Capm 1

Certified Associate in Project Management
CAPM Exam 1
Question 1 of 150 Question ID: 70360
You are the project manager on a highrise construction project. You are meeting with members of management to update
them on the status of the project. Your managers prefer to see schedules and project costs in summary form. When
asked to review the project schedule, which of the following should you use?
A Gantt chart
B Hammock activities
C Schedule model
D Milestone schedule
J Question answered incorrectly
Hint:
Which of the choices is most summarized?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A milestone or master schedule is a summarized form of the project schedule often used to generally update members of
management, the project team, or stakeholders as to the status of the project.
Details for Each Option:
A Gantt chart
Incorrect. A Gantt chart is good to use with the project team and stakeholders, to analyze opportunities to optimize the
schedule to identify potential resource constraints etc. This is not the best choice to use when meeting members of
management who prefer information summarized.
B Hammock activities
Incorrect. A hammock activity is often used between milestones or across interdependent work packages. It is often
used in Gantt charts and across bar charts to represent a collection of individual tasks. Hammock activities alone
would not be appropriate for use in a meeting with upper management to provide them an update of the schedule.
C Schedule model
Incorrect. A project schedule model is the output from performing a scheduling activity. Project schedule models can be
represented and presented in various ways such as bar charts, milestone schedules, project schedule network
diagrams, and Gantt charts. A project schedule model is the general term used for various presentations of the project
schedule. In this case, this is not the best answer because it is too general.
D Milestone schedule
Correct. A milestone schedule is a summarized form a project schedule often used to update members of management
on schedule progress as well as important project schedule dates and activities
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 546, 182183
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CAPM Exam 1
What term refers to an organization where the project manager is quite powerful in that they can apply resources,
determine priorities, and direct the project team.
A Strong Matrix Organization
B Weak Matrix Organization
C Projectized Organization
D Composite Organization
Hint:
This is opposite of a functional organization.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
An organization is projectized when it is organized by projects where the project manager has complete control of project
decisions and resources.
A Strong Matrix Organization
Incorrect. A matrix organization is one in which the project manager shares responsibility with the functional managers
for assigning priorities and for directing the work of persons assigned to the project. A strong matrix organization is
more akin to a projectized organizational structure.
B Weak Matrix Organization
Incorrect. A weak matrix organization is closer to a functional organization.
C Projectized Organization
Correct. A projectized organization is one where the project manager has strong authority over his or her team
members.
D Composite Organization
Incorrect. A composite organization is a hybrid where there are aspects which are projectized as well as structures
which are functional.
Reference:
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CAPM Exam 1
When a probable risk event does not occur, what happens to the unused contingency reserves?
A The unused contingency reserves is then used by the project.
B The unused contingency reserves are always left as additional contingency.
C The unused contingency reserves may be removed from the project budget.
D The unused contingency reserves reverts to management reserves.
Hint:
Think of the purpose of contingency reserves and management reserves.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The PMBOK Guide states that when a probable risk event does not occur, "the unused contingency reserves may be
removed from the project budget to free up resources for other projects or operations. Decisions on what should be done
to unused contingency reserves depends on the findings from a reserve analysis.
A The unused contingency reserves is then used by the project.
Incorrect. It is not always used by the project.
B The unused contingency reserves are always left as additional contingency.
Incorrect. It is not always left as additional contingency.
C The unused contingency reserves may be removed from the project budget.
Correct. If the project no longer requires these contingency reserves, other projects or operations may need these
funds.
D The unused contingency reserves reverts to management reserves.
Incorrect. Contingency reserves are distinct from management reserves. Just because contingency funds are unused
does not mean they revert to management reserves.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 225

CAPM Exam 1
Sophia runs a small project. Select the most appropriate statement on how she should manage the project.
A If Sophia wants to have a successful project, she should apply all the project management process
groups as described in the PMBOK Guide.
B Since the project is not complex, Sophia can skip many of the planning processes.
C Sophia needs to use all the tools and techniques as listed in the PMBOK Guide.
D Sophia does not need to perform any monitoring and controlling steps.
Hint:
The PMBOK Guide applies to all projects both small and large.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
All project management process groups are required for any project. They are typically performed in each project,
regardless of application areas, industry, or size. A small project needs to go through the initiating, planning, executing,
monitoring and controlling, and closing steps.
A
If Sophia wants to have a successful project, she should apply all the project management process groups as
described in the PMBOK Guide.
Correct. It is true that Sophia can opt to skip processes, but for a successful project, she should examine and go
through each process in the PMBOK Guide and understand how best to apply the small project she is managing.
B Since the project is not complex, Sophia can skip many of the planning processes.
Incorrect. Planning is also required for small projects. You may not have to plan as extensively as projects of larger
scope and complexity, but you need to examine each planning process to understand what level of planning is required.
C Sophia needs to use all the tools and techniques as listed in the PMBOK Guide.
Incorrect. The PMBOK Guide includes many tools and techniques, but not every tool is likely to be required on a
project, especially a small project.
D Sophia does not need to perform any monitoring and controlling steps.
Incorrect. Monitoring and Controlling is also required for small projects.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which process group is indicated in the figure below?
A Initiating Process Group
B Closing Process Group
C Monitoring and Controlling Process Group
D Planning Process Group
Hint:
Think about the timing of the interactions.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
With the Planning Process Group, you can see from the diagram as shown in Figure 32 from the PMBOK Guide, that
planning begins and peaks early on in the project. There is little then no planning towards the end as you close the
project.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is a key benefit of the Plan Cost Management process for projects?
A Provides guidance and direction of how costs are managed for the program.
B Determine the cost required to complete the project work.
C Determine the cost baseline.
D Provides guidance on cost structure and control of the project.
Hint:
Remember the scope of the cost management plan
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Plan Cost Management provides guidance and direction of how costs are managed for the project (not the program, as
option A states). All other choices state benefits, which are outside the scope of the Plan Cost Management process.
A Provides guidance and direction of how costs are managed for the program.
False. The scope of the Plan Cost Management process is only the project (not the program).
B Determine the cost required to complete the project work.
False. The benefit stated corresponds to Estimate Costs.
C Determine the cost baseline.
False. The benefit stated corresponds to Determine Budget.
D Provides guidance on cost structure and control of the project.
True. This is one of the benefits of Plan Cost Management.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, pages 195, 198, 200, 208

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is the key benefit of the Plan Risk Management process?
A The key benefit is it ensures that the degree, type, and visibility of risk management are commensurate
with both the risks and the importance of the project to the organization.
B The key benefit it so delineate the strategy and tactics as well as the course of action or path to
successfully complete the project or phase.
C The key benefit of allowing stakeholders to understand the current state of the project, the steps taken,
and budget, schedule, and scope forecasts.
D The key benefit is that it brings objectivity to the acceptance process and increases the chance of final
product, service, or result acceptance by validating each deliverable.
Hint:
Which of these specifically arise from defining how to conduct risk management activities for the project?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK Guide, "the key benefit of the Plan Risk Management process is it ensures that the degree,
type, and visibility of risk management are commensurate with both the risks and the importance of the project to the
organization."
A
The key benefit is it ensures that the degree, type, and visibility of risk management are commensurate with both
the risks and the importance of the project to the organization.
Correct. The benefit described corresponds to the Plan Risk Management process.
B
The key benefit it so delineate the strategy and tactics as well as the course of action or path to successfully
complete the project or phase.
Incorrect. The benefit described corresponds to the Planning Process Group.
C
The key benefit of allowing stakeholders to understand the current state of the project, the steps taken, and budget,
schedule, and scope forecasts.
Incorrect. The benefit described corresponds to the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
D
The key benefit is that it brings objectivity to the acceptance process and increases the chance of final product,
service, or result acceptance by validating each deliverable.
Incorrect. The benefit described corresponds to the Validate Scope process.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 313, 133, 55, 86
CAPM Exam 1
Which best describes the project stakeholders?
A A group who may affect or be affected by the project implementation.
B A group who will accept the project deliverables.
C A group who performs the work required to create the product.
D A group responsible for performing the project management tasks.
Hint:
Remember the definition of project stakeholders
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK Guide, "Project stakeholders are individuals, groups, or organizations who may affect, be
affected by, or perceive themselves to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project".
A A group who may affect or be affected by the project implementation.
Correct. Project stakeholders include all project team and all interested parties that may be internal or external, positive
or negative to the project.
B A group who will accept the project deliverables.
Incorrect. The team who will accept the project deliverables is known as the users or customers. They are just a
subgroup of project stakeholders. Since this description does not cover other stakeholders, it is not the best answer.
C A group who performs the work required to create the product.
Incorrect. This group is known as the project team. They are also just a part of stakeholders, and the description does
not cover other stakeholders.
D A group responsible for performing the project management tasks.
Incorrect. This description is about the project management team, which does not cover all stakeholders.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The contract compliance report is a part of which of the following?
A Work performance report
B Work performance information
C Work performance data
D Procurement documents
Hint:
Notice that the contract compliance report is a result of procurement monitoring and controlling.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
During the Control Procurement process, the work performance report and the work performance data are analyzed and
consolidated to provide the work performance information of the sellers' performance and compliance. Work performance
information helps the buyer identify problems or potential issues in order to prevent disputes or claims in the future, as
well as improve the communication and understanding between the buyer and the seller.
