FINAL EXAMINATION

SEPTEMBER 2014 SEMESTER

COURSE CDB 2012 - HEALTH SAFETY AND ENVIRONMENT

DATE ltth JANUARY 2015 (SUNDAY)
TIME 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM (2 hours)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Answer ALL 60 MCQ questions in the OMR Paper,

2. Shade the right answer using 28 pencil only.
3. Do not open this Question Booklet until instructed.
4 This Question Booklet MUST NOT be taken out from the examination room

Note There are FIFTEEN (f 5) pages in this Question Booklet including the
cover page.

Unlversiti Teknologi PETRONAS

 cDB1012

1. A first-aider should continue performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation

(CPR) on a patient until

A. the patient stops breathing

B. an ambulance arrives
C. the first aider is unresponsive
D. the patient is unresponsive

2. Prior to performing CPR on a patient, it is essential to ensure that

A. the patient is conscious

B. there are other first aiders to assist
C. the patient has vomit
D. the area is out of danger

3. lf a first aider realises that a patient has started to breathe on his own after
performing the CPR, the patient must be

A. assisted to lie flat

B. placed in a recovery position
C. placed in a position where his feet is higher than his head
D. encouraged to talk

4. An Emergency Management System (EMS) is a component of an

organisation with primary responsibility for leading, planning, controlling
and organising as they relate specifically to the impact of an organisation's

A. processes
B. products
C. services
D. all of the above

5, Which of the following statements does NOT reflect the general principles
of EMS?

A, lt starts from the top and implement throughout

B. lt's a process not an event
C. lt's about aspirations and inspiration
D. lt serves organization and its mission
 CDBl 01 2

6. Which of the structures below from ancient ruins show that there has been
concern for SAFETY in ancient times?

A. Double story houses

B. Bath houses
C. Well planned roads
D. Aqueduct - transport of water

7. The author of the book "Discourse on the Disease of Workers"

introduced a new understanding of what is known today as

A, Occupational Health and Safety

B. Occupational Hazards
C, Occupational Risks
D. Occupational Diseases

8. The lndustrial Revolution gave negative impacts towards the health and
safety of workers such as

L Workers became more skilled

ll. Workers had longer working hours
lll. Workers were given compensation
lV. Workers were not given personal protective equipment

A. l, ll and lll
B. ll and lV
C. lll and lV only
D. lV only

L lsolation of ill workers is able to

A. reduce spread of diseases

B. protect welfare of employei's
C. control occupational diseases
D. increase productivity
 cDB1012

10. Which of the following workers are NOT covered by OSHA 1994?

A. Engineers working on the island of Pulau Pangkor

B. Technicians servicing air-condition at a university
C. A client walking pass a building under construction
D. An air force pilot on a training mrssron

11. Which of the following is TRUE about OSHA 1994?

A. lt is based on tri-regulation.
B, lt outlines the duties of the employer and employee.
C. lt is administered under the Ministry of Safety and Health.
D. lt covers all sectors of the economy.

12. Which of the following is NOT the direct responsibility of a safety and
health officer?

A. Provide training for the safe use of complex machineries

B, lnspect the workplace for possible hazards
C. Act as the secretary to the safety and health committee
D. lnvestigate any accident, poisoning or other incident

13. An oil refinery that employs over 500 workers is making huge losses.
Should the refinery spend additional funds to hire a safety and health
officer?

A. Yes, to ensure the well-being and safety of the workers

B. Yes, it is required by government regulations
C. No, it is unnecessary as the refinery is not a high-risk area
D. No, not until the refinery starts being profitable

14. According to OSHA 1994, which of the following is the responsibility of an

employee?

