PREPARED BY

ATHUMANI R. SHABANI
A.K.A
MISANGO da PhD
BMLS.2 /2016
INCREASE YOUR
UNDERSTADING CAPACITY BY
SOLVING THIS QUESTIONS ON
VIROLOGY.
ALL THE BEST IN YOUR EXAMS.
2.What is the most common cause of
aseptic meningitis of viral etiology?
a. Enteroviruses
b. Herpesviruses
c. Arboviruses
d. Retroviruses
e. Orthomyxoviruses
3.Protection against influenza A virus in a
nonimmune individual can be achieved
through the administration of a drug that
interferes with
a. Viral endonuclease activity
b. binding of host messenger RNA (mRNA)
caps by the viral P1 protein
c. Synthesis of viral progeny RNA
d. Uncoating of nucleic acid
e. Viral adsorption and penetration
 4.Which one of the following immunizations
should be administered immediately after
birth?
a. Diphtheria-pertusis-tetanus (DPT) vaccine
b. Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine
c. Hepatitis B vaccine
d. HIV Vaccine
e. Oral Polio virus
• WHO recommends that all infants should
receive their first dose of Hepatitis B vaccine
soon after birth, preferably within 24 hours of
birth
5.Which one of the following infection routes is
most often involved in the neonatal
transmission of hepatitis B virus (HBV)?
a. Blood transfusion
b. Fetal contact with infected blood during
childbirth
c. Ingestion of the virus via maternal breast
milk
d. Transmission of the virus from hospital
personnel during childbirth
e. Transplacental transmission of the virus
6.The finding of large, multinucleated, clumps
of cells in the bronchial secretions of a 2
year old girl with acute bronchopneumonia
suggests that this infection is caused by
a. Bordetella pertusis
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Mycoplasma hominis
d. Rhinovirus
e. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
7.All of the following picornaviruses are
resistant to the acidity of the stomach except:
a. Coxsackievirus A
b. Coxsackievirus B
c. Echo virus
d. Poliovirus
e. Rhinovirus
Explanation: Polio, Coxsackie A and B and
Echo viruses falls under the genera
Enterovirus and are resistant to acid pH.
Rhinoviruses are labile to acid pH
8.In a chronic carrier of hepatitis B virus
(HBV), which positive test is most
indicative of high infectivity?
a. Hepatitis B Surface Antigen (HbsAg)
b. Hepatitis B Core Antigen (HbcAg)
c. Hepatitis B e Antigen (HbeAg)
d. Anti-HBsAg
e. Anti-HBeAg
9.A retrovirus is found in a high proportion of
laboratory animals of a given species. Most
viremic animals are asymptomatic, but others
develop a fatal wasting syndrome, and a few
develop leukemia and other tumors after long
periods of latency. The virus in question most
likely lacks which one of the following genes?
a. gag
b. pol
c. env
d. onc
10.Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
A.Retrovirus b. Enterovirus c. Rhabadovirus
d. Adenovirus e. Rubellavirus
11.A type of cell culture that can reproduce
for an extended number of generations and
is used to support viral replication is a :
Primary cell culture b. Continuous cell line c.
Cell strain d. Diploid fibroblast cell e.
Connective tissue
11.Viruses that can remain latent (usually in
neurons) for many years are most likely:
A.Togaviruses b. Herpesviruses c.
Enteroviruses  d. Rhinoviruses e.
Retroviruses
12.Enteroviruses differ from rhinoviruses
mainly in their:
a.Type of nucleic acid b. Size c. Capsid
shape d. Ability to survive acidic conditions
e.  Strandedness
12.A chemical component that is found in
all viruses is:
a.Protein b. Lipid c. DNA d. RNA e.
