Professional Documents
Culture Documents
QUESTION TWO
(a) In lateral earth pressure, draw the active and passive pressure distribution
diagrams and indicate the locations of the active and passive pressures on
the distributions diagrams. [8 marks]
(b) The backfill behind a retaining wall above the water table consists of a
sand of unit weight 17KN/m3 having shear strength parameter C’=0 and φ
=370. The height of the wall is 6m and the surface of the backfill is
horizontal. Derive the equation for the total passive resistance from passive
pressure expression according to Rankine’s theory and determine its value
and determine the depth it acts from the top of the wall. [8 marks]
(c) Define a raft foundation where applicable and the structural damage it
minimizes. [4 marks]
QUESTION THREE
(a) Explain the following types of settlements
(a) Elastic settlements [2 marks]
(b) Consolidation settlement [2 marks]
(c) Secondary settlement [2 marks]
(b) A serial of plate load tests were conducted on three plates 300mm, 450mm
and 600mm square plaets. The loads and corresponding settlements in the
linear portions of load-deflection curves are shown in the table below. Find
the immediate settlement of a 2m square footing subjected to a load of
1000KN. [14 marks]
QUESTION FOUR
(a) Using illustrations, explain how a braced excavations works as an earth
retaining structure [6 marks]
(b) State the purpose of sub-surface exploration [6 marks]
(c) In the general Terzaghi equation for ultimate bearing capacity, define the
three terms contributing to the ultimate bearing capacity of a strip
footing. [6 marks]
(d) Differentiate between sharing and underpinning [2 marks]
QUESTION FIVE
(a) Define the term dewatering and state five objectives of dewatering.
[6 marks]
(b) Explain with illustrations how a multistage well-point system works in
dewatering the ground to enable excavations. [14 marks]
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY OF AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2014/2015
YEAR IV SEMESTER I EXAMINATION FOR THE BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN
CIVIL ENGINEERING
b) Describe with the aid of a sketch the working principles of tipping bucket rain gauge and
state its advantages and disadvantages. [8 marks]
c) The cumulative rainfall depth with time during a storm as obtained from a recording rain
gauge at a station is given below.
i. Construct the hyetograph of this storm using uniform time interval of 30 minutes.
ii. Compute the maximum rainfall intensities for durations of 30 minutes, 1 hour, 2 hours, 3
hours and 5 hours in this storm.
iii. Plot the intensity duration graph. [13 marks]
1
d) Explain the conditions required for evaporation to occur. [2 marks]
a) Discuss the factors considered when selecting a rain gauge site. [3 marks]
b) The annual rainfalls in cm at station for a period of 15 years form 1990 to 2004 are
97,125,103,81,101,119,103,79,102,118,98,83,105,123 and 100.
c) With the information given in the table, calculate the mean rainfall over the area.
[5 marks]
a) Describe four meteorological and two physical factors affecting evaporation. [6 marks]
b) A reservoir has an area of 60 km2 over a year. Normal precipitation is 130 cm and
evaporation from class A pan is 230 cm. assuming the land flooded by the reservoir has a
run off coefficient 0.3, estimate the net annual increase or decrease in the stream flow as
a result of the reservoir.
[4 marks]
d) The average water spread areas that are likely to be maintained during the operation of a
reservoir after its completion and observed monthly pan evaporation at a proposed
reservoir site are given below:
2
March 545 25.4
April 527 30.0
May 511 27.5
June 500 16.3
July 522 13.6
August 558 12.1
September 608 12.1
October 660 13.5
November 709 10.7
December 740 8.0
i. Compute the annual evaporation loss from the reservoir in cubic meters.
ii. If 80 per cent of this loss can be prevented and the water thus saved is utilized to
irrigate a crop with a requirement of 60 cm of water, how much area can be
irrigated.
b) Describe traces technique method based on continuity principle for measuring stream
flow. [4 marks]
c) The current meter observations taken during a stream gauging of a stream are given
below:
Distance from Depth of flow Meter depth (m) No. of Time in seconds
bank (m) (m) revolutions
0.8 0.5 0.30 12 48
1.6 1.0 0.80 23 52
0.20 36 51
2.4 1.6 1.28 27 54
0.32 41 60
3.0 2.0 1.60 33 58
0.40 45 62
3.6 2.0 1.60 32 58
0.44 44 60
4.2 1.8 1.44 28 53
0.36 42 58
5.0 1.2 0.96 24 50
0.24 35 50
5.8 0.6 0.36 14 45
6.6 0.0
3
Take the current meter rating as v=0.05+0.3 N, where v is in m/s and N is in revolutions
per seconds.
