SIX SIGMA SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Q1. Measurement accuracy is attained when...

A.Different people get the same result when measuring the same item or characteristic.
B. The same person taking multiple measurements on the same item or characteristic gets the same
results every time.
C. The measured value has little deviation from the actual value.
D. When the resolution of the measurement instrument can give at least 5 distinct values in the range
being measured.
Q2. In a normal distribution 68% of the data will occur within...
A. +/- 2 standard deviations
B. +/- 1 standard deviation
C. +/- 3 standard deviations
D. Outside the bell-shaped curve
Q3. The Risk Priority Number (RPN) in an FMEA exercise is derived from...
A. severity x occurrence x risk
B. severity x risk x detection
C. occurrence x detection x control
D. severity x occurrence x detection
Q4. The Voice of the Customer is?
A) The number of errors in the process
B) A control chart with control limits
C )The department's output target
D )The customer's specification limits
Q5. A planning method designed to show the tasks associated with a project, the personnel responsible for
completing the tasks and the timelines allowed?
A) Pareto chart
B) Gantt chart
C) Microsoft Project
D) Check sheet
Q6. A bar chart that depicts the frequencies of numerical or measurement data?
A) Sample
B) Histogram
C) Check Sheet
D) Process Map
Q7. SIPOC means?
A) Suppliers, Inputs, Procedure, Outputs, Customers
B) Simple, Inputs, Process, Outputs, Complex
C)Simple, Inputs, Procedure, Outputs, Complex
D) Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, Customers
Q8. An improvement process in which a company measures its performance against that of best-in-class
companies, determines how those companies achieved their performance levels, and uses the information to
improve its own performance:
A) Control Chart B) Six Sigma
C) Benchmarking D) Cause and Effect Diagram
Q9. A control limit?
A) Indicates the boundary of the bell curve in a normal distribution
B) Indicates that a process event or measurement is likely to fall within that limit
C) Indicates that a process event or measurement is likely to fall outside that limit
D) Indicates the customer's desired upper or lower performance limits
Q10. For a set of data, the average squared deviation from the mean, with a denominator of n-1?
A) Sample Variance B) Normal Distribution
C) Sample D) Population
Q11. Provides relationship between two variables, and provides a visual correlation coefficient?
A) Scatter Diagram C) Box plot
B) Cause and effect chart D) Trend line
Q12. The objective of Design of Experiments (DOE) is to Map all process steps and determine their average
duration?
A) Map all process steps and determine their average duration
B) Establish optimal process performance by finding the right settings for key process input variables
C ) Establish the best graphing method to illustrate process performance
D) Determine the mean and standard deviation of a population
Q13. A six sigma capable process will have?
A) Cp = 1.5, Cpk = 2.0 and DPMO = 3.4
B) Cp = 2.0, Cpk = 1.5 and DPMO = 6
C) Cp = 1.5 Cpk = 2.0 and DPMO = 6
D) Cp = 2.0, Cpk = 1.5 and DPMO = 3.4
Q14. A pictorial diagram showing possible causes (process inputs) for a given effect (process outputs) It is also
referred to as the "Ishikawa diagram" or "fishbone diagram "
A) Standard Deviation
B) Cause and Effect Diagram
C) Random Experiment
D) Scatter Diagram
Q15. When the mean of the process is outside the customer specification limits the value of Cpk will be:
A) 2.0 B) 0.5
C) 1.0 D) Negative
Q16. Six sigma black belt responsibilities include all of the following, except:
A) Selecting projects for execution by green belts
B) Mentoring green belts
C) Training organisation staff in six sigma techniques and team work
D) Planning the sales and marketing strategy
Q17. The middle value of a data set when the values are arranged in either ascending or descending order
A) Median B) Mode C) Mean D) Discrete Data
Q18. One of the most common measures of variability in a data set or population
A) Process capability
B) Specification limits
C) Mean
D) Standard Deviation
Q19. A sequence of 3 operations has first pass yield (right first time) rates as follows: 93%, 87% and 92%. The
first pass yield rate is:
A) 72% B) 74%
C) 99% D) 87%
Q20. The following are indicators of out of control conditions on a control chart, except:
A) Six consecutive points, increasing or decreasing
B) Fourteen consecutive points that alternate up and down
C) Two points in zone c above the mean, followed by two points in zone b below the mean
D) One or more points outside the control limits
Q21. Six Sigma can best be defined as:
A) A management methodology that uses only statistical tools to improve the customer experience.
B) A customer-focused problem solving methodology that uses powerful statistical tools to reduce
variation and improve processes.
C) A management methodology that is primarily focused on achieving financial results.
D) A customer-focused problem solving methodology used exclusively within the manufacturing sector
Q22. Which Role is not traditionally performed by a Green Belt?
A) Data Gathering C) Lead Small Projects
B) Analysis D) Coach and mentor other Six Sigma Practitioners
Q23. A Process is operating at 6 Sigma
A) We can expect 3.2 defects per million opportunities
B) it has a yield of 99.997%
C) We can expect 3.4 defects per million opportunities
D) It has a yield of 99.9967%
Q24. A process has a mean of 10 and a standard deviation of 2. What is the tolerance of the process that
exhibits the limits of normal variation?
A) 5 to 15
B) 4 to 16
C) 2 to 8
D) 6 to 14
Q25. A normal Distribution can best be described as:
A) Bell-shaped, a variance of 1, the mean=median=mode
B) Bell-shaped, symmetrical about the mean, a single mode
C) Un-Symmetrical about the mean, a natural tolerance of three standard deviations, unimodal
D) Symmetrical about the mean, bell-shaped, discrete data
Q26. Shape referred to as Platykurtic is:
A) Flatter than the Normal Distribution
B) Narrower than a Normal Distribution
C) Same as a Normal Distribuiton
D) None of the above answers
Q27. A process is in-control and stable. Describe the type of variation that exists in the process.
A) Special Cause variation
B) Natural Variation
C) Out-the-ordinary varation