Glycoproteins
13. A structural component that is found in
all viruses is:
The envelope b. DNA c. Capsid d. Tail
fibers  e. Spikes
13.Viruses range in size from:
a.1-100 nm b. 18-300 nm c. 10-100 μm
d.400-1000 nm e. 1-10 μm
14. Viroids ………
a. need helper viruses b. contain circular
dsDNA
c. don’t have DNA & RNA d. contain
circular ssRNA
15. Defective viruses dose not have …………….. .
a. One or several genes necessary for
replication
b. Some nucleoproteins
c. Some parts of envelope
d. Some parts of capsid
16. . Infected cells to ………………… can show
haemadsorption activity.
a. Adeno virus b. Polioma virus c.Influenza
virus d. Parvo virus
17.What is a virion?
a.Inactivated virus b. Infective virus
c.viral capsid d. Defective virus
18. (-)ssRNA viruses use ……………….. during
genome replication.
a. reverse transcriptase b. RNA-dependent
RNA polymerase
c. Thymidin kinase d. Neuraminidase
19.Interferons inhibit ……………………. .
a. viral uncoating
b.viral lysis & release c. viral mRNA
translation
d. Viral adsorption to host cells
20. What is the common phenomenon in all
viral infections?
a.DNA replication b. mRNA synthesis
c. Glycoprotein synthesis d. RNA
dependent-DNA synthesis
21. Integrase is a necessary enzyme for………
a. HAV b. HIV c. HCV d. Flavi virus
22.…… has the helical symmetry.
a. Adeno virus b. Influenza virus c. Herpes
virus d. Parvo virus
23. Differentiation of enveloped and non
enveloped viruses are related to the
presence or absence of …………………….. .
a. nucleic acid b. lipids c. proteins d.
enzymes
24.Interference can be happened during the
usage of ………………….. .
a. killed vaccines b. Attenuated vaccines c.
recombinant vaccines d. vaccines
containing viral subunits
25. Between ……………… is the Eclipse period.
a. Assemly & Release b. Adsorption &
Assembly
c. Release & Assembly d. Adsorption &
uncoating
26. .Interferons inhibit ……………………. .
a. viral uncoating
b.viral lysis & release c. viral mRNA
translation
d. Viral adsorption to host cells
27.What is the common phenomenon in all
viral infections?
a.DNA replication b. mRNA synthesis
c. Glycoprotein synthesis d. RNA
dependent-DNA synthesis
28. What type of immunity is most responsible
for fighting viral infections?
A. Humoral Immunity B. Cell-Mediated
Immunity C. Innate Immunity D. All
 29. Which of the following is not true regarding
viruses?
A. May be DNA, RNA, Single, or Double-
stranded B. All are obligate intracellular
parasites C. All have a protein capsid
and envelope D. Release virions during
cell lysis or budding E. All are true
30. How are viruses different from bacteria?
A. Viruses do not replicate by binary
fission B. Viruses are smaller
C. Viruses are obligate intracellularly
D. A and B
E. All
31.   Viruses are classified according to all
of the following except:
A. Type of replication
B. Structure of virion
C. Host required for survival
D. Type of nucleic acid
E. Structure of virus
32. Primary replication of the virus takes
place before spread. This happens with:
A. Neural spread
B. Hematogenous spread
C. Tissue spread
D. Viremia
E. All
33.   Adenoviidae, Poxviridae, and
Herpesviridae are:
A. Single-stranded DNA virus
B. Single-stranded RNA virus
C. Double-stranded DNA
D. Double-stranded RNA
E. Mixed-stranded DNA
34. Which of the following is mixed-stranded?
A. Reoviridiae
B. Rhabdoviridae
C. Poxviridae
D. Hepadnoviridae
E. Parvoviridae
35.An HIV-positive patient asks you if you can
tell him the chances of him
progressing to symptomatic AIDS. Which
one of the following tests would
be most useful?
a. CD4 lymphocyte count
b. HIV antibody test
c. HIV RT PCR
d. Neopterin
e. HIV p24 antigen
36.The clinical picture of arbovirus infection
fits one of three categories:
encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, or fever
with myalgia. One of the characteristics
of arboviruses is that they
a. Are transmitted by arthropod vectors
b. Are usually resistant to ether
c. Usually cause symptomatic infection in
humans
d. Are closely related to parvoviruses
37.Which one of the following statements best
describes interferon’s suspected
mode of action in producing resistance to viral
infection?
a. It stimulates a cell-mediated immunity
b. It stimulates humoral immunity
c. Its direct antiviral action is related to the
suppression of messenger RNA formation
d. Its action is related to the synthesis of a
protein that inhibits translation or transcription
e. It alters the permeability of the cell
membrane so that viruses cannot enter the
cell
38.Delta hepatitis only occurs in patients
who also have either acute or
chronic infection with hepatitis B virus.