A Work performance report
Incorrect. The work performance report of the seller performance often includes the technical documentation and the
status of deliverables in accordance with the terms of the contract. It is used as an input to the Control Procurements
process. The contract compliance reports are part of work performance information that is the output of the Control
procurements process.
B Work performance information
Correct. The work performance information is created as a result of procurement controlling and often includes the
contract compliance report to help the procuring organization forecast and promptly resolve potential issues.
C Work performance data
Incorrect. Work performance data such as cost incurred, paid invoices, etc. is collected as a part of project execution
and is used as an input to create the contract compliance report.
D Procurement documents
Incorrect. Procurement documents are prepared during planning for procurement to solicit proposals from the sellers
and does not include the contract compliance reports.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
In which of the following processes are expert judgment and meetings often used?
A Plan Human Resource Management
B Acquire Project Team
C Manage Project Team
D Develop Project Team
Hint:
Expert judgment and meetings are often used in the planning process group.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The Project Human Resource Management Knowledge Area emphasizes on the use of communication and interpersonal
skills in acquiring, developing and managing a project team. Expert judgment and meetings are not often used in these
activities. However, these two techniques are still necessary for the Plan Human Resource Management process for
developing project structure, defining roles and responsibilities, as well as for reaching an agreement and common
understanding of the human resource management plan.
Correct. In the Plan Human Resource Management process, expert judgment is often used to define the project
organizational structures, roles, responsibilities or reporting. Meetings may be conducted to reach consensus on the
human resource management plan.
Incorrect. Acquire Project Team is about obtaining necessary resource for the project that often use techniques such as
negotiation, acquisition, virtual team, etc. Meetings and expert judgment are not usually used in this process.
C Manage Project Team
Incorrect. Manage Project Team focuses on monitoring team performance and resolving conflicts, so that it often needs
conflict management and interpersonal skills of project managers. Meetings and expert judgment are not really useful in
this process.
D Develop Project Team
Incorrect. Develop Project Team is mainly about building capability of the project team by improving competency of
team members and establishing a collaborative environment, so it does not need to use expert judgment and meetings.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, pages 263264, 257

CAPM Exam 1
Performance reporting involves all of the following except:
A Collecting project data
B Analyzing the actual data versus the baselines
C Communicating project information
D Assessing the impact of project communications
Hint:
Notice that the performance reporting is a technique of the Manage Communications process.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK Guide, "Performance reporting is the act of collecting and distributing performance information,
including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts". Performance reporting includes collecting project
information, analyzing and communicating the project performance to relevant stakeholders, which should be done in the
Manage Communications process. While assessing the impact of project communications is a part of the Control
Communications process and done by the expert judgment technique.
A Collecting project data
Incorrect. Collecting project data is the first step of performance reporting to gather necessary information for
calculating performance metrics.
B Analyzing the actual data versus the baselines
Incorrect. Analyzing the actual data versus the baselines is a part of creating the performance information.
C Communicating project information
Incorrect. Performance reporting includes creating, analyzing, and distributing project performance information, so
communicating project information is a part of performance reporting.
D Assessing the impact of project communications
Correct. Assessing the impact of project communications is a part of the Control Communications process and should
be done by the expert judgment technique.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following applies to SWOT analysis?
A It identifies any opportunities for the project that arise from organizational strengths, and any threats
arising from organizational weaknesses.
B It identifies how various elements of a system interrelate and the mechanism of causation.
C It identifies a problem, discovers the underlying causes that lead to it, and develops preventative action.
D It explores the validity of assumptions as they apply to the project.
Hint:
What does SWOT stand for?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
When reading a question, recognizing keywords related to the subject matter may be helpful in finding the right answer. In
this case, the correct answer contains all the words that make up the acronym SWOT. SWOT analysis is a tool and
technique under the Identify Risks process. Note that all choices describe tools and techniques used in the Identify Risks
process.
A
It identifies any opportunities for the project that arise from organizational strengths, and any threats arising from
organizational weaknesses.
Correct. This answer makes sense as SWOT stands for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
B It identifies how various elements of a system interrelate and the mechanism of causation.
Incorrect. This describes system or process flow charts, which is a diagramming technique that is used in the Identify
Risks process.
C It identifies a problem, discovers the underlying causes that lead to it, and develops preventative action.
Incorrect. This is root cause analysis, which is a type of information gathering technique also used in the Identify Risks
process.
D It explores the validity of assumptions as they apply to the project.
Incorrect. This is assumptions analysis, which is also used as a tool and technique for the Identify Risks process.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 326,

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following information is directly used to estimate the cost and time contingency reserves?
A Risk urgency assessment
B Probability distribution
C Probabilistic analysis of the project
D Probability and impact assessment
Hint:
Which information is quantitative and used to make project document updates?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The cost and time contingency reserves is calculated based on the quantitative risk analysis and the stakeholder risk
tolerances to bring the risk of overrunning the project objectives to the acceptable level. Probabilistic analysis of the
project is often expressed as a cumulative distribution of the estimation of project cost or schedule value with their
associated probabilities that could help to calculate the contingency reserve to increase the probability of project
success. While other information such as risk urgency assessment and probability and impact assessment only help to
prioritize and guide for risk responses.
A Risk urgency assessment
Incorrect. Risk urgency assessment is used to identify which risks require nearterm responses. It is often combined
with risk rating to give the final risk severity rating. It cannot be used directly to estimate the contingency reserves.
B Probability distribution
Incorrect. Probability distribution represents the uncertainty in values such as durations or costs and often used in
project modeling and simulation to generate the probability distribution, which could be used in estimate the contingency
reserve, so it cannot be directly used to determine the contingency reserves.
C Probabilistic analysis of the project
Correct. Probabilistic analysis of the project is a result of quantitative risk analysis that represents the cumulative
distribution of project parameters such as cost or schedule with their probabilities of occurrence. Based on that, the
project team could determine the contingency reserve for the project to achieve the project target.
D Probability and impact assessment
Incorrect. Probability and impact assessment is used to assess and rank risks based on qualitative analysis. It cannot
be directly used to calculate the contingency reserves for the project.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
All of the following activities should be implemented in the Direct and Manage Project Work process except:
A Create project deliverables to meet the planned project work
B Establish project communication channels
C Collect and document lessons learned
D Gather lesson learned and archive project information
Hint:
Lessons learned are collected throughout the project lifecycle. Archiving project information is only done at the project or
phase closure.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Direct and Manage Project Work is the process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management
plan such as creating project work products and deliverables, establishing project communication channels and collecting
lessons learned. At the end of a project or phase, these lessons learned will be gathered and all project information will be
archived as part of the Close Project or Phase process.
A Create project deliverables to meet the planned project work
Incorrect. Creating project deliverables is main part of the Direct and Manage Project Work process.
B Establish project communication channels
Incorrect. Establishing project communication channels is part of project preparing activities before performing project
work and should be done in the Direct and Manage Project Work process.
C Collect and document lessons learned
Incorrect. As the project progresses, lessons learned are collected and used in performing process improvement
activities during the Direct and Manage Project Work process.
D Gather lesson learned and archive project information
Correct. Although Direct and Manage Project Work may include collecting lessons learned, it is the Close Project or
Phase process to gather those lessons learned and archive project information for the future use and reference.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
You are the project manager responsible for overseeing the building of the school playground. You have limited resources
and the project has a greater than normal amount of uncertainty. What method should you used to develop the schedule?
A Precedence diagram method
B Critical path method
C Critical chain method
D Schedule network analysis
Hint:
What scheduling method uses reserves or buffers?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question states that you have limited resources and a high amount of uncertainty in the project. The critical chain
method is a schedule method that allows the project team to place buffers on any project schedule path to account for
limited resources and project uncertainties.
A Precedence diagram method
Incorrect. The precedence diagramming method is a general approach to building a schedule, where activities are
represented by nodes and are linked buy one or more logical relationship(s). This method is not specific to projects that
have limited resources or high uncertainty.
B Critical path method
Incorrect. The critical path method is used to determine the minimum project duration as well as scheduling flexibility by
calculating early start, early finish, late start, and late finish dates for all activities without regard to resource limitations
or uncertainty.
C Critical chain method
Correct. The critical chain method uses buffers and reserves on schedule network paths to account for limited
resources and project uncertainty.
Incorrect. The schedule network analysis technique generates the project schedule model and can use the critical path
method or the critical chain method, what if analysis, and resource optimization techniques. This is not the best answer
as it is too general.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 142, 156, 178

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following scheduling techniques will typically not affect the projects critical path?
A Resource leveling
B Fast tracking
C Crashing
D Resource smoothing
Hint:
Activities may only be delayed within their free and total float when employing this technique.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Resource smoothing as opposed to resource leveling does not change the projects critical path, since activities may only
be delayed within the free or total float calculated using the critical path method.
A Resource leveling
Incorrect. Resource leveling is a technique in which start and finish dates are adjusted based on resource constraints
with the goal a balancing resource supply and demand. Resource leveling will often cause of the original critical path to
change, usually to increase.
