MOCK BOARD LICENSURE EXAMINATON FOR CHEMICAL ENGINEERS

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. By what factor does the frictional loss change when the pipe diameter is doubled?
A. 32 B. 1/32 C. 8 D. 1/8
____ 2. Water is flowing through a pipe. A pitot-static gauge registers 0.076 m of mercury. The velocity of the water in the pipe is
closest to
A. 4.3 m/s B. 5.0 m/s C. 2.6 m/s D. 3.0 m/s
____ 3. For gas flows in orifices, venturis, and nozzles, the expansion factor increases with
A. increasing throat-to-pipe diameter ratio. C. increasing pressure drop.
B. increasing specific heat ratio. D. increasing approach velocity.
____ 4. At a sudden enlargement in a pipe, the pressure rise is maximum when the diameter of the larger pipe is ___ times the fixed
diameter of the smaller pipe.
A. 2-1/2 B. 1/2 C. 21/2 D. 2
____ 5. For laminar flow in pipes, the pressure gradient is proportional to ___, where Q is the volumetric flow rate of the fluid.
A. Q B. Q1/2 C. Q2 D. Q4
____ 6. The optimum reflux ratio in distillation is _____ the minimum reflux ratio.
A. 1 - 2 B. 1.2 - 1.5 C. 1.5 - 1.75 D. 1 - 1.2
____ 7. What is the average mass of 25,000 grains that are designated as -48+60 in the Tyler Mesh Standard? The specific gravity of
the grain is 1.84.
A. 0.67 g B. 1.7 g C. 3.9 g D. 4.6 g
____ 8. In distillation design using the McCabe-Thiele method, a vertical feed line indicates a _____ feed.
A. saturated vapor C. subcooled liquid
B. saturated liquid D. superheated vapor
____ 9. Which of the following uses both energy separating agent and material separating agent?
A. steam distillation C. batch distillation
B. fractional distillation D. rectification
____ 10. Which should be observed in a gas absorption equipment?
A. The liquid absorbent is below its bubble point C. The liquid absorbent is below its bubble point
and the gas phase is well above its dew point. and the gas phase is at its dew point.
B. The liquid absorbent is above its bubble point D. The liquid absorbent is at its bubble point and
and the gas phase is well below its dew point. the gas phase is well above its dew point.
____ 11. A combustible gas mixture has the following compositions by volume: 2.5 % CO2, 8.4 % C2.72H4.72 (unsaturateds), 0.8 % O2,
39.9 % H2, 32.9 % CO, 10.1 % C1.14H4.28 (paraffins) and 5.4 % N2. Calculate the theoretical number of moles of oxygen that
must be supplied for the combustion of 1 mole of the gas.
A. 0.907 mole B. 1.435 moles C. 0.915 mole D. 0.846 mole
____ 12. A natural gas which consists of 80 mol % CH4, 10 mol % H2 and 10 mol % N2 burns in 20 % excess air. Assume complete
combustion of CH4 to CO2 but only half of the hydrogen.
What is the fraction of nitrogen in the Orsat analysis of the combustion gases?
A. 0.80 B. 0.72 C. 0.86 D. 0.89
o
____ 13. Air at 30 C and a total pressure of 750 mm Hg has a percentage humidity of 75%. A this temperature, the vapor pressure of
water is 31.81 mm Hg. At what pressure to which the air must be compressured at constant temperature in order to condense
80% of the moisture?
A. 5.4 atm B. 15.8 atm C. 6.3 atm D. 7.7 atm
o o
____ 14. A 2-in IPS steel pipe ( =0.79) carries steam at 325 F through a room at 70 F. What % decrease in radiation occurs if the bare
pipe is coated with 26% aluminum paint ( =0.30)?
A. 33% B. 37% C. 49% D. 62%
____ 15. Find the critical radius of insulation for a pipe surrounded by asbestos (k = 0.181 W/m.oC) and exposed to air at a temperature
of 10oC with h = 3.5 W/m2.K.
A. 5.2 cm B. 4.7 cm C. 6.1 cm D. 4.2 cm
____ 16. Which of the following has the lowest conduction heat-transfer resistance at 300 K?
A. stone concrete C. Teflon
B. rubber D. Pyrex
____ 17. The overall heat transfer coefficient of a clean heat exchanger was 5000 W/m2.K. If the fouling factor of the fluid that the
heat exchanger employs is 1.12 x 10-4 m2.K/W, what would be the % increase in resistance when the heat exchanged was
fouled?
A. 44% B. 56% C. 33% D. 67%
____ 18. Which of the following would you expect to have the highest average heat transfer coefficient?
A. free convection in gases C. forced convection in liquids
B. free convection in liquids D. forced convection in gases
____ 19. Ice at the fusion temperature (0 oC) is enclosed in a cubical cavity of width 0.2 m on a side. The cavity wall is 0.01 m thick
and thermal conductivity 0.05 W m-1K-1. If the outer temperature of the wall is 20 oC, approximately how long will it take to
completely melt the ice? The heat of fusion of the ice is 334 kJ/kg and its density is 920 kg m-3.
A. 19 h B. 21 h C. 28 h D. 32 h

