MCQs in Engineering Laws and Ethics  B. P. D. No.

576-A
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.  C. P. D. No. 567-A
1. What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country?  D. P. D. No. 657-A
 A. E. O. 125 9. What NTC memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing the
 B. R. A. 3846 manufacture, acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment?
 C. R. A. 3396  A. MC No. 9-13-98
 D. R. A. 7925  B. MC No. 8-06-88
2. Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as  C. MC No. 4-22-99
 A. “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”  D. MC No. 2-05-88
 B. “Telecommunications Law of the Philippines” 10. What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?
 C. “PRC Modernization Law”  A. E. O. 196
 D. “Municipal Telephone Act of 2000”  B. E. O. 463
3. What is otherwise known as “ The Maritime Communications Law” ?  C. E. O. 436
 A. R. A. 109  D. E. O. 205
 B. R. A. 3396 11. What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce in the
 C. R. A. 3846 country?
 D. R. A. 7925  A. E. O. 467
4. What government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to improve  B. E. O. 468
the provision of local exchange carrier service?  C. E. O. 109
 A. O. 109  D. E. O. 59
 B. R. A. 3846 12. Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of
 C. O. 59 international satellite communications in the country?
 D. O. 546  A. E. O. 468
5. What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station,  B. E. O. 109
communications in the Philippines and other purposes?  C. E. O. 205
 A. R. A. 3846  D. E. O. 467
 B. D. O. 11 13. What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?
 C. D. O. 88  A. E. O. 436
 D. D. O. 5  B. E. O. 205
6. What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics and  C. E. O. 250
Communications Engineer in the designing, installation and construction, operation  D. E. O. 346
and maintenance of radio stations? 14. What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in March
 A. R. A. 3846 1998 providing the national policy in the operation and use of international satellite
 B. R. A. 9292 communications in the Philippines?
 C. R. A. 5734  A. E. O. 3846
 D. D. O. 88  B. E. O. 59
7. Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine  C. E. O. 456
communicateons satellite corporation with the National Telecommunications  D. E. O. 467
Commission? 15. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?
 A. E. O. 109  A. December 21, 1993
 B. E. O. 196  B. February 24, 1993
 C. E. O. 59  C. June 21, 1993
 D. E. O. 205  D. December 12, 1993
8. What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and 16. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 436?
television stations and for other purposes?  A. September 11, 1997
 A. P. D. No. 223  B. September 6, 1997
  C. September 9, 1997 25. What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic
 D. September 18, 1997 Commerce Promotion Council?
17. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 109?  A. NTC
 A. July 12, 1993  B. DOTC
 B. July 15, 1993  C. NEDA
 C. October 10, 1993  D. DTI
 D. December 12, 1993 26. The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and members.
18. When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205?  A. 10
 A. June 30, 1987  B. 18
 B. June 21, 1987  C. 22
 C. June 12, 1987  D. 25
 D. June 1, 1987 27. MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman & members.
19. When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?  A. 5
 A. March 1, 1995  B. 10
 B. March 21, 1995  C. 20
 C. February 20, 1995  D. 30
 D. March 7, 1995 28. MTRCB law defines an “Adult” as a person years of age and above.
20. When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?  A. 18
 A. March 1, 1995  B. 19
 B. March 15, 1995  C. 20
 C. March 17, 1995  D. 21
 D. March 21, 1995 29. Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time?
21. What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board  A. 7 PM
(MTRCB)?  B. 8 PM
 A. P. D. 223  C. 9 PM
 B. P. D. 1986  D. 10 PM
 C. P. D. 1987 30. All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which
 D. P. D. 1988 one?
22. What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?  A. 5 AM to 9 AM
 A. P. D. 223  B. 12 NN to 2 PM
 B. P. D. 1986  C. 11 AM to 3 PM
 C. P. D. 1987  D. 4 PM to 7 PM
 D. P. D. 1988 31. For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from local time.
23. What is the new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile  A. 6:00 to 11:00 PM
personal communication having a global coverage using satellite?  B. 5:00 to 10:00 PM
 A. NMT  C. 4:00 to 9:00 PM
 B. GMPCS  D. 3:00 to 8:00 PM
 C. GSM 32. What is the prime time block for FM radio for provincial stations?
 D. TACS  A. 5 AM to 7 PM
24. What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No.  B. 6 AM to 8 PM
7925?  C. 7 AM to 7 PM
 A. Bureau of Communications  D. 6 PM to 7 PM
 B. Department of Transportation and Communications 33. What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila?
 C. House of Representatives  A. 5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
 D. National Telecommunications Commission  B. 4 AM to 8 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
 C. 5 AM to 9 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM
  D. 6 AM to 10 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM  D. 25
34. What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila? 42. KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of of news per day.
 A. 7:00 AM to 7 PM  A. 1 hour
 B. 6:00 AM to 6 PM  B. 45 minutes
 C. 6:00 AM to 8 PM  C. 2 hours
 D. 7:00 AM to 8 PM  D. 1 hour and 30 minutes
35. In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM radio is from 43. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not
 . A. 6 AM to 8 PM exceed breaks in every program hour.
 B. 9 PM to 12 MN  A. 8
 C. 5 AM to 6 AM and 8 PM to 9 PM  B. 5
 D. 12 MN to 5 AM  C. 6
36. According to the medium frequency broadcast standards, the term “nighttime”  D. 7
refers to the period of time between UTC. 44. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not
 A. 1000 to 2200 exceed breaks per program hour.
 B. 1000 to 1600  A. 5
 C. 1000 to 1500  B. 6
 D. 1000 to 1800  C. 7
37. What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919 – 1312 AM broadcast  D. 8
station in Metro Manila? 45. Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes in one hour
 A. 10 kW program.
 B. 20 kW  A. 12
 C. 15 kW  B. 15
 D. 5 kW  C. 17
38. What is the minimum carrier power output of a standard AM broadcast where  D. 20
effective and direct supervision of an Electronics and Communications Engineer is 46. All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing OPM every hour.
required?  A. 2
 A. 5 kW  B. 4
 B. 4 kW  C. 1
 C. 1 kW  D. 3
 D. 3 kW 47. All station must have a minimum of news/day form 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM.
39. What is the maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila?  A. 50 minutes
 A. 10 kW  B. 60 minutes
 B. 25 kW  C. 30 minutes
 C. 50 kW  D. 45 minutes
 D. 100 kW 48. Newscast is a distinct unit of a program with minimum news content
40. According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective of excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
radiated power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for channels 7 – 13?  A. 1 minute
 A. 300 kW  B. 2 minutes
 B. 500 kW  C. 30 seconds
 C. 1000 kW  D. 1 minute and 30 seconds
 D. 1500 kW 49. In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall not
41. In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes for one hour exceed how many breaks in 1 hour?
program.  A. 5
 A. 10  B. 3
 B. 15  C. 7
 C. 20  D. 6
50. TV station is required at least newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per  B. 34
day during weekdays.  C. 36
 A. 20 minutes  D. 38
 B. 40 minutes 59. In a CATV system, head end processor as RF input/output terminal match should
 C. 60 minutes a minimum loss of dB.
 D. 30 minutes  A. 16
51. Radio station shall allocate at least as a program or programs rendering public  B. 18
service.  C. 20
 A. 2 hours per day  D. 22
 B. 3 hours per day 60. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact
 C. 1 hour per day that the price is unjust or inadequate.
 D. 1.5 hours per day  A. damage
52. What is the standard IF Sound Carrier for a cable TV system?  B. effect
 A. 40.25 MHz  C. lesion
 B. 45.75 MHz  D. payment
 C. 43.75MHz 61. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely,
 D. 41.25 MHz consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.
53. What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system?  A. Void or Inexistent Contract
 A. 40.25 MHz  B. Unenforceable Contract
 B. 45.75 MHz  C. Voidable Contract
 C. 43.75MHz  D. Negotiorum Gestio
 D. 41.25 MHz 62. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.
54. Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country?  A. Void or Inexistent Contract
 A. ELF  B. Unenforceable Contract
 B. UHF  C. Voidable Contract
 C. VHF  D. Negotiorum Gestio
 D. HF 63. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is
55. The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission said to be
to a CATV operator shall have a maximum term of how many years?  A. Void or Inexistent Contract
 A. 5 years  B. Unenforceable Contract
 B. 10 years  C. Voidable Contract
 C. 15 years  D. Negotiorum Gestio
 D. 20 years 64. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property
56. High speed networks are ICT networks that have a capacity of at least Mbps. belonging to another without the consent of the latter.