B Fast tracking
Incorrect. Fast tracking involves ordering or scheduling of activities in parallel rather than in sequence in order to
shorten the project's critical path.
C Crashing
Incorrect. Crashing is a technique that uses additional resources to shorten the duration of an activity on the project's
critical path, which results in an overall decrease in the critical path.
D Resource smoothing
Correct. Resource smoothing adjusts the activities of the schedule model to ensure the use of resources on the project
do not exceed predefined resource limits and as opposed to resource leveling, the project's critical path is not changed.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, pages 179181

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following work performance data should Andrea be provided in order to monitor and control the project?
A Actual costs
B Status of deliverables
C Recommended action items
D Detailed status report
Hint:
Which one the options refers to work performance data?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
It is important to understand the difference between work performance data, work performance information, and work
performance reports. The raw observations and measurements about activities performed such as actual costs is an
example of work performance data. The work performance data about how you executed the project is used for monitor
and controlling.
A Actual costs
Correct. Actual costs is an example of work performance data.
B Status of deliverables
Incorrect. The PMI considers the status of deliverables as work performance information.
C Recommended action items
Incorrect. Recommended action items are types of work performance reports that are intended to generate decisions or
raise issues or in this case action.
D Detailed status report
Incorrect. Detailed status reports are also a type of work performance reports.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project manager in charge of building a small dam to provide energy to a small town. The Energy Department
supports the construction of this dam and commissioned a leading civil engineer to design it. The project manager wants
to make sure he identifies the relevant groups that could boycott the project during the execution phase. With which of the
following groups should he spend the least amount of time in this analysis?
A Town community
B Suppliers
C Project team members
D National regulatory agencies
Hint:
Which of the options represents the group with less influence to negatively affect the project objectives?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project manager needs to perform the activities within the 'Identify Stakeholders' process in order to understand the
groups, which could create problems and obstacles to achieve the project objectives. As stated in the PMBOK Guide:
"Project stakeholders are individuals, groups, or organizations who may affect, be affected by, or perceive themselves to
be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project. They are comprised of persons and organizations such as
customers, sponsors, the performing organization, and the public who are actively involved in the project, or whose
interests may be positively or negatively affected by the execution or completion of the project". In this scenario the
'National regulatory agencies' consist of a broad and generic term that due to the local nature of the project represent the
group with low amount of power to influence the project outcome.
A Town community
Incorrect. Given the local nature of the project, this group represents a key stakeholder to identify and manage.
B Suppliers
Incorrect. Given the local nature of the project, this group represents a key stakeholder to identify and manage.
C Project team members
Incorrect. The project team members are the group who, given their direct involvement in the project activities, have a
high amount of power to affect the project outcome.
D National regulatory agencies
Correct. The dam already has government support, so it is unlikely to attract negative attention at a national level. Due
to the local nature of the project, at execution, the national regulatory agencies represent the group with low amount of
power to negatively influence it.
Reference:
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CAPM Exam 1
The financial business analyst of an IPO (Initial Public Offering) project meets with the stakeholders to agree how
business requirements will be documented. What is the expected result from this meeting?
A Updates to the requirements management plan
B Updates to the business analysis plan
C Updates to the requirements documentation
D Updates to the stakeholder register
Hint:
Think about which is the most relevant output of the 'Plan Scope Management' process with relation to the meeting's
objective.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In this context the requirements management plan is the most relevant output of this meeting, within the 'Plan Scope
Management' process. The requirements management plan describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented,
and managed.
A Updates to the requirements management plan
Correct. The project management plan describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented and managed.
B Updates to the business analysis plan
Incorrect. The business analysis plan is not a valid entity within the PMBOK Guide.
C Updates to the requirements documentation
Incorrect. Requirements documentation describes how individual requirements meet the business need for the project.
D Updates to the stakeholder register
Incorrect. The stakeholder register contains all details related to the identified stakeholders, which is not relevant to the
meeting's objective.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following tools is used to identify nonconformance issues?
A Causeandeffect diagrams
B Process analysis
C Quality audits
D Design of experiments
Hint:
Remember the purpose of each tool.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
A quality audit is a quality tool used in quality assurance to verify whether the project complies with the defined standards
and report on nonconformance issues. Although other tools may be used in the Perform Quality Assurance process, their
main purpose is not to audit a process for conformance. Causeandeffect diagrams help to identify the rootcause of a
problem while process analysis and design of experiments are often used in process improvement.
Incorrect. Causeandeffect diagram is a tool used to identify the cause of a problem, not to audit the nonconformity of
the project activities.
B Process analysis
Incorrect. The main purpose of the process analysis technique is to identify any opportunity for process improvement
by examining the process operation.
C Quality audits
Correct. A quality audit is to determine whether project activities comply with organizational standards, procedures and
processes; it helps to identify all nonconformance issues, gaps, and shortcomings.
D Design of experiments
Incorrect. Design of experiments are applied to identify which factors may influence the process operation, this
technique is often used in the Plan Quality Management process to determine the number and type of tests should be
taken in quality control.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
You are the project manager of a Telecommunications project and just obtained a change request approval from the CCB
that will impact the project total cost. What do you do next?
A Record the change request
B Update the baselines
C Update work performance reports
D Update the baselines past performance
Hint:
Think what is required after a change is formally approved.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The relevant outputs to the Perform Integrated Change Control process are: 'Approved change requests', which was just
obtained from the CCB and 'Project management plan updates'; whose elements that may be updated include, but are not
limited to: Any subsidiary plans, and baselines that are subject to the formal change control process.
A Record the change request
Incorrect. The change request should have been already recorded before presenting it to the CCB.
B Update the baselines
Correct. The elements of the project management plan that may be updated include: Any subsidiary plans and
baselines.
C Update work performance reports
Incorrect. Work performance reports are an input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process; in this case, the
change is already approved.
D Update the baselines past performance
Incorrect. Historical data of past performance should never be changed.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project manager wants to gather attribute data while performing inspections to identify defects. Which of the following
is the most appropriate tool to do it?
A Flowcharts
B Histograms
C Pareto diagrams
D Checksheets
Hint:
Which of the tools could be used as a checklist to gather attribute data?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide: "Checksheets, which are also known as tally sheets and may be used as a checklist
when gathering data. Checksheets are used to organize facts in a manner that will facilitate the effective collection of
useful data about a potential quality problem. They are especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing
inspections to identify defects. For example, data about the frequencies or consequences of defects collected in
checksheets are often displayed using Pareto diagrams."
A Flowcharts
Incorrect. Flowcharts show the activities, decision points, branching loops, parallel paths, and the overall order of
processing.
B Histograms
Incorrect. Histograms are a special form of bar chart and are used to describe the central tendency, dispersion, and
shape of a statistical distribution. Once data is gathered through the checksheets, the data can then be used to
populate a histogram.
C Pareto diagrams
Incorrect. Pareto diagrams are used to identify the vital few sources that are responsible for causing most of a
problem's effects. Once data is gathered through the checksheets, the data can then be used to populate a Pareto
diagram.
D Checksheets
Correct. A checksheet is a tally sheet that can be used as a checklist when gathering data.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
You are appointed as the project manager for a new complex international ecommerce website. The first thing you want
to do is to develop management strategies to engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle. Which of the
following processes should you perform?
A Manage Stakeholder Engagement
B Develop Project Management Plan
C Plan Stakeholder Management
D Develop Stakeholder Management Plan
Hint:
Which of the processes is focused on planning how to interact with stakeholders?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition: "Plan Stakeholder Management is the process of developing appropriate
management strategies to effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle, based on the analysis of their
needs, interests, and potential impact on project success. The key benefit of this process is that it provides a clear,
actionable plan to interact with project stakeholders to support the project's interests."
Incorrect. 'Manage Stakeholder Engagement' is the process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet
their needs/expectations, addressing issues as they occur, and fostering appropriate stakeholder engagement in project
activities throughout the project life cycle.
Incorrect. 'Develop Project Management Plan' consists in defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and
integrating them into a comprehensive project management plan.
Correct. 'Plan Stakeholder Management' is the process of developing appropriate management strategies to effectively
engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle.
D Develop Stakeholder Management Plan
Incorrect. 'Develop Stakeholder Management Plan' is not a valid concept within the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is true?
A The level of accuracy is the degree in which the activity cost estimate will be rounded up or down.
B A control account is not part of the WBS.
C The cost management plan includes rules of performance measurement.
D The cost management plan describes the process used to update the status and progress of the project
schedule.
Hint:
Read each statement carefully.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The cost management plan describes how costs are to be managed and controlled throughout the project. The different
choices are primarily false statements about elements of the cost management plan. You should know that the cost
management plan includes details such as level of accuracy and precision and explains the WBS linkage with the
estimates, budget and control of costs. The only true statement which is included as an option is that the cost
management plan should include rules of performance measurement. An example of this is how project estimate at
completion forecasts should be calculated.
A The level of accuracy is the degree in which the activity cost estimate will be rounded up or down.
False. The definition corresponds with precision.
B A control account is not part of the WBS.
False. A control account is a component of the WBS.
C The cost management plan includes rules of performance measurement.
True. The cost management plan indeed specifies the rules of performance measurement.
D The cost management plan describes the process used to update the status and progress of the project schedule.
