.
1. A. scenic B. species C. routine D. destination.
2. A. entertain B. humane C. magazine D. brain.
3. A. said B. laid C. lain D. paid.
4. A. future B. culture C. mature D. fortunate.
5.A. coughed B. laughed C. weighed D. matched.
2Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other words in each
question.

2
6. A. facilities B. confirm C. comedy D. refrigerator.
7. A. photography B. preference C. wilderness D. outdoor.
8. A. visual B. insert C. technical D. miracle.
9. A. responsibility B. submarine C. comprehend D. recommend.
10. A. diversity B. amphibian C. heritage D. surprise.
PART III- LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. VOCABULARY
Choose the best answer.

1. The matter was so delicate that none of the ministers knew how to...........it.
A. manipulate B. deal C. handle D. affect
2. Betty told her younger sister to..............her alone she didn't feel like playing games.
A. put B. leave C. set D. make
3. The students have asked their professor to................making a test until after Christmas.
A. postpone B. interupt C. await D. terminate
4. Now that the 9.30 train has been cancelled, we have got plenty of time to.........before the
next one arrives.
A. expire B. spare C. abound D. exhaust
5. Mr smith ate his breakfast in great.............so as not to miss the bus to Liverpool.
A. speed B. pace C. rush D. haste
6. The handwriting is completely...................This note must have been written a long time
ago.
A. inedible B. indellible C. illegible D. unfeasible
7. To everybody's .............., the doctor declared the boy's life was out of danger.
A. calmness B. soothe C. peace D. relief
8. This species of mosquito can be dangerous, but happily, it is rather.......in this are.
A. rare B. minor C. few D. scarely
9. The whole situation is getting out of .............Let's do something before it turns into a bitter
row.
A. capacity B. charge C. hand D. discipline
10. I know it works in theory, but try putting it into..........and you 'll find out it's a failure.
A. operation B. exercise C. performance D. procedure
11. I wouldn't realized about the possible risk of setting the factory in fire if Bob hadn't
......my attention to it.
A. sought B. drawn C. showed D. caught
12. It was mindless of you to......Sam in the face. You should have never have done it if you
expect him to love you.
A. slam B. clap C. slap D. clasp
13. I can hardly think of Jenny being able to .........the aim she has set herself.
A. implement B. accomplish C. triump D. succeed
14.It had been assumed Phillip would take over the manager's post after the man retired . But
, it never came to..............since he 'd decided to change his place of work.
A. final B. pass C. occurence D. being
15. Eric's father works as an interpreter. The man is .........in three languages.
3
a. fluent B. outspoken C. speechless D. knowledgeable
16. Our karate master is as quick as ...............
A. wave B. thunder C. current D. lightning
17. Her perfect manners and exceptional erudition is an effect of her strict upper-class..........
A. upstanding B. upkeep C. upbringing D. uphold
18. This pupil is notorious for playing............from his mathematics lessons.
A.truant B. runaway C. absent D. joyride
19. Andrew is a very disciplined employee. He ...........great importance to coming to work in
time.
A. affixes B. attributes C. admits D. attaches
20. The scientists broke down as they realized that all their efforts had gone to..............
A. loss B. failure C. waste D. collapse

II. Correct 10 mistakes in the following paragraph.

Lorna Steel possibly is the most talented actress the world has seen. Her exciting
career covers sixty years. She usually made at least five films the year. She will probably
be remembered like the most popular actress of our time. The film industry was deeply
shocked when she announced her retirement last year. She had been going to the studios
by a huge black luxurious limousine everyday for the past 40 years. No one quite could
believe her presence would any longer brighten up our cinema screens. She now is retired
and lives in an extremely large beach house near the Mexican border. Those days she
makes very rarely any public appearances. She is still beautiful, but now prefers to devote
her valuable time in looking through old, stray dogs.
III.. PREPOSITIONS
Fill in the correct preposition
1. Tom is envious ………………his friends.
2. They decided ………………..a quiet wedding.
3. He was found guilty………….six robberies.
4. His openness and sincerity are the key ……………..his political success.
5. I’m always being mistaken …………………my cousin.
6. Most people are indifferent ………………… the welfare of the homeless.
7. Don’t put the blame ……………..him. It’s not his fault.
8. He charged me $10……………….the repairs.
9. More money is needed to help care …………….the homeless.
10. I’m obliged ………………you………………..all your invaluable assistance.
11. The government has allowed the coal industry to run…………............

12. Why didn’t you stick……..………….for me instead of saying nothing?

4
13. The next day, teams of local people set ……………clearing up the damage.

14. No one expected the government to stand………………….the agreement.

15. Hundreds of people turned…… ………….in the rain to see the prince.

16. My mother told me……… for coming home late from school.

17. It was surprising how quickly that fashion caught ………. ………………

18. The police have promised to look ……………the problem.

19. We always welcome you drop …..………..any time you are passing.

20. Let’s run …………..the details of the arrangements just once more.

IV. VERB TENSES/ FORMS.

Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate verb form.

Reporter Philip Taggart visits a farm where the sheep are super fit! Farmers, as you
may (1. KNOW)…………..., (2. HAVE)……………....a hard time of it in Britain lately,
and (3.TURN)…..........to new ways of earning income from their land. This (4.
INVOLVE)…………not only planting new kinds of crops, but also come strange ways of
making money, the most unusual of which has got to be sheep racing. Yes, you (5.HEAR)
…………me correctly! A farmer in the west of England (6. HOLD)………….sheep races
on a regular basis, and during the past year over 100,000 people (7. TURN
UP)…………..to watch the proceedings. “I (8. PASS)…………..….the farm on my way
to the sea for a holiday,” one punter told me, “and I (9. THINK)……….I’d have a look. I
(10. NOT BELIEVE) ……….it was serious, to tell you the truth.” According to a regular
visitor, betting on sheep is more interesting than betting on horses. “At proper horse races
everyone (11.ALREADY/ STUDY)……………..the form of the horses in advance, and
there are clear favorites. But nobody (12. HEAR)………….…..anything about these
sheep. Most people (13.FIND)…………..it difficult to tell one from another in any case.”
I (14. STAY)……….to watch the races, and I must admit that I (15. FIND)…………it
quite exciting. In a typical race, half a dozen sheep (16. RACE) …………. downhill over a
course of about half a mile. Food (17. WAIT)…………….for them at the other end of the
track, I ought to add! The sheep (18. RUN)…………..surprisingly fast, although
presumably they (19.NOT EAT)…………. for a while just to give them some motivation.
At any rate, the crowd around me (20. OBVIOUSLY/ ENJOY)………….. their day out at
the races, judging by their apply happy faces and the sense of excitement.
5
V. WORD FORMATION
Use the words in capitals to form a word that fits the space. Example: 0: PROBABILITY
DANGEROUS WORK
The (0)………….(PROBABLE) of your being killed or injured at work determines
how much life (1)……………………..(INSURE) you have to pay. An
(2)………(ELECTRIC), for example, has a fairly high life (3)…………….(EXPECT)- they
are only at risk from the odd (4)………………..(FAULT) cable- and therefore in a low risk
(5)……………(CLASSIFY).
Higher premiums are paid by people who have more (6)…………….(DANGER) jobs such a
(7)………………(CONSTRUCT) workers. There were sixty-five deaths on building sites
last year alone. (8)……………(FORTUNATELY), most accidents and deaths are caused by
a (9)…………(TEND) to ignore (10)……………(SAFE) regulations, when simple
precautions and good sense can prevent fatalities.

PART IV- READING

1: Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C, D) best fits each space. (10p.)

6
2: Fill ONE suitable word in the blank.
Skateboard
Some sports or activities have traditionally been (1)………. with you people, even
though it is not always clear why. Skateboarders, for instance, are expected to
(2)……….teenagers wearing clothes four sizes too big for them. When you come to think
of it, there’s (3)………..practical reason why people over the age of 21 shouldn’t take
(4)………the sport.
Skateboarding involves a certain (5)………. of falling off the board, (6)……..can of
course be painful, but this also (7)………. to other sports like skiing or surfing. Sports
should not be restricted (8)…………teenagers. There is (9)……….wrong with a grown -
up gliding down the road on his or her board.
(10)……………the same time, I must confess that I (11)………. a certain sympathy
for my niece Emily when her father, my older brother Tom, announced that he was going
skateboarding with her. At the age of 14 you are very conscious of (12)…………other
people think of you. She knew all her friends would laugh at her if she arrived for the
regular Saturday morning skateboarding sessions in the local park with her dad.
Emily felt (13)…………embarrassment would be more than she could bear, so she
kindly asked her father (14)…………he could go skateboarding somewhere else. Tom
realized how embarrassed Emily must felt and (15)…………….. out laughing.

3: Read the passage and questions or unfinished sentences then choose the answerthat
you think fits best.
Johannes Gutenberg was a pioneer in the use of movable type . When he began building a
printing press in 1436, he was unlikely to have realized that he was giving birth to an art
form that would take center stage in the social and industrial revolutions that followed

7
Gutenberg was German, his press was wooden, and the most important aspect of his
invrntion was that it was the first form of printing to use movable type. Although Laurence
Koster of Haarlem also laid claim to the invention, scholars have generally accepted
Gutenberg as the father of modern painting. Before Gutenberg, the printing press was used
only to reproduce pictures, playing cards, and designs on cloth. Designs were cut in wood,
stone, or metal and transfered to parchment or vellum. Sometimes a few words of
explanation were cut into the printing block, but that was the limit of text printing. Books
were copird by hand by monks, which was a labor-intensive undertaking.
Detailed records of Gutenberg's life and wok are neligible; his name doeas not appear on any
of the works credited to him. From what is known , Gutenberg was born in Msinz, Germany,
in about 1400. He worked as a silversmith and also served as a policeman. In 1438, he
became a partner in a block printing firm. From 1438 to 1455, he experimented with metal
type.
Perhaps his most significant innovation was the efficient molding and casting of movable
metal type. Each seperate laetter was carved into the end of a steel punch which was then
hammered into a copper blank. The copper impression was inserted into a mold and a molten
alloy made of lead and tin was poured into it. The metal cooled quickly and the resulting
reverse image of the letter was attached to a lead base. The width of the lead base varied
according to the letter's size (for example, the base of an 'i' would not nearly as wide as the
base of an 'w') . This emphasized the visual impacts of words and clusters of words rather
than evenly spaced letters. This novelty lent elegance and sophistication to what seemed to
many to be the magically perfect regularity of a printed page.
Gutenberg designed a Latin-print Bible which became his signature work.He printed
approximately 300 two- volume Gutenberg Bibles, which sold for 30 florins eac, or about
three years' of a clerk's wage.The copies of the 42 - line Bible that remain - about 40 in all-
are among the world's most valuable books. It is known as the 42-line Bible because most of
its pages were printed in two columns forty -two lines long. The Library of Congress in
Washington, D.C has one of the three remaining complete and perfect sets.
All in all, Gutenberg's contributions to early printing technology should be classed with the
greatest events in the history of the world. It caused a revolution in the development of
culture, equaled by hardly any other incident in the Christian Era. Thus, not only has
Gutenberg's art been inseparable from the progress og science, it has also been an
indispensable factor in the education of people at large. Culture and knowledge, until then
considered aristocratic privileges peculiar to certain classes, were popularized by
typography, although in the process it unfortunately brought about an internal revolution in
the intellectual world in the direction of what is profane and free from restraint.

1. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The history of printing around the world.
B. The contributions Gutenberg made to typography
C. The famous 42-line Bible
D. Different kinds of print type and their applications
2. The word 'aspect' is closest in meaning to.............
A. feature B. type C. relation D. purpose
3. According to paragraph 2, how were books reproduced before the printing press.
A. Monks copied them by hands

8
B. Designs were cut in wood, stone or metal and transfered to parchment or vellum
C. Books were not able to reproduced at that time.
D. Sometimes a few words of explanation were cut into the printing block.
4. The word ' neligible' is closest in meaning to............
A. insignificant B. enormous C.well-known D. limited
5. According to the passage , what lent elegance and sophistication to a printed page?
A. The letters were all the same size
B. A lead base was used for the letters
C. The letters "i' and 'w' were stylized
D. The letters were aligned with perfect regularity
6. The word 'innovation' is closest in meaning to................
A. metal B. blank C. letter D. novelty
7. Why is Gutenberg's Bible called the 42-line Bible?
A. The complete bible was written 42 lines
B. Most pages contained exactly 42 lines
C. Only 42 lines of the bible have been found
D. The bible consisted of 42 lines per volume.
8. The author implies that Gutenberg........................
A. invented the printing press
B. was the to print text
C. only printed a bible
D. was not sucessful at nay job
9. In the last paragraph the author suggests that .............
A. Gutenberg contributed little to the development of printing
B. Gutenberg's art has no connection to the progress of modern science.
C. culture and knowledge in the Christian Era was peculiar to all classes.
D. The invention of movable type was a significant event in world history.
10. Which of the following should not be included in a summary of the passage?
A. The 42-line Bible is cinsidered Gutenberg's finest work.
B. Gutenberg changed the way text is produced
C. Gutenberg was one of the most famous Germans in history.
D. Movable metal type was invented by Gutenberg.

9
4:

10
11
12
13
PART V- WRITING
1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the word given. Do not change the word given (5pts).
1. I tried as hard as I could to make sure that this problem would not arise. (power)
I ___________________________________________________ this problem from arising.
2. I don't think it was reasonable of you to complain so much about the service. (justified)
I don't think you _____________________________________________ fuss about the
service.
3. Laura was faced by a lot of problems during her childhood. (contend)
Laura had a _________________________________________________ during her
childhood.
4. The audience suddenly started to applaud loudly. (sudden)
All ___________________________________________________ from the audience.
5. David played the main role when the proposal was drafted. (instrumental)
David ___________________________________________________ of the proposal.
6. It is unusual for young children to ask a lot of questions. (apt)
Young children.....................................................................................
14
7. David felt uncomfortable in front of those people.(ill)
David seemed really...................................................................
8. The handling of the matter has been heavily criticized by the press. (scorn)
The press..............................................................................
9. When they broke the news, she stayed perfectly calm and controlled. (hair)
When they broke the news...............................................................
10. Laura was faced by a lot of problems during her childhood. (contend)
Laura had...............................................................................

.2;

3: There are many benefits to a good education. Therefore a university education should be
offered to all students, not just students with good high school grade.
Do you agree or disagree?
15
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
and experience.
Write at least 250 words.

-THE END-

Đáp án đề thi HSG khu vực duyên hải bắc bộ 2014

PART I : LISTENING
Section 1:
1. Education officials 2. Because their parents are too busy to interact with their children
3. She is not surprised 4. They can’t express themselves. 5. Parents
Section 2:
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. C
6. B 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. C

PART II: phonetics

1. D 2. C 3. A 4. C 5.C
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10.C
PART III: Lexico-grammar
I.
1.C 2.B 3. A 4.B 5.D 6.C 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.A
11.B 12C 13.B 14.B 15.A 16.D 17.C 18.A 19.D 20.C.
II.
1. possibly is  is possibly
2. the year  a year
3. remembered like  remembered as
4. black luxurious  luxurious black
5. quite could  could quite
6. any longer  no longer
7. now is  is now
8. those days  these days
9. makes very rarely  very rarely makes
10. looking through  looking after
III.
1. of 2. on 3. of 4. to 5.for
6. to 7. on 8. for 9. for 10.to-for
11.down 12.stick 13.about 14.by 15.out
16. off 17. on 18.into 19.in 20.over
16
IV.
1. know 2. have been having/ have had 3. have been turning/have turned/ are turning
4. involves 5. did hear/ heard 6. Holds 7. have turned up 8. was passing
9. thought 10. did not believe 11. has already studied 12. has heard
13. find 14. Stayed 15. Found 16. race
17. is waiting 18. Run 19. have not eaten
20. were obviously enjoying / obviously enjoyed
V.
1.insurance 2. electrician 3. expectancy 4.faulty 5. classification
6. dangerous 7. construction 8. unfortunately 9. tendency 10. safety

PART 4: Reading

2.
1.connected 2. Be 3. No 4. Up 5.amount 6. Which 7.applies 8. to
9. nothing 10. At 11.felt 12. What 13. The 14. If 15. burst
3.
1.B 2.A 3.A 4.A 5.D 6.D 7.B 8.B 9.D 10.C
4.
1. vi 2. Xi 3. Viii 4. I 5. ix 6. iii 7. v
8. most abundant element 9. billions of dollars
10. On-board reformers 11. the airship’s fabric 12. power and acceleration
13. B 14. A
Part 5: writing
1.
1. did everything (with)in my power to prevent/stop
2. were justified in making such a
3. a lot of problems to contend with
4. of a sudden there was loud applause
5. was instrumental in the drafting
6. are apt to ask a lot of questions
7.ill at ease in front of those people.

17
8.has poured scorn on the handling of the matter
9. she didn't turn a hair
10.a lot of problems to contend with during her childhood.

Hết

18
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO YÊN BÁI ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NGUYỄN TẤT THÀNH KHU VỰC ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
-------------------- Môn: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT Lớp: 11
Thời gian: 180 phút

PART ONE. LISTENING (15p.)

Question 1 (5p.)
You'll hear a man talking about living and working on Trinidad. Listen carefully and answer
the questions.
1. Steve Penfold did voluntary service ______
A. before university B. during university C. after university
2. Steve had to pay for _______
A. his travel B. his accommodation C. his day-to-day expenses
3. Where did the charity organisation want to send Steve at first?
A. Trinidad B. India C. Tobago
4. What does Steve say about the population of Trinidad?
A. There are more people of Indian descent than African.
B. The majority are descendents of slaves.
C. There are several different ethnic groups.
5. Steve says that some language terms in Trinidad _______
A. are not connected to the English language.
B. have meanings that have local origin.
C. are from other carnivals around the world.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Question 2 (10p).
Listen to an interview with a man who enjoys flying in a small aircraft called a microlight and
complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
1. Before retirement, Brian worked as a pilot for a company called _______________ for a long
time.
2. Brian feels like a bird when flying his microlight because he doesn't have a _______________
around him.
3. Brian disagrees with the suggestion that steering a microlight is like steering a
_______________.
4. Brian's record-breaking flight ended in _______________
5. Brian organised his flight in advance to avoid needing other people as _______________ on the
way.
6. Brian's microlight was modified so that it could carry more _______________ on board.
7. It took Brian _______________ to plan the record-breaking flight.
8. Brians feels that flying over mile and miles of _______________ was the most dangerous part
of the trip.
9. Brian describes his navigation system as both _______________ and easy to use.

1
10. Brian says that his main problem on the flight was the fact that he became very
_______________.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART TWO. PHONETICS (5p)

Question 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the
others in each group.(2.5p)
1. A. ticked B. naked C. hatred D. wicked
2. A. loath B. smooth C. path D. breath
3. A.exhaust B. luxurious C. luxury D. anxiety
4. A. commerce B. confident C. confess D. conquer
5. A. expansion B. conversation C. convulsion D. precision
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Question 2: Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from those of the others in
each group.(2.5p)
1. A. explanatory B. immediately C. democracy D. trigonometry
2. A. electronic B. agriculture C. secretary D. temporary
3. A. confidently B. consistently C. eliminate D. anticipate
4. A. alternative B. guitarist C. ecosystem D. semester
5.A. heritage B. mysterious C. historical D. particular
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART THREE. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (25p.)

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answers
(A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (5p.)
1. When you are learning a language at home, you can work at your own ________.
A. speed B. pace C. way D. mind
2. I’m afraid that Tim doesn’t take much care over his home work. He usually does it ______.
A. any old how B. any how C. how on earth D. how come
3. Superconductivity will revolutionize the way that energy is used for the next millennium, and
_______ the first truly superconductive substance will be remembered as a technological hero.
A. what the discovery of B. the discovery of C. whoever discovers D. whose discovery
4. Closure of schools took place ___________ falling numbers of pupils.
A. in the context of B. with regard to C. with a concern for D. in consideration of
5. Doctors are often ____________ to accidents in rural areas.

2
 A. called up B. driven out C. called out D. rung up
6. Extra blanket will be supplied on ______________
A. request B. requirement C. asking D. need
7. If I’m late for work again, I’ll be________a severe warning from my boss.
A. up to B. in for C. onto D. after
8. We need guaranteed financial ______________ before we can even start the design work.
A. agreement B. backing C. analysis D. plans
9. In ___________, it was a bad idea to pay him in cash.
A. hindsight B. consideration C. retrospect D. knowledge
10. The trade unions called for a 5% pay increase for all public________ workers.
A. section B. area C. zone D. sector
11. I’m afraid I’ve completely lost the ………… of the argument.
A. stream B. thread C. trace D. idea
12. A meal in that restaurant costs the _______ but still it is always packed.
A. world B. soil C. earth D. moon
13. If you can win his attention …………for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much
C. so much the better D. so the much better
14. No one can function properly if he or she is ………… adequate sleep.
A. took away B. deprived of C. derived from D. got rid of
15. I was so exhausted that I went out like………….
A. a baby B. a candle C. a light D. a log
16. If you want to be a rock star, talent helps, but what it really_______ down to is luck.
A. boils B. revolves C. centres D. refines
17. It is true of many things in life that beginning is……………...
A. now or never B. pure and simple C. half the battle D. all very well
18. She had no chance to defend herself: the dog………… for me as soon as I opened the door.
A. ran B. went C. fell D. stood
19. John …………from social activity because he felt embarrassed with people.
A. held on B. held off C. held back D. held out
20. The text doesn’t give you the answer explicitly – you have to……….it from the evidence.
A. convert B. grasp C. reckon D. deduce
Your answers:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Question 2. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give the correction.
Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)
Line 1 There may be a vacancy on the school board next May. The
2 position must be filled before the next school session, which begin on

3
 3 September 7th. Anyone who is resident of Smithtown, at last 21 years
4 old, and interested in fulfilling his or her civic duty may fill out an
5 application for considered by the city council. Applications may be
6 obtained at the City Hall on Center Avenue or at the Smithtown
7 Public Library downtown. Those residents who are current enrolled
8 in adult learning classes with the intent of earning a secondary school
9 certificate are excluding from applying. Please note that applications
10 will be reviewed in alphabet order. Submit your application until
11 January 1st in order to be considered for this position. Use a blue or
12 black pen when filling out the forms. It is not unnecessary to attach
13 other documents such as résumé or cover letters. Candidates, who are
14 invited in through an interview will be asked to bring references at
15 that time. For those interested in becoming involved with city council
16 in other ways, visit office 2B in the second floor at City Hall.
Your answers
Line Mistake Correction
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10

Question 3: Fill each blank space with an appropriate preposition or particle. (5 point)
1. My attention was drawn ____________ the picture on the far wall.
2. The villagers left their homes in the valleys and moved to higher grounds as a precaution
__________ flooding
3. Queen Victoria reigned ____________ Britain and Ireland for over sixty years.
4. I think you have missed ____________ John and Sally from the invitation list.
5. Paula decided to pack ___________ her teaching job and work in a bar.

4
6. He got _________ the examination fairly well although his health had broken down a few days
before it started.
7. He was poor, but he rent a mansion and set ___________ himself as a millionaire.
8. As nobody seems to know what to do next, may I put _____________ a proposal?
9. After the war, several people were tired from crimes ___________ humanity.
10. I’ll leave the key with the porter _____________ convenience.
11. The school examination for eleven-year-olds was done_________ with some years ago.
12. Tuck your shirt ________your trousers.
13. At first Tim insisted he was right, but then began to back ________
14. He is a solicitor________ profession.
15. A huge crowd turned _________ in the pouring rain to cheer the president.
16. I don’t like to make friends with the person who always runs_________ his old friends.
17.They always close at six o’clock ________the dot.
18. It was late when we arrived and the party was ________full swing.
19. He was___________ all accounts a very kind and gentle man.
20. Since I changed washing powders, my clothes have looked whiter and felt softer _______the
touch.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Question 4. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct tenses or forms of the
verbs in brackets. (5p.)
1. There (1. be)…………….nothing else to say, he (2.declare)………….the meeting close.
2. The man (3.enter)……………the small inn, his right arm (4.wound)………..supposedly by
a bullet. He stared at me and then made his way for the table in the far corner.
3. It’s a pity that you (5.not ask)…………., for I (6. help)…………you.
4. The manager (7.move)………….that the meeting (8.adjourn)………… .
5. It’s great pity you (9.not come)………………to Brighton with us last Saturday. As you had
never seen the sea before, it (10. be)…………a new experience for you.
6. The little boy had a lot of trouble (11. convince)…………everyone that he (12.see)…….a
mermaid.
7. The girl got into a lot of trouble. She (13. not tell)………….a lie.
8. I appreciated (14. tell)………………..the news.

5
 9. The sunlight (15.come) through the window (16. wake)…………me up early every
morning.
10. The dog came down suddenly and I suppose they didn’t know which way to turn. If only
they (17. have)…………..a map and a compass with them, they (18. not drown)……
11. He saves $500 a year. By the time he (19.retire)………, he (20. save)……….$ 20,000.
Your answers
1…………………………….. 8…………………………….. 15……………………………..
2.…………………………….. 9…………………………….. 16……………………………..
3…………………………….. 10…………………………….. 17……………………………..
4…………………………….. 11…………………………….. 18……………………………..
5…………………………….. 12…………………………….. 19……………………………..
6…………………………….. 13…………………………….. 20……………………………..
7…………………………….. 14……………………………..

