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Explanation of Civil Engg. Prelims Paper-II (ESE - 2018)
SET - B
1. In a 90° triangular notch, the error in the Ans. (c)
estimated discharge for a given head due to Sol. Visual examination should establish the
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an error of 1% in cutting the vertex angle is colour, grain size, grain shapes of the coarse
(a) Zero (b) 1% grained part of soil.
Dilatancy test is one of the test used in field
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(c) % (d) % to identify fine grained soil. In this test, a
2
wet pat of soi l is taken and shaken
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vigorously in the palm. Silt exhibits quick
Ans. (c)
response and water appears on surface,
8 where as clay shows no or slow response.
Sol. Q = Cd 2g tan H5/2
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15 2
3. An open channel is of isosceles triangle shape,
8 d 5/2 with side slopes 1 vertical and n horizontal.
dQ = Cd 2g sec 2 H
15 2 2 The ratio of the critical depth to specific energy
at critical depth will be
dQ sec 2 2 d
= . . 2 3
Q tan 2 2 (a) (b)
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3 4
dQ 2 1 4 5
= 1% % (c) (d)
Q 1 2 2 2 5 6
2. Consider the following statements : Ans. (c)
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C rQ2= –255 122
5
EC = yC
4 – rQn – –255
2.09
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Q = n–1 122
yC 4 rnQ
E 5
C Q AB = 3+2.09 = 5.09 = 5.1
4. Q CD = 1+2.09 = 3.09 = 3.1
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A 3 B 5. A 2 m wide rectangular channel carries a
discharge of 10 m3/s. What would be the depth
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2
10 7 4Q 4 7
+ of fow if the Froude number of the flow is 2.0?
5Q2 3Q2
(a) 1.72 m (b) 1.36
2Q
2 (c) 0.86 m (d) 0.68 m
D C
8 Ans. (c)
1 5
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Sol. We know,
A pipe network is shown with all needful input
data to compute the first iteration improved
q2
magnitudes of the initially assumed flows in Fr2 =
the branches. What will be the such improved gy3
flow magnitudes in branches AB and CD?
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Q = 10 m 3/sec, B = 2 m
Consider to first decimal accuracy
(a) A to B : 5.1; C to D : 3.1 Q 10
q = = 5 m 2/s-m
B 2
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M3
CDL
yC 1 1 8Fr12
14 =
2
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F r1 = 10.25
y < y C < yo
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9. In a hydraulic jump, the depths on the two
7. Floating logs of wood tend to move to the
sides are 0.4 m and 1.4 m. The head loss in
mid-river reach on the water surface. This is
due to the jump is nearly
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(a) Least obstruction from the banks (a) 0.45 (b) 0.65 m
(b) 2-cell transverse circulation in the flow (c) 0.80 m (d) 0.90 m
work
10. A 20 cm centrifugal pump runs at 1400 rpm
Ans. (b) delivering 0.09 m3/sec against a head of 45 m
Sol. with an efficiency of 87%. What is its non-
dimensional specific speed using rps as the
relevant data component?
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Secondary
currents (a) 0.482 (b) 0.474
Isovels (c) 0.466 (d) 0.458
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Ans. (d)
Due to 2- cell transverse circulation in the
flow, the logs of wood tend to move to the Sol. N = 1400 rpm
mid-river reach on the water surface. This D = 20 m
is mainly due to effect of secondary currents. Q = 0.09 m 3/s
8. The sequent depth ratio in a rectangular H = 45 m
channel is 14. The froude number of the
supercritcal flow will be 0.87
(a) 6.62 (b) 7.55 N Q
(c) 8.45 (d) 10.25 For pump, Ns 3/4
(gH)
1400 2 30 h1
N in rps = 146.61 rps Q 2
60 80
146.61 0.09 (30 h1 )
Ns 3/4
0.457 Q2 4
(9.81 45) 80
h1 = 30 – 20Q2
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11. Two identical centrifugal pumps are connected
in parallel to a common delivery pipe of a 12. Consider the f ollowing data relating to
system. The discharge performance curve of performance of a centrifugal pump : speed =
each of the pumps is represented by H = 30
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1200 rpm, flow rate = 30 l/s, head = 20 m,
– 80Q2. The discharge-head equation of the and power = 5 kW. If the speed of the pump
parallel duplex pump set is is increased to 1500 rpm, assuming the
(a) H = 30 – 80Q2 (b) H = 15 – 20Q2 efficiency is unaltered, the new flow rate and
head, respectively, will be
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(c) H = 30 – 20Q2 (d) H = 15 – 80Q2
(a) 46.9 l/s and 25.0 m
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Ans. (c) (b) 37.5 l/s and 25.0 m
Sol. (c) 46.9 l/s and 31.3
Delivery (d) 37.5 l/s and 31.3 m
pipe
Ans. (d)
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2
H = 20 m
H = 30 – 80Q
P = 5 kw
When two pumps are arranged in parallel, their
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(h1) H1 H2
2
So, h1 30 80Q1 (For pump 1) 1200 1500
= H2
2
(For pump 2) 20
h1 30 80Q 2
2
For pump 1 1500
H2 = 20
1200
30 h1 = 31.25 31.3 m
Q1
80
Q1 Q2
For pump 2 =
H1 H2
30 h1 30 Q2
Q2
80 =
20 31.25
So, Q = Q 1 + Q 2 (at same head h1 for
Q2 37.5 l/sec
combined system)
13. The work done by a kN of water jet moving V2 V 2
with a velocity of 60 m/sec. when it impinges 2 3 hL
2g 2g
on a series of vanes moving in the same % 2 100
direction with a velocity of 9 m/sec is V2
(a) 60.2 kN m (b) 55.6 kN m 2g
(c) 46.8 kN m (d) 45.0 kN m 3.5 0.3 0.5
100 = 77.14%
3.5
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Ans. (c)
15. Which of the following situations can be
1kN 1000 attributed to sustained excessive groundwater
Sol. Mass of water =
g 9.81 pumping in a basin?
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1. Drying up of small lakes and streams over
Mass of water (m) = 101.94 kg
a period in spite of normal rainfall.
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Velocity of jet (V) = 60 m/sec
2. Deterioration of groundwater quality in
Velocity of vane (u) = 9 m/sec certain aquifers
Work done by jet = mv r . u [Vr = V – u] 3. Land subsidence in the basin
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= m(V – u) u 4. Increase in seismic activity
5. Increased cost of groundwater extraction
= 101.94 × (60 – 9) × 9
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
= 46789 N
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 5 only
Work done by jet = 46.8 kN
Ans. (b)
14. The velocity heads of water at the inlet and
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Horton equation In francis turbine, governing is done through
the regulation of guide vane by closing and
f = fc (f0 fc ) ek ht opening the wicket gate, the area of flow is
decreased or increased correspondingly.
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f = 5 15 e 0.5t In Kaplan turbine we have double control
Total infiltration depth guide vane which controls flow and inlet
angle and individual blades can also be
e0.5t
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rotated about their respective axis.
