Reference

API 570 – DAY 3
ASME SEC IX TIPS

Written document addresses essential, QW
1 ASME IX WPS
non essential, supplementary essential 100.1
Document which establish the properties
2 QW 100.1 PQR
of the weldment
Welder ability to deposit
3 Welder qualification in to determine the QW 100.2
sound weld metal
Acceptance criteria for tension specimen Fail if values are less
4 QW 153
when specimen brakes in weld metal than material value
If specimen break in BM during tensile 5% specified minimum
5 QW 153.1
strength shall not be less than tensile strength of BM
Type of bend test process / guide bend Bottom eject and wrap
6 QW 162.1
test method
Acceptance criteria of bend test – open
7 QW 163 <1/8” accept
discontinuities
11mm plate shall qualify the range in PQR 3/16” – 22mm
8 QW 451.1
for base metal & weld metal weld metal 2t
Type and number of tests required for 2 tensile, 2 root, 2 face
9 QW 451.1
11mm thick PQR or 4 side
Base metals assigned numbers based on
10 QW 200.3 P number
composition, weld ability & mech. Prop.
Notch toughness is mandatory for which P
11 QW 200.3 P No. 11 Q&T metals
numbers
WPS - variables in SMAW procedure,
12 QW 253 Non essential variable
Joint design, root spacing
RT for welder qualification minimum
13 QW 302.2 6”
length of coupon
14 Qualification range by welder qualification QW 461.9 Plate, groove, dia.(limit)
Welders qualification by RT instead of
15 QW 304 GMAW short circuiting
mechanical test except for the process
16 F number for welder qualification limits QW 433 Table 6 (page 136)
17 Weld metal composition (A) QW 441 Table QW 442
Thickness limitation range for welder
18 QW 451 Table 451.2
qualification
Welder range qualified when ½ “ with two QW
19 2t
pass 451.2
Welder range qualified when ¾ “ with one
20 QW 451.2 All
pass
ASME IX PRACTICE QUESTIONS

(Closed Book)
1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:
a. The welder is qualified
Page 1
BOOK NO: 26
b. The base metals are strong enough
c. The weldment has the desired properties
d. The skill of the welder
2. The WPS lists:

a. Non-essential variables
b. Essential variables
c. Ranges of 1 & 2 above
d. All of the above
3. The PQR must list:

a. essential variables
b. qualification test & examination results
c. supplementary essential variables (when notch toughness is required)
d. all of the above
4. Each ____________________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX

to qualify the WPS’s used during the construction, alteration, or repair.
a. Welder or welding operator
b. Manufacturer or contractor
c. Inspector
d. All of the above
5. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator

qualification must be available to the __________.
a. Manufacturer
b. Welder
c. Authorized Inspector
d. Foreman
6. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is

qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the
________ positions.
a. Vertical
b. Flat & horizontal
c. Flat & overhead
d. Horizontal
7. welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and 4F positions is
qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the _____________ positions.
a. Flat only
b. Flat and horizontal
c. Flat and vertical
d. None of the above
Page 2
BOOK NO: 26
8. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in
the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in:
a. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position
b. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
c. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
9. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to

make:
a. Stud welds
b. Overhand welds
c. Fillet welds
d. All of the above
QW-461
10. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s

a. Tensile strength
b. Ductility
c. Notch toughness
d. All of above
11. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1

materials may be qualified using radiography.
a. True
b. False
QW-304
12. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or
fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____ below the specified
tensile and be accepted.
a. 3.5%
b. 0.5%
c. 5%
d. All of the above
QW-153 D
13. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat
effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any direction on the
convex surface of the specimen after bending.
a. 1/16”
b. 3/32”
c. 1/8”
QW-163
Page 3
BOOK NO: 26
14. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used
are found in:
a. ASME Section V
b. ASME Section IX
c. ASME Section VII
d. The referencing code
15. A WPS must describe:

a. Essential variables
b. Nonessential variables
c. Supplementary essential variable when required for notch toughness
d. All of the above
16. A PQR must describe:

a. Nonessential variables
b. Essential variables
c. Results of Welder Qualification tests
d. Project description &NDE methods
17. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

a. Inspector
b. Manufacturer or contractor
c. Welder
d. All of the above
18. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential variables for

the WPS.
a. Groove design
b. Post Weld Heat Treatment
c. Root spacing
d. Method of cleaning
Page 4
BOOK NO: 26
19. For the SAW process ________________________ is an essential variable
for the WPS.
a. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)
b. Filler metal diameter
c. Preheat maintenance
d. Addition or deletion of peening
20. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’s

____________________________.
a. Knowledge of welding requirements
b. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
c. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
d. General attitude toward welding inspectors
21. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.

a. PQR
b. WQR
c. WPS
d. WPQ
22. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1,2010 and last welded
with SMAW on March 15, 2010, would he still be qualified on October 7,
2010?
a. Yes
b. No.
QW 322.1A
23. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified
to weld ________________.
a. Without backing
b. With all base metals
c. With backing only
d. With P1 backing only
QW-310.2
24. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:

a. Must use the same method
b. May use any method
c. Are not allowed
d. Require Inspector approval
QW 321.1, 321.2, 321.3
Page 5
BOOK NO: 26
25. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the
___________ variables specified.
a. Essential & nonessential
b. Nonessential
c. Essential
d. Brazing
26. A welder depositing 1/2" of weld metal with the three layers is qualified to
deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.
a. 8”
b. Max to be welded
c. 1”
d. ½”
27. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:

a. Electrodes
b. Flux
c. Base metals
d. Joints
P no – Base Metals, A No – Weld Metals, F number- Filler materials- Electrode
28. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to

weld:
a. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11
b. P-8 – P8
c. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
d. P21 to P21 only
QW-423
29. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:

a. AWS class
b. ASME specification
c. SFA
d. “F” number
30. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated using:

a. “P” number
b. Welder I.D.
c. “A” number
d. Page number
Page 6
BOOK NO: 26
31. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process ______________________
is an essential variable.
a. Base metal thickness
b. Peening
c. P-number
d. Electrode diameter
32. Each welder must be assigned a(n):

a. P number
b. Unique identifier
c. Hood & gloves
d. Inspector
33. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, can be
weld a 2 7/8” inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal
position without re-qualification?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Not enough information provided
d. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1
QW 461-9
34. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas tungsten
arc-welding processes?
a. GMAW uses a continuously fed filler metal and GTAW a tungsten electrode
b. The SA specification of the filler metal
c. The F-number of the filler metal
d. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW
35. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-4 electrode,
on 6” Sch 160 (0.718” nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a
2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange to a 2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle
neck?
a. Yes
b. No
d. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld.
He is qualified for above 2 7/8 inch only So No is the answer
QW 452.2
Page 7
BOOK NO: 26
36. May a welder who got qualified using a double-groove weld, make a single
V-groove weld without backing?
a. Yes
b. No
d. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder
37. May a GTAW welder qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend

tests? The test coupon will be P-22 material and the production
welds will be P-22 also.
a. Yes
b. No
d. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F-22 fillers
QW 304
38. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and

welding operators?
a. The Inspector
b. The A.I.
c. The Shop Foreman
d. The Manufacturer of Contractor
39. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking indicates:
a. Flat position only
b. Horizontal position only
c. All positions
d. Only good for heat treated welds
1-ALL, 2-Flat
40. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in production?
a. Yes, welder can be used
b. No welder cannot be used
c. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
d. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing
41. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a
nonessential variable.
a. True
b. False
Page 8
BOOK NO: 26
42. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for
Performance Qualification in a 6G position?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 3
43. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position pipe
welding?
a. 3G and 4G
b. 2G and 5G
c. 3G and 1G
d. 4G and 5G
44. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?
a. ASME IX
b. ASME VIII
c. ASME B31.1
d. ASME II Part C
45. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8
material welded with either E308, E308L, E309, E316, electrodes (SMAW
process). The PQR, supporting this WPS, states the weld test coupons
were SA-240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes. Is the WPS
properly qualified for the base material listed?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Not enough information given
d. Yes, if properly heat treated
46. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be

qualified using real-time ultrasonics?
a. Yes
b. No
d. Yes, provided bend tests are done
47. Three arc-welding processes are:

a. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
b. FCAW, SAW, ESW
c. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
d. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW
Page 9
BOOK NO: 26
48. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E 7018
electrodes. May the welder weld P-4 material using E8028 electrodes with
backing in production? (Assume the P-4 procedure using E8028 electrodes
has been qualified)
a. Yes
b. No
P1-P8 is OK.7018 –F no 4, 8028 F no 1 For production weld alternate filler
material criteria applies. So it is OK
49. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate
groove welds?
a. 1G
b. 3G
c. 4G
d. All of the above
50. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-G position,
on SA-53 grade B pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test results indicate the
following:
No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld
No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal
No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory
No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory
Will these test qualify the welder?

a. Yes
b. No
d. Tension test is acceptable but No.1 is unacceptable
51. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the
Code?
a. Side and Transverse
b. Face and Root
c. Transverse and Longitudinal
d. Side and Face
Page 10
BOOK NO: 26
52. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what
position on plate?
a. F,H,OH
b. F,V,OH
c. V,OH,SP
d. H,V,OH
53. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the

following?
a. The WPS
b. The PQR
c. The WPQ
d. All of the above
54. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX,

which positions require more than two guided bend specimens
for qualification?
a. 5G and 6G
b. 2G and 4F
c. 4G and 5G
55. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe
or plate?
a. Porosity, underfill
b. Lack of penetration/over-lap
c. Slag inclusion, overlap
d. Any of the above
56. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical
properties of the weldment is called a:
a. Essential variable
b. Non-essential variable
c. Supplementary essential variable
d. All of the above
Page 11
BOOK NO: 26
57. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:
a. Notch Toughness Test To Check Notch toughness
b. Tension Test to Test UTS of groove weld
c. Fillet Weld Test To Test Size- Contour and degree of soundness of the fillet
weld
d. Guided-Bend Test- To test soundness and ductility of the groove weld joint
58. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

a. The skill of the welder
b. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required
properties
c. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment
59. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires re-qualification,

when notch-toughness is a consideration.
a. True
b. False
60. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ
must not reveal cracks when magnified at:
a. 5X
b. 2X
c. 10X
d. No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only
QW 192.4
61. A non-essential variable may be changed without re-qualification because:

a. Nobody cares about non-essential variables
b. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
c. Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-toughness
properties
d. Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-qualification
62. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable,

supplementary essential variables.
a. True
b. False
Page 12
BOOK NO: 26
63. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed
provided :
a. The AI approves
b. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be
changed. Only editorial information can be changed on a PQR.
c. The API 510 inspector approves
d. The date of the WPS is changed
64. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or
welding operators.
a. True
b. False
65. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend
surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen.
Does this coupon pass or fail?
a. Pass
b. Fail
1/8 inch will pass. Only more than 1/8 inch is not allowed
66. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position

qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.
a. True
b. False
QW 3 04 – Refer for RT for welder qualification for any material
67. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill
necessary to make sound production welds.
a. True
b. False
68. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using PI materials?