Question 5. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space. Write your
answers in the space provided. (5 p) Your answers
Human activity made its mark on land use and vegetation in coastal
regions of southern Europe long before the first (1. PACK)…..holidays 1……………………..
arrived. By classical times, these areas had already seen extensive (2.
2…………………….
ERODE)……….by natural and human activity, and the process
continues today. 3……………………..
The hospitable climate of the area, long appreciated in literature as 4…………………….
well as holiday brochures, produces seasonal variations in levels of soil 5……………………..
(3. MOIST)………..and consequently in plant growth. In an area where
6……………………..
(4. DRY)………..occur frequently, there was a distinctive soil type at
one time, with plants which had adapted to it. Nowadays though, this 7……………………..
soil cover is no longer in (5. EXIST)…………anywhere in the region. 8…………………….
The early years of the 1980s were (6. EXCEPT)……….dry and this 9…………………….
exacerbated problems brought about by the (7. SUBSTANCE)……….
10…………………….
growth of industry in rural areas and the intensification of agriculture.
Pollution and insufficient water supplies have become problems to
which the landscape is increasingly (8. SENSE)………….. The more
recently this type of land has fallen out of use, the longer it takes for
plant cover to reestablish itself.
6
 The European Union has set up a programme of (9. SEARCH)……
into land degradation in southern Europe, involving forty-four
universities in the (10. GATHER)………..of data which can be used to
inform the policy decisions needed to deal with the issue.
Your answers
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

PART FOUR: READING (25p)

Question 1. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.)
The elementary means of communicating with other people is (1)…………messages by voice.
This fact is widely (2)………..and we recognize the voice as a (3)………..characterizing the
identity of a person. The array of voices is immeasurable as no two are exactly similar. They can
be nasal, resonant or shrill produced in (4)……….with the individual physical (5)………of the
throat.
One possible (6)………..of the art of voice recognition is voice profiling used by police analysts
as a method of (7)……….court evidence in trials. Every year thousands of audiotapes with
recorded interviews or casual utterances are (8)………to the purpose to help identify the probable
culprit. Specialists dealing with the voice investigation claim that people can (9)…….themselves
away by their accents, inflections or other voice attributes like pitch, intensity and loudness. A
recorded sample is usually (10)……..into electric impulses and later transformed into a pictorial
recording which is processed by a computer program. Very frequently voice analysts have a
(11)………..at deciphering the relevant information which may be (12)……..with background
noise or other interesting sounds until they (13)………the desired results.
Thankfully, these efforts help the police detect individuals who threaten their victims by phone or
inform about bomb (14)………..or those who make offensive calls (15)………the peace of decent
citizens.
1. A. commuting B. discharging C. informing D. conveying
2. A. reassured B. acknowledged C. declared D. reckoned
3. A. feature B. matter C. token D. label

7
4. A. consent B. accordance C. dependence D. support
5. A. tendencies B. credentials C. assets D. properties
6. A. operation B. handling C. implementation D. treatment
7. A. substantiating B. facilitating C. pledging D. withstanding
8. A. used B. put C. employed D. set
9. A. give B. turn C. prove D. tell
10. A. reformed B. exchanged C. adjusted D. converted
11. A. stake B. stag C. stack D. stab
12. A. infused B. mingled C. abused D. intruded
13. A. attain B. maneuvered C. elaborate D. succeed
14 A. situating B. deploying C. planting D. settling
15 A. distracting B. dismantling C. dispersing D. disturbing

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Question 2. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with one suitable word.
Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.)
The first London to Brighton run took place on November 14th, 1896. It was organized to
celebrate the (1)______of a law which made it easier for cars in Britain to be driven on the roads.
(2)_________then, the law required a driver and an engineer in the car and a man walking in front
of the vehicle with a red flag warning of its approach.
Since then, this annual run has become one of the most (3)________events on the British
motoring calendar,(4)_________crowds of over one million lining the route. Only the
(5)_______oldest cars, constructed during the ten years between 1895 and 1905, are allowed to
take part in it. Lovingly polished by their drivers, who are dressed (6)_____the clothing of the
(7)______, the cars leave Hyde Park in London at 7.30 am and (8)_______, hopefully, in Brighton
some three hours later.
The 60-mile run is not a race- there’s an official coffee stop on the (9)______and the cars
are restricted to an average (10)_______of only 30kph. The only (11)_______for finishing is a
medal, which is awarded to everyone who (12)________ Brighton before 4pm. The run
traditionally (13)______participants from all four corners of the world, (14)_______Europe, Asia,
Africa and Australia. Since the youngest car is nearly a hundred years old, some of them
(15)____down of course. But for the owners of the 400-plus vehicles, it’s simply being there that
brings the greatest pleasure.
8
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Question 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each
question. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)
Many species of fish, particularly smaller fish, travel in schools, moving in tight formations,
often with the precision of the most highly disciplined military unit on parade. Some move in
synchronized hordes, while others move in starkly geometric forms. In addition to the varieties of
shapes of schools of fish, there are countless varieties of schooling behaviors. Some fish coalesce
into schools and then spread out in random patterns, while others move into close formations at
specific times, such as feeding times, but are more spread out at other times. Some move in
schools composed of members of all age groups, while others move in schools predominantly
when they are young but take up a more solitary existence as they mature. Though this behavior is
quite a regular, familiar phenomenon, there is much that is not completely known about it,
particularly the exact function that it serves and what mechanisms fish use to make it happen.
Numerous hypotheses have been proposed and tested concerning the purpose of schooling
behavior in fish. Schooling certainly promotes the survival of the species, but questions arise as to
the way the schooling enables fish to have a better chance of surviving. Certainly, the fact that fish
congregate together in schools helps to ensure their survival in that schooling provides numerous
types of protection for the members of the school. One form of protection derives from the sheer
numbers in the school. When a predator attacks a school containing a huge number of fish, the
predator will be able to consume only a small percentage of the school. Whereas some of the
members of the school will be lost to the predator, the majority of the school will be able to
survive. Another form of protection comes from the special coloration and markings of different
types of fish. Certain types of coloration or markings such as stripes or patterns in vibrant and
shiny colors create a visual effect when huge numbers of the fish are clustered together, making it
more difficult for a potential predator to focus on specific members of the school. A final form of
protection comes from a special sense that fish possess a sense that is enhanced when fish swim in
schools. This special sense is related to a set of lateral line organs that consist of rows of pores
leading to fluid-filled canals. These organs are sensitive to minute vibrations in the water. The
thousands of sets of those special organs in a school of fish together can prove very effective in
warning the school about an approaching threat.
It is also unclear exactly how fish manage to maintain their tight formations. Sight seems
to play a role in the ability of fish to move in schools, and some scientists believe that, at least in
some species, sight may play the principal role. However, many experiments indicate that more
than sight is involved. Some fish school quite well in the dark or in murky water where visibility
is extremely limited. This indicates that senses other than eyesight must be involved in enabling
the schooling behavior. The lateral line system most likely plays a significant role in the ability of
fish to school. Because these lateral line organs are sensitive to the most minute vibrations and
currents, this organ system may be used by fish to detect movements among members of their
school even when eyesight is limited or unavailable.

1. The author mentions the most highly disciplined military unit on parade in paragraph 1 in
order to……….
9
A. describe aggressive nature of a school of fish
B. provide an example of a way that military units travel
C. create a mental imagine of the movement of a school of fish
D. contrast the movement of a military unit with that of a school of fish
2. The word hordes in paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. shapes B. masses C. pairs D. patterns
3. All of the following are stated in paragraph 1 about schooling EXCEPT that……..
A. it is quite common B. it can involve large numbers of fish
C. it can involve a large number of different behaviors D. it is fully understood
4. Which fish would be LEAST likely to be in a school?
A. A large, older fish B. A large, colorful fish
C. A young, hungry fish D. A tiny, shiny fish
5. According to paragraph 3,……………
A. fish cannot see well
B. sight is the only sense used by fish to remain in schools
C. not all fish use sight to remain in schools
D. fish can see quite well in the dark
6. The word it in paragraph 1 refers to……….
A. existence B. behaviour C. fish D. function
7. It is NOT stated in the passage that the lateral line system ………
A. contains lines of pores
B. can detect movement in the water
C. quite possibly helps fish to remain in schools
D. in fish is similar to sense organs in other animals.
8. The word sheer numbers in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by………
A. solitude B. interlude C. multitude D. similitude
9. It can be inferred from the passage that when a predator attacks,………
A. It cannot possibly consume all members of a school if the school is large enough.
B. It rarely manages to catch any fish that are part of a school.
C. It is usually successful in wiping out the entire school.
D. It attacks only schools that lack sense organs.
10. It is stated in paragraph 2 that …………
A. fish in schools rarely have distinct markings
B. schooling fish tend to have muted coloration
C. the effect of coloration is multiplied when fish are massed together
D. the bright coloration makes it easier for predators to spot fish

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Question 4. There are ten extracts which have been removed from the following passage. Put
an extract from A-L in the correct gap 1-10 to complete the passage. There are two extracts
you're not going to need. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)
One of the most difficult wastes to recycle is mixed plastic,…. (1)… Plastics manufactures
turn their own off cuts into granules that are melted down for reuse. They can also reuse any
single, pure thermoplastic materials….(2)…. The British firm Meyer-Newman of Gwent
10
 recycles complete telephones into new ones. But mixed plastics have unpredictable properties
and low structural strengths because …(3)…. So, it is difficult to make a material with good
and predictable properties from mixed plastics waste.
In the grip of the octopus
One answer is the compatibiliser. This is an octopus-like molecule in which each “arm”
represents a section of a different polymer, that in turn…(4)…. Stirred into a mixture of molten
plastics, each arm of the octopus grabs and reacts chemically with a molecule of one polymer
in the mixture. The result is an alloy rather than a mixture. It is strong….(5)…so it is
potentially reusable.
During the past two or three years many plastics manufactures have …(6)….. But perhaps
the most advanced, “Bennet”, was produced independently two years ago, after 15 years of
research, by the Dutch engineer Ben Van der Groep. His invention is already being used
widely, largely in secret…(7)…
Benet is made up of short sections of several polymers representing the arm of the octopus,
each able to link the molecules of a different polymer in the mixture. The reliable strength of
the plastic “alloys” made with Benner suggests that …(8)….
The vehicles recycling industry is keen to recycle more plastics. ….(9)…, they fear that the
steady increase in the use of irreclaimable plastics will soon make it uneconomic to recover
vehicles for the metals they contain. Some car manufacturers, such as BMW and Mercedes, are
now designing products requesting components that are easier to recycle;…(10)…
A. because of intra-molecule bonding and has highly predictable properties,
B. is characteristic of a different plastic.
C. developed their own compatibilisers
D. Despite the environmental benefits
E. often used in wrappers and containers.
F. they could be used in high-grade, high-cost applications such as car bumpers.
G. it does not have sufficient rigidity.
H. for example, car bumpers made from one material instead of up to seven.
I. as many manufacturers do not want to be seen to be using recycles plastics in their quality
products.
J. such as polythene that are not chemically cross-linked.
K. the different plastic in the mixture are not bonded at a molecular level.
L. always been skeptical about recycling plastics.
Your answers
11
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART V: WRITING (30p.)

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning
to the sentence printed before it. (5p.)
1. She didn’t shed a tear when the story ended in tragedy.
Not ______________________________________________________
2. He was so enthusiastic that he apparently ignored any warning signs.
 Such _________________________________________________________
3. Pop stars are corrupted by the adulation of their fans.
It’s the way _______________________________________________________
4. He sounds as if he’s spent all his life abroad.
 He gives ___________________________________________________
5. What I understand from her words is that it seems neither Cole nor Ledley King will be going
to Japan.
 Reading _________________________________________________________
For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. (5p.)
6. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us. (TAKEN)
_________________________________________________________________
7. The President was impeached because of his financial misconduct. (GROUNDS)
______________________________________________________________
8. The jumper you knitted for my daughter no longer fits her. (GROWN)
_________________________________________________________________
9. Oskar didn’t feel like going out last night. (MOOD)
_________________________________________________________________
10. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night. (EARS)
_________________________________________________________________
Question 2: (10p)
The graph below shows the proportion of the population aged 65 and over between 1940 and
2040 in three different countries.

12
 Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparison where relevant. Write about 150 words

_____________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
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______________________________________________________________________
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______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Question 3. Essay writing (15p.)
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
Parents are the best teachers.
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer. You should give reasons for your
answer using your own ideas and experience. Write about 250 words.
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

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______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
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______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
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______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

-THE END-

15
 BIỂU ĐIỂM VÀ ĐÁP ÁN CHẤM
PART ONE. LISTENING (15p.)
Question 1 (5p.)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. B

Question 2 (10p).
1. British Airways 2. Cabin 3. Motorbike 4. Australia 5. Helpers
6. fuel 7. 9 months 8. Sea 9. Accurate 10. tired

PART TWO. PHONETICS (5p)

Question 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the
others in each group.(2.5p)
1A 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.D
Question 2: Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from those of the others in
each group.(2.5p)
1.D 2.A 3.A 4.C 5.A

PART THREE. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30p.)

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answers
(A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (10p.) 0.5p for each correct answer.
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. D
11. B 12. C 13. C 14.B 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. D

Question 2. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give the correction.
Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) 0.5p for each correct answer.
Line 1 There may be a vacancy on the school board next May. The
2 position must be filled before the next school session, which begin on
3 September 7th. Anyone who is resident of Smithtown, at last 21 years
4 old, and interested in fulfilling his or her civic duty may fill out an
5 application for considered by the city council. Applications may be
6 obtained at the City Hall on Center Avenue or at the Smithtown
7 Public Library downtown. Those residents who are current enrolled
8 in adult learning classes with the intent of earning a secondary school
9 certificate are excluding from applying. Please note that applications
10 will be reviewed in alphabet order. Submit your application until
11 January 1st in order to be considered for this position. Use a blue or
12 black pen when filling out the forms. It is not unnecessary to attach
13 other documents such as resume or cover letters. Candidates, who are
16
 14 invited in through an interview will be asked to bring references at
15 that time. For those interested in becoming involved with city council
16 in other ways, visit office 2B in the second floor at City Hall.

Line Mistake Correction

1. 2 begin begins
2. 3 last least
3. 5 considered consideration
4. 7 current currently
5. 9 excluding excluded
6. 10 alphabet alphabetical
7. 10 until by
8. 12 unnecessary necessary
9. 14 through for
10 16 in on

Question 3: Fill each blank space with an appropriate preposition or particle. (5 point)
1. to 2. against 3. over 4. out 5. in
6. through 7. up 8. forward 9. against 10. for
11.away 12.in 13.down 14.by 15.out
16.down 17. on 18.in 19.by 20.to
Question 4. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct tenses or forms of the
verbs in brackets. (5p.)
1. being 8.(should) be adjourned 15. coming
2. declared 9. didn’t come 16.makes
3.entered 10.would have been 17. had had
4.wounded 11. convincing 18. wouldn’t have been
5.didn’t ask 12. had seen drowned

6.could have helped 13. shouldn’t have told 19. retires

7.moved 14.having been told 20. will have saved

17
Question 5. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space. Write your
answers in the space provided. (5 p.)
1. package 2.erosion 3.moisture 4.droughts 5.existence

6.exceptionally 7.substantial 8.sensitive 9.research 10.gathering

PART FOUR: READING (25p)

Question 1. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.)
1.D 2.B 3.A 4.B 5.D 6.C 7.A 8.B
9.A 10.D 11.D 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.D

Question 2. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with one suitable word.
Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.)
1. passing 2. Before 3.popular 4. with 5. very
6. in 7. period 8. arrive 9. way 10. speed
11. reward 12. reaches 13. attracts 14. including 15. break

Question 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each
question. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)

1C 2B 3D 4A 5C 6B 7D 8C 9A 10C

Question 4. There are ten extracts which have been removed from the following passage. Put
an extract from A-L in the correct gap 1-10 to complete the passage. There are two extracts
you're not going to need. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)
1E 2J 3K 4B 5A 6C 7I 8F 9D 10H

PART V: WRITING (30p.)

Question 1:(5p)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it.
1. Not a tear did she shed when the story ended in tragedy.
2. Such was his enthusiasm that he apparently ignored any warning signs.
18
 3. It’s the way their fans adulate them that corrupts pop stars.
4. He gives the impression of having spent all his life abroad.
5. Reading between the lines, it seems neither Cole nor Ledley King will be going to Japan.
For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.
6. We were not taken in by his smooth manner.
7. The President was impeached on the grounds of his financial misconduct.
8. My daughter has grown out of the jumper you knitted for her.
9. Oskar was in no mood/ wasn’t in the mood for going/to go out last night.
10. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.

Question 2:
Question 3. Essay writing
The impression mark is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: (5p.) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.
2. Language: (5p.) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: (5p.) coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language
gifted upper-secondary school students

Tapescripts

Question 1:
Steve: Hi, Im Steve Penfold and I"m here today to tell you about ray gap year, which I took about
20 vears ago. Unlike many students these days who go travelling or get some work experience
between school and university, I decided to do something completely different after finishing my
degree. I applied to work for a charity organisation. What it does is it sends people with particular
skills to countries where those skills are needed. Apart from having some experience teaching
English to summer-school students, I didnt have any particularly useful skills, I thought, but
luckily I was still accepted. I had to find the money for the flight, but you get free accommodation
- I stayed with a family of five - and you do get paid, but not much. Its a bit like pocket money -
enough to get by. I worked in an orphanage and taught English at a local school.
Where was I? Well, originally I was going to be sent to a village in India, but at the last minute the
organisation decided to send me to Trinidad. Now, this is a fascinating place. It's an island in the
Caribbean. Well, in fact the country is actually two islands - the smaller one is called Tobago,
which is connected somehow to the word tobacco.

19
Anyway, there I was, a young white guy living and working on an island which is mostly a
mixture of descendants from Africa and India. The Africans were originally brought over as
slaves and the Indians came later as indentured workers. That means they agreed to come for a
specific time, but many of them stayed. There are also some Trinidadians of Chinese and British
origin, though the native inhabitants were basically wiped out by colonialisation. I, myself, felt
completely accepted and had the time of my life.
The language everyone speaks is English, so there was no problem for me there, but some
concepts don’t quite translate. They're pure Trinidadian. There's the term ‘liming’ for example,
which means sitting around watching the world go by. Also, theres the famous carnival when the
whole island is taken up in playing mass’. For a whole month around February or March - it
depends when Easter is – everyone's busy preparing costumes, practising calypsos, soca and Steel
pan music and most importantly, partying.

Question 2:

20
21
 SỞ GD& ĐT NINH BÌNH
TRƯƠNG THPT CHUYÊN
LƯƠNG VĂN TỤY
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
( Chọn HSG khu vực Duyên Hải –đồng bằng Băc Bộ lần thứ
VII)
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

KHỐI 11

Thời gian làm bài: 180’

(Đề gồm 05 phần, 20 trang)

PART I: LISTENING: (15p)

I. Listen to the text and choose the correct answer A, B or C:
1. In the past men play football in winter just for ______________
A. releasing energy.
B. enjoying climate.
C. training team spirit.
2. Football used to be regarded as a rough sport for aristocrat in __________________
A. the Victorian era.
B. the Renaissance.
C. the Shakespeare’s time.
3. The official football league of controlling violence is _____________________
A. the police office.
B. the Football Association.
C. the football union.
4. Which of the following is related to the origin of tennis?
A. city hall
B. theatre
C. church
5. Cricket became a popular sport with upper classes in __________________
A. the eighteen century
B. the nineteenth century
C. the twentieth century
II. Listen and answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD
OR NUMBER for each answer.
1
1. What percentage of the students are mature? ……………………
2. What percentage of the students are from abroad? ……………………
3. How are the suburbs described? ……………………..
4. How many students does the university have? ……………………..
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
gap.
5. Newtown is England’s ___________ city.
6, The ____________ is at Salt Lane.
7. A relatively high proportion of students decide to ______________ in Newtown after
graduating.
Complete the notes on using the university accommodation services, using NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap.
8. The university accommodation services office is in the __________________.
9. The university accommodation services have a ________________that students can
look through online.
10. The website also has responses to ________________.

PART II: PHONETICS: (5p)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others:
(2.5p)
1. A. surgical B. surround C. surrender D. survival
2. A. opportunity B. menu C. attitude D. muscular
3. A. physical B. mythology C. rhythm D. psychology
4. A. apartheid B. thorough C. cathedral D. ethnic
5. A. exhausted B. cheetah C. rhinoceros D. alcoholic
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. ( 2.5 pts)
1.A.ingenuity B. bacterium C. phenomenon D. pneumonia
2.A.misinterpret B. advantageous C. adolescent D.
contributory
3.A.marmalade B. infamous C. coincide D. diagram
4.A.compromise B. correspond C. interview D. innocent
5. A. antecedent B. magnificent C. benevolent D. sobriety
2
PART III: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY: (30p)
I. Choose the best answer to each sentence bellow. (5p)
1. I am aware of the honour bestowed ____ me.
A. of B. to C. on D. for
2. When he died, he left his family well provides ____.
A. with B. by C. for D. on
3. What chemical is this? It is ____ a horrible smell.
A. giving out B. giving away C. giving off D. giving up
4. It’s not fair the way my sister is always ____ for special treatments.
A. singled out B. picked off C. taken on D. laid aside
5. Let’s find a place where we can ____ the storm.
A. wait out B. wear off C. shrug off D. pull through
6. My cousin was in a car accident last week. Fortunately, he ____ it with only minor
injuries.
A. put off B. cane through C. take off D. get out
7. You don’t ____ all this nonsense, do you?
A. cordon off B. buy into C. edge out D. hit on
8. I’m not sufficiently versed ____ computers to understand what you’re saying.
A. to B. into C. about D. in
9. After our busy day, we both sat and ____ in front of the TV.
A. nodded off B. slipped out C. flaked off D. knock off
10. The aim of the popular uprising was to ___ the government.
A. knock down B. bring down C. take down D. back down
11. You ___ the umbrella. Don’t you think it silly to carry an umbrella on such a nice day?
A. mustn’t have brought B. didn’t have to bring
C. needn’t have brought D. didn’t need to bring
12. Will three people be enough? – Another three ____.
A. will be B. will do C. can do D. must be
13. – We hardly have any food in the house. – We’ll have to ____ what we have.
A. make it do with B. make do with C. make do with it D. make do it

3
14. I think Ms. Copper is fit for her job as a secretary, ____?
A. isn’t she B. do I C. is she D. don’t I
15. We had intended to go out last night, but we were so tired that we didn’t ____ it and
we stayed at home at last.
A. fight off B. try it out C. feel up to D. get through
16. Higher and higher ____ and then it was out of sight.
A. flew it B. it flew C. did it fly D. was it flying
17. One can’t think of Africa without thinking of Egypt, ____ of Egypt without the Nile.
A. and B. either C. too D. nor
18. Before they go to the university, most senior high school graduates have ____ idea of
what college life is like.
A. no less B. no least C. not less D. not the least
19. The new chief executive moves that a daring innovation ____.
A. will be considered B. is considered C. be considered D. was considered
20. After climbing the ____ of steps, the old man felt quite exhausted.
A. hail B. collection C. flight D. clump

II. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (5p)

There are 10 errors in 10 lines in the following passage. Identify and correct them.
The first has been done for you.

4
Most children with (0) health appetites are ready to eat almost anything (0) healthy
that is offering them and a child rare dislikes food unless it is badly cooked.
(41)_____
The way the meal is cooked and served is most important and an attractive
(42)_________
served meal will often improve a child’s appetite. Never ask a child whether
he likes and dislikes a food and never discuss likes and dislikes in front of (43)______
him or allow nobody else to do so. If the father says he hates fat meat or (44)_______
the mother refuses vegetables under the child’s hearing he is likely to copy
(45)________
this procedure. Take it for grant that he likes everything and he probably
will. Nothing healthful should be omitted out the meal because of a (46)________

supposing dislike. At meal time, it is a good idea to give a child a small (47)________
portion and let him come back for a second helping other than give him as
(48)________
much as he is likely to at all once. Do not talk to much to the child during
the meal times. But let him get on with his food, and do not allow him to (49)_______

leave the table immediately after a meal or he will soon learn to swallow his (50)________
food so that he can hurry back to his toys. Under no circumstance must a
child be coaxed and forced to eat.

III. Complete the following sentences with the appropriate prepositions: (5p)
1. The new law on dropping litter comes ………. force next month
2. People who eat an unhealthy diet are susceptible ………. all kind of illnesses and
diseases.
3. Damage to the building resulted ………. an unusually high wind.
4. My cousin talked ………. length about his recent holiday and bored everyone to death!
5. I applied for a part-time job at the supermarket. They’re going to take me ……….
6. When I was younger I wanted to be an air pilot but I soon went ………. the idea when I
realized I hated flying.
7. Anna: This problem’s driving me crazy!
Joe: Well, have you tried standing ………. from the situation and evaluating it
objectively?
8. The government’s plans to reduce crime came ………. for a lot of criticism from
freedom groups.
9. I was ………. the impression that you like Indian food.
10. This is one of the exceptions………. the rule.
5
11. British Leyland is aiming to push _____ its share of UK car sales to 25% over the next
two years.
12. The factory paid _____ nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured
in the explosion.
13. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were _____ the
dole.
14. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut _____ teaching.
15. I have always looked _____ my older brother for his courage and honesty.
16. I can’t cancel my arrangements _____ such short notice.
17. All the police’s efforts to find him were _____ vain.
18. We were _____ tenterhooks all morning waiting for the phone to ring.
19. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely _____ the beaten track.
20. She’s gone and this time it’s _____ good.
IV. Put each verb in parentheses into an appropriate form. (5p)
Employees protesting at the planned closure of the Magnet electronics factory have
begun a protest outside the factory in Brook Road. It ..(1)…………………....(reveal) last
week that production at the factory, where over 3000 local people
...(2)…………………….(employ), ...(3)………………………...(transfer) to the Magnet
plant in Lution next month. “Why ...(4)………………………....(we not inform) about this
earlier?”
We ...(5)……………………...(only tell) about this two days ago,’ said Marjory
Calder, representing the workforce. “It’s about time companies such as this
...(6)………………... (start) thinking about how local communities ...(7)
……………………... (affect) by their policies. Most people here are buying houses. How
...(8) ……………………….... (their mortgage payments keep up)? And how are we going
to find jobs? I wish I ...(9) …………………………….... (know).” Reg Reynolds of
Magnet ...(10) ………………………...(ask) what ...(11)…………………………..(do) to
help those who ...(12)…………………………..(make) redundant.
“The majority of our employees ...(13)…………………...(offer) work at our plant
in Luton,” he told our reporter, “and every effort ...(14) …………………………..(make)
over the past month to offer early retirement to those who qualify.” When he ...(15)

6
………………………………...(question) about why the workers ...(16)
………………………...(not tell) about the closure earlier, he revealed that the company
...(17) ………………………………….. (promise) a government loan to keep the factory
open, but that at the last minute it ...(18) ………………………...(decide) not to provide
the loan after all. “So don’t blame the company, we’ve done our best.” Local MP Brenda
Stone ...(19) …………………………... (ask) to raise the matter in the House of
Commons, and told us that a letter ...(20) ………………………....(send) to the Minister
responsible within the next few days.