D) Non-random variation
Q28. Indicate which are examples of variable data:
1)Length, 2)Weight, 3)Decision on a coin toss, 4)Dollars, 5)Days
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 1,2,4
C) 1,2,4,5
D) 1,4,5
Q29. Indicate which control char(s) is the most sensitive for measuring time as data
A) np chart
B) X bar R Chart
C) p Chart
D) Individuals and Moving Range
Q30. Which one of the characteristics below does not reflect common cause variation:
A) Trend
B) In-Control
C) Predictable
D) Stable
Q31. Which Steps should you take when you notice special causes in a control chart?
A) Do nothing
B) Continue taking data measurements to confirm your belief
C) Stop and identify the Special Causes
D) Stop, identify the special Causes and eliminate them
Q32. Your control chart shows seven consecutive points on one side of the mean. What oes this indicate?
A) The process is in-control (within the UCL and LCL)
B) The process appears to be too table and should be questioned
C) the process needs to be checked for special causes
D) The wrong control chart has been selected
Q33. The number of data points for a sample is 100. Indicate the approximate number of classes one needs to
use for grouped data?
A) 10
B) 5
C) 20
D) 100
Q34. If the salary of professionals is inversely proportional to their age, it indicates ___________ relationship
between the two variables?
A) Positive B) Negative C) No Correlation D) Linear
Q35. The Cp and Cpk values both turn out to be 1.9. What does this indicate?
A) Process is capable
B) Process is capable but not centered
C) Process is highly capable and centered
D) Process is not capable
Q36. A process you are monitoring produces 150,000 customer transactions per year. your analysis indicates
the percent non-conforming is 0.2%. What is the DPMO?
A) 300 B) 1,800
C) 2,000 D) 20,000
Q37. A process you are monitoring produces 150,000 customer transactions per year. your analysis indicates
the percent non-conforming is 0.2%. What is the number of defective transaction?
Answer: 300
Q38. The histogram you have constructed is skewed to the left. What should you do?
A) Consult with your legal department
B) Develop the appropriate control chart
C) It is still a normal distribution
D) Stop the process and bring it back into control
Q39. The control chart most commonly used for between and within subgroup variation is the:
A) X Bar and R Chart
B) X Bar and the Standard Deviation Chart
C) X Bar and the Variance Chart
D) X Bar and Mean Chart
Q40. An attribute chart can be represented by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) P Chart
B) R Chart
C) NP Chart
D) C Chart
Q41. List the following Sampling Plan steps in the correct sequence.
1) Decide who will collect the data, who will analyze it, and who will report the results.
2) Formulate a clear statement of the problem being addressed with the data.
3) List all of the important characteristics to be measured.
4) Select the best measurement technique for the desired data.
5) Define precisely what is to be measured with the data.
A) 5,2,3,4,1
B) 2,5,3,4,1
C) 1,2,5,3,4
D) 5,1,2,4,3
Q42. Select the key attributes of successful Six Sigma programs.
1) Senior management commitment
2) High ROI projects
3) Projects with short durations
4) Proper funding
5) Well-trained staff
6) Properly scoped projects
A) 1,3,5,6
B) 1,4,5,6
C) 1,5,6
D) 1,2,4,5,6
Q43. These provide support, resources and remove roadblocks. They have more in-depth understanding of
the methods - measurements and interpretations of process measurements. They are referred to as:
A) Champions
B) Master Black Belts
C) Steering Committee
D) Process Owners
Q44. A type of bar chart displaying the frequency of occurrence is called a _______________.
A) X bar R Control Chart
B) Pareto Chart
C) Histogram
D) Cumulative Frequency Graph
Q45. What are the 3 key attributes of Six Sigma that best summarize why it is a compelling methodology for
reducing variation and improving processes in the mind of Senior Management?
A) Data Driven, Creative, Streamlined
B) Customer Focused, Data Driven, ROI Oriented
C) Customer Focused, Statistical Emphasis, Conformity - Driven
D) Data Driven, Methodical, ROI Oriented
Q46. Company using Six Sigma methodology is operating at a 99.99967% defect-free rate. What is its Sigma
Level and failure rate?
A) 3 Sigma, 3.4 DPMO
B) 4.5 Sigma, 233 DPMO
C) 5.0 Sigma, 233 DPMO
D) 6 Sigma, 3.4 DPMO
Q47. Select 3 types of Analysis tools to identify root causes/data relationships commonly used in the Six Sigma
methodology.
A) Control Charts, Pareto Charts, Fish-Bone Diagrams
B) Pareto Charts, Capability Indices, Control Charts
C) Pareto Charts, Fish-Bone Diagrams, Scatter Plot Diagrams
D) Scatter Plot Diagrams, Pareto Charts, Correlation
Q48. List the 3 key activities - in correct order - for determining if a proceess is normally distributed, in-control
and capable of consistently meeting customer requirements.
A) Construct a histogram, Prepare Control Charts, Calculate Capability Indices
B) Construct a SIPOC, Prepare Control Charts, Calculate Cp and Cpk.
C) Calculate the 3 measures of Central Tendency, Calculate Capability Indices, Prepare Control Charts
D) Prepare CTQs, Construct Control Charts, Calculate Capability Indices
Q49. The average time spent waiting in queue for a bank teller is 8 minutes. The Standard Deviation is 30
seconds. What is the tolerance of the process that exhibits the limits of normal variation?
A) 6 to 10 minutes
B) 7 to 9 minutes
C) 6.5 minutes to 9.5 minutes
D) 3 minutes to 12 minutes
Q50. The X Bar R Chart uses two control charts to monitor a process. What are they?
A. Mean and Standard Deviation B. Mean and Range
C. Mean and Variance D. Grand Average and Variance
Q51. A process has the following X values (1,2,3,4,5) and Y values (2,4,6,8,10). What is the relationship
between the two variables?
A) Linear
B) Negative
C) Positive and Linear
D) No correlation
Q52. A company generates 12,000 orders per month. Each order has the possibility of 4 errors. Approxiately
how many opportunities for defects are provided during the year?
A) 1,000,000
B) 84,000
C) 144,000
D) 576,000
Q53. If the company is operating at 3 Sigma in the above example what is the percent conformance?
A) 99.73%
B) 99.97%
C) 99.997%
D) 68.26%
Q54. A process has a CP = 1 nd a Cpk = 1. Interpret these capability indices:
A) The process is centered but not capable