a. True
b. False
69. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work

to prepare coupons.
a. True
b. False
Page 13
BOOK NO: 26
70. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a _____________
variable.
a. Essential
b. Non-essential
c. Supplemental essential
71. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is a

______________variable.
a. Essential
b. Non-Essential
72. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature) indicating that the
information given is true and correct.
a. True
b. False
73. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW process) is
a __________ variable.
a. Essential
b. Non-essential
Here Look in the Essential Variable for WPQ Table
74. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to

be used in construction is capable of providing the required properties for
the intended application.
a. True
b. False
75. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld
positions.
a. True
b. False
76. A WPS must address all applicable non-essential variables.

a. True
b. False
Page 14
BOOK NO: 26
77. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when
qualifying a welding procedure.
a. True
b. False
Refer QW q183, Macro examination is only for fillet weld
78. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when
required by the applicable construction code, such as ASME VIII Div.1.
a. True
b. False
79. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be

qualified in which of the additional positions to qualify for all position
groove welding on pipe?
a. 1G
b. 2G
c. 5G
d. 6G
e. All of the above
80. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without re-

qualification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:
a. 500F
b. 1000F
c. 1250F
d. 1500F
e. None of the above
QW-406
81. A welder is qualified to weld all thicknesses of material when:

a. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch
b. The test thickness was ½ inch
c. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
d. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½
inches
QW 452.1.b, INVOKE NOTE-3, SO ‘C’ IS WRONG
Page 15
BOOK NO: 26
82. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder
qualification bend test after bending except for corner cracks and
corrosion resistant weld overlay?
a. ¼ inch
b. 1/8 inch
c. 1/16 inch
d. 3/16 inch
e. No defects are allowed
83. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder
to re-qualify in that process?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
e. As stated by the AI
84. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:

a. For heat treated metals
b. For quenched and tempered metals
c. For hardened and tempered metals
d. For annealed and tempered metals
e. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section
85. A welder qualified with SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to
weld for weld with backing
a. E7015
b. E6011
c. E6010
d. E7024
e. All of the above
86. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance

qualification is acceptable if the examination shows:
a. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear indication not
exceeding 1/32 inch at the root.
b. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
c. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
d. All of the above
e. Both B and C above
Refer QW 183
Page 16
BOOK NO: 26
87. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing
done by his organization. Whenever these words are used in Section IX,
they shall include
a. Designer or architect
b. Designer or installer
c. Architect or installer
d. Installer or assembler
e. Assembler or designer
88. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thicknesses ________________ shall be
prepared by thermal processes, when such processes are to be employed
during fabrication.
a. Less than 5/8 inch
b. 5/8 inch
c. 1 inch
d. 11/4 inches
QW-213, NOW DELETED
89. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:

a. Approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor
b. Allowed by ASME V
c. One test coupon is tension tested per Article V
d. Compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown
90. A change in a non-essential variable requires recertification of the

PQR
a. True
b. False
91. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may

be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:
a. 2 inches
b. 2 1/2 inches
c. 3 inches
d. 3 1/2 inches
e. 4 inches
Reduced tensile test – QW 151, Again up to 1 inch thk use full thk specimen
and for more than 1 inch thickness use either full thickness specimen or
multiple specimen
Page 17
BOOK NO: 26
92. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which of the
following shall be used for evaluation?
a. Only bend tests
b. Only radiography
c. Both radiography and bend tests
d. Either bend tests or radiography
93. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during
production work?
a. A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by
radiography
b. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first 12” length of weld
c. A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld length
QW 304.1, Next Page 1st PWG
94. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to be
acceptable. The characteristics of each specimen are as follows:
Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate tensile value of
78.524 psi
Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate tensile value of
77,654 psi
What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was reported on the
laboratory report?
a. 51,668 & 46,445
b. 67,453 & 56,443
c. 78,524 & 77,654
Load = Tensile Value X area or Tensile Strength X area
95. Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be
used with SWPs as referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?
a. GMAW
b. SAW
c. PAW
d. All of the above
SWP – standard welding Procedure is only for SMAW or GTAW
Page 18
BOOK NO: 26
96. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder
qualification bend test after bending?
a. ¼ inch
b. 1/8 inch
c. 1/16 inch
d. 3/16 inch
97. Which of the following represent grouping of weld-metals in ASME IX?

a. P – Nos.
b. F – Nos.
c. S – Nos.
d. A – Nos.
98. Who is responsible for performance and acceptance of WPQ test ?

a. Inspection department
b. Company employing the welder
c. OSHA
d. The company safety department
99. The purpose of a welding Procedure Specification and its Procedure

Qualification Record is;
a. To make sure everyone involved in the repair process has a listing of
nonessential variables
b. Make sure the welder follows the essential variables
c. To prove the weld will provide the required properties
d. Keep testing labs in business
100. The report for qualifying a welder is;

a. WPS
b. PQR
c. WPQ
d. WQR
101. A welding procedure is a detailed plan developed by whom to ensure

sound welds.
a. API-510 Inspector
b. Welder
c. Quality Control Manager
d. Fabricator
Page 19
BOOK NO: 26
102. What is the minimum length of weld metal to be radiographed for a
Welder’s performance Qualification using an NPS 6 inch pipe coupon made
of P No 5 materials utilizing the SMAW process?
a. Six inches of weld metal
b. The entire circumference of the pipe coupon
c. Stops and starts only
d. None, not allowed by section IX
103. according to section IX, all welders must be re-tested for a process;
a. If they have not been tested before
b. If they have not used a process in the past 9 months or longer
c. If they have not used a process for the past 12 months or longer and have not
been welding with other processes
d. If the welder’s ability to make sounds welds with process is in doubt.
Page 20
BOOK NO: 26
ANSWER KEY
Q.NO ANS Reference

1 C A09 4 th Para 1St 4 lines
2 D QW 200 b
3 D qw 200.2
4 B Qw 200
5 C Qw 200.2 e
6 C Qw 461.9
7 D Qw 461.9
8 B Qw 461.9 & QW 452.3
9 C QW-461
10 C QW141.4
11 A QW-304
12 C QW-153 D
13 C QW-163
14 D GK
15 D QW 200
16 B QW 200.2
17 B Qw 200.2 4th para first 2 lines
18 B Ref page no 21
19 A Ref page no 2
20 B A09 , 2 nd column second para
21 D QW 301.4
22 B QW 322.1A
23 C QW-310.2
24 A QW 321.1, 321.2, 321.3
25 A Qw 300.1
26 B Qw 452.1 b
P no – Base Metals, A No – Weld Metals, F number-
27 C
Filler materials- Electrode Qw 420 1 st para
28 C QW-423
29 D Qw 431
30 C QW 404.5
31 C Page no 21
32 B Qw 301.3
33 A QW 461-9
34 A API 577 5.3
35 B QW 452.3
36 B Qw 310.2 2nd para
37 C QW 304
38 D Qw 200 & 201
Page 21
BOOK NO: 26
39 C 1-ALL, 2-Flat refer 577
40 B QW 304
41 B QW 200.1 a & b 2nd para last line
42 B Qw 452.1
43 B Qw 461.9
44 D Refer iii
45 A Qw 422
46 B Qw 304
47 C 577
P1-P8 is OK.7018 –F no 4, 8028 F no 1 For production
48 A weld alternate filler material criteria applies. So it is OK
423 & 433
49 D 461.9
50 A Qw 153 & qw 163 7 301.2
51 C Qw 161.1 & 161.5
52 B Qw 461.9
53 D Q w 200.1b & QW 300.1
54 A 461.9
55 B GK
56 A Qw 401.1
57 B Qw 153, 163 & 170
58 B A 09
59 A Qw 401.3
60 C QW 192.4
61 C QW 401.4
62 B Qw 200
63 B QW 200.2 c
64 B QW 302.1 & 302.2 & 304
1/8 inch will pass. Only more than 1/8 inch is not
65 A allowed
QW 163
QW 3 04 – Refer for RT for welder qualification for any
66 A
material
67 B A09
68 B Qw 304
69 A QW 201 2 nd Para Last 5 lines
70 B Page no 21
71 A Page no 25
72 A Qw 400.2 4 th para
73 B Page no 21
74 A A9
75 B Qw 461.9
76 A QW 200.1
Page 22
BOOK NO: 26
Refer QW q183, Macro examination is only for fillet
77 B
weld
78 A QW 171.1
79 C QW 461.9 QW 310.1
80 B QW-406
81 B QW 452.1.b, INVOKE NOTE-3, SO ‘C’ IS WRONG
82 B QW 163
83 B QW 322.1 a
84 E QW 200.2 a 7th& 8 th line
85 E Qw 433
86 D refer QW 183
87 D Qw 300.2 a 4th zline
88 B QW-213, NOW DELETED
89 D QW 500
90 B QW 200.2
Reduced tensile test – QW 151, Again up to 1 inch thk
use full thk specimen and for more than 1 inch
91 C
thickness use either full thickness specimen or multiple
specimen
92 D QW 304
93 A QW 304.1, Next Page 1st PWG
94 A Load = Tensile Value X area or Tensile Strength X area
SWP – standard welding Procedure is only for SMAW
95 D
or GTAW
96 B QW 163
97 D GK
98 B QW 103 & QW 301.2
99 C A9
100 C Repetetion
101 D Repetetion
102 B QW 302.2 ist 4 lines
103 D Qw 322.1 a
Page 23
BOOK NO: 26
CLOSED BOOK SEC IX
1. What is the purpose of a welding procedure?