4
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY OF AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2012/2013
FIRST SEMESTER EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN
CIVIL ENGINEERING
ECE 2402: HYDROLOGY I
DATE: AUGUST 2012 TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
QUESTION ONE
a. If a dam is built at the catchment outfall and a statutory minimum discharge of 0.1m3/s is
maintained throughout the year in the river downstream, assess the water available for supply
per year in m3 (assume the drainage basin is water tight and there is a total evaporation loss of
400mm per year and rainfall measurements within the basin is as shown in table 1) (8 marks]
Table 1
b. A storm during a dry weather flow has initial rainfall intensities of 8, 12, 40, 38, 30, 26, 28 ,5, 16,
32, 36, 24, 14 and 4mm/hr at half-hour interval if the initial abstraction in 10cm. determine, the
run-off volume of the basin which has a drainage area of 600km2 and φ -index is 20mm/hr.
[6 marks]
b. The data in table 2 was collected for a stream at a gauging station. Compute the discharge using
mid-section method. Take the rating equation for the current meter as V = 0.3N + 0.05 where
c. Show that the direct run-off by the soil conservation method is given by
( p − 0.25) 2
Q
p + 0.85
with the usual notation. [6 marks]
QUESTION THREE
a. A storm commenced at 7.00hrs. The ordinates of the rainfall mass curve of the storm in mm as
recorded by a recording gauge at 15 minutes interval are;
0, 9.5, 17.0, 27.0, 40.5, 49.0, 63.0, 84.0, 95.0, 102.0, 110.0, 112.0 and 112.0
Compute the maximum rainfall intensities for durations of 15, 30, 45, 60, 90, 120 and 180
minutes. [14 marks]
b. i. Compute the daily evaporation from class A pan if the amounts of water
added/removed to bring the level of the fixed points are as shown in table 3.
Table 3
Day 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Rainfall (mm) 14 6 12 8 0 5 6
Water added /removed (mm) -5 3 0 0 7 4 3
ii. Determine evaporation loss of water in this week from a lake (surface area = 640 ha) in
the vicinity, assuming a pan coefficient of 0.75. [6 marks]
QUESTION FOUR
a. Using the combination method, calculate the evaporation rate in mm/day from an open is
185w/m2, air temperature is 28.50C, relative humidity is 55 percent and wind speed is 2.7m/s at
a height of 2m. Assume a roughness height of Z 0 = 0.03cm, p ω of water at 28.50c is 996.3kg/m3
and y = 66.8 pa/0c. [15 marks]
b. Describe a double mass curve and its importance in rainfall analysis. [5 marks]
QUESTION FIVE
i. Porosity
c. i. State the assumptions in the analysis of steady radial flow to a well. [3 marks]
ii. A 60cm diameter well is being pumped at a rate of 1360 litres per minute.
Measurements in a nearby test well were made at the same time as follows;
A distance of 6m from the well being pumped the drawdown was 6m and at a distance
of 15m the drawdown 1.5m. The bottom of the well is 90m below the ground water
table. Find the coefficient of permeability. [6 marks]
ECE 2402
W1-2-60-1-6
INSTRUCTIONS:
- Precipitation.
- Evaporation.
- Infiltration.
(b) Define the following terms as applied in hydrology and explain the
significance in water resources planning: [6 marks]
1
ECE 2402
(c) With the aid of suitable sketches, distinguish between influent and
efficient streams. [5 marks]
(c) Briefly explain the double mass curve method of checking the
consistency of rainfall data. [8 marks]
Table 1
Velocity (mls)
Distance from bank (m) Depth (m) At 0.2d At 0.8d
0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0
1.5 1.3 0.6 0.4
3.0 2.5 0.9 0.6
4.5 1.7 0.7 0.5
6.0 1.0 0.6 0.4
7.5 0.4 0.4 0.3
9.0 0.0 0.0 0.0
[8 marks]
2
ECE 2402
- Wind.
- Relative humidity.
- Water quality.
- Transmissivity.
- Co-efficient of storage.
- Aquitard.
[3 marks]
3
ECE 2402
4
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
OF
AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2014/2015
INSTRUCTIONS:
QUESTION ONE
1
Table Q1: Conversion factors in pcu for different vehicle types
in various terrain:
h) Explain the terms “headway” and “spacing”. How do they relate to flow
and concentration? [3 marks]
QUESTION TWO
Two of the urban traffic management and control measures are the use of
one-way streets and the use of traffic signals.
b) Describe THREE main co-ordination systems of traffic actuated signals. [10 marks]
QUESTION THREE
a) Explain the derivation of the formulae for the flow (q) and mean time ( t )
and speed (u) for traffic stream obtained using the moving vehicle method. [5 marks]
2
Table Q3: Moving Vehicle test data
QUESTION FOUR
After 20 minutes the arrival flow rate declines to 120 veh/h, and it
continues at that level for the remainder of the day. If the time
required to distribute the brochure is 15 seconds, and assuming a D/D/1
queuing and FIFO, describe the operational characteristics of the
queue, namely: when the queue started; when the queue dissipated;
the longest delay; the position of the vehicle encountering the longest
delay; the longest vehicle queue; the time of occurrence of the longest
vehicle queue; and the total vehicle delay for the system.