F = fdt 5t 15 0.5
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18. VW
10 h
= 5t 30e0.5t 0
d2
F = [5 × 10 – 30e–5 + 30] v1 d1 v2
F = 80 mm
17. Consider the following statements regarding Consider the occurance of a surge at the water
surface of a wide rectangular channel flow, as
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turbines :
in the figure, where th eone-dimensionally
1. The main function of a governor is to
considered velocities are v1 and v 2 and the
maintain a constant speed even as the
depths are d1 and d2, with the surge height h,
load on the turbine fluctuates
whereby d2 – d1 = h, moving at a speed of Vw
2. In the case of pelton turbines, the governor over depth d1. Joint application of continuity
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closes or oepns the wicket gates and momentum principles will indicate the
3. In the case of Francis turbines, the surge front speed Vw, to be
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g (2d1 h)
20. Rainfall of magnitude 4.3 cm, followed by 3.7
Celerity = 2 d1 cm, occurred on two consecutive 4 h durations
on a catchment area of 25 km 2, and there
1 h h resulted a DRH (after isolation of base flow in
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= g 1 2 d1
2 d1 d1 the flood flow hydrograph) with the following
ordinates starting from the beginning of the
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2
1 h 2h h rainfall. (Adopt trapezoidal formula)
C = g 2 d1
2 d1 d1 d1 Time
0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44
(hours)
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Assuming V w as celerity DRH
(ordinate 0 9 16 20 20 17.8 13.4 9.4 6.2 3.7 1.8 0
2
3 h 1 h 3
m / sec)
Vw = g 1 d1
2 d1 2 d1
What is the index value?
19. Which of the following will pose difficulties in
(a) 0.149 cm/h (b) 0.155 cm/h
adopting u.h.g. principles and processes in
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evaluating flood hydrographs of basins? (c) 0.161 cm/h (d) 0.167 cm/h
1. Non-uniform areal distribution within a Ans. (b)
storm
Sol. Runoff calculation:
2. Intensity variation within a storm.
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(a) 1.50 m/day (b) 2.25 m/day Sol. Assume -index great er than 1 cm/ hr
(c) 3.50 m/day (d) 4.25 m/day because no option is less than 1 cm/hr.
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Iteration 1:
Ans. (b)
Sol. Aquifer cross-section = 10 4 m 2 1 1
Total precipitation = (1.6) 3.6
2 2
Length of aquifer = 1500 m
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Head drop between entry and exit points = 1 1 1
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50 m 5.0 2.8 2.2
2 2 2
Groundwater discharge = 750 m 3/day
= 7.6 cm
By Darcy law
[ 1cm/hr will not be considered as value is
Q = kiA less than -index assumed]
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50 Runoff = 3.2 cm
750 = k 10 4
1500
7.6 3.2
-index = 1.76 cm/h 1.6 cm/h
750 1500 2.5
k = 2.25 m/day
50 104 It implies 1.6 cm/h rainfall ineffective. So,
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22. A hydraulic turbine develops 5000 kW under exclude 1 cm/h and 1.6 cm/h both.
a head of 30 m when running at 100 rpm. Iteration 2:
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This turbine belongs to the category of Similarly, total precipitation = 1.8 + 2.5 +
(a) Pelton wheel (b) Francis Turbine 1.4 + 1.1 = 6.8 cm
(c) Kaplan Turbine (d) Propeller Turbine Runoff = 3.2 cm
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26. Annual rainfall values at station A in mm for
Ans. (d) the years 2001 to 2010 are given in the table
Sol. Fellenius proposed on empirical procedure below. If simple central 3-year moving mean
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to find the centre of the most critical circle of this rainfall record is calculated, the
in a purely cohesive soil. The centre ‘O’ for maximum and minimum values in the moving
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the toe failure case can be located at the mean list would be
intersection of the two lines drawn from the
ends A & B of the slope at angles ' ' and ' ' Year 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Annual
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(directional angles.) Rainfall
P at 586 621 618 639 689 610 591 604 621 650
O station
A (mm)
B
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(d) Excess alum dosage
beneath the floors
(b) Boundary layer flow with pressure drop Ans. (b)
longitudinally Sol.
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(c) Conformal transformation of potential flow In ion exchange method we use zeolites
into the w plane which are hydrated silicates of sodium and
(d) Simplification of 3-D flow aluminium. Which reacts as following:
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Ans. (a) HCO3 HCO3
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Sol. Ca 2 2 Ca
Naz SO 4 Na SO 4 Z
Mg Mg
Khosla’s theory of independent variables is Cl Cl
based an assumption that the potential flow
theory can be applied to sub-soil flow. Ion exchange method produces water with
28. In a siphon aqueduct, the worst condition of zero hardness.
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uplift on the floor occurs when 30. Five-days BOD of a 10% diluted sample
(a) The canal is full and the drainage is empty, having DO = 6.7 mg/l, DS = 2 mg/l and
with water table at drainage bed level consumption of oxygen in blank = 0.5 mg/l,
(b) The canal is empty and the drainage is will be
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full, with water table at drainage bed level (a) 22 mg/l (b) 42 mg/l
(c) Both the canal and the drainage are full (c) 62 mg/l (d) 82 mg/l
(d) The canal is empty and the drainage is
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Ans. (b)
full, with water table below the floor.
Sol.
Ans. (a) D0 = Initial D.O. of mix = 6.7 mg/l
Sol. Ds = Final D.O of mix = 2 mg/L
In case of Siphon aqueduct drain flows Consumption of oxygen inblank sample
below the canal under syphonic action. = 0.5 mg/L
T he m ax i mum upl i f t under t he worst Dilution ratio (P) = 0.1
condition would occur when there is no water As the mixture uses seeded water
flowing in the drain and the water table has (D0 Ds ) (Dob DSb ) (1 P)
risen upto drainage bed. The maximum net BOD5 =
P
uplift in such a case would be equal to the
(6.7 2) 0.5 0.9
difference in level between drainage bed and =
bottom of floor. 0.1
= 42.5 mg/l Ans. (a)
So, nearest option will be (b) Sol.
31. Which one of the following statements related Capacity of a serv ice reserv oir in any
to testing of water for municipal use is correctly community should cater to sum total balancing
applicable? storage breakdown stroage and fire reserve.
(a) Pseudo-hardness is due to presence of The storage capacity of balancing reservoirs is
fluoride in water worked out with the help of hydrograph of inflow
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(b) W hen alkalinity total hardness, and outflow by mass curve method.
Carbonate hardness in mg/l = Total 33. Consider the following statements regarding
hardness in mg/l
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groundwater pollutants:
(c) Bicarbonate alkalinity = total alkalinity – 1. Most of the groundwaters are generally
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(carbonate alkalinity – hydroxide alkalinity) non-alkaline
(d) Hydroxide alkalinity = Carbonate alkalinity 2. A moderate amount of fluoride, about 0.6
+ Bicarbonate alkalinity mg/l to 1.5 mg/l, in drinking water, would
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help in good development of teeth
Ans. (b)
3. Natural waters do not have dissolved
Sol. If non-carbonate hardness is absent in
water mineral matter in them
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Total hardness = minimum
(carbonate hardness, alkalinity) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
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matter in them.
32. The capacity of a service reservoir in a campus
should cater to 3. A moderate amount of fluoride helps in
good development of teeth.
(a) Sum total of balancing storage, breakdown
storage and fire reserve Thus, only statement (2) is correct.
