FIITJEE PHASE TEST 3 PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

FIITJEE - JEE MAIN
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

BATCHES : Two Year CRP (1719) A-LOT (CPT3)
PHASE TEST-III
Q.P. CODE : SET–A
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Important Instructions:
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strictly prohibited.
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Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each question. ¼
(one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be
treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
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Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
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electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
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Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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Atomic No.: H=1, He=2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al = 13, Si = 14,
P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar =18, K=19, Ca=20,Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu=29, Zn=30,
As=33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 50.
Atomic masses: H =1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al=27,
Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5,
Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________
Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________
Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________
FIITJEE Ltd, East Delhi Centre, Roots Tower, 5th Floor, Laxmi Nagar District Centre (Near Nirman Vihar Metro Station), Delhi – 110092 Ph- 43002500-501
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IT− −Two Year CRP (1719)-(A-LOT) PH-III-(PCM) JEE MAIN-(SET-A)−
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m / s2
Planck constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10–19C
Mass of electron me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg
Permittivity of free space ε0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2/N-m2
Density of water ρwater = 103 kg/m3
Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1
CHEMISTRY
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K−1 mol−1
= 1.987 ≈ 2 Cal K−1 mol−1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 × 1023
Planck’s Constant h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js
= 6.25 x 10-27 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
Atomic No.: H=1, He=2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al = 13,
Si = 14, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar =18, K=19, Ca=20,Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27,
Ni=28, Cu=29, Zn=30, As=33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,I = 53, Xe = 54,
Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 50.
Atomic masses: H =1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23,
Mg=24, Al=27, Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131,
Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.
FIITJEE Ltd, East Delhi Centre, Roots Tower, 5th Floor, Laxmi Nagar District Centre (Near Nirman Vihar Metro Station), Delhi – 110092 Ph- 43002500
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Ph y s i c s
PART – A
Straight Objective Type
This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A uniform circular disc of radius r oscillates about a horizontal axis which lies in plane of
disc. Find the perpendicular distance of axis from centre for the time period to be maximum.
(A) r/2 (B) r/4 (C) 3r/4 (D) 3r/8
π 
2. The equation of a standing wave is given as y = 0.02 sin  + 50πt  cos (10πx ) where x and
 2 
y are in metres and t is in seconds. Choose the incorrect statement:
(A) The wavelength of wave is 0.2m
(B) Displacement node occurs at x = 0.15m
(C) Displacement antinode occurs at x = 0.3m
(D) The speed of constituent waves is 0.2 m/s
3. If a wire having modulus of elasticity is 2×1011N/m2 is stretched to 2cm when we apply a

force 10N, what is the elastic potential energy of wire?
(A) 20 N-cm (B) 30 N-cm (C) 10 N-cm (D) cannot be determined
4. A black body emits radiation at the rate P when its temperature is T. At this temperature the
wavelength at which radiation has maximum intensity is λo. If at another temperature T’, the
power radiated is P’ and wavelength at maximum intensity is λo/2 then:
(A) P’T’=32 PT (B) P’T’=16 PT (C) P’T’=8 PT (D) P’T’=4 PT
5. A source emits sound of frequency 1000 Hz in air. If this sound wave is incident on a water
surface, it gets partially reflected back and partially refracted (transmitted) in water.
Difference in wavelength transmitted and wavelength reflected will be (speed of sound in
air = 330 m/s, Bulk modulus of water = 2.25x109, ρwater = 1000 kg/m3):
(A) 0.8 m (B) 1.17 m (C) 1.8 m (D) 2.21 m
6. A ideal monoatomic gas initially occupies volume V and pressure P. Now the gas undergoes
a process in which pressure of the gas is proportional to its volume. It is found that the rms
speed of the gas molecule gets doubled after the process. Heat supplied to the gas in the
above said process is:
(A) 4PV (B) 6PV (C) 8 PV (D) 10 PV
Space For Rough Work
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7. On a TP diagram, two moles of ideal gas perform process T
AB and CD. If the work done by the gas in the process AB is

