QUALIFYING ROUND

EASY (5 PTS)
1. Who defines health as "A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence
of disease or infirmity."?
A. World Health Organization (WHO)
B. Philippine Nurses Association (PNA)
C. Department of Health (DOH)
D. International Council of Nurses (ICN)
ANSWER: A. WHO defined health in its 1948 constitution as "a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being
and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity."

2. An acute illness is:

A. Less than 2 weeks
B. Less than 1 month
C. Less than 3 months
D. Less than 6 months
ANSWER: D. Less than 6 months. A chronic illness is more than six months

3. Which of the following is the meaning of PRN?

A. When advice
B. Immediately
C. When necessary
D. Now
ANSWER: C. When necessary. PRN comes from the Latin “pro re nata” meaning, “for an occasion that has arisen or as
circumstances require”.

4. Florence Nightingale was born in

A. Germany
B. Britain
C. France
D. Italy
ANSWER: D. Italy. Florence Nightingale was born in Florence, Italy, May 12, 1820. Studied in Germany and Practiced in
England.

5. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing
ANSWER: D. Handwashing

6. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?

A. The dominant hand
B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience
ANSWER: B. The non dominant hand. Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first and then, the dominant hand.
The rationale is simply because humans tend to use the dominant hand first before the non dominant hand.

7. Which gloves should you remove first?

 A. The glove of the non dominant hand
B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary
ANSWER: A. The glove of the non dominant hand. Gloves are worn in the non dominant hand first, and is removed also
from the non dominant hand.

8. The chamber of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs is the:
A. Left atrium
B. Right atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle
ANSWER: A. Left atrium.The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle.
INTERMEDIATE (10 pts)
1.Which of the following is the FIRST priority in preventing infections when providing care for a client?
A. Handwashing
B. Wearing gloves
C. Using a barrier between client’s furniture and nurse’s bag
D. Wearing gowns and goggles
ANSWER: A. Handwashing. Handwashing remains the most effective way to avoid spreading infection.

2. What best describes nurses as health provider?

A. Determine client’s need
B. Provide direct nursing care
C. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situation
D. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patient’s care
ANSWER: A. Determine client’s need. You can never provide nursing care if you don't know what are the needs of the
client.

3. Which of the following is a complete wellness diagnoses?

A. Readiness for spiritual well-being
B. Readiness for enhanced family coping
C. Possible social isolation
D. Risk for powerlessness
ANSWER: B. Readiness for enhanced family coping. NANDA states that wellness diagnoses are one-part statements that
begin with "Readiness for enhanced..."

4. All of the following are good sources of vitamin A except:

A. White potatoes
B. Carrots
C. Apricots
D. Egg yolks
ANSWER: White potatoes. The main sources of vitamin A are yellow and green vegetables (such as carrots, sweet
potatoes, squash, spinach, collard greens, broccoli, and cabbage) and yellow fruits (such as apricots, and cantaloupe).
Animal sources include liver, kidneys, cream, butter, and egg yolks.

5. Which of the following blood components is decreased in anemia?

A. Erythrocytes
B. Granulocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Platelets
ANSWER: A. Erythrocytes. Anemia is defined as a decreased number of erythrocytes (red blood cells).

6. Patient X is diagnosed with constipation. As a knowledgeable nurse, which nursing intervention is appropriate
for maintaining normal bowel function?
A. Assessing dietary intake
B. Decreasing fluid intake
C. Providing limited physical activity
D. Turning, coughing, and deep breathing
ANSWER: A. Assessing dietary intake. Assessing dietary intake provides a foundation for the client’s usual practices and
may help determine if the client is prone to constipation or diarrhea.

7. An unexpected effect of the drug is known as:

 A. Side effect
B. Adverse effect
C. Toxic reaction
D. Allergic reaction
ANSWER: B. Adverse effect. An adverse reaction is a harmful and unexpected reaction. A side effect is expected and
predictable. C and D are incorrect because a toxic reaction is a type of adverse reaction.