a. To prove that welders can perform a given weld.
b. To prove that a weldment will provide the desired properties for construction.
c. To prove that the manufacturer has meet Section IX requirements.
d. To prove that anyone can perform the weld satisfactorily if qualified.
2. What is the definition of PQR?
a. A record that supports a WPS.
b. A Procedure Qualification Record.
c. A record of the essential variables used to weld a test coupon.
d. Pre-qualifying Record of a weld.
3. The following is a true statement about tensile testing specimens from Section
IX.
a. They are never allowed to fail below the stated UTS of the base metal.
b. They are never allowed to fail in weld metal.
c. They must not fail more than 5% below the listed UTS of the base metal
d. They must never fail by breaking.
4. The welding position referred to as 2G in pipe is defined as;
a. The weld joint being horizontal and the part being vertical.
b. The weld joint being vertical and the part being horizontal,
c. The Weld joint being at 45 degrees + or – 15 degrees
d. The Weld joint being at 45 degrees + or – 5 degrees.
5. When speaking of materials acceptable for use in welding processes the term
S number refers to;
a. Materials which are listed in the ASME Boiler and pressure Vessel Code
Material specification.
b. Materials which are not listed in the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code
Material specification.
c. Alternative numbers for P Nos.
d. Alternative number for F Nos.
Page 24
BOOK NO: 26
6. You are reading a WPS and see that it was qualified using P No. 5A to P No 5A,
you know that;
a. This WPS can be used to weld any P No. 5 material.
b. This WPS can be used to weld any P No. 5A to any metal from P Nos 5A,
4,3, or 1
c. This WPS can be used to weld only P No 5A
d. This WPS can be used to weld any P No. 5A to any metal from P Nos. 5A, 4
or 3.
7. A welding procedure must be requalified if;
a. There is a change in any essential variable.
b. There is a change in any nonessential variable.
c. There is Code revision which makes it obsolete, such as a base material
being dropped from the list of approved ASME Code materials.
d. The welder is dissatisfied with the procedure.
8. A welder must requalify if he has previously;
a. Not qualified without backing and is now required to perform a weld without
backing.
b. Has qualified without backing and is required to now weld with backing
c. Not welded with a given process.
d. Has welded with a process in two years.
9. The dimensions of test coupons for welding procedure qualification tests can
be found in;
a. Article 2 of Section V.
b. Article II of Section IX.
c. Article IV of Section IX
d. Article 4 of Section V.
10. A welder has performed a qualification test on a NPS 10 diameter pipe, the
welding groove was horizontal and the pipe was vertical, this describes the
position;
a. 4G
b. 6G
c. 5G
d. 2G
Page 25
BOOK NO: 26
11. The difference between GMAW and the GTAW welding process is;
a. One uses alternating current and dc voltage the other does not.
b. Both use a consumable electrode made of tungsten and the other does not.
c. One uses a shielding gas and the other can not.
d. One is usually considered manual and the other semi-automatic.
12. A welding electrode has the following marking ER 70.S3. What is appropriate
F-Number for this electrode?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 6
d. 8
13. You notice a workman applying blows to a weld with a pneumatic tool, what is
he doing?
a. Conditioning
b. De-fluxing
c. Re-distribution of weld metal
d. Peening
14. The range of the IG position in degrees as used in welding for its inclination of
axis is;
a. 15 to 80.
b. 5 to 15.
c. 0 to 15.
d. 80 to 90.
Page 26
BOOK NO: 26
Closed Book API IX
Q.No. ANSWER LOCATION OF ANSWER
1 B IX QW-100
2 C IX QW-200
3 C IX QW-153
4 A IX ART IV 461.4
5 B IX QW-420.2
6 B IX QW-424
7 A IX QW-202 ( c )
8 A IX QW-402.4
9 C IXQW-462
10 D IX QW-46.1.4
11 D IX QW-492
12 C IX QW-432.1
13 D IX QW-492 DEFINITIONS
14 C IX QW-461
Page 27
BOOK NO: 26
OPEN BOOK SEC IX
1. (WPS) In the Joins QW-402 there is a mistake because;

a. Only metal is checked for backing type.
b. A root gap of 1/32” is too small.
c. There should be a drawing of the weld joint.
d. There are no mistakes.
2. (WPS) In base metals QW-403 the Group No is not important because;
a. The group numbers match.
b. P-No. 1 is only produced as group 2 material.
c. Impact tests have not been performed on the PQR.
d. Impact tests have been performed on the WPS.
3. (WPS) As regards Filler Metals QW-404 the SFA No is;
a. Correct for an E-6010 electrode.
b. Required per QW-253.
c. SFA is not on the WPS or PQR forms.
d. Not required per QW-253.
4. (WPS) THE CORRECT F No. for E 6010 is;
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6.
5. According to section IX of the ASME Code, which of the following is not
required to be present on the supporting PQR?
a. Weld coupon thickness.
b. Post-weld heat treatment applied or the lack of
c. Joint design.
d. Welding process used to make the PQR weld coupon.
6. Per Section IX a 3/8” PQR coupon will support the following range of
thicknesses in production.
a. 3/16 TO 3/4 inches.
b. 3/8 to 3/4 inches.
c. 3/8 to 1 inches.
d. 3/16 to 1 inches.
Page 28
BOOK NO: 26
7. In order to substitute 4 side bends for the required face and root bend tests
the PQR coupon must be at least what thickness?
a. 1”
b. 3/4"
c. 3/8”
d. 1/2"
8. Per Section IX, the following minimum number of tensile specimens is
required on the PQR.
a. 6.
b. 4.
c. 8.
d. 2.
9. According to Section IX which of the following describes all the possible
combinations for bends tests.
a. Four face bends.
b. Four root bends.
c. Four side bends.
d. Two face and two root or four side bends.
10. A welder has welded a performance test coupon in the 6G position, his
coupon will be required to pass.
a. 2 bend tests.
b. 4 bend tests.
c. 8 bend tests.
d. 6 bend tests.
Answer the following questions about the attached WPS and PQR (pages 5 to
8) from Sloppy Welding Company Consider both are WPS and its supporting
PQR when answering the questions.
11. (WPS) QW-402 Joints The following is true;

a. There are no mistakes
b. The retainers have not been addressed.
c. The retainers and the joint design have not been addressed
d. The joint design had not been addressed.
Page 29
BOOK NO: 26
12. (WPS) QW- 403 Base Metals the following is true;
a. The specification of the material has not been addressed and that is a
mistake.
b. There are no mistakes.
c. In this category the fillet weld specifications needs to be addressed.
d. In this category the pipe diameter needs to be addressed.
13. (WPS) QW-404 Filler Metals There is no need to address the Flux trade name
because it applies to the following process and not this one;
a. SAW
b. SMAW
c. GTAW
d. PAW
14. (WPS) QW-406 Preheat There (is/is not ) a mistake because;

a. Interpass temperature has not been addressed.
b. Every thing required has been addressed.
c. Preheat maintenance is required for P No 3 materials.
d. Preheat maintenance is never required for P No. 3 materials.
15. (WPS) QW -409 Elecarical what process requires the Electrode Wire feed
speed range to be filled in?
a. SMAW
b. GMAW
c. SAW
d. This term is undefined in Section IX.
16. (WPS) QW -410 In this box for the GMAW process the following information
can be left out;
a. Type of weld beading
b. Orifice or gas cup size
c. Contact tube to work distance.
d. Tungsten electrode diameter.
Page 30
BOOK NO: 26
OPEN BOOK SEC IX ANSWERS
Q.No. ANSWER LOCATION OF ANSWER
1 D IX QW-253
2 C IX ART 2
3 D IX QW-253
4 B IX QW-432.1
5 C IX ART 2QW-200.2
6 A IX QW-451
7 C IX QW-451
8 D IX QW-153
9 D IX QW-451
10 B IX QW-463.2 (d) & (e)
11 B IX QW-255
12 B IX QW-255
13 A IX QW-254
14 B IX QW-255
15 B IX QW-254 QW-409.8
16 D IX QW-255
Page 31
BOOK NO: 26
OPEN BOOK API 570 PRACTICE EXAM A
1. (WPS) In the JOINTS (QW-402) section, the following statement is true;

a. There must be a sketch of the joint configuration to be used in production
b. Any groove design is allowed in production
c. The box is properly addressed and contains no mistakes
d. Flux dam retaining is permitted.
2. (WPS) In the BASE METAL (QW-420) there is mistake because the;

a. Pipe diameter is not addressed.
b. Group number is not addressed and it is a supplemental essential variable.
c. Fillet welds are addressed as ALL
d. There is no mistake; none of the above is true. 1&3 are for information only,
number 2 is not needed for this procedure because no impact tests are
required of the weldment.
3. (WPS) In the TECHNIQUE (QW-410) should have addressed the following;

a. Travel speed
b. Method of back gouging
c. Nothing it is perfect.
d. The length of groove
Page 32
BOOK NO: 26
Page 33
BOOK NO: 26
Page 34
BOOK NO: 26
Page 35
BOOK NO: 26
Page 36
BOOK NO: 26
ANSWER
Q.NO ANS
1 C
2 D
3 B
Page 37
BOOK NO: 26
OPEN BOOK API 570 PRACTICE EXAM B
1. (WPS) In the Joins QW-402 there is a mistake because;

a. Only metal is checked for backing type.
b. A root gap of 1/32” is too small.
c. There should be a drawing of the weld joint.
d. There are no mistakes.
2. (WPS) In base metals QW-403 the Group No is not important because;

a. The group numbers match.
b. P-No. 1 is only produced as group 2 material.
c. Impact tests have not been performed on the PQR.
d. Impact tests have been performed on the WPS.
3. (WPS) As regards Filler Metals QW-404 the SFA No is;

a. Correct for an E-6010 electrode.
b. Required per QW-253.
c. SFA is not on the WPS or PQR forms.
d. Not required per QW-253.
4. (WPS) THE CORRECT F No. for E 6010 is;

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6.
Page 38
BOOK NO: 26
Page 39
BOOK NO: 26
Page 40
BOOK NO: 26
Page 41
BOOK NO: 26
Page 42
BOOK NO: 26
ANSWER
Q.NO ANS
1 D
2 C
3 D
4 B
Page 43
BOOK NO: 26
OPEN BOOK API 570 PRACTICE EXAM C
1. WPS) QW-402 Joints The following is true;

a. There are no mistakes
b. The retainers have not been addressed.
c. The retainers and the joint design have not been addressed
d. The joint design had not been addressed.
2. (WPS) QW- 403 Base Metals the following is true;

a. The specification of the material has not been addressed and that is a
mistake.
b. There are no mistakes.
c. In this category the fillet weld specifications needs to be addressed.
d. In this category the pipe diameter needs to be addressed.
3. (WPS) QW-404 Filler Metals There is no need to address the Flux trade name
because it applies to the following process and not this one;
a. SAW
b. SMAW
c. GTAW
d. PAW
4. (WPS) QW-406 Preheat There (is/is not ) a mistake because;

a. Interpass temperature has not been addressed.
b. Every thing required has been addressed.
c. Preheat maintenance is required for P No 3 materials.
d. Preheat maintenance is never required for P No. 3 materials.
5. (WPS) QW -409 Electrical what process requires the Electrode Wire feed speed
range to be filled in?
a. SMAW
b. GMAW
c. SAW
d. This term is undefined in Section IX.
6. (WPS) QW -410 In this box for the GMAW process the following information
can be left out;
a. Type of weld beading
b. Orifice or gas cup size
c. Contact tube to work distance.
d. Tungsten electrode diameter.
Page 44
BOOK NO: 26
Page 45
BOOK NO: 26
Page 46
BOOK NO: 26
Page 47
BOOK NO: 26
Page 48
BOOK NO: 26
ANSWER
Q.NO ANS
1 B
2 B
3 A
4 B
5 B
6 D
Page 49
BOOK NO: 26
SEC IX OPEN QB
1. Choose correct statement from the following:

a. The PQR shows root spacing of 1/8” and same shall be followed in
production welding.
b. PQR shows bevel angle 37°. It shall be followed in production welding
without change.
c. PQR does not show backing ring, hence production weld also can not be
with backing ring
d. None of above is correct statement.
2. What condition below describes the results of the guided bend test?
a. The three bend tests are acceptable and the fourth one is not acceptable
b. The test result overall is acceptable
c. The test result is not acceptable due to the linear indication
d. The bend test result is indeterminable, carry out re-test.
3. The minimum qualified preheat temperature for the WPS is:

a. 200° F
b. 100° F
c. 75° F
d. 150° F
4. What welding process is qualified by this PQR?