3
QUESTION FIVE
4
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
OF
AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
INSTRUCTIONS:
Question One
b) i. Discuss ITS as a traffic control technology while explaining its roles and
implementation obstacles. [4 marks]
d) Define traffic speed and describe the various types of traffic speed. [3 marks]
e) Students divided themselves into THREE groups for a highway capacity study practical.
Group A observed the following types of vehicles on a level terrain and recorded their
numbers:
1
HGV = 178; MC = 89; AND PEC = 30. Group B observed the following on a rolling
terrain: LGV = 167. Group C observed the following on a mountainous terrain:
PC=109; MGV = 11; and B = 105. Using Table Q1, determine the capacity of the
highway at the section on a rolling terrain where all these vehicle types traverse (in pcu).
[5 marks]
Table Q1: Conversion factors in PCU for different vehicle types in various terrain.
f) Derive the relationship between the THREE key parameters of traffic stream flow.
[3 marks]
g) Explain the ‘delay’ concept and show how it is related/linked queuing. With the aid of
suitable diagram(s), explain the concept of a queuing system. [3 marks]
h) Explain the terms ‘headway’ and ‘spacing.’ How do they relate to flow and
concentration? [3 marks]
Question Two
Two of the urban traffic management and control measures are the use of one-way streets and the
use of traffic signals.
a) Explain FOUR improvements achieved by the use of one-way streets and FOUR
disadvantages of the system. [8 marks]
b) Describe THREE main coordination systems of traffic actuated signals. [10 marks]
Question Three
a) Explain the derivation of the formulae for the flow (q) and mean time ( t ) and speed (u)
for traffic stream obtained using the moving vehicle method. [5 marks]
2
b) Speed and delay studies by moving vehicle method were conducted on a 10km stretch of
Nairobi City’s by-pass road running North-South. Determine the average journey and
running speeds for the traffic stream along each direction given the data in Table Q3 (to 3
d.p. and giving time in minutes and speeds in Km/hr). [15 marks]
Question Four
a) Clearly distinguish the terms “uninterrupted” and “interrupted” flows as they are used in
traffic engineering. [3 marks]
ii. Vehicles arrive at an entrance to Nairobi National Park. There is a single gate (at
which all vehicles must stop), where a park attendant distributes a free brochure.
The park opens at 8.00 am; at which time vehicles begin to arrive at a rate of
480veh/h. After 20 minutes the arrival flow rate declines to 120 veh/h, and it
continues at that level for the remainder of the day. If the time required to
distribute the brochure is 15 seconds, and assuming a D/D/1 queuing and FIFO,
describe the operational characteristics of the queue, namely: When the queue
started; when the queue dissipated; the longest delay; the position of the vehicle
encountering the longest delay; the longest vehicle queue; the time of occurrence
of the longest vehicle queue; and the total vehicle delay for the system. You may
use graphical method to determine the characteristics. [9 marks]
c) Vehicle time headway and spacings were measured at a point along a highway, from a
single-lane, over the course of an hour. The average values were calculated as 2.5
seconds /vehicle for headway and 61m/vehicle for spacing. Calculate the average speed
of the traffic (km/hr). [4 marks]
3
Question Five
The City Council of Nairobi (CCN) requires assistance to improve safety and traffic flow and
road-use efficiency on Ngong Road, and have therefore invited you as a traffic engineering
consultant. Prepare a suitable and practical programme to reduce congestion between Dagoretti
corner (Naivasha Road-Ngong Road) roundabout and Uhuru highway – Haile-Se-Lessie
roundabout on Ngong Road, both in the morning and evening. [20 marks]
4
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY OF AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2014/2015
YEAR IV EXAMINATION FOR THE BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN CIVIL,
CONSTRUCTION ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
INSTRUCTIONS: Answer any THREE of the following five questions. All questions
carry 20 marks each
Question One
a) Outline the main situations which justify the construction of the costly grade-separated
intersections (fly-over). [2 marks]
b) State the factors which control the geometric design elements of a road and list the
benefits accruing from proper geometric design. [3 marks]
c) Explain the two conditions which vertical curves should fulfill when properly designed
and outline three situations where climbing (creeper) lanes are required. [5 marks]
d) Outline the three methods which may be used to achieve maximum safety and minimum
delay to vehicles in at-grade intersections and with aid of sketches, show the following
vehicle movements at such intersections:
i. Merging
ii. Diverging
iii. Compound crossing and merging [10 marks]