False. The project schedule model maintenance is part of the schedule management plan (not the cost management
plan).
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, pages 198199, and 148

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following techniques may need to use duration estimates?
A Sensitivity analysis
B Modeling and simulation
C Probability and impact matrix
D SWOT analysis
Hint:
Duration estimates are often revised in quantitative risk analysis.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In modeling and simulation, the project model is iteratively computed with input values chosen randomly from cost or
schedule estimates for each iteration and the probability distribution of these variables. SWOT analysis and probability
and impact matrix are techniques used in qualitative risk analysis, so these are not used to estimate duration. Sensitivity
analysis is used to compare the relative impact of risks on project objectives and is also not needed to create duration
estimates.
A Sensitivity analysis
Incorrect. Sensitivity analysis is a technique used to analyze the impact of each uncertainty factor to the project
objectives to determine which risks have the most impact on the project. It is not necessary to use duration estimates
in conducting sensitivity analysis.
B Modeling and simulation
Correct. Modeling and simulation help to translate the uncertainties into quantitative impact on project objectives by
calculating the probability distribution with the random value chosen from the cost or schedule estimates.
C Probability and impact matrix
Incorrect. Probability and impact matrix is applied to rank project risks based on their probability of occurrence and
impacts on project objectives.
D SWOT analysis
Incorrect. SWOT analysis is a technique used to identify project risks by examining the organization and project from
the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. This technique does not need to use duration estimates.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The difference between variance analysis and technical performance measurement is:
A Variance analysis compares the actual result with the plan while technical performance measurement
identifies the deviation in terms of functionality.
B Variance analysis is used to identify new risks while technical performance measurement helps to
examine the effectiveness of risk responses.
C Variance analysis is used in Plan Risk Responses process while technical performance measurement is
used in the Control Risks process.
D Variance analysis is used in the Control Risks process while technical performance measurement is used
in the Plan Risk Responses process.
Hint:
Technical performance measurement is to monitor the completeness of product functionality while variance analysis is
often used for project time and cost.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Although both variance analysis and technical performance measurement are often used in the Control Risks process to
identify new risks when there is significant deviation between the actual performance and the project plan, these two
techniques are different in terms of measurement. While variance analysis compares the actual result with the cost and
schedule target, technical performance measurement focuses on identifying any deviations in terms of product functions
to be delivered at a milestone.
A
Variance analysis compares the actual result with the plan while technical performance measurement identifies the
deviation in terms of functionality.
Correct. Variance analysis is used to identify and analyze the variance in terms of project cost and schedule, while
technique performance measurement focuses on the completeness of product functions.
B
Variance analysis is used to identify new risks while technical performance measurement helps to examine the
effectiveness of risk responses.
Incorrect. Both variance analysis and technical performance measurement are used to identify new risks by examining
the deviation between the project performance and the baseline.
C
Variance analysis is used in Plan Risk Responses process while technical performance measurement is used in the
Control Risks process.
Incorrect. These two techniques are often used while controlling risks to identify new risks from project deviation.
D
Variance analysis is used in the Control Risks process while technical performance measurement is used in the
Plan Risk Responses process.
Incorrect. Plan Risk Responses is often conducted during project planning, while variance analysis and technical
performance measurement are techniques used in project monitoring and controlling that help define and analyze
project deviation.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
At the end of the most critical project phase, the core project team and two key stakeholders meet to discuss how project
events were addressed. What is the primary output of this meeting?
A Trend analysis
B Enterprise knowledge base
C Deviation analysis
D Lessons learned
Hint:
Think what is the primary goal for this meeting and when it is taking place.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, "Close Project or Phase is the process of finalizing all activities across all
of the Project Management Process Groups to formally complete the project or phase. The key benefit of this process is
that it provides lessons learned, the formal ending of project work, and the release of organization resources to pursue
new endeavors."
A Trend analysis
Incorrect. Trend analysis is an analytical technique used to forecast future outcomes, which is not relevant to the
stated meeting objective.
B Enterprise knowledge base
Incorrect. Enterprise knowledge base is not a valid entity within the PMBOK.
C Deviation analysis
Incorrect. Analysis about project deviations is typically performed during monitoring and controlling activities.
D Lessons learned
Correct. Lessons learned is the knowledge gained during a project which shows how project events were addressed or
should be addressed in the future with the purpose of improving future performance (PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page
544).
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 100,544

CAPM Exam 1
All of the following processes may result in a change request except?
A Plan Procurement Management
B Conduct Procurements
C Control Procurements
D Close Procurements
Hint:
The Closing Process Group does not normally create the change requests.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
It is very normal that change requests may be raised, reviewed, and resolved during the project executing, monitoring and
controlling. While change requests are seldom generated in project planning and closing, there is still an exception of the
Plan Procurement Management process in which a decision of makeorbuy may result in changes to project scope, cost,
schedule or other components of the project plan. The only process that does not create change request is the Close
Procurements process.
A Plan Procurement Management
Incorrect. The Plan Procurement Management process includes making makeorbuy decisions ,which typically requires
a change request to adjust the project plan.
B Conduct Procurements
Incorrect. In conducting procurements, the bidders are selected and agreements are established, which may result in
change requests to the project plan and its subsidiary plans.
C Control Procurements
Incorrect. The Control Procurements process involves managing the contractor relationships, monitoring their
performance as well as making changes and corrections if needed. Thus, the Control Procurement process may create
change requests.
D Close Procurements
Correct. The Close Procurements process involves administrative activities such as resolving open claims, updating
records, and archiving information. As the Close Procurements process formally completes the procurement, it does
not generate any other change request.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following could be considered as inputs of the Estimate Cost process?
A Project funding requirements
B Expert judgment
C Published commercial information
D Basis of estimates
Hint:
Which one would contain information on costs?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Published commercial information, which is an example of an enterprise environmental factor can influence the Estimate
Costs process. Commercial data on cost of human resources, materials, equipment, etc. would be relevant in estimating
costs.
A Project funding requirements
Incorrect. Project funding requirements are considered in the Control Costs process but not in the Estimate Costs
process.
B Expert judgment
Incorrect. Expert judgment is a type of tool or technique which is used to Estimate Costs but it is not an input to the
process.
C Published commercial information
Correct. Published commercial information pertaining to costs can be used as inputs to the Estimate Costs process.
D Basis of estimates
Incorrect. The basis of estimates are outputs (not inputs) to the Estimate Cost process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project manager in charge of building a new baseball stadium is busy trying to identify the user's needs by using a
voting process to map and rank the most useful ideas for further prioritization. Which of the following best describes this
approach?
A Idea/mind mapping
B Ranking map
C Brainstorming
D Nominal group technique
Hint:
Think of which technique uses voting and ranking.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project manager is using a group creativity technique to identify project and product requirements; the nominal group
technique enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for
prioritization.
A Idea/mind mapping
Incorrect. Idea/mind mapping is a technique in which ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions are
consolidated into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding, and generate new ideas.
B Ranking map
Incorrect. Ranking map is not a valid concept within the PMBOK.
C Brainstorming
Incorrect. Brainstorming is a technique used to generate and collect multiple ideas related to project and product
requirements. Although brainstorming by itself does not include voting or prioritization, it is often used with other group
creativity techniques that do.
D Nominal group technique
Correct. Nominal group technique enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for
further brainstorming or for prioritization.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following processes may require you to conduct quantitative risk analysis?
A Identify Risks
B Plan Risk Responses
C Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D Control Risks
Hint:
Which process may need to reassess project risks?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Quantitative risk analysis may be required to assess the probability of occurrence and the impact of risks after
implementing the risk response plan to evaluate risk process effectiveness as part of Control Risks. While Identify Risks
and Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis should be performed before conducting any quantitative risk analysis, Plan Risk
Responses focuses on developing options, and actions to deal with project risks, these processes do not need to perform
quantitative risk analysis.
A Identify Risks
Incorrect. In the Identify Risks process, risks are only identified with basic characteristics; no risk analysis is expected
to be performed during this process.
B Plan Risk Responses
Incorrect. Plan Risk Responses is often performed based on risk analysis results, which may include qualitative
analysis and quantitative analysis, if required. Therefore, performing quantitative risk analysis is not part of this
process.
C Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Incorrect. The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is different from the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
process in terms of the purpose, the method and the result. Thus, quantitative analysis should not be included in the
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process.
D Control Risks
Correct. During the Control Risks process, the project team needs to reassess the project risks, so quantitative
analysis may be used to evaluate the result of implementing the risk response plan.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 335, 349, 319, 328, 342

CAPM Exam 1
What is the duration of a milestone activity?
A A milestone activity has a duration equal to zero.
B The duration of the milestone activity depends on where it is located in the schedule. Milestones are
located early in the schedule have shorter durations then those that occur later in the project schedule.
C The duration of a milestone activity is equal to plus or minus one day or week added to the estimated
duration of that activity.
D Milestone activities do not have a fixed duration and can vary based on project conditions.
Hint:
Milestones always have the same duration.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Milestones are similar to regular schedule activities, with the same structure and attributes, but they have a zero duration
because milestones represent a moment in time.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
You are the project manager in charge of building the new corporate offices. The Chief Executive Officer asks you to
change the layout. You obtain approval from the CCB and perform the change request. Which of the following would you
use next as an input?