a. GTAW
b. SMAW
c. GMAW
d. SAW
5. What is the P number and the tensile strength of SA-106-C?

a. P No. 1 and 70 ksi
b. P No. 1 and 60 ksi
c. P No. 3 and 70 ksi
d. P No. 3 and 60 ksi
6. In accordance with the PQR, the WPS is qualified for what welding
positions?
a. Flat and horizontal
b. Flat, vertical, overhead and horizontal
c. Vertical and overhead
d. All positions
Page 50
BOOK NO: 26
7. What is the F No. of an E 6010 electrode
a. F No. 4
b. F No. 3
c. F No. 2
d. F No. 1
8. The welder who welded the test plate for PQR 101 is qualified to weld in
what position?
a. Flat
b. Flat and horizontal
c. Flat and vertical
d. Flat, vertical and horizontal
9. The bend test specimen used are side bend. They are:
a. Not accepted since 2 face bend and 2 root bend must be used
b. Accepted since as alternative to (a) 4 side bend may be used
c. Accepted since only 2 bend tests are required where as 4 bend tests are
performed
d. Not accepted since all 3 types of bend tests (face, root, side) are required.
10. As far as thickness ranges for Base Metal (B.M.) and weld metal (W.M.) as
shown on WPS are concerned, your decision about the qualified range is:
a. B.M. is okay and W.M. is not okay.
b. Both B.M. and W.M. are okay.
c. Both B.M. and W.M. are not okay.
d. W.M. is okay and B.M. is not okay.
11. PWHT of PQR test coupon shows “No PWHT”. It means that the PWHT for
____________:
a. WPS may be with PWHT
b. WPS must be without PWHT
c. WPS must be with PWHT
d. WPS may be with or without PWHT as PWHT is non-essential variable
Page 51
BOOK NO: 26
12. In production welds, if groove design is changed to double V groove for the
qualified base metal thickness, as per ASME Sec. IX will you:
a. Accept the change — since it is non-essential variable
b. Will not accept — since it is essential variable
c. Accept only if okay by radiography
d. Accept only if okay by both radiography and UT
13. Based on the specimen areas provided in PQR, are the ultimate stress
calculations correct (as rounded up to 100 psi) for specimen T1 and T2:
a. Calculation is okay for T1 alone.
b. Calculation is okay for T2 alone.
c. Calculations for both are okay.
d. Calculations for both are not okay.
14. Which condition below best describes the result of tensile tests reported
on the PQR?
a. Test T1 & T2 are acceptable
b. Test T1 & T2 are unacceptable
c. Test T1 is acceptable & T2 is unacceptable
d. Test T1 is unacceptable & T2 is acceptable
15. If electrode E7010 shown on WPS is changed to E7018, what is your

decision?
a. Revise WPS to show the change and re-submit as new revision
b. No revision of WPS is necessary as both belong to same F number.
c. A new PQR will be required to support the change.
d. No revision of WPS required but show the change in same PQR and
submit it as new revision
--------------------------------End-----------------------------
Page 52
BOOK NO: 26
Page 53
BOOK NO: 26
Page 54
BOOK NO: 26
Page 55
BOOK NO: 26
Page 56
BOOK NO: 26
ANSWER KEY
Q. No. Answer
1 D
2 B
3 B
4 B
5 A
6 D
7 B
8 A
9 B
10 D
11 B
12 A
13 C
14 D
15 C
Page 57
BOOK NO: 26
All Questions Are Closed Book
Note: Some questions in this section are true/false or essay type questions, instead of
multiple choice. Historically, it has been shown that test questions on ASME V involves
a good deal of theory that cannot adequately be explore through multiple choice
questions (although multiple choice question only will be on the test)
1. A filmside penetrameter can be used for :

a. Inaccessible welds (unable to hand place a source penetrameter)
b. All welds
c. All castings at any time
d. An alternative to a source-side wire penetrameter
2. A dark image of the “B”on a lighter background is

a. Acceptable
b. Rejectable
c. Sometimes rejectable
3. One of the procedural requirements for conducting PT is to address the

processing details for:
a. Post – examination cleaning
b. Pre - examination cleaning
c. Apply the penetrant
d. All of the above
4. Non - aqueous developer may be applied to a wet surface

a. True
b. False
5. The accuracy of a piece of magnetizing equipment that is equipped with an

ammeter shall be verified
a. Each year
b. Each two years
c. When possible
d. Every 6 months
Page 58
BOOK NO: 26
6. When using fluorescent penetrant the examiner shall be in a darkened area for
at least ___________ minutes prior to performing the examination
a. 7
b. 10
c. 9
d. 5
7. A wire IQI shall be placed adjacent to the weld, with the wires parallel to the
weld
a. True
b. False
8. A field indicator is composed of _____________ low carbon steel pie sections,

furnace brazed together
a. 2
b. 6
c. 10
d. 8
9. The type and amperage of magnetizing current must be identified on the written
MT procedure
a. True
b. False
10. Certification of contaminants shall be obtained for all PT materials used on

a. Carbon steels
b. Ferritic stainless steels
c. Austenitic stainless steels
d. none of the above
11. Black light intensity shall be measured with a _______________ when

conducting fluorescent PT
a. Dark room meter
b. Photo - meter
c. Black light meter
Page 59
BOOK NO: 26
12. When should a densitometer be calibrated as a minimum?
a. Annually
b. Every 90 days
c. Wherever it is turned on
d. As required by the Examiner
13. The location markers required by ASME V are required to appear as

radiographic images
a. True
b. False
Name, date Part No etc need not appear as the radiographic images. But they should be
permanently marked on the film
14. D.C. yokes may be used for detecting subsurface discontinuities, per ASME V?
a. True
b. False
Yokes are only for surface defects whether DC or AC
15. When coatings are applied to enhance contrast, the procedure must be
demonstrated that indications can be detected through the coating
a. True
b. False
16. How many total liquid penetrant techniques are listed in ASME V?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 2
d. 1
17. Prior to examinations, each adjacent surface shall be cleaned within at least
_______” of the area to be examined.
a. 1
b. 1.5
c. 2
d. 3
Page 60
BOOK NO: 26
18. Water washable penetrant shall be removed with a water spray not exceeding 60
psi and 100ºF
a. True
b. False
19. The maximum emulsification time shall be

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
20. Densitometers shall be calibrated by verification with a calibrated:

a. Densitometer
b. Step Wedge Comparison Strip
c. Light Meter
d. Transmission monitor
21. When using a hydrophilic emulsifier versus a lipophilic emulsifier and

intermediate step that must be taken is:
a. Pre-flooding with emulsifier
b. Pre-cleaning with solvent
c. Pre-rinsing with water
d. Pre-washing with detergent
22. A welded part is to be radiographed and is 1” thick, with 1/8” reinforcement.

What ASTM wire set IQI should be used on these radiographs if a source side
technique is used:
a. Set A
b. Set B
c. Set C
d. Set D
Wire Dia inch THK of Object inch

SET A 0 .0032- 0.01 0.25 – 0.375
SET B 0 .01 - 0.032 0.25 - 2
SET C 0.032 - 0.1 1.5 – 8
SET D 0.1 – 0.32 6- 20
Page 61
BOOK NO: 26
23. When a PT test cannot be conducted between 50º - 125ºF, what must be done,
per ASME V?
a. The procedure must be qualified
b. The surface must be re-cleaned
c. The test cannot be conducted
24. The sulphur content of a penetrant is measured to be less than 0.0025g. This
material is acceptable for use on:
a. Nickel-base alloys
b. Carbon steel
c. Ferritic steel
d. All of the above
25. All indications are to be evaluated in accordance with

a. ASME VIII
b. ASME V
c. The referencing Code section
d. The written procedure
26. The scope of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel, Code, Section V includes:
a. NDE acceptance criteria
b. How to perform NDE to achieve a desired result
c. Where to do NDE (i.e. what weld to examine)
d. Who can be the Authorized inspector
27. UT equipment is calibrated?

a. Before heat-treatment
b. After completing the examination
c. Prior to visual examination
d. Prior to PT examination
UT Device calibration has to be checked before and after the examination. So here B
28. What finished surface is required of butt welds for PT examination?

a. Smooth surface prepared by grinding
b. Cosmetically clean acid etched surface
c. A near white blast surface
Page 62
BOOK NO: 26
29. A penetramter is used on a DWDI. The penetramter selection is based on:
a. The single wall thickness and weld reinforcement
b. Both wall thicknesses
c. The single wall thickness for Sch 80 pipe
30. A suitable means for applying penetrant

a. Dipping
b. Brushing
c. Spraying
d. Any or all of the above
31. What materials require the use of tested and certified liquid penetrants as to the
contaminants in the penetrant
a. Nickel alloys
b. Austenitic stainless steel alloys
c. Ferritic / martensific stainless steel
d. Both a and b above
32. How shall indications be evaluated, i.e. acceptance standards for RT

a. To ASME V
b. To ASME VIII
c. To B31.3
d. To the referencing Code Section
33. Thickness readings may be displayed on?

a. SRT
b. PRT
c. CRT
d. Strip chart recorder
34. How many copies of a procedure must be available to the Manufactures NDE
Personnel?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
35. How shall Non-destructive Examination Personnel be qualified?
a. To SNT-TC 1A
b. To CP-189
c. To referencing code requirements
d. To ACCP rules
Page 63
BOOK NO: 26
36. Which NDE methods are considered “surface” methods?
a. PT
b. RT
c. MT
d. Both A & C above
37. What designation is used to indicate the penetrameter is on the film side?
a. An “F”
b. An “E”
c. A “D”
d. An “FS”
38. What is a shim used for?

a. UT filed adequacy
b. RT field direction
c. MT field strength and direction
d. MT field current applications
Here ans is MT FIELD STRENGTH & DIRECION, Japanese use this. But Shims
are used in RT also for placing peni to compensate for excess thickness or
reinforcement
39. Why must the surface be closely observed during the application of the PT
developer?
a. To ensure proper coating application
b. To ensure excess penetrant removal
c. To allow proper characterization of discontinuities
d. To see the “groovy” lines form
40. One of the five magnetization techniques is?

a. Round
b. Circular
c. Shearwave
d. Hall-effect Tangential-field
41. A true UT indication is one which exceeds

a. 20% of DAC
b. 20% of CAD
c. 20% of DEC
d. 10% of DAC
Page 64
BOOK NO: 26
42. Name one typical discontinuity detectable by the magnetic particle method
a. Lack of penetration
b. Interpass lack of fusion
c. Slag inclusions
d. Toe cracks
43. For a DWSI, RT Technique, a minimum of ___________ exposures shall be made

