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Physiology -CS

Bessisy Tamir 1243

1) The structure of the bacterial organism most commonly involved in tissue adhesion is:
a) [ ] capsule
b) [ ] peptidoglycan
c) [X] pili
d) [ ] antigen O
e) [ ] flagella
2) For mycoplasma is characteristic:
a) [X] Lack of cell wall
b) [ ] Volutin granules
c) [ ] Spore formation
d) [ ] Lack of cholesterol inclusions
e) [ ] Presence of peptidoglycan
3) Clostridia are characterized by:
a) [ ] the presence of spores which don't exceed the cell diameter
b) [X] formation of spores which deform the cell
c) [ ] presence of volutin granules which deform the cell
d) [ ] are acid-alcohol resistant
e) [ ] are gram-negative
4) Bacilli are characterized by:
a) [ ] Formation of spores which deform the cell
b) [ ] Contain volutin granules which deform the cell
c) [X] The presence of spores which don't exceed the cell diameter
d) [ ] Monotrichous
e) [ ] They are eukaryote
6) About treponema:
a) [ ] possesses pronounced polymorphism
b) [ ] are peritrichous
c) [ ] are resistant to environmental medium
d) [ ] has 4-8 irregular spirals
e) [X] has 8-12 regular spirals
7) About leptospira we can affirm:
a) [ ] possesses a bacillary form
b) [ ] have lofotrichous cilli
c) [ ] are easily growth in differential media
d) [X] possesses 15-30 little primary regular small spirals
e) [ ] the mobility is determined in semiliquid media
8) The cell wall of pathogen acid fast mycobacteria contains:
a) [ ] big quantity of nucleoproteins
b) [X] a big quantity of waxes and mycolic acid
c) [ ] big quantity of lipopolysaccharides
d) [ ] all of above
9) Method for staining acid fast bacteria:
a) [ ] Gram
b) [X] Ziehl-Neelsen
c) [ ] Neisser
d) [ ] Loeffler
e) [ ] Burri-Hins
10) Method for staining volutin granules:
a) [ ] Gram
b) [ ] Burri-Hins

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c) [X] Neisser
d) [ ] Ziehl-Neelsen
e) [ ] Geimsa
11) Method for staining capsule is:
a) [ ] Giemsa staining
b) [ ] Ziehl – Neelsen
c) [ ] Neisser
d) [X] Burri – Gins
e) [ ] Loeffler
12) Method for staining spores is:
a) [ ] Neisser
b) [ ] Burri-Hins
c) [ ] Loeffler
d) [X] Aujeszki
e) [ ] Morozov
13) Method for staining nuclear substance:
a) [ ] treatment with 5% sulphuric acid
b) [ ] mordating with 0,5% hydrochloric acid
c) [ ] processing with methyl alcohol and ether
d) [X] Feulgen microchemical reaction
e) [ ] phase contrast microscopy
14) Select the permanent structure of the bacterial cell:
a) [ ] capsule
b) [ ] cili
c) [X] cytoplasmatic membrane
d) [ ] fimbriae
e) [ ] volutin granulation
15) Microscopic method used for rapid identification of microorganisms in pathological samples:
a) [ ] dark field microscopy
b) [X] immunofluorescent microscopy
c) [ ] phase contrast microscopy
d) [ ] optical microscopy with immersion system
e) [ ] optical microscopy with dry lens
16) Following taxonomy name is written in capital letters, except:
a) [ ] Class
b) [ ] Order
c) [ ] Family
d) [ ] Genus
e) [X] Species
17) Which is the correct order of the taxonomic categories, going from most specific to most general
a) [ ] kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
b) [ ] division, domain, kingdom, class, family, genus, species
c) [X] species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom
d) [ ] species, family, class, order, phylum, kingdom
e) [ ] phylum, class, species, family, order, kingdom
18) Bacterial species is characterized as the totality of individuals with following features, except:
a) [ ] common origin
b) [ ] adapted to a particular habitat
c) [ ] characterized by similar metabolism
d) [X] identical genetic plasmid elements

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e) [ ] identical genetic chromosome


