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Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017)

(Syllabus of the Test : Science & Mathematics of Class IX)

Test Booklet Code : A


Time : 2 Hrs. Max.Marks : 360

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES


1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 90 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
For Example
Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is : Which one is known as ‘black gold’?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) Old gold Q.12.    
(2) Petroleum
(3) Silver
(4) Coal
Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball
point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If
more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that
Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet
are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,
he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can
leave the examination hall before half time.
Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper

SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :

1. Two objects of mass 1 kg and 2 kg are fixed at a 6. A shell explodes and its pieces fly off in opposite
directions. Which of the following quantities will be
certain distance between them. If a mass of 4 kg,
conserved?
placed between them, attains equilibrium at a
distance r from the smaller mass, then its distance (1) Kinetic energy only
from the larger mass will be (2) Momentum only
(3) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
(1) r (2) 2r
(4) Both momentum and kinetic energy
(3) 2r (4) 4r
7. Identify the mechanical wave from the following.
2. Which of the following speed-time graph is not
possible physically? (1) Sound waves (2) X-rays

v v (3) -rays (4) -rays


8. An object weights 600 N when measured on the
surface of earth. What would be its mass when
(1) (2)
measured on the surface of the moon? [g = 10 m/
t t s2]

v (1) 100 kg (2) 600 kg


v
(3) 60 kg (4) 36 kg

(3) t (4) t
9. According to Archimedes principle when a body is
immersed fully or partially in a liquid, it
experiences an upward force that is equal to
3. If ratio of relative densities of two liquids is 2 : 5, (1) Weight of the body
then the ratio of their densities would be (2) Weight of the part of body which is immersed
(1) 5 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) Weight of the liquid displaced by it
(3) 2 : 5 (4) 2 : 3 (4) Weight of the part of body not immersed
4. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth
10. If the wavelength of a sound wave is 35 cm and its
is g. What will be the acceleration due to gravity
frequency is 2 kHz, then speed of the wave is
on the surface of a planet having same mass and
diameter half as that of earth? (1) 350 m/s (2) 700 m/s

g g (3) 175 m/s (4) 7000 m/s


(1) (2)
2 4 11. For an object undergoing uniformly accelerated
motion, average velocity is given by [symbols have
(3) 4g (4) 2g their usual meaning]
5. A body of mass 15 kg moving with a velocity of
10 m/s, is brought to rest by applying brakes. v –u v u
(1) (2)
Work done by the brakes is 2 2

(1) –250 J (2) –500 J


v2  u2 v2 – u2
(3) (4)
(3) –750 J (4) –1000 J 2 2
Space For Rough Work

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017
12. The velocity time graph of a body is shown below. 18. Which of the following mixtures can be separated
The corresponding displacement time graph will be by sublimation?
V (1) NaCl and KCl (2) NH4Cl and NaCl
(3) KCl and CaCl2 (4) MgCl2 and CaCl2
19. Which of the following elements has the valency of
2?
t
S S (1) Sodium (2) Carbon
(3) Boron (4) Oxygen
(1) (2) 20. The chemical formula of ammonium phosphate is
t t (1) (NH4)2PO4 (2) NH4PO4
S S
(3) NH4(PO4)3 (4) (NH4)3PO4
21. Brass is an alloy of
(3) (4)
(1) Copper and tin (2) Copper and zinc
t t (3) Iron and copper (4) Iron and zinc
13. Sound from a source vibrating at frequency 200 Hz
22. The process ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ respectively are
travels at speed of 300 m/s in air. Wavelength of
the sound is Salt + Salt +
Sand+ Process ‘X’
(1) 15 m (2) 1.5 m Sand
Ammonium
(3) 150 m (4) 6 m chloride + Ammonium Dissolu-
14. An object is thrown up with a speed of 50 m/s. Its chloride tion in
height from the ground after 7 s is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
water

