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Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Ans: d
2. Which qf the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
(a) Boyle's law
(b) Charles'law
(c) Gay-Lussac law
(d) all of the above
(e) Joule's law.
Ans: d
8. According to GayLussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies directly as
(a) temperature
(b) absolute
(c) absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
(d) volume, if temperature is kept constant
(e) remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant.
Ans: c
11. According to Dalton's law, the total pres sure of the mixture of gases is equal to
(a) greater of the partial pressures of all
(b) average of the partial pressures of all
(c) sum of the partial pressures of all
(d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight
(e) atmospheric pressure.
Ans: c
12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within the commonly
encountered temperature limits.
(a) 02, N2, steam, C02
(b) Oz, N2, water vapour
(c) S02, NH3, C02, moisture
(d) 02, N2, H2, air
(e) steam vapours, H2, C02.
Ans: d
16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when
(a) volume of the gas is zero
(b) pressure of the gas is zero
(c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(d) specific heat of gas is zero
(e) mass is zero.
Ans: c
17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) partly elastic
(d) partly inelastic
(e) partly elastic and partly inelastic.
Ans: a
18. The pressure a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to
(a) E/3
(b) E/2
(c) 3E/4
(d)2E/3
(e) 5E/4.
Ans: d
19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to
(a) T
(b) j
(c) J2
(d) Vr
(e) 1/Vr.
Ans: a
24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at
(a) a temperature of - 273.16°C
(b) a temperature of 0°C
(c) a temperature of 273 °K
(d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
(e) can't be attained.
Ans: a
31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature
(a) Charles' law
(b) Joule's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Boyle's law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: b
33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and pressures
(a) Charles' Law
(b) Joule's Law
(c) Regnault's Law
(d) Boyle's Law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: c
35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their original volume at 0°C for
every 1°C change in temperature when pressure remains constant
(a) Joule's law
(b) Boyle's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Gay-Lussac law
(e) Charles' law.
Ans: e
40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume is known as
(a) Avogadro's hypothesis
(b) Dalton's law
(c) Gas law
(d) Law of thermodynamics
(e) Joule's law.
Ans: a
41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimeter analysis, the relative volume of each constituent of the flue
gases is
(a) divided by its molecular weight
(b) multiplied by its molecular weight
(c) multiplied by its density
(d) multiplied by its specific weight
(e) divided by its specific weight.
Ans: b
42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then work done will be equal to
(a) + v
(b) - ve
(c) zero
(d) pressure x volume
(e) any where between zero and infinity.
Ans: c
44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic coordinates are
(a) path functions
(b) point functions
(c) cyclic functions
(d) real functions
(e) thermodynamic functions.
Ans: b
45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) specific volume
(d) heat
(e) density.
Ans: d
46. According to Avogadro's law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas
(a) occupies volume proportional to its molecular weight
(b) occupies volume proportional to its specific weight
(c) occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
(d) occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
(e) occupies same volume.
Ans: e
52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states depends on
(a) the end states only
(b) particular adiabatic process
(c) the value of index n
(d) the value of heat transferred
(e) mass of the system.
Ans: a
54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given temperature and
pressure
(a) enthalpy
(b) volume
(c) mass
(d) entropy
(e) specific volume.
Ans: b
57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is
(a) 54°C
(b) 327°C
(c) 108°C
(d) 654°C
(e) 600°C
Ans: b
58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type of expansion
(a) pV"=C
(b) isothermal
(c) adiabatic
(d) free expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: b
59. If value of n is infinitely large in a poly tropic process pV" = C, then the process is known as constant
(a) volume
(b) pressure
(c) temperature
(d) enthalpy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a
60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when
(a) flow is uniform and steady
(b) process is isentropic
(c) process is isothermal
(d) process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature
(e) process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature.
Ans: d
63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is known as
(a) heat exchange process
(b) throttling process
(c) is entropic process
(d) adiabatic process
(e) hyperbolic process.
Ans: e
66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the final temperature of
mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 40°C
(d) 20°C
(e) 60°C.
Ans: b
70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with minimum error
(a) dry steam
(b) wet steam
(c) saturated steam
(d) superheated steam
(e) steam at atmospheric pressure.
Ans: d
71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V changes from 1 m to 2 m3. The
work done will be about
(a) 100 xlOO5 joules
(b) lxlO5 joules
(c) 10 xlO5 joules
(d) 10 xlO5 kilo joules
(e) 10xl04ki\ojoules.
Ans: c
72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in
M.K.S. unit is
(a) 29.27 kgfm/mol°K
(b) 8314kgfm/mol°K
(c) 848kgfm/mol°K
(d) 427kgfm/mol°K
(e) 735 kgfm/mol°K.
Ans: c
74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and
(a) specific heat at constant pressure
(b) specific heat at constant volume
(c) ratio of two specific heats
(d) gas constant
(e) unity.
Ans: d
75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in S.I.
units is
(a) 29.27 J/kmol°K
(b) 83.14J/kmol°K
(c) 848J/kmol°K
(d) All J/kmol °K
(e) 735 J/kmol °K.
Ans: b
76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of temperature
only
(a) any gas
(b) saturated steam
(c) water
(d) perfect gas
(e) superheated steam.
Ans: d
80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension, then such a process is
called
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: a
84. For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature difference between hot body and working
substance should be
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(d) maximum
(d) infinity
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a
85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to
(a) 0.75
(b) 1
(c) 1.27
(d) 1.35
(e) 2.
Ans: b
86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be
(a) 4.17m3/kgmol
(b) 400 m3/kg mol
(c) 0.15 m3/kg mol
(d) 41.7 m3/kg mol
(e) 417m3/kgmol.