V. Complete the following passage with the correct forms of given words.

OXYGEN NEGLECT INDICATE (X 2) PURSUE PROOF

NATAL AFFLICT EXCEED MOUNT

Mineral, vitamin, and (1) _____ health supplements make up a multi-billion-dollar

industry in the United States alone, but do they really work? Evidence suggests
supplementation is clearly indicated in special circumstances, but can actually be harmful
in others. For the general population, however, supplements have (2) ______ or no impact
on the prevention of common cancers, cardiovascular diseases, cognitive decline,
mortality, or any other major (3) _____ of health. In (4) _____ of a longer, happier and
healthier, there are certainly better investments for most people than a tube of vitamin
supplements.

Particular sub-groups of the population can gain a (5) ______ benefit from
supplementation. Folic acid has long been indicated as a (6) ______ supplement due to its
assistance in foetal cell division and corresponding ability to prevent neural tube birth
defects. The elderly may also benefit from extra vitamin D; calcium can help prevent bone
fractures, and zinc can maintain vision while deflecting macular degeneration in people
who would otherwise be likely to develop this (7) _______.

There is (8) ______ evidence, however, for many people to steer clear or multivitamins.
The prime example is (9) ___________ vitamin A has been proven to increase women’s

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risk of a hip fracture and vitamin E was (10) ______ in a study that demonstrated higher
rates of congestive heart failure among such vitamin users.

VI. Fill in the missing word or words:

Some famous places are disappointing: dirty, cramped, and a bit of a cliché. But
there are others which even (1) ________ you've seen every television programme ever
made about it, are every bit as wonderful as you'd imagined. The Grand Canyon is one of
these and so, (2) ______________ being next door to a main road, is Stonehenge. Another
is Venice which, in its entirety, (3) ___________ a great work of art, each decaying aspect
revealing an (4) ____________ glimpse of water or startling. architecture, individual
building or piazza (5) ________ an exquisite sense of proportion. I return to Venice every
so (6) __________ in the course of my work and on each of these occasions 1 have found
something new to marvel at. Alarm cries about how (7) __________ this can last are
sounded every now and then each time the water levels rise. But the fact that this city is
(8) __________ into the sea seems to add to its romantic atmosphere. ( 9)___________
serious is the depopulation, for it seems that just about every week another family leaves.
Since 1945 more than half the population of Venice has moved to the mainland. The rich
own the great palazzos along the Grand Canal and visit every once in a while but leave the
windows dark for the rest of the time. Mass tourism threatens (10)_______very structure
of the city. It is a sad victim of its own success.

PART IV: READING: (20p)

I. Read the passage below carefully, and complete it with the appropriate words
provided:

VIETNAM TO HOLD TRADITIONAL KITCHEN GOD CEREMONY IN HANOI

Last updated: Friday, February 01, 2013 04:00:00
Vietnam will hold its first-ever large-scale Ong Tao (the (1)_______) ceremony in the
capital city of Hanoi on February 3, the 23rd day of the last lunar month, one week before
Tet, or Lunar New Year.
The festival has been organized by the Ministry of Culture, Sports and Tourism and Hanoi
(2)_______, The Thao & Van Hoa newspaper reported February 1.
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The ceremony will begin early in the morning in the famous (3)_______ village of Bat
Trang with a parade including a 1.2-meter tall ceramic Kitchen God and a 3.5-meter-long
carp crafted by local artists, along with 12 trays of fruits and traditional cakes, through
historic areas of Hanoi, which will (4)_______ up at the Centre for Art and Cultural
Exhibition on Hoa Lu Street.

There, a live carp will be placed in a pond, symbolizing the ascension of the Kitchen God
to the Heavenly (5)_______.

Then the procession will move on to the Ly Thai To statue, where the 12 trays of food will
be placed on its (6)_______, before visiting the Ngoc Son temple, and Thang Long
imperial citadel.

In traditional Vietnamese culture, on every 23rd day of the last month in the Lunar
Calendar, people from every household bid farewell to Ong Tao,thanking him for
watching over their kitchen for another year. Then, the Kitchen God is believed to
visit Ngoc Hoang (the (7)_______) in heaven.

The release of the strong-swimming carp into local ponds, rivers and lakes, is believed to
transport the Kitchen God to heaven. (8)_______ delivering the God, the carp transforms
into a dragon.

It is said that the God will then report to the Jade Emperor on the life of homeowners and
pray for luck, happiness and (9)_______ for all members of the house in the coming year.

The Kitchen God returns to Earth on New Year’s Eve (February 9 this year) and
(10)_______ his duties as the caretaker of Vietnamese kitchens.

1. A. Kitchen God B. God Kitchen C. Mr. Apple D. Sir Apple

2. A. governments B. governors C. authorities D. organizers

3. A. glass B. brick C. mud D. pottery

4. A. go B. come C. wind D. sit

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5. A. House B. Palace C. Villa D. Building

6. A. table B. desk C. altar D. statue

7. A God King B. King God C. Jade Emperor D. Heaven Emperor

8. A. Before B. After C. While D. During

9. A. longevity B. money C. health D. prosperity

10. A. resume B. take C. consider D. make

II. Fill in each gap with one suitable word.

RELAXATION
True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television
with a welcome drink. Nor is it about drifting (1)……………..an exhausted sleep. Useful
though these responses to tension and over-tiredness (2)…………be, we should
distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in (3)……………..of quality and
effect. (4)………………..of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at
the same time passive awareness, in which our bodies are at rest while our minds are
awake.
Moreover, it is as natural (5)………………a healthy person to be relaxed when moving
as resting. Being relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we
do, (6)……………as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day, rather
than one of exhaustion.
Unfortunately, as a (7)…………….of living in today’s competitive world, we are under
constant strain and have difficulty in coping, (8)……………..alone nurturing our body’s
abilities. (9)…………………needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With that in
mind we must apply ourselves to understanding stress and the nature of its causes,
(10)……………….. deep-seated.

III. Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or
answer the question.
‘CLIP CULTURE’
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Could the short films on video-sharing sites such as YouTube ever rival films at the
cinema?
In parallel with its own exponential growth, my fascination with YouTube has galloped
into a raging obsession. Whole evenings, theoretically dedicated to writing, have been
hijacked by a terrible need to click away from YouTube is inevitable. What’s not to be
fascinated by? However slick of however rickety, the best of these mini-movies have an
unmediated quality, a found-object realness that is completely lacking in anything
available in the cinema or on TV.
For a growing number of people, time spent surfing the web exceeds the time spent
watching TV, so who knows if this way of making and watching movies might not
become a huge and serious rival to the mainstream .Many contemporary films-makers
have become fascinated by the video aesthetic, and by camera work with a deadpan
surveillance feel, which has risen in parallel to this Internet revolution.
The cinema, though, does have something in common with the confessional, video blog
aspect of YouTube. The popularity of the horror film The Blair Witch Project was
inflamed by a vast, grassroots Internet campaign which mischievously suggested that the
film’s horrors were real. Plus there’s a cousin to this blurring of fact and fiction in
YouTube – confessional blogs which turn out to be faked by ingenious actors. In the past,
some documentaries that you could see on TV or at the cinema had YouTube qualities, in
that the footage was shot by the participants themselves, although they needed a
professional cinema practitioner to bring it to light. If the unhappy heroes of these films
were making their videos now, they would probably bypass these directors and take them
straight to YouTube.
Where straight cinema and YouTube come more closely into parallel is the use of the
continuous shot: the persistent, unjudging, almost uncomprehending gaze; an edited, deep-
focus scene in which our attention as audience is not coerced or directed. The true
YouTube gems are not the digitally carpentered mini-features. The most gripping material
is raw, unedited footage in one continuous take. Outstanding examples range from
domestic events in the home to windows on international events. Watching these, and
going through the events in real time, is riveting yet disturbing at the same time.

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 Many film directors have tried exploiting the eerie, disquieting quality of video-
surveillance footage. But they should look further as they might all be fascinated by, and
even learn something from, what I think of as YouTube’s comedy genre: bizarre things
captured more by accident than design, which often have a sublime quality. One such clip
of a woman falling down a hole was captured by CCTV; the camera is apparently fixed
above a bar in a busy pub. Someone opens up a trap door directly behind a woman serving
drinks, with results that Buster Keaton himself would have admired. The scene is shot and
framed with unshowy formal perfection; a professional director and crew could work for
months on a slapstick scene and not get is as right as this. It’s something in the way the
woman disappears so utterly from view.
Unlike the cinema, where we have to wait for reviews, you can get your material
reviewed on YouTube instantly since there is a ratings and comments section for each
video. Just as the videos are more real than films, this type of reviewing is also more
honest. Cinema reviews may comment on the predictable elements, such as plot, setting,
actors, etc.. but YouTube reviews are boiled down to the essence of entertainment appeal.
Are you interested enough to watch it to the end? Would you recommend it to your
friends? Do you go back in and watch it again?
The cinema of YouTube has, as its best, an appealing amateurism, un restricted by the
conventions of narrative interest of good taste. It is a quality to be savoured, and quite
different from documentary of the attempts at realism in feature films. What makes it so
involving is that the viewers extend this amateur process in choosing, playing and sharing
the files. Consequently, they supplement production with a new type of distribution. It’s
this that makes YouTube so addictive and unless the cinema learns from it, it may be
outclassed.
1.What does the writer say about his interest in YouTube?
A. He enjoys watching YouTube while he is writing.
B. He prefers the short films on YouTube to the cinema.
C. He finds it hard to resist watching YouTube films.
D. He likes the fact that the films on YouTube are short.
2. The writer suggests YouTube will become more popular because
A. the films in it capture people when they are unaware.

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 B. people have changed how they use their leisure time.
C. people no longer have time to watch full-length films.
D. the films on it mimic real life with real people.
3. The word “unmediated” is closet meaning to
A. direct B. surreal C. of high standard D. mesmerizing
4. In this third paragraph, the writer says the similarity between YouTube videos and
commercial films is that
A. they both produce realistic horror films.
B. they both have directors who are also actors.
C. they both depend on the Internet for publicity.
D. they are both effective at faking reality.
5. The word “coerced” is closet in meaning to
A. pressed B. terrorized C. forced D. bullied
6. The word “eerie” is closet in meaning to
A. awesome B. strange C. obliging D. dominant
7. What does the writer say is the appeal of the continuous shot?
A. that nobody is managing the events on screen
B. that it can be used effectively in any setting
C. that we can see things we wouldn’t otherwise see
D. that the camera acts as our eyes on the event
8. In the fifth paragraph, the writers uses the example of the woman falling to show that
A. YouTube uses a range of sources for its films.
B. it is difficult to replicate real-life comedy.
C. YouTube has funnier films than those at the cinema.
D. it is better when participants are unaware they are being filmed.
9. Why does the writer use questions at the end of the sixth paragraph?
A. to suggest what questions cinema reviews should address
B. to illustrate how YouTube reviews have a single focus
C. to guide the reader about what a review should contain
D. to show the board range of views on YouTube
10. The writer concludes that YouTube is addictive because

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 A. it has so many potential viewers.
B. it offers films which have unique qualities.
C. it shows better films than those available commercially.
D. it has become part of the process of making films.

IV. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow:
TRANSLATION: FROM THE SUBLIME TO THE RIDICULOUS?

According to the Oxford Dictionary, ‘to translate’ is ‘to express the sense in or into
another language’. But what is 'the sense' really? Translating’ a piece of writing is not just
a question of picking up the foreign language dictionary and substitution of a set of words
from one lexicon for those from another, it is ultimately a form of communication,
concerned, as Peter Newmark says, with transmitting culture and truth. For this reason, a
translation should only be attempted after the translator has carefully studied the whole
text, and asked herself a number of questions.
Firstly, it is important that she consider the purpose of the said text,. Insofar as all
writing is a form of communication, does this particular text aim- user instructions for a
household appliance, for example- simply to transmit information to a would-be user? Or
does it strive – an advertisement or hotel brochure or any other piece of publicity material
– to arouse interest so that the reader will want to buy the product, or to stay in the hotel?
Or is its purpose – like that of a piece of literature, or a film – to stimulate the imagination,
to inspire and to entertain – as well as, perhaps, to instruct?
Once she has ascertained the purpose o the text, the translator needs to
consider who the readers of the translated text will be. The readers of the translation will,
of necessity, comprise a different group from the readers of the original – but they are
likely to share certain characteristics. If the original text was aimed at a wide audience- the
‘man in the street’ anxious to get to grips with his new coffee-maker, for example- then the
reader of the translated text is likely to fall into the same category and have the same
expectations. But perhaps the original was aimed at a more discrete and well-defined
group, perhaps by its style and content it has defined its readership.

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 Will the reader of the translation be someone with a good knowledge of the
culture from which the original has sprung, or will he be someone with a very sparse
knowledge of it? It has been said that everything is translatable ‘on condition that the two
languages belong to cultures that have reached a comparable degree of development’; how
up-to-date will he be with the requisite technical knowledge? Balancing the expectations
of the potential readers with those of the writer is, in this way, part of the tightrope which
the translator treads; it will dictate, for example, the extent to which annotations and
footnotes will be needed in the translation, and the way in which culturally-specific
references and items of specialist vocabulary are (or are not) translated.
The style and register of the translated text should, for reasons of integrity and
coherence, mirror that of the original. It would be misleading if the translator of a text
written in a discursive and amusing style were to render it ponderous in translation; just as
it would be wrong for a translator to over-simplify what was originally an erudite piece of
prose. However, this is not to ignore the fact that there might well be instances in which a
text – awkwardly written in the original- could be made more accessible by the translator.
It is a question of judgement.
The style in which something is written often represents a large part of what the
writer is trying to convey, and this is particularly likely to be the case with a work of
literature, such as a poem or novel: it is not only what the writer is saying, but how she
says it which is important. Allusions, deliberate ambiguity, humour, parody, and language
which contains alliteration and assonance, are likely to be features of such a text, and to
represent problems which the translator needs to solve appropriately. To piece of
advertising, for example – may well contain subliminal messages to which the translator
will need to be alert – as to any kind of ‘sub-text’.
Much translation is, by default, given to those with an Inadequate grasp of either the
source or target language – and often both. It is frequently overlooked that the successful
translator needs an excellent knowledge of the source language and a perfect mastery of
the target language in its technical and colloquial aspects. The target language, for the best
results, should be her mother-tongue but, as Peter Newmark says, many translator who
translate out of their own language ‘contribute greatly to many people’s hilarity in the
process.’

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 Complete the sentences below with information from the reading passage. You
may use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
1. Translating a text is more than merely ………………………. ………………. for
others.
2. Each text whether informative, stimulating or instructive has
…………………………………….. that the translator needs to take into account.
3. The reader of the translation may have only a ………………………………..
knowledge of the culture from which the original comes.
Choose the right option A, B, C or D for the following questions:
4. Anything can be translated, provided that ………………………… .
A. the two languages are equally developed.
B. the two languages have similar levels of cultural development.
C. the translator is up-to-date.
D. the translator has the same expectations as the reader.
5. According to the writer, it is sometimes possible to make a translation ………… .
A. clearer than the original. B. overly simple C. humorous D. ponderous
6. When translating a literary text , which one of the following is important for the
translator?
A. the way in which a writer says something as much as the content.
B. Subliminal messages.
C. Allusions.
D. Jigsaw puzzles in texts.
Questions 7-10: The writer mentions a number of judgements that need to be
made by the translator. Which four of the judgements below are mentioned?
List of judgements

A. Weighing up why a writer says what he says.

B. Determining the importance of poetry.
C. Making a decision as to how far to stick to the original.
D. Judging who the target audience of a translation will be.
E. Whether translating is best done from the mother tongue.

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F. Deciding how many explanations, footnotes and comments on vocabulary to include.
G. Deciding on which information to use from dictionaries.
H. Whether to oversimplify a text.

PART V: WRITING: (30p)

I. For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in
meaning to the origin sentence, but using the word given in capital letters. These
words must not be altered in any way.
1. In her new job, Alison determined to impress everyone from the start.
..........................................................................................................................MARK
2. I felt vaguely that something was wrong, but what was it?
...........................................................................................................................BACK
3. He had made no effort to conceal his dislike for me eversince I was promoted over
him.
..........................................................................................................................GRUDGE
4. From my position, I could see quite clearly what was happening.
..................................................................................................................STANDING
5. When they broke the news, she stayed perfectly calm and controlled.
............................................................................................................................HAIR
6. The builders don’t think they will still be doing the renovations at the end of next
week.
............................................................................................................................HOPE
7. Sometimes I have got a bad memory, so most importantly I need regular practice.
....................................................................................................................... SIEVE
8. Although we sent a message, there was no reply.
...........................................................................................................................TRIED
9. He seems to be more active because he has won a scholarship to study overseas.
.......................................................................................................................... LEASE
10. You must take notice of the school rules.
....................................................................................................................IGNORED

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II. The following pie charts and the table show how three countries (USA, UK and
Malaysia) deal with dangerous waste. Write a report for a university lecturer
describing the information below. (10 points)

You should write at least 150 words.

Amount of waste generated in three countries in year 2000:

mt = million tons

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III. Write about the following topic:

Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people
must have a knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Discuss both points of view and give your own opinion.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
Write at least 250 words.

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The end!

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 SỞ GD& ĐT NINH BÌNH SUGGESTED ANSWERS

TRƯƠNG THPT CHUYÊN ( Chọn HSG khu vực Duyên Hải –đồng bằng Băc Bộ lần thứ VII)

LƯƠNG VĂN TỤY MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

KHỐI 11

Part 1. Listening: 15p

I. Section 1: (5p = 1p x 5)
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. B
II. Section 2: (10p = 1p x 10)
1. 13% 2. 9% 3. leafy 4. 28,000 5. greenest
6. third campus 7. live and work 8. Student Union Building
9. private housing database 10. frequently asked questions

Part 2. Phonology (5p)

I. Different sound: (2.5p = 0.5p x 5)
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. D
II. Different stress pattern: (2.5p = 0.5p x 5)
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A

Part 3. Grammar & Vocabulary: (30p)

I. Vocab& structure: 5p = 0.25p x20

1. C 2. C. 3. C 4. A 5.A 6.B 7.B 8.D 9.A 10. B
11.C 12.B 13.B 14.C 15.C 16.B 17.D 18.D 19.C 20.C

II. Error correction: 5p = 0.5p x 10

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Most children with (0) health appetites are ready to eat almost anything (1) healthy
that is offering them and a child rare dislikes food unless it is badly
(41)_offered_
cooked. The way the meal is cooked and served is most important and an
attractive served meal will often improve a child’s appetite. Never ask a
(42)_attractively
child whether he likes and dislikes a food and never discuss likes and
dislikes in front of him or allow nobody else to do so. If the father says he (43)_or
hates fat meat or the mother refuses vegetables under the child’s hearing
(44)_anybody_
he is likely to copy this procedure. Take it for grant that he likes everything
and he probably will. Nothing healthful should be omitted out the meal (45)_in/ within_
because of a supposing dislike. At meal time, it is a good idea to give a
child a small portion and let him come back for a second helping other (46)_granted_

than give him as much as he is likely to at all once. Do not talk to much to
(47)_from _
the child during the meal times. But let him get on with his food, and do
not allow him to leave the table immediately after a meal or he will soon (48)_supposed
learn to swallow his food so that he can hurry back to his toys. Under no
circumstance must a child be coaxed and forced to eat. (49)_rather _

(50)
circumstances

III. Prepositions: 5p = 0.25p x20

1. into 2. to 3. from 4. at 5. on
6. off 7. back 8. in 9. under 10. to
11. up 12. out 13. on 14. out for 15. up to
16. at 17. in 18. on 19. off 20. for

IV. Verb form: 5p = 0.25p x20

1. was revealed 2. are employed 3. is being transferred
4. were we not informed 5. were only told 6. started 7. are affected
8. are they going to keep up their mortgage payment 9. knew
10. was asked 11. was being done 12. had /have been made
13. have been offered 14. has been made 15. was questioned
16. had not been told 17. had been promised 18. had been decided
19. has been asked 20. would be sent

V. Word form: 5p = 0.25p x20

1. antioxidant 2. negligible 3. indicators 4. pursuit 5. proven
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6. prenatal 7. affliction 8. mounting 9. excessive 10. contraindicated
VI. Gap filling: 5p = 0.5p x 10
1. though 2. despite 3. remains 4. unexpected 5. displaying
6. often 7. long 8. sinking 9. Far more 10. the

Part IV: Reading 20p

I. Cloze test: 5p = 0.5 p x 10
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B
6. C 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. A
II. Open- cloze test: 5p = 0.5 p x 10
1. into 2. may/ might/ can 3. terms 4. Regardless/ Irrespective
5. for 6. so 7. result/ consequence
8. let 9. what 10. however

III. Reading: 5p = 0.5 p x 10

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C
6. B 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. D
IV. 5p = 0.5 p x 10
1. substituting (some words)
2. a purpose
3. (very) sparse
4. B 5. A 6. A
7-10: A – C – D - F
Part 5: Writing: 30p
I. Rewrite: 5 p = 0.5p x 10
1. In her new job, Alison determined to make her mark from the start.
2. I felt at the back of my mind that something was wrong, but what was it?
3. He has had a grudge against me eversince I was …….. .
4. From where I was standing, I could see quite clear what was happening.
5. When they broke the news, she didn’t turn a hair.
6. The builder hope to have finished the renovations by/ before the end of the next week.

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7. First and foremost I need regular practice because sometimes I have (got) a memory
(mind) like a sieve.
8. Although we tried sending a message, there was no reply .
9. That he has won a scholarship to study overseas gives (has given ) him a new lease of
life.
10. The school rules must not be ignored / are not to be ignored.
II. Graph writing: 10p
Summarize the 1. Content: 5.0
information by selecting a. Providing main ideas and details. (summarizing the
and reporting the main information, reporting the main features, and make
features and make comparisons where relevant)
comparisons where b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively.
relevant. (10 points) 2. Organization and presentation: 1.0
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with
coherence, cohesion, and clarity. 2.5
b. The paragraph is well-structured.
3. Language:
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures.
b. Good use of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: 1.5
a. Intelligible handwriting.
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

III. Essay writing: 15p

Write an essay (250 - 1. Content: 8p
300 words) to express a. Providing main ideas and details.
your opinion. (15 b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively.
points) 2. Organization and presentation: 5p
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence,
cohesion, and clarity.
b. The paragraph is well-structured.
3. Language: 1p
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures.
b. Good use of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: 1p
a. Intelligible handwriting.
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

NGƯỜI RA ĐỀ
Nguyễn Thị Thu Thương

25
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI THI HSG CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN DH-BB
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH -11
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT Ngày thi: tháng năm 2014
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 27 trang

I. LISTENING (15 points)

Part 1: You will hear an interview with Maria Stefanovich, co-founder of a
creativity group which organises workshops far executives. For questions 1-5,
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear (5
points)
1. Corporations appreciate mask-making workshops because …
A. no one wants negative faces at the office.
B unhappy employees won’t come to work.
C. they realise how their employees see them.
D. their employees change their approach.
2. Companies are turning to creative workshops because they have acknowledged that
A. unproductive employees are a financial burden.
B. the traditional work environment has its limitations.
C. there is an increase in absenteeism.
D. employees are working too hard without enjoying it.
3. The employees at the firm ‘Play’
A. change positions frequently to lessen boredom.
B. have business cards indicating their jobs.
C. dress up like comic book characters.
D. do not have stereotyped ideas about their jobs.
4. The companies that show most interest in creative workshops are suprising
because
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A. they usually have creative employees to begin with.
B. their employees are the ones who have to present regularly.
C. there are many other exciting workshops they would prefer.
D. their employees should be used to being funny.
5. Maria mentions the traditional companies that have held workshops in order to
A. boast about the clients her company has helped.
B. show that they have a narrow list of clients.
C. downplay the serious reputations of the firms.
D. point out the diversity of those trying different approaches.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2: You will hear a report on how English has become a global language. For
questions1-10, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. (10 points)
The spread of English around the globe means it is now termed a (1)_________
English first started to spread when explorers made (2)________ to the other side of
the world.
The influence of Britain in the past and the influence of American businesses are the
(3)____________ which give English its present significance.
The number of people whose (4)___________is English is significantly greater in the
USA than in the (5)_________.
It is difficult to (6)__________ the communicative functions of English in some
countries.
It is sometimes suggested that English is (7)______ superior to other languages.
People tend to judge languages using subjective rather than (8)___________
English sentence structure is (9)__________
Language success is (10)________ on a variety of different things.
Your answers:
1. 6.