A
two times the work done in the process CD then what is the T1
B
value of T1/T2?
C
(A) 1/2 T2
D
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4 P
8. A small body of super dense material, whose mass is twice the mass of the earth but whose
size is very small compared to the size of the earth, starts from rest at a height H<<R above
the earth’s surface, and reaches the earth’s surface in time t. Then t is equal to:
[g = acceleration due to gravity near earth surface]
2H H 2H 4H
(A) (B) (C) (D)
g g 3g 3g
9. A system consists three particles, each of mass M lying on the corners of an equilateral
triangle of side 2ℓ. If the length of each side of the triangle is decreased to ℓ, without the gain
in kinetic energy of the particles, the work done by an external agent is given by:
3GM2 3GM 3GM2
(A) − (B) − (C) (D) None of these
2ℓ 2ℓ ℓ
10. A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K. Then
the ratio of average rotational kinetic energies per O2 molecule to per N2 molecule is:
(A) 1 (B) 7 (C) 7/8 (D) 8/7
11. Three masses 700gm, 500gm and 400gm are suspended at the end of a
massless spring as shown, when 700 gm is removed system oscillates with a
period 3sec. What will be its period when 500gm is also removed?
(A) 1 sec
(B) 2 sec 700 gm
(C) 3 sec
500 gm
12
(D) sec 400 gm
5
12. An open pipe of length 47cm has fundamental frequency 340 Hz. What is the diameter of
the tube if velocity of sound in air is 340 m/sec?
(A) 2 cm (B) 5 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 10 cm
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13. P –V diagram of an ideal gas is as shown, work done by the gas P
in the process ABCD is: C D

2P0
(A) 4 P0 V0
(B) 2 P0 V0
A
P0
(C) 3 P0 V0 B
(D) P0 V0
V
V0 2V0 3V0
14. A body of mass m is situated in a potential field Ux = U0 (1 − cosαx) when U0 and α are
constants. The time period of small oscillations of the mass is:
m m 2m 3m
(A) π (B) 2π (C) 2π (D) 2π
uo α 2
uo α 2
uo α 2
uo α 2
15. P-V plot of an ideal mono-atomic gas is shown in the figure C → A is P

C
part of a rectangular hyperbola. Then which of the following
(U → internal energy of the gas and ρ → density of the gas) graph is
correct.
B A
V
U U
A A
C C
(A) (B)
B B
ρ ρ
U U
A C
(C) (D)
B C B A
ρ ρ
16. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under different P
processes. Process (1) is isobaric (2) is isothermal and (3) is

1
adiabatic. Let ∆U1, ∆U2 and ∆U3 be the change in internal energy P0
of the gas in these three processes then: 2
(A) ∆U1 > ∆U2 > ∆U3 (B) ∆U1 < ∆U2 < ∆U3 3
(C) ∆U2 < ∆U1 < ∆U3 (D) ∆U2 > ∆U1 > ∆U3 V0 2V0
V
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17. At t = 0, source starts accelerating with an acceleration source observer

a and observer starts moving with constant velocity v0 a0 v0
as shown in the figure simultaneously. Source emits a
frequency f and velocity of sound in the air is v. The ℓ
frequency detected by the observer initially is:
(v − v o )f 2 2(v − v o )f 2 (v − v o )f 2 2(v − v o )f 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(2vf − a) (2vf − a) 2(2vf − a) (vf − a)
18. Two particles P and Q describe SHM of same amplitude ‘A’ and angular frequency ω, along
the same straight line. The maximum distance between the two particles is 2 A. The initial
phase difference between the particles is:
π π 2π
(A) (B) (C) (D) π
4 2 3
19. The velocity of waves in a string fixed at both ends is 2 m/s. The string forms standing waves
with nodes 5.0 cm apart. The frequency of vibration of the string (In Hz) is:
(A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 20 (D) 10
20. A closed gas cylinder is divided into two parts by a piston held tight. The pressure and
volume of gas in two parts respectively are (P, 5V) and (10P, V). If now the piston is left free
and the system undergoes isothermal process, then the volume of the gas in two parts
respectively are:
(A) 2V, 4V (B) 3V, 3V (C) 5V, V (D) 4V, 2V
21. In a room where temperature is 30oC a body cools from 61oC to 59oC is 4 minutes. The time
taken by the body to cool from 51oC to 49oC will be:
(A) 4 minutes (B) 6 minutes (C) 5 minutes (D) 8 minutes
22. One train is approaching an observer at rest and another train is receding from him with
same velocity 4 m/s. Both the trains blow whistles of same frequency of 243 Hz. The beat
frequency (In Hz) as heard by the observer is (speed of sound in air = 320 m/s):
(A) 10 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 1
23. A vehicle is moving on a circular path of radius R with constant speed gR. A simple
pendulum of length λ hangs from the ceiling of the vehicle. The time period of oscillations of
the pendulum in a vertical plane containing centre of circular path is:
ℓ ℓ 2ℓ
(A) 2π (B) 2π (C) 2π (D) none of these
g 2g g
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24. A standing wave having three antinodes and four nodes is formed between two atoms
having a distance of 2A° between them. The wavelength of the standing wave is:
(A) 1.33A° (B) 6 A° (C) 1.4 A° (D) 8 A°
25. If a tunnel is dug along the diameter of the earth and a body is dropped into it, them the time
taken by it to cross the tunnel once is (R = radius of earth)
R R g g
(A) 2π (B) π (C) 2π (D) π
g g R R
26. Two rods of length l1 and l2 are made of materials whose coefficients of linear expansion
are α1 and α 2 . If the difference between two lengths is independent of temperature then:
l1 α l1 α α12 α2
(A) = 1 (B) = 2 (B) l22 α1 = l12 α 2 (D) = 2
l2 α2 l2 α1 l1 l2
27. An ideal gas has molar heat capacity Cv at constant volume. The gas undergo the process
T = T0 (1 – αV) where α, T0 is constant and V is volume. Then molar heat capacity of the gas is:
R R
(A) Cv + (1 − αV) (B) Cv − (1 − αV)
αV αV
R R
(C) Cv − (1 + αV) (D) Cv + (1 + αV)
2αV 2αV
28. A mass M is oscillating with frequency fo if hung with a spring of stiffness k.

