Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Critical Care
Judith L. Kristeller, Pharm.D., BCPS
Wilkes University
Wilkes-Barre, Pennsylvania
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4. A 62-year-old woman is admitted to your ICU for 6. A 46-year-old man had a witnessed cardiac ar-
respiratory dysfunction requiring mechanical ven- rest in an airport terminal. After about 5 minutes,
tilation. Her medical history is nonsignificant, and emergency medical services arrived, and defi-
she is taking no medications at home. Her chest brillator pads were applied. The cardiac monitor
radiograph shows bilateral lower lobe infiltrates, showed ventricular tachycardia (VT), and the pa-
her white blood cell count (WBC) is 21,000, her tient had no discernible pulse. He was defibrillated
temperature is 39.6°C, her BP is 82/45 mm Hg with 200 J without return of spontaneous circula-
(normal for her is 115/70 mm Hg), and her HR is tion. He received an additional two shocks of 200 J
110 beats/minute. After she receives a diagnosis with no improvement. Between shocks, the patient
of community-acquired pneumonia, she is empiri- received CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation).
cally initiated on ceftriaxone 1 g/day intravenously An intravenous line was obtained, and an epi-
and levofloxacin 500 mg/day intravenously. After nephrine 1-mg intravenous push was given; chest
fluid resuscitation with about 4 L of 0.9% NaCl, compressions and artificial respirations were initi-
her BP is essentially unchanged. After initiation of ated. Within 1 minute, the patient was reassessed.
dopamine 4 mcg/kg/minute, her BP is 96/58 mm The cardiac monitor still showed VT, and he re-
Hg, and her HR is 128 beats/minute. She has made mained pulseless; therefore, another shock of 200
less than 100 mL of urine during the past 6 hours, J, followed by an amiodarone 300-mg intravenous
and her Cr has increased from 0.9 mg/dL to 1.3 mg/ push, was administered. After this, the patient was
dL. Her serum albumin concentration is 3.1 g/dL. converted to a normal sinus rhythm with an HR of
Which one of the following drug therapies is best 100 beats/minute. The patient was then transported
for this patient at this time? to the hospital intubated and unresponsive. Which
A. Administer 5% albumin 500 mL one of the following recommendations is most like-
intravenously. ly to improve this patient’s outcomes?
B. Initiate hydrocortisone 50 mg intravenously A. Administer HCO3− for a presumed metabolic
every 6 hours and fludrocortisone 50 mcg by acidosis.
feeding tube once daily. B. Administer vasopressin 40 units
C. Change dopamine to norepinephrine 0.01 intravenously.
mcg/kg/minute titrated to maintain a mean C. Transport the patient immediately to a
arterial pressure (MAP) of at least 65 mm Hg. cardiac catheterization laboratory for possible
D. Continue current antibiotic therapy and percutaneous intervention.
hemodynamic monitoring. D. Initiate hypothermia protocol.
5. A 92-year-old woman is admitted to the ICU with 7. A 22-year-old man is admitted to the trauma ICU
urosepsis and septic shock. She lives in a long-term after a motor vehicle accident. He has several rib
care facility and has a medical history significant fractures, a ruptured spleen, and a small brain con-
for myocardial infarction, hypertension, and heart tusion. He is rushed to the operating room for an
failure. Her BP is 72/44 mm Hg, HR 120 beats/ emergency splenectomy, and the trauma team places
minute, and O2 saturation 99%; her laboratory val- a postpyloric orogastric feeding tube (OGT) before
ues are normal, except for a BUN of 74 mg/dL and returning to the ICU. The patient is unresponsive
Cr of 2.7 mg/dL. Her urine output is about 20 mL/ and mechanically ventilated. Which one of the fol-
hour. Empiric antibiotics were initiated. Which one lowing is best for stress ulcer prophylaxis (SUP)?
of the following therapies is most appropriate to A. Pantoprazole intravenous push.
initiate next? B. Famotidine suspension by OGT.
A. Dopamine 1 mcg/kg/minute. C. Sucralfate slurry by OGT.
B. Furosemide 60 mg intravenously now. D. No SUP indicated.
C. Normal saline 500-mL bolus.
D. Albumin 5% 500-mL bolus.
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Patient Cases
1. A 62-year-old woman has been hospitalized in the ICU for several weeks. Her hospital stay has been com-
plicated by aspiration pneumonia and sepsis, requiring prolonged courses of antibiotics. For the past few
days, she has been having high temperatures again, and her stool output has increased dramatically. Her
most recent stool samples have tested positive for Clostridium difficile toxin, and her laboratory tests reveal
serum Na 138 mEq/L, K 3.5 mEq/L, Cl 115 mEq/L, albumin 4.4 g/dL, pH 7.32, Paco2 30 mm Hg, and HCO3− 15
mEq/L. Which one of the following is most consistent with this patient’s primary acid-base disturbance?
A. AG metabolic acidosis.
B. Normal AG metabolic acidosis.
C. Saline-responsive metabolic alkalosis.
D. Acute respiratory acidosis.
2. A 27-year-old man with no medical history is admitted to the hospital after being “found down” at a party,
where he reportedly ingested a fifth of whiskey during a 20-minute period. On arrival at the emergency de-
partment, he was neurologically unresponsive with the following ABG values: pH 7.23, Paco2 58 mm Hg,
Pao2 111 mm Hg, HCO3− 24 mEq/L, and Sao2 100% on 2 L/minute of oxygen by nasal cannula. Which one of
the following actions is most appropriate?
A. Administer albuterol 4 puffs every 20 minutes for 4 hours; then 2–4 puffs every 2–4 hours as needed.
B. Administer 100% oxygen by face mask.
C. Give NaHCO3− 100 mEq intravenous piggyback over 30 minutes.
D. Intubate and transfer to the ICU.
3. A 55-year-old woman with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is admitted to the
hospital after several days of worsening shortness of breath. Recently, she was discharged from the hospital
after a similar episode and was doing fine until 3 days before admission, when she developed a produc-
tive cough, requiring an increase in her home O2 and more frequent use of her metered-dose inhalers. On
admission to the medical ICU, she was anxious and markedly distressed, with rapid, shallow breaths. She
was hypertensive (160/80 mm Hg), tachycardic (140 beats/minute), and tachypneic (28). Her ABG showed a
pH of 7.30, Paco2 59 mm Hg, Pao2 50 mm Hg, HCO3− 28 mEq/L, and Sao2 83% on 6 L/minute of oxygen by
face mask, and she was immediately intubated. Which one of the following primary acid-base disturbances
is most consistent with this patient’s presentation and laboratory data?
