Government of Maharashtra

egkjk"V! 'kklu
STATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST CELL

jkT; lkekbZd izos'k ijh{kk d{k]

egkjk"V! jkT;] eqacbZ

Information Brochure for On-Line CET

For
First Year of Three Year Degree Course in Law leading to
LL.B (3 Years)
(Regular, Full Time Degree Course)

2016-2017

STATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST CELL

305, Government Polytechnic Building,
49, Kherwadi,Ali Yavar Jung Marg, Bandra East,
Mumbai-400051 (Maharashtra State.)
TELEPHONE NOS:+91-22-26476034 FAX NO.+91-22-26476034
E-MAIL: Maharashtra.cetcell@gmail.com
WEBSITE: http://www.mahacet.org

1
 INDEX
Sr. ITEM Page No.
No.
1 Introduction 4
2 Competent Authority 4
3 Eligibility for Appearing to MAH-LL.B 3 Year 4-7
CET-2016
4 MAH-LL.B 3 Year CET-2016 Schedule 7
5 Examination Fees for MAH-LL.B 3 Year CET- 7
2016
Procedure for On-line Application Form Filling 7-11
and Registration for MAH-LL.B 3 Year CET-
2016
6
Payment of Examination Fees 8
Guidelines for Scanning and Upload of 9-10
Photograph and Signature
7 Download Hall Ticket through candidates Login 10
8 Identity Verification 10
9 Candidates Reporting Late 11
10 Test Centre for CET 11
11 Syllabus and Marking Scheme for MAH-LL.B 12-13
3 Year CET-2016
12 Guidelines for persons with disabilities using a 13
Scribe
13 Action against candidates found guilty of 13-14
misconduct/ use of unfair means.
14 Sample Questions 14-34
15 Details of On Line Examination 34-35
16 General Instructions 35-37
( Candidate must read the given instructions)
17 Other Guidelines 37
18 ANNEXTURE - I 38-39

2
 Activities and Scheduled Dates

Sr. No. ACTIVITY SCHEDULE

1 On Line Registration for MAH-LL.B First Date Last Date
3 YEAR CET 2016
through Computer connected to 10-05-2016 23-05-2016
Internet on the website
http://www.dhepune.gov.in OR
http://www.mahacet.org
2 Issue of Hall Ticket
through login of successfully 06-06-2016 on -wards
registered candidates
3 Date of On-Line MAH-LL.B 3 YEAR 19-06-2016
CET 2016
4 Declaration of result of the Up to 30-06-2016
MAH-LL.B 3 YEAR CET 2016 5.00 P.M.
on the website
http://www.dhepune.gov.in OR
http://www.mahacet.org

Important Note: The schedule displayed above is provisional and Competent

Authority may change the same under Unavoidable Circumstances. The revised
schedule, if any, will be notified on http://www.dhepune.gov.in OR
http://www.mahacet.org

3
 egkjk"V! 'kklu
Government of Maharashtra
STATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST CELL
jkT; lkekbZd izos'k ijh{kk d{k]
egkjk"V! jkT;] eqacbZ
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Introduction:
Government of Maharashtra has established a State Common Entrance Test Cell (CET CELL)
under Admission Regulatory Authority (ARA) as per the provision in Section 10 of
Maharashtra Unaided Private Professional Educational Institutions (Regulation of Admissions
and Fees) Act, 2015, (Herein after called the Act).
According to G.R.No. CET-2015/C.R.379/MSHI-2, Dated 4th December, 2015 and G.R. No.
CET-2016/F.No.84/MSHI-2, Dated 7th April, 2016 the Competent Authority shall conduct the
MAH-LL.B 3 YEAR CET 2016 for the admission to the First Year of the Three Year Full
Time Professional under -graduate degree course in Law, for the Academic Year 2016-2017.
The admissions to the following institutes will be done by the Competent Authority, provided
they are approved and recognized by Government of Maharashtra and are affiliated to any of
the Non-agricultural University in the State of Maharashtra State :
1. The Government College offering LL.B 3 Year Course,
2. All Government Aided Colleges (including Minority) offering LL.B 3 Year Course,
3. All University Departments offering LL.B 3 Year Course,
4. All University Managed Institutes offering LL.B 3 Year Course,
5. All Un-aided colleges (including Minority) offering LL.B 3 Year Course, covered as per
the Act.
2. Competent Authority:
Commissioner, State CET Cell is the Competent Authority to conduct the MAH-
LL.B 3 YEAR CET 2016 as per the Provisions of 2(e) and Section 10(2) of the Act.

3. Eligibility for Appearing to MAH-LL.B 3 YEAR CET 2016

4
 The candidate should be an Indian Citizen. The candidate belonging to the type [NRI, PIO,
OCI and Foreign National Students] with following Academic Eligibility is not required to
appear for CET Examination. They must apply only for CAP rounds.

3.1 Educational Qualifications:

(1) An Applicant who has Graduated/Post Graduated in any discipline of knowledge from a
University established by an act of Parliament or by a State Legislature or an equivalent
National Institution recognized as a Deemed to be University or Foreign University
recognized as equivalent to the status of an Indian University by an authority competent to
declare equivalence with at least 45% marks in aggregate or equivalent (44.5% and above
will be treated as 45%) and 40 % marks in aggregate (39.50% and above will be treated as
40%) in case of SC and ST applicants.
Explanation:-
i) An applicant who has passed the 3 years U.G. Degree and OR 2/3 years P.G. Degree
from Open or Deemed University recognized by & established under the UGC Act,
after prosecuting the studies in the pattern of 10+2+3 OR 10+2+3+2/3 with regular
studies at Secondary & Higher Secondary Schooling (12th Std.) is eligible for
admission.
ii) But if the applicant does not have studied any of the qualifications prescribed in the
pattern of 10+2+3, then he/she will not be eligible for admission to any of the three
year LL.B. Degree courses.
iii) An applicant will be held eligible, if doesn’t have prescribed minimum percentage of
marks in aggregate at U.G. Degree examination, but has in the final year of U.G.
Degree or at the P.G. degree examination provided, he/she have prosecuted the study
pattern in the 10+2+3 OR 10+2+3+2/3 format.
iv) The applicant who has passed the qualifying examination (U.G. or P.G. degree) in a
single sitting examination without having basic qualifications of (10+2+3) is not
eligible for admission to 3 year LL.B course.
Reference [Rule 5(a) of Bar council of India Rules of Legal Education,2008 Page-5.]

(2) Candidates who are appearing for the qualifying examination in the academic year 2015-
2016 are also eligible to apply for CET/ Entrance Examination. Such candidates will
become eligible for admission only if they produce marks Memo/ Degree Certificate of the
Qualifying Examination while filling in the Form for CAP.
Note:
 Aggregate marks means the grand total of marks obtained by the candidate at the
Certificate/Diploma /degree on which the class is awarded by the Board/ university.
 In case the candidates are awarded Grade/s,/CGPA instead of marks, the conversion of
Grade/s, CGPA to percentage of marks would be based on the formula/procedure certified
by the Board University/ Institution from where the candidate has obtained the Bachelor’s
Degree The candidate will have to bring the necessary proof to that effect from the
University/ Institution.
 The percentage of marks shall be calculated by rounding off to two places after decimal.
 There is no upper age limit for admission to 3 Year LL.B CET.