Now it is cut in two parts in the ratio of 2 : 1 and connected as shown. The k1
new frequency is now
1 k 1 3k M M
(A) (B)
2π M 2π M
1 3k 3 k k2
(C) (D)
2k 2M 2π 2M
29. If the intensity of sound is doubled, by how many decibels (in dB) does the sound level
increase?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
30. The fractional change in the value of free-fall acceleration ‘g’ for a particle when it is lifted
from the surface to an elevation h (h<<R) is:
(A) h/R (B) −(2h/R) (C) 2h/R (D) none of these
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Chemistry
PART – B
This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Which of the following dienes is expected to have least value of enthalpy of hydrogenation?
H2C
CH2 CH2
(A) H2C CH2 (B) (C)) H2C (D) H2C C CH2
CH3
2. 2+
O 2N C C CH3 Hg
dil.H2SO4
→ P, P is :
CH3
O O
CH3 O
O CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
NO2 NO2 NO2
3. What will the correct product (A) and (B) respectively of the following reaction?
R

H2 ( 1 eq.)
Ni (200°-300°)
→A
Br2 (1 eq)
(B)
R R R H
H R
R H
H H
R H R R
(A) Br
(B) Br
(C) Br (D) Br
, Br
, , ,
Br Br Br
4. Which of the following will be the correct product (P) of the reaction?
H3C CH2 
NBS
→P ?
Br
Br H 3C CH2 Br
(A) H3 C (B) (C) (D) CH2
Br H 3C CH2
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5. Identify Z in the following reaction sequence:

CH2
  → 
HBr / Peroxide
→ Z
C2H5 ONa
H3C ether
CH3
CH3 CH2
(A) H3C (B) H3C O CH3 (C) O CH3 (D) H3C
CH3
6. Among the following compounds, the strongest base is

O NH
(A) (B) (C) H2N (D) H3C NH CH3
H2N NH2 H2N NH2
7. The most stable carbanion among the following is

H3C
(A) (B) CH2 (C) O CH2 (D) NO 2 CH2

CH2
8. Tautomerism is not exhibited by

O
(A) O O (B) (C) O (D) O

N OH
O
9. In the following compounds order of acidic strength is

OH OH OH OH
NO2
CH3 NO2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) III > IV > I > II (B) I > IV > III > II
(C) II > I > III > IV (D) IV > III > I > II
10.
+
H2N CH3 
NO2
→(A). (A)(major product) is
CH3
CH3
(A) (B) H2N

(C) Both in 1: 1 ratio (D) None of these
H2N NO2
NO2
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11. Number of meso forms and optically active forms possible in the following structure is:
CH3 (CHOH)2 CO2H
(A) 2, 0 (B) 0, 4 (C) 0, 2 (D) 0, 0
12. Which species is not aromatic?
H N
(A) (B) (C) N (D)
13. Which of the following compounds is achiral?

HO HO HO
H H H HO
H
(A) H3 C (B) H3 C (C) H3C (D) H3 C
CH3
CH3 CH2 H3C CH3
14. Number of chiral carbon atom in

Br
is
Br
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4
15. Which form of the following is most stable?

OH
OH
H OH H OH
F F H
H
(A) (B) (C) (D)

H H H H
H F
HH H HH H
F
H
16. Which of the following has least pKb value?

H 3C CH3
H3 C CH3 H 3C CH3 H3 C CH3 N
N N N
H 3C CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
H3 C CH3
CH3
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17. Rank the hydrogen atoms (Ha, Hb, Hc) in the following molecule according to their acidic
strength
Ha O O
H2C
CH3
Hb H Hc
H
(A) a > b > c (B) b > a > c (C) b > c > a (D) c > b > a
H
H shows:
18. The structure
H3C
COOH
(A) geometrical isomerism (B) optical isomerism
(C) geometrical & optical isomerism (D) tautomerism
19. Which of the following pairs of compounds is a pair of enantiomers?