B) The process is not in control
C) The process is not capable
D) The Process is centered and capable
Q55. What can you say about Control Limits and Specification Limits?
A) There is no difference between the terms; both are used to indicate if a process is in control
B) Control Limits are set by the customers; Specification Limits are derived by the process
C) Control Limits are derived by the process; Specification Limits are set by the customer
D) Control Limits are typically 3 standard deviations from the mean; Specification Limits are typically 3
standard deviations from the target
Q56. A process is out-of-control. Describe the type of variation that exists in the process.
A) Random Variation
B) Special Cause Variation
C) Common Cause Variation
D) Inherent Variation
Q57. A process you are monitoring over time exhibits inherent variation. What strategy should you use to
manage the process?
A) Take immediate action to identify root causes of the common cause variation
B) Increase the specification limits to ensure the process is capable
C) Continually and gradually improve the stable process
D) Stop the process, identify the causes, and eliminate them
Q58. You are monitoring a process and evidence of trending in the control chart. What is the most likely issue
going on?
A) New operators B) Different shifts
C) Changes in materials D) Wear of machinery
Q59. Which item below most naturally follows the development of a SIPOC diagram?
A) A Process Map B) Voice of the Customer
C) Critical-to-Quality Requirements D) Project Charter
Q60. The Variance for an equipment installation is 36 square minutes. What is the Standard Deviation?
A) 72 minutes B) 18 minutes
C) 6 minutes D) Need to know the mean to compute
Q61. If no correlation exists between two variables, then:
A) As one variable changes, one cannot predict a value for the other variable
B) As one variable increases, the other variable decreases
C) As one variable decreases, the other variable decreases
D) As one variable decreases, the other variable increases
Q62. The term Design of Experiments was coined by:
A) Taguchi B) Deming C) Feigenbaum D) Crosby
Q63. If the number of data points given is 121, the number of class intervals for constructing a HIstogram
would be calculated as:
A) 10 B) 20 C) 11 D) 12
Q64. If the Z USL and Z LSL are calculated as 3.24 and 3.42 respectively waht is the percentage non-
conformance?
A) .0913% B) .00913% C) .0781% D) .00781%
Q65. Collecting the customer needs and converting them to requirements is referred to as:
A) Voice of the Process
B) Voice of the Customer
C) Requirements Manipulation
Q66. The primary goals of Six Sigma are to improve:
A) Effectiveness and efficiency
B) Customer retention and employee retention
C) Defect rate and profitability
D) Knowledge transfer and cycle time
E) Productivity and workmanship
Q67. Which of the following companies was the first to enhance Six Sigma by using it to address strategic
business objectives?
A) Motorola
B) Texas Instruments
C) Allied Signal
D) General Electric
Q68. In the DMAIC methodology, root causes are determined during which phase?
A) Define
B) Measure
C) Analyze
D) Improve
E) Control
Q69. Which of the following is the best example of a project goal statement?
A) Improve changeover times before December 1.
B) Reduce defects from Machine X by 50% before June 30.
C) Reduce DPMO by 75% at Call Center 1.
D) Increase net profit in Division B by the 4th quarter.
Q70. According to Ishikawa, how many years does it take for a quality movement to become "a way of life" in
an organization?
A) 1-2 years B) 1-3 years
C) 2-5 years D) 4 years
Q71. The role of the Master Black Belt is most similar to that of a:
A) Dictator
B) Coach
C) Student
D) Project Manager
Q72. Unlike other quality improvement philosophies, Six Sigma is comprised of three key elements:
A) Strategy, competition, and evolution
B) Technology, evolution, and customer focus
C) Strategy, tactics, and culture
D) Tools, techniques, and quality circles
Q73. Which of the following characteristics describe the philosophy of Six Sigma? I. Results-oriented II. No
data required III. Continuous improvement IV. Management involvement V. Quality through inspection
A) I, II, and III only
B) I, III, and IV only
C) I,IV,andVonly
D) II, III, and IV only
E) II,IV,andVonly
Q74. The section of the project charter that describes the gap between the current state and the desired state
is the:
A) Business case
B) SWOT analysis
C) Problem statement
D) Project scope
Q75. Dr. Joseph Juran forwarded the concept of a quality trilogy consisting of planning, control, and
improvement. He believed it was better to invest more time in planning so less time (and money) would be
needed in control and improvement. This philosophy is similar to the Six Sigma concept of:
A) Always listen to the customer
B) Nominal is best
C) Quality through inspection
D) Defect prevention
Q76. Dr. Walter Shewhart is credited as being the first to discuss the idea that:
A )Poor quality constitutes a financial loss to society
B) Individuals are members of a system
C) All forms of variation are not the same
D )Quality is a product of error prevention
Q77. W. Edwards Deming was most critical of the performance of which of the following?
A) Management
B) Line workers
C) Black belts
D) None of the above
Q78. Who is responsible for creating and confirming the project charter?
A) Project Champion
B) Master Black Belt
C) Board of Directors
D) Quality Leader
Q79. The project charter is best described as:
A) A code of conduct and procedures that prevent wrongdoing.
B) An unwritten set of commandments advocated by the Project Champion.
C) A slogan, motto, or credo adopted by the team at the beginning of a project.
D) A collection of documents that provide purpose and motivation.
Q80. Which of the following statements about the DMAIC methodology is true?
A) Teams tend to spend too much time in the Analyze phase and then rush through the Improve
phase.
B) Team members gather baseline performance measurements during the Control phase.
C) DMAIC addresses the improvement of an already established process.
D) Any one phase of DMAIC can be skipped in favor of spending more time in other, more relevant
phases.
Q81. Dr. Genichi Taguchi's work included which of the following?
A) Fishbone diagram
B) Control charts
C) Loss function
D) PDCA cycle