A. Metabolic acidosis.
B. Metabolic alkalosis.
C. Respiratory acidosis.
D. Respiratory alkalosis.
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II. SHOCK
B. Hypovolemic Shock
1. Treatment centers on the restoration of intravascular volume.
a. Crystalloids and colloids are discussed in the chapter titled “Fluids, Electrolytes, and Nutrition.”
b. Blood products should be administered if clinically indicated in patients with hemorrhagic shock.
2. Patients may require vasopressors if hypotension is not rapidly reversed with fluid resuscitation. See
below for vasopressor options.
a. The efficacy of vasopressors will be reduced in patients who have not received adequate fluid
resuscitation.
b. The risks of vasopressors (e.g., arrhythmias, ischemia) will be greater in patients who have not
received adequate fluid resuscitation.
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3. Fluid resuscitation is typically guided by a target CVP of at least 8 mm Hg (or at least 12 mm Hg, if
mechanically ventilated), improvement in MAP, evidence of improved organ function (e.g., increased
urine output), and clinical examination.
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2. Treatment
a. Ideally, initial resuscitation should be completed in the first 6 hours.
i. Achieving the following resuscitation goals is referred to as early goal-directed therapy;
meeting these goals within the first 6 hours after onset of severe sepsis or septic shock is
associated with an improvement in survival.
(a) CVP of 8–12 mm Hg (12–15 mm Hg if intubated on ventilator)
(b) MAP of 65 mm Hg or more
(c) Urine output 0.5 mL/kg/hour or more
(d) Central venous oxygen saturation (Svo2) more than 70% or mixed venous oxygen
saturation (Scvo2) more than 65%
ii. Protocol for achieving goals
(a) Fluid resuscitation using 1000 mL of crystalloids (i.e., normal saline or lactated Ringer’s)
or 300–500 mL of colloids (albumin, hetastarch, Voluven) administered over 30 minutes
(1) Continue as long as hemodynamic parameters improve and CVP is within goal;
recheck CVP after each fluid challenge; patients may require aggressive fluid
resuscitation during the first 24 hours.
(2) There is no evidence that colloids are superior to crystalloids in improving outcomes,
and they are more costly.
(b) If Svo2 target is not achieved, consider further fluid resuscitation, packed red blood cells
(to hematocrit of more than 30%), and/or dobutamine infusion.
(c) Vasopressors (see Table 6) may be necessary to maintain MAP of 65 mm Hg or greater if
a fluid challenge fails to restore BP and organ perfusion.
(1) Vasopressors improve tissue perfusion by increasing BP and/or CO. Very few studies
have evaluated an improvement in clinical outcomes. Therefore, drug selection is
largely based on expert opinion, practitioner experience, and patient response.
(2) Although norepinephrine or dopamine is the initial vasopressor of choice, there is
no high-quality evidence to recommend one over the other. Norepinephrine and
dopamine have similar efficacy; however, dopamine has been associated with an
increased incidence of arrhythmias.
(3) Vasopressin efficacy is similar to norepinephrine and, when added to norepinephrine,
vasopressin can have a vasopressor-sparing effect, although mortality is not
improved with the combination.
(4) Use of arterial catheter for BP measurements is preferred.
(5) Vasopressors should be administered through a central line as soon as possible to
reduce the risk of extravasation and subsequent tissue ischemia. If extravasation
occurs, phentolamine (an α-receptor antagonist) can be used to reduce tissue
necrosis.
(6) Use caution with calculations and avoid unit errors (e.g., mcg/kg/min, mcg/kg/hour,
mcg/min, units/min)
(d) Inotropes (i.e., dobutamine, milrinone) may be necessary to improve cardiac function
in patients with low CO after fluid resuscitation. Because the mechanism of action
of milrinone does not rely on catecholamines, phosphodiesterase inhibitors may be
theoretically preferred in patients who have received chronic treatment with β-adrenergic
antagonists.
(e) Begin appropriate intravenous antibiotics as early as possible and always within the first
hour of recognizing severe sepsis and septic shock.
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3. The Surviving Sepsis Campaign and the Institute for Healthcare Improvement have developed a
treatment bundle for sepsis that should include the following:
a. Measure serum lactate (a sign of hypoperfusion).
b. Obtain blood cultures before antibiotics.
c. Timely administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
d. Early goal-directed therapy
e. Consider corticosteroids.
f. Consider rhAPC (recently withdrawn from the market).
g. Glucose control (to be discussed later)
Patient Cases
4. A 65-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit after suffering a myocardial infarction and
requiring mechanical ventilation. On the fourth day of hospitalization, she is found to be hypotensive (BP
80/50 mm Hg), tachycardic (HR 125 beats/minute), tachypneic (respiratory rate 30 breaths/minute), hypox-
emic (Pao2 55 mm Hg), febrile (102°F), and confused. The patient is given two 1000-mL boluses of normal
saline and then is intubated and initiated on piperacillin/tazobactam 4.5 g intravenous piggyback every 8
hours and ciprofloxacin 400 mg intravenous piggyback every 8 hours for possible nosocomial pneumonia.
After fluid boluses fail to improve her hemodynamic and clinical status, a pulmonary artery catheter is
placed, which reveals a PCWP of 14 mm Hg, CI of 3.8 L/minute/m 2, and SVR of 515 dynes/second/cm2. Her
chest radiograph shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates, and she still requires 100% Fio2. Which one of the
following actions is best?
A. Add clindamycin 600 mg intravenous piggyback every 8 hours for possible aspiration pneumonia.
B. Administer a dobutamine infusion titrated to achieve a MAP of at least 65 mm Hg.
C. Administer a norepinephrine infusion titrated to achieve a MAP of at least 65 mm Hg.
D. Administer hydrocortisone 50 mg intravenously every 6 hours.
5. A 70-kg patient is to receive a continuous infusion of dopamine for BP support. The nurse has a 250-mL
bag of D5W containing 400 mg of dopamine. Which one of the following rates is most appropriate to infuse
the dopamine drip at a dose of 5 mcg/kg/minute?