5
3.2 The candidate should also fulfil the following eligibility criteria for following candidature types
:
(1) Maharashtra State Candidature:-
Types of Maharashtra State Candidature:
(Type-A) a candidate who is Domicile of Maharashtra or born in Maharashtra, or
(Type-B) the Father or Mother of the Candidate is domiciled in the State of Maharashtra, or
(Type-C) the Father or Mother of the Candidate is an employee of the Government of India
or Government of India Undertaking who is posted and reported to duty in
Maharashtra State before the last date for submitting the Application Form for CAP,
or
(Type-D) the Father or Mother of the Candidate is an employee of the Government of
Maharashtra or Government of Maharashtra Undertaking, or
(Type-E) the Candidates passing SSC and or HSC Examination or Equivalent Examination
from a recognised institution from a disputed Maharashtra Karnataka Border Area
and whose Mother tongue is Marathi.
(2) All India Candidature.—The Candidates having Indian Nationality are eligible under
this Category.
(3) Minority Candidature.—The Maharashtra domiciled Candidate belonging to a
particular Linguistic or Religious Minority Community within the State and as notified by
the Government are eligible under this Category.
(4) NRI Candidature.—The Candidate who fulfils the conditions as defined in clause (n)
of section 2 of the Act are eligible under this Category.
(5) Foreign Student or OCI or PIO Candidature.—The Foreign Student Candidates, as
defined in clause (i) of section 2 of the Act, the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Candidate,
as defined under clause (m) of rule 2 of the Notification No. CET 2015/C.R. 243/Mashi-2,
Dated 2nd April, 2016 and Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) as defined in clause (o) of section
2 of the Act are eligible under this Category.
(6) Jammu and Kashmir Migrant Candidature.— (a) The children of citizens, who are
displaced from Jammu and Kashmir to any part of India or from unsafe border area of
Jammu and Kashmir to a relatively safer place in Jammu and Kashmir from 1990 onwards
due to terrorist activities; or
(b) The children of officers belonging to Indian Administrative Services (IAS) or Indian
Police Services (IPS) or Indian Foreign Services (IFS) and children of staff belonging to
military and paramilitary forces transferred to Jammu and Kashmir to combat terrorist
activities and joined the post on or before the last date for submission of application for
admission; or
(c) The children of staff and officers of Jammu and Kashmir police engaged in combating
terrorism; are eligible under this category.
3.3 The candidate belonging to SC/ST,DT/VJ, NT (A), NT (B), NT(C), NT(D), OBC and SBC
categories should produce “Caste Validity Certificate” issued by the Scrutiny Committee of the
Social Welfare Department and the candidates belonging to ST category should submit “Tribe
Validity Certificate” issued by the Scrutiny Committee of Tribal Department as is applicable to
them and Valid Non Creamy Layer Certificate except SC, ST, candidates at the time of verification
of documents.
6
3.4 Sanctioned Intake and Supernumerary Seats.— (1) The Sanctioned Intake for First Year
of Three Years Degree Course shall be as per the approval given by the authority which is
competent for giving approval to said courses and affiliation given by the respective affiliating
University.
(2) The supernumerary seats shall be available to the Educational Institutions as per the policy of
Government, from time to time.
(3) Allocation of seats for admission to the professional Undergraduate Degree course in Law to
Government, Aided, Aided Minority, Government Aided University Departments, Unaided (Vina-
Anudanit ) and unaided (Vina-Anudanit ) Minority and Self- Financed University Department will
be according to Annexure “A” and “B” to Government Resolution No. CET-2015/C.E.-2, Dated
12th April 2016.
(4) Allocation of seats for admission to the professional Under-graduate Degree course in Law to
Unaided and unaided Minority will be according to Schedule-1 of Notification No.CET
2015/C.R.243/Mashi-2, Dated 2nd April, 2016.

4. MAH-LL.B 3 YEAR CET2016 Schedule:

MAH-LL.B 3 YEAR CET2016 shall be conducted only in the On-Line Mode in Multiple
Sessions, if required. MAH-LL.B 3 YEAR CET2016 will be conducted on Sunday the 19th June
2016. Candidates shall have to appear for the On-Line CET strictly as per the date and session
allotted to them at the allotted Venue and Center. No candidate will be allowed to appear for the
Test in other than the allotted session.

5. Examination Fees for CET

Application Form Processing Fees as stated below is to be paid through on-line system only by
Internet Payment, Credit Card/ Debit Card (RuPay/Visa/MasterCard/Maestro),Internet Banking,
IMPS, Cash Cards/ Mobile Wallets for which the service charges, as per rules, shall be applicable in
addition to the application form Processing Fees. No other mode of payment shall be permitted. The
fees is non-refundable and non-transferable under any circumstances.

For Open Category candidates from Maharashtra State, Out Side Rs. 650/-
Maharashtra State (OMS), and J&K Migrant candidates
For Candidates belonging to Backward class Categories (SC, ST, Rs. 350/-
VJ/DT- NT (A), NT (B), NT(C), NT(D), OBC and SBC categories )
belonging to Maharashtra State.

6. Procedure for Online Application Form Filling and Registration for MAH-LL.B 3 YEAR
CET 2016
In order to appear for MAH-LL.B 3YEAR CET2016, the candidates are required to apply On-Line
as per the procedure given below. No other mode of application will be accepted:
Applicants are requested to follow the detailed procedures/guidelines as indicated below:
A) IMPORTANT POINTS TO BE NOTED BEFORE REGISTRATION
Before applying online, applicants should-
7
  Check for eligibility criteria.
 Scan their photograph and signature ensuring that both the photograph and signature adhere
to the required specifications as given under Guideline for photograph & signature scan and
upload.
 Have a valid e-mail ID and mobile no., which should be kept active till the completion of
this admission Process.
 Arrange for Application Fees (Non refundable), Bank Transaction charges for Online
Payment of application fees/intimation charges will have to be borne by the applicant.
B) Application Registration Procedure for CET
(i) Applicants to visit DHE’s website http://www.dhepune.gov.in OR
http://www.mahacet.org and open the given link. For filling the Online Application
Form, they should click on the option "APPLY ONLINE" which will open a new screen.
(ii) To register application, choose the tab "Click here for New Registration" and enter Name,
Contact details and E-mail ID. A provisional Registration Number and Password will be
generated by the system and displayed on the screen. Applicant should note down the
Provisional Registration Number and Password in their note book and preserve it. An Email and
SMS indicating the Provisional Registration Number and Password will also be sent on the
Mobile Number given.
(iii) In case the applicant is unable to complete the application form in one go, he/she can save
the data already entered by choosing "SAVE AND NEXT" tab. Prior to submission of the online
application applicants are advised to use the "SAVE AND NEXT" facility to verify the details in
the online application form and modify the same if required.
(iv) Applicants are advised to carefully fill and verify the details filled in the online application
themselves as no change will be possible/ entertained after clicking the FINAL SUBMIT
BUTTON.
(v) The Name of the applicant or his/her Father/Husband etc. should be spelt correctly in the
application as it appears in the SSC/HSC/equivalent Certificates/ Mark sheets. Any change/
alteration found may disqualify the candidature.
(vi) Applicants should Validate their filled in details and Save their filled in application by
clicking the 'Validate Your Details' and 'Save & Next' button.
(vii) Applicants can proceed to upload Photo & Signature as per the specifications given in the
Guide lines for Scanning and Upload of Photograph and Signature .
(viii) Applicants can proceed to fill other details of the Application Form.
(ix) Click on the Preview Tab to preview and verify the entire application form before FINAL
SUBMISSION.
(x) Modify details, if required, and click on 'FINAL SUBMIT ONLY' after verifying and
ensuring that the photograph, signature uploaded and other details filled by you are correct.
(xi) Click on 'Payment' Tab and proceed for payment.
(xii) Click on 'Submit' button.

C) Payment of Examination Fees

i) The application form is integrated with payment gateway and the payment process can be
completed by following the instructions.
ii) The payment can be made by using Debit Cards (RuPay/Visa/MasterCard/Maestro). Credit
Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards/ Mobile Wallet.
iii) After submitting your payment information in the online application form, PLEASE WAIT
FOR THE INTIMATION FROM THE SERVER. DO NOT PRESS BACK OR REFRESH
BUTTON IN ORDER TO AVOID DOUBLE CHARGE.

8
 iv) On successful completion of the transaction, an e-Receipt will be generated.
v) Non-generation of 'e-Receipt' indicates PAYMENT FAILURE. On failure of payment,
applicants are advised to login again using their Provisional Registration Number and
Password and repeat the process of payment.
vi) Applicants are required to take a printout of the e-Receipt and online application form and
preserve it properly. Please note that if the same cannot be generated, online transaction
may not have been successful.
vii) For Credit Card users: All charges are listed in Indian Rupee. If you use a non-Indian credit
card, your bank will convert to your local currency based at prevailing exchange rates.
viii) To ensure the security of your data, please close the browser window once your
transaction is completed.
ix) There is facility to print application form containing fee details after payment of fees.
Candidates are advised to take a print out of the application form containing fee-
details and preserve it.

D) GUIDELINES FOR PHOTOGRAPH & SIGNATURE SCAN AND UPLOAD

 In case the face in the photograph or signature is unclear, the application may be rejected.
 Applicant may edit the application and re-upload the photograph/ signature in case
photograph and signature is not clear..