Question Two
a) Define speed and state the factors which generally influence speed of vehicles on the
road. [5 marks]
b) With aid of a sketch, explain the term “headway” and how it affects the stopping and
passing sight distance.[7 marks]
1
c) Outline the reasons for widening horizontal curves and state the factors considered when
widening the curves. [8 marks]
Question Three
a) Describe the level of service (LOS) as it concerns the traffic movements. [8 marks]
b) With the aid of sketches, explain how the superelevation is developed from a normal
camber to a full superelevation at the centre of the circular curve. [12 marks]
Question Four
b) Outline the five factors related to the roads as a physical feature in the environment to be
considered in the location and design of a road project. [7 marks]
i. Lane separation
ii. Acceleration lane
iii. Deceleration lane [7 marks]
Question Five
a) Name the five design features which convey to the road uses the function of a
road/highway. [3 marks]
b) Define a transition curve and explain its purposes in horizontal curves. [4 marks]
c) Name eight control conditions which are used to determine the geometric design features
of a road. [6 marks]
d) Traffic capacity may be reduced by several physical features. List five of these features
and define each of the following terms. [7 marks]
i. Practical capacity
ii. Road capacity
iii. Maximum capacity
iv. Economic capacity
2
ECE 2404
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
OF
AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
University Examinations 2015/2016
QUESTION ONE
(b) Name four design features which convey to the road user the function of a road.
[4 marks]
(c) List two projections which define the three dimension geometric form of a road and
explain four elements which define the horizontal alignment. [6 marks]
(d) Describe four benefits that are considered when assessing the viability of a road
project. [4 marks]
(e) Explain the controls/criteria which are considered in determining each of the
following design elements: [8 marks]
(i) The horizontal curve.
(ii) The cross section.
(iii) The vertical curve.
(iv) The super elevation.
(f) Explain four purposes for provision of traffic islands in the design of a road junction.
[6 marks]
1
ECE 2404
QUESTION TWO
(a) Give two reasons why a straight is the most cost effective but not always desirable.
[2 marks]
(c) Calculate the minimum length of a transition curve to satisfy centrifugal force given
the following: [6 marks]
(d) Co-ordination between horizontal and vertical curves is necessary. Discuss why and
name two measures used to achieve this co-ordination. [6 marks]
QUESTION THREE
(a) Explain how you ensure that at-grade junction is maneuverable. [4 marks]
(b) Explain with a sketch how super elevation is developed on a single carriageway from
normal camber to full super elevation of say 6% from straight to curve.
[6 marks]
(c) Define and illustrate the meaning of a visibility splay at a junction. [4 marks]
(d) Calculate the minimum horizontal curve given the following: [6 marks]
QUESTION FOUR
(a) Name two types of a kerb and draw sketches to explain them. [4 marks]
(b) Explain the meaning of acceleration and deceleration lanes and sketch their layout
on a single carriageway. [4 marks]
(c) Operations comfort and safety are basic design requirements of an at-grade junction.
Discuss three guide lines which are used to achieve this. [6 marks]
(d) Define a traffic island and name four purposes of a traffic island. [6 marks]
2
ECE 2404
QUESTION FIVE
(b) Detail five specific measures that should be provided at the junction to achieve and
enhance safety. [5 marks]
(c) What are the three design features that affect the calculation of Guard Rail Need
Index (GNI)? [3 marks]
(d) Describe four design features which make at-grade junction perceptible.
[4 marks]
3
ECE 2404
W1-2-60-1-6
INSTRUCTIONS:
(a) Explain how the following features affect the geometric design of a
road: [8 marks]
(i) Topography.
(ii) Design speed.
(iii) Design vehicle.
(iv) Traffic volume.
1
ECE 2404
(c) Name four design features which convey to the road user the
function of a road. [4 marks]
(d) Explain two reasons why the straight is not always desirable
although the most cost effective. [4 marks]
(a) List the two projections which define the three dimensional
geometric form of a road. [2 marks]
Radius of 400m
Clothoid parameter of 200. [8 marks]
(a) Illustrate with sketches and describe three basic traffic maneuvers
at a junction. [6 marks]
(b) Explain four factors that are taken into account when designing at
grade junctions. [6 marks]
2
ECE 2404
(a) Explain why the horizontal and the vertical alignment have to be
coordinated and state two measures which are undertaken to
achieve the coordination of the two. [6 marks]
(b) Calculate the minimum horizontal curve radius given the following:
(c) Describe the four design features that make at grade junction
perceptible and three ways of making the junction maneuverable.