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 2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

II. PHONETICS (5 points)

Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
the underline part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions. (2.5 points)

1. A. seasonality B. conservatory C. honorable D. discordant

2. A. rejection B. regardless C. represent D. religiously
3. A. assessment B. passages C. passionate D. pessimism
4. A. essentially B. gradually C. metalized D. unpunctually
5. A. saffron B. sacrament C. saddlery D. sabbatical

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following
questions. (2.5 points)

1. A. amicable B. agreeable C. admirable D. arguable

2. A. foliage B. dislocate C. typifying D. personel
3. A. irrevocably B. unconditional C. impartially D. descendent
4. A. empowerment B. omnisciently C. ludicrousness D. momentum
5. A. morbidly B. crossbreds C. southernmost D. journalese

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Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)

Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions. (5 points)

1. Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came
to a______

A. delay B. stand C. brake D. halt

2. John refused to put his career in ______by opposing his boss.

A. jeopardy B. hazard C. risk D. stake

3. Angela’s work was praised for its ______attention to detail.

A. meticulous B. significant C. subtle D. concentrated

4. Motorists should ______well in advance of changing lanes.

A. sign B. signal C. flare D. flicker

5. The students had no money left and took out a loan to _______ him over until the
end of term.

A. last B. tend C. keep D. tide

6. The climbers sought ________from the storm.

A. escape B. refuge C. solace D. defence

7. The tour guide had a brightly-colored company badge pinned to the _______of her
jacket.

A. lapel B. border C. edge D. hem

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8. It was her first conference as partly leader, and she was determined to _______her
authority on the proceedings.

A. press B. thrust C. stamp D. mark

9. It was ______of a surprise to Andrew that he got the job.

A. rather B. something C. quite D. much

10. The last bus had gone so we were ______ with the problem of how to get home
that night.

A. affronted B. caught C. trapped D. faced

11. I don’t want to go into all the details about why I left; _______it to say that had a
better offer from another company.

A. take B. grant C. give D. suffice

12. Finish your meal with a cup of our delicious freshly ________coffee.

A. grated B. ground C. shredded D. minced

13. At the most important stage of the reason, the footballer was troubled by the
______of an old injury.

A. recurrence B. renewal C. restart D. resumption.

14. The pianist played beautifully, showing a real _______for the music.

A. sense B. understanding C. sentiment D. feeling

15. Rachel painted a gloomy _____ of life as a student.

A. image B. picture C. drawing D. illustration

16. With its engine disabled, the finishing vessel was at the _______of the storm.

A. whim B. mercy C. control D. grip

17. The more expensive carpet is a good choice ______it will last longer.

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A. by means of B. due to C. in that D. in view of

18. Money was short and people survived by _______and saving.

A. scrimping B. scavenging C. scouring D. scrounging

19. The company had severe problems and the board decided to ______it up.

A. fold B. close C. wind D. put

20. It is with _______regret that we have to inform you that your scholarship had
been withdrawn.

A. heavy B. somber C. deep D. high

Your answers:

1. 6. 11. 16.

2. 7. 12. 17.

3. 8. 13. 18.

4. 9. 14. 19.

5. 10. 15. 20.

Part 2: Read the text, find the mistakes and correct them (5 points)
Thirty years ago, the TV series UFO envisions 1999 as an era when space fighters
were launched from submarines, the world was in threat from alien invaders -and
everyone carried a slide rule in a holster on their belts.
Even as the programme was being made, pocket calculators were coming onto the
market. There was a lesson about the future: it will overtake your wildest
imaginings. If you focus on what existing technologies will develop, you miss
the real changes - and threats. This autumn sees the changeover between keyboards
and mice to using the human voice to dictate directly onto the screen, and to
command the computer. Wonderful, you may think. A cure for repetitive strain injure

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(RSI), caused by repeated physical actions. Except that it will not be. It will transfer
RSI from the wrist to the throat. The voice box is a very delicate instrument and we
are not used to speak all the time. Even 200 words (taking a little over a minute to
say) leaves us clearing our throats and sipping a drink. There will be catastrophes
unless we learn how to use our voices safe. Students who get up on the morning of an
essay deadline to compose 4,000 words on a voice -operated computer could
permanently damage their voices.
Each new technological development tends to bring problems with it. Nobody had
heard of RSI until word processors exploded onto the market. Long hours spent stare
into a computer monitor led to complaints of eyestrain, backache and even worries
about radiation leaks from the screen. Repetitive computer related tasks are such a
common features of modern work that many companies are calling in
ergonomic consultants to recommend ways to avoid RSI conditions such as carpal
tunnel syndrome, a wrist condition commonly found in people who use keyboards.
Companies found that by following their advices, claims for injury or illnesses
suffered by employees were greatly diminished.

Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part 3: Fill in the blank with suitable prepositions or particles. (5 points)

1. I can't understand what you are talking about with this design. Can we GO______
it again?
2. Stop slouching in the chair like that. SIT_______!!
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3. She didn't manage to PICK_____ anyone from the line-up as she had forgotten
completely what the mugger looked like.
4. Candles usually BURN _______ after about four hours.
5. Don't worry about the argument you had with your sister. It will soon BLOW
________.
6. It's been raining for three hours now and it doesn't look like it will LET_____
today.
7. With that accent of his, he could PASS ______ a Frenchman I think.
8. I was so tired last night that I DROPPED _______ in front of the TV.
9. The Americans PULLED _______ of the 1980 Moscow Olympics after the
invasion of Afghanistan.
10.The corruption scandal caused the resignation of three minister and eventually,
even the prime minister STOOD _______.
11.I have a splitting headache and I certainly don't FEEL ______ to going to watch a
concert.
12. Don't get him worried about money. If I were you, I'd PLAY _____the
importance of getting the loan or he will panic.
13.The two brothers GOT ________ over a beer in a local bar and resolved their
differences.
14. My brother hurt himself while he was SHOWING _______ on his new bike.
15.We were so close to finalizing the contract, but it FELL ______ at the last minute
due to the customer having financial concerns.
16.I know you don't intend do, Roger, but you COME ______ as very aggressive in
the meetings. You need to be more diplomatic when you speak.
17.Sue has very low blood pressure. When she stands up too quickly, she can PASS
_______.
18.I had a lisp when I was younger and some of the other kids would PICK
_______me at school.

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19.The police in the west of the town BLOCKED ______ four blocks to prevent the
public getting too close to the fire.
20.The group leader stayed calm when the weather got bad and told everyone to
MAKE _____ the red light they could see on the horizon.

Your answers:

1. 6. 11. 16.

2. 7. 12. 17.

3. 8. 13. 18.

4. 9. 14. 19.

5. 10. 15. 20.

Part 4: Complete following sentences with the correct form of the verbs (5 points)
The statistics on the safety of flying (1- be) ___________immensely comforting. It
(2-seem) __________that the chances of being involved in an accident (3-be)
__________a million to one – the equivalent of flying safely every day for 95 years.
Try telling that to the white-faced, petrified aerophobic, who (4-see) _________every
frown on a stewardess’ face as a portent of disaster. For some years now, psychologist
Henry Jones (5-try) _________to tell them, and he (6-do)________ a lot more
besides. He (7- develop) ________both a theory and practice for treating air travel
anxiety. Apparently, it (8-be) _________a widespread phobia. One American survey
(9- put) _________it as the fourth most common fear, preceded only by snakes,
heights and storms. Jones (10- have) ___________nearly 500 clients during the last
decade. Before they (11-come)__________to him, some of his clients (12-never
fly)___________, others (13-have)___________just one bad experience after years of
flying. One man(14- take)__________over 200 flights a year for five years and (15-
never worry) _________up till then. Then, one day on a flight to Chicago the pilot

9
(16-announce) __________that they (17- go)________to turn back because of an
engine fault. The man (18-have) ___________a panic attack and (19-try) ________to
get off the plane in mid-air. After Jones’s course, the man (20-overcome)
___________his fears and managed to fly again.

Your answers:

1. 6. 11. 16.

2. 7. 12. 17.

3. 8. 13. 18.

4. 9. 14. 19.

5. 10. 15. 20.

Part 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed words in the numbered spaces
provided. (5 points)
Pop Musicals
Lord Andrew Lloyd Webber, a man whose (0) compositions, eclectic rock
based works, helped (1) VITAL______ British and American (2) MUSIC_____
theatre in the late 20th century. As a student at Oxford University, a (3)
PARTNER_______ was founded between Webber and Timothy Rice to put on
dramatic productions.
Their first (4) NOTE ________ successful venture was ‘Joseph and The Amazing
Technicolor Dreamcoat’, a pop oratorio for children that earned world-wide acclaim.
It was followed by the rock opera, ‘Jesus Christ Superstar’, an extremely
popular, though (5) CONTROVERSY ___________work that blended classical
forms to tell the story of Jesus’ life. This show ran longer than any other similar
show in British (6) THEATRE ________history. Lloyd Webber’s last (7)

10
ART________ collaboration with Rice was on ‘Evita’. ‘Cats’ was his next major
production, in which he set to music verses from a children’ book by T.S. Eliot.
With two (8) LYRIC _______ Charles Hart and Richard Stilgoe, he then
composed a hugely successful version of ‘The Phantom of the Opera’. Lloyd
Webber’s best works were flashy spectacles that featured vivid melodies and
forceful and dramatic staging. He was able to blend such varied and (9)
SIMILAR_______genres as rock and roll, English music-hall song, and (10)
OPERA_______ forms into music that had a wide mass appeal.

Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part 6: Read the text. Complete the text with the phrase (A-K) that best fits each
gap. There is one phrase you do not need. (5 points)

A FAMOUS DREAM

Although Albraham Lincoln is today one of America's best loved presidents, that was
not always so. During the American Civil War he was hated by Southerners for
abolishing slavery, and (1)________that he fully expected to be murdered by his
political opponents, and had resigned himself to his fate. According to a close friend
of his, three days prior to his assassination, Lincoln recounted a dream he'd had to his
wife and acquaintances, (2) _________. In the dream, he was lying in bed in the

11
White house in Washington, and there seemed to be a death-like stillness around him.
Then he began to hear quiet sobbing, (3)__________. He got out of bed and wandered
downstairs. There the silence was broken by the same pitiful sobbing, but he couldn't
see who was making the noise. He went from room to room but they were all
deserted, (4)_______. It was light in all the rooms and every object was familiar to
him; but where, Lincoln wondered, were all the people (5)_________? He was both
puzzled and alarmed. What could be the meaning of all this? Determined to find the
cause, he kept on walking (6)_______, which he entered. There he met with a
sickening surprise. Before him was a platform, (7)________. Around it was stationed
soldiers who were acting as guards; and there was a crowd of people, some gazing
mournfully upon the coffin, others crying bitterly. 'Who has died in the White House?'
Lincoln demanded of one of the soldiers. 'The President,' came the answer.
'He was killed by an assassin.' Then there was a loud exclamation of grief from the
crowd, (8)______. Some people have ascribed a powerful meaning to his dream,
claiming that (9)_______. Others point out that, given the fact that he fully expected
that someone would try to assassinate him, (10)________.

A. although the same mournful sounds of distress met him as he walked along
B. as if a number of people were crying
C. in which he foresaw his own death
D. it is hardly surprising that he dreamt of his own death
E. Lincoln knew that he was about to die
F. on which rested a coffin
G. such was their antipathy towards him
H. he had had the dream before
I. until he arrived at the East room
J. which awoke him from his dream
K. who were grieving as if their hearts would break

12
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. READING (25 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) that
best fits the blank. (7.5 points)
From the moment they leave the security of their accustomed environment, travellers
are at risk. (1) ……..arise not just from strange diseases they meet on their travels but
from other factors too: seemingly uninspiring home (2) …………..such as safe water
(3) …………, sanittion and public hygiene controls, legal safety standards for motor
vehicles and road (4) ……….., are easily taken for granted, but simply do not exist in
many countries. Environmental factors such as arduous conditions,
(5)…………….climate, and high altitude may constitute a danger; and so may
travellers’ own behaviour, free from the (6) ……………of the daily routine, and
determined to have good time with scant (7) …….for the consequences.
When illness or injury occur abroad, travellers are again at a disadvantage – from (8)
…………to communicate with a doctor on account of language or cultural
difficulties, or being unable to find a doctor owing to (9) ……….of the
(10)………..medical system. There may be a complete (11) ………….of skilled
medical care, or of medical facilities of a (12) …………..acceptable to travellers from
technologically sophisticated countries.
When symtoms of an illness (13) …………..abroad do not appear until after return
home a final hazard becomes apparent: the symptoms may be (14) …………….., may
pass (15) ……………, and the correct diagnosis may not be considered until it is too
late.
1.A. Questions B. Changes C. Hazards D. Complications
2.A. comforts B. helps C. cares D. aids

13
3.A. stores B. collection C. levels D. supplies
4.A. correction B. maintenance C. improvement D. quality
5.A. worsening B. unusual C. sudden D. adverse
6.A. restraints B. assurances C. certainties D. regulations
7.A. knowledge B. awareness C. regard C. need
8.A. inability B. difficulty C. inflexibility D. timidity
9.A. misuse B. doubt C. ignorance D. disbelief
10.A. local B. district C. neighborhood D. area
11. breakdown B. failure C. disruption D. absence
12.A. type B. design C. standard D. degree
13.A. received B. formed C. gained D. acquired
14.A. unfamiliar B. unlikely C. unpleasant D. uncovered
15.A. unrecognized B. unknown C. unforeseen D. unearthed

Part 2: Fill in each blank with one suitable word. (7.5 points)
IQ TESTS
Psychologists have long been interested in (1)________ we judge intelligence in
strangers. Now scientists have designed tests (2) _________ try to discover which
cues help people to judge IQ accurately, and which cause them to get
(3)_________wrong. High school pupils were videotaped answering thought-
provoking questions and the videos were (4)________ shown to groups of
‘judges’ who were asked to assess the students’ physical type and monitor a
variety of behavioural cues. Next the judges were asked to rate the students’
intelligence. At the (5) _________ time, each student was (6) __________ required
to sit a standard IQ test. Certain cues matched the (7)________ of the IQ tests more
closely than others. (8)________ speaking quickly, using a lot of words or
displaying ease (9)_______ understanding caused the judges to rate the
students’ intelligence highly, (10)_________ was reflected in the IQ tests,

14
(11)_________cues seemed to give the judges an entirely false impression of
intelligence (12)_________ measured by the IQ test. (13)________the cues that led
judges to assess students as dull were factors (14)______ as using halting speech or
slang. Cues that led judges to view students as bright included talking loudly
and using proper English. (15)_____ of these traits correlated with measured IQ,
however.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 3: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points)

The term “art deco” has come to encompass three distinct but related design trends of
the 1920’s and 1930’s. The first was what is frequently referred to as “zigzag
moderne” –the exotically ornamental style of such skyscrapers as the Chrysler
Building in New York City and related structures such as the Paramount Theater in
Oakland, California The word “zigzag” alludes to the geometric and stylized
ornamentation of zigzags, angular patterns, abstracted plant and animal motifs,
sunbursts, astrological imagery, formalized fountains, and related themes that were
applied in mosaic relief and mural form to the exterior and interior of the buildings.
Many of these buildings were shaped in the ziggurat form, a design resembling an
ancient Mesopotamian temple tower that recedes in progressively smaller stages to
the summit, creating a staircase-like effect.

The second manifestation of art deco was the 1930’s streamlined moderne”
style – a Futuristic-looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and horizontal
bands known as “speed stripes.” In architecture, these elements were frequently
accompanied by round windows, extensive use of glass block, and flat rooftops.

15
 The third style, referred to as cither “international stripped classicism,” or simply
“classical moderne,” also came to the forefront during the Depression, a period of
severe economic difficult in the 1930’s. This was amore conservative style, blending
a simplified modernistic style with a more austere form of geometric and stylized
relief sculpture and other ornament, including interior murals. May buildings in this
style were erected nationwide through government programs during the Depression.

Although art deco in its many forms was largely perceived as thoroughly
modern, it was strongly influenced by the decorative arts movements that
immediately preceded it. For example, like “art nouveau” (1890-1910), art deco also
used plant motifs, but regularized the forms into abstracted repetitive patterns rather
than presenting them as flowing, asymmetrical foliage, Like the Viennese
craftspeople of the Wiener Werkstatte, art deco designers worked with exotic
materials, geometricized shapes, and colorfully ornate patterns. Furthermore, like the
artisans of the Arts and Crafts Movement in England and the United States, art deep
practitioners considered it their mission to transform the domestic environment
through well-designed furniture and household accessories.

1. What aspect of art deco does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The influence of art deco on the design of furniture and household accessories

B. Ways in which government programs encouraged the development of art deco

C. Architectural manifestations of art deco during the 1920’s and 1930’s

D. Reasons for the popularity of art deco in New York and California

2. The word “encompass” is closest in meaning to

A. separate B. include C. replace D. enhance

3. The phrase “The first” refers to

A. the term “art deco” B. design trends

16
 C. the 1920’s and 1930’s D.skyscrapers

4. The author mentions “an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower” in order to

A. describe the exterior shape of certain “art deco” buildings

B. explain the differences between ancient and modern architectural steles

C. emphasize the extent of architectural advances

D. argue for a return to more traditional architectural design

5. The streamlined moderne style is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

A. animal motifs B. flat roofs

C. round windows D. “speed stripes”

6. The phrase “came to the forefront” is closest in meaning to

A. grew in complexity B. went through a process

C. changed its approach D. became important

7. According to the passage, which of the following statements most accurately

describes the relationship between art deco and art nouveau?

A. They were art forms that competed with each other for government support
during the Depression era.

B. They were essentially the same art form.

C. Art nouveau preceded art deco and influenced it.

D. Art deco became important in the United States while art nouveau became
popular in England.

8. According to the passage, a building having an especially ornate appearance would

most probably have been designed in the style of

A. zigzag moderne

17
 B. streamlined moderne

C. classical moderne

D. the Arts and Crafts Movement

9. According to the passage, which of the following design trends is known by more
than one name?

A. Zigzag moderne B. Streamlined moderne

C. International stripped classicism D. Arts and Crafts Movement

10. The passage is primarily developed as

A. the historical chronology of a movement

B. a description of specific buildings that became famous for their unusual

beauty

C. an analysis of various trends within an artistic movement

D. an argument of the advantages of one artistic form over another

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points)

For over 200 years, there has been an interest in the way children learn to speak and
understand their first language. Scholars carried out several small-scale studies,
especially towards the end of the 19th century, using data they recorded in parental
diaries. But detailed, systematic investigation did not begin until the middle decades
of the 20th century, when the tape recorder came into routine use. This made it

18
possible to keep a permanent record of samples of child speech, so that analysts could
listen repeatedly to obscure extracts, and thus produce a detailed and accurate
description. Since then, the subject has attracted enormous multi-disciplinary interest,
notably from linguists and psychologists, who have used a variety of observational
and experimental techniques to study the process of language acquisition in depth.

Central to the success of this rapidly emerging field lies the ability of researchers to
devise satisfactory methods for eliciting linguistic data from children. The problems
that have to be faced are quite different from those encountered when working with
adults. Many of the linguist’s routine techniques of enquiry cannot be used with
children. It is not possible to carry out certain kinds of experiments, because aspects
of children’s cognitive development – such as their ability to pay attention, or to
remember instructions – may not be sufficiently advanced. Nor is it easy to get
children to make systematic judgments about language, a task that is virtually
impossible below the age of three. And anyone who has tried to obtain even the most
basic kind of data – a tape recording of a representative sample of a child’s speech –
knows how frustrating this can be. Some children, it seems, are innately programmed
to switch off as soon as they notice a tape recorder being switched on.

Since the 1960s, however, several sophisticated recording techniques and

experimental designs have been devised. Children can be observed and recorded
through one-way-vision windows or using radio microphones, so that the effects of
having an investigator in the same room as the child can be eliminated. Large-scale
sampling programmes have been carried out, with children sometimes being recorded
for several years. Particular attention has been paid to devising experimental
techniques that fall well within a child’s intellectual level and social experience. Even
pre-linguistic infants have been brought into the research: acoustic techniques are

19
used to analyse their vocalisations, and their ability to perceive the world around them
is monitored using special recording equipment. The result has been a growing body
of reliable data on the stages of language acquisition from birth until puberty.

There is no single way of studying children’s language. Linguistics and psychology

have each brought their own approach to the subject, and many variations have been
introduced to cope with the variety of activities in which children engage, and the
great age range that they present. Two main research paradigms are found.

One of these is known as ‘naturalistic sampling’. A sample of a child’s spontaneous

use of language is recorded in familiar and comfortable surroundings. One of the best
places to make the recording is in the child’s own home, but it is not always easy to
maintain good acoustic quality, and the presence of the researcher or the recording
equipment can be a distraction (especially if the proceedings are being filmed).
Alternatively, the recording can be made in a research centre, where the child is
allowed to play freely with toys while talking to parents or other children, and the
observers and their equipment are unobtrusive.

A good quality, representative, naturalistic sample is generally considered an ideal

datum for child language study. However, the method has several limitations. These
samples are informative about speech production, but they give little guidance about
children’s comprehension of what they hear around them. Moreover, samples cannot
contain everything, and they can easily miss some important features of a child’s
linguistic ability. They may also not provide enough instances of a developing feature
to enable the analyst to make a decision about the way the child is learning. For such

20
reasons, the description of samples of child speech has to be supplemented by other
methods.

The other main approach is through experimentation, and the methods of

experimental psychology have been widely applied to child language research. The
investigator formulates a specific hypothesis about children’s ability to use or
understand an aspect of language, and devises a relevant task for a group of subjects
to undertake. A statistical analysis is made of the subjects’ behaviour, and the results
provide evidence that supports or falsifies the original hypothesis.

Using this approach, as well as other methods of controlled observation, researchers

have come up with many detailed findings about the production and comprehension
of groups of children. However, it is not easy to generalise the findings of these
studies. What may obtain in a carefully controlled setting may not apply in the rush of
daily interaction. Different kinds of subjects, experimental situations, and statistical
procedures may produce different results or interpretations. Experimental research is
therefore a slow, painstaking business; it may take years before researchers are
convinced that all variables have been considered and a finding is genuine.

The passage has eight paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraphs contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

1 the possibility of carrying out research on children before they start talking

2 the difficulties in deducing theories from systematic experiments

3 the differences between analysing children’s and adults’ language

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In boxes 4-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT
if there is no information on this
GIVEN

4. In the 19th century, researchers studied their own children’s language.

5. Attempts to elicit very young children’s opinions about language are likely to
fail.

6. Radio microphones are used because they enable researchers to communicate with
a number of children in different rooms.

7. Many children enjoy the interaction with the researcher.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.

Ways of investigating children’s language

One method of carrying out research is to record children’s spontaneous language use.
This can be done in their homes, where, however, it may be difficult to ensure that the
recording is of acceptable (8)_______Another venue which is often used is
a (9)_________where the researcher can avoid distracting the child. A drawback of
this method is that it does not allow children to demonstrate their comprehension.

22
An alternative approach is to use methodology from the field of experimental
psychology. In this case, a number of children are asked to carry out a task, and the
results are subjected to a (10)________.

Your anwers:

1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

V. WRITING (25 points)

Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
one using between 3 and 6 words including the word given. (5 points)

1. I could only afford that house because of the loan you gave me.
lent
Had _____________ money, I wouldn't have been able to afford the house.

2. You don't have to come and see the new house if you don't wish.
obligation
You are _____________ and see the new house if you don't wish.

3. You should have seen the boss as soon as you arrived. You knew he wanted to see
you.
supposed
You _____________ boss when you arrived.

4. She is already married and you knew! I wish you had told me.
might
You _____________ she was married!

23
5. I went in to work for an hour even though I knew it was a holiday.
not
I need _____________ into work but I did anyway.

6. The headmaster will give a prize to the top student of the year.
awarded
The _____________ a prize by the headmaster.

7. Police arrested Johnson because they think he was involved in the robbery.
suspicion
Johnson was detained _____________ in the robbery.

8. You don't need to concern yourself with the new tax laws till October.
effect
The new tax laws _____________.

9. Janet has never passed any exams, as far as I'm aware.

knowledge
To _____________________ no formal qualifications.

10. None of us was expecting to have a test this morning.

blue
This morning's test _____________________ for every one of us.

Part 2

The graph below compares the number of visits to two new music sites on the
web.

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

You should write at least 150 words.

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Part 3
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Television has destroyed
communication among friends and family. Use specific reasons and examples to
support your opinion.