CH3 CH3
Br CH3 H3C Br
(A) (B)
H3C Cl Cl Cl
H3C H3C
Cl Cl
CH3 CH3 H3C H3C
(C) (D)
Cl CH3 Cl CH3
CH3 CH3
Cl Cl
20. In the reaction:

Br
( 1 mole) 
(i) X mole NaNH2
(ii) C2H5Br
→ CH3 − C ≡ C − C2H5
H3C Br
The value of [X] is:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
21. What will be the major product?
OH +
H
(A) (B) (C) (D) All of these

CH3
H3C
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22. trans-2butene on reacting with Br2 in CCl4 forms mainly

(A) (±) 2,3-dibromobutane (B) (+) 2, 3-dibromobutane
(C) (-) 2, 3-dibromobutane (D) Meso-2, 3-dibromobutane
23. In the following reaction

CH3 − CH = CH2  BH3
→ A 
CH3 COOH
→ B . A and B are,
H3C
B , H3C
(A)
H3C CH3
3
O CH3
H3C CH2 CH2 B , H3C
(B)
3
O
(C) H3C CH2 CH2 B , H3C CH3

3
H3C O
B , H3C
(D)
H3C CH3
3
24. Which of the following on treatment with CH≡CH produce gas(es):

(i) NH2 (ii) CH3 (iii) OH (iv) Na in liq. NH3
(A) ii, iii and i (B) i, ii and iii (C) i, ii and iv (D) i, iii and iv
Cu Cl
25. CH2=CH−C≡CH + HCl 
2 2 → ' X ' . ‘X’ is
major
H2C H3C H3C CH2
Cl
(A) CH2 (B) CH (C) (D)
CH
Cl Cl Cl Cl
26. A hydrocarbon of formula C6H10 absorbs only one molecule of H2 upon catalytic
hydrogenation. Upon ozonolysis, the hydrocarbon yields a compound of the following
structure,
O
H
H
O
The hydrocarbon is:
(A) cyclohexane (B) cyclohexyne (C) cyclohexene (D) cyclobutane
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27. An organic compound decolourises Br2 in CCl4 and can be reduced catalytically. Also, it
gives a precipitate with ammonical cuprous chloride. The compound will be:
CH3
|
(A) CH3−CH=CH−CH3 (B) CH3CH2C≡CH (C) CH3−C≡C−CH3 (D) CH3 − C = CH2
28. CH3 CH
3

HBr
→ Major product :
CH2
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH Br CH CH3
3 3
(A) (B) (C) Br (D) Br
Br CH3 CH3
CH3
29. Which of the following is not formed in given reaction?

CH3

NBS
CCl 4
→
Br CH3
Br CH3
CH3 Br
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Br
30. H3C
CH2 
HOCl
→ major product
H3C
H3C
H3C H 3C H3C
OH
(A) H3C (B) Cl (C) Cl (D) OH
Cl H3C H 3C H3C
OH H H
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Mathematics
PART – C
This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Total number of integers n such that 2 ≤ n ≤ 2000 and H.C.F. of n and 36 is one, is equal to:
(A) 666 (B) 667 (C) 665 (D) none of these
2. ‘n’ is selected from the set {1,2,3,….,100} and the number 2n + 3n + 5n is formed. Total
number of ways of selecting n so that the formed number is divisible by 4, is equal to:
3. In a plane there are 37 straight lines, of which 13 pass through the point A and 11 pass
through the point B. Besides, no three lines pass through one point, no line passes through
both points A and B, and no two are parallel. Then the number of intersection points the
lines have is equal to:
(A) 535 (B) 601 (C) 728 (D) 963
4. Seven different lecturers are to deliver lectures in seven periods of a class on a particular
day. A, B and C are three of the lectures. The number of ways in which a routine for the
day can be made such that A delivers his lecture before B and B before C, is :
n
2r + 2 ⋅ n Cr
5. ∑r = 0 (r + 1)(r + 2)
is equal to:
2n− 2 − 2n + 5 2n− 2 − 4n + 5 2n+ 2 − 2n − 5

(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
(n + 1)(n + 2) (n + 1)(n + 2) (n + 1)(n + 2)
6. The remainder obtained when 1 + 2 + 3 + ..... + 95 is divided by 15 is