A. 13 mL/hour.
B. 13 mL/minute.
C. 22 mL/hour.
D. 22 mL/minute.
6. A 42-year-old man was found unresponsive at his group home covered in vomit. He was intubated by the
paramedics. On arrival to the emergency department, his BP is 72/30 mm Hg and HR is 122 beats/minute.
During the next couple of hours, he receives 5 L of normal saline, 500 mL of 5% albumin, and norepineph-
rine infusing at 40 mcg/minute. With these interventions, his BP is 87/56 mm Hg and HR is 100 beats/
minute. Pertinent laboratory values include a WBC of 20,000 cells/mm3, lactic acid 15 mmol/L, AST 78,
creatinine 2 (baseline 1) mg/dL, platelet count 118,000, INR 1.4, and urine output of about 15 mL/hour. The
patient is initiated on piperacillin/tazobactam to cover for presumed aspiration pneumonia. Which one of
the following is most appropriate?
A. Add hydrocortisone 50 mg intravenously every 6 hours.
B. Check a random cortisol concentration to determine whether hydrocortisone is indicated.
C. Add low-dose dopamine.
D. Add enoxaparin 40 mg subcutaneously daily.
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B. Complications Associated with Mechanical Ventilation (see individual sections later in text for prevention
of these complications)
1. Ventilator-associated pneumonia
2. Stress ulcer
3. Venous thrombosis
A. Training: Any pharmacist who participates in codes should complete basic life support and advanced
cardiac life support training. In general, basic life support training requires 3–5 hours to complete, and
advanced cardiac life support training requires 2 days. The information presented in this section consists of
selected highlights from these training sessions and should not be used in place of a comprehensive training
program.
C. Medications Used During a Code – See chapter titled “Acute Care Cardiology” for information on drugs,
indications, and dosages.
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D. Medication Administration
1. Central venous administration is preferred.
a. Intraosseous administration is preferred over endotracheal if intravenous administration is not
possible because of more predictable drug delivery and pharmacologic effect.
b. Endotracheal drug administration can be used by administering 2–2.5 times the standard
intravenous dose and diluting in 5–10 mL of sterile water. The following drugs can be
administered through an endotracheal tube (Naloxone, Atropine, Vasopressin, Epinephrine,
Lidocaine … acronym is NAVEL).
2. If medications are administered through a peripheral vein, it is important to follow the medication with
20 mL of intravenous fluid to facilitate drug flow from the extremity to the central circulation.
3. Chest compressions and defibrillation should not be significantly interrupted for vascular access,
medication administration, or airway placement.
E. Role of Hypothermia
1. New proposed terminology is “targeted temperature management.”
2. Hypothermia (32°C–34°C) for 12–24 hours beginning as soon as possible after cardiac arrest can
improve neurologic recovery and mortality. Although most evidence of benefit involves patients with
ventricular fibrillation or pulseless VT, hypothermia is recommended for adult survivors of cardiac
arrest regardless of the initial rhythm.
3. Consider hypothermia in patients who have been successfully resuscitated after a cardiac arrest but
who remain comatose (usually defined as a lack of meaningful response to verbal commands).
4. Hypothermia is induced as soon as possible and no later than 10 hours after cardiac arrest.
5. Hypothermia is typically induced using ice packs (to armpits, neck, torso, and groin), cooling blankets,
and infusion of cold normal saline.
6. Patients will need sedation and analgesia during periods of hypothermia.
7. Complications during hypothermia
a. Shivering causes excess heat production, increased oxygen consumption, and a general stress
response and thus should be treated and prevented.
i. Shivering can be treated with sedatives (midazolam, dexmedetomidine), anesthetics, opiates
(e.g., meperidine 50 mg; fentanyl 50 mcg), buspirone 30 mg enterally, magnesium 2 g
intravenously, and paralytics.
ii. Note that shivering can be treated without the use of paralytics in many patients. Thus,
paralytics are not mandatory and should be avoided if possible (see disadvantages of
paralytics below). Paralytics may be most beneficial during the induction of hypothermia;
however, they should be continually reevaluated and discontinued if possible once goal
temperature is achieved.
b. Drug clearance is typically reduced during hypothermia.
i. Use bolus dosing during the induction of hypothermia.
ii. Reduce maintenance doses of sedatives, opiates, paralytics, and other drugs as needed.
c. Increased renal excretion of water and subsequent volume depletion
d. Electrolyte disorders
i. Reductions in potassium, magnesium, and phosphate during cooling
ii. Hyperkalemia during rewarming
e. Increased risk of infection
f. Hyperglycemia during hypothermia, but hypoglycemia during rewarming – Monitor blood glucose
frequently (i.e., every 1–2 hours) and adjust insulin accordingly.
g. Bedsores
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Patient Case
7. A 51-year-old woman collapsed in front of her family, who called 911 and began CPR. The paramedics
arrive and find the victim unresponsive with an electrocardiogram showing bradycardia and an HR of 20
beats/minute. In the emergency department, the patient’s MAP is 68 mm Hg after fluids and norepineph-
rine, but the patient remains unresponsive. She is initiated on the hypothermia protocol. After 24 hours of
hypothermia (temperature 33°C), the patient is in the ICU, and the rewarming process has recently begun.
The pharmacist arrives in the ICU about 30 minutes into the rewarming process. The patient has been re-
ceiving a continuous infusion of insulin throughout the period of hypothermia at an average rate of 15 units/
hour, with blood glucose testing every 6 hours. The patient has been sedated with a continuous infusion of
propofol and is paralyzed with a continuous infusion of cisatracurium. The patient’s vital signs are stable,
and her laboratory values are normal. Which one of the following pharmacist recommendations is most ap-
propriate at this time?