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 Hướng dẫn chấm
I. LISTENING (15 points)
Part 1: 5.0
1. D. their employees change their approach.
2. B. the traditional work environment has its limitations.
3. D. do not have stereotyped ideas about their jobs.
4. A. they usually have creative employees to begin with.
5. D. point out the diversity of those trying different approaches.
1.D 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.D

Part 2: 10
1. world language
2. voyages of discovery
3. two factors
4. mother tongue
5. the UK
6. determine
7. inherently
8. objective standards
9. complex
10.dependent
II. PHONETICS (5 points)
Part 1: (2.5 points)
1.A 2. C 3.C 4.A 5.D
Part 2: (2.5 points)
1.B 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.D

III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)

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Part 1: 5.0

1.D 6.B 11.D 16.B

2.A 7.A 12.B 17.C

3.A 8.C 13.A 18.A

4.B 9.B 14.D 19.C

5.D 10.D 15.B 20.C

Part 2: 5.0
1. envisions  envisioned 6. speak  speaking
2. in  under 7. safe  safely
3. what  how 8. stare  staring
4. between  from 9. features  feature
5. injure  injury 10. advices  advice

Part 3: 5.0

1. over 6. up 11. up 16. across

2. up 7. for 12. down 17. out

3. out 8.off 13. together 18. on

4.out 9. out 14. off 19. off

5. over 10. down 15. through 20. for

Part 4: 5.0
1. are
2. seems
3. are

29
4. sees
5. has been trying
6. has done/ has been doing
7. developed/ has developed
8. is
9. has puts/ puts
10. has had
11. came
12. had never flown
13 had had
14. took
15. never worried
16. announced
17. were going
18. had/ had had
19. had tried/ tried
20. overcame

Part 5: 5.0
1. revitalize 6. theatrical
2. musical 7. artistic
3. partnership 8. lyricists
4. notable 9. dissimilar
5. controversial 10. operatic

Part 6: 5.0
1.G 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.K
6.I 7.F 8.J 9.E 10.D

IV. READING (25 points)

Part 1: 7.5
1.A. Questions B. Changes C. Hazards D. Complications
2.A. comforts B. helps C. cares D. aids

30
3.A. stores B. collection C. levels D. supplies
4.A. correction B. maintenance C. improvement D. quality
5.A. worsening B. unusual C. sudden D. adverse
6.A. restraints B. assurances C. certainties D. regulations
7.A. knowledge B. awareness C. regard C. need
8.A. inability B. difficulty C. inflexibility D. timidity
9.A. misuse B. doubt C. ignorance D. disbelief
10.A. local B. district C. neighborhood D. area
11. breakdown B. failure C. disruption D. absence
12.A. type B. design C. standard D. degree
13.A. received B. formed C. gained D. acquired
14.A. unfamiliar B. unlikely C. unpleasant D. uncovered
15.A. unrecognized B. unknown C. unforeseen D. unearthed

1C 2A 3D 4B 5D 6A 7C 8A 9C 10A
11D 12C 13D 14A 15A

Part 2: 7.5
1. how 2. that/which 3. it 4. then 5. same
6. also 7. results 8. while 9. of 10. and
11. other 12. as 13. among/ 14. such 15. none
amongst

Part 3: 5.0
1. C 2.B 3.B 4.A 5.A
6.D 7.C 8.D 9.C 10.C

Part 4: 5.0

31
1. C 2. H 3. B

4. T 5. T 6. F 7. NG

8. acoustic quality 9. research centre/center 10. statistical analysis

V. WRITING (25 points)

Part 1: 5.0

1. I could only afford that house because of the loan you gave me.
lent
Had __YOU NOT LENT ME THE__ money, I wouldn't have been able to afford the
house.
2. You don't have to come and see the new house if you don't wish.
obligation
You are __UNDER NO OBLIGATION TO COME__ and see the new house if you
don't wish.
3. You should have seen the boss as soon as you arrived. You knew he wanted to see
you.
supposed
You __WERE SUPPOSED TO SEE__ boss when you arrived.
4. She is already married and you knew! I wish you had told me.
might
You __MIGHT HAVE TOLD ME__ she was married!
5. I went in to work for an hour even though I knew it was a holiday.
not
I need __NOT HAVE GONE__ into work but I did anyway.
6. The headmaster will give a prize to the top student of the year.
awarded
The __TOP STUDENT WILL BE AWARDED__ a prize by the headmaster.
7. Police arrested Johnson because they think he was involved in the robbery.
suspicion
Johnson was detained __ON SUSPICION OF INVOLVEMENT/BEING
INVOLVED__ in the robbery.
8. You don't need to concern yourself with the new tax laws till October.
effect
The new tax laws __DON'T TAKE EFFECT TILL OCTOBER__.

32
9. Janet has never passed any exams, as far as I'm aware.
knowledge
To __MY KNOWLEDGE, JANET HAS__ no formal qualifications.
10. None of us was expecting to have a test this morning.
blue
This morning's test __CAME OUT OF THE BLUE__ for every one of us.

Part 2: 10
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as
appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate
to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school
students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

Part 3: 15
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as
appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate
to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school
students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

33
Tapescript:
Part 1:

34
Part 2:

35
36
 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ 2014
(Môn Tiếng Anh - Đề đề xuất)
PART 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the sentences below. You are going to hear two women talking about a holiday
in France. Read the sentences, and choose the best option: A, B, or C, to complete the
statements about the recording.
1. Paula's friend says that
A. she has been ill.
B. Paula doesn't look very well.
C. she's pleased to see Paula.
2. Before the trip, Paula
A. was enthusiastic about It.
B. wanted to go to the Lake District.
C. didn't tell anybody she was going.
3. Before Mark and Paula went to Paris,
A. Mark's boss didn't want him to go.
B. Paula arranged for somebody to look after the hamster.
C. Paula's sister promised to look after the children.
4. The journey across the Channel
A. was very smooth.
B. was unpleasant for Paula.
C. lasted eight hours.
5. The return trip from Paris was
A. disturbed by a flood.
B. an enjoyable experience.
C. earlier than planned.

II. Read the statements and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F).
1. The speaker has come from the Theosophical Society.
2. One of the main points of the talk is to save money.
3. She thinks students should do more housework.
4. She argues that plastic containers won't biodegrade quickly.
5. She warns that asthma sufferers should be careful with her recipes.
III. Complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words and/or a number
each answer.
The congestion charging zone covers anywhere within London's inner (1) _________
The signs telling motorists when they are entering the zone show a white letter C on a (2)
__________
The congestion charging system recognizes British and European car (3) _________
Alternatives to driving include buses, trains, taxis, and (4) ____________
Public transport in London is now improving because there are fewer (5) _____________

PART 2: PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose stress syllable is different from those of the other words
1. A. medieval B. humanity C. psychology D. familiarize
2. A. flamingo B. predator C. technical D. masterpiece
3. A. overpopulated B. responsibility C. originality D. incomprehensible
4. A. arithmetic B. mausoleum C. omnivorous D. receptionist
5. A. oversimplify B. multinational C. illiteracy
D. undersecretary

II. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of
the other words
1. A. famine B. examine C. determine D. coalmine
2. A. brotherhood B. proof C. wood D. bookbinder
3. A. teenage B. message C. advantage D. postage
4. A. sneezed B. whirled C. remained D. packed
5. A. thrash B. length C. birthmark D. breathe

PART 3: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I. Choose the best word from A, B, C or D that fits each blank
1. It isn’t that woman’s turn. Don’t let her push _______.
A. in B. through C. into D. up
2. We heard her _________ in agony as she dropped the saucepan on her toe.
A. boil over B. cry out C. let off D. ring out
3. Tom won’t buy that old car because it has too much ________ on it.
A. ups and downs B. odds and ends C. wear and tear D. white lie
4. His English teacher recommends that he _______ a regular degree program.
A. begin B. begins C. will begin D. is beginning
5. As a citizen, it is natural to _______ to the laws and rules made by the society.
A. conform B. resist C. hinder D. obey
6. The inconsiderate driver was _______ for parking his vehicle in the wrong place.
A. inflicted B. condemned C. harassed D. fined
7. Look, will you stop _______ in and let me finish my sentence!
A. moving B. pushing C. butting D. plugging
8. It’s the ________ of stupidity to go walking in the mountains in this weather.
A. height B. depth C. source D. matter
9. Tax ________ deprives the state of several million pounds as a year.
A. retention B. desertion C. escapism D. evasion
10. The university might accept you, ________ of your disappointing exam results.
A. irrespective B. pending C. expectant D. dependent
11. I really need a new watch. This one doesn’t _________ very good time.
A. show B. record C. indicate D. keep
12. They decided to _______ the meeting as the director was away.
A. put up B. put forth C. call down D. call off
13. You ________ to have a lot of new friends at the summer camp.
A. are surely B. are certainly C. are bound D. make sure
14. At school he had a good academic record, and also __________ at sports.
A. prevailed B. achieved C. surpassed D. excelled
15. The car burst into ________ but the driver managed to escape.
A. heat B. flames C. fire D. burning
16. No one is opposed to ________ taxes.
A. reducing B. reduce C. be reduced D. reduced
17. According to a recent survey, most people are on good _________ with their
neighbors.
A. relations B. acquaintance C. relationships D. terms
18. Even after I washed the coat, it still had some _______ marks on it.
A. thin B. weak C. faint D. uncertain
19. I always get ________ in my stomach before visiting the dentist.
A. worms B. butterflies C. crabs D. hedgehogs
20. Those second-hand Walkmans are selling like _________. If you want one, you’d
better buy one now before they’re all gone.
A. shooting stars B. fresh bread C. hot cakes D. wild oats

II. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their
correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right.

Crime preventing is as crucial in the workplace as it is in the home (1) __________

or neighborhood. Reducing crime is as much a part of good
management as prompt delivery, good staff relations, and other (2) __________
acceptable management functions. Losses from shops through
shoplifting are extremely high and ultimately, those losses are (3) __________
payment for by all of us in high prices. There are many
opportunities for shopkeepers themselves to reduce shoplifting. As (4) __________
 with all types of criminal, prevention is better than cure. The best (5) __________
deterrent is the present of staff properly trained in how to identify
potential shoplifters. There are also many secure devices now (6) __________
available. Video camera surveillance is a popular system, even
with quite small retailers. In clothes shopping, magnetic tag (7) __________
marking systems that set off an alarm if they are taken out of the
shop have proved their worthless. However, there are many (8) __________
simpler measures that retailers should consider. Better lighting and
(9) __________
ceiling-hung mirrors can help staff to watch all parts of the display
area. Similarly, simply arrangement shelves and display units to (10) _________
allow clear fields of visible is a good deterrent.

III. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles
1. I wonder if this dress fits. I’ll try it _______ and see.
2. “Did you enjoy the concert last night with Liz?” “We didn’t go. I waited an hour, but
Liz didn’t turn ___________.”
3. Don’t spend the money you won. Why don’t you put it ________ until you have
enough to buy something you really want?
4. I was ill for two weeks, so I’ve fallen ________ with my work.
5. This painting can’t possibly be an original. I think we’ve been taken _________.
6. I won’t be able to go out tonight because a problem has just cropped ________.
7. After he was knocked out, it took a long time to bring him ________.
8. Don’t worry. The pain should wear _______ fairly soon.
9. Violence flared ________ and a lot of people were injured.
10.The changes were phased ________ gradually so that everyone could get used to them.

IV. Put one suitable preposition in the blank of each sentence

1. My cousin George is obsessed ________ keeping fit.
2. Many frozen foods are deficient __________ vitamins.
3. They say that there is an exception ___________ every rule.
4. It was very good ________ Sue to drive us to the airport.
5. Breaking his leg a second time put Peter’s football career _______ jeopardy.
6. Don’t worry, the whole situation is __________ control.
7. The same rule applies, irrespective __________ how much you have paid.
8. With complete disregard __________ her own safety, Ann jumped into the sea to
rescue the dog.
9. I’m afraid you are not eligible ________ a pension until you are 65.
10.There were no ripe apples _______ reach, so I moved the ladder.

V. Put each verb in parentheses into an appropriate form

Ask hundreds of people what they (1) ___________ (do) on a certain day in August next
year, or the year after, and there (2) _________ (be) only one reply. Provided of course
that the people you (3) ________ (ask) (4) _________ (belong) to the Elvis Presley Fan
Club. Although the King of Rock and Roll (5) __________ (die) nearly two decades ago,
his fans (6) ________ (meet) every year since then outside his home in Memphis,
Tennessee, to show respect for the singer they (7) ________ (love) so much. Fans like
Jean Thomas, from Catford in South London. Jean (8) ________ (visit) Graceland, the
house where Elvis (9) ________ (suffer) his fatal heart attack, twice in the past five years.
“The first time I (10) ________ (borrow) the money from my Mum, as I (11) ________
(not work) then. But two years ago, I (12) ________ (get) married and since then I (13)
__________ (work) in my husband Chris’s garage.
Chris and I (14) _______ (go) together last year, and we (15) __________ (think) of
spending two or three months in the USA next year. I (16) ___________ (always want) to
visit some of the places where Elvis (17) _______ (perform). Like Las Vegas for
example.” Jean says that Elvis (18) _________ (be) her obsession ever since she (19)
________ (be) ten years old, and she (20) ________ (own) every single one of his records,
good and bad.
VI. Write the correct form of the word given

We’ve all felt anger at sometime, whether as faint (0) annoyance (0) ANNOY
or blind rage. Anger is a normal, sometimes useful human emotion,
but uncontrolled outbursts of temper can be (1) ___________.
“People who give free rein to their anger, (2) __________ of the (1) DESTROY
offence this may cause, haven’t learned to express themselves
constructively”, says Martin Smolik, who runs weekend (3)
(2) REGRAD
_______ courses in anger management. “It is important to maintain
your (4) __________ and put your case in an assertive, not
aggressive, manner without hurting others. Being assertive doesn’t (3) RESIDENCE
mean being pushy or demanding; it means being (5) __________ of
yourself and other people.” He adds that people who are (6)
_______ angered are intolerant of frustration, (7) _________ or (4) COMPOSE
irritation and, not surprisingly, find (8) ________ to other people
very difficult. But what causes people to behave like this? It seems
there is evidence to support the idea that some children may be (5) RESPECT
born (9) __________ and prone to anger and this tendency is
sometimes apparent from a very early age. However, research also
(6) EASY
suggests that a person’s family (10) ________ may have an
influence. Very often, people who are quick-tempered come from
disorganized and disruptive families who find it difficult to express (7) CONVENIENT
their emotions.

(8) RELATE
 (9) IRRITATE

(10) GROUND

VII. Select a suitable word from the box to fill each blank in the passage

changed, mysterious, problematic, transmit, but, in, as

view, unless, sending, complicated, that, different, fear

The Modern Office

One it was possible to get an office job just by knowing how to type. The typewriter and
the telephone were the most (1) _________ machines in the office. Now, however,
things are very (2) __________. The typewriter has all (3) _____________ disappeared.
(4) ___________ its place is a new device, the computer. Even the telephone has (5)
____________. It no longer is just for talking to people outside the office. Now it is used
to (6) _________ letters and other documents across town or around the world.
A smart worker will not (7) ___________ computers as a problem when looking for
office work. There is nothing very (8) _________ about them. Think of a computer (9)
__________ you would a car. Only a few people know how they work, but nearly
everyone can drive. So (10) _________ you plan to do your own maintenance, you can
probably learn about computers very quickly.

PART 4. READING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the text and fill each gap with ONE suitable word.
GETTING ENOUGH EXERCISE
While most people (1)___________ to have a toned healthy body, not everyone
enjoys(2)_________ out at the gym. In fact, many of us (3)_____________ sooner avoid
any kind of vigorous exercise altogether, and may not even feel it is necessary. Over the
years, various health experts have assured us that keeping (4)__________ simply
requires a total of 30 minutes of moderate activity most days of the week. Many people
believe that a walk to the shops or some light housework constitutes moderate activity,
but it turns (5)____________this may not be the case.
According to the British Association of Sport and Exercise, it is high
(6)____________more specific advice (7)__________given about what actually
constitutes moderate activity. Housework, it seems, does not fall into this category.
Anyone who devotes a great deal of time every day to dusting and vacuuming no doubt
wishes that it (8)____________, but research has shown that women who spend over
eight hours a day (9)___________ housework actually tend to be slightly more
overweight than (10)___________ who do none whatsoever. The association, therefore,
would prefer (11)__________ if the public were instructed as to exactly what
(12)_____________ of physical activity to aim for.
But setting such guidelines is not easy (13)____________ individual fitness levels and
exercise requirements vary. For instance, while walking at a fast pace
(14)_____________ generally beneficial for women, it may not be physically
challenging enough for men. For this reason, the association would rather this section of
the population took up jogging (15)____________ relied on walking as a form of
exercise. |
III. Read the text below and then decide which word best fits each blank
Gerard Mercator: The Man Who Mapped the Planet
When Gerard Mercatorwas was born in 1512, the geography of the globe still remained
a mystery. It was unclear whether America was part of Asia, if there was a vast (1)
__________ of sea at the top of the world or if Australia was (2) __________ to
Antarctica.
Mercator's childhood was spent chiefly in Rupelmonde, a Flemish trading town on the
river, and it was here that his geographical imagination was (3) __________ by the ships
which passed to and from the rest of the world. Alongside imagination, he developed
two very different skills. The first was the ability to gather, (4) __________ and co-
ordinate the geographical information (5) __________explorers and sailors who
frequented the margins of the known. He also had to be able to imagine himself
(6)__________from the heavens, to achieve the visionary (7) ____________of gods in
the skies, (8) ____________down on the world. The main reason why Mercator's name
is (9) ___________ to us is because of the Mercator Projection: the solution he (10)
___________ to represent the spheroidal surface of the globe on a two-dimensional
plane. It is less well known that Mercator was the first man to conceive of mapping the
(11)___________ surface of the planet or that he (12) ___________the idea of multiple
maps being presented in bound books, to which he gave the name 'Atlas'.
It is difficult for us now to be surprised by maps, so many are there, and of such detail
and coverage, but we should (13) ___________ in mind that Mercator lived at a time
when such knowledge was far from (14) ____________ He was the man who
(15)____________ our worldview forever.
1. A. territory B. distance C. range D. expanse
2. A. connected B. coupled C. united D. integrated
3. A. raise B. reared C. supplied D. nourished
4. A. congregate B. amass C. assimilate D. construct
5. A. granted B. conferred C. contributed D. provided
6. A. suspended B. located C. situated D. attached
7. A. inspection B. observation C. perspective D. assessment
8. A. glimpsing B. scrutinizing C. watching D. gazing
9. A. familiar B. famous C. memorable D. recognizable
10. A. invented B. contrived C. devised D. schemed
11. A. sheer B. full C. entire D. utter
12. A. pioneered B. initiated C. lead D. prepared
13. A. carry B. hold C. take D. bear
14. A. typical B. common C. routine D. normal
15. A. converted B. substituted C. distorted D. altered
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each
question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
No longer is asthma considered a condition with isolated, acute episodes of
bronchospasm. Rather, asthma is now understood to be a chronic inflammatory disorder
of the airways—that is, inflammation makes the iirways chronically sensitive. When
these hyperresponsive airways are irritated, airflow is limited, and attacks of coughing,
wheezing, chest tightness and breathing difficulty occur.
Asthma involves complex interactions among inflammatory cells, mediators, and the
cells and tissues in the airways. The interactions result in airflow limitation from acute
bronchoconstriction, swelling of the airway wall, increased mucus secretion, and airway
remodeling. The inflammation also causes an increase in airway responsiveness. During
an asthma attack, the patient attempts to compensate by breathing at a higher lung
volume in order to keep the air flowing through the constricted airways, and the greater
the airway limitation, the higher the lung volume must be to keep airways open. The
morphologic changes that occur in asthma include bronchial infiltration by inflammatory
cells. Key effector cells in the inflammatory response are the mast cells, T lymphocytes,
and eosinophils. Mast cells and eosinophils are also significant participants in allergic
responses, hence the similarities between allergic reactions and asthma attacks. Other
changes include mucus plugging of the airways, interstitial edema, and microvascular
leakage. Destruction of bronchial epithelium and thickening of the subbasement
membrane is also characteristic. In addition, there may be hypertrophy and hyperplasia
of airway smooth muscle, increase in goblet cell number, and enlargement of submucous
glands.
Although causes of the initial tendency toward inflammation in the airways of patients
with asthma are not yet certain to date the strongest identified risk factor is atopy. This
inherited familial tendency to have allergic reactions includes increased sensitivity to
allergens that are risk factors for developing asthma. Some of these allergens include
domestic dust mites, animals with fur, cockroaches, pollens, and molds. Additionally,
asthma may be triggered by viral respiratory infections, especially in children. By
avoiding these allergens and triggers, a person with asthma lowers his or her risk of
irritating sensitive airways. A few avoidance techniques include: keeping the home clean
and well ventilated, using an air conditioner in the summer months when pollen and
mold counts are high, and getting an annual influenza vaccination. Of course, asthma
sufferers should avoid tobacco smoke altogether. Cigar, cigarette, or pipe smoke is a
trigger whether the patient smokes or inhales the smoke from others. Smoke increases
the risk of allergic sensitization in children, increases the severity of symptoms, and may
be fatal in children who already have asthma. Many of the risk factors for developing
asthma may also provoke asthma attacks, and people with asthma may have one or more
triggers, which vary from individual to individual. The risk can be further reduced by
taking medications that decrease airway inflammation. Most exacerbations can be
prevented by the combination of avoiding triggers and taking anti-inflammatory
medications. An exception is physical activity, which is a common trigger of
exacerbations in asthma patients. However, asthma patients should not necessarily avoid
all physical exertion, because some types of activity have been proven to reduce
symptoms. Rather, they should work in conjunction with a doctor to design a proper
training regimen, which includes the use of medication.
In order to diagnose asthma, a healthcare professional must appreciate the underlying
disorder that leads to asthma symptoms and understand how to recognize the condition
through information gathered from the patient's history, physical examination,
measurements of lung function, and allergic status. Because asthma symptoms vary
throughout the day, the respiratory system may appear normal during physical
examination. Clinical signs are more likely to be present when a patient is experiencing
symptoms; however, the absence of symptoms upon examination does not exclude the
diagnosis of asthma.
1. According to the passage, what is the name for the familial inclination to have
hypersensitivity to certain allergens?
A. interstitial edema
B. hyperplasia
C. hypertrophy
D. atopy
2. Why does a person suffering from an asthma attack attempt to inhale more air?
A. to prevent the loss of consciousness
B. to keep air flowing through shrunken air passageways
C. to prevent hyperplasia
D. to compensate for weakened mast cells, T lymphocytes, and eosinophils
3. The word triggered is closest in meaning to
A. caused
B. taken place
C. eliminated
D. cured
4. The passage suggests that in the past, asthma was regarded as which of the following?
A. a result of the overuse of tobacco products
B. a hysterical condition
C. mysterious, unrelated attacks affecting the lungs
D. a chronic condition
5. Which of the following would be the best replacement for the underlined word
exacerbations in this passage?
A. allergies
B. attacks
C. triggers
D. allergens
6. The passage mentions all of the following bodily changes during an asthma attack
except
A. Severe cramping in the chest.
B. Heavy breathing.
C. Airways blocked by fluids.
D. constricted airways.
7. Although it is surprising, which of the following triggers is mentioned in the passage
as possibly reducing the symptoms of asthma in some patients?
A. using a fan instead of an air conditioner in summer months
B. exposure to second-hand cigarette smoke
C. the love of a family pet
D. performing physical exercise
8. Why might a patient with asthma have an apparently normal respiratory system during
an examination by a doctor?
A. Asthma symptoms come and go throughout the day.
B. Severe asthma occurs only after strenuous physical exertion.
C. Doctor's offices are smoke free and very clean.
D. The pollen and mold count may be low that day.
9. Who might be the most logical audience for this passage?
A. Researchers studying the respiratory system
B. healthcare professionals
C. A mother whose child has been diagnosed with asthma
D. An antismoking activist
10. What is the reason given in this article for why passive smoke should be avoided by
children?
A. A smoke-filled room is a breeding ground for viral respiratory
B. Smoke can stunt an asthmatic child's growth.
C. Smoke can heighten the intensity of asthma symptoms.
D. Smoke can lead to a fatal asthma attack.
IV. Read the passage and complete the text below, which is a summary of the
writer’s opinion on a classical education. Use one word only from the text to
complete each blank space. You may use each word once only.
Classical and modern
In the United Kingdom at university level, the decline in the study of Latin and Greek,
the classics, has been reversed. As a result of renewed interest in reading classical
literature and history, more and more students are enrolling on classical studies courses.
The purists may deplore this development - 'it is yet another example of the 'dumbing
down' of tertiary education with students studying classical literature and history in
English rather than the original languages'. And, I must admit, they do have a point. But
the situation is surely not as dire as the ultimate demise of classics as an
intellectual discipline.
A classical education is a boon and should be encouraged. But, before looking at the
advantages of studying the classics, which appear, incidentally, more indirect and less
tangible than other disciplines, let us examine the criticisms that are often leveled against
studying Latin and Greek.
The decline in the teaching of classics
The 60s with their trendy ideas in education are blamed for the steady decline in
studying the classics. But the rot had set in much earlier, when Latin and Greek were no
longer required for university entrance. With the introduction of the National Curriculum
in secondary schools came the biggest blow. Schools came under pressure to devote
more time to core subjects like English, mathematics, the sciences, history and
geography. This left scant room for the more 'peripheral' subject areas like the classics.
There was a further squeeze with the rush into teaching IT and computing skills. As
schools could no longer choose what they wanted to teach, so subjects like the classics
were further marginalized. Take Latin. In 1997, 11,694 pupils took Latin GCSE, while,
in 1988, the number was 17,000. Comprehensive schools now supply 40% fewer Latin
candidates, whereas grammar schools have seen a 20% decline. Latin candidates from
Independent schools have fallen by only 5%. As a consequence, classics has been
relegated to the 'better' grammar or comprehensive schools, and the minor and
great public schools. Only one third of Latin GCSE entries come from the state sector. It
can, therefore, be of no surprise to anyone when the pursuit of a classical education is
attacked as elitist.
Tainted by this misconception, the classics are then further damned as being irrelevant in
the modem world. Having been pushed into such a tight comer, it is difficult to fight
free. A classical education is so unlike, say, business studies or accountancy where
young people can go directly into a profession and find a job easily. For classicists,
this is not an option. Other than teaching, there is no specific professional route after
leaving university. And, with the pressure in the present climate to have a job, it is less
easy than previously for young people to resist the pressure from the world outside
academia, and from their families, to study something else that will make them money.
The relevancy argument is a hard nut to crack.
The pertinence of a classical education
Latin and Greek have been damned as dead languages that offer us nothing. The
response to this criticism is, in fact, straightforward. Most European languages are a
development of the classical continuum. And so having even a rudimentary knowledge
prepares pupils for understanding other modem European languages. As for pertinence
in the modem world, learning Latin and Greek are highly relevant. The study of these
languages, develops analytical skills that have to a large extent, been lost. They teach
discipline and thinking and open up the whole of Western civilization just as the
discovery of the classical world did during the Renaissance.
Latin has also been called food for the brain. It gives students a grounding in the
allusions in much of European literature and thought. Modem writers do not use these
allusions themselves, first, because they do not know them, and, second, because their
audience does not know them either. Sadly, most people no longer have the ability to
interpret the allusions in art and the same has happened with the classics vis-à-vis
literature.
The danger to Western and world culture is great if the classical tradition is lost. The
spiral of decline is not just restricted to the United Kingdom. Other European countries
face the same loss to their heritage. If we abandon the classics, we will not be able to
interpret our past and to know where we have come from. A common refrain in modem
society is the lack of thinking ability among even the best graduates. They enter work,
perhaps as bright as any of their predecessors. But without the necessary skills they run
around trying to reinvent the wheel. As Ecclesiastes says: nihil novum sub sole est.
But help is at hand. Concerned by the fact that fewer and fewer teenagers have access to
a range of foreign languages, the government is harnessing the power of the Internet to
introduce a distance-learning programme, where pupils will study Latin and other
minority languages at their own pace. Initially piloted in 60 schools from autumn
2000, the internet-based courses will enable pupils to .access advice from specialists by
e-mail.
Summary:
Latin and Greek are known as the (1) __________. The writer considers a classical
education to be a (2) _________. He believes that, in secondary school, the teaching of
classics has been (3) __________ by the introduction of the National Curriculum. This
has further led to the studying of the classics being attacked as (4) __________. In
addition, studying Latin and Greek, is wrongly (5) _________ as being (6) __________,
because classicists have no specific (7) _________ route to follow. As young people are
pressured to make money, the writer feels that the relevancy (8) __________ is difficult
to counter.
In spite of the criticisms leveled at a classical education, the writer feels that learning
Latin and Greek is highly (9) ________. And he fears that there is a danger that the
classics as a discipline will be (10) ___________. But help is at hand from a new
Internet-based distance-learning programme being piloted in 60 schools from autumn
2000. The pilot study will allow pupils to study Latin at their own pace.