A Verified deliverables
B Inspection
C Validated changes
D Quality control measurements
Hint:
Your next step is to perform the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, "Approved changes that result from the Perform Integrated Change Control
process require validation to ensure that the change was appropriately implemented. A validated change provides the
necessary data to confirm that the change was appropriately executed."
A Verified deliverables
Incorrect. Verified deliverables are the result of performing the Control Quality process. It's not an input to the Monitor
and Control Project Work process.
B Inspection
Incorrect. An inspection is the examination of a work product to determine if it conforms to documented standards. It's
not an input to the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
C Validated changes
Correct. You need to verify the change was appropriately implemented.
Incorrect. Quality control measurements are not an input to the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is not included in the strategic plan?
A Goals and objectives
B Strategic vision
C Product strategy roadmap
D Mission statement
Hint:
Think which of the options is not explicitly defined in the PMBOK Guide.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The strategic plan documents the organization's strategic vision, goals, and objectives and may contain a highlevel
mission statement.
A Goals and objectives
Incorrect. Goals and objectives are included in the strategic plan.
B Strategic vision
Incorrect. The strategic vision is included in the strategic plan.
C Product strategy roadmap
Correct. The product strategy roadmap is not a defined item within the PMBOK
D Mission statement
Incorrect. A highlevel mission statement may be contained in the strategic plan.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Escalation process is a part of which project document below?
A Communications management plan
B Stakeholder management plan
C Scope management plan
D Project management plan
Hint:
Escalation process is a part of the project communication.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Escalation process is to identify the management chain for escalating unresolved issues at lower staff level. It should be
a part of the communication plan which describes how project communications should be planned, monitored and
controlled.
A Communications management plan
Correct. The communications management plan includes guidance on how to plan, structure, and monitor the project
communications, including how to escalate unresolved issues at a lower staff level.
B Stakeholder management plan
Incorrect. The stakeholder management plan describes the management strategies required to manage stakeholder
engagement. It does not include the escalation process.
C Scope management plan
Incorrect. The scope management plan focuses on defining the process to define, monitor, and verify the project scope.
Thus, it does not often include the escalation process.
Incorrect. Although the project management plan is an integration of all project subsidiary plans, including the
communications plan. Thus, it also includes the escalation process. However, the project management plan is too
broad to be the best answer.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
When using the starting on Day 1 approach for the critical path method, the difference between an activity's early finish
date and early start date + 1 is referred to as?
A Backward Pass
B Duration
C Free float
D Total float
Hint:
This is the time it takes from the start of an activity to its finish
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The duration is the time it takes to complete an activity from start to finish. For example if an activity begins on day 6 and
is finished on day 10 the total number of days spent on that activity or its duration is equals 5 days. Often students
simply subtract the finish date from the start date to get a difference. This only works if you are using starting date as
Day 0, which is not the case for many project management scheduling tools. Remember, you must count EACH day
worked on the activity. Day six, seven, eight, nine, ten gives a total duration of five days.
A Backward Pass
Incorrect. A backward pass is a critical path method technique for calculating the late start and late finish dates by
working backwards through schedule model from the projects and date.
B Duration
Correct. The activity duration is the time in calendar units between the start and finish have a scheduled activity. It can
be calculated by subtracting the finish date from the start date and adding one to account for each individual day spent
working on the activity.
C Free float
Incorrect. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of a successor
activity or a schedule constraint. The free float and duration of an activity may be the same but are not necessarily the
same.
D Total float
Incorrect. Total float is the amount of time that activity can be delayed without delaying the finish date or violating a
schedule constraint.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
You are in charge of a new project with a very tight budget to build a complex oil refinery in an area with strict legal
environmental requirements. What do you need to read and understand to develop the quality management plan?
A Quality metrics
B Organizational quality policies
C Cost of quality
D Nondisclosure agreements with legal advisors
Hint:
Which of the items is an input to the 'Plan Quality Management' process?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The quality management plan is an output of the 'Plan Quality Management' process, so you need to focus on the
relevant inputs to this process. The organizational quality policies are part of the organizational process assets, which is
one of the inputs to the 'Plan Quality Management' process.
A Quality metrics
Incorrect. Quality metrics are outputs of the Plan Quality Management process; not relevant to start developing the
quality management plan.
B Organizational quality policies
Correct. Organizational quality policies are part of the organizational process assets that influence the 'Plan Quality
Management' process. process
C Cost of quality
Incorrect. Cost of quality (COQ) includes all costs incurred over the life of the product by investment in preventing
nonconformance to requirements, appraising the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failing to meet
requirements. Especially in a tight budget, you should consider these costs as you develop your plan but it is also not
an input to the Plan Quality Management process. You cannot read and understand your costs of quality before you
start to develop your quality management plan.
D Nondisclosure agreements with legal advisors
Incorrect. Though there may be important legal implications for quality management, the nondisclosure agreements
with legal advisors is not a relevant input to the 'Plan Quality Management' process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Select the statement that best describes project constraints.
A Project constraints are limited to budget, schedule, and scope.
B In considering project constraints, cost should always be considered first.
C Managing a project is about balancing competing project constraints.
D Risks are not examples of a project constraint.
Hint:
Project constraints are what make managing a project such a challenge.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Project constraints are what make managing a project such a challenge as the project manager has to use their
knowledge, skills, and experience in order to balance these competing project constraints while fulfilling on the success
criteria for the project.
A Project constraints are limited to budget, schedule, and scope.
False. This is what was previously known as the triple constraints, but a project is not limited to just to cost, scope and
time constraints.
B In considering project constraints, cost should always be considered first.
False. How different constraints are considered is dependent on the project, its purpose, stakeholders, requirements
and particular circumstances and characteristics of the project itself.
C Managing a project is about balancing competing project constraints.
True. What is often times challenging about project management is balancing competing project constraints.
D Risks are not examples of a project constraint.
False. Risk IS an example of a project constraint.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project team is performing activities necessary to transfer the project's products, services, or results to the next
phase. Which process they are currently executing?
A Perform Integrated Change Control
B Control Scope
C Close Project or Phase
D Integrated Project Transition
Hint:
Think what is the process whose output is a result transition.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth. Edition: "The Close Project or Phase process also establishes the procedures to
investigate and document the reasons for actions taken if a project is terminated before completion. In order to
successfully achieve this, the project manager needs to engage all the proper stakeholders in the process. This includes
all planned activities necessary for administrative closure of the project or phase, including step bystep methodologies
that address: Actions and activities necessary to satisfy completion or exit criteria for the phase or project; actions and
activities necessary to transfer the project's products, services, or results to the next phase or to production and/or
operations; and activities needed to collect project or phase records, audit project success or failure, gather lessons
learned and archive project information for future use by the organization."
Incorrect. Perform Integrated Change Control consist in reviewing all change requests; approving changes and
managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management
plan; and communicating their disposition.
B Control Scope
Incorrect. Control Scope is the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing
changes to the scope baseline.
C Close Project or Phase
Correct. The 'Close Project or Phase' is the process of finalizing all activities across all of the project management
process groups to formally complete the project or phase.
D Integrated Project Transition
Incorrect. Integrated project transition is not a valid process within the PMBOK.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which document specifies how to create the WBS from the detailed project scope statement and how the WBS will be
maintained and approved?
A Requirements documentation
B WBS dictionary
C Scope baseline
D Scope management plan
Hint:
Think of the knowledge area and process group for Create WBS process as keywords in the answer.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The scope management plan specifies how to create the WBS from the detailed project scope statement. It also
describes how the WBS will be maintained and approved.
Incorrect. While the requirements documentation is an input to the Create WBS process, it does not specify how to
create the WBS.
B WBS dictionary
Incorrect. The WBS dictionary is an output of the Create WBS process.
C Scope baseline
Incorrect. The scope baseline is an output of the Create WBS process. It contains the Project scope statement, WBS,
and WBS dictionary.
Correct. The scope management plan specifies how to create the WBS from the detailed project scope statement.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is not part of Project Human Resource Management?
A Ensuring that team members follow professional and ethical behavior
B Influencing the project team in order to manage and lead them
C Conducting team building activities
D Scheduling team member's time off
Hint:
Consider which one belongs under another knowledge area.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Scheduling team member's time off and coordinating this with project activities falls under Project Time Management.
Ensuring that team members have adequate recognition and rewards and that you comply with the organizations policies
and procedures around leave and time off does fall under Project Human Resource Management. All other choices are all
part of Project Human Resource Management.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
When you perform project work, you record observations and measurements in order to do which of the following
processes except?
B Control Communications
C Validate Scope
D Control Quality
Hint:
What do you call observations and measurements taken when you perform project work?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Work performance data is created during the Direct and Manage Project Work process and it is then used for Validate
Scope, and many Monitoring and Controlling process (for communications, quality, cost, risks, procurement, stakeholder
engagement, etc.). However, Perform Integrated Change Control provides input for Direct and Manage Project work rather
than the other way around.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Information management systems may be used in which of the following processes?