 A. 2.048  A. Void or Inexistent Contract
 B. 32  B. Unenforceable Contract
 C. 64  C. Voidable Contract
 D. 256  D. Negotiorum Contract
57. The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in 65. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary
the UHF band is MHz compensation, recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as
 A. 1.725 to 1.79 a consequence either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act.
 B. 1.275 to 1.975  A. Payment
 C. 1.925 to 1.975  B. Injury
 D. 1.575 to 1.975  C. Damages
58. In CATV system, video signal to noise ratio of modulator must be better than dB.  D. Compensation
 A. 30
66. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical 73. What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting carriers for
expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property. accessing the facilities of such carrier which is needed by the interconnecting carriers
 A. Actual or Compensatory Damages for the origination and/or termination of all types of traffic derived from the
 B. Nominal Damages interconnector?
 C. Moral Damages  A. Interconnection charge
 D. Temperate and Moderate Damages  B. Approach charge
67. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety,  C. Access charge
besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and  D. Network charge
similar injury. 74. What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to
 A. Actual or Compensatory Damages engage to the acquisition, servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters
 B. Nominal Damages and/or transceivers, parts and accessories thereof?
 C. Moral Damages  A. Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit
 D. Temperate or Moderate Damages  B. Radio Communication Equipment Manufacture Permit
68. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a  C. Service Center Operation Permit
violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be  D. Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Point
awarded to determine the right. 75. A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in
 A. Actual or Compensatory Damages the Philippines and no regional network exhibition in the relevant market is known in
 B. Nominal Damages CATV system as .
 C. Moral Damages  A. Off-network
 D. Temperate or Moderate Damages  B. Cablecasting
69. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.  C. First-Run series
 A. Actual or Compensatory Damages  D. First-Run No-series programs
 B. Nominal Damages 76. The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly
 C. Moral Damages supervised by a registered ECE. The statement above is:
 D. Temperate or Moderate Damages  A. True
70. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or  B. False
fixed by the judgment of a competent court.  C. It depends upon the area of coverage
 A. Liquidated Damages  D. It depends upon the number of households using the CATV system
 B. Exemplary Damages 77. Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the
 C. Corrective Damages global maritime distress and safety system implemented last 1999?
 D. Compensatory Damages  A. A facsimile
71. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on  B. A radio personnel
account of wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts  C. A Morse code
complained of.  D. A radio-telegraph operator
 A. Actual or Compensatory Damages 78. Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange line for
 B. Nominal Damages every urban local exchange lines.
 C. Moral Damages  A. 5
 D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages  B. 10
72. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of  C. 15
merchants, mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another  D. 20
throughout the civilized countries of the world. 79. Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of switch termination.
 A. Law of merchants  A. 100 local exchange lines per international
 B. Law of businessmen  B. 200 local exchange lines per international
 C. Law of mariners  C. 300 local exchange lines per international
 D. Law of people  D. 500 local exchange lines per international
80. What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a  A. Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule
Certificate of Public Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued?  B. Cancellation of its authority
 A. Franchise  C. Given one year to comply
 B. B SEC document  D. Given two years to comply
 C. Business Permit 87. When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its area?
 D. Radio station license  A. When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and must be
81. When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under within the franchise area.
Department Order No. 88?  B. When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required capitalization
 A. FM broadcast station with a carrier power of 1000 watts and upon approval of NTC.
 B. TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watts  C. Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical capability.
 C. TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2kW  D. Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not discriminated in
 D. Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5kW rate and access, and has separated books of account.
82. An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network 88. What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video,
operator, authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local text, images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a
exchanges within the Philippines and to engage in the business of inter-exchange geographical area via wired or wireless means?
national long distance services is known as .  A. Telecommunications
 A. Local exchange carrier  B. Broadcasting
 B. International carrier  C. Mass media
 C. Inter-exchange carrier  D. Multi media
 D. National carrier 89. What refers to a non-exclusive facility which the public may, by the payment of
83. An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other
of local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers messages?
enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers is known as .  A. Telephone-telegraph calling center
 A. International carrier  B. Telecommunications calling station
 B. Value-added service provider  C. Public toll calling station
 C. Inter-exchange carrier  D. Call center
 D. Local exchange carrier 90. The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide the local
84. What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by exchange service in unserved or underserved areas within years from the grant of the
Congress, authorizing an entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications authority as required by existing regulation.
service?  A. 3 years
 A. Authority to Operate  B. 4 years
 B. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity  C. 2 years
 C. Franchise  D. 5 years
 D. Provisional Authority 91. International switch termination refers to a port in the switching international
85. NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable television gateway system equivalent to kbps (digital) where international circuit terminates.
system within the same franchise area covered by any provisional Authority or  A. 56.6
Certificate of Authority previously granted by the Commission.  B. 64
 A. Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition of the  C. 128
authorization.  D. 256
 B. New entrant has more financial support 92. Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and
 C. Current service is grossly inadequate calling frequency for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service
 D. Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition when using frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 MHz and 174 MHz?
86. Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing  A. 165.8 MHz
telecommunication law, should an international carrier unable to comply with its  B. 156.8 MHz
obligation to provide local exchange service in un-served and under-served areas  C. 158.6 MHz
within three years from grant of authority?  D. 168.5 MHz
93. Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications  D. Log
Development Bureau report? 101. Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to
 A. RRB the reserve transmitter and receiver?
 B. WTDC  A. AA
 C. WRC  B. Direction finder
 D. WTSC  C. Main transmitter
94. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the  D. Emergency transmitter
orbit/spectrum resources? 102. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and
 A. Depending on geographical boundary of a nation safety system is the:
 B. Efficient use and equitable access  A. provision of Morse code.
 C. Depending on national sovereignty  B. provision of radiotelegraph operator.
 D. Equal distribution  C. provision of facsimile.
95. Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?  D. provision of radio personnel.
 A. ITU-R 103. One of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship
 B. ITU-D under the global maritime distress and safety system. Which one?
 C. ITU-T  A. On board radio facilities
 D. RAG  B. Radio operator telegraphy onboard
96. Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU  C. Shore base facilities
report?  D. Radio personnel onboard
 A. WTSC 104. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open
 B. TDAB circuited and that any auxiliary antenna is/are connected to the main receiver?
 C. WRC  A. AA
 D. Council  B. Emergency transmitter
97. The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international  C. Direction finder
radio communications as .  D. Ground
 A. IRCC 105. What position of maritime ship main antenna, when the radio watch is secured
 B. ITU or when the ship is in electrical storm?
 C. IRR  A. AA
 D. CCIR  B. Main transmitter
98. What agency of the United Nations formulates standards and recommended  C. Grounded
practices for all civil aviation?  D. HF
 A. ICAO 106. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications
 B. CAA Union in its international conference issues on orbital resources?
 C. IATA  A. Assign frequencies and organized conferences.
 D. ATO  B. Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of
99. What is the executive branch of government –in-charge of policy making in the distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources.