(1) 125 m (2) 20 m


Pure Process ‘Z’Salt + Process ‘Y’ Sand +
(3) 105 m (4) 100 m salt Salt +
Water
15. A net force of 20 N acts on a 5 kg mass kept at crystals + Water
rest. Distance travelled by the mass in 6 s is Sand
(1) Melting, filtration and evaporation
(1) 72 m (2) 36 m
(2) Evaporation, crystallisation and filtration
(3) 24 m (4) 12 m
(3) Sublimation, filtration and crystallisation
16. Which of the following has the maximum number
of moles? (4) Sublimation, crystallisation and evaporation
(1) 112 g of Na 23. Which of the following elements becomes liquid at
(2) 50 g of Ne a temperature slightly above room temperature?
(3) 40 g of He (1) Boron (2) Gallium
(4) 60 g of C (3) Germanium (4) Bromine
17. If 10 g of sugar is dissolved in 90 g of water, then
24. The total number of oxygen atoms present in
what will be the mass percentage (w/w) of the
1.12 g quick lime is
solution?
(1) 10% (2) 9% (1) 6.022  1022 (2) 6.022  1023
(3) 1.11% (4) 0.11% (3) 1.204  1022 (4) 1.204  1023

Space For Rough Work

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper
25. The isotope of an element ‘X’ is used as a fuel in 31. Who divided kingdom Monera into Archaebacteria
the nuclear reactor. Element ‘X’ is and Eubacteria?
(1) Carbon (2) Hydrogen (1) Robert Whittaker (2) Carolus Linnaeus
(3) Iodine (4) Uranium (3) Carl Woese (4) Aristotle
26. Read the following statements carefully 32. 'X' which causes Japanese Encephalitis is carried
(A) One water atom contains two hydrogen atoms by 'Y' and affect the organ 'Z' in humans. Identify
and one oxygen atom. 'X', 'Y' and 'Z'.
(B) Number of moles of oxygen atom present in (1) X-bacterium, Y-mosquito and Z-liver
0.22 g of carbon dioxide is 0.01. (2) X-virus, Y-air and Z-lung
(C) The charge on the particle which was (3) X-fungus, Y-water and Z-kidney
discovered by J.J. Thomson is negative.
(4) X-virus, Y-mosquito and Z-brain
The correct statements are/is
33. Statement-1: Rainfall patterns are decided by
(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) & (C)
prevailing wind patterns.
(3) Both (B) & (C) (4) All (A), (B) & (C)
Statement-2: In large parts of India, rains are
27. The electronic configuration of an element with
atomic number 20 is mostly brought by the south-west or north-west
(1) 2, 8, 10 (2) 2, 8, 8, 2 monsoons.