PART 5. WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use
between three to eight words, including the word given.
1. Adrian was the only person who didn’t enjoy the party.
WITH
Everyone enjoyed the party _________________________________________ Adrian.
2. Sam said that the situation at work was like a family argument.
LIKENED
Sam __________________________________________________ a family argument.
3. I always find chess problems like that quite impossible.
DEFEAT
Chess problems ____________________________________________________ me.
4. I thought I could count on your support at the meeting.
UP
I had hoped ______________________________________________ at the meeting.
5. Please read the instructions carefully before you use this appliance.
MAKING
Before ________________________________, please read the instructions carefully.
6. Only the usual, everyday things happen here.
OUT
Nothing _________________________________________________________ here.
7. He did everything possible to save his marriage.
POWER
He did ________________________________________________ save his marriage.
8. I promised her that the situation would not be repeated in the future.
WORD
I __________________________________ no repetition of the situation in the future.
9. No matter what happens, Jane will never forgive Mark for what he did.
EVER
 Under _____________________________________________ Mark for what he did.
10. They were never aware at any moment that something was wrong.
TIME
At ____________________________________________ that something was wrong.
II. Statistics describing
The charts below show the percentage of their food budget the average family spent
on restaurant meals in different years. The graph shows the number of meals eaten
in fast food restaurants and sit-down restaurants.
You should write at least 150 words.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

III. Write an essay of about 250 words to express your opinion

on the following topic
Increasing the price of petrol is the best way to solve growing traffic and pollution
problems.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
What other measures do you think might be effective?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your
own knowledge and experience.
 ANSWER KEY
PART 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the sentences below. You are going to hear two women talking about a
holiday in France. Read the sentences, and choose the best option: a, b, or c, to
complete the statements about the recording.
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. C
Tapescripts:
Paula Hi Meg!
Meg Paula! It's great to see you! You look fantastic!
Paula Oh. do I? That's strange. I should be looking awful.
Meg Why? Have you been ill?
Paula No. Not that. It's just that trip to Paris. It was a nightmare'.
Meg Really? You must be joking! Don't tell me you didn't have a good time. When you
told me you were going I was green with envy.
Paula No wonder, I was so excited I just couldn't wait to go. Now I wish we'd gone to the
Lake District or even just stayed at home.
Meg But what was so bad about it? Paula Well, in the beginning everything looked all
right. Mark's boss gave him two weeks off without too much trouble, the children went to
stay with Mark's mother, and Sheila - you know, my younger sister-promised to come
over to our place to feed the hamster. So we packed our suitcases and set off.
Meg Sounds all right so far.
Paula Yes, but in Dover it turned out that the ferry terminal workers had gone on strike,
and we had to wait over eight hours before we could board a ferry.
Meg Oh no!
Paula And that was just the beg inning. During the passage the weather turned stormy,
and I was terribly sea-sick all the way across the Channel.
Meg Oh, poor you!
Paula Yeah, it was horrid. Then, when we arrived in Calais, it was so late that we had to
look for somewhere to spend the night.
Meg Oh dear!
Paula Yes, but that's not all! On the way to Paris the next day we had a puncture, so
Mark had to change the tyre, the hotel where we'd booked a room turned out to be
terribly noisy, it was pouring with rain most of the time, and some of the galleries I
wanted to visit were closed.
Meg Oh no! So what did you do, then?
Paula Well, I ended up shopping for clothes. That's about the only thing I can't complain
about, but, obviously, it wasn't cheap, so Mark go t furious.
Meg No surprise there!
Paula Hmmm so in the end we decided to shorten our stay and left after just ten days.
You can imagine our return trip - I was unhappy. Mark was mad at me because of the
money, and," when we got home, the flat was flooded.
Meg Flooded?
Paula Yes, we couldn't believe it! When we were away, Sheila let the hamster out of the
cage for a while, and the horrid creature bit through the fridge cable. Of course, she
didn't even notice, but when we got back, there was water all over the kitchen floor and
all the food in the fridge had gone off.
Meg What a nightmare!

II. Read the statements and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F).
1. F
2. T
3. F
4. T
5. F
Tapescripts:
A talk from a member of the conservation Society about 'green cleaning'
Good morning everyone. It's a pleasure to be here as a representative of the
Conservation Society, to talk to you about "Green Cleaning", in other words about ways
you can help to save the environment at the same time as saving money.
I'll start with saving money - as we're all interested in that, especially students who are
living on a tight budget. Probably none of you has sat down and calculated how much
you spend on cleaning products each year everything from dishwashing detergent,
window cleaners and so on through to shampoos and conditioners for your hair, and then
those disasters products to get stains out of carpets, or to rescue burnt saucepans. I can
see some nods of agreement, even if you don't spend a lot of time on housework you'd end
up spending quite a lot of money over a period of time, wouldn't you? We can save money
on products and also use products which are cheap, biodegradable and harmless to the
environment - these I will call 'green' products. Unfortunately most cleaning products on
sale commercially are none of these, and many of our waterways and oceans are polluted
with bleach, dioxins, phosphates and artificial colourings and perfumes. Also think how
many plastic bottles each household throws away over a year -they'll still be around in
land-fill when you are grandparents! So we often feel there's nothing we can do to make
a difference, but we can. The actual 'recipes' are on handouts you can take at the end of
the talk: The sorts of ingredients I'm referring to are things like bicarbonate of soda,
eucalyptus oil, ammonia, vinegar, lemons, pure soap. Lastly many people find they're
allergic to modem products, so for all you asthma sufferers keep listening. Nothing in
these recipes should cause you any problems, an end to itching and wheezing!
So let’s start with spills and stains. Soda water is wonderful as an immediate stain
remover: mop up the excess spill don't rub but apply soda water immediately - it's great
for tea coffee wine beer and milk - as is salt or bicarbonate of soda, which will absorb
the stain - then vacuum when dry and shampoo if necessary.
While we are talking about disasters lets quickly look at some others that can be avoided.
Bicarbonate of soda is wonderful for removing smells, especially in the fridge - an open
box in the fridge will eliminate smells for up to three months. And those terrible burnt
saucepans? Either sprinkle with our good friend bicarb again and leave it to stand, or
cover with vinegar and a layer of cooking salt.
Bring it to the boil and simmer for ten minutes, then wash when cool. Much cheaper than
a new saucepan! Then there are heat rings on wooden furniture. Simply rub with a
mixture of salt and olive oil, or for scratched furniture use olive oil and vinegar.
Now let's look at general cleaning - first the floors. If your floor covering is made of
slate, cork or ceramic tiles or lino it probably only needs a mop or a scrub with vinegar
in a bucket of water. Carpets can be shampooed using a combination of pure soap
washing soda, cloudy ammonia and some boiling water. You put a small amount of this
mixture onto the mark on the carpet, rub with a cloth until it lathers and then wipe off the
excess. A smelly carpet can be deodorized by sprinkling bicarbonate of soda on the
surface, leaving overnight and vacuuming off the next day. Cleaning in the kitchen,
bathroom and toilet is the next section....
III. Complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words and/or a
number each answer.
1. Ring road
2. Read background
3. Registration plates
4. (the) underground
5. Private vehicles
Tapescripts:
Ok, on to the area itself. The congestion charging zone is everywhere inside London's
inner ring road. For those of you not familiar with London's road system, this includes
the City of London, that's the main financial district, and the West End, the commercial
and entertainment centre. If you're still not sure, there are very clear signs on all roads
which indicate when you are entering the area. These are round and have a white letter
“C” on a red background. The scheme is policed, by cameras which photograph all cars
entering the area and send them to a computer which can recognize all British and
European car registration plates. If you pay the eight pound charge, you'll find London a
little easier to drive round than it was before the charge was introduced. But if it's all too
much trouble, and you decide to leave your car at home, then you are left with public
transport: that's trains, buses, taxis or the underground. Some of the money from the
congestion charging scheme is being used to upgrade public transport, so you should see
improvements there. And because of reductions in the number of private vehicles on
London's roads brought about by congestion charging, buses and taxis are providing a
quicker, more efficient service than they did in the past. OK, I've covered the main details
that you need to know.

PART 2: PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose stress syllable is different from those of the other
words
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. B 5.C
II. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
those of the other words
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. D 5.D
PART 3: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Choose the best word from A, B, C or D that fits each blank
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. A
11. D 12. D 13. C 14.D 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. C
II. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write
their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right.
1. preventing  prevention
2. acceptable  accepted
3. payment  paid
4. criminal  crime
5. present  presence
6. secure  security
7. shopping  shops
8. worthless  worth
9. arrangement  arranging
10. visible  vision/visibility

III. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles
1. on
2. up
3. aside
4. behind
5. in
6. up
7. round
8. off
9. up
10. in
IV.Put one suitable preposition in the blank of each sentence
1. with
2. in
3. to
4. of
5. in
 6. under
7. of
8. for
9. for
10. within

V. Put each verb in parentheses into an appropriate form

1. will be doing 6. have met 11. was not 16. have always wanted
2. will be 7. love working 17. performed
3. ask 8. has visited 12. got 18. has been
4. belong 9. suffered 13. have worked / 19. was
have been working
5. died 10. borrowed 20. owns
14. went
15. are thinking

VI.Write the correct form of the word given

1. destructive
2. regardless
3. residential
4. composure
5. respectful
6. easily
7. inconvenience
8. relating
9. irritable
10. background

VII. Select a suitable word from the box to fill each blank in the passage
1. complicated
2. different
3. but
4. In
5. changed
6. transmit
7. view
8. mysterious
9. as
10. unless

PART 4. READING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the text and fill each gap with ONE suitable word.
1. Wish/want
2. Working
3. Would
4. Fit
5. Out
6. Time
7. Was
8. Did
9. On/doing
10. Those/ women
11. It
12. Kind
13. As/since/because
14. Is
15. Than

II. Read the text below and then decide which word best fits each blank
1. D
2. A
3. D
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. D

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. D

IV. Read the passage and complete the text below, which is a summary of the
writer’s opinion on a classical education. Use one word only from the text
to complete each blank space. You may use each word once only.
 1. Classic
2. Boon
3. Marginalized
4. Elitist
5. Damned
6. Irrelevant
7. Professional
8. Argument
9. Relevant/ pertinent
10. Lost

PART 5. WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must
use between three to eight words, including the word given.

1. ... with the exception of ....

2. ... likened the situation at work to ...
3. ... like that (always) defeat ...
4. ... you would back me up ...
5. ... making use of this appliance ...
6. ... out of the ordinary (ever) happens ...
7. ... everything in his power to ...
8. ... gave her my word (that) there would be ...
9. ... no circumstances will Jane ever forgive ...
10. ... no time were they (ever) aware ....
II & III.

- Content: 50% of total mark a provision of all main ideas and details as appreciate

- Language: 30% total mark a variety vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level
of English language gifted school students

- Presentation: 20% of total mark coherence, cohesion and style appropriate to the level
of English language gifted school students
REFERENCES

Part 1: Listening

Câu 1-5: trang 165 & 166, exercise A, sách tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11,
Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013

Câu 6-10: trang 55, exercise A, sách tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11, Hoàng Thị
Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013

Câu 11-15: trang 14, exercise B, sách tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11, Hoàng Thị
Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013

Part 2: Phonetics

Câu 1-5: trang 9-13, sách 2430 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm Tiếng Anh, Nguyễn Thị Chi &
Nguyễn Hữu Cương, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2009

Câu 6-10: trang 6-8, sách 2430 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm Tiếng Anh, Nguyễn Thị Chi &
Nguyễn Hữu Cương, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2009

Part 3: Grammar and vocabulary

I. Choose the best answer

Câu 1-6: trang 5 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB
ĐHQGHN, 2013

Câu 7-9: trang 6 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB
ĐHQGHN, 2013

Câu 10-14 trang 15 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB
ĐHQGHN, 2013
Câu 15-18, trang 8 Tuyển tập đề thi Olympic 30 tháng 4, lần XII - 2006 Tiếng
Anh, NXB giáo dục, 2006

Câu 19-20: trang 11, Bồi dưỡng học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 12, Nguyễn Phú Thọ,
NXB ĐHQGHN, 2008

II. Mistake identification: trang 146, sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”,
Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN 2013

III. Preposition: trang 43 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ,
NXB ĐHQGHN 2013

IV. Preposition: trang 50, sách Bồi dưỡng học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 11, Nguyễn
Phú Thọ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2007

V. Verb tense: trang 50-51, sách Bồi dưỡng học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 11, Nguyễn
Phú Thọ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2007

VI. Word form: trang 145 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị
Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013

VII. Complete the passage: trang 34, Tuyển tập đề thi Olympic 30 tháng 4, lần
XII - 2006 Tiếng Anh, NXB giáo dục, 2006

Part 4: Reading

I.Gap-filling: trang 17, sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ,
NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013.

II.Gap-filling with selections: trang 24&25, sách “CAE Testbuilder”, Amanda

French, 2003.
III.Multiple choice questions: trang 79-80, sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh
11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013.

IV.Completing the summary of the text with a suitable word: trang 90-92, sách
“IELTS Reading Tests”, McCarter & Ash, 2000.

Part 5: Writing

I. Rewrite sentences with the same meaning: trang 123 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng
Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN 2013

II & III.

- Content: 50% of total mark a provision of all main ideas and details as appreciate

- Language: 30% total mark a variety vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted school students

- Presentation: 20% of total mark coherence, cohesion and style appropriate to the
level of English language gifted school students
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI THI HSG CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN DH-BB
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH -11
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT Ngày thi: tháng năm 2014
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 27 trang

I. LISTENING (15 points)

Part 1: You will hear an interview with Maria Stefanovich, co-founder of a
creativity group which organises workshops far executives. For questions 1-5,
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear (5
points)
1. Corporations appreciate mask-making workshops because …
A. no one wants negative faces at the office.
B unhappy employees won’t come to work.
C. they realise how their employees see them.
D. their employees change their approach.
2. Companies are turning to creative workshops because they have acknowledged that
A. unproductive employees are a financial burden.
B. the traditional work environment has its limitations.
C. there is an increase in absenteeism.
D. employees are working too hard without enjoying it.
3. The employees at the firm ‘Play’
A. change positions frequently to lessen boredom.
B. have business cards indicating their jobs.
C. dress up like comic book characters.
D. do not have stereotyped ideas about their jobs.
4. The companies that show most interest in creative workshops are suprising
because
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A. they usually have creative employees to begin with.
B. their employees are the ones who have to present regularly.
C. there are many other exciting workshops they would prefer.
D. their employees should be used to being funny.
5. Maria mentions the traditional companies that have held workshops in order to
A. boast about the clients her company has helped.
B. show that they have a narrow list of clients.
C. downplay the serious reputations of the firms.
D. point out the diversity of those trying different approaches.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2: You will hear a report on how English has become a global language. For
questions1-10, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. (10 points)
The spread of English around the globe means it is now termed a (1)_________
English first started to spread when explorers made (2)________ to the other side of
the world.
The influence of Britain in the past and the influence of American businesses are the
(3)____________ which give English its present significance.
The number of people whose (4)___________is English is significantly greater in the
USA than in the (5)_________.
It is difficult to (6)__________ the communicative functions of English in some
countries.
It is sometimes suggested that English is (7)______ superior to other languages.
People tend to judge languages using subjective rather than (8)___________
English sentence structure is (9)__________
Language success is (10)________ on a variety of different things.
Your answers:
1. 6.

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 2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

II. PHONETICS (5 points)

Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
the underline part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions. (2.5 points)

1. A. seasonality B. conservatory C. honorable D. discordant

2. A. rejection B. regardless C. represent D. religiously
3. A. assessment B. passages C. passionate D. pessimism
4. A. essentially B. gradually C. metalized D. unpunctually
5. A. saffron B. sacrament C. saddlery D. sabbatical

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following
questions. (2.5 points)

1. A. amicable B. agreeable C. admirable D. arguable

2. A. foliage B. dislocate C. typifying D. personel
3. A. irrevocably B. unconditional C. impartially D. descendent
4. A. empowerment B. omnisciently C. ludicrousness D. momentum
5. A. morbidly B. crossbreds C. southernmost D. journalese

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Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)

Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions. (5 points)

1. Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came
to a______

A. delay B. stand C. brake D. halt

2. John refused to put his career in ______by opposing his boss.

A. jeopardy B. hazard C. risk D. stake

3. Angela’s work was praised for its ______attention to detail.

A. meticulous B. significant C. subtle D. concentrated

4. Motorists should ______well in advance of changing lanes.

A. sign B. signal C. flare D. flicker

5. The students had no money left and took out a loan to _______ him over until the
end of term.

A. last B. tend C. keep D. tide

6. The climbers sought ________from the storm.

A. escape B. refuge C. solace D. defence

7. The tour guide had a brightly-colored company badge pinned to the _______of her
jacket.

A. lapel B. border C. edge D. hem

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8. It was her first conference as partly leader, and she was determined to _______her
authority on the proceedings.

A. press B. thrust C. stamp D. mark

9. It was ______of a surprise to Andrew that he got the job.

A. rather B. something C. quite D. much

10. The last bus had gone so we were ______ with the problem of how to get home
that night.

A. affronted B. caught C. trapped D. faced

11. I don’t want to go into all the details about why I left; _______it to say that had a
better offer from another company.

A. take B. grant C. give D. suffice

12. Finish your meal with a cup of our delicious freshly ________coffee.

A. grated B. ground C. shredded D. minced

13. At the most important stage of the reason, the footballer was troubled by the
______of an old injury.

A. recurrence B. renewal C. restart D. resumption.

14. The pianist played beautifully, showing a real _______for the music.

A. sense B. understanding C. sentiment D. feeling

15. Rachel painted a gloomy _____ of life as a student.

A. image B. picture C. drawing D. illustration

16. With its engine disabled, the finishing vessel was at the _______of the storm.

A. whim B. mercy C. control D. grip

17. The more expensive carpet is a good choice ______it will last longer.

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A. by means of B. due to C. in that D. in view of

18. Money was short and people survived by _______and saving.

A. scrimping B. scavenging C. scouring D. scrounging

19. The company had severe problems and the board decided to ______it up.

A. fold B. close C. wind D. put

20. It is with _______regret that we have to inform you that your scholarship had
been withdrawn.

A. heavy B. somber C. deep D. high

Your answers:

1. 6. 11. 16.

2. 7. 12. 17.

3. 8. 13. 18.

4. 9. 14. 19.

5. 10. 15. 20.

Part 2: Read the text, find the mistakes and correct them (5 points)
Thirty years ago, the TV series UFO envisions 1999 as an era when space fighters
were launched from submarines, the world was in threat from alien invaders -and
everyone carried a slide rule in a holster on their belts.
Even as the programme was being made, pocket calculators were coming onto the
market. There was a lesson about the future: it will overtake your wildest
imaginings. If you focus on what existing technologies will develop, you miss
the real changes - and threats. This autumn sees the changeover between keyboards
and mice to using the human voice to dictate directly onto the screen, and to
command the computer. Wonderful, you may think. A cure for repetitive strain injure

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(RSI), caused by repeated physical actions. Except that it will not be. It will transfer
RSI from the wrist to the throat. The voice box is a very delicate instrument and we
are not used to speak all the time. Even 200 words (taking a little over a minute to
say) leaves us clearing our throats and sipping a drink. There will be catastrophes
unless we learn how to use our voices safe. Students who get up on the morning of an
essay deadline to compose 4,000 words on a voice -operated computer could
permanently damage their voices.
Each new technological development tends to bring problems with it. Nobody had
heard of RSI until word processors exploded onto the market. Long hours spent stare
into a computer monitor led to complaints of eyestrain, backache and even worries
about radiation leaks from the screen. Repetitive computer related tasks are such a
common features of modern work that many companies are calling in
ergonomic consultants to recommend ways to avoid RSI conditions such as carpal
tunnel syndrome, a wrist condition commonly found in people who use keyboards.
Companies found that by following their advices, claims for injury or illnesses
suffered by employees were greatly diminished.

Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part 3: Fill in the blank with suitable prepositions or particles. (5 points)

1. I can't understand what you are talking about with this design. Can we GO______
it again?
2. Stop slouching in the chair like that. SIT_______!!
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3. She didn't manage to PICK_____ anyone from the line-up as she had forgotten
completely what the mugger looked like.
4. Candles usually BURN _______ after about four hours.
5. Don't worry about the argument you had with your sister. It will soon BLOW
________.
6. It's been raining for three hours now and it doesn't look like it will LET_____
today.
7. With that accent of his, he could PASS ______ a Frenchman I think.
8. I was so tired last night that I DROPPED _______ in front of the TV.
9. The Americans PULLED _______ of the 1980 Moscow Olympics after the
invasion of Afghanistan.
10.The corruption scandal caused the resignation of three minister and eventually,
even the prime minister STOOD _______.
11.I have a splitting headache and I certainly don't FEEL ______ to going to watch a
concert.
12. Don't get him worried about money. If I were you, I'd PLAY _____the
importance of getting the loan or he will panic.
13.The two brothers GOT ________ over a beer in a local bar and resolved their
differences.
14. My brother hurt himself while he was SHOWING _______ on his new bike.
15.We were so close to finalizing the contract, but it FELL ______ at the last minute
due to the customer having financial concerns.
16.I know you don't intend do, Roger, but you COME ______ as very aggressive in
the meetings. You need to be more diplomatic when you speak.
17.Sue has very low blood pressure. When she stands up too quickly, she can PASS
_______.
18.I had a lisp when I was younger and some of the other kids would PICK
_______me at school.

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19.The police in the west of the town BLOCKED ______ four blocks to prevent the
public getting too close to the fire.
20.The group leader stayed calm when the weather got bad and told everyone to
MAKE _____ the red light they could see on the horizon.

Your answers:

1. 6. 11. 16.

2. 7. 12. 17.

3. 8. 13. 18.

4. 9. 14. 19.

5. 10. 15. 20.

Part 4: Complete following sentences with the correct form of the verbs (5 points)
The statistics on the safety of flying (1- be) ___________immensely comforting. It
(2-seem) __________that the chances of being involved in an accident (3-be)
__________a million to one – the equivalent of flying safely every day for 95 years.
Try telling that to the white-faced, petrified aerophobic, who (4-see) _________every
frown on a stewardess’ face as a portent of disaster. For some years now, psychologist
Henry Jones (5-try) _________to tell them, and he (6-do)________ a lot more
besides. He (7- develop) ________both a theory and practice for treating air travel
anxiety. Apparently, it (8-be) _________a widespread phobia. One American survey
(9- put) _________it as the fourth most common fear, preceded only by snakes,
heights and storms. Jones (10- have) ___________nearly 500 clients during the last
decade. Before they (11-come)__________to him, some of his clients (12-never
fly)___________, others (13-have)___________just one bad experience after years of
flying. One man(14- take)__________over 200 flights a year for five years and (15-
never worry) _________up till then. Then, one day on a flight to Chicago the pilot

9
(16-announce) __________that they (17- go)________to turn back because of an
engine fault. The man (18-have) ___________a panic attack and (19-try) ________to
get off the plane in mid-air. After Jones’s course, the man (20-overcome)
___________his fears and managed to fly again.

Your answers:

1. 6. 11. 16.

2. 7. 12. 17.

3. 8. 13. 18.

4. 9. 14. 19.

5. 10. 15. 20.

Part 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed words in the numbered spaces
provided. (5 points)
Pop Musicals
Lord Andrew Lloyd Webber, a man whose (0) compositions, eclectic rock
based works, helped (1) VITAL______ British and American (2) MUSIC_____
theatre in the late 20th century. As a student at Oxford University, a (3)
PARTNER_______ was founded between Webber and Timothy Rice to put on
dramatic productions.
Their first (4) NOTE ________ successful venture was ‘Joseph and The Amazing
Technicolor Dreamcoat’, a pop oratorio for children that earned world-wide acclaim.
It was followed by the rock opera, ‘Jesus Christ Superstar’, an extremely
popular, though (5) CONTROVERSY ___________work that blended classical
forms to tell the story of Jesus’ life. This show ran longer than any other similar
show in British (6) THEATRE ________history. Lloyd Webber’s last (7)

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ART________ collaboration with Rice was on ‘Evita’. ‘Cats’ was his next major
production, in which he set to music verses from a children’ book by T.S. Eliot.
With two (8) LYRIC _______ Charles Hart and Richard Stilgoe, he then
composed a hugely successful version of ‘The Phantom of the Opera’. Lloyd
Webber’s best works were flashy spectacles that featured vivid melodies and
forceful and dramatic staging. He was able to blend such varied and (9)
SIMILAR_______genres as rock and roll, English music-hall song, and (10)
OPERA_______ forms into music that had a wide mass appeal.

Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part 6: Read the text. Complete the text with the phrase (A-K) that best fits each
gap. There is one phrase you do not need. (5 points)

A FAMOUS DREAM

Although Albraham Lincoln is today one of America's best loved presidents, that was
not always so. During the American Civil War he was hated by Southerners for
abolishing slavery, and (1)________that he fully expected to be murdered by his
political opponents, and had resigned himself to his fate. According to a close friend
of his, three days prior to his assassination, Lincoln recounted a dream he'd had to his
wife and acquaintances, (2) _________. In the dream, he was lying in bed in the

11
White house in Washington, and there seemed to be a death-like stillness around him.
Then he began to hear quiet sobbing, (3)__________. He got out of bed and wandered
downstairs. There the silence was broken by the same pitiful sobbing, but he couldn't
see who was making the noise. He went from room to room but they were all
deserted, (4)_______. It was light in all the rooms and every object was familiar to
him; but where, Lincoln wondered, were all the people (5)_________? He was both
puzzled and alarmed. What could be the meaning of all this? Determined to find the
cause, he kept on walking (6)_______, which he entered. There he met with a
sickening surprise. Before him was a platform, (7)________. Around it was stationed
soldiers who were acting as guards; and there was a crowd of people, some gazing
mournfully upon the coffin, others crying bitterly. 'Who has died in the White House?'
Lincoln demanded of one of the soldiers. 'The President,' came the answer.
'He was killed by an assassin.' Then there was a loud exclamation of grief from the
crowd, (8)______. Some people have ascribed a powerful meaning to his dream,
claiming that (9)_______. Others point out that, given the fact that he fully expected
that someone would try to assassinate him, (10)________.

A. although the same mournful sounds of distress met him as he walked along
B. as if a number of people were crying
C. in which he foresaw his own death
D. it is hardly surprising that he dreamt of his own death
E. Lincoln knew that he was about to die
F. on which rested a coffin
G. such was their antipathy towards him
H. he had had the dream before
I. until he arrived at the East room
J. which awoke him from his dream
K. who were grieving as if their hearts would break

12
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. READING (25 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) that
best fits the blank. (7.5 points)
From the moment they leave the security of their accustomed environment, travellers
are at risk. (1) ……..arise not just from strange diseases they meet on their travels but
from other factors too: seemingly uninspiring home (2) …………..such as safe water
(3) …………, sanittion and public hygiene controls, legal safety standards for motor
vehicles and road (4) ……….., are easily taken for granted, but simply do not exist in
many countries. Environmental factors such as arduous conditions,
(5)…………….climate, and high altitude may constitute a danger; and so may
travellers’ own behaviour, free from the (6) ……………of the daily routine, and
determined to have good time with scant (7) …….for the consequences.
When illness or injury occur abroad, travellers are again at a disadvantage – from (8)
…………to communicate with a doctor on account of language or cultural
difficulties, or being unable to find a doctor owing to (9) ……….of the
(10)………..medical system. There may be a complete (11) ………….of skilled
medical care, or of medical facilities of a (12) …………..acceptable to travellers from
technologically sophisticated countries.
When symtoms of an illness (13) …………..abroad do not appear until after return
home a final hazard becomes apparent: the symptoms may be (14) …………….., may
pass (15) ……………, and the correct diagnosis may not be considered until it is too
late.
1.A. Questions B. Changes C. Hazards D. Complications
2.A. comforts B. helps C. cares D. aids

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3.A. stores B. collection C. levels D. supplies
4.A. correction B. maintenance C. improvement D. quality
5.A. worsening B. unusual C. sudden D. adverse
6.A. restraints B. assurances C. certainties D. regulations
7.A. knowledge B. awareness C. regard C. need
8.A. inability B. difficulty C. inflexibility D. timidity
9.A. misuse B. doubt C. ignorance D. disbelief
10.A. local B. district C. neighborhood D. area
11. breakdown B. failure C. disruption D. absence
12.A. type B. design C. standard D. degree
13.A. received B. formed C. gained D. acquired
14.A. unfamiliar B. unlikely C. unpleasant D. uncovered
15.A. unrecognized B. unknown C. unforeseen D. unearthed

Part 2: Fill in each blank with one suitable word. (7.5 points)
IQ TESTS
Psychologists have long been interested in (1)________ we judge intelligence in
strangers. Now scientists have designed tests (2) _________ try to discover which
cues help people to judge IQ accurately, and which cause them to get
(3)_________wrong. High school pupils were videotaped answering thought-
provoking questions and the videos were (4)________ shown to groups of
‘judges’ who were asked to assess the students’ physical type and monitor a
variety of behavioural cues. Next the judges were asked to rate the students’
intelligence. At the (5) _________ time, each student was (6) __________ required
to sit a standard IQ test. Certain cues matched the (7)________ of the IQ tests more
closely than others. (8)________ speaking quickly, using a lot of words or
displaying ease (9)_______ understanding caused the judges to rate the
students’ intelligence highly, (10)_________ was reflected in the IQ tests,

14
(11)_________cues seemed to give the judges an entirely false impression of
intelligence (12)_________ measured by the IQ test. (13)________the cues that led
judges to assess students as dull were factors (14)______ as using halting speech or
slang. Cues that led judges to view students as bright included talking loudly
and using proper English. (15)_____ of these traits correlated with measured IQ,
however.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 3: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points)

The term “art deco” has come to encompass three distinct but related design trends of
the 1920’s and 1930’s. The first was what is frequently referred to as “zigzag
moderne” –the exotically ornamental style of such skyscrapers as the Chrysler
Building in New York City and related structures such as the Paramount Theater in
Oakland, California The word “zigzag” alludes to the geometric and stylized
ornamentation of zigzags, angular patterns, abstracted plant and animal motifs,
sunbursts, astrological imagery, formalized fountains, and related themes that were
applied in mosaic relief and mural form to the exterior and interior of the buildings.
Many of these buildings were shaped in the ziggurat form, a design resembling an
ancient Mesopotamian temple tower that recedes in progressively smaller stages to
the summit, creating a staircase-like effect.

The second manifestation of art deco was the 1930’s streamlined moderne”
style – a Futuristic-looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and horizontal
bands known as “speed stripes.” In architecture, these elements were frequently
accompanied by round windows, extensive use of glass block, and flat rooftops.

15
 The third style, referred to as cither “international stripped classicism,” or simply
“classical moderne,” also came to the forefront during the Depression, a period of
severe economic difficult in the 1930’s. This was amore conservative style, blending
a simplified modernistic style with a more austere form of geometric and stylized
relief sculpture and other ornament, including interior murals. May buildings in this
style were erected nationwide through government programs during the Depression.

Although art deco in its many forms was largely perceived as thoroughly
modern, it was strongly influenced by the decorative arts movements that
immediately preceded it. For example, like “art nouveau” (1890-1910), art deco also
used plant motifs, but regularized the forms into abstracted repetitive patterns rather
than presenting them as flowing, asymmetrical foliage, Like the Viennese
craftspeople of the Wiener Werkstatte, art deco designers worked with exotic
materials, geometricized shapes, and colorfully ornate patterns. Furthermore, like the
artisans of the Arts and Crafts Movement in England and the United States, art deep
practitioners considered it their mission to transform the domestic environment
through well-designed furniture and household accessories.

1. What aspect of art deco does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The influence of art deco on the design of furniture and household accessories

B. Ways in which government programs encouraged the development of art deco

C. Architectural manifestations of art deco during the 1920’s and 1930’s

D. Reasons for the popularity of art deco in New York and California

2. The word “encompass” is closest in meaning to

A. separate B. include C. replace D. enhance

3. The phrase “The first” refers to

A. the term “art deco” B. design trends

16
 C. the 1920’s and 1930’s D.skyscrapers

4. The author mentions “an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower” in order to

A. describe the exterior shape of certain “art deco” buildings

B. explain the differences between ancient and modern architectural steles

C. emphasize the extent of architectural advances

D. argue for a return to more traditional architectural design

5. The streamlined moderne style is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

A. animal motifs B. flat roofs

C. round windows D. “speed stripes”

6. The phrase “came to the forefront” is closest in meaning to

A. grew in complexity B. went through a process

C. changed its approach D. became important

7. According to the passage, which of the following statements most accurately

describes the relationship between art deco and art nouveau?

A. They were art forms that competed with each other for government support
during the Depression era.

B. They were essentially the same art form.

C. Art nouveau preceded art deco and influenced it.

D. Art deco became important in the United States while art nouveau became
popular in England.

8. According to the passage, a building having an especially ornate appearance would

most probably have been designed in the style of

A. zigzag moderne

17
 B. streamlined moderne

C. classical moderne

D. the Arts and Crafts Movement

9. According to the passage, which of the following design trends is known by more
than one name?

A. Zigzag moderne B. Streamlined moderne

C. International stripped classicism D. Arts and Crafts Movement

10. The passage is primarily developed as

A. the historical chronology of a movement

B. a description of specific buildings that became famous for their unusual

beauty

C. an analysis of various trends within an artistic movement

D. an argument of the advantages of one artistic form over another

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points)

For over 200 years, there has been an interest in the way children learn to speak and
understand their first language. Scholars carried out several small-scale studies,
especially towards the end of the 19th century, using data they recorded in parental
diaries. But detailed, systematic investigation did not begin until the middle decades
of the 20th century, when the tape recorder came into routine use. This made it

18
possible to keep a permanent record of samples of child speech, so that analysts could
listen repeatedly to obscure extracts, and thus produce a detailed and accurate
description. Since then, the subject has attracted enormous multi-disciplinary interest,
notably from linguists and psychologists, who have used a variety of observational
and experimental techniques to study the process of language acquisition in depth.

Central to the success of this rapidly emerging field lies the ability of researchers to
devise satisfactory methods for eliciting linguistic data from children. The problems
that have to be faced are quite different from those encountered when working with
adults. Many of the linguist’s routine techniques of enquiry cannot be used with
children. It is not possible to carry out certain kinds of experiments, because aspects
of children’s cognitive development – such as their ability to pay attention, or to
remember instructions – may not be sufficiently advanced. Nor is it easy to get
children to make systematic judgments about language, a task that is virtually
impossible below the age of three. And anyone who has tried to obtain even the most
basic kind of data – a tape recording of a representative sample of a child’s speech –
knows how frustrating this can be. Some children, it seems, are innately programmed
to switch off as soon as they notice a tape recorder being switched on.

Since the 1960s, however, several sophisticated recording techniques and

experimental designs have been devised. Children can be observed and recorded
through one-way-vision windows or using radio microphones, so that the effects of
having an investigator in the same room as the child can be eliminated. Large-scale
sampling programmes have been carried out, with children sometimes being recorded
for several years. Particular attention has been paid to devising experimental
techniques that fall well within a child’s intellectual level and social experience. Even
pre-linguistic infants have been brought into the research: acoustic techniques are

19
used to analyse their vocalisations, and their ability to perceive the world around them
is monitored using special recording equipment. The result has been a growing body
of reliable data on the stages of language acquisition from birth until puberty.

There is no single way of studying children’s language. Linguistics and psychology

have each brought their own approach to the subject, and many variations have been
introduced to cope with the variety of activities in which children engage, and the
great age range that they present. Two main research paradigms are found.

One of these is known as ‘naturalistic sampling’. A sample of a child’s spontaneous

use of language is recorded in familiar and comfortable surroundings. One of the best
places to make the recording is in the child’s own home, but it is not always easy to
maintain good acoustic quality, and the presence of the researcher or the recording
equipment can be a distraction (especially if the proceedings are being filmed).
Alternatively, the recording can be made in a research centre, where the child is
allowed to play freely with toys while talking to parents or other children, and the
observers and their equipment are unobtrusive.

A good quality, representative, naturalistic sample is generally considered an ideal

datum for child language study. However, the method has several limitations. These
samples are informative about speech production, but they give little guidance about
children’s comprehension of what they hear around them. Moreover, samples cannot
contain everything, and they can easily miss some important features of a child’s
linguistic ability. They may also not provide enough instances of a developing feature
to enable the analyst to make a decision about the way the child is learning. For such

20
reasons, the description of samples of child speech has to be supplemented by other
methods.

The other main approach is through experimentation, and the methods of

experimental psychology have been widely applied to child language research. The
investigator formulates a specific hypothesis about children’s ability to use or
understand an aspect of language, and devises a relevant task for a group of subjects
to undertake. A statistical analysis is made of the subjects’ behaviour, and the results
provide evidence that supports or falsifies the original hypothesis.

Using this approach, as well as other methods of controlled observation, researchers

have come up with many detailed findings about the production and comprehension
of groups of children. However, it is not easy to generalise the findings of these
studies. What may obtain in a carefully controlled setting may not apply in the rush of
daily interaction. Different kinds of subjects, experimental situations, and statistical
procedures may produce different results or interpretations. Experimental research is
therefore a slow, painstaking business; it may take years before researchers are
convinced that all variables have been considered and a finding is genuine.

The passage has eight paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraphs contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

1 the possibility of carrying out research on children before they start talking

2 the difficulties in deducing theories from systematic experiments

3 the differences between analysing children’s and adults’ language

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In boxes 4-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT
if there is no information on this
GIVEN

4. In the 19th century, researchers studied their own children’s language.

5. Attempts to elicit very young children’s opinions about language are likely to
fail.

6. Radio microphones are used because they enable researchers to communicate with
a number of children in different rooms.

7. Many children enjoy the interaction with the researcher.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.

Ways of investigating children’s language

One method of carrying out research is to record children’s spontaneous language use.
This can be done in their homes, where, however, it may be difficult to ensure that the
recording is of acceptable (8)_______Another venue which is often used is
a (9)_________where the researcher can avoid distracting the child. A drawback of
this method is that it does not allow children to demonstrate their comprehension.

22
An alternative approach is to use methodology from the field of experimental
psychology. In this case, a number of children are asked to carry out a task, and the
results are subjected to a (10)________.

Your anwers:

1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

V. WRITING (25 points)

Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
one using between 3 and 6 words including the word given. (5 points)

1. I could only afford that house because of the loan you gave me.
lent
Had _____________ money, I wouldn't have been able to afford the house.

2. You don't have to come and see the new house if you don't wish.
obligation
You are _____________ and see the new house if you don't wish.

3. You should have seen the boss as soon as you arrived. You knew he wanted to see
you.
supposed
You _____________ boss when you arrived.

4. She is already married and you knew! I wish you had told me.
might
You _____________ she was married!

23
5. I went in to work for an hour even though I knew it was a holiday.
not
I need _____________ into work but I did anyway.

6. The headmaster will give a prize to the top student of the year.
awarded
The _____________ a prize by the headmaster.

7. Police arrested Johnson because they think he was involved in the robbery.
suspicion
Johnson was detained _____________ in the robbery.

8. You don't need to concern yourself with the new tax laws till October.
effect
The new tax laws _____________.

9. Janet has never passed any exams, as far as I'm aware.

knowledge
To _____________________ no formal qualifications.

10. None of us was expecting to have a test this morning.

blue
This morning's test _____________________ for every one of us.

Part 2

The graph below compares the number of visits to two new music sites on the
web.

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

You should write at least 150 words.

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Part 3
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Television has destroyed
communication among friends and family. Use specific reasons and examples to
support your opinion.

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 Hướng dẫn chấm
I. LISTENING (15 points)
Part 1: 5.0
1. D. their employees change their approach.
2. B. the traditional work environment has its limitations.
3. D. do not have stereotyped ideas about their jobs.
4. A. they usually have creative employees to begin with.
5. D. point out the diversity of those trying different approaches.
1.D 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.D

Part 2: 10
1. world language
2. voyages of discovery
3. two factors
4. mother tongue
5. the UK
6. determine
7. inherently
8. objective standards
9. complex
10.dependent
II. PHONETICS (5 points)
Part 1: (2.5 points)
1.A 2. C 3.C 4.A 5.D
Part 2: (2.5 points)
1.B 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.D

III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)

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Part 1: 5.0

1.D 6.B 11.D 16.B

2.A 7.A 12.B 17.C

3.A 8.C 13.A 18.A

4.B 9.B 14.D 19.C

5.D 10.D 15.B 20.C

Part 2: 5.0
1. envisions  envisioned 6. speak  speaking
2. in  under 7. safe  safely
3. what  how 8. stare  staring
4. between  from 9. features  feature
5. injure  injury 10. advices  advice

Part 3: 5.0

1. over 6. up 11. up 16. across

2. up 7. for 12. down 17. out

3. out 8.off 13. together 18. on

4.out 9. out 14. off 19. off

5. over 10. down 15. through 20. for

Part 4: 5.0
1. are
2. seems
3. are

29
4. sees
5. has been trying
6. has done/ has been doing
7. developed/ has developed
8. is
9. has puts/ puts
10. has had
11. came
12. had never flown
13 had had
14. took
15. never worried
16. announced
17. were going
18. had/ had had
19. had tried/ tried
20. overcame

Part 5: 5.0
1. revitalize 6. theatrical
2. musical 7. artistic
3. partnership 8. lyricists
4. notable 9. dissimilar
5. controversial 10. operatic

Part 6: 5.0
1.G 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.K
6.I 7.F 8.J 9.E 10.D

IV. READING (25 points)

Part 1: 7.5
1.A. Questions B. Changes C. Hazards D. Complications
2.A. comforts B. helps C. cares D. aids

30
3.A. stores B. collection C. levels D. supplies
4.A. correction B. maintenance C. improvement D. quality
5.A. worsening B. unusual C. sudden D. adverse
6.A. restraints B. assurances C. certainties D. regulations
7.A. knowledge B. awareness C. regard C. need
8.A. inability B. difficulty C. inflexibility D. timidity
9.A. misuse B. doubt C. ignorance D. disbelief
10.A. local B. district C. neighborhood D. area
11. breakdown B. failure C. disruption D. absence
12.A. type B. design C. standard D. degree
13.A. received B. formed C. gained D. acquired
14.A. unfamiliar B. unlikely C. unpleasant D. uncovered
15.A. unrecognized B. unknown C. unforeseen D. unearthed

1C 2A 3D 4B 5D 6A 7C 8A 9C 10A
11D 12C 13D 14A 15A

Part 2: 7.5
1. how 2. that/which 3. it 4. then 5. same
6. also 7. results 8. while 9. of 10. and
11. other 12. as 13. among/ 14. such 15. none
amongst

Part 3: 5.0
1. C 2.B 3.B 4.A 5.A
6.D 7.C 8.D 9.C 10.C

Part 4: 5.0

31
1. C 2. H 3. B

4. T 5. T 6. F 7. NG

8. acoustic quality 9. research centre/center 10. statistical analysis

V. WRITING (25 points)

Part 1: 5.0

1. I could only afford that house because of the loan you gave me.
lent
Had __YOU NOT LENT ME THE__ money, I wouldn't have been able to afford the
house.
2. You don't have to come and see the new house if you don't wish.
obligation
You are __UNDER NO OBLIGATION TO COME__ and see the new house if you
don't wish.
3. You should have seen the boss as soon as you arrived. You knew he wanted to see
you.
supposed
You __WERE SUPPOSED TO SEE__ boss when you arrived.
4. She is already married and you knew! I wish you had told me.
might
You __MIGHT HAVE TOLD ME__ she was married!
5. I went in to work for an hour even though I knew it was a holiday.
not
I need __NOT HAVE GONE__ into work but I did anyway.
6. The headmaster will give a prize to the top student of the year.
awarded
The __TOP STUDENT WILL BE AWARDED__ a prize by the headmaster.
7. Police arrested Johnson because they think he was involved in the robbery.
suspicion
Johnson was detained __ON SUSPICION OF INVOLVEMENT/BEING
INVOLVED__ in the robbery.
8. You don't need to concern yourself with the new tax laws till October.
effect
The new tax laws __DON'T TAKE EFFECT TILL OCTOBER__.

32
9. Janet has never passed any exams, as far as I'm aware.
knowledge
To __MY KNOWLEDGE, JANET HAS__ no formal qualifications.
10. None of us was expecting to have a test this morning.
blue
This morning's test __CAME OUT OF THE BLUE__ for every one of us.

Part 2: 10
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as
appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate
to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school
students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

Part 3: 15
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as
appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate
to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school
students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

33
Tapescript:
Part 1:

34
Part 2:

35
36
 BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ GIỚI THIỆU THI HSG
TRƯỜNG PT VÙNG CAO VIỆT BẮC KHU VỰC DH & ĐBBB 2014
MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 11

PART I: LISTENING
Question 1: You are going to hear a talk about the Women’s Conference. And
then, circle the correct answer. (5p)
1. How many meetings are going to be held from August to September in Beijing?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
2. When will the Non-governmental Organization Forum on Women be held?
A. From August 13 to September 8, 1995.
B. From August 30 to September 8, 1995.
C. From September 4 to September 15, 1995.
D. From September 4 to September 16, 1995.
3. Where was the Third World Conference on Women held?
A. In Beijing B. In Mexico City C. In Copenhagen D. In Nairobi
4. How many people are expected to attend the Fourth World Conference on
Women?
A. 30,000 B. 184 C. About 6,000 D. About 60,000
5. How many years has it taken to prepare for the Fourth World Conference in
Beijing?
A. 13 years B. 10 years C. 5 years D. 3 years

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Question 2: You are going to listen to a talk about Cambridge. As you listen, fill
in the gaps with the relevant in the notes below and indicate whether the
following statements are true or false. (10p)
The university town of Cambridge, just one hour (1)……………….. of London,
has been one of the world’s most important centres of learning for (2)……………….
years. Its academic vitality and beauty create the perfect (3)……………..in which to
study. Like other students here, you will enjoy (4) ……………….. unique to the
Cambridge way of (5)…………………. During your free time you might like to
(6)………………… along the “Backs”, or try your (7) ………………… at “punting”
on the river.
Indicate whether the following statements are true or not by writing
T for a statement which is true;
F for a statement which is false.
8. Cambridge is home to some famous museums.
9. The city has extensive sporting facilities.
10. The university has many excellent restaurants.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART II: PHONETICS

Question 1. Circle the letter before the word in each group that has underlined part
pronounced differently from the rest. (2.5 p)

1. A. awful B. awesome C. awkward D. awry

2. A. wicked B. rugged C. dogged D. used
3. A. manure B. pasture C. adventure D. measure
4. A. odour B. honour C. pour D. vapour
5. A. paint B. reclaim C. drainage D. certain

Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Question 2. The stressed syllables of the three words in each group are in the same
position counting from the beginning of the words. In each group, find the word
which has the stressed syllable in a different position. (2.5 p)
1. A. commune B. momentary C. elaborate D. modesty
2. A. environment B. pneumonia C. publication D. equality
3. A. kangaroo B. involvement C. biologist D. accelerate
4. A. parrot B. reserve C. vertical D. master
5. A. traveler B. prevail C. society D. successful

Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART III : LEXICO- GRAMMAR

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write
your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (5p)

1. If noone will ...................misbehaving, all pupils will be kept in after school.

A. admit off B. admit in C. own up in D. own up to
2. When facing problems, it is important to keep a sense of............................
A. proportion B. introspection C. relativity D. comparison
3. At the scene of the disaster the Prince said some comforting words to the
..................... relatives.
A. lamenting B. waiting C. complaining D. grieving
4. I would appreciate.........................it a secret.
A. you to keep B. your keeping C. that you keep D. that you will keep
5. ......................with the size of the whole earth, the highest mountains do not seem
high at all.
A. When compared B. Compare them
C. If you compare D. A comparison
6. Centuries of erosion have exposed ................. rock surfaces in the Painted Desert
of Northern Arizona.
A. in colors of the rainbow B. colored like a rainbow
C. rainbow – colored D. a rainbow’s coloring
7. You shouldn’t have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely
................ of you.
 A. unfortunate B. insensitive C. insensible D. unconscious
8. Two days passed during which we did not ........................ a single word.
A. changed B. exchanged C. snapped D. converted
9. He escaped by....................................
A. a hair’s breadth B. the hair’s breadth
C. the breadth of a hair D. a breadth of a hair
10. “Did Jane pass her exam?”
“Yes, but only just. It was .................... The pass mark was forty – five percent
and she got forty – six”.
A. a narrow escape B. a tight spot C. a clear cut D. a close thing
11. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only ……… the hot, humid air.
A. stirred up B. cut back C. turned into D. poured through
12. The brother and sister were ……………..over who would get to inherit the beach
house.
A. at large B. at odds C. at a standstill D. at a loose end
13. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their
…………….down for a while.
A. hair B. heads C. hearts D. souls
14. Grandma says there wasn’t a ………….of truth in that story. Granddad told last
night about being a war hero.
A. speak B. crumb C. dot D. grain
15. The manager told his assistant to ……………. the mistake immediately.
A. rectify B. maltreat C. sanction D. banish
16. Good restaurants serving traditional English food are very hard to ……………….
A. come into B. get in C. come by D. go through
17. Once he decided what he wanted, he would ………….it with single mindedness.
A. go out of B. go on with C. go after D. go ahead of
18. When the funds finally ……………, they had to abandon the scheme.
A. faded away B. clamped down C. petered out D. fobbed off
19. She expressed her ……………….for certain kinds of cheaply produced movies.
A. disapproval B. distaste C. dissatisfaction D. disloyalty
20. People of all countries are expected to ……………….the principles of the United
Nations.
A. uphold B. inspect C. exaggerate D. integrate

Your answer
1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15. 17. 19.
2. 4. 6. 8. 10. 12. 14. 16. 18. 20.

Question 2. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give
the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)

One area of paleoanthropological study involves the eating and dietary habits
of hominids, erect bipedal primates including early humans. It is clear that at some
stages of history, humans began to carry their food to central places, calling home
bases, where it was shared and consumed by the young and other adults. The use of
home bases is a fundamental component of human society behavior; the common
meal served at a common hearth is a powerful symbol, a mark of social unity. Home
base behavior does not occur among nonhuman primates and is rare among
mammals. It is unclear that humans began to use home bases, what kind of
communications and social relations are involved, and what the ecological and food-
choice contexts of the shift were. Work with early tools, surveys of
paleoanthropological sites, development and test of broad ecological theories, and
advances in comparative primatology are contributing to knowledge about this
central chapter in human prehistoric.