(A) 3 (B) 14 (C)1 (D) none of these
7. The sum 10
C3 + 11C3 + 12 C3 + ..... + 20
C3 is equal to
(A) 21
C4 (B) 21
C4 + C4
10
(C) 21
C17 − 10 C6 (D) none of these
8. The number of terms free from radical sign in the expansion of (1+31/3+71/7)10 is
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 1 1  1 2a
9. If x=2+5i (where i2=−1) and 2  +  + = , then the value of (x3−5x2+33x−19) is
 1!9! 3!7!  5!5! b!
equal to:
(A) a (B) b (C) a−b (D) a+b
10. If |z−25i| ≤ 15, then |maximum arg (z) − minimum arg(z) equals:
π
(A) 2 cos−1(3/5) (B) 2 cos−1(4/5) (C) + cos−1(3 / 5) (D) sin−1(3/5)−cos−1(3/5)
2
11. The trigonometric form of z=(1−icot8)3 (where i = −1 ) is:

(A) cos ec 3 8.ei(24 −3 π /2) (B) cos ec 3 8.e− i(24 −3 π /2) (C) cos ec 3 8.ei(36 −π /2) (D) cos ec 3 8.e−24i+π /2)
 1+ z 
12. If |z| = 1, then   equals:
 1+ z 
(A) z (B) z (C) z −1 (D) none of these
13. If |z−i|≤2 and z1 = 5 + 3i, (where i = −1) , then the maximum value of |iz+z1| is:
(A) 2 + 31 (B) 7 (C) 31 − 2 (D) 31 + 2
n
−1  2r −1 
14. ∑ tan  2r −1 
is equal to
r =1  1+ 2 
π π
(A) tan−1(2n ) (B) tan−1(2n ) − (C) tan−1(2n+1 ) (D) tan−1(2n+1 ) −
4 4
π
15. If cot−1x+cot−1y+cot−1z= , then x+y+z is also equal to:
2
1 1 1
(A) + + (B) xyz (C) xy+yz+zx (D) none of these
x y z
π  1 
16. The value of cos  + cos−1  −   is equal to:
6  2 
3 3 1 1
(A) (B) − (C) (D) −
2 2 2 2
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−16
 2x 
17. Range of tan−1  2 
is:
 1+ x 
 π π  π π  π π π π
(A)  − ,  (B)  − ,  (C)  − ,  (D)  , 
 4 4  2 2  2 4 4 2
18. The number of values of x in the interval [0, 5π] satisfying the equation
3 cos 2x − 10 cos x + 7 = 0 is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
π  π  1
19. The sum of all the solution of the equation cos x ⋅ cos  + x  ⋅ cos  − x  = , x ∈ [0,6π] is:
3  3  4
110 π
(A) 15π (B) 30π (C) (D) none of these
3
20. The number of real solution of sin e x .cos e x = 2x + 2− x is:

(A) zero (B) one (C) two (D) infinite
π
21. If in triangle ABC, ∠A = , then the value of r+2R is equal to:
2
1 1 1 1
(A) (a + b − c) (B) (b + c − a) (C) (a + c − b) (D) (a + b + c)
2 2 2 2
r 1 A B C
22. If in triangle ABC, = , then the value of tan  tan + tan  is equal to:
r1 2 2 2 2
1
(A) 2 (B) (C) 1 (D) none of these
2
23. If in a ∆ABC, a2+b2+c2=8R2, where R=circum-radius, then the triangle is:

(A) equilateral (B) isosceles (C) right angled (D) none of these
A B
24. In a ∆ABC, tan and tan satisfy 6x2−5x+1=0. Then:
2 2
2 2
(A) a + b > c 2
(B) a2 − b2 = c2 (C) a2 + b2 = c2 (D) none of these
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−17
cos A cosB cos C r +r +r

25. In triangle ABC, = = . The value of 1 2 3 is equal to:
a b c r
26. The arithmetic mean of a set of observation is X . If each observation is divided by α and
then is increased by 10, then the mean of the new series is
X X + 10 X + 10α
(A) (B) (C) (D) αX + 10
α α α
27. Standard Deviation of a data is 7, when each observation is decreased by 7 then standard
deviation of new data is
(A) 0 (B) 14 (C) 7 (D) 49
28. The elevation of a tower at a station A due north of it is α and at a station B due west of A
is β. Then the height of the tower is
AB sin α.sin β AB sin α.sin β AB cos α.sin β AB cos α.cos β
(A) (B) (C) (D)
sin α − sin β
2 2
sin α + sin β
2 2
sin α + sin β
2 2
sin2 α + sin2 β
29. Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of
the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30º and 45º respectively. If the
lighthouse is 100 m high, the distance between the two ships is:
(A) 173 m (B) 200 m (C) 273 m (D) 300 m
30. The number of ways of arranging n boys (B1, B2, ….Bn) and n girls (G1, G2,…..Gn) around a
circle such that boys and girls should sit alternatively and B1 and G1 are not together is
(A) (n−1)!(n−2)! (B) (n−1)!(n−2)!(n2+n+2)
(C) (n−1)!(n−2)!(n2+2) (D) (n−1)!(n−2)!(n2−3n+2)
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−18
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