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
44. When are location markers placed on the film side in SWV for curved surfaces?
a. Concave side is toward the source
b. Source-to-material distance greater than IR
c. A cobalt source is used
45. What is the difference between an inspection and an examination per Section V
of the ASME Code?
a. Inspection performed AI
b. Examination performed by manufacturer’s personnel
c. There is no difference between the two
46. Geometric sharpness is determined by

a. UG = Fd/D
b. UG = PD/d
c. UG = fd/d
d. UG = ft/d
47. UT Thickness velocities are usually obtained from:

a. Tim’s Handy Velocity Book
b. Similar materials
c. Similar product forms
d. Both B & C, above
Page 65
BOOK NO: 26
48. Name one typical discontinuity detectable by the liquid penetrant method
a. I.P. on an NPS 2 girth weld
b. I.F. at the root of an NPS 2 girth weld
c. HAZ surface cracks on a NPS 2 girth weld
d. Slag inclusions on a NPS 8 longitudinal weld
49. What is to be done to excess penetrant remaining on the surface after the
specified penetration time as elapsed?
a. It must be removed
b. It can remain on the part
c. It must be developed
d. It must be removed with water only
50. What must be done to ensure 100% coverage on any NDE method?
51. When surface irregularities may mask indications of unacceptable

discontinuities, what is required?
52. List the type of discontinuities magnetic particle examination is effective in

detecting
53. What are the six penetrant techniques to be used?
54. What are the approved methods of indicating UT thickness measurements?
55. How is the “quality” of a radiograph evaluated?
56. Where are RT location markers placed, on the part or on the radiograph?
57. The IQI may be of what two types?
58. What is the critical hole in a hole type IQI?
59. What identify must also be included in the UT calibration records?
60. The IQI is normally placed on which side of a part?
61. A 4T hole on a 20 IQI has a diameter of:
62. List 4 types of blemishes not permitted on film
63. When is a written radiographic procedure required by ASME V?
64. When should the developer be applied?
Page 66
BOOK NO: 26
65. What type of discontinuity is the magnetic particle method most sensitive to?
66. What is the examination medium when using MT? What is the probing medium
when using MT? Exa medium is iron powder and probing medium is Mag Field
67. When must ultrasonic equipment be calibrated?
68. How many IQ is should appear on each radiograph, except for panoramic
techniques?
69. Are intensifying screens permitted for radiography per ASME V?
70. What two radiographic techniques are noted as available for examinations?
71. How can compliance with a written radiographic procedure be demonstrated?
72. List the type of discontinuity liquid penetrant examination is effective in

detecting.
73. What m;ust be done when a penetrant is to be applied on parts beyond 50-
125ºF?
74. The lifting power of yokes must be checked when?
75. How should welded butt-joints be prepared for radiograph?
76. Steel greater than ___1.5 inch as per code “thick should be radiographed with a
cobalt source.
a. True
b. False
77. In magnetic particle examination of a welded joint using yokes, is alternating

current or direct current allowed? BOTH
78. What method of Ultrasonic examination of the welds is permitted by the Code?
79. Name three different methods of conducting “Visual Examinations” (VT)
Page 67
BOOK NO: 26
80. From what type of material should shims be fabricated when they are to be used
to radiograph welds in pressure retaining items?
81. A _____________________________ is a device used to determine the image

quality of radiograph
a. A step wedge comparison film
b. A densitometer
c. An IQI
d. All of the above
82. In accordance with Section V, wire – type penetrameters.

a. Can always be used
b. Can be used unless restricted by the referencing Code
c. Can never be used
d. Can be used only with Type 1 film
83. A. What is meant by “non-destructive examination” of welded joint?
B. Name four methods of non-destructive examination.
84. In a radiographic film of a weld, how are the following characteristics measured
or judged?
a. Film sensitivity or quality
b. Film density
85. What is radiography?
86. What is the minimum and maximum allowable density through the image of the
penetrameter for radiographs made with:
a. A 2000 kV tube?
b. Cobalt 60 (Co60)?
Page 68
BOOK NO: 26
87. A single film technique was used to make a radiograph using a Cobalt-60
source. The minimum permitted density in the area of interest is:
a. 4.0
b. 1.8
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
88. Under ASME Code Section V, what upper and lower density limits are
acceptable for viewing if the density through the body of the penetrameter is
2.7? Assume single film viewing.
89. As a radiographer is removing cassettes (film holders) from a weld seam that
has just been radiographed, you notice that there is nothing attached to the
back of the cassettes. Would these radiographs be acceptable? Explain your
answer.
B should be placed on the back of the cassette. It should not be paced on the part
or on the film
90. What is the minimum number of IQI required for the following:
a. A complete girth seam containing 30 radiographs shot with a single exposure?
b. Twelve radiographs on a longitudinal seam shot from the outside with a single
exposure?
91. A radiograph is made using an X-ray source and two films in each film holder. If
the film is to be viewed separately the minimum permitted density would be.
a. 4.0
b. 1.8
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
92. A weld with a nominal thickness of 1.5 inch is to be radiographed using a film
side penetrameter. The penetrameter designation should be: (Note: This is an
open book question)
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. Both a and b are acceptable
Page 69
BOOK NO: 26
93. A. What are hole – type penetrameters and what are they used for
B. What are wire penetrameters and what are they used for?
94. In radiographing a butt welded joint of 1” thickness, on what side of the weld is
the penetrameter normally placed?
95. What type of flaws may be detect ed by:

a. Liquid Penetrant Testing?
b. Magnetic Particle Testing?
c. Radiographic examination?
d. Ultrasonic examination?
96. What is a densitometer used to determine?
97. A. What is the purpose of shims when performing radiography?
B. Where are they placed?
C. What kind of material may they be made from?

The radiographic density throughout the area of interest is no more than
Minus 15% from (lighter than) the radiographic density through the penetrameter.
98. Describe how the following surfaces should be prepared for Ultrasonic
examination.
a. Contact surfaces
b. Weld surfaces
c. Base material
99. Why is lead intensifying screens used in the X-ray examination process?
100. Name two radiation sources permitted for radiographic examination in ASME
Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code.
101. When reviewing a radiograph, a dark image of the letter B can be seen on the
film. Does this indicate an unacceptable radiograph?
102. Describe how liquid penetrant examination should be performed in order to

detect discontinuities that are open to the surface, per Article 6 of ASME Code
Section V
Page 70
BOOK NO: 26
103. A. If IQIs are not placed on the source side, what rules apply?
B. For materials being radiographed other than welds, where are the IQIs
placed?
104. If the density through the IQI is 2.50, what would the maximum allowable
density and minimum allowable density be through the weld represented by this
un-shimmed IQI?
105. On a set of cassettes containing film for a seam just radiographed you notice
the lead location markers (i.e. 1-2, 2-3 etc) are taped to the cassettes. Would
these radiographs be acceptable? NO Location markers should be placed on
the part. it can be on the film side of the part or the source side of the part
106. What length of indication is required to demonstrate that a visual

examination procedure is adequate per ASME V?
a. 1/32”
b. 1/16”
c. 3/32”
107. Personnel performing visual examinations to ASME V must have acuity to

which of the following standards, if any?
a. Jaeger Type – 2
b. Jaeger Type – 1
c. Equivalent to Jaeger Type – 1
d. Either b or c, above
For API J1 only but for ASNT –SNT-TC-1A , it is J1 or J2 or Orthorater
108. Visual examination must be conducted when the eye is within

_______________” of the piece to be examined
a. a)36
b. b)30
c. c)24
d. d)12
Page 71
BOOK NO: 26
109. An item is designed for 625 psig. The item will be tested at 1.5 x Design
pressure. What should the absolute minimum gauge range be on a test of this
pressure, per AXME V Appendix 10?
a. 0-1012 psig
b. 0-1518 psig
c. 0-2025 psig
d. 0-4050 psig
Test Pressure = 1.5 Design Pressure

Gauge Lower Range set Pressure : 1.5 x 1.5 x test pressure
Gauge higher range set pressure: 4x 1.5 x test pressure
110. The standard test temperature of a part to be bubble tested shall be between:
a. 40ºC – 120ºC
b. 4ºC – 52ºC
c. 40ºC – 125ºC
d. 4ºC – 125ºF
Pie gauge has 8 numbers of LOW CS Pie section of thk 1/32 inch . pie gauge is best
for dry method. It should be placed so that the copper side is away from the
inspected surface
Page 72
BOOK NO: 26
ANSWER KEY
1. a
2. a
3. d
4. false
5. a
6. d
7. false
8. d
9. true
10. c
11. c
12. b
13. True
14. False
15. True
16. b
17. a
18. False
19. d
20. b
21. c
22. b
23. a
24. d
25. c
26. b
27. b
28. d
29. a
30. d
31. d
32. d
33. c
34. a
35. c
36. d
37. a
38. c
39. c
40. b
41. a
Page 73
BOOK NO: 26
42. d
43. c
44. d
45. d
46. a
47. d
48. c
49. a
50. All examinations must overlap to ensure 100% coverage of the part
51. Grinding, machine, or other methods
52. Surface and slight subsurface indications
53. Color contrast or Fluorescent penetrant
a. Water washable
b. Post – emulsifying
c. Solvent removable
54. CRT, Digital, or meter

55. Ability to see the prescribed hole or wire on the designated penetrameter and
compliance with density requirements
56. On the part
57. Hole or wire types
58. 2T
59. Calibration block identity
60. Source side
61. 0.08”
62. a) Fogging
b) Processing defects
c) Scratches, finger marks, etc.
d) False indications due to defective screens
63. Article 2 requires the use of a written procedure for RT in all cases, but T-150
overrides, which states procedures are only required when specified by the
referencing code section (same as for UT, MT, PT and other NDE methods)
64. As soon as possible after penetrant removal. Not to exceed time in written procedure
65. Surface discontinuities aligned perpendicular to the magnetic field.
66. Ferro-magnetic particles, magnetic fields
67. a) Beginning and end of each examination, every 4 hours
b) When personnel are changed
c) Anytime malfunction is suspected
68. At least one on each radiograph
69. Yes, except when restricted by the referencing code
70. Single wall and double wall
Page 74
BOOK NO: 26
71. By compliance with density and penetrameter image on the production or technique
radiographs
72. Surface discontinuities only
73. The procedure must be qualified using a quench – cracked aluminium block.
74. Prior to use within the last year or if the yoke has been damaged. Permanent magnet
yokes checked daily.
75. The weld ripples or surface irregularities on both the inside (if accessible) and outside
shall be removed by any suitable method.
76. 1.5” thick
77. Alternative current is used? Both are ok
78. Pulse–Echo Shear Wave Ultrasonics
79. a) Direct
b) Indirect or (remote visual examination)
c) Translucent
80. A shim shall be fabricated of radiographically similar material to the object to be
inspected
81. c
82. a
83. a) An examination of a welded joint that will disclose surface and sub-surface
discontinuities without physical harm to the welded joint. Such examinations can be
conducted by radiography ultrasonics, liquid penetrant or magnetic particle testing.
b) - Radiographic Examination
- Ultrasonic Examination
- Magnetic Particle Examination
- Liquid Penetrant Examination
84. a) IQI
b) Densitometers or step-wedge comparison films.
85. A radiograph is a shadow picture produced by the passage of X-rays or gamma – rays
through an object onto a film. When the rays pass through the object, part of the
radiation penetrates the material and part is absorbed. The amount of radiation
absorbed and the amount that penetrates are a function of the thickness of the
material. Where a void or discontinuity exists, there is essentially less material to
absorb the radiation. Therefore, more radiation will pass through this section and a
dark spot corresponding to the projected position of the void will appear on the film
86. a) 1.8 – 4.0 (for any X-ray source)

b) 2.0 – 4.0 (for any gamma source)
Page 75
BOOK NO: 26
87. e-The correct answer is –15% from the transmitted density through the body of the
penetrameter
88. -15% = 2.295