Ans: a
87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half its original volume. During
the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal energy remained same. The work done on gas in Nm will be
(a) 300 Nm
(b) 300,000 Nm
(c) 30 Nm
(d) 3000 Nm
(e) 30,000 Nm.
Ans: b
93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is inferred from
(a) zeroth low of thermodynamic
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law to thermodynamics
(d) basic law of thermodynamics
(e) claussius statement.
Ans: b
95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at
constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a
106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another engine between T2 and 400°K For
both to do equal work, value of T2 will be
(a) 650°K
(b) 600°K
(c) 625°K
(d) 700°K
(e) 750°K.
Ans: a
107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property of the working substance
will change accordingly
(a) temperature
(b) enthalpy
(c) internal energy
(d) entropy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial state then
(a) process is thermodynamically in equilibrium
(b) process is executed in closed system cycle
(c) its entropy will change due to irreversibility
(d) sum of heat and work transfer will be zero
(e) no work will be done by the system.
Ans: d
109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind
(a) engine with 100% thermal efficiency
(b) a fully reversible engine
(c) transfer of heat energy from low temperature source to high tempera¬ture source
(d) a machine that continuously creates its own energy
(e) production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different levels.
Ans:
110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a proposition is
(a) feasible
(b) impossible
(c) possible
(d) possible, but with lot of sophistication
(e) desirable.
Ans: d
112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving heat input of 400
kcal/mt
and working between the temperature limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is
(a) justified
(b) not possible
(c) may be possible with lot of sophistica-tions
(d) cost will be very high
(e) theroretically possible.
Ans: b
116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(a) The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.
(b) The room will be cooled very slightly.
(c) The room will be gradually warmed up.
(d) The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected.
(e) any one of above is possible depending on the capacity.
Ans: c
118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it
(a) at atmospheric pressure
(b) at a pressure below the tropospheric pressure
(c) at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
(d) any pressure
(e) not possible.
Ans: c
135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(c) efficiency depends on other factors
(d) both Otto and Diesel cycles are equal¬ly efficient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency of Stirling
cycle
141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes is known as
(a) Otto cycle
(b) Ericsson cycle
(c) Joule cycle
(d) Stirling cycle
(e) Atkinson cycle.
Ans: c
142. Reversed joule cycle is called
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Brayton cycle
(d) Bell Coleman cycle
(e) Dual cycle.
Ans: c
145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as
(a) Dual combustion cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Atkinson cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(e) Stirling cycle.
Ans: c
148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase ni pressure ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on application
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on application
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
152. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the Carnot
cycle is that
(a) carnot cycle can't work with saturated steam
(b) heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle
(c) a rankine cycle receives heat at two places
(d) rankine cycle is hypothetical
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: e
Ans: b
10.4. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in
(a) one point
(b) two points
(c) plane
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different planes.
Ans: a
10.5. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
(a) one point
(b) one plane
(c) different planes
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different points.
Ans: b
10.12. If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9°, their resultant will be
(a) P/2 cos 9/2
(b) IP sin 9/2
(c) 2P tan 9/2
(d) IP cos 9/2
(e) Psin 9/2.
Ans: d
10.13. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to the resolved
part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
(a) forces
(b) independence of forces
(c) dependence of forces
(d) balance of force
(e) resolution of forces.
Ans: e
10.14. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle 9 in a given direction is equal to
(a) the algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(b) the sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(c) the difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of 9
(d) the sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of 9
(e) the sum of the forces multiplied by the tangent of 9.
Ans: a
10.18. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat ?
(a) kcal
(b) kg m
(c) kWhr
(d) hp
(e) hp hr.
Ans: d
10.21. The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are called
(a) coplanar non-concurrent forces
(b) non-coplanar concurrent forces
(c) non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(d) intersecting forces
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
10.22. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied
(a) coplanar force
(b) non-coplanar forces
(c) lever
(d) moment
(e) couple.
Ans: e
10.24. According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body is
(a) maximum when it acts at the centre of gravity of a body
(b) different at different points in its line of action
(c) the same at every point in its line of action
(d) minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
10.26. The magnitude of two forces, which when acting at right angle produce resultant force of VlOkg and
when acting at 60° produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are
(a) 2 and V6
(b) 3 and 1 kg
(c) V5andV5
(d) 2 and 5
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
1033. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
(a) these forces are equal
(b) the lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(c) the lines of action of these forces are parallel
(d) (b) and (c) above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
1037. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(c) the floor and wall both are smooth sur¬faces
(d) the floor and wall both are rough sur-faces
(e) will be in equilibrium under all condi-tions.
Ans: c
10.42. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
(a) resultant couple
(b) moment of the forces
(c) resulting couple
(d) moment of the couple
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
10.43. In detennining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an
imaginary section
drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
(a) two members with unknown forces of the frame
(b) three members with unknown forces of the frame
(c) four members with unknown forces of the frame
(d) three members with known forces of the frame
(e) four members with two known forces.
Ans: b
10.45. Centre of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
10.47. Centre of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
10.49. The centre of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length L suspended at the top will be
(a) L/2
(b) L/3
(c) 3L/4
(d) 2L/3
(e) 3L/8.
Ans: d
10.53. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very small
approaches the following curve
(a) catenary
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) circular arc.
Ans: b
10.54. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per metre length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20 metres
apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span
(a) 2.5 cm
(b) 3.0 cm
(c) 4.0 cm
(d) 5.0 cm
(e) 2.0 cm.
Ans: c
10.55. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate. Find the
e.g. of the remainder from the centre of circular plate
(a) 0.5 cm
(b) 1.0 cm
(c) 1.5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm
(e) 0.25 cm.
Ans: a
10.63. If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing through
the point of suspension will be
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
(e) same as the force applied.