19) 1Fixing of the smears is done by:
a) [ ] biological method
b) [ ] biophysical
c) [X] physical
d) [ ] synthetic
e) [ ] biochemical
20) Sample fixing is done by:
a) [ ] biological method
b) [ ] biophysical
c) [X] chemical
d) [ ] synthetic
e) [ ] biochemical
21) Resolution power of light microscope is:
a) [ ] 2, 0 mkm
b) [X] 0, 2 mkm
c) [ ] 0, 1 mkm
d) [ ] 0, 01 mkm
e) [ ] 0,001 mkm
22) In the light microscope the function of the immersion oil is:
a) [ ] increasing the resolution power of the microscope
b) [ ] contrasted the studied object
c) [X] has a refractive coefficient equal to the glass
d) [ ] focusing the light rays into the lens
e) [ ] refract light rays
23) Which of the following is not found in all bacterial cells?
a) [ ] cell membrane
b) [ ] a nucleoid
c) [ ] ribosome
d) [X] capsule
e) [ ] cytoplasm
24) Which of the following is present in both gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls?
a) [ ] an outer membrane
b) [X] peptydoglican
c) [ ] teichoic acid
d) [ ] lipopolysaccarides
e) [ ] porine proteins
25) Which of the following is a primary bacterial cell wall function?
a) [ ] transport
b) [ ] motility
c) [X] support
d) [ ] adhesion
e) [ ] genetic exchange
26) Motility is best seen with a
a) [X] hanging drop preparation
b) [ ] negative stain
c) [ ] streak plate
d) [ ] flagellar stain
e) [ ] Gram stain

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27) Volutin granules are concentrated crystals of polyphosphate granules that are found in
a) [ ] Mycobacterium
b) [ ] Bacillus
c) [ ] Treponema
d) [X] Corynebacterium
e) [ ] E. coli
28) Bacterial endospores function is:
a) [ ] reproduction
b) [X] survival
c) [ ] protein synthesis
d) [ ] storage
e) [ ] attachment
29) It is divided into several planes:
a) [ ] micrococcus
b) [ ] diplococcus
c) [ ] tetracoccus
d) [ ] sarcina
e) [X] staphylococcus
30) For streptococci is characteristic following feature:
a) [ ] are arranged in pairs
b) [X] are arranged in short and long chains
c) [ ] are arranged in clusters
d) [ ] are divided into several plans
e) [ ] are divided into perpendicular plans
31) For staphylococci is characteristic following feature:
a) [ ] are arranged in pairs
b) [ ] are arranged in short and long chains
c) [X] are arranged in clusters
d) [ ] are divided into several plans
e) [ ] are divided into perpendicular plans
32) Bacteria with 1 fascicle at each pole:
a) [ ] monotrichous
b) [X] lophotrichous
c) [ ] amphitrichous
d) [ ] peritrichous
e) [ ] polytrichous
33) Bacteria containing a bundle of flagella at both poles are called:
a) [ ] monotrichous
b) [ ] lofotrichous
c) [X] amfitrichous
d) [ ] peritrichous
e) [ ] politrichous
34) Flagella are present in:
a) [ ] coccus
b) [ ] spirochetes
c) [ ] rikettsiae
d) [ ] mycoplasma
e) [X] vibrions
35) Flagella are present in:
a) [ ] coccus

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b) [ ] spirochetes
c) [ ] rikettsiae
d) [ ] mycoplasma
e) [X] bacterium
36) About bacterial flagella can say:
a) [ ] their number varies up to several hundred per cell
b) [ ] are adhesion factors to the host cell
c) [ ] to have a tubular structure
d) [ ] participate in bacterial conjugation
e) [X] are fixed by the basal bodies of cell
37) The capsule:
a) [ ] has 90% peptidoglycane
b) [ ] has 5-20% lipoprotein
c) [ ] it is a species survival factor in unfavorable conditions
d) [X] it is a factor contributing to bacterial virulence
e) [ ] provides cell wall synthesis
38) Simple culture media for growing bacteria can be sterilized by:
a) [ ] autoclaving at 1 atmosphere
b) [ ] tyndallization in the water bath at 58 C
c) [ ] filtration
d) [ ] at 160 C in the hot air oven
e) [ ] by chemical methods
39) Indicate the mechanism of action of penicillin:
a) [ ] binds to sterols and affect cytoplasmic membrane permeability
b) [ ] inhibits DNA replication
c) [ ] inhibits synthesis of peptidoglycan
d) [ ] attached to the 50S ribosomal unit and inhibits peptidyltransferase
e) [ ] blocks synthesis of folic acid by inhibiting dehydrofolatereductase
40) Indicate the mechanism of action of cephalosporins:
a) [ ] inhibits the functions of RNA-messenger
b) [X] inhibits the peptidoglycan synthesis by blocking the transpeptidase
c) [ ] blocks DNA synthesis
d) [ ] inhibits the synthesis of cytoplasmic membrane
e) [ ] block the activity of 30S ribosomes
41) Penicillines can be protected from beta-lactamase in association with:
a) [ ] sulfanilamide acid
b) [ ] paraaminobensoic acid
c) [ ] folic acid
d) [X] clavulanic acid
e) [ ] phenylpyruvic acid
42) Antibiotic susceptibility is determined by the method:
a) [ ] successive dilutions by Appelmann
b) [ ] successive logarithmic dilutions in liquid medium
c) [ ] successive logarithmic dilutions in solid medium
d) [X] two-fold dilutions in liquid and solid media
e) [ ] dilutions in Widal tubes
43) Freezing with vacuum dehydration as to maintain micro-organisms for a long period:
a) [X] lyophilization
b) [ ] freezing
c) [ ] sterilization by dry heat