telecommunication?  C. Determine principles of a spectrum distribution and assignment of
 A. National Telecommunications Commission frequencies.
 B. Telecommunications Control Bureau  D. Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots.
 C. Department of Transportation and Communications 107. A person or entity intending to register as VolP service provider is required to
 D. Bureau of Telecommunications post a performance bond of .
100. What refers to the listing of the date and time events, programs, equipment, test,  A. P 1 million
malfunctions and corrections in communication system?  B. P 3 million
 A. File  C. P 5 million
 B. Documentation  D. P 10 million
 C. Reporting
108. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more  A. August 27, 2007
telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing  B. August 28, 2007
or enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach the  C. August 29, 2007
subscribers of the other carrier or operator?  D. August 31, 2007
 A. Interconnection 117. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering consultation
 B. Toll patching services?
 C. Gateway  A. Registered Electronic Technicians
 D. Outside plant sharing  B. Registered Electronic Engineers
109. Which law refers to the “Electronic Commerce Act of 2000”?  C. Professional Electronic Engineers
 A. R. A. 8927  D. Choices B and C above
 B. R. A. 9287 118. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render design services?
 C. R. A. 8792  A. Yes
 D. R. A. 8729  B. No
110. What is otherwise known as “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”?  C. Yes if he has more than 5 years experience
 A. P. D. 223  D. Yes if he has more than 10 years experience
 B. R. A. 5734 119. Under R. A. 9292, the Professional Electronic Engineer shall the electronics
 C. R. A. 9292 plan designed by a Registered Electronic Engineer?
 D. R. A. 7925  A. review
111. What is otherwise known as “PRC modernization law”?  B. sign
 A. R. A. 8891  C. seal
 B. R. A. 8981  D. all of the choices
 C. R. A. 8918 120. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics
 D. R. A. 8198 construction and installation?
112. Professional Regulations Commission was created under .  A. Professional Electronic Engineers
 A. P. D. 323  B. Registered Electronic Engineers
 B. P. D. 223  C. Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers
 C. P. D. 232  D. Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice
 D. P. D. 223 experience
113. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223? 121. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based on
 A. June 21, 1973  . A. current practice
 B. June 22, 1973  B. current costumer price index
 C. June 23, 1973  C. minimum basic daily wage
 D. June 24, 1974  D. all of the above
114. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved? 122. Under R. A. 9292, the rate of retainers’ fee to be charged by the consulting
 A. June 21, 2000 electronics engineer for routine or ordinary consultation will not be less than per
 B. October 10, 2000 month.
 C. April 22, 2000  A. P 1,500
 D. June 14, 2000  B. P 2,000
115. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal  C. P 2,500
Arroyo?  D. P3,000
 A. April 12, 2004 123. The powers and functions of the Board is provided in of the R. A. No. 9292.
 B. April 17, 2004  A. Section 5
 C. April 19, 2004  B. Section 6
 D. April 27, 2004  C. Section 7
116. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A. 9292  D. Section 8
approved?
124. R. A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination shall be 131. For professional services rendered by the electronics engineer as consultant for
released within days after the examination. project with definite duration, the minimum recommended hourly rate is for salaried
 A. 5 ECEs.
 B. 10  A. 0.01 of basic monthly salary scale
 C. 15  B. 0.02 of basic monthly salary scale
 D. 3  C. 0.03 of basic monthly salary scale
125. What is the minimum punishment imposed to any person who shall give any  D. 0.04 of basic monthly salary scale
false or fraudulent statement to the Board to obtain a Certificate of registration 132. Aside from compensation, the client will pay for the cost of at least “business
and/or Professional ID Card as Electronics Engineer? class” transportation and accommodation if the meetings are conducted in a place
 A. P 100,000 or imprisonment of 6 months more than km away from the established office of electronic engineer consultant.
 B. P 10,000 or imprisonment of 3 months  A. 30
 C. P 50,000 or imprisonment of 6 months  B. 40
 D. P 100,000 or imprisonment of 1 year  C. 50
126. The electronic designer will furnish sets of drawing specifications and other  D. 100
contract documents to the client. 133. For court appearance electronics engineer must charge a minimum fee to the
 A. 5 client of not less than per hour per appearance regardless whether the hearing is
 B. 3 postponed or not.
 C. 7  A. P 500.00
 D. 2  B. P 250.00
127. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners with less  C. P 1,000.00
than 5 years of active service?  D. P 100.00
 A. P 4,000 to P 8,000 134. For conference, electronics engineer must not charge fee to the client more
 B. P 2,000 to P 5,000 than per hour per attendance regardless whether the meeting is postponed or not.
 C. P 5,000 to P 9,000  A. P 500.00
 D. P 6,000 to P 10,000  B. P 250.00
128. “To provide technical specifications for electronics equipment and systems” is  C. P 1,000.00
under what field of ECE practice?  D. P 750.00
 A. Engineering consultation 135. All are methods of determining the fees to electronics engineers except:
 B. Design Services  A. Constant Percentage Method
 C. Construction and Installation  B. Percent of Cost Method
 D. Inspection and Appraisal  C. Cost Plus Reasonable Profit
129. “Testing and quality control of electronic products” is under what field of ECE  D. Percent of Total Project Cost
practice? 136. When a project involves alterations, repairs, additions, modifications, etc, which
 A. Education Service does not involve a whole project, what method is used for computing the
 B. Research and Development professional fee?
 C. Manufacturing  A. Unit Cost Method
 D. Maintenance  B. Constant Percentage Method
130. If the ECE consultant’s present is required in another place away from his  C. Per Lot Method
office, additional compensation of for every hour he is away from his office or if the  D. Per Project Method
place more than 50 km away from his office. 137. What method of computing fees is where the electronic facilities are divided
 A. P 1,000.00 into classifications which have corresponding unit design rate?
 B. P 500.00  A. Percent of Cost Method
 C. P 250.00  B. Unit Cost Method
 D. P 100.00  C. Per Lot Method
 D. Per Project Method
138. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with 5 to 10 145. What is the minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as
years of active service? provided in the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
 A. P 6,000 to P 20,000  A. P 100,000
 B. P 5,000 to P 8,000  B. P 500,000
 C. P 8,000 to P 12,000  C. P 100,000
 D. P 10,000 to P 15,000  D. P 50,000
139. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with more 146. What is the minimum penalty for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as
than 10 years of active service? provided in the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
 A. P 15,000 – up  A. 6 months imprisonment
 B. P 12,000 – up  B. 12 months imprisonment
 C. P 8,000 – up  C. 2 months imprisonment
 D. P 10,000 – up  D. 3 months imprisonment
140. According to the manual of professional practice of electronics engineers, the 147. A secret code which secures and defends sensitive information that crosses over
minimum rate of retainer’s fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer public channels into a form decipherable only with a matching electronic key is
is . referred to as
 A. P 1,500 per month  A. password
 B. P 1,000 per month  B. username
 C. P 2,000 per month  C. encrypted code
 D. P 2,500 per month  D. electronic key
141. What refers to the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; 148. What is the term of the Chairman of the Professional Regulation Commission?
to erect or to form and/or to set or establish electronics equipment, systems or  A. 5 years
facilities?  B. 3 years
 A. Construction and/or installation  C. 6 years
 B. Investigation  D. 7 years
 C. Appraisal 149. Which one is NOT the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine
 D. Acceptance Electronic Codes?
142. What refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronic  A. Voltage/current limiting and interrupting
equipment and/or related components, parts, devices and accessories?  B. Undergrounding
 A. Quality control  C. Grounding and bonding
 B. Manufacturing  D. Shielding
 C. Development 150. What unit measures the dosage ratio of radiation?
 D. System design  A. roentgens per minute
143. What refers to the act of conceptualizing, planning and projecting a scheme,  B. milliroentgens per hour (mr per hour)
system and facility using the arts and science of electronics along with social,  C. rebs per hour
economic, financial and technical consideration?  D. rems per minute
 A. Construction service 151. What unit expresses the amount of radiation actually absorbed in the tissue?
 B. Consultation service  A. rad
 C. Organizing service  B. rbe
 D. Design service  C. rem
144. What is the act of giving advice and information to client in the area of  D. reb
electronics engineering and its related fields in line with current internationally 152. What refers to radiation other than X-rays which will cause an absorption equal
accepted standards and practices? to 1 roentgen?
 A. Consultancy design  A. rbe
 B. Professional consultation  B. reb
 C. Engineering consultation  C. rem
 D. Consultancy service  D. rep
153. What refers t the different sources of radiation have different effects which are  C. rbes
related to X-rays by a number?  D. rebs
 A. rbe 161. When is coordination with the telephone company needed when as underground
 B. rems service entrance will be used as the most feasible and economical way?
 C. rebs  A. Expense of telephone company
 D. all of the above  B. Expense of subscriber
154. Which of the following determines the total dose of radiation?  C. Length of a bale to be used by subscriber
 A. The total dose is determined by multiplying the dosage rate by the number  D. Decision of depth of conduit at interconnection point
of hours of exposure. 162. The potential difference between any exposed structure to ground in any
 B. The total dose is determined by adding the dosage rate by the number of electrical installation should not exceed volts RMS.
hours of exposure.  A. 10
 C. The total dose is determined by dividing the dosage rate by the number of  B. 45
hours of exposure.  C. 0
 D. The total dose is determined by subtracting the dosage rate by the number of  D. 30
hours of exposure. 163. Which of the following is the lowest resistance grounding on earth?