I. PHOTOGRAPH IMAGE:
 Photograph must be a recent, passport size, color picture.
 The picture should be in color, taken against a light-coloured, preferably white background.
 Look straight at the camera with a relaxed face.
 If the picture is taken on a sunny day, have the sun behind you, or place yourself in the
shade, so that you are not squinting and there are no harsh shadows.
 If you have to use flash, ensure there's no "red-eye".
 If you wear glasses make sure that there are no reflections and your eyes can be clearly seen.
 Photographs taken wearing Caps, Hats and Dark Glasses are not acceptable. Religious
headwear is allowed but it must not cover your face. Your face should be clearly visible.
 Dimension 200 x 230 pixels is preferred.
 Size of file should be between 20kb-50kb.
 Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 50KB. If the size of the file is
more than 50KB, then adjust the settings of the scanner such as the DPI resolution, No. of
colours etc. during the process of scanning.

II. SIGNATURE IMAGE :

 The applicant has to sign on white paper with Black Ink pen.
 The signature must be signed only by the applicant and not by any other person.
 The applicant's signature obtained on the call letter and attendance sheet at the time of the
examination should match with the uploaded signature. In case of mismatch of signature,
the applicant may be disqualified.
 Dimensions 140 x 60 pixels is preferred.
 Size of file should be between 10kb-20kb.
 Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 20KB.

9
 III. SCANNING THE PHOTOGRAPH & SIGNATURE
 Set the scanner resolution to a minimum of 200 dpi (Dots per Inch).
 Set Color to True Color.
 File Size as specified above.
 Crop the image in the scanner to the edge of the Photograph/Signature, then use the upload
editor to crop the image to the final size (as specified above).
 The image file should be JPG or JPEG format. An example file name is: image01.jpg or
image01.jpeg Image dimension can be checked by listing the folder files or moving the
mouse over the file image icon. Applicants using MS Windows/MS Office can easily obtain
photo and signature in .jpeg format not exceeding 50KB & 20KB respectively by using MS
Paint or MS Office Picture Manager. Scanned photograph and signature in any format can
be saved in .jpg format by using 'Save As' option in the File menu and size can be reduced
below 50KB (photograph) & 20KB (Signature) by using crop and then resize option [Please
see point (i) & (ii) above for the pixel size] in the 'Image' menu. Similar options are available
in other photo editor also.
 If the size and format are not as prescribed, an error message will be displayed.
 While filling in the Online Application Form the applicant will be provided with a link to
upload his Photograph and Signature.

IV. Procedure for Uploading the Photograph and Signature

 There will be two separate links for uploading Photograph and Signature.
 Click on the respective link "Upload Photograph/ Upload Signature".
 Browse and Select the location where the Scanned Photo/Signature file has been saved.
 Select the file by clicking on it.
 Click the 'Upload' button
 An online application which is incomplete in any respect such as without Photograph and
Signature uploaded in the online application form/unsuccessful fee payment will not be
considered as valid.
 After registering on-line candidates are advised to take printout of their system generated on-
line application form.

7. Download Hall Ticket through Candidate’s Log-in.

As per the schedule given the candidates will have to visit the
http://www.dhepune.gov.in OR http://www.mahacet.org website for downloading
Hall Ticket for on-line Test. Intimations for downloading Hall Ticket will also be sent through
E-mail/SMS. Once the candidate clicks the relevant link, he/ she can access the window for Hall
Ticket download. The candidate is required to use 1) Registration Number/ Roll No, ii) Pass-
word/ Date of Birth for downloading the Hall Ticket. The candidate needs to affix recent
recognizable photograph on the Hall Ticket, preferably the same provided during registration
and appear at the examination centre with i) Hall ticket ii) Photo Identity Proof as stipulated
below and also specified in the Hall Ticket and photo Identity proof as brought in original.

8. Identity Verification:
In the examination hall, the Hall Ticket along with original of the Candidate’s currently valid

10
 photo identity (bearing reasonably the same name as it appears on the Hall Ticket.) Such as
PAN Card, Pass port/ driving License/Voters Card/ Bank Pass Book with photograph/ photo-
identity proof issued by the Gazzetted officer on official letter head along with the
photograph/Photo identity proof issued by the People’s Representative on the official letter head
along with photo graph/ valid recent identity card issued by the recognized college/ university/
Aadhar Card with photograph/ Employee ID/ Bar council identity card with photograph should
be submitted to the invigilator for verification. The candidate’s identity will be verified with
respect to his/her details on the Hall Ticket, in the candidate may not be allowed to appear for
the Examination. The Candidates must remember that E-Aadhar Card and Ration Card are not
valid ID proof for the Examination..
Note:
Candidates have to produce in original the photo identity proof along with examination Hall
Ticket while attending the Examination., without which they will not be allowed to take up
the examination. Candidates must note that the name as appearing on the Hall Ticket
(provided during the process of registration) should reasonably match the name appearing as
on photo identity proof. Female candidates who have changed their first /last / middle name
post marriage must take special note of this, If there is any mismatch between the name
indicated in the Hall Ticket and photo identity proof, the candidate will not be allowed to
appear for the Examination. In case of candidates who changed their name will be allowed
only of they produce Gazette notification./ their original marriage certificate/ affidavit in
original.

9. Candidates Reporting Late : The candidates reporting time specified on the Hall Ticket for the
Examination will not be permitted to take the examination. The reporting time mentioned on the
Hall Ticket is prior to the start time of the test. Though the duration of the examination is 120
(Hundred and Twenty) Minutes, candidates may be required to be at the venue for about 200
(two hundred) minutes including the time required for competition of various formalities such
as verification, collection of various requisite documents, logging in, giving of instructions etc.

10. Test Centers for CET:

1. MAH-LL.B 3 Year CET 2016 will be conducted in the selected cities in Maharashtra. The
cities in which MAH-LL.B 3Year CET 2016 will be conducted are designated as “Centers” for the
CET.
2. Each Centre may have many “Venues” depending upon the number of candidates appearing at
that Centre.
3. A candidate appearing for CET shall be give his/her preference for the Centre, however, the
Competent Authority reserves the right to allocate the entre and venue.
4. The examination will be conducted on-line at venues given in the respective Hall ticket.
5. No request for change of Centre/Venue/Date/ Session for the Examination shall be entertained.
6. Competent authority, however, reserves the right to cancel any of the Examination Centres and
/or add some other Centres, at its discretion, depending upon the response, administrative
feasibility etc.
11
 7. Competent Authority also reserves the right to allot the candidate to any centre other than the
one he/she has opted.
8. Candidate will appear for the examination at the Examination Centre at his/her own risk and
expenses and Competent Authority will not be responsible for any injury or losses etc. of any
nature.
9. Choice of centre once exercised by the candidate will be final.
10. If sufficient number of candidates does not opt for a particular centre for “Online” examination,
Competent Authority reserves the right to allot any other adjunct centre to those candidates OR if
the number of the candidates is more than the capacity available for online examination for a
Centre, Competent Authority reserves the right to allot any other centre to the candidate.
11. Syllabus and Marking Scheme for MAH-LL.B 3 Year CET 2016:

11.1 The On Line CET is comprising of one paper with Four sections:

Sr. Area No. of Marks per Total Marks

No. Questions Question
1 Legal Aptitude and Legal 30 1 30
Reasoning
2 General Knowledge with 40 1 40
Current Affairs
3 Logical and Analytical 30 1 30
Reasoning
4 English 50 1 50
Total 150 1 per question 150

Contents of the Syllabus:

i) Legal Aptitude and Legal Reasoning: This subject will test candidate’s interest
towards the study of Law, Legal aptitude and problem solving ability. Questions will be
framed with the help of legal prepositions and a set of facts to which the said prepositions
have to be applied. Some prepositions may not be true in the real sense. Candidates will
have to assume truth of these prepositions and answer the questions drawing well supported
conclusions.
ii) General Knowledge with Current Affairs: The topics such as History, Geography,
General Science, Economics, Civics and the Current Affairs of the past One Year. The
subject is to assess the knowledge of the recent happening and awareness of the world.
iii) Logical and Analytical Reasoning:
The subject is to test the candidate’s ability to identify patterns , logical links and rectify
illogical arguments. It will include a wide analogies, completing arguments, drawing well
supported conclusions, reasoning by analogy, applying principles or rules. Further the
subject is to measure the ability to understand the structure, relationship and to draw logical
conclusions about the structures. It includes reasoning deductively from the set of statements
and rules or principles that describes the relationship among persons, things or events.
iv) English: This section will consist the questions on the areas like Vocabulary
(Synonyms, Antonyms, analogies etc.) Proficiency (Idioms and Phrases, One word
12
 Substitution, Sentence Improvement and rearrangement, fill in the blanks etc.) English
Usage Errors (Common errors, Spotting errors, inappropriate usage of words, spelling
mistakes etc.) English Comprehension with minimum two passages followed by Five to Ten
questions that test reading and reasoning abilities.