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d) [ ] pasteurization
e) [ ] tyndalization
44) At 1600C-1800C is done:
a) [ ] Koch sterilization
b) [ ] steam sterilization under pressure
c) [ ] lyophilization
d) [X] dry heat sterilization
e) [ ] tyndalization
45) Destruction of asporulate microflora in substrates is done by:
a) [ ] freezing
b) [ ] lyophilization
c) [ ] filtration
d) [X] pasteurization
e) [ ] tyndalization
46) Competition relations between the members of microbiocenosis is:
a) [X] antagonism
b) [ ] synergism
c) [ ] symbiosis
d) [ ] interference
e) [ ] metabiosis
47) Catalyze different metabolic process of the bacterial cell:
a) [ ] bacterial nutrition
b) [ ] bacterial respiration
c) [X] microbial enzymes
d) [ ] growth media
e) [ ] bacterial metabolism
48) About bacterial enzymes:
a) [ ] are composed from polysaccharide
b) [X] catalyze chemical reactions in cell
c) [ ] have activity at 00 C
d) [ ] have activity at 650 C
e) [ ] are synthesized in the cell wall
49) Bacteria with increased resistance to environmental factors:
a) [ ] are pathogens
b) [ ] grown in laboratory
c) [X] forms spores
d) [ ] are mobile with pathogenic enzymes
e) [ ] have the ability of adhesion
50) Bacterial cultures in the declining phase are characterized by the following features:
a) [ ] the growth rate 0
b) [ ] the number of inoculated bacteria remains stationary
c) [ ] the number of bacteria grow in geometric progression
d) [X] the speed of destruction of bacteria gradually increase
e) [ ] the sensitivity against antibiotics is maximum
51) A compound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is:
a) [ ] synthetic drug
b) [X] antibiotic
c) [ ] antimicrobic drug
d) [ ] competitive inhibitor
e) antiviral drug

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52) Drug that prevent the formation of the bacterial cell wall are:
a) [ ] Quinolones
b) [X] Beta-lactams
c) [ ] Tetracyclines
d) [ ] Aminoglycosides
e) [ ] Cephalosporine
53) Microbial resistance to drugs is acquired through:
a) [ ] conjugation
b) [ ] transformation
c) [ ] transduction
d) [X] all of these
e) [ ] one of these
54) Complex measures that avoid contamination of substrates with microorganisms from the environment are called:
a) [ ] sterilization
b) [ ] antisepsis
c) [X] asepsis
d) [ ] disinfection
e) [ ] tyndalization
55) Choose the transport media:
a) [ ] Hiss
b) [X] buffer phosphate
c) [ ] bile broth
d) [ ] Kitt-Tarozzi
e) [ ] blood agar
56) A mixed culture is
a) [ ] the same as a contaminated culture
b) [ ] one that has been adequately stirred
c) [X] one that contains two or more known species
d) [ ] a water sample containing algae and protozoa
e) [ ] both a and d
57) Agar is superior to gelatin as a solidifying agent because agar:
a) [ ] does not melt at room temperature
b) [ ] solidifies at 750C
c) [ ] is not usually decomposed by microorganisms
d) [ ] has lipopolysaccharide compounds
e) [X] both a and c
58) Sterilization are the methods that able to kill:
a) [ ] viruses
b) [ ] mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) [X] endospores
d) [ ] cysts
e) [ ] fungi
59) Destruction of pathogen microorganisms in infected substrate is called:
a) [ ] Tyndalization
b) [ ] Pasteurization
c) [ ] Sterilization
d) [X] Disinfection
e) [ ] Lyophilization
60) Microbes that are destroying by pasteurization
a) [ ] Clostridium botulinum