Q82. The Project Champion defines the project boundaries, indicating what work will and will not be included
in the project. These boundaries are known as the:
A) Problem statement B) Business case
C) Project charter D) Project scope
Q83. At the beginning of a Six Sigma project, who is responsible for identifying a high-impact, low-performing
process in need of improvement?
A) Project Champion
B) Master Black Belt
C) Quality Leader
D) Management/Process management council
Q84. Which of the following statements regarding Six Sigma team leadership is true?
A) A Black Belt leads the team through the DMAIC methodology.
B) A Green Belt is a full-time team lead.
C) A Black Belt typically creates the project charter.
D) A Green Belt leads at least four projects per year.
Q85. Which of the following companies enhanced Six Sigma by developing a Six Sigma culture in which all
employees received Six Sigma training?
A) Motorola B) Texas Instruments
C) Allied Signal D) General Electric

Q86. In the House of Quality, the lower level/foundation is used to:

A) List the actions your organization will take to satisfy your customers (known as the "hows")
B) Compare your organization to the competition
C) Rank the "hows"
D) Make notes about customer "wants"
Q87. What is an advantage of focus groups as a method of gathering data about customers?
A) You can read body language
B) The halo effect
C) The devil effect
D) None of the above
Q88. Nicole enters a popular submarine sandwich shop to order a sandwich, a soft drink and potato chips. The
process is as follows: Step 1. Wayne takes the order, cuts the bread, then passes it on to Ethan. Step 2. Ethan
fills the sandwich with the specific items as described by Wayne's ticket and then passes it on to Melinda. Step
3. Melinda wraps the sandwich, hands Nicole an empty cup (for her soft drink), then passes the sandwich on
to Bill, the cashier. Step 4. Bill throws the potato chips into a bag with the sandwich, then completes the
money and order exchange. Who is not an internal customer?
A) Nicole
B) Melinda
C) Wayne
D) Ethan
Q89. What are advantages of customer observation in regard to gathering customer data? I. Unfiltered data II.
The halo effect III. Direct information
A) I and III only
B) II and III only
C) I, II, and III
D) None of the above
Q90. According to the lecture, which of the following tools can be described as the "workhorse" of DMAIC?
A) Kano model
B) CTQ tree
C) House of quality
D) Process map
Q91. What is the physical manifestation of values and beliefs?
A) Employee handbook
B) Infras structure
C) Behaviors
D) All of the above
Q92. What is a disadvantage of market research as a method of gathering customer data?
A) It is hard to read between the lines
B) Purchasing market research can be expensive
C) Data might not be timely
D) All of the above
Q93. The purpose of process mapping is to help team members and others within the process to understand
the:
A) Meaning of the VOC
B) Six Sigma level of performance
C) Process
Q94. When completing the competitive section of the House of Quality, the competitive ranking is based
primarily on:
A) The project team's consensus B) The project team's research
C) The customer's perspective D) Industry studies
Q95. Which of the following modes of thinking is best suited for transforming a traditional organization into a
Six Sigma enterprise?
A) Intuitive thinking
B) Charismatic thinking
C) Process thinking
D) Counter-intuitive thinking
Q96. Which of the following Six Sigma tools illustrates the dynamic impact of customer needs on customer
satisfaction?
A) Pareto chart
B) Affinity diagram
C) Kano model
D) PERT
Q97. A customer wants pizza. Which of the following is NOT a requirement, but instead is a NEED?
A) Timeliness
B) Taste
C) Friendliness
D) None of the above
Q98. High performance teams will probably experience which of the following: I. Forming II. Storming III.
Performing IV. Re-Forming
A) I and III only
B) III only
C) I, II, and III only
D) All of the above
Q99. What is House of Quality?
A) A tool to translate what the customer wants into products or services that meet the customer wants.
B) A conflict resolution process used to settle disputes between customer requirements and the design specs.
C) A statistical technique that compares the cost of customer requirements to the projected budget.
D) A lean engineering tool that looks for ways to improve quality without increasing development time.
Q100. One of the hardest parts of creating a paradigm shift is ____________.
A) Thinking of a better way to do things
B) Getting old/current ideas out of our minds
C) Defining the word paradigm
D) Introducing the new idea(s)
Q101. Which of the following is the order of evolution for most teams?
A) Forming, Norming, Storming, Performing
B) Storming, Norming, Forming, Performing
C) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing
D) Performing, Storming, Norming, Forming

Q102. With a House of Quality (HOQ), the roof is used to show:

A) How the customer demands relate to the design requirements
B) How the design requirements interact with each other
C) The relative weight of key design requirements
D) The target values

Q103. When flowcharting a process, which symbol is used to identify a decision?

A) Rectangle B) Square
C) Oval D) Diamond
Q104. When should you stop branching out in a CTQ tree?
A) When it is no longer economical to keep branching out
B) At five branches (similar to the 5 whys)
C) When you get to something you can actually measure
D) When you have satisfied all of the customers' needs

Q105. SIPOC provides a view of the process that contains approximately how many steps?
A) 16-25
B) 5-7
C) 8-15

Q106. QFD is a planning process for products and services. It starts with:
A) Competitive intelligence
B) The voice of the customer
C) A relationship matrix
D) Quality specifications

Q107. A "must have" requirement is: I. You are not thrilled if the requirement is met II. You are upset if the
requirement is not met III. You are thrilled if the requirement is met
A) I only B) II only
C) I and II only D) II and III only

Q108. Common problems with cultural adjustments include ____________.

A) Convincing senior management to implement Six Sigma
B) Sustaining positive changes
C) People seeing a need to change
D) All of the above

Q109. If an operator stops the process often, takes a sample, and then adjusts the process to the center over
and over again, what happens? I. Variation increases II. Variation decreases III. The process will appear more
and more like a bell shape as he or she goes IV. The process will appear less like a bell shape as he or she goes
A) I and II are true
B) II and III are true
C) II and IV are true
D) I and IV are true

Q110. Which of these statements is true?

A) A smaller-is-better target will always have an upper specification limit.
B) A smaller-is-better target will always have a lower specification limit.
C) A larger-is-better target will always have an upper specification limit.
D) None of the statements are true.

Q111. Why would you want your baseline sigma to be 1, 2, or 3?

A) Because a "1, 2, or 3" is the target
B) Because a "1, 2, or 3" is the voice of the customer
C) Because a "1, 2, or 3" is the desired value a process can achieve in terms of baseline sigma according
to leading quality experts
D )So the team can see improvement in the project
Q112. The five Ms and one P are represented by which of the following? I. Method II. Maintenance III.
Environmental conditions IV. People V. Measurement VI. Machine VII. Materials VIII. Matrix
A) I,II,V,VI,VII,VIII
B) I,III,IV,V,VI,VII
C) I,II,IV,V,VI,VII
D) All of the five Ms and one P are not represented by the choices

Q113. Values of inches, time, and miles per gallon normally would be described as: I. Variable II. Continuous
III. Measurable IV. Discrete
A) I and III only B) II and III only
C) I, II, and III only D) I, II, III, and IV

Q114. If you were to roll a single die 10 times, the result of each roll would be __________.
A) Mutually exclusive of the other nine rolls
B) Proportional to the other nine rolls
C) Dependent upon the other nine rolls
D) Independent of the other nine rolls

Q115. Six elements contribute to the variation in a process. Those six elements -- five Ms and one P (also
known as the six Ms) -- influence variation in: (choose the BEST choice)
A) Manufacturing processes B) Processes that produce some tangible product
C) All processes-manufacturing or not D) Continuous processes

Q116. A Six Sigma process is expected to deliver:

A) Good products or services 99.932% of the time
B) Less than 4 defects per million opportunities
C) 100% defect-free performance
D) Products and/or services efficiently

Q117. Counted data is:

A) Continuous
B) Discrete
C) Positional
D) Temporal

Q118. Which of the following could be a problem identification method?

A) Check Sheet
B) Pareto Chart
C) Project Charter
D) All of the above could be problem identification methods

Q119. Which of the following is NOT considered continuous data?

A) The number of people in a stadium
B) Temperature
C) Time spent waiting in a waiting room
D) Birth weights

Q120. The peak of the bell-shaped curve represents:

A) The standard deviation
B) Process sigma
C) The width or fatness of the shape of the distribution
D) The mean or average of the distribution
Q121. Use continuous data where possible because:
A) It separates the vital few from the useful many
B) It tells us the magnitude of the issue
C) It is best at discerning whether or not we have a defective product or service
D) It is of the "pass/fail" variety and therefore is better for failure analysis

Q122. Common-cause variation is normally: I. Expected II. Random III. Assignable

A) I only B) II only
C) III only D) I and II only

Q123. If an operator stops the process often, takes a sample, and then adjusts the process to the center over
and over again, what happens? I. Variation increases II. Variation decreases III. The process will appear more
and more like a bell shape as he or she goes IV. The process will appear less like a bell shape as he or she goes
A) I and II are true B) II and III are true
C) II and IV are true D) I and IV are true

Q124. Which of the following statements define non-value added activities? I. The process step is done right
the first time
II. The customer is willing to pay for it
III. The process object is physically changed
A) I and II only B) I, II, and III
C) II and III only D) None of the above

Q125. 1An example of "Moment of Truth" might be:

A) When a customer realizes, through data, that they have improved their competitive edge
B) When a supplier gets a call from a complaining customer
C) When a supplier calls a customer to learn about needs and requirements
D) When a customer takes a car for a test drive and notices a knocking noise coming from the engine
compartment

Q126. What tends to happen in regard to customer tolerances over time?