CHECHM / 6 NOV 2007

 MOCK BOARD LICENSURE EXAMINATON FOR CHEMICAL ENGINEERS
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES

____ 20. Which of the following packing materials will give the lowest flooding velocity in a packed tower?
A. 16 mm metal Pall rings C. 25 mm plastic Pall rings
B. 25 mm ceramic Berl saddles D. 25 mm ceramic Raschig rings
____ 21. HTU is equal to HETP for which of the following conditions?
A. equilibrium curve and operating line are both straight and parallel
B. equilibrium curve and operating line intersect perpendicularly
C. equilibrium curve and operating line overlap
D. operating line is tangent to at least one point in the equilibrium curve
____ 22. At 298 K, acetic acid will diffuse fastest in which of the following solvents?
A. acetone C. water
B. benzene D. carbon tetrachloride
____ 23. As the reflux ratio in distillation is increased,
A. both operating and fixed costs increase.
B. operating costs increase while fixed costs decrease.
C. both operating and fixed costs decrease.
D. operating costs decrease while fixed costs increase.
____ 24. Mass transfer and chemical reactions occurs simultaneously in all of the following except:
A. combustion of coal C. solvent extraction
B. trickling filters D. extractive fermentation
____ 25. What is the fundamental dimensionless parameter in simultaneous mass transfer analysis?
A. NTU C. HTU
B. Lewis number D. psychrometric ratio
____ 26. How is the rate of gas flow in the packed column affected by the size and type of packing material?
A. There is no effect. C. Gas flow rate is low at low packing factor
value.
B. Gas flow rate is high at low packing factor D. Gas flow is higher for larger packing
value. materials.
____ 27. The capacity of a column is to be increased by 38% by replacing the existing 1-in metal Raschig rings with some other
packing material without significantly changing the % flooding. The end compositions, liquid-to-gas ratio, pressure and
temperature remain the same. What should be the packing factor of the new packing?
A. 48 B. 115 C. 60 D. 74
____ 28. Which control configuration is designed to directly measure the disturbance to adjust the values of the manipulated variable?
A. feedback B. inferential C. servo D. feedforward
____ 29. What does a transducer do?
A. It reduces the effect of disturbance entering the process.
B. It measures both disturbances and secondary output variables.
C. It acts as the main source of information about what is going on in the process.
D. It converts measurements into physical quantities that can be transmitted easily.
____ 30. Which control parameter characterizes the range over which the error must change in order to drive the actuating signal of the
controller to its full range?
A. proportional band C. steady-state gain
B. reset rate D. damping factor
____ 31. In the design of paddle agitator the paddle diameter to tank diameter ratio is normally taken as
A. 0.1. B. 0.80. C. 0.25. D. 0.50.
____ 32. Fouling factor must be included in the calculation of overall heat transfer coefficient when the liquid
A. containing suspended solids flows at low C. is highly viscous.
velocity.
B. containing suspended solids flows at high D. is of high specific viscosity.
velocity.
____ 33. When one of the fluids is highly corrosive and has fouling tendency, it should
A. preferably flow inside the tube for its easier internal cleaning.
B. preferably flow outside the tube.
C. flow at a very slow velocity.
D. flow outside the tube when the flow is countercurrent and inside the tube when the flow is co-
current.
____ 34. Concrete tank can be used to store
A. alum. B. iron (II) sulfate. C. sulfuric acid. D. saturated brine.
____ 35. Inconel is an alloy of
A. Sn, Zn, and Ni. B. Cu and Ni. C. Fe, Ni, and Cr. D. Cu and Sn.
3 o
____ 36. A 2-ft rigid volume contains water at 120 F with a quality of 0.50. Calculate the mass of water in the container.
A. 0.0119 lb B. 0.0153 lb C. 0.0166 lb D. 0.0197 lb
____ 37. An equlibrium mixture of steam and liquid water has a total mass of 3 lb and is at a total pressure of 153.01 psia. If the total
entropy of the mixture is 4.0 Btu/lboF, what is the quality?
A. 0.72 B. 0.78 C. 0.85 D. 0.91