Ans: c
10.65. The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, $ ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m arm, - ve
sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, + ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(a) 20 kg, - ve sense
(ft) 20 kg, + ve sense
(c) 10 kg, + ve sense
(d) 10 kg, - ve sense
(e) 45 kg, + ve sense.
Ans: a
10.70. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction angle)
applied in the direction
(a) along the plane
(b) horizontally
(c) vertically
(d) at an angle equal to the angle of fric¬tion to the inclined plane
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d
10.73. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will be
(a) towards the wall at its upper end
(b) away from the wall at its upper end
(c) upwards at its upper end
(d) downwards at its upper end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
10.74. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of friction will
be
(a) downwards at its upper end
(b) upwards at its upper end
(c) perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(d) zero at its upper end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
10.78. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
(a) proportional to normal load between the surfaces
(b) dependent on the materials of contact surface
(c) proportional to velocity of sliding
(d) independent of the area of contact sur-faces
(e) none of the above is wrong statement.
Ans: c
10.79. A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being pulled up by a horizontal force P will be on the point of
motion up the plane when P is equal to
(a) W
(b) W sin (a + $)
(c) Wtan(a + <|))
(d) W\an(a-<t>)
(e) Wtana.
Ans: c
10.80. A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in t seconds is given by x = t2 (t -
4), the acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation
(a) 3t2-lt
(b) 3t2+2t
(c) 6f-8
(d) 6f-4
(e) 6t2-8t.
Ans: c
10.81. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrain, he has to hold his umbrella
(a) more inclined when moving
(b) less inclined when moving
(c) more inclined when standing
(d) less inclined when standing
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
10.86. A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when 9 is
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
(e) 90°.
Ans: c
95. The effort required to lift a load W on a screw jack with helix angle a and angle of friction <j) is equal to
(a) Wtan(a + <)>)
(b) Wtan(a-<)>)
(c) Wcos(a + <t>)
(d) Wsin(a + <(>)
(e) W (sin a + cos <j>).
Ans: a
10.96. A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat surface horizontal and circular portion
touching down. The coefficient of friction between semi-cricular disc and horizontal surface is \i. This disc is to
be pulled by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it always remains horizontal. When the disc is about to
start moving, its top horizontal force will
(a) remain horizontal
(b) slant up towards direction of pull
(c) slant down towards direction of pull
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
10.97. A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having coefficient of friction -rr can rest upto height of
(a) r/2
(b) r/A
(c) r/%
(d) 0.134 r
(e) 3r/8.
Ans: d
10.98. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane is
(a) equal to the moment of the couple
(b) constant
(c) both of above are correct
(d) both of above are wrong
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
10.100. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must either
(a) meet in a point
(b) be all parallel
(c) at least two of them must meet
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
10.101. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another
surface is called
(a) limiting friction
(b) sliding friction
(c) rolling friction
(d) kinematic friction
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: a
10.105. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in
(a) non-equilibrium
(b) partial equilibrium
(c) full equilibrium
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
10.106. If n = number of members andy = number of joints, then for a perfect frame, n =
(a) j-2
(b)2j-l
(c) 2/-3
(d)3/-2
(e) 2/ -4.
Ans: c
10.107. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5 sec is
most nearly
(a) 38 m
(b) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(d) 124 m
(e) 240 m.
Ans: b
10.108. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is nearly
equal to
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 250
(e) 500.
Ans: b
10.110. Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a fixed
point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one
(a) ellipse
(b) hyperbola
(c) parabola
(d) circle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
10.112. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then which
is correct statement about density of metal
(a) density of metal can't be determined
(b) metal is twice as dense as water
(c) metal will float in water
(d) metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
10.117. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a
(a) right angled triangle
(b) equilateral triangle
(c) square
(d) circle
(e) rectangle.
Ans: a
10.119. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the base
(a) h/2
(b) J/3
(c) h/6
(d) h/4
(e) 3/i/5.
Ans: d
10.122. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared to its M.I.
about horizontal axis is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one fourth.
Ans: b
10.128. In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows
(a) W between P and F
(b) F between W and P
(c) P between W and F
(d) W, P and F all on one side
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
10.129. The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is about to move
down is known as angle of
(a) friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) repose
(d) kinematic friction
(e) static friction.
Ans: c
10.136. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal metre run will take the following shape
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) part of a circle.
Ans: b
1. A graphical device used to determine the break-even point and profit potential under
varying conditions of output and costs, is known as
(a) Gnatt chart
(b) flow chart
(c) break-even chart
(d) PERT chart
(e) Taylor chart.
Ans: c
9. In the cost structure of a product, the sell¬ing price is determined by the factors such
as1
(a) sales turn over
(b) lowest competitive price
(c) various elements of the cost
(d) buyers' capability to pay
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
23. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
(a) policy allowance
(b) interference allowance
(c) process allowance
(d) learning allowance
(e) unforeseen allowance.
Ans: a
38. One time measurement unit(TMU) in method time measurement system equals
(a) 0.0001 minute
(b) 0.0006 minute
(c) 0.006 minute
(d) 0.001 minute
(e) 0.06 minute.
Ans: b
39. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
55. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) effective organisation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
57. In steel plant the most improtant system for materials handling is
(a) conveyors
(b) cranes and hoists
(c) trucks
(d) locos
(e) none of jhe above.
Ans: d
64. Which of the following organisations is best suited for steel plants
(a) functional organisation
(b) line organisation
(c) staff organisation
(d) line, staff and functional organisations
(e) scalar organisation.
Ans: a
65. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method in
the evaluation of the material issued from the store
(a) inflated system
(b) primary cost method
(c) current value method
(d) fixed price method
(e) variable price method.