A. Establish a safety and health committee and hire a health and

safety officer
B. Provide training and information for the safe use of complex
machineries
C. Avoid unsafe acts that may endanger yourself or those around you
D. Ensure the workplace is safe with sufficient entry and exit points
 cDB1012

15. Which of the following statements are the objectives of OSHA 1994?

l. Provide an umbrella framework for associated regulations

ll. Protect general public against risk associated with workplace
hazards
lll. Secure the safety, health and welfare of persons at work
lV. Reduce the employer's cost of compensation

A. l, ll and lll
B. I and ll
C. ll, lll and lV
D, l, lll and lV

16. The Department of Occupational Safety and Health (DOSH) in Malaysia

have the following functions EXCEPT to

A. ensure public safety who may be affected by activities of persons at

work
B. conduct strategic and effective enforcement to any organisation in
complying with regulations
C. perform environmental impact assessment at workplace in
accordance with regulations
D. ensure the safety, health and welfare of persons at work

17. The Occupational Safety and Health Officer has the following authorities
EXCEPT to

A. check work permit of workers at work premises

B. seize articles or installation on work premises
C. shut down plant which poses hazards to safety and health
D. investigate the plants to ensure compliance of OSHA

18. Which of the following is NOT covered under the Environmental Quality
Act (EQA) 1e74?

A. Preservation of natural wetlands and marine life

B. Enforcement of requirements of the act
C, Licensing for waste discharge into the environment
D. Specification of conditions of waste emissions
 cDB\012

19. The following regulations were made under EQA 1974 to control the
environmental pollution, EXCEPT

A. Control of lndustrial Emissions Legislation

B. Control of Motor Vehicle Emissions Legislation
C. Control of Global Warming Quality Legislation
D. Control of Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer

20. The person directly responsible ior the health and safety of an assigned
employee is

A. the agency's safety officer

B. the officers from the Department of Occupational Safety and Health
C. the employee him/herself
D. the employee's immediate supervisor

21. Which of the following statements describe the nature of ISO 14000?

L ISO 14000 family of standards has been developed to promote

effective environmental management
ll. lt is a quality system based on the participation of selected employees
lll. lt is a compulsory international standard for use by any company, any
size and anywhere in the world
lV. lt advocates sustainable development for every nation and every
person

A. I and lll
B. I and lV
C. ll and lV
D. ll and lll

22. Which of the following is a permanent solution to treating soil

contaminated by chemical spills?

A. Coagulation
B. Landfilling
C. Solidification
D. Bioremediation
 cDB1012

23. What is the primary purpose of ahazard analysis?

A. To plan and prepare for emergencies

B. To state the company's commitment to safety
C. To comply with environmental legislation
D. To identify and control risk and liability

24. Which of the following statements reflect a good urban air quality
management?

A. Driving alone into cities during peak hours

B, Lorries carrying loads that are beyond limit
C. Public busses that are serviced yearly
D. Companies encourage carpooling among employers

25. Which of the following statements is the CORRECT sequence of pollution

prevention priorities?

A. Residual disposal, treatment, reuse and recovery, recycle, reduce

generation and eliminate generation.
B. Reuse and recovery, recycle, eliminate generation, reduce
generation, residual disposal.
C. Eliminate generation, reduce generation, recycle, reuse and
recovery, treatment and residual disposal.
D. Reduce generation, treatment, residual disposal, reuse and
recovery, recycle, eliminate generation.

26. Based on your understanding of reducing risks, which of the following

statement is FALSE?

A. Hazardous material storage facilities should be located nearest to

the process area
B. Locating of chemical plants away from populated residential area
minimizes risk to the community
C. Understanding road traffic pattern would minimize catastrophic
incident involving the transportation of hazardous chemicals
D. Storage vessels should be constructed in such a way to minimize
the movement of spill to other equipment in process area
 CDB1012

27. Which of the following should ideally be the first priority in air pollution
abatement for non-mobile sources?

A, The elimination of air pollution at the source through relocation of

plant to non-populated areas
B. The reduction of air emission at the source through process
redesign and equipment modification
C. The reduction of air pollution at the source through implementation
of downstream pollution control devices
D. The elimination of air pollution at the source by phasing out
polluting industries and closing down plants that does not comply
with regulations

28. Which type of guard provides a permanent barrier between the worker and
the machine?

A, Adjustable
B. Fixed
C. Point
D. lnterlock

29. A device that uses a light field to detect operator movement is

A. Photoelectric device
B. Electromechanical device
C. Pullback device
D. lnfrared device

30, Which of the following is most constraining to operator movement?