155. According to safety standards, what is the maximum allowable radiation from  A. Sand
an electronic equipment?  B. Clay
 A. Must not exceed 100 mr per week  C. Surface loam soil
 B. Must not exceed 10 mr per week  D. Limestone
 C. Must not exceed 1000 mr per day 164. Which part of housing of a building cable system has the same function as the
 D. Must not exceed 100 mr per day slot but circular in shape?
156. What unit expresses the rbe dose?  A. Fitting
 A. rems (roentgen equivalent man)  B. Sleeve
 B. rebs (roentgen equivalent biological)  C. Insert
 C. Both A & B  D. Header
 D. Only A 165. What refers to a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a
157. What formula gives the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD) in portion or an entire floor of a building?
rems to the whole body, with N = person’s age?  A. Floor terminal distribution area
 A. MPD = 5 (N – 18)  B. Raceway terminal
 B. MPD = 3 (N – 15)  C. Floor distribution terminal
 C. MPD = 7 (N – 18)  D. Riser terminal
 D. MPD = 5 (N – 15) 166. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the
158. What is the rbe of alpha particles and fast neutrons? floor structure to allow the passage of a cable and wire?
 A. 10  A. Insert
 B. 5  B. Sleeve
 C. 15  C. Raceway
 D. 7  D. Slot
159. What is the rbe of any radiation produced by a radio transmitter? 167. In cable facilities for a building communications service, is referred to as a
 A. 2 physical cable within a building or series of buildings which may include both main
 B. 1 cable pairs and house cable pairs but not wiring cable.
 C. 4  A. entrance cable
 D. 3  B. floor distribution cable
160. What unit is used to measure the accumulative effects of radiation that can  C. house cable
cause genetic and somatic effects?  D. building cable
 A. roentgens 168. A telephone company’s cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to
 B. rems the main cross-connecting a point within the building is called .
  A. Telephone cable  D. Obligation
 B. Entrance cable 176. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that are morally
 C. Connecting cable desirable in engineering practice and research?
 D. Building cable  A. Engineering ethics
169. It is a non-combustible tubing which encases the riser cable between enclosed  B. Engineering management
type metallic terminal cabinets or boxes.  C. Engineering system
 A. Raceway  D. Engineering integrity
 B. Riser shaft 177. What consists of the responsibilities and rights that ought to be endorsed by
 C. Riser conduit those engaged in engineering, and also of desirable ideals and personal commitments
 D. Entrance cable in engineering?
170. A series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or  A. Ethics
open shaft of the building is called .  B. Code of ethics
 A. Service fitting  C. Engineering ethics
 B. Raceway  D. Engineering standards
 C. Riser conduit 178. What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which
 D. Riser shaft the application of moral values is problematic?
171. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two  A. Silo mentality
story residential building to be required a service entrance facility under ECE  B. Preventive ethics
building code?  C. Ethical issues
 A. Two lines  D. Moral dilemmas
 B. Five lines 179. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession,
 C. Three lines and as represented by a professional society?
 D. Not required  A. Preventive ethics
172. What is the device that diverts high transient voltage to the ground and away  B. Work ethics
from the equipment thus protected?  C. Code of ethics
 A. Alpeth  D. Professional code
 B. Anchor 180. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational orientation, concerning
 C. Alarm the value of work?
 D. Arrester  A. Preventive ethics
173. What is one possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in one self-excited  B. Work ethics
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant  C. Code of ethics
oscillation?  D. Professional code
 A. Poor soldered connections. 181. Ethics is synonymous to .
 B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator.  A. morality
 C. DC and RF ac heating of the resistors which cause change in values.  B. money
 D. Aging which cause change condition in parts characteristics.  C. standards
174. Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics?  D. conduct
 A. Honesty 182. A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons?
 B. Justice  A. Death of a party to the contract
 C. Integrity  B. Failure of consideration
 D. Courtesy  C. Mutual agreement of the parties to the contract
175. What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange goods or  D. All of the above
services? 183. Some contracts may be dissolved by which valid reason?
 A. Consideration  A. Court order
 B. Partnership  B. Passage of new laws
 C. Contract  C. Declaration of war
  D. All of the above 192. What is defined as a non-performance that results in the injured party receiving
184. What is the major advantage of a standard contract? something substantially less than or different from what the contract is intended?
 A. The meanings of the clauses were established.  A. Willful breach
 B. The clauses of this contract are to be litigated.  B. Material breach
 C. The clauses of this contract are rarely ambiguous.  C. Unintentional breach
 D. All of the above  D. Intentional breach
185. The general contractor who hires different subcontractors is known 193. What refers to the condition that in a contract between two parties, only the
as contractor. parties to a contract may sue under it and that any third party names in that contract
 A. real or who benefit from that contract cannot sue or be sued under that contract?
 B. original  A. Doctrine of contract
 C. prime  B. Party policy of contract
 D. legitimate  C. Equity of contract
186. What is the basic requirement in order for a contract to be binding?  D. Privity of contract
 A. There must be a clear, specific and definite offer. 194. What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another
 B. There must be some form of conditional future consideration. person of his property, emotional well-being, or reputation?
 C. There must be an acceptance of the offer.  A. Consequential damage
 D. All of the above  B. Fraud
187. What contract document is part of the constructive contracts?  C. Punitive damage
 A. Agreement form  D. Tort
 B. General condition 195. The tort law is concerned with .
 C. Drawings and specifications  A. imprisonment
 D. All of the above  B. fine
188. What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the  C. compensation for the injury
contract is made?  D. punishment
 A. A representation 196. What refers to a statement or oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an
 B. An offer individual in ceremonies?
 C. A proposal  A. Canon
 D. A consideration  B. Code
189. What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the  C. Creed
root of the contract?  D. Rule
 A. Warranty 197. A canon is defined as:
 B. Condition  A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
 C. Injuction  B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
 D. Innominate terms  C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
190. What type of damages is awarded, usually for fraud cases, to punish and make  D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
an example of the defendant to deter other from doing the same thing? 198. A rule is defined as:
 A. Punitive damages  A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
 B. Nominal damages  B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
 C. Liquidated damages  C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
 D. Consequential damages  D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
191. What is another term for “punitive damages”? 199. A code is defined as:
 A. Liquidated damages  A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
 B. Exemplary damages  B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
 C. Compensatory damages  C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
 D. Nominal damages  D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
200. What refers to the rendition of service by a dully licensed professional by virtue  A. Juridical or legal tie
of his technical education, training, experience and competence?  B. Prestation
 A. Professional practice  C. Active subject
 B. Professional service  D. Passive subject
 C. Legal practice and service 209. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is
 D. Professional consultation demandable or known as the debtor or obligor
201. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.  A. Juridical or legal tie
 A. Contracts  B. Prestation
 B. Obligation  C. Active subject
 C. Quasi-delicts  D. Passive subject
 D. Condition 210. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.
202. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.  A. Law
 A. Obligum  B. Contracts
 B. Obligate  C. Quai-delicts
 C. Obligare  D. Work
 D. Obligus 211. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except
203. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property,  A. An act or omission
independent of contract.  B. Accompanied by fault or negligence
 A. Contracts  C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties
 B. Obligation  D. Acts or omissions punished by law
 C. Quasi-delicts 212. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention
 D. Condition a specific date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.
204. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the  A. Pure obligation
courts of justice may compel their performance.  B. Condition obligation
 A. Civil Obligations  C. Reciprocal obligation
 B. Natural Obligation  D. Alternative obligation
 C. Pure Obligation 213. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.
 D. Condition  A. Pure obligation
205. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and  B. Condition
conscience, they are not legally demandable.  C. Reciprocal obligation
 A. Civil Obligations  D. Alternative obligation
 B. Natural Obligation 214. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.
 C. Pure Obligation  A. Pure obligation
 D. Condition  B. Condition obligation
206. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party  C. Reciprocal obligation
 A. Juridical or legal tie  D. Alternative obligation
 B. Prestation 215. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until
 C. Active subject the fulfillment of the condition.
 D. Passive subject  A. Suspensive Condition
207. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something  B. Alternative obligation
 A. Juridical or legal tie  C. Reciprocal obligation
 B. Prestation  D. Resolutory obligation
 C. Active subject 216. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the
 D. Passive subject happening of the event.
208. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the  A. Suspensive Condition
performance of the obligation or known as the creditor or oblige  B. Alternative obligation
  C. Reciprocal obligation  C. Reciprocal obligation
 D. Resolutory Condition  D. Alternative obligation
217. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the 225. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The
expiration of said term. delivery of the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation.