[7 marks]
(d) What are the three design features that affect the calculation of
Guard Rail Need Index? [3 marks]
3
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY OF AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2014/2015
EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN CIVIL
ENGINEERING
QUESTION THREE
(a) Explain how management of the depth of water table can be used in
minimizing accumulation of soluble salts on the surface of the soil.
[3 marks]
(b) Describe the main reason why reaching of an alkali soil is easier with
salty water than with pure water. [6 marks]
(c) Determine the depth of irrigation water which would change 30cm depth of
loam soil into saline condition, if the Ec of irrigation water is 1 million
mhoj/cm. The bubble density of soil is 1.2gm/cm3 and the density of water
is 3gm/cm3. The saturation percentage of the soil is 40% [5 mark]
(d) Estimate the leaching requirements when the Ec of the saturation extract of
the soil is 11mmhos/cm at 25% reduction in the yield of cotton. The Ec of
irrigation water is 1.5 mmhos/cm. In the most cases Ecd is assumed to be
approximately twice as high as corresponding Ece . [6 marks]
QUESTION FOUR
QUESTION FIVE
(a) Determine the irrigation schedule for a crop based on a total growing
period. [18 marks]
Field data:
Crop -------------------ground nuts – medium rooting
Soil ------------loam
Field Appl. Efficiency - 60%
Total growing period 130 days
Planting date --- 15 July
Field data:
. Soil : loamy soil
. Irrigation method: Farrow irrigation
. Field water application efficiency : 60%
. Planting water need per month : Table Q1[e]i
Table Q1
Month
July August September October November
QUESTION TWO
(a) Irrigation water can be supplied from rivers, reservoirs, lakes or ground
water. Discuss irrigation water management with respect to the following
two factors. [12 marks]
(i) Tapping of water from the river(s)
(ii) Availability of river flow
(b) Estimate, using the approximate method, the scheme irrigation
need [SIN opt] for the following scheme.
(a) Given the following meteorological data for the months of January and
October respectively for a location in South Rift Valley.
January October
Epan = 148mm Epan = 148
Relative humidity (RH) mean =77% Relative humidity (Rit)
mean=54%
Wind speed = 1.42m/sec Wind speed = 201 m/se
Class A Pan used is screened and located in a green area surrounded by short
irrigated field crops throughout the year, extending at least 100m around the
Pan - see attached. Table Q3(a)
Determine the reference crop evaporation (ET0) values for the two months.
[10 marks]
(b) Determine the critical command area for a crop of beans given the
following information.
- Growing period of beans is September, October , October and November
- Net irrigation Need [I Nnet] is 6mm, 5mm and 4mm per day
respectively.
- Irrigation efficiency is 50%
- Scheme water supply: September : 250 liters /sec
- Scheme water supply: October : 230 liters /sec
- Scheme water supply : November : 200 liters /sec. [10 marks]
QUESTION FOUR
Determine the crop water need of maize crop given the following data
Table Q4
Month Jan Feb March April May June July
ETo 4.0 5.0 5.8 6.3 6.8 7.1 6.5
mm/day
Table Q5(I)
Potential Erapotranspiration [ETo] in the location ;
Table Q5 (II)
Effective rainfall (Pe) in the location
Month Jan Feb March April May June July Aug. Sep Oct Nov Dec
Pe 1 3 7 10 12 13 72 82 16 7 1 0
mm/month
[20 marks]
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY OF AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2013/2014
1(a) Discuss how irrigation development can contribute to the achievement of Kenya Vision
2030 and the Millenuim Development Goals (MDGs) through its sustainable benefits.
[10 marks]
(b) Explain measures for increasing effective precipitation in order to improve irrigation
water productivity. [8 marks]
(c) Define the following terms as used in irrigation.
(i) Field Capacity (FC) [12 marks]
(ii) Permanent Wilting point (PWP)
(iii) Readily Available Water (RAW)
(iv) Management Allowable Depletion (MAD)
1
5 3 15
6 8.9 0
7 10.2 0
8 7.9 0
9 5.8 0
10 4.6 0
Determine:
(i) When irrigation is/are required during the 10 day period. [4 marks]
(iii) Depth of water remaining in the soil at the end of the 10 day period. [4 marks]
(iv) The volume of water that must be diverted from the river system. [4 marks]
(v) Discuss why ETC is varying for each of the day. [4 marks]
(a) Describe THREE methods of determining crop water requirements for irrigation planning
and design. Illustrate your answers using appropriate mathematical formulation.
[10 marks]
QUESTION FOUR
Discuss FIVE soil parameters and the suitability ranges for main crops in typical climate.