A) They tend to never change
B) They tend to expand
C) They tend to change in proportion to the voice of the process
D) They tend to contract

Q127. A run chart is more like:

A) The camera that takes still shots than it is like a camcorder that records movies
B) The camcorder that records movies than it is like a camera taking still shots
C) A snapshot of the process at a moment in time than it is like a motion picture over time
D) A scatter diagram than it is like a Pareto chart

Q128. To validate root causes identified in the Open-Narrow-Close efforts, the team should employ three
tools/techniques in which order?
A) Design of Experiments first, then Scatter Analysis/Regression, then Basic Data Collection
B) Basic Data Collection first , then Scatter Analysis/Regression, then Design of Experiments
C) Scatter Analysis/Regression first, then Basic Data Collection, then Design of Experiments
D) Design of Experiments first, then Basic Data Collection, then Scatter Analysis/Regression
Q129. George Eckes walks though some of the common categories of non-value-adding activities. He
mentions "value enabling" as one of the categories. Which of the following would be considered a "value
enabling" activity?
A) Legal documents being filled out to satisfy some governmental agency
B) Allowing time for paint to dry before proceeding with the assembly process
C) Signing of an acquisition
D) Filling out a form in a dentist office

Q130. You manage the operations division of an event planning company. You have been on the job for two
months and you are just now finding the time to analyze all of the processes your team goes through when
they set up and tear down an event site. A member of your team has just walked you through the post-event
process of cleaning, transporting, and storing the tables used during banquet events. You discover that
following each event, tablecloths are always removed and all tables are polished before being folded and
transported. It is obvious to you that the step of polishing the tables is:
A) A source of customer satisfaction B) A source of customer delight
C) An example of over-processing D) An example of defect removal

Q131. Bending, reaching, and searching are examples of what type of waste?
A) Inventory B) Transportation
C) Motion D) Defects

Q132. A run chart is more like:

A) The camera that takes still shots than it is like a camcorder that records movies
B) The camcorder that records movies than it is like a camera taking still shots
C) A snapshot of the process at a moment in time than it is like a motion picture over time
D) A scatter diagram than it is like a Pareto chart

Q133. A histogram reflects the:

A) Historical running record (also known as "run chart") of data collected
B) Trends and/or shifts in process
C) Voice of the process
D) None of the above

Q134. Which of the following statements define non-value added activities?

I. The process step is done right the first time
II. The customer is willing to pay for it
III. The process object is physically changed
A) I and II only
B) I, II, and III
C) II and III only
D) None of the above

Q135. What should a well-constructed histogram reveal to you?

I. Whether or not the data are normally distributed
II. Customer expectations
III. The dispersion IV. The central tendency
A) I and II only
B) III and IV only
C) I and II, and IV only
D) I, II, III, and IV
Q136. A cause-effect diagram is used in which of the following phases?
A) The open phase
B) The narrowing phase
C) The close phase
D) The decision phase

Q137. Nicole enters a popular submarine sandwich shop to order a sandwich, a soft drink and potato chips.
The process is as follows: Step 1. Wayne takes the order, cuts the bread, and then passes it on to Ethan. Step
2. Ethan fills the sandwich with the specific items as described by Wayne's ticket and then passes it on to
Melinda. Step 3. Melinda wraps the sandwich, hands Nicole an empty cup (for her soft drink), and then passes
the sandwich on to Bill, the cashier. Step 4. Bill throws the potato chips into a bag with the sandwich, then
completes the money and order exchange. Assuming all of the steps are done right the first time, which of the
four steps is considered to be adding value?
A) Steps 2 and 3 only
B) Steps 2, 3, and 4 only
C) Steps 1, 2, and 3 only
D) All of the steps

Q138. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A) A micro-problem statement is a granular statement of the problem defined in the charter.
B) A cause-effect diagram is a tool used in a brainstorming session.
C) Multi-voting is a decision-making tool.
D) Xs are the process elements that explain Y.

Q139. What is multi-voting?

A) A technique to pick the best project to perform Six Sigma
B) A process to perform qualitative analysis
C) A technique used to reduce a long list of items to a manageable number
D) Output from a cause and effect diagram
Q140. A botched moment of truth would be:
A) An internal failure
B) An external failure
C) An appraisal cost
D) Prevention cost

Q141. To validate root causes identified in the Open-Narrow-Close efforts, the team should employ three
tools/techniques in which order?
A) Design of Experiments first, then Scatter Analysis/Regression, then Basic Data Collection
B) Basic Data Collection first , then Scatter Analysis/Regression, then Design of Experiments
C) Scatter Analysis/Regression first, then Basic Data Collection, then Design of Experiments
D ) Design of Experiments first, then Basic Data Collection, then Scatter Analysis/Regression

Q142. Which of the following statements is true regarding Pareto charts?

A) It is the process of ranking opportunities from the smallest to largest
B) It is known for "separating the vital few from the useful many"
C) It is an alphabetical ranking of categories
D) None of the above

Q143. A trend in a run chart is defined as:

A) Seven consecutive points
B) Seven points in a row above or below the center line
C) Seven points in a row in an upward or downward direction
D) Seven points in a subgroup
Q144. George Eckes walks though some of the common categories of non-value-adding activities. He
mentions "value enabling" as one of the categories. Which of the following would be considered a "value
enabling" activity?
A) Legal documents being filled out to satisfy some governmental agency
B) Allowing time for paint to dry before proceeding with the assembly process
C) Signing of an acquisition
D) Filling out a form in a dentist office

Q145. Identify the three types of prioritization matrices.