 A. Pure obligation Marc could not compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the
 B. Obligations with a period refrigerator because this illustrates:
 C. Reciprocal obligation  A. Pure obligation
 D. Alternative obligation  B. Condition
218. “A” borrowed money from “B” in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the  C. Reciprocal obligation
amount “as soon as possible”. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of  D. Alternative obligation
payment, the remedy of “B” is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when 226. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is
the debt is to be paid. This illustrates: sufficient, determined by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.
 A. Pure obligation  A. Pure obligation
 B. Obligations with a period  B. Condition
 C. Reciprocal obligation  C. Reciprocal obligation
 D. Alternative obligation  D. Alternative obligation
219. A kind of period with suspensive effect. 227. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of
 A. Ex die the debt, and each one of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit
 B. In diem  A. Joint obligation
 C. Legal period  B. Solidary obligation
 D. Voluntary period  C. Divisible obligation
220. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a  D. Indivisible obligation
certain date 228. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of
 A. Ex die the creditors may demand compliance of the entire obligation.
 B. In diem  A. Joint obligation
 C. Legal period  B. Solidary obligation
 D. Voluntary period  C. Divisible obligation
221. A period established by law.  D. Indivisible obligation
 A. Ex die 229. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.
 B. In diem  A. Active Solidarity
 C. Legal period  B. Passive Solidarity
 D. Voluntary period  C. Mixed Solidarity
222. A period agreed to by the parties.  D. Solo Solidarity
 A. Judicial period 230. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called
 B. In diem  A. Active Solidarity
 C. Legal period  B. Passive Solidarity
 D. Voluntary period  C. Mixed Solidarity
223. A period authorized by the court.  D. Solo Solidarity
 A. Judicial period 231. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same
 B. In diem time, this is called
 C. Legal period  A. Active Solidarity
 D. Voluntary period  B. Passive Solidarity
224. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give  C. Mixed Solidarity
something.  D. Solo Solidarity
 A. Pure obligation 232. An obligation which is capable of partial performance.
 B. Condition  A. Joint obligation
  B. Solidary obligation  D. Partial
 C. Divisible obligation 240. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except
 D. Indivisible obligation  A. By Payment or Performance
233. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three  B. By the condition or remission of the debt
sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on May 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the amount  C. By altering the signature
of P150.00. Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on June 1st, and  D. By the loss of the thing due
Pedro to pay Juan the same amount of P150.00. This illustrates: 241. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.
 A. Joint obligation  A. Joint obligation
 B. Solidary obligation  B. Solidary obligation
 C. Divisible obligation  C. Divisible obligation
 D. Indivisible obligation  D. Indivisible obligation
234. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity 242. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or
 A. Qualitative renounced totally.
 B. Quantitative  A. Partial
 C. Ideal  B. Complete
 D. Moral  C. Express
235. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality  D. Implied
 A. Qualitative 243. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the
 B. Quantitative obligation.
 C. Ideal  A. Partial
 D. Mental  B. Complete
236. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division  C. Express
 A. Qualitative  D. Implied
 B. Quantitative 244. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.
 C. Ideal  A. Partial
 D. All of the above  B. Complete
237. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.  C. Express
 A. Law  D. Implied
 B. Penal clause 245. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
 C. Stipulation  A. Partial
 D. Preceding  B. Complete
238. “A” binds himself to deliver to “B” a Honda Civic car at the end of the current  C. Express
year. They agree in writing that should “A” fail to deliver the car on a specified date,  D. Implied
“A” shall pay “B” as penalty P10,000.00. “A” fails to make the delivery. “B” could 246. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the
demand the payment of P10,000.00 against “A”. “B”, however could not compel two debts in their concurrent amounts even without the express agreement of the
“A” to deliver the car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of parties. Judicial compensation
penal clause:  A. Legal compensation
 A. Joint  B. Voluntary compensation
 B. Subsidiary  C. Judicial compensation
 C. Solo  D. Partial compensation
 D. Partial 247. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by
239. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal agreement of the parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts.
clause can be enforced.  A. Legal compensation
 A. Joint  B. Voluntary compensation
 B. Subsidiary  C. Judicial compensation
 C. Solo  D. Partial compensation
248. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the  C. Quasi-delicts
counterclaim of the defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff.  D. Condition
 A. Legal compensation 256. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.
 B. Total compensation  A. Kontrus
 C. Judicial compensation  B. contractus
 D. Partial compensation  C. Tractum
249. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of  D. Contractumus
different amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the compensation. 257. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except
 A. Legal compensation  A. consent of the parties
 B. Total compensation  B. object or subject matter
 C. Judicial compensation  C. cause or consideration
 D. Partial compensation  D. effects to the subject
250. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same 258. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is
amount and compensation extinguishes the obligations entirely. presumed by law unless there is an agreement to the contrary
 A. Legal compensation  A. Essential element
 B. Total compensation  B. Natural elements
 C. Judicial compensation  C. Accidental elements
 D. Partial compensation  D. Unnatural elements
251. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change. 259. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the
 A. True novation parties such as conditions, terms, etc.
 B. Real novation  A. Essential element
 C. Personal novation  B. Natural elements
 D. Substitute novation  C. Accidental elements
252. “A” obliged himself to deliver to “B” a car. Subsequently, they entered into  D. Unnatural elements
another contract whereby instead of “A” delivering a car, “A” would deliver a truck. 260. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties
This illustrates: agree upon the terms of the contract.
 A. True novation  A. Preparation or Conception
 B. Real novation  B. Perfection or Birth
 C. Personal novation  C. Consummation or Termination
 D. Substitute novation  D. Deliberation
253. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is 261. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in
subrogated to the rights of the creditor. agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.
 A. True novation  A. Preparation or Conception
 B. Real novation  B. Perfection or Birth
 C. Personal novation  C. Consummation or Termination
 D. Substitute novation  D. Deliberation
254. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects 262. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the
or modification of principal condition. horse for the amount. This refers to what stage of the contract
 A. Mixed novation  A. Preparation or Conception
 B. Real novation  B. Perfection or Birth
 C. Personal novation  C. Consummation or Termination
 D. Substitute novation  D. Deliberation
255. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with 263. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the
respect to the other to give something or to render some services. amount P2,000.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it.
 A. Contracts  A. Preparation or Conception
 B. Obligation  B. Perfection or Birth
  C. Consummation or Termination 272. “A”, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with “B”
 D. Deliberation whereby the latter agreed to murder “C”. This limitation upon the right to contract
264. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written. that refers to
 A. Express contract  A. Contrary to law
 B. Implied contracts  B. Against moral
 C. Executed contracts  C. Contrary to good customs
 D. Executory contracts  D. Contrary to public order
265. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct. 273. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby for and In consideration of
 A. Express contract P100,000.00 the latter agrees to live with “A” without the benefit of marriage. This
 B. Implied contracts limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
 C. Executed contracts  A. Contrary to law
 D. Executory contracts  B. Against moral
266. A contract that has already been performed.  C. Contrary to good customs
 A. Express contract  D. Contrary to public order
 B. Implied contracts 274. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were
 C. Executed contracts printed and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including
 D. Executory contracts matrimonial bed. Pedro, however walked out of it and was never heard of again. This
267. A contract that has not yet performed. limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
 A. Express contract  A. Contrary to law
 B. Implied contracts  B. Against moral
 C. Executed contracts  C. Contrary to good customs
 D. Executory contracts  D. Contrary to public order
268. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale. 275. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby “A” will not enter into any
 A. Consensual contract enterprise whatever in the Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that
 B. Bilateral contract refers to
 C. Real contract  A. Contrary to law
 D. Unilateral contract  B. Against moral
269. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the  C. Contrary to good customs
contract.  D. Contrary to public order
 A. Consensual contract 276. The following are requisites of contracts except
 B. Bilateral contract  A. Consent
 C. Real contract  B. Object of contract
 D. Unilateral contract  C. Cause of contract
270. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in  D. Effect of contract
commodatum or gratuitous deposit. 277. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the pure