BATCHES : Two Year CRP (1719) A-LOT
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
JEE MAIN-PHASE-III Paper Code
ANSWER KEY SET-A

PART – A PART – B PART – C
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. A P111105 1. B C111707 1. A M111212
2. D P112211 2. C C114714 2. B M111216
3. C P111102 3. D C111707 3. A M111212
4. A P112333 4. B C111703 4. C M111215
5. B P112218 5. B C111707 5. D M111212
6. B P111209 6. B C111302 6. A M111212
7. C P111220 7. D C111301 7. C M110410
8. C P110902 8. A C111401 8. B M110410
9. A P110908 9. D C111302 9. B M110410
10. A P111215 10. B C114714 10. B M110303
11. B P111105 11. B C111403 11. A M110832
12. B P112222 12. B C111301 12. A M110301
13. C P111220 13. A C111403 13. B M110302
14. B P111105 14. A C111403 14. B M112501
15. A P111220 15. C C111401 15. B M112501
16. A P111220 16. C C111302 16. B M112501
17. B P112225 17. D C111302 17. A M112504
18. B P111107 18. B C111403 18. C M112208
19. C P112211 19. B C111403 19. B M112208
20. A P111210 20. C C111722 20. A M112210
21. B P111226 21. B C111707 21. D M113549
22. B P112225 22. D C111707 22. B M113549
23. B P111105 23. C C111707 23. C M113542
24. A P112213 24. C C111302 24. C M113542
25. B P110905 25. A C111707 25. C M113544
26. B P111203 26. C C111707 26. C M112301
27. B P111207 27. B C111713 27. C M112304
28. D P111105 28. C C111707 28. A M111432
29. B P111301 29. D C111704 29. C M111432
30. B P110905 30. B C111707 30. D M111209
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−19
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