Your answer
Mistake Correction Mistake Correction
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Question 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition(s)
or particle(s). Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)
1. The ship was bound ……………..Japan when it ran into typhoon.
2. You need to show that picture …………….a dark background.
3. I turned ……………..at the meeting but the others didn’t come.
4. Inside your passport, you should write the name of your next……………..kin.
5. We walked out of the room ……………..tiptoe, so as not to disturb the sleeping baby.
6. After the war, several people were tired for crimes …………….humanity.
7. I hate people who give………………the end of a film that you haven’t seen.
8. Everyone approved of the scheme but when we asked for volunteers they all hung
…………………
9. As nobody seems to know what to do next, may I put …………… a proposal?
10. Queen Victoria reigned ……………..Britain and Ireland for over sixty years.
11. The government was finally brought ……………… by a minor scandal.
12. The murderer turned himself ……………….to the police one week after the crime.
13. We saw Ron’s mom lay ………………..him when he came home late last night.
14. Grandfather must be tired. He’s nodding ……………….in his chair.
15. Her husband promised to mend the broken wheel soon………………fail.
16. His business is growing so fast that he must take …………………more workers.
17. Who’ll compensate me ……………… my loss?
18. Her uncle was given the award ………………recognition of his services to the
factory.
19. I must ask you not to allude …………….my past indiscretions.
20. John has grown …………………his habit of playing truant.
Your answer
1. 5. 9. 13. 17.
2. 6. 10. 14. 18.
3. 7. 11. 15. 19.
4. 8. 12. 16. 20.
Question 4. Give the correct form of the verb in parentheses. Write your answers in
the space provided (5p.)

My parents hardly (1. seat) ………..in the Brimlows’ kitchen, and my father
(2. wonder)…………… how to open the unpleasant business, when the sound of the
front door (3. hear)………….. Luther was not alone. He (4. come) …………….. into
the kitchen pale and (5. tremble)……………, and with him was a tall, well-dressed
man. Luther (6. lick) …………… his lips and (7. explain) …………….. that this was
Mr. Armroyd, the stockbroker who (8. employ) ……………. him. Without
preliminary Mr. Armroyd began: “I (9. save) ………….. the police a job by (10.
bring) …………… your son along myself, Mrs. Brimlow.”
Luther immediately began to babble: “I can explain everything, Mother. It’s
all a mistake. I (11. not steal) ……….. It was nothing but (12. borrow) …………..
Mrs. Brimlow’s cunning face (13. sharpen) ……………, and she said, “I think your
husband ought to leave us, Mrs. Pentecost. And you, too.”
My father answered her sharply. “I’m not so sure about that, Mrs. Brimlow.”
And (14. turn) …………..to Mr. Armroyd, he added: “My wife and I – we live next
door – we just (15. come) …………in here to settle some matters that (16. concern)
…………….. this young man. They may (17. relate) ………………to what you have
to say, and if we have your permission we shall stay.”
Mrs. Brimlow, (18. sniff) ……………….danger, cried, “I (19. not have)
………………..it! This is my house, and who (20. stay) ……………….in it is my
business – not Mr. Armroyd’s or anyone else’s.”
Your answer
1. 5. 9. 13. 17.
2. 6. 10. 14. 18.
3. 7. 11. 15. 19.
4. 8. 12. 16. 20.

Question 5. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space.
Write your answers in the space provided. (5 p.)
 Responding to (1. PROVOKE) ……………….insults that have been thrown at
you is a wonderful way of honing your sense of humour. The great (2. PLAY)
………………George Bernard Shaw was a (3. CONTEMPORANEOUS)……………of
Winston Churchill’s. George Bernard Shaw thoughtfully invited Churchill to the first night
of one of his plays, (4. CLOSE) ………………two tickets with a note which said, “One
for yourself and one for a friend – if you have one.” Churchill lost no time in writing back,
saying that unfortunately, due to pressure of work, he would be (5. ABLE) …………….to
come, but could he have tickets for the second night – if there is one.” This joke was (6.
DATE) ……………….more recently by a (7. PROMINENCE) ………………politician
in the labour party, when speaking to a colleague and (8. TERM) ……………….rival of
his. The two men found themselves in the same meeting, despite being (9. SWEAR)
……………….enemies. The colleague apparently rose to excuse himself, saying that he
had arranged to phone some friends, where upon the statesman immediately handed him a
small coin (enough for a brief local call) and said (10. WIT)…………….., “There you are.
Go ahead and phone them all.”
Your answer
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Question 6. Fill in each blank with the correct form of one appropriate word in the
box. Use each word only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box. (0)
has been done as an example. (5 p)

edit sense circulate censor entertain agent

head correspond politics view advertise

A newspaper makes its money from the price people pay for it and also from the
(0) ……………….it carries. A popular newspaper with a (1) ………………of over five
million daily makes a lot of money. Less serious newspapers are probably read just for
(2)…………………. They have big (3)……………….above the news stories, funny
cartoons to look at and (4)……………….photos of violence. The gossip columns are full
of stories of private lives of famous people. No one takes the (5)……………….views of
such papers seriously. On the other hand, in a free country where there is no (6)………….,
serious papers are mostly read for their news, sent to them by their (7)……………..round
the world and by the big news (8)………………… People also read these papers for their
(9)………………..of new books, films and plays and for their (10)……………….., which
represent the opinion of the newspaper itself about the important events and current issues.
Your answer
0. advertise → advertising
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

PART IV: READING COMPREHENSION

Question 1. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits
each gap. Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.)

Parents spending more quality time

Working parents are devoting more quality time to their children than
previous generations, despite time-consuming (1) ………………, research has
shown. The findings of this study go against the (2)……………..that modern parents,
especially working mothers, spend less time with their children. The study found that
parents devote more than twice as much time on the (3)……………..of their children
than they did 30 years ago. Full-time working parents were found to spend more time
with their children than their part-time and non-working counterparts. This time is
spent talking to children and enjoying planned (4)…………..activities, (5)…………..
swimming and trips to museum together.
The results of the research (6)……………… that parents devote an average of
85 minutes a day to each child. This compares with 25 minutes a day in the
(7)…………….. 1970s. And it is predicted that the figure will (8)……………… to
100 minutes a day by 2010.
The study highlighted a new concept of “positive parenting”, where mothers
and fathers are (9)……………….. committed to working hard to be good parents and
providing the best material and emotional support for their children. The findings
suggest that the “new man” is not a myth. Today’s fathers were found to be more
involved in their children’s lives than their own fathers or grandfathers were. More
fathers are said to be equal (10)……………….in parenting.
During the study, three generations of families were (11)……………….on
their (12)……………….to parenting. What is clear is that parents desire an increase
in creative involvement with children, and for family democracy. (13)…………….,
this increase in parental involvement also (14)……………….an increase in the stress
(15)……………….being a parent. In the future, parenting classes could become as
commonplace as antenatal classes are today.
1. A. jobs B. work C. positions D. occupations
2. A. saying B. thought C. statement D. claim
3. A. education B. upbringing C. training D. instruction
4. A. amusement B. free C. leisure D. pleasure
5. A. instead of B. on one hand C. as well as D. such as
6. A. show B. say C. display D. appear
7. A. mid B. middle C. medium D. halfway
8. A. arise B. arouse C. rise D. raise
9. A. equally B. hardly C. similar D. nearly
10. A. couples B. partners C. colleagues D. mates
11. A. questioned B. answered C. asked D. requested
12. A. thinkings B. opinions C. agreements D. attitudes
13. A. However B. Therefore C. Although D. Despite
14. A. says B. suggests C. estates D. hints
15. A. for B. of C. in D. to
Your answer
1. 4. 7. 10. 13.
 2. 5. 8. 11. 14.
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.

Question 2. Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the
numbered blanks provided below the passage. (7.5p.)

Egyptian Antiquities at Risk

Egypt’s prehistoric sites are at risk from tourism. UNESCO and the European
Commission have been asked for funds to save them. Experts believe that
(1)…………….. urgent measures are taken, no prehistoric sites in Egypt will
(2)…………….. left unharmed. Many prehistoric sites in the desert (3)……………..
already been lost to development projects. Now (4)……………… are destroying the
country’s remaining prehistoric sites faster (5)………………. Scientists can save
them. In the far south-west of the desert is Wadi Sura or the ‘Valley of Pictures’. Two
main caves in the valley, (6)………………were featured in the film ‘The English
Patient’, contain hundreds of paintings that date (7)…………….. between 7000 and
5000 Be. (8)……………… to archaeologists, tourists are pouring water over the
figures to make (9)………….. more easily visible. (10)…………. Draws up salts to
the surface and causes the surface to flake (11)……………….. ‘The paintings are
(12)…………….. destroyed’, says one expert. Elsewhere in the desert, four-wheel
drive (13)……………… are scattering artefacts at thousands of unexcavated
(14)……………. Zahi Hawass, Egyptian under-secretary of sate for the Giza
monuments, says: ‘The desert is (15)…………….. threat. This area has to be
conserved.’
Your answer
1. 6. 11.
2. 7. 12.
3. 8. 13.
4. 9. 14.
5. 10. 15.
Question 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D
for each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)
Lichens, of which more than twenty thousand species have been named, are
complex associations between certain fungi and certain algae. The lichen itself is not
an organism; rather it is the morphological and biochemical product of the
association. Neither a fungus nor an alga alone can produce a lichen.
The intimate relationship between these two living components of a lichen
was once erroneously thought to represent mutualism. In mutualistic relationships,
both participants benefit. With lichens, however, it appears the fungus actually
parasitizes the algae. This is one of the conclusions drawn from experiments in which
the two components of lichens were separated and grown apart.
In nature, lichen fungi may encounter and grow around several kinds of algae.
Some types of algae the fungi may kill; other types it may reject. Lichen algae are
autotrophic, meaning they make their own food through photosynthesis. Lichen fungi
are heterotrophic, meaning they depend upon the algae within the lichen to supply
their food. Up to ninety percent of the food made by the green algal cells is
transferred to the fungus. What, if anything, the fungus contributes to the association
is not well understood.
Lichens are hardy. They grow in many habitats and are often pioneers in
hostile environments where few other organisms can flourish. They have been known
to grow endolithically, having been discovered thriving inside of rocks in Antarctica.
Lichens help reduce erosion by stabilizing soil. Several kinds of insects glue lichens
to their exoskeleton for camouflage. Many species of birds use lichens as building
materials for nests. Humans have used lichens for dyes and antibiotics.
1. Which of the following best describes the lichen association?
A. Simple plants made of two different autotrophic organisms
B. A mutualistic association between fungus and an alga.
C. A parasitic association between two fungi, one autotrophic, the second
heterotrophic.
D. A union between a parasitic fungus and an autotrophic alga.
2. The word “hardy” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. tender B. durable C. armed D. beneficial
3. In biology, mutualism occurs when two different organisms live close together and
A. one organism parasitizes the other
B. both organisms benefit from the association
C. both organisms are harmed by the association
D. one organism benefits while the other does not or is harmed by the association
4. In paragraph 2, the word “intimate” is nearest in meaning to
A. living B. extraordinary C. biological D. close
5. Lichens serve as camouflage for which of the following?
A. Insects B. Birds C. Reptiles D. Mammals
6. The true nature of the relationship between the lichen components was clarified by
A. examining lichens with a microscope
B. observing lichens placed in the dark
C. observing the lichen components when grown apart
D. decreasing the amount of nutrients available to the lichens
7. In paragraph 4, the word “hostile” is closest meaning to
A. unusual B. cool C. untraveled D. inhospitable
8. An endolithic lichen is one that
A. grows in the canopies of trees
B. grows inside rocks
C. grows at very high altitudes
D. grows inside other organisms, including other lichens
9. Many lichens contribute to the communities they inhabit by
A. removing pollutants from the air C. slowing the spread of viruses
B. controlling wood-rotting fungi D. reducing soil erosion
10. In what part of the passage does the author indicate that scientists have changed
their previous position on the makeup of lichens?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Your answer
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A
Question 4. The reading passage has eleven paragraphs A-K. Choose the most
suitable headings for paragraphs B-K from the list of headings below. There are
more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. Write the
appropriate numbers (i-xiv) in the spaces provided. (10p.)
List of Headings
(i) Commercial companies have cashed in
(ii) A business coveted by commercial companies
(iii) A new regulation enforced by European weatherman
(iv) A profitable market
(v) Complaints made by private companies
(vi) Commercial companies enjoyed unfair advantages
(vii) Value brought by accurate forecasts
(viii) How scientists get accurate forecasts
(ix) The situation will be changed soon
(x) Improved weather forecasts
(xi) The history of weather forecasting
(xii) How people avoid complying with the rule
(xiii) Damages caused by the hurricane
(xiv) Little profit made from a profitable market

It Never Rains
A Weather forecasts on Hurricane Floyd, which has just hit North Carolina,
persuaded state governors along the southeastern seaboard to urge more than 2 billion
people to evacuate island. Since 1854, when state-sponsored meteorology was born,
weather forecasting has always been recognized as a valuable business – one dollar
invested in meteorology is said to yield about 15$ in terms of casualties avoided,
harvest saved and so on. But now that the Internet has made selling weather
information so easy, the market is being fought over as never before.
B Weather forecasts have become much more accurate over the past 20 years.
Today’s three-day forecasts are as good as one-day forecasts were in 1981. Ten-day
forecasts are fast becoming the standard.
C The more accurate the forecasts, the more they are worth. Sales of iced tea
multiply by five each time the thermometer above 15°C. With a three-day forecast,
retailers can send their orders to their sunniest outlets and soft-drinks companies can
adjust their rate of production. Movie audiences, medicine consumption and toll
receipts all vary according to the sky. In winter, power companies can save up to
100,000$ a day if they know in advance how high users will turn up their heating.
D Throughout most of its history, weather forecasting has been done by
national governments, although, since any rain forecast for London incorporates data
collected from as far away as Fiji, they have to cooperate. The World Meteorological
Organization (WMO), part of the United Nations, organizes the free exchange of data
among 185 member states. But the more accurate – and therefore valuable – the
weather forecasts become, the more commercial companies want to get into the
business.
E By some estimate, Europe’s weather forecasting market is currently worth
$150m and it may soon be worth $700m. The state-owned weather forecasters are
keen to cash in, but they remain heavily dependent on their governments. Britain’s
meteorological office earns more in commercial revenues than any of its European
counterparts, but it brings in only £24m of its £155m budget.
F One reason is that commercial companies have been taking an increasing
slice of the weather business in Europe. Over the past five years, global companies,
such as Japan’s Weathernews, or national forecaster, such as the Netherlands’ Meteo
Consult, have captured 20% of the market from government weather services.
Accuweather, an American company, has been courting European media,
businessmen, mariners and mountain-climbing fanatics.
G Europe’s state-owned weather services complaint that the commercial
companies have unfair advantages. Unlike them, the American Weather Service –
which, according to the rules that govern it, is not allowed to sell information –
passes on without charge the data it receives from the WMO to private companies.
Thus, private forecaster can stock up on free American data and resell it to other
markets without investing in costly satellites or super-computers.
H In 1995, European weathermen, supported by the South Americans, made
the WMO adopt a new rule – Regulation 40 – that identifies two categories of
products. Raw data needed by meteorologists all over the world remain at
everybody’s disposal. But weather services may not sell the data that have the
greatest economic value – forecasts for a particular city, for instance – outside their
national markets.
I So naturally everybody sets about circumventing Regulation 40.
Universities, which still enjoy free access to all weather data, are under suspicion, but
the main way around the rules is to use the Internet, where the notion of national
markets, used by Regulation 40, simply does not apply.
J Private companies have also complained about government weather
services to the European Commission, claiming that the absence of competition
between them proves collusion. And they say that those services dump weather data.
In France, for example, the government weather service, Meteo France, gets FFr 2m a
year from selling forecasts to TF1, the biggest commercial television station. TF1,
meanwhile, gets FFr 1.7 billion in revenue from advertising spots around the weather
report.
K So far, the commission has turned a deaf ear and the WMO has managed to
persuade its members to take a united stand. Too much competition from the private
sector would jeopardize the free exchange of data that allows any country to
formulate forecasts. But the amounts at stake may soon change this.

Your answer
Paragraph Answer Paragraph Answer
1. B 6. G
2. C 7. H
3. D 8. I
4. E 9. J
5. F 10. K
PART IV: WRITING
Question 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as
similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (2.5p.)

1. There has been a time when the English language was not in a state of change.
At no time ……………………………………………………………………
2. The President clearly felt the ministers he sacked had not acted swiftly enough.
The ministers sacked …………………………………………………………
3. The climber nearly died when they founder him.
The climber was on …………………………………………………………
4. The brochure gives hardly any useful information.
Precious ……………………………………………………………………….
5. Our son is looking forward to going to Disney world.
Our son is excited ……………………………………………………………
Question 2. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as
possible in meaning to the original sentence but using the word given. This word
must not be altered in any way. (2.5p.)

1. At first the new computer made me feel a bit afraid. (AWE)

………………………………………………………………………………....
2. If things go wrong, James, whatever you do, do not panic. (HEAD)
…………………………………………………………………………………
3. A government official leaked the story to the world press. (WIND)
………………………………………………………………………………….
4. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime. (RED-HANDED)
………………………………………………………………………
5. He liked the new job straight away. (DUCK)
…………………………………………………………………………………
Question 3: The following table gives statistics showing the aspects of quality of
life in five countries. Write a report describing the information in the table
below. (10p)
You should write at least 150 words.
 Country GNP per head Daily calorie Life Infant
(1992: US supply expectancy at mortality rates
dollars) Per head birth (years) (per 1000 live
births)
Bangladesh 140 1877 40 132
Bolivia 570 2086 50 124
Egypt 690 2950 56 97
Indonesia 580 2296 49 87
USA 13 160 3652 74 12

Question 4: In many countries, an increase in crime has been blamed on violent

images on television and in computer and video games.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? (15p)
Give reason for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge of experience.
Write at least 250 words.
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-THE END-
 BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI HSG KHU VƯC
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MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 11

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PART I: LISTENING
Question 1: You are going to hear a talk about the Women’s Conference. And
then, circle the correct answer.
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. D
Tapescript
There will be two meetings held in Beijing, and they will overlap. One – the
NGO (Non-governmental Organization) Forum on Women will be held in Beijing
from August 30 to September 8, 1995. The other one – the Fourth World Conference
on Women (FWCW) of the United Nation will be held in Beijing from September 4
to 15, 1995.
Why is the UN (United Nation) holding these meetings? The UN has noticed
that discrimination against women has been increasing. The UN definition of
discriminations – any distinction, exclusion or restriction made on the basis of sex,
which has the purpose of deciding or not allowing the full recognition of a woman on
a basis of equality between male and female, human rights, freedom in political,
economic, social, cultural or other fields.
Women are discriminated against in every country of the world. The UN has
issued policies to deal with the discrimination. The UN has also placed the
improvement of women’s status position high on the global agenda.
The world is getting smaller. We are becoming a global family that shares
problems and difficulties. We can learn from one another, help one another and share
ideas and information. There have been three precious world conferences on women.
First in Mexico City in 1975, second in Copenhagen in 1980 and third was in Nairobi
in 1985. During the first conference held in Mexico City in 1975, which was during
the “International Women’s Year”, one outcome was the declaration by the UN
General Assembly for “Decade for Women” (1976 – 1985). In Copenhagen in 1980
the participants adopted a “Program of Action” for the second half of the UN Decade
for Women. The 1985 Nairobi Conference was held at the end of the UN Decade for
Women and the results were published in a book called the Forward Looking
Strategies, which provided a framework for action at the international, national and
regional levels of government and groups to promote greater equality and
opportunities for women.
The slogan for the UN Decade for Women was equality, development and peace.
This year from the end of August until the middle of September, Beijing will hold
two conferences. They are separate conferences but related. The NGO Forum ’95
from August 30 to September 8 about 30,000 participants, both women and men, are
expected to attend. It will be about women, their lives and their perspectives. This
will provide women around the world with an opportunity to discuss and develop
ideas, perspectives, plans and strategies and share information, to celebrate women’s
achievement and contributions in society, and to draw attention to and develop
solutions to the discrimination facing women worldwide.
Who can participate in the NGO Forum ’95? Any individuals or groups who fill
in an application form and send 50USD to NGO Forum, New York, by April 30,
1995. Who will attend the Fourth World Conference? Each member state of the UN
will send and official delegation. There are 184 member states in the UN. Also any
person that represents and organization which has received accreditation. This had to
be done by January 13, 1995. Six thousand people are expected to attend this
Conference. There has been over three years of preparations for this Conference in
Beijing, at the international, national and regional levels in all the participating
countries.
The Preparation Committee has organized all the issues into ten categories. The
Conference in Beijing will discuss all these issues. At the end of the Conference the
UN will issue a “Platform for Action”. The Platform for Action will address the
following critical areas of concern…
Question 2: You are going to listen to a talk about Cambridge. As you listen, fill
in the gaps with the relevant in the notes below and indicate whether the
following statements are true or false. (10p)
1. north 2. 700/seven hundred 3. atmosphere 4. privileges 5. life
6. wander 7. hand 8. T 9. T 10. F
Tapescript
Just one hour north of London lies the university city of Cambridge, which, for
seven hundred years, has been one of the world’s most important centres of learning.
The academic vitality of the city and its sheer physical beauty combine to produce the
perfect atmosphere in which to study. Like the other students here, you will enjoy
privileges which are unique to the Cambridge way of life.
During your free time, you might like to wander along the “Backs” – the lawns
which slope gently down to the River Calm – or try your hand at “punting” on the
river itself. Equally relaxing is a cycle ride through the town centre: here you can
practice your English in the charming old market place, meet other students in a
traditional English pub or pay a visit to one of the city’s world-renowned museums.
Afterwards, if you are still feeling energetic, there are facilities for every kind of
sport.
Although London is only a short journey away, Cambridge will tempt you with
entertainments of its own. You can watch Britain’s finest actors and musicians in
performance, see the latest films, or dine in one of Cambridge’s excellent restaurants.
In addition, the university social functions provide the perfect chance to make new
friends and improve your English at the same time.
PART II: PHONETICS
Question 1. Circle the letter before the word in each group that has underlined
part pronounced differently from the rest. (2.5 p)

1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D

Question 2. The stressed syllables of the three words in each group are in the same
position counting from the beginning of the words. In each group, find the word
which has the stressed syllable in a different position. (2.5 p)
 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A

PART II : LEXICO- GRAMMAR

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write
your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (5p)

1. D 3. D 5. A 7. B 9. A 11. A 13. A 15. A 17. C 19. B

2. A 4. B 6. C 8. B 10. D 12. B 14. D 16. C 18. C 20. A

Question 2. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give
the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)

Mistake Correction Mistake Correction

1. stages stage 6. are were
2. calling called 7. contexts context
3. by with 8. with on
4. society social 9. test testing
5. that when 10. prehistoric prehistory

Question 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition(s)

or particle(s). Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)
1. for 5. on 9. forward 13. into 17. for
2. against 6. against 10. over 14. off 18. in
3. up 7. away 11. down 15. without 19. to
4. of 8. back 12. in 16. on 20. out of

Question 4. Give the correct form of the verb in parentheses. Write your answers in
the space provided (5p.)

1. were hardly seated 6. licked 11. wasn’t stealing 16. concern

2. was wondering 7. explained 12. borrowing 17. be related
3. was heard 8. employed 13. sharpened 18. sniffing
 4. came 9. am saving 14. turning 19. won’t have
5. was trembling 10. bringing 15. have just come 20. stays

Question 5. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space.
Write your answers in the space provided. (5 p.)

1. unprovoked 6. updated
2. playwright 7. prominent
3. contemporary 8. long-term
4. enclosing 9. sworn
5. unable 10. wittily

Question 6. Fill in each blank with the correct form of one appropriate word in the
box. Use each word only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box. (0)
has been done as an example. (5 p)

1. circulation 6. censorship
2. entertainment 7. correspondents
3. headlines 8. agencies
4. sensational 9. reviews
5. political 10. editorials

PART IV: READING COMPREHENSION

Question 1. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits
each gap. Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.)

1. A 4. C 7. A 10. B 13. A
2. D 5. D 8. C 11. A 14. B
3. B 6. A 9. A 12. D 15. B

Question 2. Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the
numbered blanks provided below the passage. (7.5p.)
 1. unless 4. tourists 7. from 10. This/ Water 13. vehicles
2. be 5. than 8. according 11. off 14. sites
3. have 6. which 9. them 12. being 15. under

Question 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D
for each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. A
6. C 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. B

Question 4. The reading passage has eleven paragraphs A-K. Choose the most
suitable headings for paragraphs B-K from the list of headings below. There are
more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. Write the
appropriate numbers (i-xiv) in the spaces provided. (10p.)
Paragraph Answer Paragraph Answer
1. B x 6. G vi
2. C vii 7. H iii
3. D ii 8. I xii
4. E xiv 9. J v
5. F i 10. K ix

PART IV: WRITING

Question 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as
similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (2.5p.)

1. At no time has the English language been in a state of change.

2. The minister sacked were clearly felt by the president not to have acted swiftly
enough.
3. The climber was on the point of death when they found him.
4. Precious little useful information is given in the brochure.
5. Our son is excited at the thought of going to Disney world.
Question 2. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as
possible in meaning to the original sentence but using the word given. This word
must not be altered in any way. (2.5p.)

1. At first I was a bit in awe of the new computer.

2. If things go wrong, James, do not lose your head.
3. The world press got wind of the story from a government official.
4. The police caught the thieves red-handed.
5. He took to the new job like duck to water.
Question 3: 10 points
Question 4: 15 points
Notes:
The mark given to question 3 and 4 is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as
appropriate
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and
presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students.
3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures
appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school
students

-THE END-