8. What type of client would benefit the most from an elevated head of the bed position?
A. Patient who had a hemorrhoidectomy.
B. Patient who had a laryngectomy.
C. Patient who had a liver biopsy.
D. Patient who had a lumbar puncture.
ANSWER: B. Patient who had a laryngectomy. Place a post-laryngectomy client with head of bed elevated at 30-45
degrees to maintain a patent airway and reduce edema.
DIFFICULT (10 pts)
1. What equipment would be necessary to complete an evaluation of cranial nerves 9 and 10 during a physical
assessment?
A. A cotton ball
B. A penlight
C. An ophthalmoscope
D. A tongue depressor and flashlight
ANSWER: D. A tongue depressor and flashlight. Cranial nerves 9 and 10 are the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. The
gag reflex would be evaluated.

2. What type of patient care model is the most common for student nurses and private duty nurses?
A. Total patient care
B. Team nursing
C. Primary Nursing
D. Case management
ANSWER: A. Total patient care. This is also known as case nursing. It is a method of nursing care wherein, one nurse is
assigned to one patient for the delivery of total care. These are the method use by Nursing students, Private duty nurses
and those in critical or isolation units.

3. Which term would the nurse use to document pain at one site that is perceived in other site?
A. Referred pain
B. Phantom pain
C. Intractable pain
D. Aftermath of pain
ANSWER: A. Referred pain. Referred pain is pain occurring at one site that is perceived in another site. Referred pain
follows dermatome and nerve root patterns. Phantom pain refers to pain in a part of the body that is no longer there,
such as in amputation. Intractable pain refers to moderate to severe pain that cannot be relieved by any known
treatment. Aftermath of pain, a phase of the pain experience and the most neglected phase, addresses the client’s
response to the pain experience.

4. Forty-eight hours after delivery, the nurse in charge plans discharge teaching for the client about infant care. By
this time, the nurse expects that the phase of postpartum psychological adaptation that the client would be in
would be termed which of the following?
A. Taking in
B. Letting go
C. Taking hold
D. Resolution
ANSWER: C. Taking hold. Beginning after completion of the taking-in phase, the taking-hold phase lasts about 10 days.
During this phase, the client is concerned with her need to resume control of all facets of her life in a competent
manner. At this time, she is ready to learn self-care and infant care skills.

5. Which of the following conditions may require fluid restriction?

A. Fever
B. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
C. Renal Failure
D. Dehydration
ANSWER: C. Renal Failure. In renal failure, the kidney loses their ability to effectively eliminate wastes and fluids.
Because of this, limiting the patient’s intake of oral and I.V. fluids may be necessary.
 6. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a male client via a tracheostomy tube. When suctioning, the nurse must limit
the suctioning time to a maximum of:
A. 1 minute
B. 5 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 30 seconds
ANSWER: C. 10 seconds. Hypoxemia can be caused by prolonged suctioning, which stimulates the pacemaker cells in the
heart. The nurse must preoxygenate the client before suctioning and limit the suctioning pass to 10 seconds.

7. Which electrolyte would the nurse identify as the major electrolyte responsible for determining the
concentration of the extracellular fluid?
A. Potassium
B. Phosphate
C. Chloride
D. Sodium
Answer: D. Sodium. Sodium is the electrolyte whose level is the primary determinant of the extracellular fluid
concentration. Sodium a cation (e.g., positively charged ion), is the major electrolyte in extracellular fluid. Chloride, an
anion (e.g., negatively charged ion), is also present in extracellular fluid, but to a lesser extent. Potassium (a cation) and
phosphate (an anion) are the major electrolytes in the intracellular fluid.
CHAMPIONSHIP ROUND (5 pts)
1. When the nurse on duty accidentally bumps the bassinet, the neonate throws out its arms, hands opened, and
begins to cry. The nurse interprets this reaction as indicative of what reflex?
ANSWER: Moro or Startle reflex
The Moro, or startle reflex occurs when the neonate responds to stimuli by extending the arms, hands open, and then
moving the arms in an embracing motion. The Moro reflex, present at birth, disappears at about age 3 months.

2. Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to administer the medication in what muscle site?
ANSWER: C. Vastus lateralis.

3. A client arrives at a prenatal clinic for the first prenatal assessment. The client tells a nurse that the first day of
her last menstrual period was September 19th, 2017. Using Naegele’s rule, determine the estimated date of
confinement.
ANSWER: C. June 26, 2018. Accurate use of Naegele’s rule requires that the woman has a regular 28-day menstrual
cycle. Add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtract three months, and then add one year to that
date.

4. Your order reads cortisone 15 mg PO every morning. You have on hand cortisone 10 mg tablets. How many
tablets should you give?
ANSWER: C. 1.5 tablets

5. You need to administer prochlorperazine (Compazine) 10 mg IM to a nauseated patient. You have on hand
Compazine 5 mg/mL. How many ml should you give?
ANSWER: 2 mL

6. In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the human need of greatest priority is:

ANSWER: Physiologic Needs

7. A client who is pregnant comes to the clinic for a first visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history,
which includes a 3-year-old son at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. Determine the
gravida of this patient
ANSWER: C: Gravida 3. Gravida is the number of pregnancies and Parity is the number of pregnancies that reach
viability. Thus, for this woman, she is now pregnant, had 2 prior pregnancies, and 1 viable birth (twins).
 MESSAGE RELAY
The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog and says hello to the cat.

The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog and says hello to the cat.

The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog and says hello to the cat.

The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog and says hello to the cat.

The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog and says hello to the cat.

Elephants cannot tango but they can tiptoe through the tulips.

Elephants cannot tango but they can tiptoe through the tulips.

Elephants cannot tango but they can tiptoe through the tulips.

Elephants cannot tango but they can tiptoe through the tulips.

The perpendicular purple pen is mightier than the swishing silver

sword.

The perpendicular purple pen is mightier than the swishing silver

sword.

The perpendicular purple pen is mightier than the swishing silver

sword.

The perpendicular purple pen is mightier than the swishing silver

sword.
 POLYTECHNIC COLLEGE OF DAVAO DEL SUR
NURSING AND ALLIED PARAMEDICAL DEPARTMENT

PNSA CHRISTMAS BALL

ATTENDANCE LIST

NAME OF STUDENT COURSE & TICKET NUMBER SIGNATURE

YEAR
1. Alalong, Trisha Mae M. BSN-3
2. Alam, Quennie BSN-3
3. Alba, Jhensczy Hazel Maye BSN-4
4. Alcover, Mcqueen Alexander S. BSN-1
5. Alghaiti, Michell D. BSN-1
6. Allado, Carren Dale D. BSN-1
7. Amolo, Lovely Faith L. BSN-3
8. Antonio, Trixie Joy G. BSN-3
9. Aperocho, Mary June Jozal C. BSN-3
10. Arevalo, Stacey Kay V. BSN-1
11. Arriola, Princess BSN-1
12. Artiaga, Jenny B. BSN-2
13. Auxillo, Irish Geisha M. BSN-3
14. Aznar, Vivienne Jale C. BSN-2
15. Belarmino, Gracely Ann Q. BSN-2
16. Bell, Charisma D. BSN-3
17. Buyco, Eunice BSN-2
18. Camus, Dennielle John T. BSN-2
19. Dagpin, Aileen Claire S. BSN-4
20. Daligdig, Jea N. BSN-4
21. Datulayta, Alberto Jr. BSN-2
22. Domado, Rohaimah I. BSN-2
23. Escalante, Rose Ann Joy BSN-1
24. Gatmaitan, Lylvon Faith C. BSN-2
25. Giducos, Vince Ceasar BSN-2
26. Gonzales, Ma. Elena O. BSN-2
27. Gonzales, Niña Venice S. BSN-2
28. Guerrero, Issa Belle C. BSN-4
29. Jamad, Nor-ainie L. BSN-3
30. Lacbungan, Hannah D. BSN-3
31. Lacbungan, Abigail D. BSN-3
32. Lagura, John Aeron C. BSN-2
33. Largo, Charity Jessa C. BSN-4
34. Lopez, Roey Jane S. BSN-3
35. Lumen, Anna Fe C. BSN-1
36. Mahilum, Keanu R. BSN-1
37. Mamac, Edmund F. BSN-1
38. Moring, Joemarie C. BSN-3
39. Obias, Aludia Luella B. BSN-1
40. Padilla, Mary Shan BSN-4
41. Palamos, Noelby Jay BSN-4
42. Plantas, Jesson J. BSN-2
43. Ramirez, Alriah Dee L. BSN-4
44. Schneider, Melanie A. BSN-2
45. Tadian, Jentel F. BSN-2
46. Timkang, Emelita S. BSN-1
47. Tolosa, Anthony R. BSN-4
48. Vallecer, Krizzel F. BSN-1
49. Vicente, Mariamoneth L. BSN-3
50. Yutuc, Krizarl Kit M. BSN-1