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b) [ ] Mycobacteria tuberculosis
c) [X] Salmonella
d) [ ] both b and c
e) [ ] Bordetela pertusis
61) Autoclave sterilization is realized at the regime:
a) [ ] 1000C 20 min
b) [ ] 1150C 20 min
c) [X] 1200C 15-20 min
d) [ ] 1600C 30 min
e) [ ] 180C 60 min
62) Infections caused by bacterial exotoxin, except:
a) [ ] diphtheria
b) [ ] tetanus
c) [ ] scarlet fever
d) [ ] brucellosis
e) [ ] gas gangrene
63) Able to pass the placenta:
a) [ ] Ig A
b) [X] Ig G
c) [ ] Ig M
d) [ ] Ig E
e) [ ] Ig D
64) Are involved in the hypersensibility reaction type I:
a) [ ] Ig A
b) [ ] Ig G
c) [ ] Ig M
d) [X] Ig E
e) [ ] Ig D
65) Are involved in the hypersensibility reaction type IV:
a) [ ] B lymphocytes
b) [X] T lymphocytes
c) [ ] Ig A
d) [ ] Ig G
e) [ ] Ig M
66) Present mucosal antimicrobial functions:
a) [X] Ig A
b) [ ] Ig M
c) [ ] Ig G
d) [ ] IgE
e) [ ] IgD
67) Indicate and prevalent in acute infection:
a) [ ] Ig A
b) [X] Ig M
c) [ ] Ig G
d) [ ] IgE
e) [ ] IgD
68) Provides postinfection immunity:
a) [ ] Ig A
b) [ ] Ig M
c) [X] Ig G

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d) [ ] IgE
e) [ ] IgD
69) It is characterized by a relatively short evolution with specific symptoms:
a) [X] acute infection
b) [ ] chronic infection
c) [ ] secondary infection
d) [ ] reinfection
e) [ ] superinfection
70) It is characterized by a repeated infection with the same species of microbes after the recovering:
a) [ ] acute infection
b) [ ] chronic infection
c) [ ] secondary infection
d) [X] reinfection
e) [ ] superinfection
71) It is characterized by a repeated infection till the recovering:
a) [ ] acute infection
b) [X] superinfection
c) [ ] secondary infection
d) [ ] reinfection
e) [ ] chronic infection
72) It is characterized by a long evolution with the persistence of the agent in the body:
a) [ ] superinfection
b) [ ] reinfection
c) [ ] acute infection
d) [ ] secondary infection
e) [X] chronic infection
73) Presence of bacteria in blood without multiplication is called:
a) [X] bacteraemia
b) [ ] toxinaemia
c) [ ] septicopyemia
d) [ ] virusemia
e) [ ] septicemia
74) In the anaphylactic reactions is involved:
a) [ ] Ig A
b) [X] Ig E
c) [ ] Ig D
d) [ ] Ig M
e) [ ] Ig G
75) Presence and multiplication of bacteria in the blood:
a) [ ] virusaemia
b) [X] septicaemia
c) [ ] bacteraemia
d) [ ] toxinaemia
e) [ ] septicopyemia
76) Generalized infection with suppurative foci in the organs:
a) [ ] septicaemia
b) [ ] toxinaemia
c) [X] septicopyemia
d) [ ] virusaemia
e) [ ] bacteraemia