Ans: a
80. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) alarming value
(e) original value.
Ans: a
81. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when
(a) CAM < DAM
(b) CAM > DAM
(c) CAM = DAM
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
(CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM = Defender's Adverse minimum)
Ans: a
88. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: b
92. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is
(a) credited into reserves of company
(b) deposited in nationalized bank
(c) deposited in post office
(d) deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India
(e) deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
Ans: e
97. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by
(a) fast worker
(b) average worker
(c) slow worker
(d) new entrant
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b
99. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: c
103. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with
(a) break-even analysis
(b) value analysis
(c) linear programming
(d) queuing theory
(e) material handling.
Ans: c
107. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
(a) past good workers
(b) past poor workers
(c) past average workers
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
113. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an
.employee receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :
(a) a standard rating system
(b) a merit rating system
(c) a job evaluation system
(d) his individual performance
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b
114. Which of the following incentive pleasures a part of the swing to the worker and rest
to the employer
(a) Emerson efficiency plan
(b) Taylor plan
(c) Halsey premium plan
(d) Piece rate system
(e) Gilberth plan.
Ans: c
117. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved
by workers
(a) Halsey plan
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Haynes plan
(d) Emerson's plan
(e) Taylor's plan.
Ans: c
118. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker
for every hour he saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is
known as
(a) Rowan Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Taylor Differential Piece rate system
(d) Halsey Premium plan
(e) Day work plan.
Ans: d
119. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that
(a) a differential piece rate system should exist
(b) minimum wages should be guaran¬teed
(c) provide incentive to group efficiency performance
(d) all standards should be based on optimum standards of production
(e) all standards should be based on time studies.
Ans: e
120. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is
paid till his efficiency reaches
(a) 50%
(b) 661%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%.
Ans: b
121. Accordmg to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time,
then wages will be
(a) HA
(b) HA + (S~A) HA
(c) HA + ^^-H
(d) HA + ^^-H
(e) HA + ^^-HA.
Ans: b
122. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum
daily earnings can be
(a) 2 HA
(b) 1.33 HA
(c) 1.5 HA
(d) 1.15 HA
(e) 2.5 HA.
Ans: a
125. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an
optimum manner is known as
(a) operation research
(b) linear programming
(c) network analysis
(d) queuing theory
(e) break-even analysis.
Ans: b
127. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like
(a) iron and steel
(b) food processing
(c) oil and chemical
(d) banking
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
130. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker
based on the exact % of time
saved. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Dry work Plan
(b) Halsey Premium Plan
(c) Taylor Plan
(d) Bedaux Plan
(e) Rowan Plan.
Ans: e
133. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on
the cost of machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every
year remains constant
(a) sinking fund method
(b) straight line method
(c) A-B-C charging method
(d) annuity charging method
(e) diminishing balance method.
Ans: d
137. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case
(a) activities and events are clearly shown
(b) early start and late finish of an ac¬tivity are clearly marked
(c) activity times are clear
(d) critical path can be easily determined
(e) inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.
Ans: e
146. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analysed
mathematically if
(a) complete details'of items in, waiting line are known
(b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model
(c) all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
(d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the ar¬riving units
are taken into source are known
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
148. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be
that
(a) the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate
(b) output rate is linearly proportional to input
(c) output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
149. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems
(a) that can't be analysed mathematically
(b) involving multistage queuing
(c) to verify mathematical results
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
Ans: d
2. Determining moisture in steam by measuring the temperature in a throttling calorimeter is an
example of :
(a) direct measurement
(b) indirect measurement
(c) measurement by comparison
(d) measurement by calibration
(e) automatic measurement.
Ans: b
3. The closeness with which the reading of an instrument approaches the true value of the variable
being measured is called :
(a) accuracy
(b) precision
(c) sensitivity
(d) resolution
(e) discrimination.
Ans: a
4. Errors due to assignable causes are called :
(a) static errors
(b) systematic errors
(c) calibration errors
(d) random errors
(e) known errors.
Ans: b
5. Pick up the appropriate word for A pointer moving over a scale :
(a) instrument
(b) indicator
(c) transducer
(d) gauge
(e) recorder.
Ans: b
6. Pick up the appropriate word for A reading obtained from the motion of a pointer on a scale :
(a) analog
(b) digital
(c) display
(d) indicator
(e) instrument.
Ans: a
7. Pick up the appropriate word for The reading displayed as a number, a series of holes on a punched card, or
a sequence of pulses on magnetic tape :
(a) pulse train
(b) digital
(c) analog
(d) numeral
(e) recording.
Ans: b
9. The condition of how much successive readings differ from one another for a fixed value of the variable is
called :
(a) accuracy
(b) error
(c) sensitivity
(d) resolution
(e) precision.
Ans: e
10. The ratio of output signal or response of the instrument'" to a change in input or measured variable is
called :
(a) sensitivity
(b) precision
(c) resolution
(d) threshold
(e) accuracy.
Ans: a
11. The smallest change in measured value to which the instrument will respond is called
(a) accuracy
(b) precision
(c) amplification
(d) resolution
(e) sensitivity.
Ans: d
12. It responds directly to the measured quantity, producing a related motion or signal :
(a) sensing element
(b) transducer
(c) transmitter
(d) indicator
(e) measuring device.
Ans: a
13. Which of the following is used to count the number of brass items passing on a conveyor line, when no
contact is permitted with the object:
(a) event counter
(b) mechanical counter
(c) magnetic pick up
(d) photoelectric cell
(e) electronic counter.
Ans: d
16. In which device the input motion changes the inductive coupling between primary and secondary coils :
(a) potentiometer
(b) synchro
(c) collimator
(d) protractor
(e) dial gauge.