(b) Sum total of balancing storage and fire 34. Consider the following statements regarding
reserve anchorage of pipelines conveying water:
(c) Sum total of breakdown storage and fire 1. At bends, pipes tend to pull apart
reserve 2. At bends, forces exerted on the joints due
(d) Balancing storage only to longitudinal shearing stresses are
enormous and the joints may get loosened
3. To avoid problems by hydrodynamic 1. The pond has a symbiotic process of waste
effects, pipes are anchored using concrete stabilization through algae on one hand
blocks which absorb side thrusts at bends and bacteria on the other
4. Pipes are also anchored on steep slopes 2. The oxygen in the pond is provided by
Which of the above statements are correct? algae through photosynthesis
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 3. The detention period is of the order of two
to three days
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. The bacteria which develop in the pond
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Ans. (d) are aerobic bacteria
Sol. Pipelines on pipe bend and those designed Which of the above statements are correct?
an steep slope (> 20%) require concrete
anchor blocks. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
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35. Consider the following statements with (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
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reference to bioenergy as a renewable energy Ans. (a)
source:
Sol.
1. Plants ensure continuous supply of gas
due to their continuous growth Stabilization pond has symboisis between
algae and bacteria.
2. Cost of obtaining energy from biogas is
less than that from fossil fuels In which algae produces oxgyen by
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3. Digestion of sludge may produce H2S and photosynthesis and aerobic bacteria
consumes that
NOX which are injurious to human health
4. ‘Floating dome’ installation is the preferred Stabilization pond used for domestic
option as it supplies gas at constant sewage are mostly facultative in nature
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only softening by the lime-soda process is the
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) Removal of excess soda from the water
(b) Removal of non-carbonate hardness in the
Ans. (d) water
Sol. (c) Recovery of lime from the water
Cost of obtaining energy from fossil fuel is (d) Conversion of precipitates to soluble forms
less as compared to that from biogas: in the water
Thus, statement (2) is incorrect.
Ans. (d)
36. Consider the following statements regarding
waste stabilization ponds: Sol. Complete removal of hardness cannot be
accomplished by chemical precipitation. These
remains will precipitate slowly and hence will Total weight = (10+ 35 + 20 + 35)
get accumulated inside the pipe and clog the = 100 units
pipe with time. Hence it is necessary to make
it soluble. Dry weight = (63 + 30 + 10 + 20)
= 63 units
And this is done by adding ‘CO2’ in water.
Thus, moisture = (100 – 63) = 37 units.
38. Environmental flow of a river refers to the
quantity, quality and timing of the flow 37
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% moisuture content = 100%
(a) Required in the river to sustain the river 100
ecosystem
= 37%
(b) Required to maintain healthy ecological
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40. Consider the following statements:
conditions in the command area of a river
development project 1. When a soil sample is dried beyond its
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shrinkage limt, the volume of the soil slowly
(c) Generated by the ecosystem of the
decreases.
catchment of the river
2. Plastic limit is always lower than the liquid
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(d) As the minimum requirement to support
limit for any type of soil
the cultural practices of the community
living on the banks of the river 3. At the liquid limit, the soil behaves like a
liquid and possesses no shear strength at
Ans. (a) all
Sol. 4. When subjected to drying, the volume of
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Environmental flows describe the quantity, the soil remains unchanged once the water
timing and quality of water flows required to content of the soil goes below its shrinkage
sustain freshwater and river ecosystem. limit.
39. The moisture content of a certain Municipal Which of the above statements are correct?
Solid Waste with the following composition will (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
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be
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Wet, Dry,
Ans. (d)
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% weight % weight
Food waste 10 03 Sol. Shear strength of soils at liquid limit is
Paper 35 30 approximately 2.7 kN/m 2
Yard waste 20 10
The volume of soil do not change, when
Others 35 20
subjected to drying at water content below
(a) 100% (b) 63% shrinkage limit.
(c) 37% (d) 13% Plastic limit is always lower than the liquid
limits for any type of soil.
Ans. (c)
41. Consider the following statements in respect
Sol.
of the troposphere:
1. The gaseous content constantly churns by 43. What will be the unit weight of a fully saturated
turbulence and mixing. soil sample having water content of 38% and
2. Its behaviour makes the weather grain specific gravity of 2.65?
3. The ultimate energy source for producing (a) 19.88 kN/m3 (b) 17.88 kN/m3
any weather change is the sun (c) 16.52 kN/m3 (d) 14.65 kN/m3
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4. The height of the troposhere is nearly 11 Ans. (b)
km at the equatorial belt and is 5 km at
the poles. Sol. w = 0.38
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Which of these are true of the troposphere? Gs = 2.65
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1.e = 0.38 × 2.65 e = 1.007
Ans. (a)
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Sol. (Gs Se) w (2.65 1 1.007
sat = 9.81
The height of troposphere ranges from 9 1 e 1 1.007
km at the poles to 17 km at the equator. = 17.88 kN/m 3
Thus, statement (4) is incorrect. 44. How many cubic metres of soil having void
42. A sand sample has a porosity of 30% and ratio of 0.7 can be made from 30m 3 of soil
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specific gravity of solids as 2.6. What is its with void ratio of 1.2?
degree of saturation at moisture content of (a) 36.6m3 (b) 30.0m3
4.94%?
(c) 25.9m3 (d) 23.2m3
(a) 40% (b) 3.5%
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Sol. n = 0.3
V2 = (1 + e2) Vs
G s = 2.6
V2 1 e 2
w = 4.94%
V1 1 e1
n 0.3 3
e = 1.7
1 n 1 0.3 7 V2 30
2.2
So, es = wG s
3
V2 23.18 23.2 m
3 4.94
s = 2.6
7 100 45. A dry sand specimen is put through a tri-
S = 0.299 axial test. The cell pressure is 50 kPa and
the deviator stress at failure is 100 kPa. The
S 30% angle of internal friction f or the sand
specimen is
(a) 15º (b) 30º Ans. (b)
(c) 45º (d) 55º Sol. Soil grains and water are incompressible and
soil is fully saturated are assumption which
Ans. (b) makes sure that initial compression is not
Sol. 3 = 50 kPa taken in account.
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1 = 100 + 50 = 150 kPa secondary consolidation can be neglected.
2 Compression in vertical direction only do not
3 = 1 tan 45 [C 0]
2 have any relation with primary and seconary
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compression
2
50 = 150 tan 45 47. Consider the following statements:
2
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1 1. Secondary consolidation results due to
tan 45 = prolonged dissipation of excess hydrostatic
2 3
pressure.
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45 = 30° 2. Primary consolidation happens under
2
expulsion of both air and water from voids
in early stages.