[20 marks]
QUESTION FIVE
(a) Discuss the pros and cons of the different sources of water for irrigation [6 marks]
(b) A 12 hectare field is to be irrigated with a sprinkler irrigation system with an efficiency
of 70%. The moisture content at field capacity of the clay loam soil is 28% by weight
and while that at permanent wilting point is 14% by weight. The root depth is 1m and the
bulk density is 1.2 g/cm3. Soil depletion factor is 50%, Peak ET = 7.5 mm/day.
Determine:
(i) Net and gross depth of irrigation. [4 marks]
(ii) The irrigation interval [3 marks]
(iii) The optimal area to be irrigated per day [3 marks]
(iv) If the system is to run 10 hours per day; what is the system capacity? [4 marks]
2
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY OF AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2012/2013
FIRST SEMESTER EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN
CIVIL ENGINEERING
ECE 2406: FOUNDATION ENGINEERING 1
DATE: AUGUST 2012 TIME: 2 HOURS
QUESTION ONE
b. A retaining well with a smooth vertical back has to retain a backfill of cohesionless soil up to a
height of 5m above ground level. The soil has a void ratio of 0.83 and the specific gravity of soil
solids is 2.68. The water table is located at a depth of 2m below the top of the backfill. The soil
above the water table is 20% saturated. The angle of internal friction 20% saturated. The angle
of internal friction of soil above and below the water table is 320 and 280 respectively. Plot the
distribution of active earth pressure on the wall and determine the magnitude and point of
application of the resultant thrust.
[14 marks]
QUESTION TWO
c. A 2.5 metre wide strip footing is founded at a depth of 1.8m below the ground level in a
homogeneous bed of a dense sand having the following properties;
φ = 37 0 , γ = 1.85t / m 3
Determine the ultimate, net ultimate net safe and safe bearing capacity of the footing; Given,
for φ = 37 0 Nc = 61, Nq = 43 N γ = 48
QUESTION THREE
a. Mention at least six reasons why it is necessary to carry out site investigations. [3 marks]
b. Explain why the following types of site investigation surveys are necessary;
d. Explain in detail the standard penetration test, citing the two type of corrections necessary for
the results attained from this test. [9 marks]
QUESTION FOUR
given: G = 2.7 and for 400 slope values of stability number of different values of φ
φ N
60 0.122
70 0.116
QUESTION FIVE
b. A 2 metre thick clay layer lies between two permeable layers. The clay has the following
properties,
The initial effective overburden pressure at the middle of the clay layer is 2kg/cm2, and is likely
to increase to 4kg/cm2 due to the construction of a new building.
Determine
i. Final void ratio of clay
ii. Settlement of the proposed building
iii. Time required for 50% consolidation [14 marks]
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY OF AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2014/2015
EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN CIVIL
ENGINEERING
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
OF
AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
1
ECE 2407
(a) Explain the three central concepts of limit state design and state the limit states.
[10 marks]
(b) Using suitable sketches, explain the difference between the simple and rigid methods
of design of steel framed structures. [4 marks]
(c) Explain the difference between steel sections of class 1 and 2. [3 marks]
(d) State the matters that are taken account of by the overall load factor in limit state
design. [3 marks]
(a) A column of length 5.0m is loaded concentrically with 1200kN dead load and 1000kN
imposed load. The column is fixed at the top and bottom giving it effective rotational
restraints at both ends. Assuming the column is an internal one in a rigid jointed
and braced steel structure with no sway, check the suitability of steel section size
305 x 305 x 118kg/m UC to carry the loads. [14 marks]
(b) State the conditions to be met for the design of steel sections enclosed in concrete to
BS 5950. [6 marks]
(a) An angle section of nominal size 80 x 60 x 7kg/m is subjected to 70kN dead load and
40kN imposed load, both in tension.
(i) With bolted connection in one leg. Assume 1 No. 20mm dia. bolt.
[10 marks]
2
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
OF
AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2014/2015
EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE
INSTRUCTIONS:
a) With clear illustrations, discuss the three fundamental relationships necessary for
analysis of structures. (9marks)
b) The structure shown in Figure Q1(b) consists of three springs and supported at
nodes A and D. If axial loads of 4KN and 18KN are applied at nodes B and C
respectively. Determine the displacement at nodes B and C and the reactions at A
and D (13marks)
c) A simple plane truss is made of two identical bars (with E, A and L) and loaded as
shown in Figure Q1(c), Find;
i) Displacement of node 2 (4marks)
ii) Stress in each bar (4marks)
1|Page
QUESTION TWO (20 MARKS)
Analyze the continuous beam shown in Figure Q2 using the matrix method. Assume that
the support are unyielding and that EI is constant for all members. (20marks)
a) Discuss any four classes of framed structures that may be utilized in construction.