Ans: b
19. Which of the following may be measured by the deflection of an elastic element, by balancing against a
known force, by the acceleration produced in an object of known mass :
(a) force
(b) pressure
(c) temperature
(d) level
(e) displacement.
Ans: a
21. Which of the following device is used as a standard for calibrating pressure gauges :
(a) manometer
(b) diaphragm
(c) bellows
(d) dead weight pressure tester
(e) piezoelectric crystal.
Ans: d
23. Which is not correct statement about selection of tube material for a Bourdon gauge:
(a) Have high creep strength to withstand high temperature
(b) Be stable enough to maintain its calibration indefinitely
(c) Be immune to corrosion from the fluid inside the tube, and from the atmosphere outside it
(d) Be hard enough to withstand the applied pressure without any part of it being stressed above the limit of
proportionality
(e) Be easy to fabricate.
Ans: a
26. Pressure gauges are never connected directly to live steam because :
(a) the tubes or bellows which operate them would be overheated, causing serious error and damage
(b) steam if leaks, can cause serious injuries to operators
(c) entry of steam would cause static head error
(d) parts of pressure gauge can't withstand temperature of steam
(e) pressure gauges are not calibrated to measure steam pressure directly.
Ans: a
27. A siphon or loop in the connecting pipe is interposed as close as possible to the pressure gauge so that:
(a) steam can condense to form a seal of water to fill the tube or bellows at the pressure being measured
(b) air or vapour collection is avoided
(c) moisture formed in pipe can be drained
(d) static head errors are eliminated
(e) it acts as dampener and does not pass on pressure variations to sensor.
Ans: a
28. When the pressure medium to be measured is air or gas, the pipe is made to rise continuously to the gauge,
so that:
(a) no air or vapour can collect in pipe
(b) any moisture can be drained '
(c) moisture does not come in contact with elements of sensor/gauge
(d) moisture can condense to form seal of water
(e) static head error due to moisture is eliminated.
Ans: b
31. The development of following element has improved the reliability and the response action of low
pressure gauges :
(a) diaphragm
(b) capsule
(c) bourdon
(d) ring balance
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b
33. Which is not correct about load cells used to measure weight/force :
(a) accuracy of the order of 0.01 to 1%
(b) rugged and compact construction
(c) no moving parts and negligible deflection under load
(d) low resistance to side load and low overload withstand
(e) hermetically sealed and thermal compensation.
Ans: d
36. In case of strain gauge transducers, several strain cycles, and temperature cycles are carried out before
making measurements, in order to :
(a) increase life
(b) enable high repeatable readings
(c) eliminate premature failures
(d) increase accuracy
(e) avoid drift.
Ans: b
37. Accuracy of standard pressure gauges, used for testing and calibration purposes is of the order of :
(a) ± 1.5%
(b) ± 1%
(c) ± 0.5%
(d) ± 0.25%
(e) ±0.1%.
Ans: d
38. Which gauge is based on the change of heat conductivity of a gas with pressure and the change of
electrical resistance of a wire with temperature:
(a) thermocouple gauge
(b) Bourdon gauge
(c) Ionization gauge
(d) nuitating disk gauge
(e) Pirani gauge.
Ans: e
39. Which of the following have relatively large and negative temperature coefficients of resistance :
(a) radiation pyrometers
(b) optical pyrometers
(c) thermistors
(d) platinum resistance detectors
(e) thermocouples.
Ans: c
42. Which of the following consists of a very thin strip of nickel or platinum foil which responds to
temperature in the same manner as the resistance thermometer :
(a) thermo pile
(b) bolometer
(c) radiation pyrometer
(d) thermistor
(e) optical pyrometer.
Ans: b
43. For measuring temperature in the range of 20 to 600°C, following liquid is used in glass thermometer :
(a) mercury
(b) alcohol
(c) toluene
(d) pentane
(e) creosote.
Ans: a
44. For measuring temperature in the range of 200 to 30°C, following liquid is used in glass thermometer:
(a) mercury
(b) alcohol
(c) toluene
(d) pentane
(e) creosote.
Ans: d
45. Which of the following glass is used for 00-600°C temperature measurement by mercury-in-glass
thermometer :
(a) lead glass
(b) normal grade
(c) borosilicate
(d) supermax
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: d
47. Twisting the thermocouple wires together and heat welding them :
(a) is the standard practice of making junction
(b) would result in noise generation
(c) cause small errors due to local e.m.f. which may arise if the junction is too long
(d) would slow down the response
(e) result in inaccuracies.
Ans: c
48. Which of the following thermocouple generates highest e.m.f. for a given temperature :
(a) copper-constantan
(b) iron-constantan
(c) chromel-alumel
(d) platinum-rhodium platinum
(e) silver-palladium.
Ans: b
49. Protective coating by a suitable cover are applied over strain gauge in order to protect it against:
(a) temperature rise
(b) dust and dirt
(c) moisture
(d) ageing
(e) shorting by conductive contact.
Ans: c
50. The resistance of strain gauge grid used in pressure transducers is of the order of :
(a) 0.1 to 1 ohm
(b) 1 to 10 ohm
(c) 10 to 100 ohm
(d) 100 to 2000 ohm
(e) 2000 to 105 ohm
Ans: d
51. During temperature changing conditions, quite appreciable difference, occurs be tween the -true-
temperature and the measured temperature because of the time required for the transfer of heat through
thermometer pockets (thermowells) to thermometer sensing element. This time lag is of the order of :
(a) 0.1 to 1 sec
(b) 1 to 2.5 sec
(c) 2.5 to 10 or 20 sec
(d) 25 to 100 sec
(e) 100 to 500 sec.