The delta agent is
a. An incomplete hepatitis B virus
b. Related to hepatitis A virus
c. A hepatitis B mutant
d. An incomplete RNA virus
e. Hepatitis C
39.Mumps virus accounts for 10 to 15% of all
cases of aseptic meningitis
in the United States. Infection with mumps
virus
a. Is apt to recur periodically in many affected
persons
b. Will usually cause mumps orchitis in
postpubertal males
c. Is maintained in a large canine reservoir
d. Usually produces severe systemic
manifestations
e. Is preventable by immunization
40.A 3-year-old child presents at the
physician’s office with symptoms of
coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and
Koplik’s spots. The causative
agent of this disease belongs to which
group of viruses?
a. Adenovirus
b. Herpesvirus
c. Picornavirus
d. Orthomyxovirus
e. Paramyxovirus
41.Which virus is the leading cause of the
croup syndrome in young children
and, when infecting mammalian cells in
culture, will hemabsorb red
blood cells?
a. Group B coxsackievirus
b. Rotavirus
c. Parainfluenza virus
d. Adenovirus
42.Hepatitis E, a recently characterized
hepatitis virus, is best described
by which of the following statements?
a. It is not a threat to the blood supply
b. It is a major cause of blood-borne
hepatitis
c. It is prevalent in North America
d. It is a single-stranded DNA virus
e. The disease resembles hepatitis C
43.Infection with hepatitis D virus (HDV; delta agent)
can occur simultaneously
with infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) or in a
carrier of hepatitis
B virus because HDV is a defective virus that
requires HBV for its
replicative function. What serologic test can be used
to determine whether
a patient with HDV is an HBV carrier?
a. HBsAg
b. HBc IgM
c. HBeAg
d. HBs IgM
e. HBs IgG
44.A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis.
She
recalls sticking herself with a needle approximately 4 months
before after
drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HBsAg,
antibodies to
HBsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative; however,
she is positive
for IgM core antibody. The nurse
a. Does not have hepatitis B
b. Has hepatitis A
c. Is in the late stages of hepatitis B infection
d. Is in the “window” (after the disappearance of HBsAg and
before the appearance
of anti-HBsAg)
e. Has hepatitis C
45.Eastern equine encephalitis virus is
associated with a high fatality rate.
Control of the disease could be possible
by eradication of
a. Horses
b. Birds
c. Mosquitoes
d. Fleas
e. Ticks
46.German measles virus (rubella), a common
cause of exanthems in
children, is best described by which of the
following statements?
a. Measles (rubeola) and German measles
(rubella) are caused by the same virus
b. Incubation time is approximately 3 to 4
weeks
c. Vesicular rashes are characteristic
d. Onset is abrupt with cough, coryza, and fever
e. Specific antibody in the serum does not
prevent disease
47. Rhinovirus is primarily transmitted by
a. Droplet aerosolization
b. Sexual activity
c. Fecal-oral route
d. Fomites
e. Vertical transmission from mother to
child
48.Hepatitis D virus (delta agent) is a
defective virus that can replicate
only in cells already infected with which of
the following viruses?
a. Hepatitis A virus
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Hepatitis G virus
d. Hepatitis B virus
e. HIV
49.An infant, seen in the ER, presents with a
fever and persistent cough.
Physical examination and a chest x-ray
suggest pneumonia. Which of the
following is most likely the cause of this
infection?
a. Rotavirus
b. Adenovirus
c. Coxsackievirus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus
e. Rhinovirus
50.Which one of the following groups of
people may be at increased risk
for HIV infection?
a. Members of a household in which there
is a person who is HIV-positive
b. Receptionists at a hospital
c. Factory workers whose coworkers are
HIV-positive
d. Foreign service employees who are
hospitalized in Zaire for bleeding ulcers
e. Homosexual females
51.An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was
exposed to rubella
virus in the eighteenth week of pregnancy. She does
not remember getting
a rubella vaccination. The best immediate course of
action is to
a. Terminate the pregnancy
b. Order a rubella antibody titer to determine
immune status
c. Reassure the patient because rubella is not a
problem until after the thirtieth
week
d. Administer rubella immune globulin
e. Administer rubella vaccine
52.A patient has all the gastrointestinal
symptoms of infection with
hepatitis A virus (HAV), yet all the tests for
HAV-IgG and HAV-IgM are nonreactive.