= 15°
2 3. Initial consolidation in the case of fully
= 30° saturated soils is mainly due to
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1. Soil grains and water are incompressible. (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
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1. The origin and pole are at the same point
Gs w
in a Mohr’s circle d =
1 e
2. The shear stress is maximum on the failure
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plane 2.65 9.81
3. Mohr’s circle drawn with data from an 18 =
1 e
unconfined compression test passes
through the origin e = 0.444
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4. Maximum shear stress occurs on a plane e × s = wG s
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inclined at 45º to the principal plane 0.444 × s = 0.16 × 2.65
Which of the abvoe statements are correct? s = 0.9547
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only s = 95.5%
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only 50. Consider the following assumptions regarding
Coulomb’s Wedge Theory:
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Ans. (c)
Sol. 1. There is equilibrium of every element within
the soil mass of the material
1 2. There is equilibrium of the whole of the
Mohr circle for unconfined material
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Cu Compression test
(Passing through origin) 3. Backfill is wet, cohesive and ideally elastic
O 1 = qu. 4. The wall surface is rough
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(c) 10.6m (d) 12.4m Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans. (c)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Sol. Sn = Stability number
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H = Maximum depth of stable excavation Ans. (c)
Sol. A change in the external moments in the
C
Sn = F H elastic range of a pre-stressed concrete
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c beam results in a shift of the pressure line
50 rather than in an increase in the resultant
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0.261 = (Take F c = 1) force in the beam.
18 H
50 In R.C.C. design principle of lever arm
H = 10.64 m practically remains constant.
18 0.261
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52. What is the Boussinesq’s vertical stress at a This is in contrast to a reinforced concrete
point 6m directly below a concentrated load beam section where an increase in the
of 2000 kN applied at the ground surface? external moment results in a corresponding
increase i n the t ensil e f orce and t he
(a) 53.1 kN/m2 (b) 26.5 kN/m2
compressive force but the lever arm of
(c) 11.8 kN/m2 (d) 8.8 kN/m2 internal couple remains constant.
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Ans. (b) C
5
3Q 1 2
(d – x/3)
2
2
Sol. z = 2z
1 r T
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z
54. Consider the following statements with regard
5/2 to Global Positioning Systems (GPS):
3 2000 1
= 26.53 kN / m2
2 62 1
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Sol. Mi ni m um 4 sat el l i t e are re qui red t o = (4.35 300 67) km/hr
determine exact position of an object.
= 66.39 km/hr
55. A temporary bench mark has been established
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Thus,
at the soffit of a chejja on a window opening,
and its known elevation is 102.405 m abvoe Length of transition curve
mean sea level. The backsight used to = 0.073 × e × Vmax
establish the height of the instrument is by an
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= (0.073 × 15 × 66.39)m
inverted staff reading of 1.80m. A foresight
reading with the same staff, held normally, is = 72.6 m 72.3 m
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1.215m on a recently constructed plinth. The 57. Consider the following statements regarding
elevation of the plinth is remote sensing survey:
(a) 95.42 m O.D (b) 99.39 m O.D 1. Information transfer is accomplished by
(c) 102.42 m O.D (d) 105.99 m O.D use of electromagnetic radiation
2. Remote sensing from space is done by
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Ans. (b)
satellites
Sol. R.L. of T.B.M = 102.405 m (elevation of soffit
3. Remote sensing has no application in
of chejja).
earthquake prediction
B.S. = –1.8m (inverted) Which of the above statements are correct?
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(a) Mild steel (b) Cast steel
2. Inversely proportional to the radius of the
horizontal curve (c) Manganese steel (d) Bessemer steel
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radius of the horizontal curve Sol. Correct option is (c)
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Which of the above statements are correct? Maganese steel is used in the manufacturing
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only of metro and mono rails.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 61. Consider the following statements for selecting
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Ans. (a) building stones:
59. As per IRC 37: 2012, the fatigue life of a Which of the above statements are correct?
flexible pavement consisting of granular base (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
and sub-base depends upon
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
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1. Hydrophobic cement grains possesses low (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
wetting ability
Ans. (c)
2. Rapid-hardening cement is useful in Sol. Bleeding can be reduced by the use of
concreting under static, or running water
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uniformly graded aggregates, pozzolana-by
3. Quick-setting cement helps concrete to breaking the continuous water channel, or
attain high strength in the initial period by using-entraining agents, finer cement,
alkali cement and rich mix.
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4. White cement is just a variety of ordinary
64. The yield of concrete per bag of cement for a
cement free of colouring oxides.
concrete mix proportional of 1 : 1.5 : 3 (with
Which of the above statements are correct? adopting 2
as the coefficient) is
3
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(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) 0.090 m3 (b) 0.128 m3
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(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only (c) 0.135 m3 (d) 0.146 m3
Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
Sol. Hydrophobi c ce m ent contai ns
Sol. Volume of one bag of cement = 0.035m 3
admixtures which decreases the wetting
ability of cement grains. Cement: sand : Aggregate :: 1 : 1.5 : 3 (by
volume)
M
of formwork is required. 2
= 0.1925 0.128 m3
Quick setting cement has low gypsum 3
content which gives the quick setting
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property but it doesnot affect the strength 65. Consider the following statements:
gain. 1. Workability of concrete increases with the
White cement are free from iron oxides. increase in the proportion of water content
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Ans. (c)
2 106 20
Sol. Workability of concrete is the ease with f = 103 kg / cm2
10 2
which a concrete can be transported,
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placed and 100% compacted without
excessive bleeding or segregation. f 2 10 3 kg/cm2
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Concrete having large sized aggregate 67. The stress-strain curve for an ideally plastic
has high workability due to less surface material is
area of large aggregates which requires
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less paste.
Slump value of zero is an indication of (a) Stress
extremely low workability of mixture.
66. A steel wire of 20 mm diameter is bent into a Strain
circular shape of 10 m radius. If E, the modulus
of elasticity, is 2 × 10 6 kg/cm 2, then the
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(b) Stress
maximum tensile stress induced in the wire
is, nearly
Strain
(a) 2 × 103 kg/cm2 (b) 4 × 103 kg/cm2
(c) 2 × 104 kg/cm2 (d) 4 × 104 kg/cm2
S
(c) Stress
Ans. (a)
Sol. Dia of steel wire = 20 mm
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Strain
Radius of circular shape = 10 m
Modulus of elasticity, E = 2 × 10 6 kg/cm 2
(d) Stress
y = 10mm
Strain
20 mm
R= Ans. (c)
10m
Sol. Stress-strain curve for perfectly plastic
material
Steel wire
From property of circle
Stress l l
(2R – d) × d =
2 2
for small ' ' arch length and chord length
Strain
are same
R
Curve will not have any elastic component.
So most appropriate answer is ‘c’. l2 l2
d or R
Note : shear stress-strain rate curve for ideal 8R 8d
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Bingham Plastic. From bending formula
E E
Ideal Bingham plastic = =
Shear y R t/2 l2
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stress 8d
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y 4dt
Shear strain rate 2
E R l
68. A long rod of uniform rectangular section
with thickness t, originally straight, is bent 69. If strains on a piece of metal are x = –120
into t he f orm of a circular arch wit h µm/m, y = – 30 µm/m, and = 120 µm/m,
displacement d at the mid-point of span l. what is the maximum principal strain?