Ans: c
56. In calibration of temperature sensors by fixed point method, the device is calibrated at:
(a) ice point (0°C)
(b) steam point (100°C)
(c) sulphur point (444.6°C)
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
57. Pick up correct statement about calibration of temperature sensors by comparison method using liquid
bath :
(a) water is used for temperatures from 0 to I00°C
(b) special grade of paraffin oil is used for temperatures between 100 and 200°C
(c) For temperature between 200 and 600°C, a mixture of sodium nitrate and potassium nitrate is used
(d) all of above are true
(e) none of above is true.
Ans: d
61. For an orfice plate having ratio of inside and pipe diameter as 0.5, the pressure loss in comparison to
differential pressure created is of the order of :
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 35%
(e) 50%.
Ans: e
62. 15° taper venturi tube causes loss of following % of the differential pressure :
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
(e) 40%.
Ans: b
63. Pick out false statement about advantages of orifice plates, used for flow measurement :
(a) no moving parts
(b) long-term reliability
(c) highturn-down ratio
(d) inexpensive
(e) inherently simple in operation.
Ans: c
68. Which of the following flow meter maintains a constant pressure differential but varies the orifice area
with flow :
(a) Ledoux bell
(b) variable area
(c) straightening vane
(d) variable head
(e) vane-type.
Ans: b
73. Pick out the odd flow measuring device among the following :
(a) positive displacement type
(b) nutating disc type
(c) sliding vane type
(d) turbine type
(e) hydraulic flume.
Ans: e
74. Dynamometers are :
(a) force measuring devices
(b) torque measuring devices
(c) power measuring devices
(d) energy measuring devices
(e) displacement measuring devices.
Ans: c
75. In some measurements, in order to increase the sensitivity, two measuring and two reference cells are
often used. This arrange ment is usually referred to as :
(a) wheatstone bridge
(b) katharometer
(c) attenuator
(d) amplifier
(e) Kelvin bridge.
Ans: b
77. Continuous analysers for measuring following are based on the chemiluminescent flameless reaction with
ethylene :
(a) oxygen
(b) ozone
(c) sulphur oxides
(d) nitrogen oxides
(e) pollutants.
Ans: b
82. The pH value is a measure of hydrogen ionin a solution. The letters pH stand for :
(a) percentage of H2 in solution
(b) power of the hydrogen ion concentra-tion
(c) presence of hydrogen ions
(d) purity of H20
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
86. Pure water has pH value of 7. This means that pure water has :
(a) 7 g of ionized hydrogen per litre
(b) 10 g of ionized hydrogen in/m
(c) 1CT7 % of ionized hydrogen
(d) 10"7 g of ionized hydrogen per litre
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
92. The error caused in vibration measuring equipment due to non compliance (not stiff) of bond made
between sensor and the surface it is mounted is called :
(a) cross-coupling
(b) coupling compliance
(c) influence error
(d) subject loading by sensor
(e) spurious variation in capacitance.
Ans: b
93. Machine health monitoring is mainly based on measurement of:
(a) lub oil pressure
(b) vibrations at strategic points
(c) bearing temperature measurement
(d) efficiency and losses of machine
(e) all of above.
Ans: b
95. An operation which, in the presence of a disturbing influence, tends to reduce the difference between the
actual state of a system and an arbitrarily varied desired state and which does so on the basis of this difference,
is called :
(a) automatic control
(b) feedback control
(c) open feed back control
(d) closed feed back control
(e) self regulation.
Ans: d
96. An apparatus which measures the value of a quantity or condition which is subject to change with time,
and operates to maintain within limits this measured value, is called
(a) automatic regulator
(b) self controller
(c) feedback controller
(d) two-position controller
(e) floating regulator.
Ans: a
97. The time required for the controlled variable to reach a specified value after the application of a step input
is called :
(a) rise time
(b) settling time
(c) response time
(d) peak time
(e) proportional time.
Ans: c
98. The operating characteristic which inherently assists the establishment of equilibrium is called :
(a) corrective action
(b) self regulation
(c) automatic regulation
(d) proportional control action
(e) floating controller action.
Ans: b
99. The quantity or condition of the controlled system which is directly, measured or controlled :
(a) set point
(b) deviation
(c) controlled variable
(d) command signal
(e) control agent.
Ans: c
100. The range of values through which the variable must change to cause the final control element to move
from one extreme position to the other :
(a) throttling range
(b) disturbance
(c) proportional band
(d) response
(e) deviation.
Ans: a
101. The range of scale values through which the controlled variable must pass in order that the final control
element be moved through its entire range :
(a) throttling
(b) floating band
(c) controller band
(d) settling time
(e) proportional band.
Ans: e
102. A controller action in which there is a predetermined relation between the values of the controlled
variable and the rate of motion of a final control element:
(a) floating controller action
(b) proportional-position controller action
(c) proportional-speed floating control¬ler action
(d) two-position controller action
(e) self-regulation controller action.
Ans: a
103. The controller action in which there is continuous linear relation between the position of the final control
element and the value of the controlled variable :
(a) floating controller action
(b) proportional-position controller action
(c) proportionrl-speed floating controller action
(d) two-position controller action
(e) self-regulation controller action.
Ans: b
104. The stability, accuracy, and speed ofresponse of a control system are determined by analysing :
(a) its mathematical model
(b) closed-loop feedback control system
(c) steady-state response
(d) transient response
(e) steady-state and transient response.
Ans: e
105. The steady-state performance is evaluated in terms of the :
(a) accuracy with which the output is controlled for a specified input
(b) maximum overshoot
(c) rise time
(d) response time
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
106. The transient performance, i.e. the behaviour of the output variable as the system changes, from one
steady-state
condition to another, is evaluated in terms of;
(a) accuracy
(b) settling time
(c) response time
(d) peak time
(e) maximum overshoot, rise time, and response time.