11.2 The questions will be objective Multiple Choice Questions with Four options.
11.3 There is no Negative marking.
11.4 The time allotted is 2 Hours i.e. One Hundred and Twenty Minutes.
11.5 The Questions will be in English language and also its translated version in Marathi.

12. Guidelines for persons with disabilities using a Scribe:

Those candidates who are visually impaired or affected by cerebral palsy with loco-motor
impairment and whose writing speed is affected can use own scribe at own cost during the
online examination. In all such cases where a scribe is used, the following rules will apply:

 Please ensure you are eligible to use a scribe as per the Government of India rules for
Persons with Disabilities.
 The candidate will have to arrange his own scribe at his own cost
 The scribe can be from any academic discipline.
 Both, the candidate as well as the scribe, will have to give a suitable undertaking, in the
prescribed format with pass port size photograph of the scribe, confirming that the scribe
fulfils all the stipulated eligibility criteria for a scribe as mentioned above. Further, in case it
later transpires that she/he did not fulfil any of the laid-down eligibility criteria or
suppressed material facts, the candidature of the applicant will stand cancelled, irrespective
of the result of the examination.
 Such candidate who uses a scribe shall be eligible for compensatory time of 20 minutes for
every hour of the examination. (Visually Impaired/Blind/Learning Disability candidates who
do not use scribe will also be eligible for compensatory time of 20 minutes for every hour of
the examination.)
 Visually Impaired candidates under Blind/Low Vision, who use scribe, may skip the non-
verbal questions, if any, in Test of Reasoning and questions on Table/Graph, if any, in Test
of Quantitative aptitude. The candidates will be awarded marks for such Section based on
the overall average obtained in other Sections of the respective test.
 The Candidates should give declaration along with the form as per Annexure - I

13. Action Against candidates found guilty of misconduct/ use of unfair means:

Candidates are advised in their own interest that they should not furnish any particulars that
are false, tampered with or fabricated and should not suppress any material information
while submitting On-line application.
At the time of examination or in subsequent admission procedure, if a candidates
found guilty of:-
i. Using unfair means,
ii. Impersonating or procuring impersonification by any person, or

13
iii. Misbehaving in the Examination Hall or disclosing , publishing, reproducing, or any
information therein in whole or part thereof in any form or by any means, verbal or written,
electronically or mechanically for any purpose, or
iv. Resorting to any irregular or improper means in connection with his/her candidature, or
v. Obtaining support of his/her candidature by unfair means, or
vi. Carrying Mobile Phones or similar electronic devices of communication in the examination
hall, such a candidate may, in addition to rendering himself/herself liable to criminal
prosecution, be liable to be disqualified from the examination/admission. The candidate
himself/herself will be responsible for the possible consequences.

14. Sample Questions:

I) Legal Aptitude and Legal Reasoning (30 marks)

1. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in which
language?
a) Hindi
b) English
c) Language of the Bill/Case
d) Both [a] and [b]
Ans: b
2. Which of the following is not an eligibility criterion for election as President of India ?
a) Should be citizen of India
b) Should be at least 35 years of age
c) Should be qualified for election to the House of the people
d) He should be elected as a member of the House of the People
Ans: d
3. Indian Constitution was enacted and adopted on:
a) 26th January, 1950
b) 26th November, 1949
c) 15th August, 1947
d) 14th August, 1947
Ans: b
4. The President's Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum
period of
a) two months
b) five months
c) six months
d) one year
Ans: c
5. The powers of the President of India are
a) beyond the Constitution
b) in accordance with the Constitution
c) In accordance with the Parliament
d) In accordance with the Supreme Court
Ans: b
6. Principle: No legal remedy exists for an injury caused by an act, for which one has
consented.
Facts: Mr.Ankush, a cricket enthusiast, purchases a ticket to watch the one -day
international cricket match between India and Australia, organised by the Board of
Control for Cricket in India (BCCI). As he is absorbed in watching the exploits of
14
 David Warner, a ball struck for a six by the latter hits Mr. Ankush on his body and
injures him. Mr.Ankush sues BCCI for reimbursement of the medical bill he paid for
treatment of the injury.
a) Mr.Ankush should be compensated as he purchased the ticket to get entertainment
and not to get injured.
b) Mr.Ankush would lose as he voluntarily exposed himself to the risk.
c) BCCI is liable as it did not ensure that the spectators were protected from the risks
of such injuries.
d) None of the above
Ans: b

7. Principle: A minor's agreement is absolutely void and not enforceable.

Facts: Mr.Ravi, is a stamp collector. He is particularly anxious to get a rare stamp
belonging to Mr.Santosh, aged 16, who agrees in writing to sell it to Mr.Ravi for
Rs.100, but subsequently refuses to deliver it to Ravi though he pays Rs.100. Mr.Ravi
now wants to sue Mr.Santosh. Will he succeed?
a) Ravi cannot succeed as Mr. Santosh is not liable.
b) Ravi can succeed as he has paid Rs.100 for the stamp.
c) Ravi can succeed as Mr.Santosh agreed in writing to sell the stamp.
d) None of the above
Ans: a
8. Principle: A person who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind,
may not make a contract when he is of unsound mind. A person who is usually of
unsound mind, but occasionally of sound mind, may make a contract when he is of
sound mind.
Facts: Mr. Shailesh, a patient in a lunatic asylum, is, at intervals, of sound mind. Can
Mr.Shailesh contract at intervals?
a) Yes, because he is a human being.
b) No.
c) Yes, because he is of sound mind during those intervals.
d) None of the above
Ans: c
9. Principle: Every person who commits an offence in the territory of India shall be guilty
within the meaning of India Penal Code
Facts: Mr.Morris, a citizen of France commits murder in Madras. In this case
a) Mr.Morris, is not guilty because he is not a citizen of India
b) Mr.Morris is guilty of murder because every person whether he is a citizen of India
or not, is liable if he commits on offence in India.
c) Mr.Morris is liable but he can't be tried in India.
d) None of the above
Ans: b
10. Principle: Theft amounts to robbery if the offender for committing theft voluntarily
causes any person's death or causes hurt.
Facts: Mr.Prakash pushes Mr.Sharad on his face and thereafter Mr.Prakash removes
Mr.Sharad's watch and wallet.
a) Mr.Prakash is guilty of committing robbery as he inflicted injuries on Sharad for
committing theft.
b) Mr.Prakash is not guilty of any offence.
c) Mr.Prakash is guilty of theft, not of robbery.
d) None of the above
Ans: a
11. Recently Supreme Court of India directed the Centre to issue notification banning the
employment of minor children in……………. within two months.
15
 a) Factories
b) Hotels
c) Circus
d) None of the above
Ans: c
12. Which of the following NGO was allowed by the Supreme Court of India in
participating in the inquiry against Justice P. D. Dinakaran?
a) PUCL
b) Lawyers Collective
c) Forum for Judicial Accountability
d) None of the above
Ans: c
13. Who among the following is the author of the book “Law and Justice- An Anthology”?
a) Mr. Arun Shourie
b) Mr.Soli Sorabjee
c) Mr.K.K. Venugopal
d) Mr. F.S. Nariman
Ans: b
14. Who among the following is the first sitting Judge of the High Court to be faced with a
CBI investigation?
a) Mr. Justsice P. D. Dinakaran
b) Mr. Justsice Soumithra Sen
c) Mr. Justsice Nirmal Yadav
d) Mr. Justsice Narayana Kurup
Ans: c
15. Withdrawing medical treatment with the deliberate intention of causing the patient’s
death is called
a) Legal Euthanasia
b) Medical Euthanasia
c) Passive Euthanasia
d) None of the above
Ans: c
16. Who among the following is the not a member of the committee which elects the
Central Vigilance Commissioner?
a) President of India
b) Prime Minister of India
c) Leader of Opposition
d) Home Minister of India
Ans: a
17. Death sentence can be awarded in
a) Murder Cases only
b) Rare cases only
c) Rarest of rare cases
d) None of the above
Ans: c
18. When a person is remanded to Judicial Custody, he shall be sent to
a) Police lock up
b) Jail
c) Protection Home
d) None of the above
Ans: b
19. The starting point of an agreement is
a) Offer
16
 b) Invitation to offer
c) Advertisement
d) Acceptance
Ans: a
20. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on Fundamental Rights by
a) Supreme Court
b) Parliament
c) Executive
d) Any of the above
Ans: b