A Manage Communications and Manage Stakeholder Engagement
B Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Control Stakeholder Engagement
C Manage Communications and Control Communications
D Control Communications and Plan Communications Management
Hint:
Which processes may need to collect, store and distribute information?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
An information management system is a tool for capturing, storing, and distributing information, which is often used during
the Manage Communications, Control Stakeholder Engagement and Control Communications processes. The Plan
Communications Management process is about planning on communications management, therefore, does not
necessarily use the information management system while the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process often requires
the communication and interpersonal skills of project managers to communicate with stakeholders.
A Manage Communications and Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Incorrect. Although the Manage Communications process may need to use the information management system to
create and distribute project information, the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process which is mainly of
communicating with stakeholders, so it does not need to use the information management system.
B Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Control Stakeholder Engagement
Incorrect. Although the Control Stakeholder Engagement process often uses the information management system to
collect and consolidate project data to create work performance information, the Manage Stakeholder Engagement
process does not necessarily use this system as this process is mainly about communicating with stakeholders.
C Manage Communications and Control Communications
Correct. Both the Manage Communications and Control Communications process may need to use the information
management system to collect, store, and distribute the project information and reports to stakeholders.
D Control Communications and Plan Communications Management
Incorrect. The Plan Communications Management process is about developing an approach for managing
communications, therefore, it is not necessary to use the information management system. While the Control
Communications process may use the information management system to consolidate and distribute project reports to
stakeholders.
Reference:
CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is not an input to the Sequence Activities process?
A Activity attributes
B Risk register
C Milestone list
D Schedule management plan
Hint:
Sequence of activities defines a logical sequence of work to obtain the greatest efficiency given all the project
constraints.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Sequence Activities process accepts the following inputs: activity list, milestone list, activity attributes, project
scope statement, organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and schedule management plan.
A Activity attributes
Incorrect. Activity attributes may describe a necessary sequence of events or defined predecessor or successor
relationships.
B Risk register
Correct. The risk register does not play a part and is not used in sequencing activities.
C Milestone list
Incorrect. The milestone list may have specific dates for specific milestones which may influence the way activities are
sequenced.
D Schedule management plan
Incorrect. The schedule management plan identifies the scheduling method to be used which will guide how activities
maybe sequenced
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The production line was stopped due to serious quality issues detected in the product quality control process. The project
manager quickly assembled the team in the factory floor and started to repeatedly ask them the question 'why' while
sketching some drawings in his notebook. He explained that he learned this technique from the PMBOK Guide. What is
he most likely drawing?
A Causeandeffect diagram
B Flowchart
C 5 Whys diagram
D Control chart
Hint:
Which technique uses the question 'why' to trace the problem's source back to its actionable root cause?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide: "Causeandeffect diagrams, which are also known as fishbone diagrams or as Ishikawa
diagrams. The problem statement placed at the head of the fishbone is used as a starting point to trace the problem's
source back to its actionable root cause. The problem statement typically describes the problem as a gap to be closed or
as an objective to be achieved. The causes are found by looking at the problem statement and asking 'why' until the
actionable root cause has been identified or until the reasonable possibilities on each fishbone have been exhausted."
A Causeandeffect diagram
Correct. The causeandeffect diagram traces the problem's source back to its root cause by repeatedly asking the
question 'why'.
B Flowchart
Incorrect. Flowcharts display the sequence of steps and the branching possibilities that exist for a process that
transforms one or more inputs into one or more outputs. It shows a sequence but does not show the cause and effect
relationships.
C 5 Whys diagram
Incorrect. The '5 Whys' is a technique used in the analyze phase of the Six Sigma DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze,
Improve, Control) methodology; but it's not a valid entity within the PMBOK.
D Control chart
Incorrect. Control charts are used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance. Upper and
lower specification limits are based on requirements of the agreement. They reflect the maximum and minimum values
allowed but not the cause and effect relationships.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 236 238

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is not considered a procurement document?
A Request for information
B Project scope statement
C Invitation for bid
D Request for proposal
Hint:
Which document is not created in the Plan Procurement Management process?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers. The request for Information(RFI), request
for proposal (RFP), and the invitation for bid (IFB) are all procurement documents. The project scope statement, although
used as an important input to the Plan Procurement Management process, is not a procurement document.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What is the correct formula for calculating schedule variance?
A SV = EV / PV
B SV = EV PV
C SV = EV AC
D SV = PV/ EV
Hint:
Indexes are derived using division and earned value management terms while variances are obtained as the difference
between earned value management terms.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Given that earned value management indexes are derived using division and earned value management terms, two
choices can be a eliminated from consideration. Similarly, variances are calculated by subtracting one earned value
management term from another. Subtracting actual cost (AC) from earned value (EV) yields the cost variance (CV) thus
SV = EV AC is incorrect. Eliminating the three other options leaves us with SV = EV PV which is the correct formula
to calculate the schedule variance.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, pages, 218, 561

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is a quantitative risk analysis technique that calculates the probability of achieving a specific cost
target?
A Tornado diagram
B Probability and impact matrix
C Variance and trend analysis
D Monte Carlo
Hint:
Which techniques are used in quantitative risk analysis? You also need to understand the difference between Tornado
diagram and Monte Carlo technique.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Of these techniques, only Monte Carlo and Tornado diagram are applied in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
process. While Tornado diagram is used to determine which risks have the most impact on the project, Monte Carlo
technique helps to compute the probability corresponding with specific input values such as cost estimates or activity
durations. For example, Monte Carlo can be used to analyze a cost risk by conducting a simulation with cost estimates to
calculate the probability of achieving a specific cost target.
A Tornado diagram
Incorrect. The tornado diagram is a common bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative impact of
the variables on the project. It does not result in the probability of achieving a cost target.
B Probability and impact matrix
Incorrect. The probability and impact matrix is used in Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis to conduct risk rating based
on their probability of occurrence and impacts. It only results in a classification of high risk, moderate risk and low risk;
and does not support to calculation of the probability of achieving the project target.
C Variance and trend analysis
Incorrect. Variance and trend analysis is a technique often applied in the Control Risks process to identify potential
threats or assess the effectiveness of risk response plan.
D Monte Carlo
Correct. Monte Carlo is a technique used in project simulation that helps to translate the uncertainties of the project into
the impact on project objectives. For example, it may calculate the probability of meeting the specific cost or schedule
target.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Moving people to different tasks or conducting cross training to reduce problems during the team member absence is
initiated within which process?
C Develop Project Team
D Manage Project Team
Hint:
Which process could result in corrective and preventive actions?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Moving people to different tasks or conducting cross training is considered staffing changes that may arise as a result of
the Manage Project Team process. During managing project team, a project manager may realize that some team
members are not qualified for their assigned tasks, so it is necessary to move them to other assignments. Alternatively,
when the project manager find that some members are key resource of the project and their absence will cause problems,
so that a cross training should be conducted to mitigate that threat to the project. Other processes of the Project Human
Resource Management Knowledge Area such as Plan Human Resource Management, Acquire Project Team, or Develop
Project Team are not expected to result in such change requests.
Incorrect. Plan Human Resource Management is a process of develop project human resource management plan and it
does not result in any changes in the staffing plan.
Incorrect. Acquire Project Team is a process of obtaining necessary human resource for the project, it does not result in
staffing changes such as moving people to other tasks and does not involve training, which falls under the Develop
Project Team process.
C Develop Project Team
Incorrect. Develop Project Team focuses on improving competencies and the team interaction to enhance the overall
project performance. It does not often generate any change request in the staffing plan.
D Manage Project Team
Correct. Manage Project Team is a process of tracking team member performance, resolving issues, or managing team
changes. As a result, change requests of the staffing plan such as moving a team member to other assignments or
conducting cross training may arise from this process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which technique allows the customer to experiment with a model of the final product?
A Context diagrams
B Observations
C Prototypes
D Facilitated workshop
Hint:
Think of the purpose of each technique.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Many techniques may be used to collect the requirements, and to ensure the defined requirements are exactly what the
customer needs. One of the most popular techniques is prototyping. It provides the good way to get a common
understanding of the requirements between the project team and the customer by building a model of the expected
product before actually developing it. Although other techniques also help to collect requirements, they do not allow the
customer to experiment with a product model.
A Context diagrams
Incorrect. The context diagram is a technique used to describe the product scope by showing a business system with
its input, output, and the interaction with other systems. It does not help the user to experience the product.
B Observations
Incorrect. Observation is a technique of viewing the working environment and the working process to identify
requirements for the project. It does not allow the customer to experiment with the product.
C Prototypes
Correct. Prototype is a technique of building a working model of the product before starting to actually build it. This
technique helps the customer to experiment with the tangible product rather than a representation of the requirements.
D Facilitated workshop
Incorrect. Facilitated workshop is a technique used to collect requirements by bringing key stakeholders to a focused
session, so this technique does not help the customer to experiment with the product.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following processes helps to collect and communicate work performance data?
A Direct and Manage Project Work
B Monitor and Control Project Work
C Perform Integrated Change Control
D Develop Project Management Plan
Hint:
Work performance data is collected during project execution.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Work performance data is the raw data collected during project activities being performed. Data is gathered through the
Direct and Manage Project Work process and analyzed in each process area to provide work performance information for
making reports in the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
A Direct and Manage Project Work
Correct. Direct and Manage Project Work is a process of leading and performing the necessary work to complete the
work. In this process, raw data of project performance is also collected such as cost, schedule, quality, etc.