BATCHES: Two Year CRP (1719) A-LOT
JEE MAIN-PHASE-III
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PART – A : PHYSICS
1. A P111105
mr 2
+ mx 2 dT r
T = 2π 4 , put = 0 we get x =
mgx dx 2
2. D P112211
2π
K= ⇒ λ = 0.2
λ
 2n + 1  π
For node 10πx =   ⇒ n = 1, x = 0.15 m
 2 2
For antinode 10 πx = nπ
For n = 3, x = 0.3 m
3. C P111102
1
U = Fx
2
4. A P112333
P = σAT 4 , T ' = 2T, P'=σA(2T)4
5. B P112218
330 1500
λa = m ⇒ λω = m
1000 1000
6. B P111209
Pf = 2P, Vf = 2V, C = 2R, ∆Q = n2R∆T
7. C P111220
V V W1 T1
As B = D ⇒ =
VA VC W2 T2
8. C P110902
1 2 1 2
at + gt = H
2 2
9. A P110908
 1 1
∆U = − 3GM2  − 
 rf ri 
10. A P111215
2
KERot = kT = kT
2
11. B P111105
m 0.9 0.4 T 0.4 2
T = 2π ⇒ 3 = 2π ⇒ T = 2π ⇒ = = ⇒ T = 2 sec
k k k 3 0.9 3
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−20
12. B P112222
Antinodes are formed at a distance 0.6r from the end of the tube, where r is radius of the
tube.
47 + 2 × .6r = λ/2
λ = v/n = 100 cm
47 + .6D = 100/2
D = 5 cm
13. C P111220
WAB = −P0 V0
WCD = +4P0 V0
WABCD = +3P0 V0
14. B P111105
−dU −d
We know that F = = (U0 − U0 cos αx )
dx dx
Or F = − U0 α sinαx ≈ − U0 α × αx
[∵ For small oscillations angular displacement is small so sinαx ≈ αx]
∴ F = − U0α2x . . . (i)
As F α x and − ve sign shows that the force F is directed towards the equilibrium position, so
if the body is left free, it will execute S.H.M.
Comparing (i) with equation, F = − ky . . . (ii)
Spring factor, k = U0α2
Inertia factor = mass of body = m
inertia factor m
As time period, T = 2π = 2π
spring factor U0 α2
15. A P111220
ρRT
U = nCvT, P =
M
In process CA, T is constant, ∴ U is constant.
U 3nM  3R 
= ∵ Cv =
P 2ρ  2 
Uρ = constant if P is constant
∴ Process AB will be hyperbola in U-ρ graph.
In process BC, V is constant. ∴ ρ is constant.
16. A P111220
Isothermal → ∆U2 = 0
PVC
Isobaric → ∆U1 = nCV ( 2T0 − T0 ) = nCV T0 = 0 0 V
R
Adiabatic → ∆U3 = - ∆W = negative
17. B P112225 ℓ O
Let first pulse be released at t = 0.
a v0
ℓ
Time when first pulse reaches O = t1 = u=0
v − vo
Time when second pulse reaches O =
1
ℓ + v o T − aT 2
t2 = T + 2
v − vo
vT aT 2
T′ = t2 – t1 = −
v − v o 2(v − v o )
2f 2 (v − v o )
∴ f′ =
2fv − a
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−21
18. B P111107
Let, y1 = A sin ωt and y2 = A sin (ωt + φ)
y2 – y1 = A 2 = A sin(ωt + φ) – A sin ωt
 ωt + φ + ωt   ωt + φ − ωt 
or 2 A = 2A cos   .sin  
 2   2 
φ φ
= 2A cos (ωt + ) sin
2 2
φ
For maximum value, cos (ωt + ) = 1
2
φ φ 1
∴ 2A sin = 2 A or sin =
2 2 2
φ π π
i.e. = or, φ = .
2 4 2
19. C P112211
λ v 2
v = 2 m/s = 5cm ⇒ λ = 10cm ⇒ f = = = f = 20 Hz
2 λ 0.1
20. A P111210
V1 1
P ' V1 = P × 5V ⇒ = & V1 + V2 = 6V
V2 2
P ' V2 = 10P × V
∴ V1 = 2V
V2 = 4V
21. B P111226
Rate of cooling α difference in temperature
dT
− α ∆θ
dt
dT
= − K∆θ
dt
dT = − K∆θ.dt
In First Case For second case
dT = 61−59=2 dT = 2
∆θ = 60 − 30 = 30 ∆θ = 50 − 30 = 20
dt = 4 minutes dT 2
∴ ∴ dt = = = 6 min.
K∆θ 1
60 x 20
dT 2 1
K =− = − = −
∆θdt 30 x 4 60
22. B P112225
 320   320   320 320 
fb = f2 − f1 = 243   − 243   = 243  − = 6
 320 − 4   324   316 324 
fb = 6
23. B P111105
mv 2
Centrifugal force FC = = mg.
R
Net force opposite to tension in equilibrium = m2 g2 + m2 g2 = 2 mg
ℓ
geff = g 2 ; T = 2π
g 2
−2019−
−22
24. A P112213 A A A
3λ/2 = 2A°
λ = (4/3)A° = 1.33 A° N N N N
25. B P110905
R
Time period of SHM along tunnel = T = 2π
g
T
Required time =
2
26. B P111203
If change in length is ∆l
Then ∆I1 = L01 α1∆T
∆I2 = L02 α2∆T
difference in length is l2 − l1 = (L 02 + ∆l2 ) − (L 01 + ∆l1 )
=(L02 − L01) + (∆I2 − ∆I1)
L02 − L01 is independent of temperature for I2 − I1 to be independent of temperature.
∆I2 − ∆I1 must be equal to zero
i.e. L1 α1∆T = L2 α2∆T
i.e. L1 α1 = L2 α2
L1 α 2
i.e. = .
L2 α1
27. B P111207
Q = ∆U + W
P dV R
C = Cv + ⇒ C = CV − (1 − αV)
n dT αV
28. D P111105
3
k1 = k ; k 2 = 3k
2
1 9k 9
keff = k1 + k2 = = k
2π 2m 2
29. B P111301
I I
We know that β = 10 log10 ; According to the problems βA = 10log10
I0 I0
 2I 
βB − β A = 10log   = 10 × 0.3010 = 3 dB
 I 
30. B P110905
GM
g= 2 . . . .(i)
R
dg −2GM
= putting dR = h we obtain
dR R3
dg −2GM 1
⇒ = . . . . (ii)
h R2 R
From (i) and (ii)
dg h
⇒ = −2   ⇒ Change is –ve. That means g decreases.
g R
−2019−
−23
PART – B : CHEMISTRY
1. B C111707
2. C C114714
Mechanism is through carbocation stability so ketone will be formed on methyl side.
3. D C111707
4. B C111703
NBS brominates at allylic position or, allylic hydrogen.
5. B C111707
CH2
→
HBr
  →
C 2H5ONa
H3C Peroxide anti M.K . addition H3C Br SN 2 H3C OC2H5
6. B C111302
Basicity is proportional to conjugate acid stability.
7. D C111301
8. A C111401
9. D C111302
Acidic strength is proportional to stability of conjugate base.
10. B C114714
11. B C111403
12. B C111301
Cyclooctatetraene existing tub shape.
13. A C111403
14. A C111403
15. C C111401
Hydrogen bond between OH & F
16. C C111302
In (C), –NMe2 group is thrown out of the plane of the aromatic ring, i.e. lone pair of electrons
on N atom are not involved in conjugation and hence most basic.
17. D C111302
Acidic strength is proportional to stability of conjugate base.
18. B C111403
19. B C111403
Enantiomers are non super imposible mirror image.
20. C C111722
Two moles for dehalogenation & one for deprotonation
21. B C111707
CH+2 CH3 CH3
22. D C111707
Due to anti addition
23. C C111707
24. C C111302
CH≡C−H + NH2 → CH≡C− + NH3
CH≡C−H + CH3− → CH≡C− + CH4
CH≡CH + Na in liq. NH3 → CH2=CH2
25. A C111707
26. C C111707
27. B C C111713
The given alkyl should be terminal.
28. C C111707
29. D CC111704
NBS brominates allylic or benzylic position.
30. B C111707
−2019−
−24
PART – C: MATHEMATICS
1. A M111212
2. B M111216
3. A M111212
4. C M111215
5. D M111212
6. A M111212
7. C M110410
8. B M110410
9. B M110410
10. B M110303
11. A M110832
12. A M110301
13. B M110302
14. B M112501
15. B M112501
16. B M112501
17. A M112504
18. C M112208
19. B M112208
20. A M112210
21. D M113549
22. B M113549
23. C M113542
24. C M113542
25. C M113544
26. C M112301
Let x1, x2, ….., xn be n observations, then
1
X = ∑ x1
2
27. C M112304
Deviation does not changes by changing a data
28. A M111432
29. C M111432
30. D M111209
(n−1)!n!−(n−2)!(−1)! 2n−2C1 = (n−1)!(−2)! {n(n−1)−(2n−2)}
= (n−1)!(n−2)!(n2−3n+2)