+30% = 3.510
89. No, as a check on backscattered radiation, a lead symbol “B” with minimum
dimensions of ½” height and 1/16” thickness shall be attached to the back of each film
holder. If a light image of the “B” appears on a darker background of the radiograph,
protection from backscatter is insufficient and the radiograph shall be considered
unacceptable. A dark image on a lighter background is not cause for rejection.
90. a) Requires at least 3 IQIs spaced 120º apart.
b) Requires at least 12 IQI, one on each film.
91. b
92. a
93. A. An IQI is a small strip of material, fabricated of radiographically similar material to
the object being inspected, and having a thickness of approximately 2% of the
object being radiographed. The IQI has three holes in it. The sizes of these holes
are 1T, 2T and 4T where “T” is the thickness of the IQI. The 2T is designated as
the essential hole, i.e. the hole whose image must appear on the radiograph. IQI
thickness and essential hole size requirements are listed in tables in Section V of
the ASME Code.
The IQI is identified with a number made of lead that is attached to the IQI. This
number indicates the thickness of the IQI in thousandths of an inch.
An IQI is used for evaluating radiographic technique in that it serves as an image

quality indicator, porpoer technique should display the IQI image and the specified
hole.
B Wire type IQI use thin wires to ascertain sensitivity instead of holes. The ability to
see the wire required by the code indicates a quality radiograph.
94. The IQI should be placed the source side of the material being radiographed.
However, where inaccessibility prevents this, the IQI may be placed on the film side of
the material being radiographed provided a lead letter “F” at least as high as the
identification number is placed adjacent to the IQI.
95. a) Surface discontinuities

b) Surface and slight sub-surface discontinuities
c) Surface and sub-surface discontinuities
d) Surface and sub-surface discontinuities
Page 76
BOOK NO: 26
96. A densitometer (or step wedge comparison film) shall be used for judging film density
requirements. Film density is a measure of overall darkening of the radiograph, which
is directly related to the sensitivity, definition, and overall quality of the technique.
97. a) Shims may be used when necessary to produce a radiograph in which the
radiographic density throughout the area of interest is no more than minus 15% from
(lighter than) the radiographic density through the IQI.
98. a) The finished contact surface shall be free from weld splatter and any roughness
that would interfere with free movement of this search unit or impair the transmission
of ultrasonic vibrations.
b) The weld surfaces shall be finished so they cannot mask or be confused with
reflections from defects, and should merge smoothly into the surfaces of the adjacent
base materials.
c) The volume of base material through which the sound will travel in angle beam
examination shall be completely scanned with a straight beam search unit to detect
reflectors which might affect interpretation of angle beam results.
99. Lead foil intensifying screens used in the X-ray examination may be placed directly in
front of the film. The screen provides an intensifying action and in addition, the back
one acts as filter bay preferentially absorbing backscattered radiation from the
specimen thus improving image quality.
100. The two common radiographic sources in industrial use today are X-ray machines
and artificially produced radioactive isotopes of certain metallic elements.
101. No.
102. The part is first thoroughly cleaned of oil, dirt, etc, then a liquid penetrant is applied
to the surface to be examined and allowed to enter the discontinuities. All excess
penetrant is then removed, the part is dried, and a developer is applied. The
developer functions both as a blotter to absorb penetrant that has been trapped in
discontinuities and as a contrasting background to entance the visibility of penetrant
indications. The dyes in penetrants are either color contrast (visible under white light)
or fluorescent (visible under ultraviolet light).
103. a) The penetrameter should be placed on the source side of the material being
radiographed. However, where inaccessibility prevents this, the penetrameter may be
placed on the film side of the material being radiographed provided a lead letter “F” at
least as high as the identification number is placed adjacent to the penetrameter.
b) For material other than weld a source side penetrameter shall be placed in the
area of interest.
Page 77
BOOK NO: 26
104. Minus 15% to plus 30% allowed
2.5 + 30% = 2.5 + 0.75 = 3.25
2.5 – 15% = 2.5 – 0.4 = 2.125
105. No Location markers that are to appear on the radiographic film should be placed
on the part being examined and not on the cassettes.
106. d
107. d
108. c
109. b
110. b
Page 78
BOOK NO: 26
ASME SEC V QB
1. A film side penetrameter can be used for :

b. All welds

a. Acceptable
b. Rejectable

a. Each year
b. Each two years
c. When possible
d. Every 6 months
a. 7
b. 10
c. 9
d. 5

a. 2
b. 6
c. 10
d. 8

a. Annually
b. Every 90 days
Page 79
BOOK NO: 26
technique is used:
a. Set A
b. Set B
c. Set C
d. Set D

b. Carbon steel
c. Ferritic steel
d. All of the above
9. A penetramter is used on a DWE/DWV. The penetramter selection is based on:

a. The single wall thickness Actual Weld reinforcement
c. The single wall thickness + Estimated weld reinforcement
a. An “F”
b. An “E”
c. A “D”
d. An “FS”

b. RT along with peni
c. Slag inclusions
d) Toe cracks
Page 80
BOOK NO: 26
of the ASME Code?
15. Geometric un-sharpness is determined by, F is the source size, t is the thk, d is,
& D is SFD
a. UG = Fd/D
b. UG = PD/d
c. UG = fd/d
d. UG = ft/d
a. 4.0
b. 1.8
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
open book question)
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
Page 81
BOOK NO: 26
ASME SEC V QB
ANSWRE
Q.NO. ANS
1 a
2 b
3 a
4 d
5 d
6 b
7 b
8 a
9 c
10 a
11 b
12 d
13 d
14 d
15 d
16 c
17 c
18 a
Page 82
BOOK NO: 26
ASME SEC V QB
All Questions Are Closed Book
Note: Some questions in this section are true/false or essay type questions, instead of
multiple choice. Historically, it has been shown that test questions on ASME V involves
a good deal of theory that cannot adequately be explore through multiple choice
questions (although multiple choice question only will be on the test)
1. A film side penetrameter can be used for:

b. All welds

a. Acceptable
b. Rejectable
3. One of the procedural requirements for conducting PT is to address the

processing details for:
a. Post – examination cleaning
b. Pre - examination cleaning
c. Apply the penetrant
d. All of the above
4. Non - aqueous developer may be applied to a wet surface

a. True
b. False

a. Each year
b. Each two years
c. When possible
d. Every 6 months
Page 83
BOOK NO: 26
a. 7
b. 10
c. 9
d. 5
7. A wire IQI shall be placed adjacent to the weld, with the wires parallel to the
weld
a. True
b. False

a. 2
b. 6
c. 10
d. 8
9. The type and amperage of magnetizing current must be identified on the written
MT procedure
a. True
b. False
10. Certification of contaminants shall be obtained for all PT materials used on

a. Carbon steels
b. Ferritic stainless steels
c. Austenitic stainless steels
d. none of the above
11. Black light intensity shall be measured with a _______________ when

conducting fluorescent PT
a. Dark room meter
b. Photo - meter
c. Black light meter

a. Annually
b. Every 90 days
Page 84
BOOK NO: 26
13. The location markers required by ASME V are required to appear as
radiographic images
a. True
b. False
Name, date Part No etc need not appear as the radiographic images. But they should be
permanently marked on the film
14. D.C. yokes may be used for detecting subsurface discontinuities, per ASME V?
a. True
b. False
Yokes are only for surface defects whether DC or AC
15. When coatings are applied to enhance contrast, the procedure must be
demonstrated that indications can be detected through the coating
a. True
b. False
16. How many total liquid penetrant techniques are listed in ASME V?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 2
d. 1
17. Prior to examinations, each adjacent surface shall be cleaned within at least
_______” of the area to be examined.
a. 1
b. 1.5
c. 2
d. 3
18. Water washable penetrant shall be removed with a water spray not exceeding 60
psi and 100ºF
a. True
b. False
19. The maximum emulsification time shall be

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
Page 85
BOOK NO: 26
20. Densitometers shall be calibrated by verification with a
a. Densitometer
b. Step Wedge Comparison Strip
c. Light Meter
d. Transmission monitor
21. When using a hydrophilic emulsifier versus a lipophilic emulsifier and

intermediate step that must be taken is:
a. Pre-flooding with emulsifier
b. Pre-cleaning with solvent
c. Pre-rinsing with water
d. Pre-washing with detergent

technique is used:
a. Set A
b. Set B
c. Set C
d. Set D
Wire Dia inch THK of Object inch
SET A 0 .0032- 0.01 0.25 – 0.375
SET B 0 .01 - 0.032 0.25 - 2
SET C 0.032 - 0.1 1.5 – 8
SET D 0.1 – 0.32 6- 20
23. When a PT test cannot be conducted between 50º - 125ºF, what must be done,
per ASME V?
a. The procedure must be qualified
b. The surface must be re-cleaned
c. The test cannot be conducted
b. Carbon steel
c. Ferritic steel
d. All of the above
Page 86
BOOK NO: 26
25. The scope of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel, Code, Section V includes
c. Where to do NDE (i.e. what weld to examine)
d. Who can be the Authorized inspector
26. What finished surface is required of butt welds for PT examination?

a. Smooth surface prepared by grinding
b. Cosmetically clean acid etched surface
c. A near white blast surface
27. A penetramter is used on a DWE/DWV. The penetramter selection is based on

a. The single wall thickness and weld reinforcement
c. The single wall thickness for Sch 80 pipe
28. A suitable means for applying penetrant

a. Dipping
b. Brushing
c. Spraying
d. Any or all of the above
29. What materials require the use of tested and certified liquid penetrants as to the
contaminants in the penetrant
a. Nickel alloys
b. Austenitic stainless steel alloys
c. Ferritic / martensific stainless steel
30. Thickness readings may be displayed on?

a. SRT
b. PRT
c. CRT
d. Strip chart recorder
(Now a days CRTs are rarely Used)
Page 87
BOOK NO: 26
31. Which NDE methods are considered “surface” methods?
a. PT
b. RT
c. MT
d. Both A & C above
a. An “F”
b. An “E”
c. A “D”
d. An “FS”

b. RT field direction
Here ans is MT FIELD STRENGTH& DIRECION, Japanese use this. But Shims
are used in RT also for placing peni to compensate for excess thickness or
reinforcement
34. Why must the surface be closely observed during the application of the PT
developer?
a. To ensure proper coating application
b. To ensure excess penetrant removal
c. To allow proper characterization of discontinuties
d. To see the “groovy” lines form
35. One of the five magnetization techniques is?

