I.

THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS HAVE BEEN TAKEN FROM THE CHART GLOSSARY
OF THE JEPPESEN INTRODUCTION; ANSWER THEM IN ACCORDANCE TO THE
CORRECT ANSWER.

1.-Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) is referenced to:

a) MSL.
b) THR or TDZE.
c) Airport elevation.

2.- The height of the Decision or Minimum Descent Altitude above the highest runway
elevation in the touchdown zone of the runway.

a) Height Above Airport.

b) Height Above Runway.
c) Height Above Touchdown.

3.- A threshold that is located at a point on the runway other than the designated
beginning of the runway.

a) Displaced Threshold.
b) Replaced threshold.
c) Head runway.

4.- A point on the airport designated as the official airport location.

a) Airport Reference Point.

b) Airport Address Point.
c) Airport Location Point.

5.- That fix or point of an instrument approach procedure where the final approach
segment commences.

a) FAF.
b) IAF.
c) IP.
 -2-

II. SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER IN ACCORDANCE TO THE FOLLOWING

JEPPESEN CHART LEGENDS.

6.-

a) Change over point.

b) MEA change.
c) Change frequency point.

7.-

a) Back Localizer.
b) Localizer type Directional Aid.
c) Localizer Front Course

8.-

a) Military airport.
b) Civil airport.
c) Closed airport.

9.- X

a) Compulsory reporting point.

b) Non compulsory point.
c) Turning point.

25
10.-
35

a) Change altitude point.

b) Change distance point.
c) Change over point.
 -3-

11.-

a) MEA is established with a gap in nav-signal coverage.

b) MEA is established with a gap in comm-signal coverage.
c) MEA is established with a gap in altitude coverage.

12.-

a) Advisory airway/route.
b) Controlled airway/route.
c) Uncontrolled airway/route.

13.-

a) International boundary.
b) Time Zone boundary.
c) RVSM boundary.

14.-

a) Airport/Aerodrome.
b) Compulsory Point.
c) Fly-over Airspace fix.

15.-

a) ADIZ boundary.
b) Air Traffic Service boundary.
c) FIR boundary.
 -4-

III. SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER IN ACCORDANCE TO THE FOLLOWING

APPROACH CHART.

16.- Describe the ILS DME 2 or LOC Rwy 28 procedure arrival starting from IAF if you
are flying from the UJ15-21E airway until the FAF.

The approach begins at 12 NM from ACA VOR on radial 022°, then making a left
turn to intercept the 10 NM DME ARC to the right at 4,000 ft. , when passing radial
060° descent to 2,000 ft., after the lead radial 094° make a right turn to intercept the
localizer on frequency 109.9, when established on the localizer you may descend to
1,300 ft. to intercept the glide slope at the FAF.

17.- Describe the Missed Approach procedure including the holding pattern procedure of
the ILS DME 2 or LOC Rwy 28.

The missed approach procedure consist on a climb outbound on ACA VOR radial
270° to 7 NM with a teardrop turn to the left within 10 NM to ACA VOR to the
minimum holding altitude of 3,000 ft. on a Direct entry form, right turns (standard) of
one minute legs at least, with 200 KIAS,( since below 6,000ft).
 -5-

18.- Which is the highest elevation altitude of the 11-4 approach chart?

3,700 ft. at the North east of the airport.

19.- Describe the type of the approach lights for Rwy 28.

ALS (Approach light system), and PAPI (Precision approach path indicator
lights) on the left side of the runway.

20.- What is the effective date of issue for the 11-4 approach chart?

18 of May 2007.

21.- What is the elevation of the Threshold Crossing Height for the Rwy 28?

60 ft.

22.- What is the maximum speed during the approach at the Arc if you are at 4,000 ft?

250 KTS.

23.- On which point is the FAF located for the LOC Rwy 28?

At 5 DME from ACA DME or at 5.7 ILS ACA DME.

24.- What is the Decision Height for the LOC (GS out) Rwy 28?

488 ft.

25.- If you are flying at 145 knots of VREF in a Circle to Land, what should be your MDH?

564 ft.
 -6-

IV. SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER IN ACCORDANCE TO THE FOLLOWING ENROUTE

CHART.
 -7-

26.- It’s the VOR of CRP a Terminal or a High VOR/DME?

High VOR DME.

27.- When flying Northbound over UJ19 airway close to BRO VOR DME, on which
frequency shall you may contact the FSS for enroute information?

122.3 San Angelo located over the BRO box.

28.- At LAREDO airport, what does HIWAS means?

HIWAS means Hazardous in flight weather advisory system on 122.0 frequencies.

29.- Over Monterrey Terminal area, what does MM (P)-304 restricts?