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 MOCK BOARD LICENSURE EXAMINATON FOR CHEMICAL ENGINEERS
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES

____ 38. Air enters a compressor at atmospheric conditions at 20oC and 80 kPa and exits at 800 kPa and 200oC. The air exits at 20 m/s
through an exit diameter of 10 cm. What is the mass flow rate of the air.
A. 0.926 kg/s B. 1.056 kg/s C. 0.812 kg/s D. 1.235 kg/s
____ 39. Which of the following second-law statements is incorrect?
A. The entropy of an isolated system must remain constant or increase.
B. The entropy of a hot copper block decreases as it cools.
C. If ice is melted in water in an insulated container, the net entropy decreases.
D. Work must be input if energy is transferred from a cold body to a hot body.
____ 40. Refrigerant flows through the coil on the back of most refrigerators. The coil is the:
A. evaporator. B. intercooler. C. reheater. D. condenser.
____ 41. The rate of a chemical reaction triples when the concentration of the reactant is doubled. What is the order of the reaction?
A. 1.33 B. 1.50 C. 1.58 D. 2.00
____ 42. A certain reaction is first order in A. The specific reaction rate constant is 0.003/s. The half-life is ___.
A. 0.0021 s B. 100 s C. 231 s D. 768 s
____ 43. A certain reaction is first order in A. In 30 minutes, A decreases from 0.55 moles to 0.15 moles in a constant volume batch
reactor. The time it will take to decrease from 0.35 mole to 0.15 mole is
A. 10.4 min. B. 19.1 min C. 19.6 min D. 45.1 min
____ 44. The induced fit theory of enzyme-substrate reactions states that:
A. Enzymes only fit to one substance that has a complementary geometric shape at the active site.
B. Enzymes are all rigid and non-conforming.
C. Enzymes may conform to fit a substrate to facilitate binding.
D. Enzymes may conform to fit a substrate after binding occurs.
____ 45. The process used to retard spoilage in fats is called
A. saturation. C. dehydrogenation.
B. hydrogenation. D. esterification.
____ 46. What is the most significant characteristic of the amino acid cysteine?
A. the -NH2 group C. the -SH group
B. the structure D. the carboxyl group
____ 47. D- and L-sugars may be distinguished by
A. the number of carbons. C. the location of specific -OH groups.
B. the number of -OH groups. D. the type of carbon-carbon bonding.
____ 48. Which of these strains of microorganisms most closely approximates a chain of spheres?
A. Streptococci C. Cocci
B. Staphylococci D. Diplococci
____ 49. How does aeration affect bubble size?
A. As aeration increases, the bubble size increases.
B. As aeration increases, bubble size stays consistent.
C. As aeration increases, bubble size becomes inconsistent.
D. As aeration increases, the bubble size decreases.
____ 50. Foaming may be caused by
A. a decrease in agitation. C. the formation of small unstable bubbles.
B. the formation of large stable bubbles. D. the breaking of large unstable bubbles.