a. Round
b. Circular
c. Shearwave
d. Hall-effect Tangential-field
c. Slag inclusions
d. Toe cracks
Page 88
BOOK NO: 26
37. For a DWE/SWV RT Technique, a minimum of ___________ exposures shall be
made
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
of the ASME Code?
40. Geometric un-sharpness is determined by

a. UG = Fd/D
b. UG = PD/d
c. UG = fd/d
d. UG = ft/d
41. UT Thickness velocities are usually obtained from:

a. Tim’s Handy Velocity Book
b. Table X 3.1 from E 494
c. Non destructive testing hand book
d. Both B & C, above
Page 89
BOOK NO: 26
43. What is to be done to excess penetrant remaining on the surface after the
specified penetration time as elapsed?
a. It must be removed
b. It can remain on the part
c. It must be developed
d. It must be removed with water only
a. 4.0
b. 1.8
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
45. A radiograph is made using an X-ray source and two films in each film holder. If
the film is to be viewed separately the minimum permitted density would be.
a. 4.0
b. 1.8
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
open book question)
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
47. Personnel performing visual examinations to ASME V must have acuity to which
of the following standards, if any?
a. Jaeger Type – 2
b. Jaeger Type – 1
c. Equivalent to Jaeger Type – 1
d. Either b or c, above
Page 90
BOOK NO: 26
For API J1
48. Visual examination must be conducted when the eye is within

_______________” of the piece to be examined
a. 36
b. 30
c. 24
d. 12
49. For an object of 1 inch thk , for 2-2T, when peni is placed on the film side what
is essential hole dia as per T 276
a. 20 thou
b. 40 thou
c. 60 thou
d. 50 thou
50. If For the object of 1 inch thk , for the peni to be placed on the source side what
is wire type peni and what are the wire should be visible
a. Set B , 9th wire
b. Set B 10th wire
c. Set B 11th wire
d. All
e. None
51. Pipe Single wall thk is 20 mm. Backing ring thk is 5 mm. Actual reinforcement is
4 mm. Allowed reinforcement is 2.5 mm. If we are using Double wall technique,
which thk should be used for the peni selection
a. 20 mm
b. 22mm
c. 44 mm
d. 47.5 mm
52. Object thk is 50 mm. SOD is 300 mm. Source size is 5 mm. What is ug and is it
ok?
a. 0.5 mm, ok
b. 0.75 mm, not ok
c. 0.833 mm , not ok
d. O.833 mm, ok
Page 91
BOOK NO: 26
53. Thk of the plate is 50 mm. SOD is 300 mm. Distance between the markers on
the film is 250 mm. What is minimum coverage required Fig
a. 10 mm
b. 5mm
c. 21mm
d. 25mm
54. The Following is the Test Meter Reading &Unit Meter Reading in the Amp-meter
of the Magnetizing equipment Is it Ok or Not?
Test Meter in Amp Unit Meter in amp

400 350
600 550
800 850
a. Not ok in the lower end reading

b. Not ok in the mid reading
c. Not ok in the high end reading
d. Not Ok in all the reading
e. Ok in all the readings
55. There was a IR 192 RT film Having the OD minimu 2 and Maximum 3.5 and OD
near Peni is 2.5. What is your opinion
a. OD is not ok in the lower limit
b. OD is not ok in the higher limit
c. OD is not ok in both the cases
d. OD is OK completely
56. The scope of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel, Code, Section V includes ( Art
1 T 110 &)
c. Where to do NDE (i.e. what welds to examine)
d. All of above.
57. For Ammeter calibration for magnetizing equipment, the allowable tolerance is (
MT –T 761.1 C)
a. ±5%
b. ±10%
c. ±15%
d. ±20%
Page 92
BOOK NO: 26
58. For MT examination by Prod technique the magnetizing current required depends
on ( Art 7- T 752.2)
a. Prod Spacing
b. Thickness of item under Inspection
c. a & b above
d. None of above
59. Which is/are advantage of magnetic particle testing over penetrant testing?(Art 7
T 720)
a. It can detect surface discontinuities with foreign material imbedded in them.
b. It is faster on individual parts.
c. It can detect near-surface discontinuities.
d. All of the above
60. Double wall Double image technique is used for the radiography of (T 271.2 b)
a. Plate welds
b. Tubular products with outer diameter less than 3.5 inch
c. Large pipes with outer diameter 200 mm and above
d. Heavy castings
61. For UT examination using Pulse- Echo Technique, thickness calibration was
performed at 80°F. An on-stream UT reading at a TML on a pressure vessel
(operating at 680°F) was indicated as 50 mm. Its ac tual thickness will be
approximately:
a. 44 mm
b. 47 mm
c. 48.5 mm
d. 50 mm
62. The recommended minimum development time in minutes allowed for a material
made of high temperature alloy is:
a. 5 min
b. 15 min
c. 10 min
d. 6 min
63. A 1” thickness C.S. weld with 1/8” thk acceptable reinforcement was to be
radiographed. The applicable hole type penetrameter on (source side) and
essential hole shall be
a. ASME 30 - 2T
b. ASME 25 - 2T
c. ASME 20 - 2T
d. ASME 30 - 4T
Page 93
BOOK NO: 26
64. In liquid penetrant testing, a procedure is qualified to a temperature of 15 degree
C. Pick up a correct statement.
a. The same procedure is qualified from 10°C to 52 °C
b. The same procedure is restricted to maximum of 150°C only
c. The same procedure shall be applied to 5 °C to 1 00°C
d. The same procedure shall be applied to temperature more than 150°C
65. Choose the correct option

a. Pie gage has 6 pie sections
b. Pie gage should be place with it’s copper side towards the test surface
c. Pie gage measure the exact strength of the magnetic field
d. All
e. None
66. Chose the correct option reg the number of peni and the peni designation if 25
mm thk and 1 meter dia vessel is undergone panoramic single exposure with ten
films
a. Minimum two numbers of 20 peni placed at 90 deg to each other
b. Minimum three numbers of 25 peni placed at 120 deg to each other
c. Minimum 10 numbers of 25 peni at 36 deg to each other
d. Minimum 6 nos of 30 peni at 60 deg to each other
67. It takes 8 Micro seconds to reach the back of the steel plate and return back what
is thk of the plate
a) 10 mm
b) 24 mm
c) 2 inch
d) UT canot be used in the steel plate
68. What is Black light
a) It is Black colored light

b) It the visible portion of Electro magnetic spectrum
c) It is a kind of UV light
d) Any light coming through the dark black filter
69. Fluorescent penetrant uses
a) Wet developer
b) Dry developer
c) Sometimes No developer at all
d) a&b
e) a&b&c
Page 94
BOOK NO: 26
70. Choose correct option
a) Lifting power of DC yoke 4.5KG

b) Lifting power of the AC yoke is 18 Kg
c) PM yoke should be calibrated once in a year
d) All
e) None
71. Choose correct option
a) Hole Type peni should be placed across the weld

b) Wire type peni gives both Sensitivy & Unsharpness
c) As far as possible Film side peni placement is better
d) All
e) None- E
72. In order to eliminate back scattering
a) Place Lead letter Bon the front of the object

b) Place the Lead letter B on the Film side of the object
c) Placve the Lead letter B on the Back of the film
d) All
e) none-E
73. You can get elliptical exposure in
a) SWSI
b) DWDI Offset method
c) DWDI Superinposing shot method -C
d) DWSI
Page 95
BOOK NO: 26
ANSWER KEY
Q.NO. ANS REFERENCE

1 A T 277.1 b – RT
2 A T 284 RT
3 D Table T621 & Sec 621
4 FALSE T 675.2 b
5 A T 761.1 a
6 D T 676.4 b
7 False T 277.1 d
8 D T 764.1.1 Fig
9 True T 721.2 & the Table T 721
10 C T 641
11 C T 676.4e
12 B T 22.1
13 True T 275
14 False ( Not Given in SEC V For API 510 Portion)
15 True T 741.1 d
16 B T 651
17 A T 642 b
18 False T 673.1
19 D T 673.2 a
20 B T 262.1 a
21 C T 673.2 b
22 B T 223.2
23 A T 653
24 D H 641
25 B T110
26 D T 642
27 A T 276.2a
28 D T 671
29 C T 641
30 A 6.1
31 D GK
32 A T 277.1 b
33 C T 764.1.2
34 C T 676.2
35 B T 751
36 D T 720
37 C T 271.2 b2
38 D T 275.1
39 D T 274.1
Page 96
BOOK NO: 26
40 A T 274.1
41 D UT 4.3
42 C T 620
43 A T 673
44 E The correct answer is –15% from the
transmitted density through the body of the
penetrameter
45 B T 282.1
46 A TABLE T276
47 D T 923
48 C T 952
49 B T 276
50 D T 233
51 B T 27.2 a & b
52 C T 274.1& T 274 . 2
53 C T 275
54 A T (761.1c)
55 C T 282.1 & T 282.2
56 B ASME V, Art. 1, Scope
57 B ASME V, Art. 7, T-761
58 C ASME V, Art. 7, T-752.2
59 D ASME V, Art. 7, Scope & Gen. Knowledge
60 B ASME V, Art. 2, T-271 (b)
61 A ASME V, SE 797, 8.5
62 C ASME V, Table T-672
63 A ASME V, Table T – 276
64 A ASME V, T-652
65 E T 764 1.1
66 B T 277.2
67 B SE 797- 4.1
68 C T 676.4
69 D T 675 Last Para
70 E T 762
71 E T-277.1d
72 E T 223
73 C T 271.2
Page 97
BOOK NO: 26
May 2011 ASME Section V TIPS
GENERAL:
a. ASME Sec. V is NDT procedure/methods code and is applicable only if it

is referenced by the relevant construction code. The extent of NDT and
acceptance standards is given in relevant construction code.
b. NDT equipment and their calibration shall be as per ASME Sec. V.
c. Examiner is NDT person in employment of fabricator or repair

organization. Inspector means Authorized Inspector who finally
accepts/rejects NDT results.
d. Sec V does not give acceptance criteria. It Spells out how to do NDT
FOR RT:
a. Satisfactory radiograph shall meet requirements of density and IQI

image (2T hole for hole type and designated wire for wire type).
b. Backscatter:
Light image of B on dark background - Unacceptable
c. Density Limitations:
Min 1.8 for X Ray / 2.0 for G-Ray

Max 4.0 for X / G Ray
Density Variation = -15 % to + 30%
d. Double wall viewing (DWDI) - Up to 3.5” outside

diameter
e. Penetrameter Selection: Table T-276. Thickness includes weld

reinforcement. But not backing.
f. Penetrameter shall be normally placed on source side. If not possible, it

may be placed on film side with lead letter “F”.
g. Wire type peni refer T 276
h. Hole type peni refer T 233 .2
Page 98
BOOK NO: 26
i. All process industries generally use 2 % Sensitivity and they prefer
essential hole as 2T hole
j. Densitometer should be calibrated once in 90 days with Step tablet (