Ans: e
108. Following is the property of the system which opposes a change in the output variable :
(a) load
(b) power element
(c) resistance
(d) damping
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
109. When an automatic control system is the output variable overshoots its desired steady-state condition and
a transient oscillation occurs :
(a) underdamped
(b) over damped
(c) critically damped
(d) damped
(e) without damping.
Ans: a
110. The overshoot and the settling time are maximum with :
(a) underdamped system
(b) overdamped system
(c) critically damped system
(d) damped system
(e) non damped system.
Ans: a
111. The steady state output of the system to input sinusoids of varying frequency is referred to as :
(a) frequency response of a system
(b) Nyquist plot
(c) Bode plot
(d) transient response
(e) logarithmic plot.
Ans: a
114. The transient performance characteristics of the control are conveniently obtained from curve of the :
(a) open-loop frequency response func-tion
(b) transfer functions of system
(c) closed loop frequency response
(d) all of above
(e) none of above.
Ans: a
Ans: a
2. Basic tool in work study is
(a) graph paper
(b) process chart
(c) planning chart
(d) stop watch
(e) analytical mind.
Ans: d
3. What does symbol 'O' imply in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) transport
(d) delay/temporary storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
4. What does symbol 'D' imply in work study
(a) inspection
(b) transport
(c) delay/temporary storage
(d) permanent storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
5. What hoes symbol' V' imply in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) delay/ temporary Storage
(d) permanent storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
6. Material handling in automobile industry is done by
(a) overhead crane
(b) trolley
(c) belt conveyor
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
7. String diagram is used when
(a) team of workers is working at a place
(b) material handling is to be done
(c) idle time is to be reduced
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
11. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
(a) policy allowance
(b) interference allowance
(c) process allowance
(d) learning allowance
(e) unforeseen allowance.
Ans: a
24. One time measurement unit (TMU) in method time measurement system equals
(a) 0.0001 minute
(b) 0.0006 minute
(c) 0.006 minute
(d) 0.001 minute
(e) 0.06 minute.
Ans: b
25. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
41. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) effective organisation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
43. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is
(a) conveyors
(b) cranes and hoists
(c) trucks
(d) locos
(e) none of jhe above.
Ans: d
50. Which of the following organizations is best suited for steel plants
(a) functional organization
(b) line organization
(c) staff organization
(d) line, staff and functional organizations
(e) scalar organization.
Ans: d
51. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method in the evaluation of the
material issued from the store
(a) inflated system
(b) primary cost method
(c) current value method
(d) fixed price method
(e) variable price method.
Ans: a
66. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) alarming value
(e) original value.
Ans: a
67. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when
(a) CAM < DAM
(b) CAM > DAM
(c) CAM = DAM
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
(CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM = Defender's Adverse minimum)
Ans: a
74. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: b
78. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is
(a) credited into reserves of company
(b) deposited in nationalized bank
(c) deposited in post office
(d) deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India
(e) deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
Ans: e
83. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by
(a) fast worker
(b) average worker
(c) slow worker
(d) new entrant
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b
85. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: c
89. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with
(ay break-even analysis
(b) value analysis
(c) linear programming
(d) queuing theory
(e) material handling.
Ans: c
91. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
(a) past good workers
(b) past poor workers
(c) past average workers
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
97. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an .employee receives
in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :
(a) a standard rating system
(b) a merit rating system
(c) a job evaluation system
(d) his individual performance
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b
98. Which of the following incentive pleasures a part of the swing to the worker and rest to the employer
(a) Emerson efficiency plan
(b) Taylor plan
(c) Halsey premium plan
(e) Gilberth plan.
Ans: c
100. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by workers
(a) Halsey plan
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Haynes plan
(d) Emerson's plan
(e) Taylor's plan.
Ans: c
101. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker for every hour he
saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Rowan Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Taylor Differential Piece rate system
(d) Halsey Premium plan
(e) Day work plan.
Ans: d
103. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid till his
efficiency reaches
(a) 50%
(b) 661%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%.
Ans: b
104. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time, then wages will be
(a) HA
(b) HA + (S~A) HA
(c) HA + ^^-H
(d) HA + ^^-H
(e) HA + ^^-HA.
Ans: b
105. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily earnings can
be
(a) 2 HA
(b) 1.33 HA
(c) 1.5 HA
(d) 1.15 HA
(e) 2.5 HA.
Ans: a
106. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to
(a) those items which consume money
(b) those items which are not readily available
(c) those items which are in more demand
(d) those items which consume more money
(e) proper quality assurance program-mes.
Ans: d
108. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum manner is known
as
(a) operation research
(b) linear programming
(c) network analysis
(d) queuing theory
(e) break-even analysis.
Ans: b
110. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like
(a) iron and steel
(b) food processing
(c) oil and chemical
(d) banking
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
113. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker based on the exact %
of time
saved. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Dry work Plan
(b) Halsey Premium Plan
(c) Taylor Plan
(d) Bedaux Plan
(e) Rowan Plan.
Ans: e
116. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of machine
asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every year remains constant
(a) sinking fund method
(b) straight line method
(c) A-B-C charging method
(d) annuity charging method
(e) diminishing balance method.
Ans: d
120. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case
(a) activities and events are clearly shown
(b) early start and late finish of an activity are clearly marked
(c) activity times are clear
(d) critical path can be easily determined
(e) inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.
Ans: e
127. PERT stands for k (fit) project evaluation and review technique
(b) project examination and review technique
(c) project evaluation and reporting technique
(d) process execution and reporting technology
(e) project execution and results technique.