FIITJEE PHASE TEST 3 PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

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FIITJEE - JEE MAIN

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m / s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10–19C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg

Permittivity of free space ε0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2/N-m2

Density of water ρwater = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

3. If a wire having modulus of elasticity is 2×1011N/m2 is stretched to 2cm when we apply a

7. On a TP diagram, two moles of ideal gas perform process T

AB and CD. If the work done by the gas in the process AB is

13. P –V diagram of an ideal gas is as shown, work done by the gas P

in the process ABCD is: C D

15. P-V plot of an ideal mono-atomic gas is shown in the figure C → A is P

16. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under different P

processes. Process (1) is isobaric (2) is isothermal and (3) is

Space For Rough Work

17. At t = 0, source starts accelerating with an acceleration source observer

Space For Rough Work

28. A mass M is oscillating with frequency fo if hung with a spring of stiffness k.

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these

NO2 NO2 NO2

Space For Rough Work

5. Identify Z in the following reaction sequence:

6. Among the following compounds, the strongest base is

7. The most stable carbanion among the following is

(A) (B) CH2 (C) O CH2 (D) NO 2 CH2

8. Tautomerism is not exhibited by

(A) O O (B) (C) O (D) O

9. In the following compounds order of acidic strength is

(A) (B) H2N

Space For Rough Work

12. Which species is not aromatic?

13. Which of the following compounds is achiral?

14. Number of chiral carbon atom in

15. Which form of the following is most stable?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

16. Which of the following has least pKb value?

Space For Rough Work

19. Which of the following pairs of compounds is a pair of enantiomers?

20. In the reaction:

21. What will be the major product?

(A) (B) (C) (D) All of these

Space For Rough Work

22. trans-2butene on reacting with Br2 in CCl4 forms mainly

23. In the following reaction

(C) H3C CH2 CH2 B , H3C CH3

24. Which of the following on treatment with CH≡CH produce gas(es):

29. Which of the following is not formed in given reaction?

Space For Rough Work

2n− 2 − 2n + 5 2n− 2 − 4n + 5 2n+ 2 − 2n − 5

6. The remainder obtained when 1 + 2 + 3 + ..... + 95 is divided by 15 is

11. The trigonometric form of z=(1−icot8)3 (where i = −1 ) is:

20. The number of real solution of sin e x .cos e x = 2x + 2− x is:

23. If in a ∆ABC, a2+b2+c2=8R2, where R=circum-radius, then the triangle is:

Batch : Date of Examination :