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77) Virus spreading via the blood:


a) [ ] septicopyemia
b) [ ] toxinaemia
c) [ ] bacteraemia
d) [X] virusaemia
e) [ ] septicaemia
78) Menongococci are spread by:
a) [X] Fluegge drops
b) [ ] aerosols generated in air conditioning apparatus
c) [ ] dust
d) [ ] contaminated aliments
e) [ ] contaminated water
79) Contain antigen of a single microbial species:
a) [ ] polyvalent vaccine
b) [ ] monovalent vaccine
c) [ ] associated vaccine
d) [ ] TABTe vaccine
e) [ ] ADTP vaccine
80) Contain antigen from multiple microbial species:
a) [ ] polyvalent vaccine
b) [ ] monovalent vaccine
c) [ ] associated vaccine
d) [ ] TABTe vaccine
e) [ ] ADTP vaccine
81) For etiologic diagnosis of the holera-like syndrome is indicated:
a) [ ] repeated blood cultures
b) [ ] urine
c) [ ] mieloculture
d) [X] stool
e) [ ] rose spots culture
82) To differentiate S. aureus from S. epidermis is used the test:
a) [ ] alpha hemolysine
b) [ ] beta lactamase
c) [ ] fermentation of glucose
d) [ ] lipase
e) [X] coagulase
83) To diagnose tuberculosis is indicated intradermal reaction:
a) [ ] Dick
b) [ ] Schultz-Charlton
c) [ ] Schick
d) [ ] Burnet
e) [X] Mantoux
84) To diagnose diphtheria is indicated intradermal reaction:
a) [ ] Burnet
b) [ ] Dick
c) [ ] Tchuvercalov
d) [X] Schick
e) [ ] Mantoux
85) Cholera vibrions:
a) [X] ferments mannose, saccharose, don’t ferment arabinose

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b) [ ] ferment glucose with acid and gas


c) [ ] are resistant in the acid medium
d) [ ] are cultivated on the hyperchlorinated medium with milk and egg
e) [ ] mobility ensured by peritrichous cili
86) Is part of fermentative Heiberg group I:
a) [ ] E. colli
b) [ ] S. enterica
c) [ ] V. parahaemolyticus
d) [ ] S. dysenteriae
e) [X] V. cholerae
87) Differential media for isolation of V. cholerae is:
a) [X] TCBS
b) [ ] Tinsdale
c) [ ] Willson- Blair
d) [ ] Klauberg
e) [ ] Ploskirev
88) Differentiation of V. cholerae biovariants is done by sensitivity against:
a) [ ] Penicilline
b) [ ] Ristomycini
c) [ ] Erythromycini
d) [X] Polymyxin
e) [ ] Clindomicin
89) It is used as an enrichment medium for V. cholera cultivation:
a) [ ] Rappoport
b) [ ] hyper chlorinate peptone water
c) [X] alkaline peptone water
d) [ ] Muller
e) [ ] medium with selenite
90) Cholerigen exotoxine activate at the enterocytes level:
a) [ ] adenosinetriphosphat
b) [ ] adenosindiphosphat
c) [ ] cellular oxidoreductase
d) [X] adenylate cyclase
e) [ ] hydrolyzes
91) For cholera rapid diagnosis is used:
a) [ ] neutralization test
b) [ ] inhibition of hemagglutination test
c) [ ] complement fixation test
d) [ ] radioimmune test
e) [X] immobilization test
92) The transmission mechanism of cholera agent is:
a) [ ] Flugge drops
b) [ ] by aerosol
c) [ ] by direct contact
d) [ ] by vectors
e) [X] fecal-oral
93) In the liquid media V. cholerae grows as:
a) [ ] a granular sediment at the bottom of the tube
b) [ ] a cotton like sediment
c) [ ] a homogeneous turbidity

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d) [X] thin film with bluish tinge


e) [ ] wrinkled, thick film
94) Enteroinvasive E. coli cause:
a) [ ] cholera-like infections
b) [X] like-dysenteriae infections
c) [ ] hemorrhagic enterocolitis
d) [ ] salmonella-like infections
e) [ ] foodborne infection
95) Enterotoxigenic E. coli causes:
a) [ ] cholera-like infections
b) [X] like-dysenteriae infections
c) [ ] hemorrhagic enterocolitis
d) [ ] salmonella-like infections
e) [ ] foodborne infection
96) The seroidentification of pathogenic escherichia is done by:
a) [ ] ABCDE
b) [ ] O 1
c) [X] OKA
d) [ ] O 4,5
e) [ ] O 9
97) About E. coli:
a) [ ] are fast-resistant
b) [ ] form spores
c) [ ] are Gram +
d) [X] is an indicator of the fecal contamination
e) [ ] are fastidious to cultivate
98) Shigella genus includes the specie:
a) [X] S. boydii
b) [ ] S. bovis
c) [ ] S. enteritidis
d) [ ] S. newport
e) [ ] S. salamae
99) Enrichment medium for shigella from feaces:
a) [ ] bile glucose agar
b) [ ] Sauton medium
c) [ ] casein-charcoal agar
d) [X] sodium acid selenite medium
e) [ ] peptone alkaline water
100) Muller, Kauffmann culture media are:
a) [ ] transport medium
b) [ ] enrichment medium
c) [ ] differential diagnoses medium for isolation of pure culture
d) [ ] differential diagnoses medium for accumulation and primary identification
e) [ ] special medium
101) In the first week of illness in the patients with typhoid fever it is necessary to exam:
a) [ ] urine
b) [ ] feaces
c) [X] blood
d) [ ] bile
e) [ ] rino-pharyngeal exudates