21. The temporary release of prisoner is called

a) Parole
b) Amnesty
c) Discharge
d) Pardon
Ans: a
22. Which Constitution Amendment Bill is popularly known as Women’s Reservation Bill?
a) 101
b) 106
c) 108
d) 102
Ans: c
23. Judiciary in India has declared the year ………… as the ‘Awareness year of female
foeticide’.
a) 2007
b) 2008
c) 2009
d) 2010
Ans: a
24. ‘A’ offers to sell his car to ‘B’ for 40,000/-. ‘B’ agrees to buy the car of ‘A’ offering
30,000/- the reply of ‘B’ amounts to
a) Offer
b) Counter offer
c) Invitation to an offer
d) Standing offer
Ans: b
25. The Council of Ministers is jointly responsible to
a) The Prime Minister
b) The Vice- President
c) President
d) Lok-Sabha
Ans: d
26. Panchayati Raj in India is
a) A hierarchical set up for rural administration
b) A complex system of rural local government
c) The Self government of the villagers in India
d) Village republic in democracy
Ans: a
27. The Supreme Court of India was set up
a) By the Constitution
b) By the Law of Parliament
c) By the Presidential Order
17
 d) None of the above
Ans: a
28. The Consumer Protection Act came in to existence in
a) 1986
b) 1985
c) 1988
d) 1992
Ans: a

29. What is legal right?

a) Right recognized by law and capable of being enforced at law courts
b) Rights recognized by a religion
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Ans: a
30. If a newspaper published a defamatory article written by ‘A’, who can be sued?
a) Publisher of that newspaper
b) Printer of that newspaper
c) Mr. A only
d) Mr. A, Printer, Publisher and Editor
Ans: d
ii) General Knowledge including Current Affairs (40 marks)

1 The percentage of earth surface covered by India is

A. 2.4
B. 3.4
C. 4.4
D. 5.4
Answer: A

2 Which among the following is /are the major factor/factors responsible for the monsoon
type of climate in India?
I. Location
II. Thermal Contrast
III. Upper air circulation
IV.Inter-tropical convergence zone
A. I
B. I &II
C. I,II &III
D. I,II,III &IV
Answer :D
3 The present forest area of India, according to satellite data, is
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. static
D. decreasing in open forest area but increasing in closed forest area.
Answer : B
4 Which State has smallest land area?
A. Goa B. Nagaland C. Sikkim D. Kerala
Answer : A
5 How many States and Union Territories in India?
A. 25 States and 7 Union Territories B. 28 States and 7 Union Territories
18
 C. 24 States and 6Union Territories D. None of the above
Answer : B
6 The world’s longest river is :
A. Nile
B. Ganges
C. Amazon
D. Mississippi-Missouri
Answer: A
7 Chandragupta I founded the Gupta era in the year:
A. 225 A.D.
B. 300 A.D.
C. 320 A.D.
D. None of the above
Answer: C
8 The word “Jai Hind” was first used by
A. Bankim Chandra Chatteree
B. Ravindra Nath Togore
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: B
9 When, for the first time, was the institution of Public Service Commission for recruitment
to Public Services in India set up?
A. 1929
B. 1932
C. 1935
D. 1925
Answer: D
10 Swaraj as a national demand was first made by:
A. Chittaranjan Das
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Dadabhai Naoroji
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer: C
11 The concept of ‘Creamy layer’ is associated with :
A. Scheduled Castes
B. Scheduled Tribes
C. Other Backward Classes
D. All the above
Answer: C
12 For the first time the proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 was made in:
A. 1975
B. 1962
C. 1976
D. 1977
Answer: B
13 What is the main component of biogas and natural gas?
A. Ethane
B. Methane
C. Propane
D. Butane
Answer: B
14 Watt is the unit of …?
A. Electric Energy
19
 B. Electric Charge
C. Electrical Current
D. Electromotive Force
Answer: C
15 C.V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for:
A. Medicine
B. Chemistry
C. Physics
D. None of the above
Answer: C
16 The National Science Day is celebrated on :
A. January 14
B. February 28
C. March 31
D. August 27
Answer: B
17 Which is the largest planet of our solar system?
A. Saturn
B. Jupiter
C. Pluto
D. Neptune
Answer: B
18 Approximately how many bones are there in the human body?
A. 106
B. 206
C. 196
D. 306
Answer: B
19 RBI was nationalized in:
A. 1950
B. 1949
C. 1956
D. 1959
Answer: B
20 Security Exchange Board was established in the year:
A. 1989
B. 1988
C. 1992
D. 1975
Answer: C
21 The One Rupee currency notes/coins are issued by the
A. Ministry of Finance
B. RBI
C. Both A & B
D. SBI
Answer: A
22 Which State of India records the highest production of tea?
A. West Bengal
B. Assam
C. Tamilnadu
D. Kerala
Answer: B
23 The concept of Five Year Plans in India was introduced by:
20
 A. Lord Mountbatten
B. Indira Gandhi
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer: C
24 World Bank provides for-------loans :
A. Long term
B. Short term
C. Both A & B
D. Medium term
Answer: A
25 The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
A. The people
B. Lok Sabha
C. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly
D. Elected members of the Legislative Council
Answer: C
26 The power to decide an election petition is vested in the
A. Parliament
B. Supreme Court
C. High Courts
D. Election Commission
Answer: C
27 The present Lok Sabha is the:
A. 13thLok Sabha
B. 14 thLok Sabha
C. 15 thLok Sabha
D. 16thLok Sabha
Answer: D
28 The oath of office is administered to the members of state council of ministers by:
A. The Governor
B. The Chief Minister
C. Chief Justice of State High Court
D. Speaker of Legislative Assembly
Answer: A

29 The preamble to our constitution provided that India is:

A. a sovereign, socialist , democratic and republic
B. a sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic
C. a sovereign republic with a socialist pattern of society
D. a socialist, secular and democratic republic
Answer: B
30 Which amendment lead to the creation of Panchayat Raj?
A. 73rd Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 74th Amendment
D. 44th Amendment
Answer: A
31 Which day is celebrated as civil service day?
A. 21st April
B. 23rd April
C. 29th April
21
 D. 4th May
Answer: A
32 Who wins the 2015 IPL t 20 Cup Final
A. Chennai Super Kings
B. Mumbai Indians
C. Rajasthan Royals
D. Kolkata Knight Riders
Answer: B
33 Recently banned Maggi Noodles is the product of which brand?
A. Nestle
B. Johnson and Johnson
C. Kelloggs
D. Coca Cola
Answer: A
34 International Yoga Day is celebrated on …
A. 19th June
B. 21st June
C. 26th June
D. 30th June
Answer: B
35 In which city, the former President of India APJ Abdul Kalam died?
A. Guwahati
B. Shillong
C. Kolkata
D. Hyderabad
Answer: B
36 Which Sport person had been awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna..
A. SainaNehwal
B. Sania Mirza
C. Mary Kom
D. Vijender Singh
Answer: B
37 Which State Government in May, 2015 launched “ Betibachao, Betipadhao Scheme?
A. Delhi
B. Haryana
C. Goa
D. Bihar
Answer: B
38 A.R. Rahman appointed as Cultural Ambassador of ….
A. Italy
B. Maldives
C. Mauritius
D. Seychelles
Answer: D