Problem

51. The irreversible gas-phase decomposition A => B + C with unknown kinetics is to be carried out in a 20-liter plugflow
reactor. The constant-pressure reactor also operates isothermally. The feed which enters the reactor ar the rate of 2 liters per
minute contains 80% A and 20% of an inert gas.
___1. What should be the mean residence time of the fluid mixture in the reactor if the desired conversion in 95%?
A. 3.64 min B. 3.69 min C. 5.56 min D. 5.68 min
___2. Will the average flowrate change with conversion? If so, what would be the average fractional change in volume at
50% conversion?
A. No, the average flowrate is independent of conversion.
B. 1.40
C. 1.90
D. The fraction change in volume cannot be evaluated unless inlet flowrate, temperature and pressure
are known.
___3. For a holding time of 10 minutes, at what flowrate should the feed mixture be introduced to the reactor if the desired
conversion is 100%?
A. 1.11 L/min B. 3.60 L/min C. 3.64 L/min D. 4.28 L/min
52. A acid solution is pumped from an open tank to a column reactor at the rate of 20 m3/h. The reactor operates at 1.2 bar, is 10
m above the liquid surface level in the tank, and receives the acid solution into it at a velocity of 2.5 m/s. The specific gravity
gravity of the acid solution is 1.71 and the friction loss is equivalent to 4 m of water head.
___1. What is the power required to drive the pump if its eficiency is 55%.

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 MOCK BOARD LICENSURE EXAMINATON FOR CHEMICAL ENGINEERS
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES

A. 2.61 kW B. 3.80 kW C. 4.12 kW D. 6.68 kW

___2. If the source tank is enclosed in such a way that the pressure is equal to the pressure in the column reactor, what will
be the discharge velocity? Assume use of same pump and that all other parameters are unchanged.
A. 7.25 m/s B. 11.73 m/s C. 5.25 m/s D. 16.60 m/s
53. Unrefined oil whose density and kinematic viscosity are 920 kg/m and 0.002 m/s, respectively, is pumped through a 75-m
long 4-in ID pipe. The pump requires 3 kW power and its efficiency is 70%.
___1. What is the average velocity of the oil?
A. 5.96 m/s B. 2.44 m/s C. 2.65 m/s D. 7.02 m/s
___2. What is the average mass flow rate of the oil through the pipe?
A. 44.5 kg/s B. 52.4 kg/s C. 19.8 kg/s D. 18.2 kg/s
___3. What is the flow Reynolds number?
A. 135 B. 357 C. 124 D. 303
54. The analysis (dry basis) of flue gas emerging from a carbon and hydrogen burner is shown below.
Component CO2 O2 N2
mole % in dry flue gas 10% 5% 85%