A. Increase blood glucose testing to now and every 1–2 hours during rewarming.
B. Adjust cisatracurium to achieve a TOF of zero 0/4 impulses.
C. Discontinue propofol to facilitate extubation.
D. Increase insulin infusion to prevent hyperkalemia.
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Table 8. The Behavioral Pain Scale (Payen JF, et al. Crit Care Med 2001;29:2258–63)
Item Description Score
Facial expression Relaxed 1
Partially tightened (e.g., brow lowering) 2
Fully tightened (e.g., eyelid closing) 3
Grimacing 4
Upper limb movements No movement 1
Partially bent 2
Fully bent with finger flexion 3
Permanently retracted 4
Compliance with Tolerating movement 1
mechanical ventilation Coughing but tolerating ventilation for most of the time 2
Fighting ventilator 3
Unable to control ventilation 4
Table 9. Critical Care Pain Observation Tool (Gelinas et al. Am J Crit Care 2006;15:420–7)
Indicator Description Score
Facial No muscular tension observed Relaxed, neutral: 0
expression Presence of frowning, brow lowering, orbit tightening, and levator Tense: 1
contraction
All of the above facial movements plus eyelid tightly closed Grimacing: 2
Body Does not move at all (does not necessarily mean absence of pain) Absence of movements: 0
movements Slow, cautious movements, touching or rubbing the pain site, Protection: 1
seeking attention through movements
Pulling tube, attempting to sit up, moving limbs/thrashing, not Restlessness: 2
following commands, striking at staff, trying to climb out of bed
Muscle No resistance to passive movements Relaxed: 0
tension Resistance to passive movements Tense, rigid: 1
Strong resistance to passive movements, inability to complete them Very tense or rigid: 2
Compliance Alarms not activated, easy ventilation Tolerating ventilator or
with the movement: 0
ventilator Alarms stop spontaneously Coughing but tolerating: 1
Asynchrony: blocking ventilation, alarms frequently activated Fighting ventilator: 2
c. Vital signs (e.g., elevated HR or BP) are cues that indicate further assessment of pain is necessary
(i.e., using a scale described above).
d. To assess sedation, the Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale (RASS) and Sedation-Agitation Scale
(SAS) are recommended because, compared with other sedation scores, they have been shown to
be more valid and reliable for monitoring the quality and depth of sedation in adult ICU patients.
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i. In patients receiving a continuous infusion, use a bolus dose before or instead of increasing
the infusion rate (a bolus dose has a faster onset and can eliminate the need for an increase in
the infusion rate). Exception is with drugs such as propofol or dexmedetomidine, which can
cause hypotension and/or bradycardia when bolused.
ii. Use bolus dosing proactively (e.g., before dressing changes, suctioning, repositioning).
iii. Protocols should specify times or prompts for regular reductions in sedative infusion rates.
d. A scheduled daily interruption of continuous infusions is associated with several important
benefits:
i. Assess patient neurologic function.
ii. Prevent drug accumulation and overdose.
iii. Reduce time on the ventilator.
iv. Reduce ICU length of stay.
v. Reduce symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder.
e. Careful attention to minimize infusion rates of longer-acting analgesics and sedatives can be
effective at achieving sedation and analgesia goals and can be more cost-effective than short-
acting medications (e.g., propofol, remifentanil, dexmedetomidine).
5. Use laxatives and stool softeners proactively to prevent opioid-induced constipation.
6. Evaluate and manage delirium.
B. Analgesics
C. Sedatives
1. Benzodiazepines should be titrated or avoided to prevent adverse outcomes including prolonged
duration of mechanical ventilation, increased ICU length of stay, and development of delirium.
a. Lorazepam
i. Intermittent dosing 1–4 mg every 2–6 hours
ii. Continuous infusion: Start at 1 mg/hour and titrate to goal (e.g., RASS, SAS).
b. Midazolam
i. Intermittent dosing 1–4 mg every 15 minutes to 1 hour
ii. Continuous infusion: Start at 1 mg/hour and titrate to goal (e.g., RASS, SAS).
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2. Propofol (Diprivan)
a. Rapid onset (1–2 minutes) and short duration (3–5 minutes or longer if prolonged infusion)
b. Initiate at 5 mcg/kg/minute and titrate to achieve sedation goals by 5 mcg/kg/minute every 5 minutes.
Avoid prolonged infusions greater than 50 mcg/kg/minute.
c. Avoid loading doses because of risk of hypotension.
d. In general, used in intubated patients because of risk of respiratory depression
e. Propofol has no significant analgesic activity. If a patient has pain, will need to combine propofol with
an analgesic
f. Monitoring
i. Blood pressure
ii. Triglycerides
iii. Calories provided from 10% lipid emulsion (1 kcal/mL). May need to adjust lipid or calories
provided by nutrition support (i.e., EN or PN)
iv. Propofol-related infusion syndrome is more likely to occur with prolonged infusions greater than
50 mcg/kg/minute and is associated with metabolic acidosis, cardiac failure, arrhythmias (e.g.,
bradycardia), cardiac arrest, rhabdomyolysis, hyperkalemia, and kidney failure.
g. Propofol is more commonly used than benzodiazepines, most likely because it has a shorter duration,
is easily titratable, and is more predictable.
3. Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)
a. Sedative and analgesic properties through central and peripheral α2-receptor agonist activity
b. Extent of analgesic activity is not well described, and surgical patients will typically need additional
medications for adequate pain control.
c. Does not cause respiratory depression or drug dependency
d. Rapid onset (5–15 minutes if bolus, longer without bolus) and short duration (2-hour half-life)
e. A loading dose is suggested for patients undergoing surgery; however, loading doses are NOT
recommended for ICU patients because of the risk of bradycardia and hypotension.
f. Maintenance dose of 0.2–0.7 mcg/kg/hour is FDA approved for a maximum of 24 hours, although there
is evidence showing the safety and efficacy of prolonged infusions at doses up to 1.5 mcg/kg/hour.
g. Compared with benzodiazepines, dexmedetomidine is associated with a lower prevalence of ICU
delirium in some studies; need comparative studies with propofol
h. Monitoring: Primary adverse effects are dose-related bradycardia and hypotension.