(8marks)
b) Find the stresses in the two bar assembly which is loaded with force P, and
constrained at the two ends as shown in Figure Q3 (b) (12marks)
2|Page
QUESTION FOUR (20 MARKS)
a) With clear illustrations, compare and contrast the following structural analysis
methods:
b) For the spring system shown in Figure Q4(b), find the global stiffness matrix.
(12marks)
Analyze the truss shown in Figure Q5 and evaluate the reactions at the supports.
Assume EA to be constant for all the members. (20marks)
3|Page
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
OF
AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2013/2014
YEAR SEMESTER 1 EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN
INSTRUCTIONS:
a) With clear illustrations compare and contrast the following structural analysis methods
i. Classical versus matrix methods (4mks)
ii. Matrix versus finite element methods (3mks)
b) The spring system shown in Figure Q1(b) has the following properties, k 1 =100N/mm,
k 2 =200N/mm, k 3 =100N/mm, P=500N, u 1 =u 4 -0. Find:
i. The global stiffness matrix for the spring system (4mks)
ii. Displacements of nodes 2 and 3 (4mks)
iii. The reaction forces at nodes 1 and 4 (2mks)
iv. The force in the spring 2 (3mks)
c) A simple plane truss is made of two identical bars (with E, A and L), and loaded as shown
in Figure Q1(c) Find:
i. Displacement of node 2 (5mks)
ii. Stress in each bar (5mks)
QUESTION TWO (20 MARKS)
a) Discuss any four classes of framed structures that may be utilized in construction.(8mks)
b) Write the local stiffness matrix for the members of beams and use the matrix to
determine the stiffness matrices for the beam shown in Figure Q2(b) (12mks)
The plane pin-jointed truss shown in Figure Q3 is composed of uniform section members, with
the same material properties. If the truss is subjected to load as shown, determine the
displacements at node 2 and the forces in the members of the truss using the matrix method
analysis.
QUESTION FOUR
b) Determine the nodal displacements for the uniform section beam shown in Figure
Q4(b), which can be assumed to be fully fixed at its ends. (11mks)
Using matrix displacement method, determine the nodal bending moments for the rigid-
jointed plane frame shown in Figure Q5. E and I are constant for the whole frame
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
OF
AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
Question One
e) Define the term renewable water resources. Describe the Kenyan renewable water
resources status in 2010. [5 marks]
f) After how many days would an irrigation engineer supply water to the soil in order to
ensure sufficient irrigation of the given crop?
1
Assume that management allowable depletion (MAD) is 0.8. [6 marks]
Question Two
Explain the relationship between the soil-water storage and movement when dry soil is
irrigated until the development of run off. [10 marks]
b) Describe five physical factors affecting selection of farm irrigation system, identify their
respective impacts on irrigation system. [10 marks]
Question Three
• Soil alkalinity
• Soil acidity
• Cation exchange capacity [9 marks]
d) A municipal waste water quality was tested and the following data was obtained as listed
in table 1. Primary measurement of Electrical conductivity (EC w ) = 1.25ds/m and a pH
value of 7.0.
Cations Anions
Units Na Ca Mg CL SO 4 HCO 3
mg/L 178.0 47.0 18.0 167 235.8 161.1
Question Four
a) Determine reservoir capacity for command are of 40,000 ha, canal losses 10% and
reservoir losses 10%.
Base period outlet factor and intensity of irrigation are given in table 2. [12 marks]
Table: 2
2
Crop Base period (days) Out factors Irrigation intensity
(ha/cumec) (%)
Sugar cane 360 1700 20
Cotton 180 1500 10
Wheat 120 1800 20
Rice 120 700 15
Vegetables 120 700 15
b) Explain why lowering the water table is helpful in prevention of accumulations of soluble
salts on the surface of the soil. [3 marks]
Question Five
a) A 12 hectare field is to be irrigated with a sprinkler system. The root zone depth is 0.9m
and the field capacity of the soil is 28% while the permanent wilting point is 17% by
weight.
The soil bulk density is 1.36g/cm3 and the water application efficiency is 70%. The soil
is to be irrigated when 50% of the available water is depleted. The peak
evapotranspiration is 5.0mm/day and the system is to run for 10 hours in a day.