39 Which Asian country became the first in the world to approve dengue vaccine
A. India
B. Thailand
C. Sri-Lanka
D. Philippines
Answer: D
40 The Planning Commission of India renamed as ..
A. NITI Aayog
22
 B. NITI Darshan
C. NITI Mandal
D. None of the Above
Answer:A

iii) Logical and Analytical Reasoning (30 Marks)

1. Doctor : Medicine:: Teacher :..?

a) Class
b) Students
c) Knowledge
d) College
Answer : C : Knowledge
2. Moon:Silver:: ? : Gold
a) Sun
b) Earth
c) Star
d) Planet
Answer: A : Sun
3. House and Rent
a) Labour and Wages
b) Capital and interest
c) Trains and Fairs
d) All of These
Answer : D: All of These
4. If Bus is coded as ‘DWU’ , how will you code “ ROBS” ?
A) SPCT
B) TQCV
C) TQBU
D) SPDU
Answer : C) TQBU
5. According to a Military code, SYSTEM is SYSMET and NEARER is AENRER. What
is the code for FRACTION?
A) CARFTINO
B) FRACNOT
C) CARFNOIT
D) CARFTION
Answer : C: CARFNOIT
6. In a certain language CHAMPION is coded as ‘HCMAIPNO’ how is NEGATIVE
coded in that code?
a) ENAGITEV
b) EGAITEVN
c) ENAGVEIT
d) EGAETVIE
Answer : A: ENAGITEV
7. If LIGHT is coded as ‘GILTH ‘ , find the code for RAINY
a) IARYN b) ARINY c) NAIRY d) RINAY
Answer: A: IARYN

8. Find the odd word

a) King b) Capture c) Army d) Jesus
Answer: B: Capture
9. Writer and poet
23
 a) Poems and songs b) Prose and Poetry
C) Books and lessons d) Letters and Words
Answer: C: Books and lessons
10. Carpenter and Wood
A) Goldsmith and Gold B) Blacksmith and Iron
C) Engineer and Machiners D) All of these
Answer :D: All of these

In Each Of The Following Questions Two Statements Are Given And These
Statements Are Followed By Two Conclusions Numbered (1) And (2). You Have To
Take The Given Two Statements To Be True Even If They Seem To Be At Variance
From Commonly Known Facts. Read The Conclusions And Then Decide Which Of
The Given Conclusions Logically Follows From The Two Given Statements,
Disregarding Commonly Known Facts.

11. Statements: Some Actors Are Singers. All The Singers Are Dancers.
Conclusions: 1.Some Actors Are Dancers.
2. No Singer Is Actor.
A.Only (1) Conclusion Follows
B.Only (2) Conclusion Follows
C.Either (1) Or (2) Follows
D.Neither (1) Nor (2) Follows

Answer : A : Only (1) Conclusion Follows

12. Statements: All The Windows Are Doors. No Door Is A Wall.

Conclusions: 1.Some Windows Are Walls.
2. No Wall Is A Door.
A.Only (1) Conclusion Follows
B.Only (2) Conclusion Follows
C.Either (1) Or (2) Follows
D. either (1) Nor (2) Follows
Answer : B: Only (2) Conclusion Follows

13. Statements:
I. Some Roses Are Flowers.
II. All Thorns Are Flowers.

Conclusions: I. All Thorns Being Roses Is A Possibility

II. No Thorn Is A Rose.

(A) If Only Conclusion I Follows

(B) If Only Conclusion II Follows.
(C) If Either Conclusion I Or Conclusion II Follows.
(D) If Neither Conclusion I Nor Conclusion II Follows.
Answer : A: If Only Conclusion I Follows

14. Statements: Some Stones Are Shells.

All Shells Are Pearls.
No Stone Is Fish
Conclusions:
1. No Fish Is A Shells.
24
 2. All Shells Being Fish Is A Possibility.
(A) If Only Conclusion I Follows
(B) If Only Conclusion II Follows.
(C) If Either Conclusion I Or Conclusion II Follows.
(D) If Neither Conclusion I Nor Conclusion II Follows.
Answer : D: If Neither Conclusion I Nor Conclusion II Follows.

15. Statements:-
All Mobiles Is Tablets.
All Tablets Is Smartphones.
All Smartphones Is Laptops.
All Laptops Is Computers.
Conclusions:-
I. All Computers Being Mobiles Is A Possibility.
II.All Tablets Being Computers Is A Possibility.

(A) If Only Conclusion I Follows.

(B) If Only Conclusion Il Follows.
(C) If Either Conclusion I Or II Follows.
(D) If Neither Conclusion I Nor Il Follows.
Answer : A: If Only Conclusion I Follows.

16. Statements:-
Some Apples Are Orange.
Some Orange Are Pineapples.
Some Pineapples Are Not Coconuts.
Some Coconuts Are Black Forests.
Conclusions:-
I. Some Orange Being Black Forests Is A Possibility.
II. Some Pineapples Being Coconuts Is A Possibility.
(A) If Only Conclusion I Follows.
(B) If Only Conclusion Il Follows.
(C) If Either Conclusion I Or II Follows.
(D) If Both Conclusions I And II Follow
Answer :D : If Both Conclusions I And II Follow

17. Statement:
Some Red Boxes Are Green Boxes.
All Red Boxes Are Yellow Boxes.
Conclusions :
I. Some Yellow Boxes Are Green Boxes.
II. All Green Boxes Are Red Boxes.
(A)Only I Can Be True Always
(B) Only II Can Be True Always
(C) Both I And II Can Be True Always
D) Both I And II Cannot Be True Always
Answer :A : Only I Can Be True Always

18. Statements:
Some Pens Are Keys.
Some Keys Are Locks.
All Locks Are Cards.
No Card Is Paper.
25
 Conclusions: No Lock is Paper.
Some Cards are Keys.
Some Keys are not Paper.
(A) I And II Follow
(B) Only I Follows
(C) Only II Follows
(D) All Follow
Answer :D : All Follow

19. Statements: All Cups Are Bottles

Some Bottles Are Jugs
No Jug Is Plate
Some Plates Are Tables

Conclusions: I. Some Tables Are Bottles

II. Some Plates Are Cups
III. No Table Is Bottle
IV. Some Jugs Are Cups
A) Only I Follows B) Only II Follows
C) Only Either II Or III Follows D) Only Either I Or III Follows
Answer :D : Only Either I Or III Follows

20. Statements:
All Rings Are Circles.
All Squares Are Rings.
No Ellipse Is A Circle.
Conclusions:
I. Some Rings Being Ellipses Is A
Possibility.
II. At Least Some Circles Are Squares.
A) If Only Conclusion I Follows.
B) If Only Conclusion II Follows.
C) If Either Conclusion I Or Conclusion II Follows.
D) If Neither Conclusion I Nor Conclusion II Follows.
Answer :B: If Only Conclusion II Follows.

21. Arrange The Words Given Below In A Meaningful Sequence.

1. Word 2. Paragraph 3. Sentence
4. Letters 5. Phrase

A) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3 B) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
C) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 D) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

Answer: D) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

22. Which Number Would Replace Underline Mark In The Series?

2, 5, 10, 17, ---, 37

A) 27 B) 24
C) 26 D) 28
Answer: C: 26
23. 18 21 25 18 29 33 18
What Numbers Should Come Next ?
26
 A) 43 18 B) 41 44
C) 37 41 D) 38 41
Answer: C: 37 41
24. What Will Be The Next Term In?

ZAM, YBL, ----, WDJ, VEI

A) XCK B) UFH
C) ZAC D) PFD
Answer: A: XCK

25. What Will Be The Next Term In?

HLK, XTQ, KON, ___, NRQ, RNK

A) EQN B) ROK C) XUR D) PMJ

Answer: A: EQN

26. 2, 10, 40, 120, ____

A) 240 B) 360 C) 470 D) 210

Answer: A: 240

27. Find The Wrong Number In The Following Series

6,15,30,75,151,375,750
A) 151 B) 75 C) 375 D) 750

Answer: A: 151

28. Look At The Series 3, 3/2, 3/4, 3/6 … What Number Should Come Next?
A) 3/8 B) 3/12 C) 1 D) 3/18
Answer: A: 3/8

29. 1. Poverty 2. Population 3. Death 4. Unemployment 5. Disease

A) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
B) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer:B: 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

30.Arrange The Given Words In A Meaningful And Logical Sequence.