M
l l Sol. Given :
8td 16td x = –120 µm/m
(c) 2 (d) 2
l l y = –30 µm/m
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(c) 119.3 MPa (d) 104.0 MPa
1 µ2 3 fy
Ans. (*)
E E E E
Sol. Given,
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1.5 0.3 0.5 fy
x = 80 MPa 0.3
E E E E
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y = 100 NPa
f y = 210 MPa
xy = 60 MPa 155.5 MPa
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f y = 150 MPa 72. 250 N
2 0.5 m
x y x y 2
1/2 = xy
2 2 A C B
2
80 100 80 100 2 1.2m 1.2m
1 = 60 = 150.83MPa
M
2 2
A horizontal bar of 40 mm diameter solid
2 section is 2.40 m long and is rigidly held at
80 100 80 100 2
2 = 60 = 29.17MPa both ends so that no angular rotation occurs
2 2
axially or circumferentially at the ends (as
1 2 1 2 shown in figure). The maximum tensile stress
S
max = max , ,
2 2 2 in the bar is nearly
max = 75.41MPa (a) 12.2 N/mm2 (b) 13.7 N/mm2
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71. Principal stress at a point in an elastic material (c) 15.2 N/mm2 (d) 16.7 N/mm2
are 1.5 (tensile), (tensile) and 0.5
(compressive). The elastic limit in tension is Ans. (d)
210 MPa and µ = 0.3. The value of at Sol.
failure when computed by maximum principal 250
strain theory is, nearly 125/4 125/4
125
(a) 140.5 MPa (b) 145.5 MPa 2.4m
250 2.4 250 2.4
(c) 150.5 MPa (d) 155.5 MPa 8 8
250 125 62.5 250 125 62.5 Length, l = L l = L
R1 = R2 =
2 2.4 2.4 2 2.4 2.4 Torque = T Torque = T
250
T C
43.75 Nm
106.25 Nm J r L
125
TL 1
R
R1 = 46.875N 137.5 Nm R2 = 203.125N =
CJ J
12.5Nm 4
d
J =
TE
43.75 Nm 32
106.25 Nm
1 d24 A 1
2 d14 B 16
Maximum bending stress occur at the point
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of maximum bending moment B
16
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A
32M
max (at mid span) =
d3 74. The required diameter for a solid shaft to
transmit 400 kW at 150 rpm, with the working
32 137.5 1000
= shear stress not to exceed 80 MN/m2, is nearly
403
(a) 125 mm (b) 121 mm
= 21.88 MPa
M
N = 150 rpm
73. A slid shaft A of diameter D and length L is Shear stress = 80 MPa
subjected to a torque T; another shaft B of the
2NT
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R
Its cross-section is (400 × 400) mm 2. The 350 N 350 N
column will behave is a/an
(a) Long column The shear f orce diagram of a single
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(b) Short column overhanging beam is shown in figure. One
simple support is at end A. The ‘total’
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(c) Intermediate column
downward load acting on the beam is
(d) Linkage
(a) 800 N (b) 600 N
Ans. (b) (c) 400 N (d) 200 N
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Sol. As the connection is rigid, both rotation and
Ans. (a)
translation is not allowed at both the ends
and have l eff = 0.65l. Sol.
Slenderness Ratio : 350 N
350
100 N 100 N
leff 0.65 4000
M
= = 6.5 C
b 400 A B D E
50 N
leff
Short column 3 b 12
350 N 350 N
S
400 N 300 N
100 N
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350 N 450 N
l = 4m
Total downword SF. = 400 + 300 100
= 800 N
77. The deformation of a vertically held bar of
length L and cross-section A is due to its self-
Note : Slenderness Ratio < 3 Pedestal
weight only. If Young’s modulus is E and the
3 Slenderness Ratio 12 Short unit weight of the bar is , the elongation dL
column is
2 79. Two persons weighing W each are sitting on
L3 EL
(a) (b)
2E 2 L
a plank of length L floating on water, at
4
L2 L2
(c) (d) from either end. Neglecting the weight of the
2E 2AE
plank, the bending moment at the middle point
R
Ans. (c) of the plank is
Sol. WL WL
(a) (b)
16 64
TE
y
WL
Idy L (c) (d) Zero
(L-y) 8
Ans. (d)
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A = cross – sectional area
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W W
s = unit wt of bar L/2
L/4 L/4
E = Young’s modulus of elasticity. Sol.
PL L
Total elongation, dL =
AE Reaction will be in the form of udl acting
upward.
M
L
A(L y)dy
dL = AE i.e.,
0
Integrating we get, W W
L/2
L/4 L/4
L2
S
dL
2E
78. For material, the modulus of rigidity is 100 2W/L
L
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Sol. E = 2G(1 ) , E = 250 GPa, G = 100 GPa 80. In the case of a rectangular beam subjected
to a transverse shearing force, the ratio of
E 250 maximum shear stress to average shear stress
1 1
2G 2 100 is
0.25 (a) 0.75 (b) 1.00
(c) 1.25 (d) 1.50
Ans. (d)
MB 0 R A 16 80 12 0
Sol. Average shear stress for a beam of cross
RA = 12 × 5 = 60 kN; RB = 20 kN
V
section area (b × d) =
bd Moment of forces on right of hinge about
Shear stress distribution for rectangular the hinge will be zero so,
V d2 2
20 × 8 = H × 4 H = 40 kN
cross-section = y
R
2I 4 82. Each span of a two-span continuous beam of
Maximum will be at y = 0 (at N.A.) uniform flexural rigidity is 6 m. All three
2 supports are simple supports. It carries a
V d 3 V
max
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2bd
3 4 2 bd uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m over the
left span only. The moment at the middle
12
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support is
max 3
So, 1.5 (a) 90 kNm Sagging (b) 45 kNm Hogging
avg. 2
(c) 90 kNm Hogging (d) 45 kNm Sagging
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81. 4m 80 kN Ans. (b)
Sol.
4m 20 kN/m
H A B A B C
H
M
8m 8m 6m 6m
By moment distribution method
The horizontal thrust of the three-hinged arch
loaded as shown in the figure is Distribution factor at B and C will be 0.5
(a) 20 kN (b) 30 kN 20 62
S
Joint A B C
Sol.
Member AB BA BC CB
4m 80 kN
DF 0.5 0.5
4m FEM –60 60
H A B
H
+60
30
8m 8m
RA RB –45 –45
Moment about B will be zero Final
moment 0 45 –45 0
45 kN.m 45 kN.m Ans. (b)
Sol. For truss local stiffness matrix is
AE AE
L
L
83.
= AE AE
R
L L
TE
L 2
= 2 × 107 N/m
B
A
L 85.
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P Q
A fixed beam is loaded as in figure. The fixed
end moment at support A
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2 2 L
wL wL
(a) (b)
30 20
S
wL
2
wL
2 R
(c) (d) L F
10 8
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Ans. (b) For the truss shown in the figure, the force in
the member PQ is
Sol. Fixed end moment for beam loaded with
uniformly varying load. F
(a) F (b)
2
S
(c) 2F (d) 2F
w/m Ans. (a)
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2 2 Sol.
wl wl
20 L 30 P Q
A B
Joint equilibrium at R
FQR
84. For a plane truss member, the length is 2 m,
L
E = 200 GPa and area of cross-section is FRS R
200 mm2. The stiffness matrix coefficient K11 S
with reference to its local axis is R
F
L F
(a) 200 N/m (b) 2 × 107 N/m
(c) 4 × 107 N/m (d) 400 N/m So, FQR = F and FRS = 0
Joint equilibrium of Q
FPQ (a) 1350 kN (b) 5000 kN
45°
(c) 10000 kN (d) 25000 kN
Ans. (a)
FQS
FQR Sol. Seismic base shear V B = AhW
Ah = Horizontal earthquake force
Fx 0 FPQ FQS sin 45 0
W = Seismic weight
R
FPQ = –FQSsin45° …(i)
ZISa 0.36 1.5 2.5
Ah = 2Rg 0.135
Fy 0 FQR FQS cos 45 0 25
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z = 0.36 for zone V
FQS = 2 F …(ii)
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I = 1.5 for important building
by eq. (i)
Sa
2.5 (given)
g
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FPQ F
R = 5 (for building designed with ductile
Alternative solution: consideration)
P FPQ FPQ Thus,
Q Q
Base shear = 0.135 × 10000 kN = 1350 kN
M
R
where E 5000 fck N / mm 2 each section is the same and it is equal to the
horizontal reaction at support.