A possible cause of this infection is
a. Hepatitis B surface antigen
b. Hepatitis C
c. Hepatitis D
d. Hepatitis E
e. Rotavirus
53.Which of the following viruses is
primarily transmitted by the fecaloral
route?
a. St. Louis encephalitis virus
b. Colorado tick fever virus
c. Coxsackievirus
d. Yellow fever virus
e. Dengue fever virus
54.Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), a
self-limited disease of children,
is caused by
a. Measles
b. Parvovirus
c. Rubella
d. Human herpesvirus type 6
e. Norwalk virus
•
55. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
virus (SSPE) is best described by
which of the following statements?
a. It is a progressive disease involving both
white and gray matter
b. It is a late CNS manifestation of mumps
c. It is a common event occurring in 1 of 300,
000 cases of mumps
d. Viral DNA can be demonstrated in brain
cells
e. Demyelination is characteristic
•
53. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
virus (SSPE) is best described by
which of the following statements?
a. It is a progressive disease involving both
white and gray matter
b. It is a late CNS manifestation of mumps
c. It is a common event occurring in 1 of 300,
000 cases of mumps
d. Viral DNA can be demonstrated in brain
cells
e. Demyelination is characteristic
57.Rotavirus is a double-stranded RNA virus
with a double-walled capsid.
Which one of the following statements best
describes rotavirus?
a. There are no related animal viruses
b. It is a major cause of neonatal diarrhea
c. It is readily cultured from the stool of
infected persons
d. Maternal antibody does not appear to be
protective
e. Early breast-feeding offers no protection to
neonates against it
58.Paramyxoviruses are most commonly
associated with which of the following
diseases?
a. Fifth disease
b. Rubella
c. Croup
d. Tonsillitis
e. Otitis media
59.Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme unique
to the retroviruses. Which
one of the following is a function of the
enzyme reverse transcriptase?
a. DNase activity
b. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity
c. RNA isomerase activity
d. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity
e. Integration activity
60.St. Louis encephalitis, a viral infection, was first
recognized as an
entity in 1933. Which of the following best describes
SLE?
a. It is transmitted to humans by the bite of an
infected tick
b. It is caused by a togavirus
c. It is the major arboviral cause of central nervous
system infection in the United
States
d. It may present initially with symptoms similar to
influenza
e. Laboratory diagnosis is routinely made by cultural
methods
61.A patient has arthralgia, a rash,
lymphadenopathy, pneumonia but no
fever. Which of the following diseases is
most likely based on these symptoms?
a. Dengue fever
b. St. Louis encephalitis
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Hepatitis
e. HIV infection
62.Which of the following markers is usually
the first viral marker
detected after hepatitis B infection?
a. HBeAg
b. HBsAg
c. HBcAg
d. Anti-HBc
e. HbeAb
63.Which of the following may be the only
detectable serological marker
during the early convalescent phase of
HBV infection (window phase)?
a. HBeAg
b. HBsAg
c. HBcAg
d. Anti-HBc
e. HbeAb
64.Which one of the following markers is
closely associated with HBV
infectivity and DNA polymerase activity?
a. HBeAg
b. HBsAg
c. HBcAg
d. Anti-HBc
e. HBeAb
65.Which of the following is found within the
nuclei of infected hepatocytes
and not usually in the peripheral
circulation?
a. HBeAg
b. HBsAg
c. HBcAg
d. Anti-HBc
e. HbeAb
66.Orchitis, which may cause sterility, is a
possible manifestation of
which of the following?
a. Rabies
b. Rhinovirus
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus
e. Mumps
67.Which of the following is a leading cause
of pneumonia primarily in
infants?
a. Rabies
b. Rhinovirus
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus
e. Mumps
68.Which of the following causes a fatal
encephalitis for which a vaccine
is available?
a. Rabies
b. Rhinovirus
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus
e. Mumps
69.Which of the following is available and
effective for hepatitis A?
a. Acyclovir
b. Killed virus vaccine
c. Inactivated virus vaccine
d. Live virus vaccine
e. Recombinant viral vaccine
70.Patients should be vaccinated annually
for influenza with which of the
following vaccines?