Ans: a
129. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analyzed mathematically if
(a) complete details'of items in, waiting line are known
(b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model
(c) all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
(d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the arriving units are taken into source
are known
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
131. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be that
(a) the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate
(b) output rate is linearly proportional to input
(c) output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
132. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems
(a) that can't be analyzed mathematically
(b) involving multistage queuing
(c) to verify mathematical results
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
139. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M.
(a) a project is divided into various activities
(b) required time for each activity is established
(c) sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
(d) network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
140. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by following time of the critical activity
meeting at the final iodide
(a) early finish
(b) early start
(c) late start
(d) late finish
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
Ans: e
Ans: e
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: b
11. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour
(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
(d) before entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor.
Ans: e
12. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure saturated
liquid
(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
(d) before entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor.
Ans: d
14. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour
(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
(d) before entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor..
Ans: e
20. Allowable pressure on high-pressure side or ammonia absorption system is of the order
of
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) slightly above atmospheric pressure
(c) 2-4 bars
(d) 5-6 bars
(e) 7-10 bars.
Ans: d
22. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non condemnable gases, as compared to
that actually required for condensing temperatures without non condemnable gases,
(a) will be higher
(b) will be lower
(c) will remain unaffected
(d) may be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non condemnable gases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
31. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following type of
expansion device
(a) electrically operated throttling valve
(b) manually operated valve
(c) thermostatic valve
(d) capillary tube
(e) expansion valve.
Ans: d
34. In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve is
(a) liquid
(b) sub-cooled liquid
(c) saturated liquid
(d) wet vapour
(e) dry vapour.
Ans: d
36. For better COP of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to temperature in
evaporator and condenser must be
(a) small
(b) high
(c) euqal
(d) anything
(e) under some conditions small and under some conditions high.
Ans: a
40. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenser and flow controlling
device, if quantity of refrigerant for system is
(a) less than 2 kg
(b) more than or equal to 3.65 kg
(c) more than 10 kg
(d) there is no such consideration
(e) pone of the above.
Ans: b
47. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating refrigerant and the
medium being cooled should be
(a) high, of the order of 25°
(b) as low as possible (3 to 11°C)
(c) zero
(d) any value
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
49. Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at least
(a) 10%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
(e) 100%.
Ans: c
50. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a refrigerant
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
51. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27°C and evaporator
temperature of- 23°C. The Cannot coefficient of performance of cycle will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 10.
Ans: c
54. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to other in
ammonia absorption system
(a) strong solution to weak solution
(b) weak solution to strong solution
(c) strong solution to ammonia vapour
(d) ammonia vapour to weak solution
(e) ammonia vapour to strong solution.
Ans: b
55. Efficiency of a Cornot engine is given as 80%. If the- cycle direction be reversed,
what will be the value of COP of reversed Carnot cycle
(a) 1.25
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
57. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27°C and evaporator
temperature of - 23°C, then the Carnot COP will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 10.
Ans: d
58. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction pressure of 10 kg/cm
gauge and condensing pressure of about 67 kg/cm. The refrigerant used is
(a) Ammonia
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Freon
(d) Brine
(e) Hydrocarbon refrigerant.
Ans: b
59. Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of refrigeration system
(a) compression
(b) direct
(c) indirect
(d) absorption
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
60. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the condenser temperature
constant, the h.p. of compressor required will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more/less depending on rating
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
61. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by
(a) compressor
(b) condenser
(c) evaporator
(d) expansion valve
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
62. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ?
(a) condenser
(b) evaporator
(c) compressor
(d) expansion valve
(e) receiver.
Ans: b
65. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-enthalpy-
diagram represents
(a) condensation of the refrigerant vapour
(b) evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
(c) compression of the refrigerant vapour
(d) metering of the refrigerant liquid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
66. Mass flow ratio of NH3 in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration load and same
temperature limits is of the order of
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 9
(c) 9 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
(e) 3 : 1
Ans: b
68 Ammonia is
(a) non-toxic
(b) non-inflammable
(c) toxic and non-inflammable
(d) highly toxic and inflammable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
69. In vapour compression cycle using NH3 as refrigerant, initial charge is filled at
(a) suction of compressor
(b) delivery of compressor
(c) high pressure side colse to receiver
(d) low pressure side near receiver
(e) anywhere in the cycle.
Ans: c
74. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour pressure
difference between cabinet and atmosphere is high, then
(a) bigger cabinet should be used
(b) smaller cabinet should be used
(c) perfectly tight vapour seal should be used
(d) refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used
(e) refrigerant with high boiling point must be used.
Ans: c
76. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison to delivery
side is
(a) bigger
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) smaller/bigger depending on capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
81. For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should be
(a) high
(b) low
(c) optimum
(d) any value
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: b
82. The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the
(a) heat of compression
(b) work done by compressor
(c) enthalpy increase in compressor
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
83. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature, keeping
condenser temperature constant, will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
85. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system
(a) vapour compression
(b) vapour absorption
(c) carnot cycle
(d) electrolux refrigerator
(e) dual cycle.
Ans: a
86. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for C02 system) is to
approximate following h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(a) 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(b) 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(c) 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(d) 2 to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(e) 5 to 10 h.p. per ton refrigeration.
Ans: c
88. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant
(a) condenser
(b) evaporator
(c) absorber
(d) condenser and absorber
(e) condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier).
Ans: e
90. The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature, keeping
the evaporator temperature constant, will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
(d) remain unaffected
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
92. The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plant is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on size of plant
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
93. The C.O.P. of a domestic refrigerator in comparison to domestic air conditioner will
be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) dependent on weather conditions
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
94. The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption plant when
(a) ammonia vapour goes into solution
(b) ammonia vapour is driven out of solution
(c) lithium bromide mixes with ammonia
(d) weak solution mixes with strong solution
(e) lithium bromide is driven out of solution.
Ans: a