1. Shoulder 2. Wrist 3. Elbow 4. Palm 5. Finger
A. 5,4,2,3,1
B. 3,1,4,2,5
C. 3,4,5,2,1
27
 D. 2,4,5,3,1

Answer:A: 5,4,2,3,1

iv) English: (50 Marks)

Instructions: Identify the word that means the same:

1. Judicious
a) Foolish
b) Wise
c) Famous
d) Notorious
Ans: b
2. Monotonous
a) Jolly
b) Dull
c) Angry
d) Attractive
Ans: b
3. Zest
a) Hope
b) Enthusiasm
c) Disappointment
d) Anger
Ans: b
4. Wealthy
a) Affluent
b) Beautiful
c) Philanthropist
d) Poor
Ans: a
5. Mercy
a) Cruelty
b) Kindness
c) Punishment
d) Apathy
Ans: b

Instructions: Choose the word which is opposite in meaning in each of the following:
6. Appreciate
a) Praise
b) Criticize
c) Hope
d) Respect
Ans: b
7. Trustworthy
a) Authentic
b) Reliable
c) False
d) Real
Ans: c
8. Prudent
a) Intelligent
28
 b) Imprudent
c) Wise
d) Eminent
Ans: b
9. Famous
a) Well-known
b) Notorious
c) Brilliant
d) Obstinate
Ans: b
10. Hate
a) Dislike
b) Love
c) Sharpen
d) Wish
Ans: b
Instructions: Choose appropriate one word for the following:
11. Assembly of listeners
a) Inaudible
b) Audience
c) Spectator
d) Visitor
Ans: b
12. Life history written by self
a) Honorary
b) Biography
c) Autobiography
d) Popular
Ans: c
13. One who is unable to read and write
a) Illiterate
b) Insolvent
c) Indivisible
d) Incredible
Ans: a
14. A list of books
a) Manuscript
b) Catalogue
c) Linguist
d) Verbose
Ans: b
15. That which is bound to happen
a) Inevitable
b) Cosmopolitan
c) Unanimous
d) Unusual
Ans: a

Instructions: Some idioms given below are commonly used. Choose the correct
meaning for each of the idioms:
16. Once in the blue moon
a) Once in a week
b) Once in the month
29
 c) Once in the year
d) On rare occasions
Ans: d
17. A cock and bull story
a) A true story
b) A foolish story
c) A story of animals
d) A story of Gods
Ans: b
18. To give one’s ear
a) to ignore
b) to listen carefully
c) to encourage
d) to surrender
Ans: b
19. To bring into light
a) to prove
b) to hide
c) to disclose
d) to conceal
Ans: c
20. Pros and cons
a) benefits
b) loss
c) advantages and disadvantages
d) effects
Ans: c

Instructions: Select the best option in the following sentences:

21. My friend met me ……the railway station.
a) on
b) to
c) at
d) in
Ans: c
22. They prefer coffee …….tea.
a) for
b) over
c) than
d) to
Ans: d
23. Rakesh is superior ……..Shyam in ability.
a) than
b) to
c) over
d) for
Ans: b
24. She is ……..honest officer.
a) a
b) an
c) the
d) none
Ans: b
30
25. Kashmir is ……..Switzerland of India.
a) a
b) an
c) the
d) none
Ans: c
26. Every plant ……..water.
a) need
b) needs
c) needed
d) has needed
Ans: b
27. The leader as well as the followers ………accepted the proposal.
a) has
b) have
c) is
d) are
Ans: c
28. Ten kilometers ……a long distance.
a) is
b) are
c) were
d) does
Ans: a
29. One should always respect …….elders.
a) his
b) her
c) their
d) one’s
Ans: d
30. Everyone loves ……..country.
a) our
b) his
c) their
d) your
Ans: b

Instructions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions:

Technology plays a vital role in making any society progressive. Nowadays, the concept of
e-learning and e-teaching is gaining popularity everywhere. It is a fact that the purpose of
education should be to meet the needs of variety of learners. At present, information
technology has transformed the methods, purpose and the potential of education worldwide.
Hence, Computer proficiency has become an important phenomenon for gaining success in
global scenario.
31. Technology makes
a) any school progressive
b) any college progressive
c) any institution progressive
d) any society progressive
Ans: d
32. The concept of ….. is gaining popularity
a) higher education
31
 b) primary education
c) e-learning and e-teaching
d) legal education
Ans: c
33. The purpose of education should be
a) to meet the needs of limited learners
b) to meet the needs of masses
c) to meet the needs of variety of learners
d) to meet the needs of fast learners
Ans: c
34. According to passage, Information Technology has transformed
a) Methods and potential of education
b) area of education
c) views about education
d) attitude towards education
Ans: a
35. The word ‘proficiency’ in the passage means
a) expertise
b) ignorance
c) unawareness
d) education
Ans: a
Instructions: Pick out the most appropriate word to fill in the blank:

36. He was not ..........to sell his house unless someone offers a more realistic price.
a) pessimistic
b) ready
c) actual
d) true
Ans: b
37. If they ……, we shall participate in the competition.
a) agree
b) disagree
c) forbade
d) correct
Ans: a
38. The questions were too …… to solve.
a) difficult
b) short
c) inappropriate
d) false
Ans: a
39. The student felt ………when he won the race.
a) overjoyed
b) disgraced
c) humiliated
d) worried
Ans: a
40. Nobody can tolerate such an ……
a) respect
b) insult
c) appreciation
d) importance
32
 Ans: b

Instructions: In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each

sentence some alternatives are given which can substitute the italicized part of the
sentence. Find out the correct answer:
41. Unless he does not submit the proposal, he will not be promoted.
a) do not submit
b) submits
c) did not submit
d) no improvement
Ans: b
42. No sooner the teacher came than the lecture started.
a) does the teacher come
b) did the teacher come
c) comes
d) no improvement
Ans: b
43. They did not went to Chennai.
a) gone
b) does not went
c) go
d) no improvement
Ans: c
44. We are learning German for two months.
a) were learning
b) have been learning
c) have learning
d) no improvement
Ans: b
45. The boy does not helps the poor.
a) do not helps
b) did not helps
c) does not help
d) no improvement
Ans: c
Instructions: In each of the following questions, find the correctly spelt word:
46.
a) Aproched
b) Approached
c) Aprroached
d) Aproached
Ans: b
47.
a) Buisness
b) Business
c) Bussiness
d) Buisiness
Ans: b
48.
a) Argumant
b) Arguement
c) Argument
d) Arrgument
33
 Ans: c
49.
a) Skillfull
b) Skilful
c) Skilfull
d) Skelful
Ans: b
50.
a) Tentetive
b) Tenttative
c) Tentative
d) Tentettive
Ans: c

15. Online Examination:

A. Details of the Online Examination Pattern
 The examination will be conducted online mode i.e. on a computer.
 The test will be provided in English and Marathi.
 All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the four options/ answers to the
question only one will be the correct answer. The candidate has to select the most
appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ the alternative which he/she feels appropriate/correct.
The alternative /option that is clicked on will be treated as the answer to that question.
Answer to any question will be considered for final evaluation. Only when candidate has
submitted the answers by clicking on “Save and Next” or “Mark for Review and Next”.
 The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your
screen will display the time remaining for you to complete the Examination. When the clock
runs out the Examination by default-candidate is not required to submit his/her examination.
 The question palette at the right of the screen shows one of the following statuses of each of
the questions numbers:
You have not visited the Question yet.
1

3 You have not answered the questions.

5 You have answered the question.

77
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for
review.

You have answered the question but marked it for review.