I. Full Analytical Criteria Method
II. Combination ID/Matrix Method
III. Requirement Matrix
IV. Consensus Criteria Method V. Yates Method
VI. Pareto Priority Index
A) I,II,V
B) I, III, V
C) I, II, IV
D) IV, V, VI

Q146. Which tool listed below helps focus teams on key drivers or outcomes to determine effective solutions?
A) Tree diagram
B) Matrix diagram
C) Affinity diagram
D) Interrelationship diagram

Q147. Prioritization matrices utilize a standard form of matrix in problem solving which is the:
A) T-shaped matrix B) L-shaped matrix
C) Y-shaped matrix D) X-shaped matrix
E) C-shaped matrix

Q148. Prioritization matrices can be used to: I. Rationally narrow down the focus of the team before detailed
implementation planning can happen II. Enable selection of priority items by applying a set of criteria to each
item III. Place process activities in a chronological order IV. Identify decision points in a process improvement
effort
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) III and IV
D) IV only

Q149. Process Decision Program Charts are used for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Planning specific contingencies
B) Designing a set of experiments to modify a process
C) Steering events in a required direction if unanticipated problems occur
D) Finding many counter measures to overcome problems

Q150. What tool is used to generate solutions when determining project solutions?
A) CTQ tree
B) Kano model
C) Affinity diagram
D) Activity network diagram
Q151. Which of the following tools can be used to develop critical to quality characteristics? I. Force field
diagram II. Affinity diagram III. Tree diagram IV. Matrix diagram
A) Ionly
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) III and IV

Q152. A bi-modal distribution:

A) Means that two things are going on (e.g., 2 machines, 2 shifts, 2 material sources, etc.)
B) Is one distribution
C) Means two high points in a distribution
D) All of the above

Q153. Affinity diagrams are useful tools to:

A) Analyze and group language data
B) Show the relationship between the cause and effect
C) Rank categories from the largest to the smallest
D) None of the above
C) Steering events in a required direction if unanticipated problems occur
D) Finding many counter measures to overcome problems

Q154. Which of the following tools can be used to develop critical to quality characteristics? I. Force field
diagram II. Affinity diagram III. Tree diagram IV. Matrix diagram
A) Ionly
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) III and IV

Q155. Which of the prioritization matrices begins with a tree diagram?

A) Full Analytical Criteria B) Combination ID/Matrix
C) Consensus Criteria Method D) Matrix Comparison Method

Q156. What is process performance metrics?

A) The process of translating business goals and objectives into metrics to measure current state against
desired state
B) A tool that enables selection of priority items by applying a set of criteria to each item
C) A process that moves the vague and general "wants and needs" of the customer to specific characteristics
D) Mapping the voice of the customer to measurable and actionable process improvement projects that
directly impact quality

Q157. Which of the following tools is used to display relationships between tasks and/or people, or to analyze
correlations between two ideas?
A) PDPC chart
B) Tree diagram
C) Matrix diagram
D) Activity network diagram

Q158. The 7 Management tools were developed by:

A) Toyota
B) Deming
C) Nayatani
D) Ishikawa
Q159. The Full Analytical Criteria Prioritization Matrix is derived from what process?
A) Taguchi's robust design process
B) Saaty's Analytical Hierarchy Process (AHP)
C) Ishikawa's 6 Ms
D) Shewhart's PDCA process

Q160. The three phases of determining project solutions are:

A) Observation/Interaction/Finished
B) Discussion/Planning/Solved
C) Open/React/Com plate
D) Open/Narrow/Close

Q161. Function/Cost is the definition of:

A) Value B) Average
C) Compensation D) Depreciation

Q162. What are conditions for a binomial distribution?

I. Continuous data
II. It is 2-state (success/failure, defective/not defective, etc.)
III. The trials are independent
IV. The probability of success on every trial is the same
A) I, II, and III only
B) I, III, and IV only
C) I and III only
D) None of the choices are completely correct

Q163. Scatter plots/diagrams determine:

A) Correlation and causation B) Correlation only
C) Causation only D) Linear-only correlations

Q164. What is unique about the bivariate distribution?

A) It is only used with discrete data.
B) The variables must be independent.
C) It is the joint distribution of two variables
D) Its graph is always two-dimensional.

Q165. The Weibull distribution is helpful in reliability testing because:

A) You can prove whether or not a part will fail in the field
B) You can draw conclusions about reliability without testing any parts
C) You can draw conclusions about product reliability without destroying a lot of parts
D) You can prove that failure occurs only under extreme conditions

Q166. What are the four requirements for a binomial distribution?

I. Two possible outcomes
II. Fixed number of trials
III. The variables are dependent
IV. The confidence interval is 2 standard deviations
V. Time to time variation
VI. Trials are statistically independent
VII. Probability of success is constant
A) I, II, IV, VII B) II, III, V, VII
C) III, IV, V, VII D) I, II, VI, VII
Q167. Use this distribution for finding confidence intervals for the population mean when the sample size is
less than 30 and the population standard deviation is unknown.
A) F-distribution B) Student-t
C) Normal D) Hypergeometric

Q168. What does a negative Cpk (or Ppk) indicate?

A) Always is a math error
B) The process average is out of specification
C )The process standard deviation is negative
D) The process mean is closer to the lower specification

Q169. A process is said to be capable and acceptable when:

A) Cpk is a negative number
B) It meets customer requirements
C) There are no defects produced
D) It is capable of fitting within the spec limits

Q170. Which of the following are instances when you would use the Hypergeometric distribution?
A) Sample size is less than 10% of the population size
B) When sampling without replacement
C) Number of defined occurrences (or "successes") is unknown
D) All of the above

Q171. The probability of it snowing or not snowing in New York City would not fit the criteria for a Binomial
Distribution even though there are only 2 outcomes - it will snow or it will not snow. Why can't you use the
binomial distribution for this problem?
A) The probability of success is not the same. The chance of snow on a winter day is much higher than
on summer days.
B) Snowing and not snowing is not a two-state condition.
C) It would be impossible to define a fixed number of trials.
D) It is impossible to use binomial distributions for weather issues.

Q172. Which of the following is not true?

A) Cp (or Pp) is potential capability
B) Cpk (or Ppk) is actual performance
C) Cpk (Ppk) is less than Cp (Pp)
D) Cp (or Pp) equals zero

Q173. Between noon and 1:00pm on Fridays, a bank has an average of 8 customers waiting in line. What is the
probability that, on any given Friday between noon and 1:00pm, there are less than 5 people in line? (Must
use Poisson)
A) 93.19% B) 97.86%
C) 19.12% D) 9.96%

Q174. When is the exponential distribution used?

A) To predict the length of time that properly maintained equipment will operate
B) To approximate the time between outcomes
C) When the probability of an outcome is consistent throughout the time period
D) All of the above

Q175. What should be included in a capability study?

A) Cp (or Pp) and Cpk (or Ppk) C) Histogram
B) Attribute data D) Both A and C
Q176. According to Six Sigma philosophy:
A) Cp (or Pp) and Cpk (Ppk) should be greater than 1.33
B) Cp (or Pp) and Cpk (Ppk) should be greater than 1.50
C) Standard deviation is greater than 6
D) Standard deviation is less than 6

Q177. What tool would you use to determine whether the source of variation is due to within-piece, piece-to-
piece, or time-to-time?
A) Stem and leaf chart B) Multi-vari chart
C) Histogram D) Frequency distribution

Q178. Mean Time to Failure (MTTF) and Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) are indicators of:
A) Process capability B) Hazard rate
C) The bathtub curve D) Qualityover time

Q179. A process that is capable indicates:

A) The process is acceptable
B) The process is centered
C) The process variation is greater than the width of the specification window
D) The process variation is less than the width of the specification window

Q180. Which of the following describes the F-Distribution?