(3) 2, 8, 2, 8 (4) 2, 2, 8, 8 (1) Both the statements are true


28. The molecular mass of calcium carbonate is (2) Both the statements are false
(1) 50 u (2) 75 u (3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(3) 100 u (4) 120 u
(4) Statement-2 is true and statement-1 is false.
29. The composition of the nuclei of three elements are
given as 34. Which of the following cell organelles is
responsible for storage, modification and packaging
Elements A B C of products in vesicles?
Number of neutrons 6 8 7
(1) Lysosomes
Number of protons 6 6 7
(2) Mitochondria
Consider the following statements
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(i) The atomic number of element 'B' is 6 and
(4) Golgi apparatus
mass number of both 'A' and 'C' is 14
(ii) Element 'A' and 'B' are isotopes 35. Identify the connective tissue on the basis of given
information.
(iii) Element 'A' and 'C' are isobars
 It fills the space inside the organs.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
 It supports internal organs and helps in repair
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) & (ii) of tissues.
(3) Only (ii) (4) All (i), (ii) & (iii) (1) Cartilage
30. The dispersion medium in milk is (2) Ligament
(1) Liquid (2) Gas (3) Adipose tissue
(3) Solid (4) Plasma (4) Areolar connective tissue
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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017
36. Select the incorrect match. 41. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. the given
(1) Mycoplasma – Monera figure.
(2) Agaricus – Fungi
(3) Ulothrix – Protista
(4) Marchantia – Plantae
37. Statement-1: Making anti-bacterial medicines is
harder than making anti-viral medicines.
Statement-2 : Viruses have few biochemical
mechanisms of their own. (1) It controls a voluntary actions
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Its cells are spindle-shaped and uninucleate
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is (3) It is also called unstriated muscle
incorrect (4) It is found in ureters and bronchi
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is
42. Which of the following groups of diseases are
correct
caused by bacteria?
38. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the organism
given in the figure. (1) Dengue, anthrax and cholera
(2) Typhoid, cholera and tuberculosis
(3) Malaria, AIDS and elephantiasis
(4) Kala azar, influenza and typhoid
43. Statement-1: Oxygen is an abundant element on
Musca our earth.
(Housefly) Statement-2: Oxygen from atmosphere is used up
(1) It has bilateral symmetry and segmented body in processes like combustion, photosynthesis,
(2) It belongs to the largest group of animals respiration, etc.
(3) It has closed circulatory system (1) Both the statements are true
(4) It has jointed legs (2) Both the statements are false
39. How many of the following crops are grown in rainy
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
season?
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
(i) Paddy (ii) Wheat
(iii) Linseed (iv) Mustard 44. How many micronutrients given in the box are
absorbed by plants through soil?
(v) Soyabean (vi) Cotton
(1) Three (2) Two Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Sulphur, Zinc,
Iron, Magnesium
(3) Five (4) Four
40. Identify the cell organelle on the basis of the given (1) Two (2) Three
information.
(3) Four (4) Five
 These are sacs for storing solid and liquid
contents. 45. Which of the following permanent tissues becomes
modified to give buoyancy to aquatic plants and
 These are small sized in animal cells and very
helps them float?
large sized in plant cells.
(1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosomes (1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma
(3) Vacuoles (4) SER (3) Sclerenchyma (4) Xylem

Space For Rough Work

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper

MATHEMATICS
46. Which of the following is not a rational number? 51. Area of a rhombus, whose diagonals are of length
10 cm and 24 cm respectively, is
7
(1)  (2) 7.232332333..... (1) 240 sq. cm
11
(3) 0 (4) 18.25 (2) 120 sq. cm

47. Which of the following points is a solution of the (3) 60 sq. cm


linear equation 2x  3y   4? (4) 480 sq. cm

(1) (3, 2) (2) ( 2, 4) 52. Which of the following angles cannot be


constructed with the help of a compass and a
scale?
(3) ( 3,  2) (4) ( 2,  2)

48. The statements which are proved using definitions, 1


(1) 30° (2) 22 
axioms, previously proved statements and 2
deductive reasoning are called
(3) 165° (4) 87°
(1) Theorems (2) Axioms
(3) Postulates (4) Consistent axioms 53. The difference between total surface area and
curved surface area of a hemisphere of radius r is
49. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral
with its circumcircle having centre O. Side DC is (1) 2r2 (2) 3r2
extended to E. If BOD = 160°, then BCE is of
(3) r2 (4) 4r2

54. If there are 20 blue balls, 15 red balls and 10


A B green balls in a bag and a ball is drawn at random
from the bag, then the probability of the ball not to
O be green is
160°
2 4
(1) (2)
D C 9 9
E

13 7
(3) (4)
(1) 40° (2) 80° 9 9
(3) 20° (4) 160°
55. If (3, – 4) lies on the graph of the equation 4x +
50. If points C and D lie between two points A and B 3ky = 2, then the value of k is
such that AC = CD = DB, then CB is equal to
5
2 AB (1) –6 (2)
(1) AB (2) 6
3 3

1 AB 5
(3) AB (4) (3) 6 (4) 
2 4 6

Space For Rough Work

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017
56. If PQ || RS || UV and a transversal AB intersects 58. In the given ABC, if AC > AB and ADB >
PQ, RS and UV at C, D and E respectively, then ADC, then
which of the following is an incorrect conclusion? A

P C Q D B C
(1) BAD > CAD (2) BAD < CAD
D (3) BAD = CAD (4) BAD  CAD
R S 59. x3 + 3x2 – 2x – 6 can be factorised as