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2. Paralytic agents
3. Disadvantages of paralysis
a. Paralytics may mask seizure activity.
b. Prolonged paralysis is associated with critical illness polyneuromyopathy, characterized by
prolonged muscle weakness or paralysis.
c. Paralysis can mask insufficient analgesia and sedation.
d. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)
e. Skin breakdown and decubitus
f. Corneal abrasions caused by eye dryness; prevent by applying Lacri-Lube ophthalmic ointment to
eyes every 8 hours
4. Monitoring paralysis
a. Paralytic agents need to be monitored to prevent overdose and thus prolonged paralysis.
b. Even with appropriate individualized dosing and monitoring of paralytic agents, a principal
adverse effect is prolonged muscle weakness after discontinuation. This can dramatically
slow patient recovery, requiring considerable health care resources (e.g., physical therapy,
rehabilitation). For this reason, it must be emphasized that the need for therapeutic paralysis must
be carefully considered and reevaluated every day.
c. The simplest way to assess the appropriateness of the paralytic is as follows: regularly (once
daily), but temporarily, discontinue the drug to determine the time needed for the patient to move
or breathe spontaneously. This “drug holiday” can also be useful for the following reasons:
i. Assess sedation and titrate sedatives as needed (i.e., if the patient is agitated after the paralytic
is discontinued, he or she is not receiving adequate sedation or analgesia).
ii. Assess the need for continued paralysis (i.e., if the patient is able to maintain oxygenation,
then perhaps the paralytic is no longer necessary).
iii. Assess the dose of the paralytic (i.e., Did the paralysis “wear off” within the expected time frame
based on the expected drug duration?); this is especially important for drugs such as vecuronium
and pancuronium because of the long half-life and dependence on end-organ clearance.
d. A peripheral nerve stimulator can be used in conjunction with the drug holidays described
previously to assess the level of paralysis and guide drug dosing.
i. The TOF refers to peripheral nerve stimulation using 4 electrical impulses usually applied to
the ulnar or facial nerves.
ii. Obtain a baseline TOF before initiating paralysis to determine patient sensitivity to impulses.
Patients who are not paralyzed should exhibit 1 twitch for each impulse (for 4/4 twitches).
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iii. During paralysis, patients should be maintained at 1–2 twitches, which indicate the extent of
receptor blockade.
iv. Technical problems that limit the accuracy of TOF monitoring include the presence of
perspiration or tissue edema.
e. In addition to the monitoring described, clinical assessment involves adjusting the paralytic dosing to
prevent patient-ventilator dyssynchrony (e.g., “bucking” the ventilator, elevated peak airway pressures).
f. Avoid other medications or electrolyte abnormalities that can potentiate or inhibit paralysis.
Patient Cases
8. An elderly woman is admitted to the ICU for acute decompensated heart failure and kidney failure with an
ejection fraction of less than 30%. She was administered a continuous infusion of bumetanide; however, the
benefit was limited because of her kidney failure. She was intubated on ICU day 2 because of worsening
pulmonary edema and hypoxia. After intubation, she scored a +2 (agitated; frequent nonpurposeful move-
ment, fights ventilator) on the RASS, and her CAM-ICU is positive for delirium. She denies pain. Her BP is
120/70 mm Hg and HR is 88 beats/minute. Which of the following is the best recommendation for achieving
her sedation goal of RASS equals zero (i.e., alert and calm)?
A. Initiate propofol at 5 mcg/kg/minute and titrate as needed.
B. Administer haloperidol 5 mg intravenously and double the dose every 20 minutes as needed.
C. Administer lorazepam 1 mg every 20 minutes as needed.
D. Initiate morphine 4 mg intravenously every 4 hours as needed.
9. A 42-year-old woman with acute respiratory distress syndrome, having a significant history of alcohol and
tobacco abuse, is transferred to the medical ICU from an outside hospital. She presented to the outside hospital
after 1 week of productive cough, fever, chills, and increased shortness of breath. On admission to the medical
ICU, she is hypotensive (80/60 mm Hg), tachycardic (130 beats/minute), and febrile (39.0°C). Her ABG shows
pH 7.1, Paco2 56 mm Hg, Pao2 49 mm Hg, HCO3− 16 mEq/L, and Sao2 76% on 100% Fio2. The only other sig-
nificant laboratory results are an SCr of 1.5 mg/dL and WBC 16,000. She is achieving her sedation goals with
continuous infusions of midazolam 3 mg/hour and fentanyl 250 mcg/hour. After several nonpharmacologic
attempts to improve her oxygenation fail, she is paralyzed, and her ventilator settings are adjusted accordingly.
Which one of the following statements about therapeutic paralysis is most appropriate?
A. Opioids should be discontinued after paralysis is initiated to avoid prolonged paralysis.
B. Once paralysis is initiated, do not discontinue it abruptly.
C. Depth of paralysis should be monitored by discontinuing the sedation once daily and assessing the
patient’s response.
D. The goal of monitoring paralysis using a peripheral nerve stimulator is to observe 2/4 twitches on a TOF.
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Patient Cases
10. The patient above was paralyzed as instructed and appeared to being doing well until about 8 hours after
starting an infusion of cisatracurium (currently infusing at 2 mcg/kg/minute), when she began to move
around violently in her bed. At this time, she was tachycardic (120 beats/minute) and appeared very agi-
tated; her Sao2 fell to 80%. Which one of the following actions is best?
A. Increase the infusion rate of cisatracurium to a maximum of 10 mcg/kg/minute as needed until the
patient stops moving.
B. Administer a midazolam bolus and increase the infusion rate as needed to achieve sedation goals.
C. Increase the fentanyl infusion rate as needed to achieve sedation goals.
D. Check the TOF.
11. After that event, the patient above did poorly the rest of the night. A Swan-Ganz catheter was placed, confirm-
ing the diagnosis of sepsis (i.e., high CO and low SVR). The patient was initiated on a dopamine infusion at 10
mcg/kg/minute to maintain an adequate BP. Other medications included clindamycin, cefepime, and gentami-
cin. By morning, her SCr has increased to 2.8 mg/dL, and the night shift nurse reports that the patient has had
0/4 twitches on TOF for the past 8 hours. Pertinent electrolyte values include K+ 3.0 mEq/L, Ca++ 9 mg/dL, and
Mg++ 2 mg/dL. Which one of the following is most likely to potentiate the effects of cisatracurium?
A. Clindamycin.
B. Gentamicin.
C. Hypokalemia.
D. All of the above.
B. Treatment Strategies to Maintain Blood Glucose in Target Range (less than 180 mg/dL)
1. Use a validated dosing protocol that considers blood glucose concentration, rate of change, and insulin
infusion rate.
2. If unable to maintain blood glucose in target range with subcutaneous insulin, consider using a
continuous infusion of intravenous insulin.
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A. Signs and Symptoms: Hematemesis, gross blood in gastric tube aspirates, “coffee ground” emesis or aspiration
from gastric tube, and melena
B. Drug Therapy Is Recommended for Any One of the Following Major Risk Factors:
1. Respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation (likely for greater than 48 hours)
2. Coagulopathy defined as platelet count less than 50,000, international normalized ratio (INR) greater than
1.5, or activated partial thromboplastin time more than 2 times control. (Note: Prophylactic or treatment
doses of anticoagulants do not constitute a coagulopathy.)