A. Pullback device
B. Electromechanical device
C. Photoelectric device
D. lnfrared device

31, Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding the severity
of a burn?

A. Location of the burn

B, Amount of burnt area
C, Age of victim
D. Depth to which the burn penetrates
 cDBl 01 2

32. Which of the following action should be taken when a machine is being
operated without safeg uard?

A. Report to the management next day

B. Stop the machine immediately
C. Exercise caution while the machine is operating
D. Discuss at the next safety meeting

33. Regardless of the class of burns in heat hazards, immediate action is

required to stop the burning, The following actions are true EXCEPT

A. Remove any hot metal from the skin

B. Examine and identify type of burning
C. Use towel to wipe burning area
D, Get the heat source away from the skin

34. Which of the following best describe the difference between a fire triangle
model and a fire pyramid model?

A. a fire triangle model is 2-D while a fire pyramid model is 3-D

B. the fire triangle model provides information on how to stop fire while
the fire pyramid model provides information on how to prevent and
control fire
C. fuel, oxygen and heat are components of both the fire triangle
model and the fire pyramid model
D. the fire triangle model has one surface while the fire pyramid model
has four surfaces which are disconnected with each other

35, What is a flash point?

A. A minimum point in the temperature or pressure scale at which

stage flammable liquid forms vapor in concentration that favors
ignition
B, A minimum point in the temperature scale at which stage
flammable liquid ignites spontaneously
C. A minimum point in the temperature scale at which stage fire will
start at a speed of light
D. A minimum point in the te"mperature scale at which stage fire will
reduce whatever it's burning down to ashes
 cDB1012

36. What type of fire extinguisher is designed for fire from flammable liquids?

A. Fire extinguisher of Class A

B. Fire extinguisher of Class B
C. Fire extinguisher of Class C
D, Fire extinguisher of Class A and Class C

37. What is the colour of the cylinder of portable fire extinguishers that are
using dry powder as the effective component?

A. Yellowish
B. Red
C. Black
D. Light blue

38. Which of the following procedures of fire fighting is INCORRECT?

A, Approach fire from upwind

B. Walk away as soon as the fire is out
C. For a relatively big fire, use several extinguishers at the same time
D. Aim nozzle at the base of íiame

39. A carbon dioxide extinguisher puts out a fire by

A. breaking the chemical chain reaction

B. removing the fuel source
C. diluting the oxygen in the fire area
D. lowering the temperature of the fuel

40. All portable fire extinguishers in use today are operated in the upright
position. To operate the fire extinguisher, the acronym P.A.S,S. is often
used to help us to remember to

A. Pass by the fire, activate the fire alarm, select the proper
extinguisher, shoot at the base of the fire
B. Pull the alarm, alert the response team, shut down the power
sources, secure the area
C. Pass by the fire, activate the sprinkler system, seal fire area from
oxygen, stop unauthorized entry
D, Pull the pin, aim at the base of the fire, squeeze the handle, and
sweep at the base of the fire

l0
 cDB|012

41. What are Class C fires?

A. Fires involving electrical equipment

B. Fires involving flammable liquids
C. Fires involving live electricity
D. Fires involving combustible liquids

42. A storage tank containing petrol has caught fire. Which of the following
media should you NOT use to put out the fire?

A. Water
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Dry chemical
D. Dry powder

43. ln a fire event, where do heat and smoke go?