(1) ( x  3)( x  3)( x  2)


E
(2) (x + 2) (x – 3) (x + 1)
U V (3) (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 1)
B
(4) ( x  2)( x  2)( x  3)
(1) ACQ + VEB = 180° 56. If the ratio of curved surface area and total surface
area of a cone is 3 : 4, then the ratio of height and
(2) ACQ = UEB radius of the cone is
(3) RDE + VEB = 180° (1) 4 2 : 1 (2) 2 2 : 1
(4) ACP = DEV (3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
61. If (x – 3) and (x – 2) are factors of ax3 – 19x2 + bx
57. ABC and PBC are two isosceles triangles on
– 6, then 13a + 2b is equal to
the same base BC such that AB = AC and
PB = PC. If BAC = 30° and BPC = 40°, then (1) 200 (2) 300
ABP is (3) 100 (4) 150

A 62. A polynomial of degree 6 in y has at most____


unlike terms
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 2
63. In the given figure, PQ || SW and QT || UV. If
PQT = 70°, then the measure of VUW is
B C
P
S

P
Q R T
(1) 170° U
V
(2) 135° W

(3) 145° (1) 110° (2) 70°


(4) 180° (3) 120° (4) 20°

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper
64. In the given figure, DEAL is a rectangle. If P and 70. If p2+ 4p + q2
+ 8q + r2 + 10r = –45, then the
Q are the mid-points of AL and DL respectively, value of p + q – r is
then the length of PQ is
(1) 11 (2) –1

D 24 cm E (3) 1 (4) –11


71. In the given figure, NETA is a square. If PQ || EA
Q 18 cm and M is the mid-point of PQ, then which of the
following is true?
N E
L P A 4 8
2 6
3 1
(1) 60 cm (2) 90 cm
Q
(3) 15 cm (4) 30 cm
65. The mean of first eight composite natural numbers
is M
7
(1) 10 (2) 9.75 5
(3) 3.625 (4) 8 A P T
66. The probability of an event of a trial cannot be
1
1 2 (1) 7  8 (2) 3 = 24
(1) (2) 2
2 3
(3) 12 (4) 56
4 5
(3) (4)
3 6 y
72. On putting x = 15 in x – 10   0, we get y2 –
67. The distance of the point (–6, –2) from the x-axis 7
is 5 as
(1) 8 units (2) 6 units
(3) 2 units (4) 4 units (1) 1225 (2) 1210
68. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle. If (3) 1220 (4) 1230
OA = 10 cm, AB = 16 cm, then the distance of
AB from the centre is 73. To construct a triangle, if its base and a base
angle are given, then which of the following
conditions must also be given?
O
(1) Product of other two sides

A C B (2) Sum of other two angles

(1) 12 cm (2) 10 cm (3) Difference of other two sides


(3) 8 cm (4) 6 cm (4) Difference of other two angles
2
1 ⎛ 1⎞ 74. The capacity (in liters) of a cylindrical vessel of
69. If x  , then the value of ⎜ ⎟ is
32 2 ⎝x⎠ height 100 cm and radius 70 cm is
(1) 17  12 2 (2) 17  2 2 (1) 1540 (2) 15.4
(3) 12  17 2 (4) 12  17 2 (3) 154 (4) 1.54

Space For Rough Work

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017
75. If ax3– b3
= (3x – 2) (9x2 + 6x + 4), then the value 80. ABCD is a rhombus and OP  AD. If AOP = 20°,
2
of a – (b) is then measure of CBO is equal to
A
(1) 27 (2) 4
(3) 23 (4) 25
P
76. Three coins are tossed 570 times and the 20°
outcomes are recorded as below: D B
O
Number of tail 3 2 1 0
Frequency 255 90 125 100