Traceable to the national standard ) It should At least have 5 steps
k. Densitometer should be verified after 8 hurs of continuous use, or at the

beginning of each shift or when ever the aperture change ( Which ever is
earlier)
l. Technique: Single wall Technique, Double wall technique
Single wall technique is preferred

In Double wall technique Two Sub techniques are there : They are single
wall viewing , Double wall viewing
Double wall viewing technique is used for weld of dia equal to or less than
89 mm.
This Double wall viewing has two methods They are Superimpose method(
Use 3 Minimum 3 exposures ) and Off set Method ( Two exposures at 90
Degree to each other)
m ) Ug = Fd/D, So you can get good film of Low Ug if Source size is small
& Source to object distance is more and object to film distance is less
n) For Ug Acceptance criteria Use Table T 274.2
o) Location marker should appear as the Radiographic images on the film
p) Peni should be based on the Nominal single wall thk + allowed code
reinforcement. Actual reinforcement thk or the Backing strip thk should not
be included
q) Place the Peni on source side. If inaccessibility Prevents , Place it on the

fil side with letter F
r) To detect Back scattering A lead Letter B should be Place on the Back of

the fil cassette
s) Light Image of B is a cause for rejection, while the dark image is not
t) To Reduce or eliminate Back s scattering use thick lead sheets behind the
film cassette
Page 99
BOOK NO: 26
u) Hole pani should be placed parallel to the weld whiled the wire should be
placed perpendicular ie across the weld
v) If 2 IQI are used one should be in the lightest area and the other should
be in the darkest area
w) When full circumference is radigraphed in single exposure ( Panoramic)

Then minimum three IQI should be placed at 120 Degree to each other
x) Shims are place if the peni canot be placed on the part directly
y) Density range for Gamma ray is 2 to 4 and X ray is 1.8 to 4
z) Density at any point in the radiograph should not vary by more than -15%
or + 30 % from the density on the area of Interest( Say Penetrameter)
Article – 5 UT Method for Materials
• The tem should not exceed 200 Deg F.. For higher temp Prodeure has to be
qualified accordinly. In the same way high temp couplany & High tem probe gas to
be used. For Every 100 Deg F excess temp , 1 % is the correction facter
• UT can be used for all the material where UT waves travels t constant velocity
• T = vt/2, T = Thk, V = velocity, t = Transit time
• Three kinds of display 1) A scan display, 2)Flaw detecters with A scan display &
direct Thk Read out, 3) Direct hk Readout
• For thin section Highly damped High Freq probe is used
• Dual probes are used for thk above 3 mm
• Dual probes are used for rough surface
• Std calibration block should have same acoustic velocity
• Maximum accuracy will be got from materials with parallel or concentric surface
• For thin section direct Readout units without A can display gives errors
• For Rough pitted or corroded surface A scan units are prefgerrable
• Scope – Selecting and developing UT procedure for part, components, materials
and all thickness determinations
• Written Procedure: contain minimum requirement listed in cable 7.522 essential and
non-essential variables procedure to be qualified when specified.
• Equipment: Plus Echo type UT instrument shall be used, frequency over range of
the atleast 1 Mhz to 5 Mhz, gain control – 2.0 dB or less
• Couplant: nickel base alloy sulphur not more than 250psi SS or Titanium halide
(chloride + Flourid) not > 250psi
• Calibration Block: P1, P3, P4, P5 are equivalent
Page 100
BOOK NO: 26
• C.B should be same material Specific product from, heat treatment as the
material being examined
• Movement of Probe < 6 in/sec (152 mm/sec)
• Calibration of equipment with the standard at the beginning and end of each
examination.
Thickness measurement as per SE-797
• Documentation: Non-rejectable indication shall be recorded, rejectable
indications shall be recorded with type of defect such as cracks, lamination etc +
location and extent shall be recorded
• Thk Gage Standardisation Block: 4 step wedge has got steps thk
0.25in , 0.5in , 0.75in and 1 in
5 step calibration wedge has got steps of thk

0.1 in, 0.2 in, 0.3 in, 0.4 in, 0.5 in
Page 101
BOOK NO: 26
Article – 6 Liquid Penetrant Examination
Scope: Open to surface discontinuities, nonporous metals

Cracks, seams, laps, cold shuts. Laminations & Porosity
Developer – absorb penetrant & contrasting background
Color contrast – Visible under white light
Fluorescent Visible under Ultravoilet light
Temperature range – 10ºC – 52ºC (50ºF – 125º F)
Procedure revision is required change of product or

Type of cleaning changed or process or
Grit blasting or acid treatment.
Penetrant materials penetrant, emulsifier, solvent cleaning agent, developer etc.

Material Nickel alloy, SS, Titanium certification of penetrant is required
Contaminants: nickel alloy sample penetrant (except cleaners)

Residue should be less than 0.0025 grams
Sulphur should be less than 1% of residue weight
Residue should be less than 0.005 grams
Sulphur should be less than 1% of residue weight
Austenitic stainless steel

Penetrant analyzing method is same as above (Nickel Alloy)
Residue weight is also same as above (0.0025 gram)
Total chlorine + Fluorine content should be less than 1% of weight
• Surface preparation area to be examined and adjacent are within 25% shall be
dry……..
• Typical cleaning agents detergent, solvent, descaling solution, paint remover etc.
• Drying after preparation normal evaporation forced hot or cool air.
• Techniques water washable, post emulsifying, solvent removing
Page 102
BOOK NO: 26
Technique
For standard temperature: Penetrant and surface temperature should with in 10ºC to
52ºC (50ºF to 125ºF) throughout the examination. Local heating and cooling is ok if the
temperature is within the above.
For non-standard temperature: requires qualification.
Penetrant may be applied by dipping, brushing, spraying
Penetration and Dwell Time :
Penetrant Developer
Dwell Time in
time in Minutes
Minutes
Casting & 5 7
Common Weld
Material Wrought, 10 7
Plate
All other All forms 5 7
materials
• Water washable penetrant water pressure should not exceed 50 psi and
temperature should not exceed 43ºC
• Post emulsification penetrant Lipophilic & hydrophilic emulsification
• Lipophilic no pre-rinsing with water before emulsification, after emulsification
rinsing with water
• Hydrophilic Prior to emulsification pre-rinsing with water time shall not exceed 1
minute, after emulsification rinse with water
• Solvent removable solvents first remove with cloth or absorbent paper by wiping
then cloth or paper moistured with solvent likely wipe the surface flushing the
surface with solvent is prohibited
• Developer Colour contrast penetrant only wet developer
Fluorescent contrast penetrant water or dry

developer
Dry developer shall be applied powder gun, soft brush, hand powder bulb
Page 103
BOOK NO: 26
Wet developer
Aqueous developer may be applied on wet or dry surface (dipping, brushing, and
spraying)
Warm air may be used, normal drying.
Non-aqueous developer only on dry surface (spraying, brushing is ok).
Developing time is 7 minutes
Interpretation within 7 to 60 minutes after developing time
Minimum light intensity shall be 50 FC (500 lux) for color contrast penetrant
Fluorescent penetrant Black light intensity 1000 μ W/cm2, measured with black
light meter every 8 hours, Black light warm up for 5 minutes, Examiner should be dark
area for 1 minute prior to examination
Page 104
BOOK NO: 26
Article – 7
Magnetic Particle Examination
• Applicable for ferromagnetic materials on or near surface discontinuities

• Surface preparation surface to be examined + adjacent areas with in at least 25
mm
• Continuous Examination method:- magnetizing current remains on surface while
particles are applied
• Magnetic field accuracy is measured using 1. Pie-shaped magnetic field indicator 2.
Artificial flow shims 3. Hall-effect Tangential – field probe
• Calibration of Equipment: shall be calibrated at least once a year with an ammeter
• Lifting power of magnetizing yokes shall be checked daily prior to use
• AC yoke lifting power should be 4.5 kg (1016) min
• DC yoke or permanent yoke should be 18.1 kg (4016) min
• Examination: at least two separate examination on each area
Prod Technique:
• For 19 mm thickness greater 100 amp/in – 125 amp/in
o > 19 90 - 110 amp/in
o Prod spacing shall not exceed 18 inch
o Less than 3 inch spacing is not permitted
o Current is > 25 V – lead, steel or aluminum (rather than copper) tipped prods
are recommended
Yoke Technique:
• Only for discontinuities where are open to the surface

• AC or DC electromagnetic yokes are permanent magnet yokes
• Lifting power of electromagnetic yoke Should be checked prior to use within the last
year
• Permanent magnetic yoke should be checked daily prior to use
• Dry particle for surface temperature up to 316ºC
• Wet particle for surface temperature up to 57ºC
• For Non-Fluorescent particle: Lighting required 100 FC (1000 lux)
• For fluorescent particle: Black light is 1000 μ W/cm2 (light intensity is measured
every 8 hours)
• Examiner should be at least 5 minutes in darkening area prior to performing
examination.
• Black light shall be warm up 5 minutes to use
Page 105
BOOK NO: 26

Reference

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Reference

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

API 570 – DAY 3

ASME SEC IX TIPS

ASME IX PRACTICE QUESTIONS

2. The WPS lists:

3. The PQR must list:

4. Each ____________________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX

5. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator

6. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is

9. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to

10. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s

11. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1

15. A WPS must describe:

16. A PQR must describe:

17. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

18. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential variables for

20. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’s

21. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.

24. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:

27. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:

28. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to

29. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:

30. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated using:

32. Each welder must be assigned a(n):

37. May a GTAW welder qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend

38. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and

46. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be

47. Three arc-welding processes are:

Will these test qualify the welder?

53. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the

54. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX,

58. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

59. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires re-qualification,

61. A non-essential variable may be changed without re-qualification because:

62. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable,

66. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position

68. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using PI materials?

69. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work

71. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is a

74. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to

76. A WPS must address all applicable non-essential variables.

79. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be

80. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without re-

81. A welder is qualified to weld all thicknesses of material when:

84. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:

86. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance

89. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:

90. A change in a non-essential variable requires recertification of the

91. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may

97. Which of the following represent grouping of weld-metals in ASME IX?

98. Who is responsible for performance and acceptance of WPQ test ?

99. The purpose of a welding Procedure Specification and its Procedure

100. The report for qualifying a welder is;

101. A welding procedure is a detailed plan developed by whom to ensure

Q.NO ANS Reference

1. What is the purpose of a welding procedure?

Q.No. ANSWER LOCATION OF ANSWER

1. (WPS) In the Joins QW-402 there is a mistake because;

11. (WPS) QW-402 Joints The following is true;

14. (WPS) QW-406 Preheat There (is/is not ) a mistake because;

Q.No. ANSWER LOCATION OF ANSWER

1. (WPS) In the JOINTS (QW-402) section, the following statement is true;

2. (WPS) In the BASE METAL (QW-420) there is mistake because the;

3. (WPS) In the TECHNIQUE (QW-410) should have addressed the following;

1. (WPS) In the Joins QW-402 there is a mistake because;