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102) Indicate the correct antigenic structure for S. Typhi:


a) [X] O 1, 9, 12 : Vi : Hd
b) [ ] O 1, 2, 12 : Ha
c) [ ] O 1, 9, 12 : Hg,m
d) [ ] O 1, 4, 5, 12 : Hb, H1,2
e) [ ] O 1, 4, 5, 12 : Hi, H1, 2
103) S. paratyphi B antigenic structure:
a) [ ] O 1, 2, 12 : H a
b) [ ] O 1, 9, 12 : Vi : Hd
c) [ ] O 1, 9, 12 : Hg,m
d) [X] O1, 4, 5, 12 : Hb, H1, 2
e) [ ] O 1, 4, 5, 12 : Hi, H1, 2
104) S. paratyphi A antigenic structure:
a) [ ] O 1, 9, 12 : Vi : Hd
b) [X] O 1, 2, 12 : Ha
c) [ ] O 1, 12 : Hg, m
d) [ ] O 1, 4, 5, 12 : Hb, H1, 2
e) [ ] O 6, 7 : Hc
105) For the first week of typhoid fever is recommended the diagnosis method:
a) [ ] coproculture
b) [ ] uroculture
c) [X] hemoculture
d) [ ] bile culture
e) [ ] Widal test with OH Ag
106) Coli bacterin, bifidobacterin, lactobacterin (eubiotics) are:
a) [ ] microbial allergen
b) [ ] inactivated microorganisms
c) [X] live microorganisms
d) [ ] microbial toxins
e) [ ] diagnosticum
107) Salmonella grow on bismuth sulfite agar:
a) [ ] big, rough, uncolored, irregular borders
b) [ ] medial, bulky, regular borders, golden color
c) [X] medial, bulky, shiny, black
d) [ ] small, mucous, colorless
e) [ ] medial, colorless, semitransparent
108) Sporogenesis is characteristic for the causing agents:
a) [ ] C. diphtheria
b) [X] C. tetani
c) [ ] M. tuberculosis
d) [ ] T. pallidum
e) [ ] L. interrogans
109) Pathogen factor of C. diphtheria is:
a) [ ] capsule
b) [ ] endotoxin
c) [X] exotoxin
d) [ ] pili
e) [ ] hemolysine
110) M. tuberculosis has following peculiarities:
a) [X] grows slow on special culture medium, during 2-3 weeks

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b) [ ] causes severe food born diseases