a. Immune serum globulin
b. Killed virus vaccine
c. Inactivated virus vaccine
d. Live virus vaccine
e. Recombinant viral vaccine
71.The vaccine for measles is best
characterized as a
a. Bacterin
b. Killed virus vaccine
c. Inactivated virus vaccine
d. Live virus vaccine
e. Recombinant viral vaccine
71.Which of the following best describes the
presently available vaccine
for hepatitis B?
a. Synthetic peptide vaccine
b. Killed virus vaccine
c. Inactivated virus vaccine
d. Live virus vaccine
e. Recombinant viral vaccine
72.Which of the following is transmitted by
the fecal-oral route; can be
acquired from shellfish; and often causes
acute jaundice, diarrhea, and liver
function abnormalities?
a. Rotavirus
b. Adenovirus 40/41
c. Norwalk virus
d. Astrovirus
e. Hepatitis A virus
73.Which of the following is the second most
common cause of pediatric
gastroenteritis? Unlike other similar viruses,
this virus causes only gastroenteritis.
a. Rotavirus
b. Adenovirus 40/41
c. Norwalk virus
d. Astrovirus
e. Hepatitis A virus
74.Which of the following is a cause of mild
gastroenteritis? It can be
transmitted by the fecal-oral route but not
by food consumption.
a. Rotavirus
b. Adenovirus 40/41
c. Norwalk virus
d. Astrovirus
e. Hepatitis A virus
75.IgM antibody to the viral particle is the
method of choice for laboratory
diagnosis of which one of the following
hepatitis viruses?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
e. Hepatitis E
76.This virus belongs to the family of
flaviviruses and its reservoir is
strictly human. Transmission is blood-borne
so the blood supply is routinely
screened for this virus.
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
e. Hepatitis E
77. Vaccination for this hepatic disease is
with viral surface antigen and
usually provides immunity.
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
e. Hepatitis E
78.This hepatitis virus is a calicivirus. The
reservoir is in pigs, and
humans acquire it via the fecal-oral route.
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
e. Hepatitis E
79.This hepatitis virus is a defective virus in
that it cannot replicate
independently without the presence of
hepatitis B virus.
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
e. Hepatitis E
80.Which of the following viruses causes
progressive multifocal
leukoencephalopathy (PML), a disease
causing demyelination in the central
nervous system?
a. Human papillomavirus
b. West Nile virus
c. Tick-borne encephalitis virus
d. Polyomavirus
e. SSPE
81.This virus is a single-stranded RNA
orthomyxovirus. Annual vaccination
is necessary because of antigenic drift
and shift.
a. Measles virus
b. Influenza virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Parainfluenza virus
e. Adenovirus
82.This virus is a single-stranded RNA
paramyxovirus. The rash known
as Koplik’s spots is pathognomonic.
a. Measles virus
b. Influenza virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Parainfluenza virus
e. Adenovirus
83.This virus is the leading cause of
bronchiolitis and communityacquired
pneumonia in infants.
a. Measles virus
b. Influenza virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Parainfluenza virus
e. Adenovirus
84.This is a paramyxovirus and causes the
syndrome known as croup.
a. Measles virus
b. Influenza virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Parainfluenza virus
e. Adenovirus
85.What are hemagglutinin and neuraminidase?
A)Exotoxins produced by the influenza virus
B)Glycoprotein receptors on influenza's target cells
C)Glycoproteins on influenza virus that contribute to
virulence
D)Proteins found in the nucleus of influenza virus
E)Proteins that surround each segment of the
nucleic acid in influenza
Feedback: Review "Enveloped Segmented
Single-Stranded RNA Viruses" to learn about these
molecules.
86.What virus commonly undergoes both
antigenic shifts and antigenic drifts?
A)HIV
B)Ebola
C)Rotavirus
D)Influenza
E)Rabies
87.Ebola is a member of what family of
viruses? A)Filovirus
B)Retrovirus
C)Orthomyxovirus
D)Togavirus
E)Coronavirus
88.What increases the possibility of antigenic
shift in influenza virus?
A)The presence of neutralizing antibodies
to influenza
B)The presence of herd immunity
C)The annual flu shot
D)Aerosol transmission of influenza
E)The simultaneous infection of one
individual with two different strains of
influenza
89.What type of vaccine is the current flu
vaccine?
A)Live, attenuated virus
B)Acellular
C)Recombinant
D)Killed, whole virus
E)Toxoid
90.How are all the important human
paramyxoviruses transmitted?