B Monitor and Control Project Work
Incorrect. Monitor and Control Project Work is a process of reviewing and reporting the progress by analyzing work
performance information to generate work performance reports.
C Perform Integrated Change Control
Incorrect. Perform Integrated Change Control focuses on making decision on change requests. This process does not
collect and communicate work performance data.
Incorrect. Develop Project Management Plan is a planning process, which is performed before the project execution, so
work performance data is not expected to be collected in this process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which contract type is most often subject to organizational limits or nottoexceed values in order to prevent unlimited
growth?
A Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF) contracts
B Time and materials (T and M) contracts
C Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contracts
D Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF) contracts
Hint:
This contract type is often used when a precise statement of work cannot be quickly prescribed.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The value of time and materials contracts may not be welldefined at the time of the contract award and as a result costs
can grow without bound unless clauses or language that prevent unlimited growth. Many organizations require such notto
exceed values and time limits when time and materials contracts are used in procurement. Fixed price incentive contracts
operate with a price ceiling set at the time of award and all costs above that ceiling are borne by the seller. This
eliminates the need for organizational limits on time or costs to prevent unlimited growth. Costreimbursable contracts
such as CPFF and CPIF limit unchecked growth of costs by establishing that the contract value to be set by legitimate
costs incurred and well defined fees that provide for seller profit.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is part of the stakeholder management plan?
A Stakeholders assets
B Project management plan
C Stakeholder communication requirements
D Requirements scope
Hint:
Which of the items is directly related with stakeholders?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition: "The stakeholder management plan is a component of the project
management plan (Section 4.2.3.1) and identifies the management strategies required to effectively engage stakeholders.
The stakeholder management plan can be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed, based on the needs of the
project. In addition to the data gathered in the stakeholder register, the stakeholder management plan often provides:
Desired and current engagement levels of key stakeholders; Scope and impact of change to stakeholders; Identified
interrelationships and potential overlap between stakeholders; Stakeholder communication requirements for the current
project phase; Information to be distributed to stakeholders, including language, format, content, and level of detail;
Reason for the distribution of that information and the expected impact to stakeholder engagement; Time frame and
frequency for the distribution of required information to stakeholders; and method for updating and refining the stakeholder
management plan as the project progresses and develops".
A Stakeholders assets
Incorrect. 'Stakeholder assets' is not a term described in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition.
Incorrect. The project management plan is not contained within the stakeholder management plan.
C Stakeholder communication requirements
Correct. Stakeholder communication requirements are part of the stakeholder management plan.
D Requirements scope
Incorrect. Requirements scope is not a valid concept within the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project manager needs to plan how to monitor and control the project activities so they won't exceed budgeted cost.
Which of the following should the project manager use to see what work is scheduled and estimated?
A Work packages
B Timesheets
C Work performance reports
Hint:
Cost and duration estimates can be provided based on them.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The project manager is performing activities in the 'Create WBS' process, within the 'Planning' process group. The work
package is the work defined at the lowest level of the WBS, used to group the activities where work is scheduled and
estimated, monitored, and controlled.
A Work packages
Correct. Work packages contain the work defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure for which cost and
duration can be estimated and managed.
B Timesheets
Incorrect. Timesheets are typically used within the 'Monitoring and Controlling' process group to report actuals.
Timesheets would not show what work is scheduled and estimated.
C Work performance reports
Incorrect. Work performance reports contain the physical or electronic representation of work performance information
compiled in project documents, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness. Work performance reports
typically are used to affect the project management plan or project communications.
Incorrect. Schedule network analysis is the technique of identifying early and late start dates, as well as early and late
finish dates, for the uncompleted portions of project schedule activities. This analysis is a method and it is not where a
project manager can look up what work is scheduled and estimated.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
As part of the continuous improvement quality philosophy that's prevalent within your company, it's mandatory to conduct
structured, independent processes at the end of every project phase to determine if project activities comply with
organizational and project policies. Conducting this set of structured, independent processes to check compliance is part
of:
A Quality control processes
B PDCA cycle
C Quality assurance processes
D ISO 9000 standard
Hint:
What tool conducts structured independent processes to facilitate the improvement of quality activities?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As per the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition: "Perform Quality Assurance is the process of auditing the quality requirements
and the results from quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions
are used. The key benefit of this process is that it facilitates the improvement of quality processes". Quality audits fall
under a type of the tools and techniques used within this process and consist of structured, independent processes to
determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.
A Quality control processes
Incorrect. The independent processes to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies
are quality audits, which are not part of any activity within the Control Quality process.
B PDCA cycle
Incorrect. The PDCA (plandocheckact) cycle is the basis for quality improvement as defined by Shewhart and
modified by Deming. It does not mention quality audits as part of this cycle.
C Quality assurance processes
Correct. A quality audit is a structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational
and project policies, processes, and procedures. Quality audits are a tool and technique within the 'Perform Quality
Assurance' process.
D ISO 9000 standard
Incorrect. Within the PMBOK Guide, the ISO 9000 family of quality systems is only mentioned in distinguishing
between the 'quality' and 'grade' concepts.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 242, 243, 248, 249, 228, 229, 521

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following statements is true about process tailoring?
A Process tailoring should be done before developing the project management plan.
B Process tailoring for a project should be carefully considered as it has negative impacts at the
organization level.
C Process tailoring includes deciding on which processes should be implemented in the project and the
level of implementation for each selected process.
D Tailoring should be done by the project sponsor.
Hint:
Remember the concept of process tailoring.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Tailoring is part of developing the project management plan in which project team define processes for the project based
on guidelines for tailoring the organization's set of standard processes and procedures to satisfy the specific needs of the
project. Tailoring allows process optimization and supports for the continuous improvement at the organizational level.
A Process tailoring should be done before developing the project management plan.
False. Process tailoring is a part of developing the project management plan in which the project team and relevant
stakeholders define processes from the organizational standards to fit the specific needs of the project.
B Process tailoring for a project should be carefully considered as it has negative impacts at the organization level.
False. Process tailoring allows the project to customize processes from the organization standards; it supports the
process improvement at the organizational level and contributes to the organizational process assets.
C
Process tailoring includes deciding on which processes should be implemented in the project and the level of
implementation for each selected process.
True. Process tailoring is a necessary planning activity in which the project team chooses and defines the project's
processes from the organization's processes to fit the specific needs of the project.
D Tailoring should be done by the project sponsor.
False. It is the project team who directly implements processes and work to complete the project, not the project
sponsor, should do process tailoring.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What is true about lessons learned?
A Lessons learned are documents, which are created as part of the Executing, Monitoring and Controlling
process group.
B Lessons learned are enterprise environmental factors in your corporate knowledge base, which are
created as part of the Closing process group.
C Lessons learned are enterprise environmental factors, which serve as input to an Executing process
group.
D Lessons learned are examples of organizational process assets that are created as part of the Closing
process group.
Hint:
Think about when you generate lessons learned and what type of document it is.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
First it is important to know that lessons learned is an example of organizational process assets, in particular this lessons
learned will be included as part of the corporate knowledge base. Lessons learned are not an examples of enterprise
environmental factors. Lessons learned are created as part of the Close Project or Phase or Close Procurements
process, which belong to the Closing process group.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What is EV/AC?
A CPI
B EAC
C CV
D TCPI
Hint:
It is a measure of cost efficiency of budgeted resources?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Cost performance index or CPI = EV/AC or in other words it is the ratio of earned value over actual cost.
A CPI
Correct. CPI = EV/AC.
B EAC
Incorrect. EAC is the estimate at completion. There are various ways you can calculate EAC, but the formula presented
is not one of them.
C CV
Incorrect. Variance formula is usually a difference between two values.
D TCPI
Incorrect. The TCPI formula relates to cost performance with the remaining resources in order to achieve a specific
goal, this formula would require a more complex ratio than what is presented in the question.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project team meets to subdivide project work into smaller components. What is the primary output of this meeting?
A WBS
B Project Scope
C Project Scope Statement
D Project Tasks
Hint:
Think which of the items best represents the subdivision of the project work.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The team is executing the 'Create WBS' process, which consists in subdividing project deliverables and project work into
smaller, more manageable components.
A WBS
Correct. The WBS (Work Breakdown Structure) is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried
out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
B Project Scope
Incorrect. The Project Scope is the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features
and functions.
C Project Scope Statement
Incorrect. The Project Scope Statement is a description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and
constraints.
D Project Tasks
Incorrect. 'Project tasks' is a very generic term that does not clearly address the specific output of this activity.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following tools or techniques is used by buyers to verify the compliance of sellers in executing the contract
provisions?
A Make or buy decisions
B Inspections and audits
C Checklist analysis
D Bidder conferences
Hint:
Compliance is often measured using these.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Inspections and audits required by the buyer and documented in the agreement provide the buyer a means to monitor and
control the performance of the seller in a procurement situation.
A Make or buy decisions
False. Make or buy decisions is a tool/technique used during the Plan Procurement Management process to determine
whether particular work can be best accomplished by the project team or needs to be contracted out to a third party. It
is not used to monitor the performance of a seller.