6

 The marked review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the
question again. If an answer is selected for question that is marked for Review, the
answer will be considered in the evaluation.
 To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following:--
34
 i. Click on the question number in the question palette at the right of your screen to go to
that numbered question directly. Note that using this option does not save your answer
to the current question.
ii. Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next
question in sequence.
iii. Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for
review, and to go to the next question in sequence.
 To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.
 To change your answer, click another desired option button.
 To save the answer, you MUST click on ‘Save and Next’.
 To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the
Clear Response button.
 To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review and Next. If an answer
is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in
the final Evaluation.
 To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the
new answer option followed by a click on the Save and Next button.
 Test name(s) will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in the test
can be viewed by clicking on the test name. The test you will view will be
highlighted.
 After clicking the ‘Save and Next’ button on the last question for the test, you
will automatically be taken to the first question of the next test.
 You can move the mouse cursor over the test names to view the status of the
questions of the test.
 You can shuffle between test and questions anytime during the examination as per
your convenience.
 The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the TEST
ADMINISTRATOR carefully. If any candidate does not follow the instructions/
rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/adoption of unfair means and such
a candidate would be liable to debarment from appearing for the examinations for the
period as decided by CET CELL.
 The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about the doubts or questions only
before the commencement of the test. No query shall be entertained after the
commencement of the examination.
 After the expiry of 120 minutes, the candidates will not be able to attempt any
question or click their answers. The answers of the candidates would be saved
automatically by the computer system even of he/she has not clicked the Submit
button.
 The candidates are advised to note the following things carefully:
iv. Candidates will not be allowed to finally submit unless they have exhausted the actual
test time.
v. Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the KEYBOARD KEYS once
the examination starts as this will lock the Examination.
16. General Instructions:
1. Please note the Date, Time and Venue address of the examination given in the Hall
Ticket.
2. Candidates are advised to visit the venue one day before the On-line Examination to
confirm the location so that you are able to report on time (as printed on the Hall
ticket) on the day of the examination. Late comers are not allowed.
3. The Hall ticket should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your
recent pass port size photograph duly pasted on it. (The photograph pasted on the Hall

35
 Ticket should preferably the same photograph you have scanned and uploaded for
filling in the on line form.)
4. You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and CET
CELL Representative/ Venue Officer at the examination venue. If you violate the
instructions you will be disqualified and will be asked to leave the examination venue.
5. No use of calculators (separate or with watch) books, or written notes, cell phones
(with or without camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during
the examination.
6. Candidates should bring their Hall Ticket with their photo affixed thereon with
currently valid photo identity proof in original. This is essential.
7. Currently photo identity card may be pan card/ passport/ driving license/voter’s card
bank pass book with photo/ photo identity letter issued by gazetted officer on official
letter head/ photo identity proof issued by people’s representatives on official letter
head identity card issued by recognized college/university/aadhar card with photo
graph/ employee’s identity card/bar council identity card with photograph.
8. Please note that Ration card/ E-Aadhar Card will not be accepted as valid ID proof for
this Examination.
9. Candidates must note that their name appearing on the Hall Ticket (provided by you
during the process of registration) should reasonably match the name as appearing on
the photo identity proof. Female Candidates who have changed first/last middle name
post marriage must take special note of this. If there is mismatch between the name
indicated in the Hall ticket and Photo identity Proof you will not be allowed to appear
for the examination. In case the candidate who has changed their name will be allowed
only if they produce Gazette notification/ their marriage certificate/Affidavit.
10. Your responses (answers) will be analyzed with other candidates to detect patterns
of similarity of right and wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in the
regard, it is inferred/ concluded that the responses have been shared and scores
obtained are not genuine/valid, your candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate
who is found copying or receiving or giving assistance or engaging in any behavior
unbecoming of a candidate will not be considered or assessment. The CET CELL
may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
11. Candidate should bring with him/her a ball point pen. A sheet of paper will be
provided which can be used by the candidate for rough work or taking down the
question number you would like to review at the end of the test before submitting your
answers. After the test is over you MUST HAND OVER THIS SHEET of paper to the
Test Administrator before leaving the venue.
12. The possibility of occurrence of some problem in the administration of the
examination cannot be ruled out completely which may impact test delivery and/or
result from being generated. In that event, every effort will be made to rectify such
problem, which may include movement of candidates, delay in test. Conduct of a re-
examination is at the absolute discretion of the Test Conducting Body. Candidates will
not have any claim for the re-test. Candidates not willing to move or not willing to
participate in the delayed process of the test delivery shall be summarily rejected from
the process.
13. If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various
sessions will be equated to adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different
test batteries used across sessions. More than one session are required if the nodes
capacity is less or some technical disruption takes place at any centre or for any
candidate.
14. Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or
facilitating transmission and storage of test contents in any form or any information
therein in whole or part thereof or by any means verbal or written, electronic or

36
 mechanical or taking away the papers supplied in the examination hall or found to be
unauthorized possession of test content is likely to be prosecuted.
15. Instances for providing incorrect information and or process violation by the
candidate detected at any stage of the Admission process will lead to disqualification
of the candidate from the selection process. And he she will not be allowed to appear
in any admission process in the future. If such instances go undetected during the
current Admission Process but are detected subsequently, such disqualification will
take place with retrospective effect.
Important points to remember:

You are advised to bring with you:

a) Hall ticket with affixed photo and valid Photo ID card in ORIGINAL
b) Original Proof for Change in name if any
c) One ball point Pen.

17. Other Guidelines

i. Applicants are advised in their own interest to apply on-line much before the closing
date and not to wait till the last date to avoid the possibility of disconnection/inability/
failure to log on to the Note website on account of heavy load on internet/website jam. DHE
takes no responsibility for applicants not being able to submit their applications online
within the last date on account of aforesaid reasons or for any other reason beyond the
control of the DHE.
ii. Any information submitted by an applicant in his/her application shall be binding on
the applicant personally and he/she shall be liable for prosecution/ civil consequences in case
the information/details furnished by him/her are found to be false at a later stage.
iii. DHE shall not be responsible for any application made/ wrong information provided by
an unauthorized person/institution. Applicants are advised not to share/mention their
application details with/to anyone.
iv. Candidates are advised to download and read the detailed guidelines for filling in online
application.
v. In no case the request for change of venue, centre, time slot will be entertained.
vi. Candidates are directed to carry original Photo ID proof like, Aadhar Card, Pan Card,
Driving License, Latest College ID at the CET centre, failing to produce the same will
disqualify the candidate and will not be allowed to appear for the examination.
vii. Candidates are advised to go through the detailed admission rules of the CET
Examination they are going to appear before filling in the Form.

LEGAL JURISDICTION

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of examination and selection shall fall within the jurisdiction
of Courts, at Mumbai only. The Commissioner State CET CELL shall be the legal person in whose
name the Government of Maharashtra may sue or may be sued.

Wish You Good luck !

37
 ANNEXTURE - I

DECLARATION FOR SCRIBE

I, the undersigned, Shri/Smt/Kum. __________________________________________ eligible

candidate for the_____________________________________________________ examination
and Shri/Smt/Kum.___________________________________ eligible writer (scribe) for the
eligible candidate, do hereby declare that :

1. The scribe is identified by the candidate at his/her own cost and as per own choice.
The candidate is blind/low vision or affected by cerebral palsy with loco-motor impairment and
his/her writing speed is affected and she/he needs a writer (scribe) as permissible under the
Government of India rules governing the recruitment of Physically Challenged persons.

2. As per the rules, the candidate availing services of a scribe is eligible for compensatory time of
20 minutes for every hour of the examination.

3. In view of the importance of the time element and the examination being of a competitive nature,
the candidate undertakes to fully satisfy the Medical Officer of the Organization that there was
necessity for use of a scribe as his/her writing speed is affected by the disabilities mentioned above.

4. In view of the fact that multiple appearance / attendance in the examination are not permitted, the
candidate undertakes that he/she has not appeared / attended the examination more than once and
that the scribe arranged by him/her is not a candidate for the examination . Also, the same scribe
cannot be used by more than one candidate. If violation of the above is detected at any stage of the
process, candidature of both the candidate and the scribe will be cancelled.

5. We hereby declare that all the above statements made by us are true and correct to the best of our
knowledge and belief. We also understand that in case it is detected at any stage of recruitment that
we do not fulfill the eligibility norms and/or that the information furnished by us is incorrect/false
or that we have suppressed any material fact(s), the candidature of the applicant will stand
cancelled, irrespective of the result of the examination. If any of these shortcoming(s) is/are
detected even after the candidate's appointment, his/her services are liable to be terminated. In such
circumstances, both signatories will be liable to criminal prosecution.

38
Given under our signature:-
______________________ ______________________

Signature of the Scribe Signature of the Candidate

Registration No. :

Roll No.:-

Postal address: Postal address:

STD Code: ……... Phone No…………… STD Code:……… Phone No…………

[Cell No., if any ………………………….] [Cell No., if any ………………………….]

____________________

Signature of Invigilator
Photograph of the
Scribe

********

39