NAME OF STUDENT COURSE & TICKET NUMBER SIGNATURE

YEAR
1. Abellanosa, Maricar B. GM-1
2. Arabis, Beverly G. GM-1
3. Bangahon, Cheery Jeane C. GM-1
4. Dura Janeth M. GM-1
5. Gallego, Mary Grace A. GM-1
6. Gambuta, Charisma F. GM-2
7. Lajah, Neahara A. GM-2
8. Nguyen, Honey Cel G. GM-1
9. Placambo, Karen D. GM-2
10. Picot, Melou Jean GM-1
11. Quilaton, Joan c. GM-2
12. Saquido, Vanessa M. GM-1
13. Vicente, Manilyn A. GM-2
14. Añana, Jecel C. CG
15. Bo-oc, Alicia N. CG
16. Fernandez, Beverly Ann B. CG
17. Yting, Rey Aulysis CG
 POLYTECHNIC COLLEGE OF DAVAO DEL SUR
NURSING AND ALLIED PARAMEDICAL DEPARTMENT

PNSA PAROL MAKING CONTEST SCORE SHEET

NAME OF GROUP ORIGINALITY 30% CRAFTSMANSHIP ARTISTRY 20% RELEVANCE TO THE USE OF COLORS 10% TOTAL
25% THEME 15%
1. BSN 1 & GM 1

2. BSN 2

3. BSN 3

4. BSN 4, GM 2 &
CG
 POLYTECHNIC COLLEGE OF DAVAO DEL SUR
NURSING AND ALLIED PARAMEDICAL DEPARTMENT

PNSA NEXT TOUGH MODEL SCORE SHEET

NAME OF GROUP STAGE PRESENCE 35% GENERAL APPEARANCE WIT & INTELLECT 25% AUDIENCE IMPACT 10% TOTAL
(MODELING 30% (WIT AND HUMOR)
TECHNIQUE, POISE, (MAKE-UP, SHOES,
SMILE, ETC.) GOWN CONDITION,
ACCESSORIES)
1. BSN 1 & GM 1

2. BSN 2

3. BSN 3

4. BSN 4, GM 2 & CG
 POLYTECHNIC COLLEGE OF DAVAO DEL SUR
NURSING AND ALLIED PARAMEDICAL DEPARTMENT

PNSA QUIZBEE SCORING SHEET

QUALIFYING ROUND
NAME OF GROUP EASY SET INTERMEDIATE SET DIFFICULT SET TOTAL
5PTS 10 PTS 15 PTS
1. BSN 1 & GM 1

2. BSN 2

3. BSN 3

4. BSN 4, GM 2 & CG

CHAMPIONSHIP ROUND
NAME OF GROUP 5PTS TOTAL

1.

2.