bd3 2. The uniformly distributed dead load of the
I
TE
12 roadway and t he sti f f eni ng girders i s
Stiffness of four column = 4K transmitted to the cables through hanger
= 4 × 23703 = 94812 × 103 N/m cables and is taken up entirely by the tension
in the cables. The stiffnening girders do not
Using lumped mass technique, mass of the
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suffer any S.F or B.M under dead load as
single degree of freedom system the girders are supported by closely spaced
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= Mass of slab + mass of 50% column height hanger cables throughtout. Any live load on
= [5 × 5 × 0.15 + 4 × 1.5 × 0.4 × 0.4] × 25 the bridge will be transmitted to the girders
as point loads. The stiffening girders transmit
= 117.75 kN the live load to the cable as uniformly
distributed load. While doing so the stiffening
weight 117.75 3
Mass = 10 12003.05 kg girders will be subjected to S.F. and B.M
M
g 9.81
throughout their length.
Fundamental natural time period x B
A Y yc
m 12003.05
Tn 2 2 0.0706 sec W C
k 94812 103
S
Road D F way
z E
88. Consider the following statements regarding
L/2 L/2
suspension cables :
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2. As per IS 800 : 2007, two angles placed
back-to-back and tack welded area
ks = 1000 N/s
assumed to behave as tee section.
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3. As per I S 800 : 2007, check f or
m 50 kg
slenderness ratio of tension members
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may be necessary to provide adequate
k1k s rigidity to prevent accidental eccentricity
keq = k k of load or excessive vibration.
1 s
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Thus, statement 1, 2 and 3 all are
3EI 3 5000 103 correct.
k1 = 3
3
1875000 N/m
l 2 91. A sample of dry soil is coated with a thin layer
1875000 1000 of paraffin and has a mass of 460 g. It
keq = 999.47 N/m displaced 300 cc of water when immersed in
1875000 1000
it. The paraffin is peeled off and its mass was
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92. Marshalling yard in railway system provides (a) 72.5 s (b) 58.0 s
facilities for
(c) 48.0 s (d) 19.3 s
(a) Maintenance of rolling stock
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Ans. (b)
(b) Safe mov ements of passengers and
coaches Sol.
(c) Receiving, breaking up, re-forming and By Webster’s method optimum cycle time,
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dispatching onwards – of trains 1.5 L 5
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(d) Receiving, loading, unloading and delivery C = 1 q
of goods and vehicles, and scheduling their
s
further functioning where,
L = Total lost time = 16 sec
Ans. (c)
S = Saturation flow = 1600 pcu/n.
Sol. Correct option is (c)
M
R
V gh individually true but Statement (II) is not
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
This expression is generally used in shallow
water wav es where h <<< L (generally (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
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false
h 0.05 L )
(d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is
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true
V 9.81 30 17.15 m / s
97. Statement (I) : Glass, used as sheets in
96. For proper planning of harbours oscillatory buildings, is a crystalline solid and is
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waves in the relevant off-shore region must transparent.
be taken into account. If the sea depth is 30
Statement (II) : Glass is obtained by the fusion
m and an oscillatory waves train is observed
of silicates of sodium and calcium, both of
to have wavelength of 50 m, what would be
which are crystalline in structure.
the velocity of the individual waves?
(a) 9.43 m/s (b) 9.21 m/s Ans. (d)
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(c) 9.08 m/s (d) 8.83 m/s Sol. Correct option is (d)
I– Glass is a non-crystalline amorphous solid
Ans. (d)
II– Glass is manufactured by using some of the
Sol. L = 50 m (wavelength)
cystalline solids like silicates of sodium,
S
R
Ans. (a) Statement (II) : Inadequacy of bond strength
can be compensated by providing end
Sol.
anchorage in the reinforcing bars.
TE
Rapid method of concrete mix-design takes
Ans. (b)
only 3 days for trials.
Sol. Statement I is correct as the bond stress
The procedure is based on the use of
developed is due to pure adhesion (due to
accelerated curing (using warm water).
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gum li ke propert y in the products of
100. Statement (I) : R.M.C. is preferably used in hydration), frictional resistance (due to the
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construction of large projects. surface roughness of the reinforcement and
Statement (II) : R.M.C. is adoptable to achieve the grip exerted by the concrete shrinkage)
any desired strength of concrete, with and mechanical resistance (due to the
simultaneous quality control. deformed bars).
Statement II is correct, as the inadequacy
Ans. (a)
of bond strength can be compensated by
M
Sol. Ready mix concrete (RMC) is preferably providing development length/end anchorage
used in large project as it possess the in the reinforcing bars. However, statement
following major properties: II is not the reason of statement I.
(i) Better quality concrete is produced.
103. Statement (I) : A Dummy is an activity in the
S
concrete. sources.
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prevent catastrophic engine failure.
attracted when degistor sludge is dried.
105. Statement (I) : Bernoulli's equation is appli-
108. Statement (I) : A nomogram is a ready
cable to any point in the flow field provided the
reckoner to compute any two hydraulic param-
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flow is steady and irrotational.
eters like discharge, pipe diameter, pipe slope
Statement (II) : The integration of Euler's equa- and flow velocity in the pipe if the other two
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tion of motion to derive Bernoulli's equation are known.
involves the assumptions that velocity poten-
Statement (II) : Hydraulic parameters can be
tial exists and that the flow conditions do not
determined by using Mannings or Chezy's for-
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change with time at any point.
mulae; and a Nomogram is an organized com-
Ans. (a) pilation of a number of such, varied computa-
tions.
Sol. The integration of Euler’s equation of
Ans. (a)
motion to deri v e Bernoulli’s equation
inv olves the assumptions that v elocity Sol. Nomogram is a diagram representing the
potential exists. relation between three or more variables
M
2
Statement (II) : The hydraulic jump is the best Q = C×A R S where A D
4
dissipator of energy of the flowing water.
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1
Ans. (d) Manning’s equation Q = A R2/3 S1/2
n
Sol. Sloping glacis is not preferred because
length of hydraulic jump increases and 109. Statement (I) : The field capacity of Municipal
energy loss decreases on this. solid waste is the total moisture that can be
retained in a waste sample against gravity.
Hydraulic jump is the best dissipator of
energy so statement (II) is only correct. Statement (II) : The field capacity of Municipal
solid waste is of critical importance in deter-
107. Statement (I) : Anaerobic sludge digester, by mining the volume of leachate in landfills.
itself, is considered to be the better method
than other methods of sludge treatment. Ans. (b)
Sol. Sol. G reen house ef f ect i ncrease t he
temperature of earth and due to which
I. Field capacity of municipal solid waste is
the polar ice caps will melt and it will
the moisture retained against the force of
increase the ocean level.
gravity.