C. Drug Therapy Is Recommended for Two or More of the Following Risk Factors:
1. Head or spinal cord injury
2. Severe burn (more than 35% of body surface area)
3. Hypoperfusion
4. Acute organ dysfunction
5. History of gastrointestinal (GI) ulcer/bleeding within 1 year
6. High doses of corticosteroids. (Note: Corticosteroid use alone is not a risk factor.)
7. Liver failure with associated coagulopathy
8. Postoperative transplantation
9. Acute kidney injury
10. Major surgery
11. Multiple trauma
D. Prevention Strategies/SUP
1. Efficacy of intravenous histamine-2 (H2)-blockers in preventing stress-related upper GI bleeding is clearly
shown in clinical trials. These are commonly administered enterally when possible because of excellent
bioavailability; however, evidence of efficacy has primarily been shown with intravenous administration of
H2-blockers.
2. Despite limited evidence in preventing stress-related mucosal bleeding, enterally administered proton
pump inhibitors (PPIs) are also often used. Furthermore, the intravenous route is common, despite a lack
of evidence.
3. Regardless of the drug choice or route, it is important to discontinue therapy when risk factors are no
longer present to avoid unnecessary drug interactions, adverse effects (pneumonia), and increased costs.
This is easily overlooked, with the result that patients are discharged from hospitals and continued on acid-
suppressive therapy with no indication.
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F. Safety: The benefits of preventing stress ulcers by increasing the stomach pH must be weighed against an
increased risk of infection including C. difficile, hospital-acquired pneumonia, and community-acquired
pneumonia (for patients discharged on a PPI).
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Patient Cases
12. A 73-year-old woman weighing 84 kg is admitted to the ICU after an episode of cardiac arrest with suc-
cessful resuscitation. She was intubated during the code, and she is being mechanically ventilated. Her BP
is 104/65 mm Hg, HR is 88 beats/minute, and O2 saturations are 98% on 40% Fio2 and PEEP 5; her Glasgow
Coma Scale score is 11. Other laboratory values are normal. An OGT is in place, she is being fed enterally,
and she has no gastric residuals. Her medications include amiodarone 400 mg 2 times/day, simvastatin 20
mg every night, clopidogrel 75 mg/day, aspirin 81 mg/day, metoprolol 25 mg twice daily, heparin 5000 units
subcutaneously every 8 hours, and 0.9% NaCl intravenously at 75 mL/hour. The physicians would like to
initiate SUP. Which one of the following is the best recommendation for this patient?
A. Famotidine 20 mg per OGT every 12 hours.
B. Esomeprazole 40 mg per OGT daily.
C. Sucralfate 1 g by OGT 4 times/day.
D. Ranitidine 50 mg intravenously every 8 hours.
13. One week later, the patient from above is extubated. Her Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15, BP 112/70 mm
Hg, and HR 75 beats/minute, but her appetite is poor. Which one of the following statements is most ap-
propriate regarding SUP for this patient?
A. SUP should continue until the patient is discharged from the ICU.
B. SUP should be discontinued now.
C. Continue SUP until patient is eating.
D. SUP should be discontinued at hospital discharge.
A. Risk Factors for VTE: Surgery, major trauma, lower extremity injury, immobility, malignancy, sepsis, heart
failure, respiratory failure, venous compression, previous VTE, increasing age, pregnancy, erythropoiesis-
stimulating agents, obesity, and central venous catheterization
C. Special Populations:
1. Kidney function should be assessed before using low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) and
fondaparinux. If estimated creatinine clearance is 20–30 mL/minute, reduce enoxaparin to 30 mg
subcutaneously daily (rather than 40 mg subcutaneously daily); if creatinine clearance is less than 20
mL/minute or patient is on dialysis, dosing information is limited for LMWH; anti-Xa monitoring
may not be reliable in dialysis patients. Fondaparinux is contraindicated in patients with an estimated
creatinine clearance less than 30 mL/minute.
2. For obese patients, some experts recommend increasing LMWH prophylaxis doses by 30% if body
mass index is less than 40 kg/m2; peak (4 hours postdose) anti-Xa of 0.2–0.4 IU/mL is recommended.
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B. Maintain the Head of the Bed Elevated (about 30–45 degrees) to Limit Aspiration Risk.
E. Avoid Unplanned Extubation and Reintubation: See suggestions above for optimal use of sedatives and
analgesics.
F. Unresolved Issues
1. Selective digestive tract decontamination
2. Use of antiseptic-impregnated endotracheal tubes
3. Intensive glycemic control
4. Avoidance of H2-antagonists or PPIs, although evidence of an association between pneumonia and
acid-suppressive therapy is primarily observational and has not been shown in prospective controlled
trials.
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A. Enteral Nutrition
1. Enteral nutrition is preferred to PN in patients with a functional GI tract. Benefits of EN include the
following:
a. Reduced risk of infectious complications
b. Improved wound healing
c. Less expense
d. Maintained integrity of gut mucosa and reduction in bacterial translocation
2. Preventing aspiration in patients receiving tube feedings
a. Tube feedings should be interrupted if gastric residual volume is greater than 250–500 mL.
b. Keep head of bed at least 30–45 degrees.
c. Placing the feeding tube past the pylorus may reduce the risk of aspiration (although
controversial). A one-time dose of erythromycin can facilitate small bowel feeding tube placement.
d. Prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide and erythromycin promote GI motility and reduce
gastric residuals; they can also improve tolerance of EN.
3. Specific caloric goals provided from EN in critically ill patients are unknown. A recent study (Rice
TW, et al. Crit Care Med 2011;39:967–74) of patients with respiratory failure during the first 6 days
of ventilation showed that, compared with traditional infusion rates, EN infusion rates of 10–30 mL/
hour (referred to as “trickle” or trophic feeds), providing about 16% of goal calories, had similar
clinical outcomes (i.e., duration of ventilation, ICU stay) but fewer episodes of elevated gastric
residual volume. See below for more discussion on predictive equations for determining caloric goals.
This evidence needs to be balanced with other evidence showing caloric deficits are associated with
prolonged ventilator dependence, pressure ulcers, increased length of stay, and mortality.