 A. Consensual contract liberality of the giver.
 B. Bilateral contract  A. Gratuitous Contract
 C. Real contract  B. Remunetory Contract
 D. Unilateral contract  C. Onerous Contrary
271. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.  D. Liberation Contract
 A. Consensual contract 278. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the service or
 B. Bilateral contract benefit for which the remuneration is given.
 C. Real contract  A. Gratuitous Contract
 D. Unilateral contract  B. Remunetory Contract
 C. Onerous Contract
 D. Liberation Contract
279. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the mutual  B. Unenforceable Contract
undertaking or promise of either of the contracting parties.  C. Voidable Contract
 A. Gratuitous Contract  D. Negotiorum Gestio
 B. Remunetory Contract 287. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property
 C. Onerous Contract belonging to another without the consent of the latter.
 D. Liberation Contract  A. Void or Inexistent Contract
280. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or  B. Unenforceable Contract
constructed so as to express or confirm to the real intention of the parties when some  C. Voidable Contract
error or mistake has been committed.  D. Negotiorum Contract
 A. Reformation 288. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary
 B. Novation compensation, recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as
 C. Defect a consequence either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act.
 D. Erroneous  A. Payment
281. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?  B. Injury
 A. There is a valid contract;  C. Damages
 B. The contract is in writing;  D. Compensation
 C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties 289. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical
 D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property.
mutual mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident.  A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
282. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third  B. Nominal Damages
persons, such as creditors, the contract may be rescinded.  C. Moral Damages
 A. Rescissible Contract  D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
 B. Voidable Contract 290. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious
 C. Unenforced Contracts anxiety, besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation
 D. Void or Inexistent Contracts and similar injury.
283. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the  A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
fact that the price is unjust or inadequate.  B. Nominal Damages
 A. damage  C. Moral Damages
 B. effect  D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
 C. lesion 291. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to
 D. payment a violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some damages must
284. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, be awarded to determine the right.
namely, consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is  A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
annulled.  B. Nominal Damages
 A. Void or Inexistent Contract  C. Moral Damages
 B. Unenforceable Contract  D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
 C. Voidable Contract 292. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.
 D. Negotiorum Gestio  A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
285. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.  B. Nominal Damages
 A. Void or Inexistent Contract  C. Moral Damages
 B. Unenforceable Contract  D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
 C. Voidable Contract 293. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or
 D. Negotiorum Gestio fixed by the judgment of a competent court.
286. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is  A. Liquidated Damages
said to be  B. Exemplary Damages
 A. Void or Inexistent Contract  C. Corrective Damages
  D. Compensatory Damages 305. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly
294. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on registered/licensed Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her
account of wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts name the letters “ECT”.
complained of.  A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
 A. Actual or Compensatory Damages  B. Professional Electronics Engineer
 B. Nominal Damages  C. Electronics Engineer
 C. Moral Damages  D. Electronics Technician
 D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages 306. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly
295. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of registered/licensed Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act
merchants, mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another No. 5734.
throughout the civilized countries of the world.  A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
 A. Law of merchants  B. Professional Electronics Engineer
 B. Law of businessmen  C. Electronics Engineer
 C. Law of mariners  D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
 D. Law of people 307. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data,
301. RA 9292 is known as programs and/or instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to process the
 A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004 data and presenting the results.
 B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines  A. Computer
 C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004  B. ICT
 D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines  C. ATM
302. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and  D. Laptop
systems involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a 308. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception
vacuum, in gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in of data and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual,
similar devices, including, but not limited to, applications involving optical, numeric or the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and
electromagnetic and other energy forms when transduced or converted into processes utilizing such data and information.
electronic signals.  A. Information and Communications Technology
 A. Electronics  B. Communications
 B. Communications  C. Telecommunications
 C. Electricity  D. Information Technology
 D. Physics 309. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or
303. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly messages between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or
registered/licensed Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to other devices and wired or wireless medium.
his/her name the letters “PECE”.  A. Information and Communications Technology
 A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer  B. Communications
 B. Professional Electronics Engineer  C. Telecommunications
 C. Electronics Engineer  D. Information Technology
 D. Electronics and Communications Engineer 310. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages,
304. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly text, written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or
registered/licensed Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name visible or audible signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control
the letters “ECE”. signals of any design/or format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral,
 A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer visual/optical/light, or other electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.
 B. Professional Electronics Engineer  A. Information and Communications Technology
 C. Electronics Engineer  B. Communications
 D. Electronics and Communications Engineer  C. Telecommunications
 D. Information Technology
311. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or 317. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ years
other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area from date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and
via wired or wireless means. qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term.
 A. Communications  A. 7
 B. Broadcasting  B. 10
 C. Transmission  C. 5
 D. Paging  D. 3
312. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where 318. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or
electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or Electronics Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during
being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated. the examination:
 A. Industrial Plant  A. 50%
 B. Commercial Establishment  B. 60%
 C. Production Area  C. 70%
 D. Power Plant  D. 80%
313. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals, 319. One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where
condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas, he/she has failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate
memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the
other building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically- other subject/s.
controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold,  A. Below 70% but not lower than 60%
maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.  B. Below 70% but not lower than 50%
 A. Industrial Plant  C. Below 60% but not lower than 50%
 B. Commercial Establishment  D. Below 75% but not lower than 60%
 C. Production Area 320. Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in
 D. Power Plant government service or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the
314. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and Board, indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific
professional capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate
feasibility studies, design, planning, construction, supervision, management and supervisors for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at
related services, and other technical studies or special studies in the field of least ___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant
electronics engineering. engineering work, from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and
 A. Consulting services Communications Engineer or Electronics Engineer.
 B. Primary services  A. 10 years; 3 years
 C. Secondary services  B. 7 years; 2 years
 D. Technical services  C. 5 years; 2 years
315. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics  D. 10 years; 2 years
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician. 321. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No.
 A. IECEP _______.
 B. Accredited Professional Organization  A. 5224; 2683
 C. PIECEP  B. 5447; 458
 D. Organization of PECE  C. 5734; 109
316. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she must be a citizen and a  D. 5533; 4552
resident of the Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her 322. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on
appointment.  A. February 2, 2004
 A. 7 years  B. March 2, 2007
 B. 10 years  C. April 17,2004
 C. 5 years  D. March 5, 2005
 D. 3 years 323. RA 9292 was approved on
  A. April 17, 2004 330. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of
 B. April 27, 2004 Registration and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the party
 C. March 17, 2005 concerned and for reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity of a
 D. March 27, 2004 revoked Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to
324. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on compliance with the applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.
 A. April 17, 2004  A. 1
 B. April 27, 2004  B. 2
 C. May 24, 2004  C. 3
 D. May 28, 2004  D. 4
325. To qualify in the registration to be PECE, one must provide __________ 331. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to
certification/s signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record  A. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the
submitted by the applicant is factual. Philippines
 A. 1; 3  B. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience
 B. 1; 2 abroad
 C. 3; 3  C. A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are
 D. 2; 2 temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the
326. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of Philippines
RA No. 9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and  D. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in
Communications Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at least __________ the Philippines
years upon the effectivity of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE. 332. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two
 A. 5 concentric circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.
 B. 10  A. 28 mm
 C. 3  B. 45 mm
 D. 7  C. 48 mm
327. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT)  D. 32 mm
will start within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292. 333. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two
 A. 5 concentric circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.
 B. 3  A. 28 mm
 C. 10  B. 45 mm
 D. 7  C. 48 mm
328. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at  D. 32 mm
least ___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or 334. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear
employment either in the Government or private sector. the words
 A. 5  A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
 B. 3  B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
 C. 10  C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
 D. 7  D. LICENSE NO.
329. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual 335. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space
certification/s from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, bear the words
technical capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be  A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
prescribed by the Board.  B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
 A. 5  C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
 B. 3  D. LICENSE NO.
 C. 10 336. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of
 D. 7 a/an
 A. atom
  B. electron  C. 48 mm
 C. radar transceiver  D. 32 mm
 D. computer 345. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29,
337. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of
 A. 1 electron ___________ in the upper part of the inner circle
 B. 2 electrons  A. atom
 C. 3 electrons  B. electron
 D. 4 electrons  C. radar transceiver
338. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains  D. computer
 A. 1 nucleus 346. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29,
 B. 2 nuclei Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing
 C. 3 nuclei the word
 D. 4 nuclei  A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
339. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with  B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
 A. grey with boundaries in black color  C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
 B. orange with boundaries in navy color  D. LICENSE NO.
 C. white with boundaries in black color 347. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE
 D. yellow with boundaries in black color NO. is the
340. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is  A. license number
 A. black with white background  B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
 B. white with black background  C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
 C. black with grey background  D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
 D. white with grey background 348. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle
341. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with below the diametral space shall bear
 A. orange background  A. license number
 B. navy blue background  B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
 C. black background  C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
 D. white background  D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
342. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and 349. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the
the nucleus and electrons in __________ color. annular space bear
 A. Black ; red  A. license number
 B. White; orange  B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
 C. White; red  C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
 D. Black; orange  D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
343. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article 350. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the
IV of RA No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles annular space bear
with the outer circle measuring __________ in diameter.  A. license number
 A. 28 mm  B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
 B. 45 mm  C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
 C. 48 mm  D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
 D. 32 mm 351. In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of
344. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article __________ of news per day (from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-
IV of RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with Saturday basis.