Inundation of coastal land decreases
II. Field capacity (i.e., mositure retained) is
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land mass, consequently increases
of prime importance while finding out population density and creates food
volume of leachate. shortages.
TE
110. Statement (I) : Proximate analysis of MSW is 112. Statement (I) : The fundamental principle of
carried out to determine moisture content, vola- surveying is 'to work from the whole to the part'.
tile matter, and fixed carbon.
Statement (II) : Working from the whole to the
Statement (II) : Ultimate analysis of MSW is part ensures prevention of accumulation of
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carried out to determine the full range of chemi- possible errors in survey work over large ar-
cal composition and the energy value.
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eas.
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
Sol. Correct option is (b)
Sol. Fundamental principal of surveying is from
I. Proximate analysis of ‘municipal solid waste’ working from whole to part which ensures
is carried out to determine. localisation of error.
M
(i) Moisture
Whereas working from part to whole maximises
(ii) Volatile matter error.
(iii) Ash 113. Statement (I) : Compass survey is still used
(iv) Fixed carbon by Geologists to locate the magnetic ores.
S
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strength and durability in areas of heavy
rainfall. 117. Statement (I) : Aluminium alloy with less than
6% copper is used in making automobile pis-
115. Statement (I) : Bituminous roads disintegrate
TE
tons.
even with light traffic, but such failures are not
exclusively attributable to wrong surface treat- Statement (II) : Duraluminium containing 4%
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ment. copper has a high tensile strength and is well
usable wherever alkaline environment is not
Statement (II) : Improper preparation of the present.
subgrade and the foundation is often respon-
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sible for this disintegration. Ans. (b)
(4) Edge breaking plays a vital role in achieving the right mix de-
sired for a desired strength.
Improper prepartion of subgrade is not a cuase
of disintegration. Ans. (b)
Sol. Desired strength of concrete depends on
116. Statement (I) : Cermet, as a refractory mate- workability which is in-turn depended on
rial (Clay 80% + Aluminium 20%), is used in
surface area of aggregates.
the construction of rockets and jets.
119. Statement (I) : Air seasoning of structural
Statement (II) : Cermet containing metals, timber renders it more durable, tough and
which are stable at temperatures as high as elastic.
600ºC, resists sudden shocks.
Statement (II) : Air seasoning of timber is the
most economical and eco-friendly method of 200 leff 2 2 1
treatment when time is not a constraining Pcr2 = leff1 4
criterion.
Pcr2 = 800 kN
Ans. (b)
R
122. Consider the following statements in respect
Sol. Seasoning is the process of reducing the of column splicing :
m oi st ure cont ent of t i m b er whi ch
increases the durability, toughness and 1. Splices should be provided close to the
TE
elasticity of timber. point of inflection in a member
Air seasoning is very economical, but it 2. Splices should be located near to the point
requires large time for seasoning. of lateral restraint in a member
3. Machined columns for perfect bearing
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Bot h sta t em ents are cor rect but
statement (II) does not explain the would need splices to be designed for axial
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statement (I). force only
120. Statement (I) : Lining of nuclear plants with Which of the above statements are correct?
specially heavy concrete is needed f or (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
shielding and protecting against several (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
dangerous conditions.
Ans. (a)
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(II) W hen only transverse stiffeners are 1
LP = L 1
provided S.F.
TE
d 2 where, S.F. = Shape factor = Moment ratio
(i) t 345 f for c 1.5 d
w = 1.5 (given)
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Thus,
d
(ii) t 345 f for c 1.5 d
w 1
1 (0.577) L 0.58 L
AS
LP =
1.5
where,
d = depth of the web 125. A single angle of thickness 10 mm is
connected to a gusset by 6 numbers of 18
t w = thickness of the web
mm diameter bolts, with pitch of 50 mm and
with edge distance of 30 mm. The net area in
250
M
f yf = yield stress of the compression flange (a) 1810 mm2 (b) 1840 mm2
c = clean distance between transverse (c) 1920 mm2 (d) 1940 mm2
S
stiffener.
Ans. (a)
124. A simply supported steel beam of rectangular
Sol. * Assuming diameter of bolt hole = 18 mm
section and of span L is subjected to a
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of the lacing bar shall be three times the cbc for M 25 = 8.5
nominal diameter of the end bolt.
280
R
2. The thickness of the flat of a single lacing Long term modular ratio =
3 8.5
system shall be not less than one-fortieth
of its effective length. = 10.98 11
1
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3. The angle of inclination of the lacing bar 128. The ultimate load carrying capacity of a short
should be less than 40° with the axis of circular column of 300 mm diameter with 1%
the built-up column helical reinforcement of Fe 415 grade steel
and concrete of M 20 grade, is nearly
4. The lacing shall be designed f or a
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transverse shear of 2.5% of the axial load (a) 451 kN (b) 500 kN
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on the column (c) 756 kN (d) 794 kN
Which of the above statements are correct? Ans. (d)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Sol. Ultimate load carrying capacity of circular
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 column with helical reinforcement = P u-helical
Pu-helical = 1.05(0.4 f ckAc + 0.67f yAsc )
Ans. (b)
M
f ck = 20 N/mm 2
Sol. Angle of lacing with built-up column, should
be 40°< < 70°.
AC = 0.99 3002 mm2
4
127. The permissible bending compressive strength
f y = 415 N/mm 2
for M 25 grade of concrete is 8.5 N/mm 2. Its
S
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Due to lateral pressure of backfills, the wall 20 m
is designed as a cantilev er and main
reinforcement is provided on the rear side spacing = 8 m
TE
or backfill side in the vertical direction.
2.5
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130. Design strength for M25 concrete in direct tan = 10
compression, bending compression and
flexural tension are, respectively
14
(a) 10 MPa, 11.15 MPa and 3.5 MPa
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(b) 25 MPa, 11.15 MPa and 3 MPa For = 14°, (> 10°)
(c) 10 MPa, 12.5 MPa and 3.5 MPa Live load on roof tress
(d) 25 MPa, 11.15 MPa and 2.57 MPa [0.75 – (14 – 10) × 0.02] kN/m2
Ans. (a) = 0.67 kN/m2
M
= kN 53.6 kN
2
Flexure tension strength = 0.7 fck = 3.5
MPa. But since this is not given in option,
131. Double pitched roof trusses of span 20m and Let us take maximum live load = 0.75 kN/m 2
rise 2.5m are placed at 8m spacing. The
Thus,
maximum live load reaction at the supports is
nearly Maximum live load reaction at support
(a) 36 kN (b) 40 kN
0.75 20 8
(c) 46 kN (d) 60 kN = kN = 60 kN
2
132. Ground motion during earthquak e is random 134. A steel building has plan dimensions of 50m ×
in nature. For the purpose of analysis, it can 50m and it is 120 m tall. It is provided with
be conv erted into diff erent harmonic brick infill panels. The approximate fundamental
excitations through time period of the building is
(a) Fourier series (a) 1.53 sec (b) 2.72 sec
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(b) Newton’s second law (c) 3.08 sec (d) 4.15 sec
(c) Duhamel’s integral Ans. (a)
(d) Time series analysis
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Sol. The approximate fundamental natural period
Ans. (a) of building with brick in fill pannel is
133. An RCC structure with fundamental time period
0.09 h 0.09 120
of 1.2 sec vibrates at a forcing frequency of Ta = 1.53 sec
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d 50
10 rad/sec. T he maximum dynamic
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displacement is X% of static displacement. The 135. A masonry structure has a prism strength of
value of X is 10 N/mm2 with = 0.25. The modulus of
(a) 10.1 (b) 28.9 elasticity and the shear modulus of the
masonry arer respectively.