4. Protein is needed for wound healing and immune function. See protein requirements in Fluids,
Electrolytes, and Nutrition chapter. Many EN products will not meet protein requirements at normal
infusion rates; therefore, additional protein supplements may be needed.
B. Parenteral Nutrition
1. PN is indicated in patients who have a contraindication to EN or who do not tolerate EN.
2. PN should be considered in patients with a contraindication to or intolerance of EN for at least 7 days. A
recent study compared early (within 48 hours) with late (after 1 week) initiation of PN in more than 2300
critically ill patients (who were not malnourished) as a supplement to EN. The late-initiation group had
a significant reduction in ICU stay by 1 day, as well as reductions in hospital stay, infection, cholestasis,
and total health care costs. Benefits of late initiation were evident in the subgroup of more than 500
patients with a contraindication to EN, despite receiving essentially no nutrition for the first week.
3. EN may be poorly tolerated or contraindicated in the following conditions:
a. Massive bowel resection, perforated bowel, bowel obstruction
b. Severe diarrhea or emesis
c. Substantial abdominal distention
d. Severe GI bleeding
e. Severe hemodynamic instability
4. Some trials have shown that glutamine supplementation in PN enhances immune function and reduces
the rate of infectious complications.
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2. When indirect calorimetry is unavailable, several predictive equations for determination of caloric
goals have been used (e.g., Harris-Benedict, Penn State, Ireton-Jones, and Swinamer equations).
See the reference by Walker and Heuberger for a review of the usefulness of predictive equations in
critically ill patients. The authors do not recommend the commonly used Harris-Benedict equation for
use in critically ill patients.
3. The American College of Chest Physicians 1997 consensus statement suggests a goal of 25 kcal/
kg using usual body weight (or ideal body weight if body mass index is greater than 25 kg/m2);
however, this equation poorly predicts measured energy expenditure and may lead to underfeeding or
overfeeding.
4. As stated above in EN, previous evidence shows worse morbidity and mortality with underfeeding.
More evidence is needed to determine the caloric goals required in different patient populations (e.g.,
elderly, malnourished, obesity) to improve clinical outcomes in critically ill patients.
D. See Chapter Titled “Fluids, Electrolytes, and Nutrition” for Further Guidance.
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REFERENCES
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1. Answer: b 4. Answer: C
This ABG is consistent with a metabolic acidosis. The This patient’s hemodynamic profile is most consistent
pH is less than 7.40 (indicating an acidosis), and the with sepsis (i.e., high CI, low SVR). Her PCWP is also
HCO3− and Paco2 are decreased from normal. In a met- relatively low considering the degree of fluid challenge
abolic acidosis, the decrease in HCO3− is the primary she has received. Because she remains hypotensive de-
disorder. When a metabolic acidosis is present, the AG spite receiving an adequate fluid load, an α-adrenergic
should be calculated to provide additional insight re- agent such as dopamine or norepinephrine (Answer
garding the potential cause of the disorder. The AG is D) should be initiated. Norepinephrine is a more po-
calculated by subtracting the sum of measured anions tent vasoconstrictor than phenylephrine and provides
(Cl− and HCO3−) from cations (Na+). This patient’s AG less β-stimulation than dopamine. If she became more
(8 mEq/L) is within the reference range of 6–12 mEq/L; tachycardic while receiving norepinephrine, phenyl-
thus, it is referred to as a “normal anion gap metabolic ephrine could be tried. Dobutamine (Answer B) is an
acidosis” or “non–anion gap metabolic acidosis.” C. inotropic agent that increases CI and lowers PCWP. Do-
difficile–induced diarrhea is the most likely cause of butamine is usually avoided when the SBP is less than
this patient’s acid-base disorder. 100 mm Hg. The goals of treatment are to improve BP
(typically MAP) and restore adequate organ perfusion.
2. Answer: d Piperacillin/tazobactam and ciprofloxacin will provide
Given this patient’s neurologic status and his elevated adequate gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic
Paco2, he should be intubated and transferred to the coverage for nosocomial pneumonia, eliminating the
ICU. In patients without chronic obstructive pulmonary need for clindamycin (Answer A). If the patient con-
disease, a Paco2 greater than 50 mm Hg is usually an tinues to be hypotensive despite adequate fluid resus-
indication for mechanical ventilation regardless of oxy- citation and use of vasopressors, then hydrocortisone
genation status (this patient was oxygenating well: Pao2 (Answer D) can be considered.
111 mm Hg, Sao2 100%). Albuterol (Answer A) or oxy-
gen (Answer B) therapy alone is unlikely to correct this 5. Answer: A
patient’s cause of respiratory failure (i.e., hypoventila- Calculating an infusion rate is a very important role for
tion). Likewise, his acid-base disturbance is consistent the pharmacist in code situations. The infusion pump is
with a pure acute respiratory acidosis (elevated Paco2, set to run in milliliters per hour, so your answer should
normal HCO3−) and is therefore unlikely to respond to always be in these units. To determine the rate (in mil-
HCO3− (Answer C), which is usually reserved for a se- liliters per hour) needed to achieve a 5-mcg/kg/minute
vere metabolic acidosis. dose, use the following calculation:
concentration of dopamine drip: 400 mg/250 mL = 1.6
3. Answer: c mg/mL or 1600 mcg/mL. Therefore, 70 kg × 5 mcg/
This ABG is consistent with a respiratory acidosis. The kg/minute × 60 minutes/1 hour × 1 mL/1600 mcg = 13
pH is below 7.40 (indicating an acidosis), and the Paco2 mL/hour
(an acid) is higher than normal (about 40 mm Hg). In
chronic respiratory acidosis, the kidneys will conserve 6. Answer: D
HCO3− (a base) in an attempt to maintain a normal pH. This patient is at risk of developing a VTE and should
This compensatory metabolic alkalosis is obvious in receive prophylaxis with either enoxaparin (Answer
this patient, whose serum HCO3− is 28 mEq/L (which D) or unfractionated heparin. An elevated INR of 1.4,
is about 4 mEq/L higher than normal). The elevated likely caused by hypoperfusion of the liver, is no reason
HCO3− concentration in this patient confirms the diag- to withhold prophylaxis for VTE. Hydrocortisone (An-
nosis of respiratory acidosis (because the HCO3− would swer A) is not necessary in this case because the patient
be expected to be less than 24 mEq/L if the acidemia is responding to fluid resuscitation and the infusion of
were attributable to a metabolic cause). norepinephrine, as evidenced by the increase in MAP
from 44 mm Hg on arrival to the emergency depart-
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ment to 66 mm Hg after initial resuscitation. A random associated with worsening delirium can be avoided.