A) It is the ratio of two sample variances
B) It assumes both populations are normally distributed
C) F-statistic is always positive
D) All of the above

Q181. Which of the following is NOT an example of a good application of the Student-t table?
A )Finding a confidence interval for μ, when s is unknown and n > 30
B) Testing a hypothesis about a regression coefficient
C) Inferential statistics
D) Finding a confidence interval for μ, when s is unknown and n < 30

Q182. The statistics that summarize a population are referred to as

(A) categorical statistics (B) descriptive statistics
(C) probabilistic statistics (D) control statistics

Q182. Which of the following measures is increased when process performance is improved?
(A) Variability range
(B) Capability index
(C) Repeatability index
(D) Specification limits

Q183. Which of the following tools can be used to identify and quantify the source of a problem?
(A) Affinity diagram
(B) Control chart
(C) Pareto chart
(D) Quality function deployment

Q184. A correlation analysis is used to provide a numeric value for which of the following types of
relationships between two variables?
(A) Random (B) Linear
(C) Curvilinear (D) Causation
Q185. Which of the following tools is used to translate broad requirements into specific requirements?
(A) A quality control plan
(B) The theory of constraints (TOC)
(C) A critical to quality (CTQ) tree
(D) A process flowchart

Q186. Which of the following tools is used extensively in quality function deployment (QFD)?
(A) Affinity diagram
(B) Matrix diagram
(C) Cause and effect diagram
(D) Activity network diagram

Q187. Which of the following control charts is used to monitor discrete data?
(A) p
(B) I & mR
(C) X
(D) X – R

Q188. Which of the following shapes is used to present a termination point in a flowchart?
(A) Rectangle (B) Diamond
(C) Arrow (D) Oval

Q189. For a normal distribution, two standard deviations on each side of the mean would include what
percentage of the total population?
(A) 95%
(B) 68%
(C) 47%
(D) 34%

Q190. Which of the following is a commonly accepted level for alpha risk?
(A) 0.05
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.70
(D) 0.95

Q191. When the sampling method used creates a difference between the result obtained from the sample
and the actual population value, the difference is known as
(A) correlation (B) precision
(C) accuracy (D) bias

Q192. Which of the following is an example of mistake- proofing?

(A) Using an X - R chart to prevent errors
(B) Using 100% inspection to detect and contain defects
(C) Using color coding as an error signal
(D) Having the team that created the errors repair them

Q193. Which of the following is the key objective of a six sigma project?
(A) Developing detailed control charts for critical processes
(B) Developing a matrix to understand the how's and what's of a problem process
(C) Reducing variation in critical processes
(D) Reducing investment costs while improving output quality
Q194. Which of the following tools is used to identify potential events and contingencies for an
implementation plan?
(A) PERT chart
(B) Process decision program chart
(C) Fishbone diagram
(D) House of quality

Q195. Which of the following measures is used to show the ratio of defects to units?
(A) DPU (B) DPO
(C) DPMO (D) PPM

Q196. Which of the following terms is used to describe the risk of a type I error in a hypothesis test?
(A) Power
(B) Confidence level
(C) Level of significance
(D) Beta risk

Q197. Positional, cyclical, and temporal variations are most commonly analyzed in
(A) SPC charts (B) multi-vari charts
(C) cause and effect diagrams (D) run charts

Q198. In order for value flow analysis to be effective, a team must take which of the following steps first?
(A) Define the value stream
(B) Eliminate backlogs in the value stream
(C) Identify overlapping functions in the value stream
(D) Identify specific work practices within the value stream

Q199. When an inspection process rejects conforming product, what type of error is being made?
(A) α (B) β
(C) σ (D) H0

Q200. The critical path for a project is best described as the

(A) sequence of steps with the highest costs
(B) tasks in the project that have the highest risk of failure
(C) sum of the tasks with the shortest time requirements
(D) longest path from the start to the completion of the project

Q201. Statistical process control (SPC) is best defined as the use of:
(A) Pareto charts to understand and control a process
(B) inputs to control critical and complex processes
(C) statistical methods to identify and remove manufacturing errors
(D) statistical methods to understand and control a process

Q202. A measurement system analysis is designed to assess the statistical properties of:
(A) gage variation (B) process performance
(C) process stability (D) engineering tolerances

Q203. A shoe manufacturing firm learned through a Lean Six Sigma project their boot soles could be made of
a different material requiring two less steps in the process. Removal of these two steps yielded a monthly cost
savings of $7,500. Therefore the reported financial savings for this LSS project were _____________.
A) $45,000 B) $75,000
C) $90,000 D) $120,000
Q204. A Belt utilized a diamond symbol in a Process Map she created for the process that was subject to her
LSS project. By use of the diamond symbol she was showing a(n) _______________ point in the process.
A) Ending B) Beginning
C) Decision D) Repair station

Q205. When in the process of trying to identify the Critical X's for a LSS project a Belt creates a(n)
_____________ because frequently it is 20% of the inputs that have an 80% impact on the output.
A) Pareto Chart B) FMEA
C) Np Chart D) X-Y Diagram

Q206. When a Belt is developing a Macro Process Map to define a complex process he will frequently include
activities across various department to capture all the appropriate activity. He will use _____________ to
show which department is responsible for which steps in the process.
A) Subscripts B) Superscripts
C) Swim Lanes D) Fence Posts

Q207. As we calibrate our Measurement System to assure accurate data we frequently encounter Bias which
is the __________________ of a measured value from the ________________ value.
A) Spread, Mean of the population B) Deviation, hoped for
C) Deviation, true D) Spread, idea

Q208. In an "X" Sifting exercises a Belt will use a(n) _______________ to assist in isolating families of variation
that may exist within a subgroup, between subgroups or vary over time..
A) Multi-Vari Chart B) Pareto Chart
C) FMEA D) Shewhart Analysis

Q209. When analyzing sample data a Belt may experience a Bimodal Distribution with each mode displaying
Normal Distribution. This could be caused by __________________________ .
A) Two different machines being read
B) Two operators on different shifts
C) Two suppliers parts being used
D) All these are correct answers

Q210. A battery manufacturer was considering changing suppliers for a particular part. The purchasing
manager required that the average cost of the part be less than or equal to $32 in order to stay within budget.
A sample of the 32 initial deliveries had a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $28 with an estimated
Standard Deviation of $3. Based on the data provided, the Z value for the data assuming a Normal Distribution
is?
A) 0.67 B) 1.33
C) 2.67 D) 4.33

Q211. When doing a graphical analysis of DOE results a Belt frequently uses the Main Effects Plot. To
determine the relative impact of a variety of inputs on the output of interest it is easy to identify the most
impactful input because the slope of the line on the Main Effects Plot is __________________.
A) The steepest B) Negatively correlated
C) Positively correlated D) The shallowest