Determine:
b) A leguminous crop is being produced on a net water use of 600mm. Each of four (4)
irrigation applies 150mm of water over the surface.
ii. If the total water-holding capacity of the soil is 160mm per metre, determine the
percentage of water stored in each metre depth within the root zone during each
irrigation. [3 marks]
3
Table 3. Atomic weights, valence numbers and conversion factors for common ions
4
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY OF AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2014/2015
EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN CIVIL
ENGINEERING
(ii) σ= E − E − [2 marks]
1 1
2 2
dy
(d) Given = x + y y(0)=1 estimate the value of y at x=0.2 and x=1. [4 marks]
dx
(e) Using the function below evaluate f(0.48) using linear polynomial based on
Lagrenge’s interpolation
(b) Use Newton – Raphson method to find the real root of x4-11x + 8 = 0 near x 0 = 2
Accurate to five decimal point. [6 marks]
(c) A slider in a machine moves along a fixed rod. Its distance x(m) along the rod are given
in the following table for various valves of the time t(seconds)
T(Sec) 1 2 3 4 5 6
X(m) 0.0201 0.0844 0.3444 1.0100 2.3660 4.7719
Use Newton’s backward interpolation formula to find velocity and acceleration of the
slider at t= 6 seconds. [7 marks]
(d) Find the form of the function f(x) hence use Your polynomial to estimate the valve f(3)
by lagrange interpolation technique
x 0 1 2 5
F(x) 2 3 12 147
[7 marks]
∫
1
1 + 1nx dx with 8 strips [4 marks]
1
Construct the lagrange interpolating polynomial for the table and use it to
approximate f(3). Evaluate the maximum error for this interpolation. [7 marks]
(b) Use Newton’s forward difference formula of degree four for values x=0(1)4 to
approximate f(x) = ex at x = 1.5. [ 7 marks]
1.5
∫x
2
(c) Evaluate Inxdx with n = 2 and 4. Using the Romberg integration formula with
1
trapezium rule. [6 marks]
QUESTION THREE
(a) Use the AB predictor y n +1 = y n +
h
12
[ ]
23 y 1n − 16 y 1n −1 + 5 y 1n − 2 and the AM corrector
yn = yn +
h
12
[ ]
5 y n +1 + 8 y 1n − y 1n −1 to evaluate y(1) to 5 d.p. using 10 steps given
dy
= 2 x + y, y (0) = 2
dx
Taylor series may be used to obtain the starting values. [14 marks]
(b) Compute the analytical solution. What is the percentage error involved in the numerical
methods in (a) above? [6 marks]
(b) Use Runge-Kutta method of fourth order with h=0.2 to find y(0.2) and y(0.4) given
dy
= 2 x − y, y (0) = 1 [10 marks]
dx
2
SMA 2471
W1-2-60-1-6
(b) Use Taylor’s series to obtain a polynomial p(x) for f(x) = ln(x+1) near
x 0 =1 hence estimate the value of ln 1.2. [2 marks]
x 40 50 60 70 80 90
f(x) 204 224 246 270 296 324
[7 marks]
1
SMA 2471
(b) A rod is rotating in a plane about one of its ends. If the following
table gives the angle θ radians through which the rod has turned
δθ
for different values of t seconds, find its angular velocity and
dt
d 2θ
angular acceleration at t=0.7 seconds (Newton-Gregory
dt 2
Backman difference technique) at t=7 seconds
[10 marks]
QUESTION THREE (20 MARKS)
[10 marks]
(b) Use Legendre 2 point and 3point formula to evaluate
4 2
∫2 x 2 + 6 dx [10 marks]
d2y
(a) Given = x3+y y(0)=1
dx
Compute y(0.02) by Euler’s method taking h = 0.01. [8 marks]
2
W1-2-60-1-6
JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY OF AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY
INSTRUCTIONS
(a) Using Newton’s formal interpolation formula, find the value of Cos520 from the data below:
(b) Apply lagrange’s technique to fit a polynomial through (0, -20) (1, -12), (3, -20) and (4,-24) in
the form p (x) = ax 3 + bx 2 + cx + d
hence estimate P(2).
X 0 3 5 6 9
f (x) 2 29 117 466 1447
dy d2y
Find and at x = 3 [8 marks]
dx dx 2
h=0.2
(a)
(b)
[10 marks]
(a)
[10 marks]
(b)
h= 0.1 [7 marks]
dy
(b) Use ℝ-Κ method to solve − xy 2 y (2) = 1 h= 0.1
dx
INSTRUCTIONS
(a) Using Newton’s formal interpolation formula, find the value of Cos520 from the data below:
(b) Apply lagrange’s technique to fit a polynomial through (0, -20) (1, -12), (3, -20)
X 0 3 5 6 9
f (x) 2 29 117 466 1447
dy d2y
Find and at x = 3
dx dx 2
H=0.2
(a)
(b)
[10 marks]
(a)
[10 marks]
(b)
h= 0.1 [7 marks]