cortisol concentration (Answer B) is not recommended Morphine (Answer D) is incorrect because the patient
because it does not predict patient responsiveness to denies pain, and although opioids can be effective seda-
corticosteroids. tives, morphine should be avoided if possible in patients
The addition of dopamine (Answer C) is not neces- with kidney injury because of active metabolites that
sary at this time because the MAP is greater than 65 are renally eliminated.
mm Hg, thus allowing global organ perfusion. In addi-
tion, there is no evidence that a low dose of dopamine 9. Answer: D
will prevent acute kidney injury, and it increases the Although not universally accepted, there is a consensus
risk of arrhythmias compared with norepinephrine. among experts that peripheral nerve stimulation should
be used to guide therapeutic paralysis in the ICU. This
7. Answer: A is usually accomplished with the TOF sequence. The
During rewarming, patients can become hypoglycemic. goal response on TOF is typically 1 or 2 twitches (An-
Therefore, a reduction in the insulin infusion is likely, swer D). It is imperative for clinicians to recognize that
and the blood glucose should be monitored more often neuromuscular-blocking agents do not cross the blood-
(Answer A). Paralysis is generally only needed during brain barrier and are not useful as either sedatives or
the cooling process if other measures fail to prevent analgesics. For this reason, sedatives and analgesics
shivering. Once the patient is at goal temperature, and should not be discontinued while patients are paralyzed
during the rewarming process, continued use of a para- (Answer C). Adequate sedation and analgesia must be
lytic agent should be reassessed. Paralytic assessment achieved before initiating a paralytic agent and should
can include titrating to a TOF goal; however, a more ap- continue throughout the paralysis. In addition, the para-
plicable goal would be the presence of shivering in this lytic should be allowed to dissipate at least once daily
patient when the paralytic is briefly interrupted. If the to assess the adequacy of sedation/analgesia. This ex-
patient is not shivering, consideration should be given plains why Answer B is incorrect; it is appropriate to
to discontinuing the paralytic. Of note, the TOF goal is discontinue the paralytic agent day by day to reassess
2/4 twitches, rather than 0/4 (Answer B), to avoid over- the need for continued paralysis. Answer A is incorrect
paralysis. Although discontinuing propofol (Answer C) because analgesics and sedatives should be continued
can facilitate extubation, this should not be done un- during paralysis.
til the patient is no longer paralyzed, at a normal body
temperature, and ready for ventilator weaning. Finally, 10. Answer: b
although rewarming can cause hyperkalemia, it is ap- Although this patient is no longer paralyzed, it would be
propriate to monitor potassium concentrations and treat inappropriate to re-paralyze an obviously agitated pa-
as needed. It is not appropriate to increase the infusion tient (Answer A) because he or she should first be ade-
of insulin (Answer D) to prevent hyperkalemia because quately sedated. Likewise, performing a TOF test using
this could precipitate hypoglycemia during the rewarm- a peripheral nerve stimulator (Answer D) is unneces-
ing process. sary because it is obvious from the patient’s movement
that she is not paralyzed. It is possible that the patient
8. Answer: A is agitated and tachycardic because she was paralyzed
Propofol (Answer A) is the most logical starting point without adequate sedation or analgesia. Before adjust-
for achieving the RASS goal for this patient because ing the paralytic, the patient should be given a sedative
it has not been shown to worsen delirium. Haloperidol bolus (Answer B). In paralyzed patients, it is generally
(Answer B) is an option; however, nonpharmacologic better to err on the side of oversedation rather than under-
strategies should be attempted first, and the starting sedation, so an increase in the sedative drip rates would
dose should be lower at 1 mg instead of 5 mg to avoid also be appropriate in this patient. Answer C is incorrect
adverse effects. Benzodiazepines (Answer C) can wors- because increasing the infusion rate of fentanyl will not
en delirium and should thus be avoided in this patient. have an immediate effect. It would be an acceptable op-
This illustrates the importance of using a validated tool tion if the increased infusion rate were accompanied by
to assess delirium (e.g., CAM-ICU) so that medications a fentanyl bolus.
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6. Answer: D
Hypothermia improves neurologic recovery and mor-
tality in patients who have suffered a cardiac arrest.
Although the patient likely has a metabolic acidosis,
the administration of HCO3− (Answer A) has not been
shown to improve outcomes. Vasopressin (Answer B)
is an acceptable option during a cardiac arrest for pa-
tients with ventricular fibrillation or pulseless VT, but
it does not have a role after cardiac arrest. Although
acute coronary syndrome is a common cause of cardiac
arrest, information was not provided in this case to sug-
gest that the patient should be transported immediately
to the cardiac catheterization laboratory (Answer C).
After hypothermia is induced, it is likely that the pa-
tient will undergo cardiac catheterization. Of note, the
induction of hypothermia does not necessarily interfere
with plans for cardiac catheterization.
7. Answer: B
Mechanical ventilation and coagulopathy are indepen-
dent risk factors for SRMD; therefore, Answer D is in-
correct because the patient has a considerable risk of
developing a stress ulcer. This patient is critically ill
and may be intubated for an extended time; therefore,
he is at risk of SRMD, and he will require SUP. The
patient has an OGT, meaning that EN and medications
administered by the tube will go directly into the stom-
ach. Sucralfate (Answer C) was shown to be inferior
to H2RAs in preventing clinically significant bleeding
from SRMD in a large randomized controlled trial
(Cook DJ, et al. N Engl J Med 1998;338:791–7), and it
is generally not recommended for SUP. Proton pump
inhibitors such as intravenous pantoprazole (Answer
A) have not been shown to prevent SRMD better than
H2RAs and have been associated with an increased risk
of hospital-acquired pneumonia. Thus, famotidine (An-
swer B) administered enterally is the best agent for SUP
in this patient. Of note, studies showing the efficacy
of H2RAs in preventing SRMD have used injectable
drugs, rather than enteral administration. Regardless,
given the extensive bioavailability with enteral admin-
istration, many practitioners will use the enteral route
for administering H2RAs to prevent SRMD.
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