c) [ ] presents polar volutine granulations
d) [ ] are spiral, mobile, on culture media has no virulence
e) [ ] ferments glucose with acid and gas production
111) C. diphtheria has following peculiarities:
a) [ ] has a high resistance in the environment and grows slowly on usual medium
b) [ ] causes severe intestinal infection
c) [X] produces a exotoxin that acts upon myocardium and suprarenal glands
d) [ ] forms central spores that don’t deform the cell
e) [ ] is mobile with peritrichous cilli
112) For the T. pallidum is typical:
a) [ ] a marked resistance to environmental factors
b) [ ] are grown on normal medium for 2 - 3 weeks
c) [ ] has many metabolic enzymes
d) [X] is a spiral organism, mobile, with loss virulence during the culturing
e) [ ] is a sporogen bacteria
113) The agent of tetanus is characterized by the following characters:
a) [ ] acid-fast rods, contains about 40% fat
b) [ ] forms spore that not deforms the central cell body
c) [ ] forms spore, terminal localized that deforms the cell body
d) [ ] forms capsule
e) [ ] is immobile and is culturing on aerobic conditions
114) Bordetella pertussis is the causative agent of:
a) [ ] foodborne infections
b) [ ] parapertusis
c) [X] whooping cough
d) [ ] scarlet fever
e) [ ] rheumatic diseases
115) Mantoux intradermal reaction detects late-type hypersensitivity in:
a) [ ] scarlet fever
b) [ ] whooping cough
c) [ ] tularemia
d) [X] tuberculosis
e) [ ] diphtheria
116) To isolate the causative agent of diphtheria it is used the culture medium:
a) [ ] Lowenstein-Jensen
b) [ ] casein and charcoal agar
c) [X] tellurite-blood-agar
d) [ ] Popescu media
e) [ ] Kitt-Tarozzi
117) The culture characters of M. tuberculosis are:
a) [ ] big, black, with brown halo on the medium with tellurite
b) [ ] black, lenticular on Wilson Blair medium
c) [ ] rough, large, like cauliflower, cream-beige
d) [ ] small, S-type, with green hemolysis
e) [ ] small, mucous, shiny, homogeneous consistency
118) The virulence of S. pneumoniae is due:
a) [ ] hyaluronidase
b) [ ] beta hemolysine
c) [X] polysaccharides capsule

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d) [ ] pilli
e) [ ] cord-factor
119) S. aureus is cultivated on:
a) [ ] liver agar
b) [X] selective hiper-salt egg agar with milk
c) [ ] liquid medium with potatoes and glycerin
d) [ ] Wilson-Blair
e) [ ] Bile broth
120) Sporogenesis is characteristic for:
a) [ ] N. meningitides
b) [X] B. anthracis
c) [ ] B. melitensis
d) [ ] F. tularensis
e) [ ] C. diphtheriae
121) Infections with various gateways and associated with pus manifestations
a) [ ] brucellosis
b) [ ] tularemia
c) [ ] anthrax
d) [ ] plague
e) [X] staphylococcal infections
122) Natural habitat of S. aureus is:
a) [X] nasopharynx
b) [ ] oropharynx
c) [ ] larynx
d) [ ] jejunum
e) [ ] all above
123) Forms S, medium size, convex, opaque, pigmented colonies on special medium:
a) [X] S. aureus
b) [ ] N. meningitis
c) [ ] Y. pestis
d) [ ] B. anthracis
e) [ ] S. pneumonia
124) Forms beta hemolytic colonies, small, transparent:
a) [ ] S. aureus
b) [ ] B. anthracis
c) [ ] Y. pestis
d) [X] S. pyogenes
e) [ ] N. meningitidis
125) Possess protein A
a) [X] S. aureus
b) [ ] S. agalactiae
c) [ ] S. epiderdimidis
d) [ ] S. saprophyticus
e) [ ] S. pneumoniae
126) Sporogenesis is characteristic for the causing agents, except:
a) [ ] B. anthracis
b) [ ] C. perfringens
c) [ ] C. botulinum
d) [X] B. abortus
e) [ ] C. tetani

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Bessisy Tamir 1243

127) It is environmentally fragile and fastidious for cultivation


a)
[ ] S. epidermidis
b)
[ ] C. burneti
c)
[ ] Y. pestis
d)
[ ] S. aureus
e)
[ ] N. gonorrhoeae
128) It is an important bacteriologic indicator for the air contamination with rhino-pharyngeal
secretions:
a) [X] S. aureus
b) [ ] S. pneumoniae
c) [ ] C. diphtheriae
d) [ ] M. tuberculosis
e) [ ] E. coli
129) Ring precipitation test is used for:
a) [ ] brucellosis
b) [ ] plague
c) [X] anthrax
d) [ ] scarlet fever
e) [ ] Q fever
130) Forms spores in the environment and capsule in the infected wound:
a) [X] C. perfringens
b) [ ] C. novyi
c) [ ] C. histolyticum
d) [ ] C. septicum
e) [ ] C. sordellii
131) A new reinfection after recovering it is possible in:
a) [ ] measles
b) [X] gonorrhea
c) [ ] plague
d) [ ] tularemia
e) [ ] whooping cough
132) N. meningitis is optimal cultivated in medium:
a) [ ] peptone agar 370C
b) [ ] serum agar 220C
c) [ ] glucose agar 370C
d) [ ] cysteine glucose agar 370C
e) [X] serum agar 370C
133) Causative agent of botulism are:
a) [X] short rods, Gram-positive, with the subterminal spores as a tennis rackets
b) [ ] short rods, Gram-positive, with the terminal spores as a drummer rod
c) [ ] long rods, in pairs, with the central spores which not deforms the cell
d) [ ] gram-positive rod with the spores at the extremities
e) [ ] sporulated rods, Gram-positive, encapsulated
134) As a microbiological indicator of faecal contamination of the environment serves following
enterobacteria:
a) [ ] Y. Enterocolitica
b) [ ] Proteus vulgaris
c) [ ] S. Dysenteriae
d) [ ] E. Faecalis
e) [X] E. coli