A)By direct contact with infected rodents
B)By respiratory droplets
C)By the bite of an infected arthropod
D)By sexual transmission
E)By contaminated food
91.A giant, multinucleated cell that has
cytoplasmic inclusion bodies is also
known as a what?
A)Syncopate
B)Syncytium
C] Syncline
D)Synchrotron
E)Syndrome
92.What is the body's target site for the
paramyxovirus that causes mumps?
A)Throat
B)Mouth
C)Parotid gland
D)Adenoid glands
E)Thyroid gland
93.Koplik's spots are associated with what
illness?
A)Mumps
B)Measles
C)German measles
D)RSV infection
E)Influenza
94.For what disease is postexposure
vaccination with the human diploid cell
vaccine (HDCV) indicated?
A)Rabies
B)Measles
C)Mumps
D)Rubella
95.What virus can cause teratogenic effects?
A)SARS
B)Rabies
C)Influenza
D)Hanta
E)Rubella (Rubivirus)
96.What is the most common tick-borne
viral fever in the United States?
A)Colorado tick fever (CTF)
B)West Nile encephalitis
C)Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE)
D)St. Louis encephalitis (SLE)
E)California encephalitis
97.The CDC has discovered the presence of
the Asian tiger mosquito in several states
along the southern border of the United
States. They worry that this mosquito could
be a potential vector for what disease?
A)Western equine encephalitis (WEE)
B)Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE)
C)St. Louis encephalitis
D)Yellow fever
E)Dengue fever
98.According to the World Health
Organization, what region of the world has
the largest number of both adults and
children living with HIV/AIDS?
A)South and South East Asia
B)Sub-Saharan Africa
C)North Africa and Middle East
D)Latin America
E)Eastern Europe and Central Asia
99.What mode of HIV transmission is
growing more rapidly than any other?
A)Sexual transmission between
homosexual or bisexual males
B)Blood transfusions and blood products
C)Sharing of contaminated needles
D)Congenital or neonatal AIDS
E)Contact by medical or dental personnel
1OO.What class of lymphocytes is infected
and destroyed by HIV?
A)Monocytes
B)Macrophages
C)Antibodies
D)CD8
E)CD4
101.Which is not a class of drugs used in
HIV/AIDS therapy?
A)Synthetic nucleotides
B)Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
C)Ribozyme inhibitors
D)Protease inhibitors
E)Fusion inhibitors
102.How is hepatitis A transmitted?
A)Respiratory droplets
B)Fomites
C)Sexually transmitted
D)Fecal-oral route
E)Bite of an infected vector
103.Colds can be caused by all but which of
the following viruses?
A)Rhinovirus
B)Coronavirus
C)Adenovirus
D)Retrovirus
E)Paramyxovirus
104.Which is not a property of the agents of
spongiform encephalopathies?
A)Present virus morphology in electron
microscopy of infected brain cells
B)Proteinaceous in nature
C)Very resistant to chemicals, radiation, and
heat
D)Not integrated into nucleic acid of infected
host cells
E)Transmitted only by intimate contact with
infected tissues and secretions
105.What type of virus causes swine flu?
A. Ds RNA virus
B. Ds DNA virus
C. Ss negative sense RNA virus
D. Ss positive sense RNA virus 
106. Swine flu is caused by a member of which family
of viruses?
A. Orthomyxoviridae
B. Filoviridae
C. Paramyxoviridae
D. Arenaviridae
107.For swine flu to replicate in the host cell
it must carry an enzyme for nucleic acid
replication. Which enzyme is this?
A. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
B. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
1O8.The common cold, polio and hepatitis A can all be
caused by a virus of the same family. Which family is this?
A. Picornaviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Filoviridae
D. Coronaviridae
109.The replicative intermediate of a positive RNA virus is:
A. The mRNA
B. The same as the genornic RNA
C. Identical to the progeny RNA
D. Negative RNA
E. Positive RNA
110.One of the three main shapes for the
viral capsid is the icosahedron. How many
faces does an icosahedron have?
A. 21
B. 24
C. 20
D. 18
E. 16
• PREPERED BY;
ATHUMANI R.SHABANI.
A.K.A
MISANGO da PhD
BMLS / 2016
ALL THE BEST IN YOUR
EXAMS.