Q212. A ____________________ is used to create a model of the affect on an output by the variation in two
or more of the inputs.
A) Correlation Coefficient B) Linear Regression
C) Multiple Regression D) X-Y Diagram
Q213. In the Control Phase of a LSS project a Belt will identify key metrics that can be monitored and analyzed
to give an indication that a process may be moving towards an out of spec condition. When he applies this
approach he is using __________________.
A) Poisson Derivatives B) Inferential Statistics
C) Kanban Analysis D) Statistical Process Control

Q214. As a Belt completes a LSS project she creates for the Process Owner a Control Plan. The
________________ portion of the Control Plan details the actions to be taken when the KPI's indicate they
may be moving outside acceptable limits.
A) Visual Factory B) Response Plan
C) Readjustment Plan D) Variance Tracking

Q215. In measurement system analysis, which of the following pairs of data measures is used to determine
total variance?
(A) Process variance and reproducibility
(B) Noise system and repeatability
(C) Measurement variance and process variance
(D) System variance and bia

Q216. A bar chart that depicts the frequencies of numerical or measurement data.
A) Sample B) Histogram
C) Check Sheet D) Process Map
Q217. A systematic group of activities intended to recognize and evaluate the potential failure of a
product/process and the effects of that failure.
A) Six Sigma B) Design of Experiments
C) Benchmarking D) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis

Q218. Inputs to a process that can be manipulated during experimentation.

A) Factors B) Hypothesis Testing
C) Control Plan D) Population

Q219. The probability of accepting the alternative hypothesis (H1) when the null hypothesis (Ho) is true.
A) Beta Risk B) Alpha Risk
C) Attribute Data C) Random Experiment

Q220. An advanced flowcharting method, identifying the process input variables "x" and the relationship to
the process output variables "y".
A) Statistical Process Control B) Pareto Chart
C) Scatter Diagram D) Process Map

Q221. An improvement process in which a company measures its performance against that of best-in-class
companies, determines how those companies achieved their performance levels, and uses the information to
improve its own performance.
A) Control Chart B) Six Sigma
C) Benchmarking D) Cause and Effect Diagram

Q222. A procedure whereby one or two mutually exclusive and exhaustive statements about a population is
concluded. Information from a sample is used to infer something about a population from which the sample
was drawn.
A) Hypothesis Testing B) Design of Experiment
C) Beta Risk D) Benchmarking
Q223. A graphical tool for ranking causes from most significant to least significant.
A) Check Sheet B) Cause and Effect Diagram
C) Scatter Diagram D) Pareto Chart

Q224. The probability of accepting the null hypothesis (Ho) when the alternative (H1) is true.
A) Elementary Outcomes B) Beta Risk
C) Attribute Data D) Alpha Risk

Q225. For a set of data, the average squared deviation from the mean, with a denominator of n-1.
A) Sample Variance B) Normal Distribution
C) Sample D) Population

Q226. Provides relationship between two variables, and provides a visual correlation coefficient.
A) Control Chart B) Pareto Chart
C) Scatter Diagram D) Statistical Process Control

Q227. A definition of the possible outcomes of interest from a given experiment.

A) Hypothesis Testing B) Normal Distribution
C) Elementary Outcomes D) Random Variable

Q228. The number of units in a sample.

A) Population B) Mode
C) Mean D) Sample Size

Q229. A document that describes the required characteristics for the quality of a product or service, including
measures and control methods.
A) Statistical Control Process B) Control Plan
C) Six Sigma D) Confidence Interval

Q230. The charting of a data set in which most of the data points are concentrated around the average
(mean), thus forming a bell-shaped curve.
A) Pareto Chart B) Normal Distribution
C) Standard deviation C) Scatter Diagram

Q231. A methodology that provides businesses with the tools to improve the capability of their business
processes.
A) Design of Experiments B) Benchmarking
C) Six Sigma D) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis

Q232. A branch of applied statistics dealing with planning, conducting, analyzing, and interpreting controlled
tests to evaluate the factors that control the value of a parameter or group of parameters.
A) Random Experiment B) Probability
C) Six Sigma D) Design of Experiments

Q233. Range which a parameter that a population may be expected to fall, on the basis of measurement, with
some specific confidence level or confidence coefficient.
A) Confidence Interval B) Factors
C) Control Plan D) Normal Distribution

Q234. Possible results of a random experiment.

A) Standard Deviation B) Elementary Outcomes
C) Discrete Data D) Sample Size
Q235. The measure of the likelihood of a given event occurring.
A) Risk B) Hypothesis Test
C) Cause and Effect Diagram D) Probability

Q236. A set or collection of objects or individuals. It can be the corresponding set of values that measure a
certain characteristic of a set of objects or individuals.
A) Population B) Alpha Risk C) Median D) Factors

Q237. A simple data recording device, custom designed by the user, which allows them to interpret the
results.
A) Histogram B) Scatter diagram C) Check Sheet D) Pareto Chart

Q238. Basic tool of statistical process control. It consists of a run chart, together with statistically determined
upper and lower control limits and a centerline.
A) Control Chart B) Confidence Interval
C) Statistical Control Process D) Control Plan

Q239. A pictorial diagram showing possible causes (process inputs) for a given effect (process outputs). It is
also referred to as the "Ishikawa diagram" or "fishbone diagram."
A) Standard Deviation B) Cause and Effect Diagram
C) Random Experiment D) Scatter Diagram

Q240. The chance of making a right or wrong conclusion.

A) Risk B) Beta Risk
C) Alpha Risk D) Mode

Q241. Arithmetic average of a set of values.

A) Median B) Sample
C) Mode D) Mean

Q242. A set of values or items selected from some population.

A) Factors B) Alpha Risk
C) Sample C) Sample Size

Q243. The middle value of a data set when the values are arranged in either ascending or descending order.
A) Median B) Mode
C) Mean C) Discrete Data

Q244. The use of basic graphical and statistical methods for analyzing and controlling the variation of a
process, and thus continuously improving the process.
A) Confidence Interval B) Statistical Process Control
C) Design of Experiments D) Control Plan

Q245. Countable observations, for example, number of defects.

A) Sample Size B) Attribute Data
C) Discrete Data D) Variable Data

Q246. The value occurring most frequently in a data set.

A) Mean B) Mode
C) Variable Data C) Risk

Q247. One of the most common measures of variability in a data set or population.
A) Normal Distribution B) Alpha Risk
C) Mean D) Standard Deviation
Q278. Data coming basically from GO/NO-GO, pass/fail determinations of whether units conform to
standards.
A) Attribute Data B) Discrete Data
C) Variable Data C) Sample Size

Q249. Concerning the values of a variable, as opposed to attribute data. A dimensional value can be recorded
and is only limited in value by the resolution of the measurement system.
A) Factors B) Elementary Outcomes
C) Variable Data D) Normal Distribution