the inner circle measuring ___________ in diameter.  A. 30 min.
 A. 28 mm  B. 60 min.
 B. 35 mm  C. 45 min.
  D. 75 min.  A. Advertising
352. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________  B. Donation
 A. 1 minute  C. Fund
 B. 5 minutes  D. All of the above
 C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes 360. A commercial preceding the opening of the program is called
 D. All of the above  A. cow-catcher
353. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute  B. hitch-hiker
excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial load.  C. lead commercial
 A. Newsbreak  D. sweeper
 B. Flash report 361. A commercial following the close of the program is called:
 C. Newscast  A. cow-catcher
 D. all of the above  B. hitch-hiker
354. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates  C. lead commercial
 A. Primary source  D. sweeper
 B. Secondary source 362. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program
 C. 1st person source in Metro Manila
 D. 2nd person source  A. 15 min
355. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a  B. 17 min
piece of news is extracted or attributed to, or may be a person who acts as a conduit.  C. 18 min
 A. primary source  D. 20 min
 B. secondary source 363. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial
 C. 1st person source minutes within Metro Manila
 D. 2nd person source  A. 15
356. The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and  B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
recommendation for expulsion from KBP membership and, recommendation to the  C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
NTC for the cancellation of permit to operate the station, for improper placement of  D. 1 minute and 15 sec
advertisement shall be given for: 364. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes
 A. first offense within Metro Manila
 B. third offense  A. 15
 C. second offense  B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
 D. fourth offense  C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
357. These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either  D. 1 minute and 15 sec
through the KBP or directly with the broadcast station. 365. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial
 A. Public Service Announcements minutes within Metro Manila
 B. Private Announcements  A. 15
 C. Private Service Announcements  B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
 D. Public Announcements  C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
358. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino  D. 1 minute and 15 sec
music. Radio stations are encouraged to schedule _________ OPM’s every 366. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program
clockhour. outside Metro Manila
 A. 1  A. 15 min
 B. 2  B. 17 min
 C. 3  C. 18 min
 D. 4  D. 20 min
359. The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial 367. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial
broadcasting is: minutes outside Metro Manila
  A. 17  B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or
 B. 8 min and 30 sec condone these acts
 C. 4 min  C. Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and
 D. 1 min and 30 sec grammar
368. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes  D. All of the above
outside Metro Manila 375. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province
 A. 17  A. Local product
 B. 8 min and 30 sec  B. Local account
 C. 4 min  C. Local merchandise
 D. 1 min and 30 sec  D. Local goods
369. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial 376. The following are considered local accounts except:
minutes outside Metro Manila  A. Bowling Alleys
 A. 17  B. Painting shops
 B. 8 min and 30 sec  C. Barber shops
 C. 4 min  D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province
 D. 1 min and 30 sec 377. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
370. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not  A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
exceed __________ breaks in every program hour  B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
 A. 5  C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
 B. 7  D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
 C. 6 378. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
 D. 8  A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
371. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall  B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
not exceed __________ breaks in every program hour  C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
 A. 5  D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
 B. 7 379. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within:
 C. 6  A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
 D. 8  B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
372. In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the  C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
approval of the Board of Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial  D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
minutes per hour. 380. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within:
 A. 20 min  A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
 B. 15 min  B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
 C. 30 min  C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
 D. 25 min  D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
373. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio 381. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within:
standards:  A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
 A. shall not be placed within the same cluster  B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
 B. can be placed in the same time cluster  C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
 C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in  D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM
between 382. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within:
 D. A and B  A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
374. The following advertisements shall not be allowed:  B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
 A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading  C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
expressions  D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
383. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within:
  A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM 392. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime
 B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM SHALL be allowed for block time programs under station responsibility and
 C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight supervision.
 D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM  A. 1
384. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within:  B. 2
 A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM  C. 3
 B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM  D. 4
 C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight 393. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________
 D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday.
385. Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:  A. 30 min
 A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM  B. 60 min
 B. 12 noon to 2:00 PM  C. 45 min
 C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM  D. 75 min
 D. all of the above 394. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose
386. Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within: like:
 A. 9:00 AM to 12 noon  A. news bulletins
 B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM  B. last minute program changes
 C. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM  C. advisories in the public interest
 D. All of the above  D. advertisements
387. In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time 395. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________
 A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM minutes per hour in foreign or local programs, inclusive of breakspots.
 B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM  A. 15
 C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM  B. 18
 D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM  C. 17
388. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time  D. 20
 A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM 401. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to
 B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM earth.
 C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM  A. Thunder
 D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM  B. Lightning
389. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time  C. Corona
 A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM  D. Aurora
 B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM 402. Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may
 C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM vary from minor discomfort to serious injury.
 D. all of the above  A. Electrical Shock
390. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time  B. Super Sonic
 A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM  C. Acoustic Shock
 B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM  D. Sonic Boom
 C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM 403. The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is
 D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM  A. Current
391. For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time  B. Voltage
 A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM  C. Resistance
 B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM  D. Conductance
 C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM 404. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
 D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM  A. 10,000 ohms
 B. 100,000 ohms
 C. 1,000,000 ohms
  D. 100 ohms 412. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being
405. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of protected and often are installed both at and some distance away from the protected
_________ amperes and above passes through one’s chest cavity. equipment.
 A. 0.010  A. Current limiting
 B. 0.11  B. Resistance limiting
 C. 0.030  C. Grounding
 D. 0.33  D. Voltage limiting
406. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is: 413. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire
 A. 45V RMS AC and its connection to ground electrode.
 B. 12V RMS AC  A. Ground Resistance
 C. 24V RMS AC  B. Grounded Electrode
 D. 50V RMS AC  C. Ground Path
407. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:  D. Resistance Path
 A. 150V DC 414. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground
 B. 45V DC resistance must never exceed __________.
 C. 135V DC  A. 25 ohms
 D. 160V DC  B. 3 ohms
408. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth  C. 43 ohms
surface separated by a distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of  D. 5 ohms
maximum potential gradient shall be no greater than __________. 415. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises,
 A. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC the ground resistance must never exceed __________.
 B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC  A. 25 ohms
 C. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC  B. 3 ohms
 D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC  C. 43 ohms
409. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that  D. 5 ohms
foreign potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the 416. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low
least damage to plant equipment possible. resistance electrical contact with the earth.
 A. Grounding  A. Ground pole
 B. Shielding  B. Lightning Rods
 C. Bonding  C. Guy
 D. Current Limiting  D. Made Ground
410. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant 417. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material,
by direct bonding, when permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, designed to protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the
diodes, etc. which operate under abnormal voltage condition. mast of a vessel) from lightning damage.
 A. Current limiting  A. Ground pole
 B. Resistance limiting  B. Lightning Rods
 C. Grounding  C. Guy
 D. Voltage limiting  D. Made Ground
411. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by 418. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.
the use of a fuse in series with a circuit.  A. fuse
 A. Current limiting  B. Lightning rod
 B. Resistance limiting  C. Surge arrester
 C. Grounding  D. Grounding
 D. Voltage limiting 419. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at
normal operating potentials.