It’s a prohibited flight zone from the ground level up to 4,000 ft.

30.- What class of airspace is Tampico terminal area Airport?

Class D air space.

31.- If you are flying at 3,400 ft at 30 NM around Monterrey Terminal Area, are you in a
controlled or uncontrolled air space?

Uncontrolled airspace in accordance with the blue box instructions.

32.- Over the chart we may see to different colors for the Grid MORA, explain what does
each color represents?

Grid MORA on green represents values below 14,000 ft, and the maroon values
above 14,000 ft.

33.- At ALUXO fix between NUEVO LAREDO and PIEDRAS, there is a black shape
triangle which means?

Low altitude compulsory reporting point.

 -8-

V. SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER IN ACCORDANCE TO THE FOLLOWING

SIGNIFICANT WEATHER PROGNOSTIC CHART.

34.- Describe the weather phenomena of obscuration is taking part in the Gulf of Mexico.

Isolated and Embedded Cumulonimbus up to 49,000 ft.

35.- What is the highest altitude of the tropopause at the North of Mexico?

50,000 ft.

36.- What kind of fronts are affecting at the east area of the United States?

Stationary and cold fronts.

37.- At what flight level and intensity is the Jet Stream affecting West side of Canada and
the United States?

FL 35,000 ft at 100 Knots.

 -9-

38.- (Describe) MMTO 301450Z 34003KT 8SM BKN 025 TCU 25/16 A3036 RMK
SLP 081 HZY.

It’s a METAR Report from the day 30 at 1450 Zulu, the wind is from heading 340°
with a intensity of 3 knots, the visibility is 8 statutes miles, the sky is broken at 2,500
ft. with towering cumulonimbus, the temperature is 25° Celsius and the dew point is
16° Celsius, the altimeter is 30.36 inches of mercury, the remark has a sea level
pressure of 1008.1 of hectopascals, hazy.

39.- (Describe) MMAA 051650Z 051818 04010KT P6SM SCT 100 SCT 220.
FM 2000 06010KT P6SM SCT 020 BKN 100 BKN 220.
FM 0600 08010KT 6SM RA OVC 020 TX32/19Z TN25/12Z.

It’s a TAF prognostic from the day 15 at 1650z and it’s valid in the day 15 from 1800
Zulu to 1800 Zulu of the next day, the wind will be from heading 040° with intensity of
10 knots, the visibility will be more than 6 statutes miles, the sky will be scattered at
10,000 ft. and 22,000 ft.
It’s expect a change from 2000 Zulu, the wind will be from heading 060° with intensity
of 10 knots, the visibility will be more than 6 statutes miles, the sky will be scattered at
2,000 ft. and broken at 10,000 ft. and 22,000 ft.
It’s expect a change from 0600 Zulu, the wind will be from heading 080° with intensity
of 10 knots, the visibility will be 6 statutes miles and it will be raining, the sky will be
overcast at 2,000 ft., and the maximum temperature will be 32° Celsius at 1900 Zulu,
the minimum temperature will be 25° Celsius at 1200 Zulu.

VI. SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER IN ACCORDANCE TO THE FOLLOWING ATP

QUESTIONS.

40.- Which is a definition of V2 speed?

a) Takeoff decision speed.

b) Takeoff safety speed.
c) Minimum takeoff speed.

41.- If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?

a) Maintain a constant altitude.

b) Maintain a constant attitude.
c) Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.
 - 10 -

42.- What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance “cleared as

filed” include?

a) Clearance limit and en route altitude.

b) Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.
c) Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.

43.- When cleared to execute a published side- step maneuver, at what point is the pilot
expected to commence this maneuver?

a) At the published DH.

b) At the MDA published or a circling approach.
c) As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

44.- Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the
ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended
runway?

a) Under no condition can the approach light system serve as necessary visual
reference for descent below DH or MDA.
b) Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the
approach light system can be seen.
c) The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that
descent below 100 feet above TDZ requires that the red light bars be visible
and identifiable.

45.- With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are
considered to be in the “critical phase of flight”?

a) Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10000 feet
MSL, including cruise flight.
b) Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL.
c) Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10000 feet,
excluding cruise flight.

46.- What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

a) Look only at far away, dim lights.

b) Scan slowly to permit off center viewing.
c) Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.
 - 11 -

47.- Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of

a) Pitching up.
b) Pitching down.
c) Leveling off.

48.- What does the term “minimum fuel” imply to ATC ?

a) Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.

b) Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.
c) Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue
delay occur.

49.- What minimum condition is suggested for declaring emergency?

a) Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight
safety.
b) When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.
c) When distress condition such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage
occurs.

50.- While in a climb, crossing 18,500 to FL250, what altimeter setting you should select?

d) QNE.
e) QFE.
f) QNH.