___ 1. What is the volume of air (m3 , STP) used per 100 kgmol of dry flue gas?
A. 3 338 B. 1 898 C. 2 410 D. 2 805
___ 2. The flue gas is at 1 atm; what is the partial pressure of water vapor in the mixture?
A. 53.6 mm Hg C. 100.2 mm Hg
B. 107.2 mm Hg D. 50.1 mm Hg
___ 3. What is the mass ratio of carbon to hydrogen entering the burner?
A. 3.9 B. 1.3 C. 4.4 C. 15.8
55. A 4-in schedule 40 steel pipe (k = 36 W/m.K) is insulated with a 2-cm-thick layer of 85% magnesia (k = 0.06136 W/m.K).
The inside surface area of the pipe is maintained at a temperature of 100oC, and the outside surface of the insulation is
maintained at a temperature of 20oC.
___ 1. What is the thermal resistance of the insulation per meter length?
A. 0.718 K/W B. 0.994 K/W C. 0.0005 K/W D. 0.228 K/W
___ 2. What is the temperature (oC) at the pipe-insulation interface?
A. 97.8 B. 98.7 C. 99.9 D. 98.2
___ 3. What is the overall heat-transfer coefficient based on the pipe inside surface?
A. 4.35 W/m2.K C. 10.34 W/m2.K
B. 3.15 W/m2.K D. 7.37 W/m2.K
56. In a heat exchanger, 0.6 kg/s of oil is to be cooled from 116oC to 81oC. Water is used as the cooling medium, with a flow rate
of 0.3 kg/s and an inlet temperature of 8oC. The specific heats of water and the oil are 4200 and 1900 J/kg.K, respectively.
The overall heat-transfer coefficient is 280 W/m2.K.
___ 1. Calculate the area (m2) required for counterflow arrangement.
A. 1.92 B. 2.05 C. 2.17 D. 1.86
___ 2. Calculate the area (m2) required for parallel flow arrangement.
A. 1.97 B. 2.06 C. 2.16 D. 1.88
57. An industrial pipeline containing n-butyl alcohol gas is vented to the atmosphere by inserting a 3-mm tube into the pipe,
which extends 10 m into the air. At the system’s temperature (30oC), the vapor pressure of n-butyl alcohol is 48 mm Hg.
___ 1. What is the molar flux of n-butanol lost from the vent?
A. 2.88 x 10-6 mole/s.m2 C. 2.24 x 10-6 mole/s.m2
-6 . 2
B. 2.31 x 10 mole/s m D. 1.74 x 10-5 mole/s.m2
___ 2. What is the mass rate of butanol lost from the vent, in grams per hour?
A. 12.94 x 10-6 g/h C. 6.12 x 10-6 g/h
-6
B. 27.24 x 10 g/h D. 4.45 x 10-6 g/h
58. Air is being humidified adiabatically from 70oC (dry-bulb) and 40oC (wet-bulb) to 90% RH.
___ 1. What is the dew-point temperature (oC) of the humidified air?
A. 39.6 B. 39.0 C. 34.2 D. 38.5
___ 2. What is the final temperature(oC) of the humidified air?
A. 42.5 B. 45.0 C. 41.5 D. 41.0
___ 3. Estimate the amount of moisture added per 100 kg of wet air.
A. 0.042 kg B. 1.798 kg C. 1.158 kg D. 2.075 kg
59. You are tasked to measure the BOD of a wastewater sample collected from the effluent of a fish-canning factory. All the
reagents, instruments and glasswares that you need to do the test are available in the laboratory. However, this is the very
first time that you are doing an actual hands-on testing. At this point you are trying to recall what you have learned from
your Environmental Engineering class particularly the principles involved behind the BOD-test procedures as well as the
general guidelines and pointers in making the measurement as accurate as possible. Provide the correct answer to the
following questions you’ve been asking yoursef (as a review) before doing the actual test.
___1. Why is it important to have a water-tight seal on my BOD bottles?
A. Having a water-tight seal will prevent possible contamination.
B. Having a water-tight seal will prevent change in he volume of the sample.

CHECHM / 6 NOV 2007

 MOCK BOARD LICENSURE EXAMINATON FOR CHEMICAL ENGINEERS
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES

C. Having a water-tight seal will prevent the bottle from becoming stuck.
D. All of these.
___2. The laboratory is only a very few minutes away from where the sample is taken. Right after collecting the sample, the
sample is seeded and initial DO is measured. Today is Wednesday and the time is 2:00 PM; therefore the schedule of
measuring the final DO to determine BOD5 is Monday the following week. Unfortunately, the laboratory will be
closed after 12 PM for maintenance activities. Which of the following is the best thing to do?
A. Measure the final BOD at 10 AM on Monday. This is 4 hours short of 5 days incubation.
B. Have the sample sent to other laboratory to measure final BOD at excalty to PM on Monday.
C. Measure the final BOD first thing in the morning on Tuesday.
D. Take the sample out of the laboratory before 12 PM and measure the final DO outside the laboratory at exactly 2
PM on Monday.
___3. Why is it important to store my BOD bottles in the dark during the 5-day incubation period?
A. Microbial degradation of the pollutant in the water sample is uncontrollably fast in lighted conditions.
B. Excluding all light prevents the possibility of photosynthetic algae production of DO.
C. Dissolved oxygen in wastewater are stripped off from the liquid phase in lighted conditions.
D. In the presence of light, bacterial degradation of the pollutant becomes exothermic and the increase in temperature
is unwanted in the procedure.

CHECHM / 6 NOV 2007

 MOCK BOARD LICENSURE EXAMINATON FOR CHEMICAL ENGINEERS
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES

CHECHM / 6 NOV 2007