A. To the lowest point in the room

B. To the coldest point of the room
C. To the middle point of the room
D. To the highest point of the room

44. ln the event of an uncontrolled fire in your facility, your first course of
action should be to

A. get a fire extinguisher

B. activate the fire alarm
C. run out of the building
D. ask your boss what to do

45. Water is most effective and most commonly used for which of the
following type of fire?

A. Class A-ordinary combustibles

B. Class B-flammable and combustible liquids
C. Class C-electrical
D. Class D-combustible metals

ll
 cDB|012

46. Which statement DOES NOT explain the mechanism of fire detectors?

A. A smoke detector is activated upon sensing the changes in the

concentration of air
B. Gas detector detects the presence of gases that makes up the
product of combustion
C. The change in light spectrum produced by a flame is sensed by an
alarm that gives off high pitch sound to warn people for evacuation
D. Heat detector contains a sensor that detects the increase in
temperature from the ambient temperature

47. Which of the following PPEs are to protect against falling and/or
accelerating objects?

A. Hard hats, safety goggles, safety boots

B. Hard hats, face shields, safety boots
C. Hard hats, face shields, safety goggles, safety boot
D. Hard hats, face shields, safety goggles

48. Which of the following are the primary causes of falls?

l. A failure of anti-fatigue mat

ll. A design flaw in the walking surface
lll. A poorly fitted safety sign
lV. An individual's impaired physical condition

A. I and lll
B. ll and lV
C. lll and lV
D. I and ll

49. A protective device used to guard electrical systems against damage from
large current surges, but is not destroyed by the overload is

A. Attenuator
B. Fuse
C. Transformer
D. Circuit Breaker

12
 cDBl 01 2

50. What needs to be done first when a person gets an electrical shock?

A. Pull him away from the source

B. Switch off the source
C. Perform First Aid
D. Touch the person to make sure he/she is still alive

51. The effects of electric shock on the human body depend on several
factors, including

A. current and voltage

B. resistance
C. path through the body
D. all of the above

52. Which of the following conduct electricity?

A. Trees
B. Metal
C. Animals
D, All of the above

53. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about electrical hazard?

A. The severity of an electrical shock depends on the magnitude of the

current flow through the human body
B. The severity of an electrical shock depends on the path of the
current flow through the human body
C. The severity of an electrical shock depends on the value of the
applied voltage
D. The severity of an electrical shock varies somewhat with the age,
gender and physical condition of the victim

54. Which of the following is NOT the main purpose of safety analysis?

A. Determine causes
B. Determine possible effects
C. Prevention
D, ldentify thermal systems

13
 cDB1012

55. Which of the following is a NOT a psychological aspect of ergonomic

hazards?

A. Knowledge
B. Experience
C. Physical abilities
D. Personality

56, The phrase "recognition that safety and health concerns rank in
importance with production and quality" means

A. employers must treat workers' welfare as significant as production

and quality
B. when employers welfare are provided, production and quality will
improve
C. employers must spend more money for workers' welfare to
increase productivity and quality
D. employers must understand HSE matters to increase productivity
and quality

57. Which of the following statements describe the best position in placing a
computer monitor?

A. A user can see overhead lights reflected on the screen

B. A user can clearly read the text without twisting his neck
C. A user can clearly read the text by looking far upwards
D, A user has to lean forward to clearly see the text

58. Which of the following work environment poses an occupational noise

hazard?

A. A caddie exposed to jet engine noise of 140 dB for an average

period of t hour daily and 50 dB of noise for the other 7 hours in a
day's work.
B. A fish seller exposed to a 90 dB noise for 5 hours during the busy
hour and 20 dB of noise for the other 3 hours in an 8-hour day
work.
C. A machine operator exposed to 97 dB of noise for 2 hours and 90
dB of noise for 6 hours in day's work.
D. A lecturer exposed to an impulse o'Í 140 db due to faulty speaker
three times within an hour and an average of 60 dB of noise for the
rest of the work day

t4
 cDBl 01 2

59. An ergonomist is someone who

A. solves ethical problems of workers

B, assists with sexual and social harassment cases
C. works with equipment that fits the environment
D. designs workplace equipment to suite the worker

60. The Bhopal lndustrial Disaster is a world known case study in safety and
health in the industrial sector because

l. prior to Bhopal the industrial sector lacks in stringent safety

regulations
ll. the tragedy affected thousands of innocent lives
lll. lndia received a large amount of settlement from the company
that was responsible
lV. of the severity of the tragedy to the community and environment

A. l, ll and lll
B, l, ll and lV
C. I and lll
D. lV only

- END OF PAPER -

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