 A. fuse
  B. Lightning rod  A. Heavy Loading Zone
 C. Surge arrester  B. Medium Loading Zone
 D. Grounding  C. Light Loading Zone
420. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment  D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
damages. 428. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight
 A. fuse for 160 kph wind velocity.
 B. Lightning rod  A. Heavy Loading Zone
 C. Surge arrester  B. Medium Loading Zone
 D. Bonding or Grounding  C. Light Loading Zone
421. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:  D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
 A. Direct Method or two terminal test 429. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________
 B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method degrees Celsius.
 C. Triangulation Method  A. 12.5 and 25.2
 D. Three terminal test  B. 15.5 and 32.2
422. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in  C. 15.2 and 52.2
ohm-centimeter.  D. 55.5 and 60.3
 A. Ground resistance 430. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate
 B. Earth resistivity power exceeds __________ 5 kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated
 C. Cubic resistance room separated from the equipment room or location where people are staying.
 D. Earth density  A. 5 kW
423. The following are ways to improve grounds except:  B. 10 kW
 A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth  C. 1 kW
 B. Use multiple rods  D. 15 kW
 C. Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not feasible 431. Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms
 D. Place stones near the rod and “NO SMOKING” signs should be posted ___________.
424. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at  A. inside the room only
least __________ during the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES  B. before entering battery rooms
OBTAINED SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE REQUIRED.  C. outside the room only
 A. 3 times per year  D. Both A and C
 B. twice a year 432. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available
 C. once a year in battery rooms for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.
 D. 12 times a year  A. oil
425. All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least  B. kerosene
__________ to be sure they are tight.  C. flour
 A. 3 times per year  D. Caustic soda
 B. twice a year 433. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two
 C. once a year ground connections or between similar parts of two circuits.
 D. 12 times a year  A. Bond
426. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight  B. Short
for 240 kph wind velocity.  C. Fuse
 A. Heavy Loading Zone  D. Guy
 B. Medium Loading Zone 434. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready
 C. Light Loading Zone access for linemen to equipment and conductors located thereon.
 D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone  A. Stairway
427. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight  B. Climbing Space
for 200 kph wind velocity.  C. Guy
  D. Pole 442. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise
435. Insulated wires, used to run a subscriber’s line from the terminal on the pole to unbalanced force on a pole or other overhead line structures.
the protector at the house or building.  A. Bond
 A. main line  B. Short
 B. main cable  C. Fuse
 C. dropline  D. Guy
 D. dropwire 443. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy.
436. a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to  A. Overhead guy
perform in a required manner.  B. Anchor guy
 A. damaged  C. Bla guy
 B. hazard  D. Guy post
 C. fault 444. An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do
 D. short not enter.
437. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor  A. Manhole
owing to any abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two.  B. Rathole
 A. Fault current  C. Handhole
 B. Dark current  D. Finger hole
 C. Leakage current 445. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting
 D. Dead short surge current to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified.
438. An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be  A. Lightning ball
injured readily when subjected to flame.  B. Lightning Arrester
 A. Flame Proof  C. Fuse
 B. Flame Retarding  D. Lightning Protector
 C. Burn Proof 446. A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or
 D. Anti Flame more conduit runs, and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs,
439. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or conductors, cables and any associated apparatus.
continue to burn for longer times than specified in the appropriate flame test.  A. Manhole
 A. Flame Proof  B. Rathole
 B. Flame Retarding  C. Handhole
 C. Burn Proof  D. Finger hole
 D. Anti Flame 447. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting
440. A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other system, its primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.
insulation, between parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the  A. guy
application of voltage such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to  B. support
maintain an electric arc.  C. conduit
 A. Aurora  D. messenger
 B. Corona 448. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a
 C. Washover communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication
 D. Arc service.
441. A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an  A. zone
electric circuit or equipment is connected to earth, or to some conducting body of  B. area
relatively large extent that serves in place of the earth.  C. plant
 A. short  D. division
 B. jumper 449. A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the
 C. ground earth.
 D. ink  A. Lightning rod
  B. Ground rod 457. A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially
 C. Drop ground from a pole to a building.
 D. Radials  A. Aerial entrance
450. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and  B. Underground entrance
connected to earth by a heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents  C. Overhead entrance
directly to earth.  D. Handhole
 A. Lightning arrester 458. The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in
 B. Lightning rod diameter.
 C. Breaker  A. 20 mm
 D. Lightning gap  B. 30 mm
451. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customer’s  C. 40 mm
premises.  D. 50 mm
 A. Service drop 459. The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance
 B. Subscriber’s loop should be ___________.
 C. Main line  A. 20 m
 D. Local drop  B. 30 m
452. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load  C. 40 m
position at that elevation.  D. 50 m
 A. Tower displacement 460. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power
 B. Tower sway entrance must be __________ radial distance.
 C. Tower twist  A. 2 m
 D. Tower bend  B. 3 m
453. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its  C. 4 m
no-wind load position at that elevation  D. 1 m
 A. Tower displacement 461. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the
 B. Tower sway street must be ___________.
 C. Tower twist  A. 4.4 m
 D. Tower bend  B. 3.3 m
454. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at  C. 5.5 m
that elevation  D. 6.6 m
 A. Tower displacement 462. In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only,
 B. Tower sway must be __________.
 C. Tower twist  A. 3.5 m
 D. Tower bend  B. 5.5 m
455. Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.  C. 4.5 m
 A. underneath  D. 6.1 m
 B. underground 463. A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes
 C. earth mat the need for possible subsequent repairs to the property.
 D. under earth  A. Aerial entrance
456. Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross  B. Underground entrance
connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone facility.  C. Overhead entrance
 A. drop wire  D. Handhole
 B. local loop 464. An underground entrance’s minimum depth under areas used for vehicular
 C. service entrance traffic inside private property is
 D. subscribers loop  A. 800 mm
 B. 600 mm
  C. 900 mm  C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
 D. 700 mm  D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
465. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits 473. The minimum size for an entrance conduit is
by not less than __________ in well-tamped earth:  A. 20 mm
 A. 300 mm  B. 30 mm
 B. 100 mm  C. 40 mm
 C. 50 mm  D. 50 mm
 D. 150 mm 474. The minimum number of entrance conduit is
466. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits  A. 1
by not less than __________ of concrete.  B. 2
 A. 300 mm  C. 3
 B. 100 mm  D. 4
 C. 50 mm 475. It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system
 D. 150 mm are terminated.
467. The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case  A. drop wire
smaller than __________ in diameter when the service entrance does not require use  B. terminal wire
of a service box.  C. main terminals
 A. 50 mm  D. service box
 B. 75 mm 476. The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and
 C. 65 mm located at a minimum distance of __________ above floor finish.
 D. 45 mm  A. 1.3 m
468. The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding  B. 2.3 m
__________ pairs.  C. 1.6 m
 A. 20  D. 2.6 m
 B. 40 477. The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of
 C. 30 all terminations. Normally __________ away from all hazards.
 D. 50  A. 800 mm
469. The minimum size for vehicular handholes is  B. 800 mm
 A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m  C. 1000 mm
 B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m  D. 700 mm
 C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m 478. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more
 D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m terminal blocks.
470. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is  A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
 A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m  B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
 B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m  C. Riser System
 C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m  D. Service Box
 D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m 479. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other
471. The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding special services is:
__________ pairs. The minimum size for service box is  A. white
 A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m  B. yellow
 B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m  C. black
 C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m  D. blue
 D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m 480. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an
472. The minimum size for service-box is entrance is:
 A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m  A. white
 B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m  B. yellow
  C. black
 D. blue
481. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for
risers is:
 A. white
 B. yellow
 C. black
 D. blue
482. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will
exceed 300 pairs.
 A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
 B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
 C. Riser System
 D. Service Box
483. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication
lines between two or more floors or adjoining premises on the same floor of a
building generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or
outlet.
 A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
 B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
 C. Riser System
 D. Service Box
484. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building
with no floor separation to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in
unless placed in metallic conduit.
 A. Open Riser
 B. Elevated Riser
 C. Closed Riser
 D. Underground Riser
485. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets
vertically or non-vertically aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and
extending throughout the height of the building.
 A. Open Riser
 B. Elevated Riser
 C. Closed Riser
 D. Underground Riser