Based on this information, the probability of getting


C
at most two tails is
(1) 70° (2) 90°
23 21 (3) 20° (4) 50°
(1) (2)
28 38
81. ABCD and PQCA are two parallelograms. If
ar(ABCD) = x sq. units, then ar(APQC) is equal to
3 15 P
(3) (4)
19 38
A
77. If the curved surface area of a cone is 550 cm2 and B
its radius is 7 cm, then the volume of the cone is
(1) 1323 cm3 (2) 1332 cm3 Q

(3) 1232 cm3 (4) 1233 cm3 D C


(1) 2x sq. units (2) x sq. units
78. In the given figure, AC and BD are two diameters
and O is the centre of the circle. If OP and OR are x
(3) sq. units (4) 3x sq. units
the angle bisectors of DOC and AOB 2
respectively, then BR is always equal to
82. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class
B is 12.5 and the width of the class is 7. The lower
limit and upper limit of the class are respectively
R
(1) 10, 17 (2) 9, 16
A C
O (3) 12, 19 (4) 8, 17
P 83. The volume of the largest right circular cone that
can be fitted in a cube whose edge is 4r is equal
D to
(1) DC (2) PC
(1) Volume of a hemisphere of radius r
(3) AO (4) OC
r
79. If the area of an equilateral triangle is 4 3 cm 2 , (2) Volume of a sphere of radius
then the perimeter of triangle is (in cm) 2
(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) Volume of a hemisphere of radius 2r
(3) 14 (4) 10 (4) Volume of a sphere of radius 2r

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper
84. If x3001 + 71 is divided by x + 1, then the remainder 88. In the given figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram,
is then which of the following alternatives is not true?
(1) 72 (2) 0 P Q
(3) 1 (4) 70
85. An equation of the type y = mx, where m is any O
real number, represents a line M
S R
(1) Passing through (0, 1)
(2) Passing through (10, 0)
(3) Parallel to x-axis
(4) Parallel to y-axis
N
p
86. The value of 2.9 + 2.19 in the form , where p (1) ar(POM) = ar(QOR)
q
and q are integers and q  0 is (2) ar(QRM) = ar(SMN)
21 26 (3) ar(PSM) = ar(SMN)
(1) (2)
5 5 (4) ar(PRS) = ar(PNS)
17 14
(3) (4) 89. In a parallelogram PQRS, if P = 70°, then the
5 5
measure of S is
87. Which of the following expressions is a
polynomial? (1) 120° (2) 60°

1 5 (3) 110° (4) 70°


(1)  (2) 1  3x
3 x 1 x 90. The point of the form (b, b) always lies on the line
7/2
( x  3)( x  5) 9 x  2x (1) y = 0 (2) x = 0
(3) (4)
x 5 x
(3) x – y = 0 (4) y + x = 0

  

Space For Rough Work

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Test Booklet Code: A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017)

Answers

1. (2) 19. (4) 37. (4) 55. (2) 73. (3)

2. (3) 20. (4) 38. (3) 56. (4) 74. (1)

3. (3) 21. (2) 39. (1) 57. (3) 75. (3)

4. (3) 22. (3) 40. (3) 58. (2) 76. (2)

5. (3) 23. (2) 41. (1) 59. (4) 77. (3)

6. (2) 24. (3) 42. (2) 60. (2) 78. (2)

7. (1) 25. (4) 43. (3) 61. (3) 79. (2)

8. (3) 26. (3) 44. (1) 62. (3) 80. (3)

9. (3) 27. (2) 45. (2) 63. (1) 81. (2)

10. (2) 28. (3) 46. (2) 64. (3) 82. (2)

11. (2) 29. (3) 47. (4) 65. (2) 83. (3)

12. (4) 30. (1) 48. (1) 66. (3) 84. (4)

13. (2) 31. (3) 49. (2) 67. (3) 85. (2)

14. (3) 32. (4) 50. (1) 68. (4) 86. (2)

15. (1) 33. (3) 51. (2) 69. (1) 87. (4)

16. (3) 34. (4) 52. (4) 70. (2) 88. (3)

17. (1) 35. (4) 53. (3) 71. (3) 89. (3)

18. (2) 36. (3) 54. (4) 72. (3) 90. (3)

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