(c) 37.7 (d) 50.2
(a) 5500 MPa and 2200 MPa
Ans. (c)
(b) 2000 MPa and 200 MPa
M
Sol. T n = 1.25
(c) 5500 MPa and 1000 MPa
= 10 rad/sec
(d) 2000 MPa and 1000 MPa
Dynamic displacement u0 1
Rd Ans. (a)
Static displacement (ust )0 1 2
S
R
Size of interstices =
8 8
137. Consider the following statements regarding
Size of interstices is assumed as radius of
labour welfare:
interstices.
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1. Work prompted by mere sympathy and
2
kindness may degenerate and may injure cos D = D h w
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4
the worker’s sense of self-respect.
4 cos
2. Rapid industrialization on a large scale D w = h ( 0)
poses problems in respect of labour and
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4 4 0.075
its welfare
h = D 1 g / cc 0.003 2
3. Construction labour is still largely 8
unorganized, and hence lacks in welfare = 400 cm
measures = 4 m
M
Which of the above statements are correct? 139. A jet of water has a diameter of 0.3 cm. The
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only absolute surface tension of water is 0.072 N/
m and atmospheric pressure is 101.2 kN/m 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
The absolute pressure within the jet of water
Ans. (c) will be
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Sol. Al l stat e m ents are correct and sel f (a) 101.104 kN/m2 (b) 101.152 kN/m2
explainatory. (c) 101.248 kN/m2 (d) 101.296 kN/m2
IE
R
(a) 0.041 N/m (b) 0.043 N/m
2
(c) 0.046 N/m (d) 0.050 N/m = 0.61 4.43 2 0.253/ 2
3
Ans. (a) = 0.45 m3/s
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di=2.5 mm
Sol. Discharge through open channel = Discharge
through weir = 0.45 m3/s.
3
oil = 940 kg/m 142. A steady, two dimensional, incompressible
9mm
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flow field is represented by u = x + 3y + 3
and v = 2x - y - 8 In this flow field, the
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stagnation point is
4 (a) (3, 2) (b) (–3, 2)
(Pi –P0) =
D (c) (–3, –2) (d) (3, –2)
Now P0 = 940 × 9.81 × 9 × 10–3 = 82.99N/ Ans. (d)
m2
Sol. u = x + 3y + 3
M
4
148 – 82.99 = v = 2x – y – 8
2.5 10–3
for stagnation point, u = 0 & v = 0
65.01 2.5 10 –3
= 0.041N / m x+3y+3= 0 ... (i)
4
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x+3y+3 = 0
full width, with depth over weir crest being
0.25 m/ Cc = 0.61. Adjusting for velocity head 7x = 21
of approach, what would be the discharge x =3
through the channel? 2g = 4.43 unitss Put x = 3 in ...(i)
R
Sol. D = 20 cm Z1 0
2g
V = 25 m/s
P2
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90%
0.5 2.5 5 0
1 1
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2 2
P mv ( Q) v Pressure head = –8m
2 2
P2 = –8×10 = –80 kPa.
1 2 3
1000 0.2 25 0.9 145. The stream function of a doublet with
2 4
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horizontal axis and of strength is
= 220.89 kW
144. In a siphon, the summit is 5m above the water
level in the tank from which the flow is being (a) r (b) cos
2 2r
discharged. If the head loss from the inlet to
the summit is 2.5m and the velocityhead at sin
(c) r sin (d)
M
R
Re = 2.71 105
1.8 10 –5
di = 5 ×10–2 m
Re CD
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1.2×105 0.89
5
4.5×10 0.26
dV
Q in – Q out = Qout Cd di2 2gH
dt 4 CD for Re 2.7105 =
(V = volume of water in tank)
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0.89 – 0.26
9×10–3m 3/s – 0.89 – ×(2.71–1.2)×105
4.5 – 1.2 105
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d d2 h = 0.601
2
–2 4
5 10 2 9.81 h 0.6
4 dt 1
FD = CD AV 2
(for h to be constant) 2
dh AD = D × h (projected area)
Therefore, = 0
M
dt 1
FD = 0.6 1.22 0.2 25 202 = 733.22N.
2 2
So, 9×10–3 = 5 10 –2 2 9.81 0.6 h
4 148. A smooth flat plate with a sharp leading edge
h = 1.725 is placed along a free steam of water flowing
at 2.5 m/sec. At what distance from the leading
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structure. It is subjected to wind speed of 20 Also, what will be the boundary layer thickness
m/sec. Density of air is 1.22 kg/m3; its viscosity at that distance?
is 1.8 × 10–5 Ns/m2. Drag coefficient of a (tall) (a) 12.8 cm and 0.113 cm
circular cylinder is tabulated as
(b) 14.2 cm and 0.113 cm
Re 102 103 1.3 103 10 4 1.5 10 4 1.06 105 1.2 105 4.5 105
CD 1.6 1.05 0.95 1.0 1.08 1.0 0.89 0.26 (c) 12.8 cm and 0.125 cm
(d) 14.2 cm and 0.125 cm
What is the drag experienced?
Ans. (a)
(a) 737 N (b) 700 N
(c) 670 N (d) 63 N
0.6m
At transition 5 105
2Ri 2
h (Ri 0.15m)
R
1000 2.5 x 2g
= 5 105
10 –3 NS / m2
x = 0.2m 20cm Di=0.3 m
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5 D = 0.8 m
x Rex 2 N
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=
5 60
0.2 0.141cm 2R2 2R2i
5 105 0.6
2g 2g
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However, sometime transition occurs at
dif f erent Re bet ween 2× 10 5 – 3× 10 6 , 2 0.42 2 0.152
= 0.6
depending on the roughness of plate and 2 9.81 2 9.81
turbulence in approaching stream. = 9.253 rad/s
Taking Re = 3.2×105 2N
9.253
V0 x 60
3.2 105
M
N = 88.4
5 –3
3.2 10 10
x = 0.128m 12.8cm. 150. If 1 and 2 are the laminar boundary layer
103 2.5
thickness at a point M distant x from the
5 leading edge when the reynolds number of
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x Re x the flow are 100 and 484, respectively, then
1
5 12.8 the ratio will be
0.113cm.
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2
3.2 105
(a) 2.2 (b) 4.84
149. What is the rotational speed in rpm of a 0.8
(c) 23.43 (d) 45.45
m diameter cylindrical container, held with axis
Ans. (a)
vertical, if the fluid contained in it rises to 0.6
m height at the sides and leaves a circular 5 5x
1
Sol. = 1
space 0. 3 m diameter on the bot tom
x Re x1 so 100
uncovered?
(a) 90.2 rpm (b) 88.4 rpm 5x
Similarly 2 =
484
(c) 86.0 rpm (d) 83.7 rpm
1 484 22
2.2
Ans. (b) 2 = 100 10