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Bessisy Tamir 1243

135) Enterobactericeae has the Ag group:


a) [ ] A
b) [ ] B
c) [X] O
d) [ ] H
e) [ ] K
136) The mobility of enterobacteria is determined by following test:
a) [ ] column agar
b) [ ] peptone broth
c) [X] semiliquid agar
d) [ ] slant agar (Schukevici method)
e) [ ] “suspended drop’
137) For enterobacteria isolation it is used the high selective media:
a) [ ] Kauffmanni
b) [ ] Endo
c) [ ] Levine
d) [ ] Ploskirev
e) [X] Wilson-Blair
138) A virus is a tiny infectious
a) [ ] cell
b) [ ] living thing
c) [X] particle
d) [ ] nucleic acid
e) [ ] protein
139) The capsid is composed of protein subunits called
a) [ ] spikes
b) [ ] protomers
c) [ ] virions
d) [X] capsomers
e) [ ] colonies
140) The nucleic acid of a virus is
a) [ ] DNA only
b) [ ] RNA only
c) [ ] both DNA and RNA
d) [X] either DNA and RNA
e) [ ] dose not contain nucleic acid
141) The general steps in a viral multiplication cycle are
a) [X] adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation and release
b) [ ] endocytosis, uncoating, replication, assembly, budding
c) [ ] adsorption, uncoating, duplicating, assembly, and lysis
d) [ ] endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation and exocytosis
e) [ ] penetration, replication, maturation and lysis
142) In general, RNA viruses multiply in the cell cytoplasm, and DNA viruses multiply in the cell ___
a) [X] nucleus
b) [ ] cytoplasm
c) [ ] vesicles
d) [ ] ribosomes
e) [ ] endoplasmic reticulum
143) Influenza genom is:
a) [ ] linear RNA, single-stranded

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b) [X] segmented RNA, single-stranded


c) [ ] circular DNA, single-stranded
d) [ ] double-stranded DNA
e) [ ] linear DNA, single-stranded
144) The subviral agents that cause neurological disease with slow progression:
a) [ ] Togaviruses
b) [ ] Retroviruses
c) [ ] Adenovaruses
d) [X] Prion
e) [ ] Viroides
145) The small, defective circular enveloped RNA virus, unable of independent viral replication:
a) [ ] Adenoviruses
b) [ ] Retroviruses
c) [ ] Enteroviruses
d) [ ] hepatitis B virus
e) [X] hepatitis D virus
146) Possesses high resistance to chemical and physical factors:
a) [ ] Rabies virus
b) [ ] Fix virus
c) [ ] Coxsackie A virus
d) [ ] Poliovaruses
e) [X] hepatitis B virus
147) The target cells for HIV:
a) [X] T CD4 lymphocytes
b) [ ] T CD8 lymphocytes
c) [ ] nasopharyngeal epithelium
d) [ ] urogenital epithelium
e) [ ] enterocytes
148) Hemagglutination of chicken erythrocytes it is characteristic for:
a) [ ] Parainfluenza viruses
b) [ ] Adenoviruses
c) [ ] Polioviruses
d) [ ] Coxsackie A virus
e) [X] Influenza virus
149) Viruses that persist in the cell and cause recurrent disease are considered
a) [ ] oncogenic
b) [ ] cytopathic
c) [X] latent
d) [ ] resistant
e) [ ] chronic
150) Viruses cannot be cultivated in
a) [ ] tissue culture
b) [ ] bird embryos
c) [ ] live mammals
d) [X] blood agar

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