B Inspections and audits
True. Inspections and audits are one of the tools that a project team can use to ensure the seller is performing as per
the agreement.
C Checklist analysis
False. Checklist analysis is a tool/technique used during the Identify Risk process and not in procurement.
D Bidder conferences
False. Bidder conferences are used during the Plan Procurement process well prior to the Control Procurement process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project manager wants to analyze quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be
taken into account throughout the project. Which of the following tools or techniques she should use?
A Stakeholder Analysis
B Meetings
C Expert Judgment
D Analytical techniques
Hint:
Which is the most relevant tool/technique from the 'Identify Stakeholders' process?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition: "Stakeholder analysis is a technique of systematically gathering and
analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout
the project. It identifies the interests, expectations, and influence of the stakeholders and relates them to the purpose of
the project. It also helps to identify stakeholder relationships (with the project and with other stakeholders) that can be
leveraged to build coalitions and potential partnerships to enhance the project’s chance of success, along with
stakeholder relationships that need to be influenced differently at different stages of the project or phase".
A Stakeholder Analysis
Correct. Stakeholder analysis is a technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative
information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project.
B Meetings
Incorrect. 'Meetings' is not the best answer, but meetings may be used to identify stakeholders. Meetings are held with
experts and the project team to define the required engagement levels of all stakeholders. This information can be used
to prepare the stakeholder management plan.
C Expert Judgment
Incorrect. Expert judgment is not the best answer, but expert judgment may also be used to identify stakeholders.
Expert judgment is used to decide upon the level of engagement required at each stage of the project from each
stakeholder. For example, at the beginning of a project, it may be necessary for senior stakeholders to be highly
engaged in order to clear away any obstacles to success. Once these have been successfully removed, it may be
sufficient for senior stakeholders to change their level of engagement from leading to supportive, and other
stakeholders, such as end users, may become more important.
D Analytical techniques
Incorrect. Analytical techniques are used to compare the engagement level of all stakeholders to the planned
engagement levels required for successful project completion.
Reference:
CAPM Exam 1
One of the team members in charge of the communications needs to select the sources of information in order to identify
and define project communication requirements. Which of the following is not a valid source?
A Internal and external information needs
B Departments and specialties involved in the project
C Organizational charts
D Communication models
Hint:
Which of the options is not part of the 'Communication requirement analysis' tool and technique?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Within the 'Communication requirements analysis' tool and technique the sources of information typically used to identify
and define project communication requirements include, but are not limited to: Organizational charts; Project organization
and stakeholder responsibility relationships; Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project; Logistics of
how many persons will be involved with the project and at which locations; Internal information needs; External
information needs; and stakeholder information and communication requirements from within the stakeholder register.
A Internal and external information needs
Incorrect. Internal and external information needs are typically used sources of information.
B Departments and specialties involved in the project
Incorrect. The departments and specialties involved in the project are typically used sources of information.
C Organizational charts
Incorrect. Organizational charts are typically used sources of information.
D Communication models
Correct. The communication models are used to facilitate communications and the exchange of information. They won't
help identify the project communication requirements.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is not true about interpersonal skills that a project manager often uses?
A An example of effective decisionmaking requires the project manager to consider ways to stimulate team
creativity.
B Influencing may involve researching and gathering critical information about important issues.
C A project manager should learn how to be a passive listener in different conversations with stakeholders.
D Leadership is required in all phases of the project life cycle.
Hint:
Read each statement carefully.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
A project manager should learn to be an active and effective listener and should not be passive. All other statements are
true about the interpersonal skills of a project manager.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What is a project boundary?
A A project boundary is the perimeter of the facilities where the project is conducted.
B A project boundary is the point in time in which the start or completion of the project/phase is authorized.
C A project boundary includes steps in order for the business case and the project charter to be approved.
D A project boundary is where you separate the executing of the project from the monitoring and controlling
the project.
Hint:
A project is a temporary endeavor.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A project is initiated and is closed at points in time called project boundaries. Before the project starts, the project
sponsor or initiator is involved in providing a business case, funding approval, perhaps lining up agreements in order for
the project to officially begin. At the end of the project, project deliverables are transferred over to operations or end users
and project records become part of the organizational process assets.
A A project boundary is the perimeter of the facilities where the project is conducted.
Incorrect. The project boundary is not a physical location.
B A project boundary is the point in time in which the start or completion of the project/phase is authorized.
Correct. Since a project is a temporary endeavor, there is a point of time when it starts and ends.
C A project boundary includes steps in order for the business case and the project charter to be approved.
Incorrect. These are steps which are outside the project boundary, in particular prior to project initiation.
D
A project boundary is where you separate the executing of the project from the monitoring and controlling the project.
Incorrect. This is a made up definition. There is no such concept described in the PMBOK Guide.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which process aims to ensure the information needs of the project stakeholders are met?
B Manage Communications
C Control Communications
D Control Stakeholder Engagement
Hint:
Notice that the process of checking to ensure the information needs of stakeholders are met should belong to the
Monitoring and Controlling process group.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Control Communications process is the process of checking the result of managing communications to ensure
information is provided as the needs of stakeholders. Processes of managing and controlling stakeholder engagement
focus on communicating with stakeholders and monitoring their relationships, so they do not help to ensure the
information needs of stakeholders are met.
Incorrect. The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process focuses on communicating with stakeholders to identify and
resolve any issue as soon as possible, it does not help to ensure the information needs of stakeholders are met.
B Manage Communications
Incorrect. The Manage Communications process is about creating and distributing information to stakeholders. It is not
the process of checking to ensure distributed information meets the information needs of stakeholders.
C Control Communications
Correct. The Control Communications process helps to ensure the information needs of the stakeholders are met by
monitoring and controlling communications throughout the project life cycle.
D Control Stakeholder Engagement
Incorrect. The Control Stakeholder Engagement process is the process of monitoring the overall stakeholder
relationship to increase the efficiency of stakeholder engagements. This process is not to check the information needs.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The Manage Communications process may require updates to all of the following components of the project management
plan except:
A Project schedule
B Communications management plan
C Stakeholder management plan
D Project baselines
Hint:
Notice that project schedule is not a component of the project management plan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The Manage Communications process, which is about creating, storing, and distributing information to relevant
stakeholders, may result in updates to project schedule, project baselines, communications management plan, and
stakeholder management plan. However, project schedule is not included in the project management plan. A change to
project schedule is listed as a project document update and not a project management plan update.
A Project schedule
Correct. Although the project schedule may be updated as the result of the Manage Communications process, it is not
a component of the project management plan.
B Communications management plan
Incorrect. Communications management plan which is a subsidiary plan of the project management plan may be
updated as the result of managing communication.
C Stakeholder management plan
Incorrect. The Manage Communications process may result in adjustment in the stakeholder management plan which is
a part of the project management plan.
D Project baselines
Incorrect. The Manage Communications process which is about collecting, creating and distributing project information
to stakeholders may lead to updates in project baselines
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 302,78

CAPM Exam 1
You are managing a project to build the biggest dam in Asia. The project sponsor is the Company's CFO (Chief Financial
Officer) and is based in China. You need to provide her with succinct weekly written reports about the project status.
Which of the following should you use to communicate project status?
A Weekly status report
B EVM
C TCPI
D Variance analysis
Hint:
Think what is the most succinct way to report all the project's key performance indicators for the project sponsor.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide, "Earned value management (EVM) is a methodology that combines scope, schedule,
and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress. It is a commonly used method of performance
measurement for projects. It integrates the scope baseline with the cost baseline, along with the schedule baseline, to
form the performance baseline, which helps the project management team assess and measure project performance and
progress."
A Weekly status report
Incorrect. A weekly status report is a generic document and does not efficiently address the need as specified in the
question.
B EVM
Correct. EVM is a compact and concise way to convey accurate financial, scope, and schedule related performance
indicators.
C TCPI
Incorrect. 'To Complete Performance Index' (TCPI) provides only a Cost perspective, which is not enough to convey the
schedule and scope performance indicators required for a big, complex project.
D Variance analysis
Incorrect. Variance Analysis is the explanation (cause, impact and corrective action) for cost, schedule, and variance at
completion. It's a byproduct of the EVM methodology and does not convey the project status information.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following quality tools is most useful for implementing corrective actions?
B Checksheets
C Flowcharts
D Control charts
Hint:
Remember that the corrective action for a problem should address its root cause to prevent it from happening again.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Checksheet and control charts are two tools often used in identifying quality problems while flowcharts could be used to
estimate the cost of quality in a process. Only causeandeffect diagrams help to identify the rootcause of identified
problem upon which the team should determine what corrective actions should be taken to eliminate that causes and so,
they could effectively resolve the problem.
Correct. The causeandeffect diagram helps to identify the rootcause of a problem upon which corrective actions
should be implemented to ensure it would not happen again.
B Checksheets
Incorrect. The checksheet is a quality tool used to gather data about the potential quality problem. Although it could
provide useful data of problems, it needs further analysis to identify the cause of the problem as well the corrective
action.
C Flowcharts
Incorrect. A flowchart helps us to understand and estimate the cost of quality in a process by using workflow branching
logic to estimate expected monetary value for the conformance and nonconformance work. Flowchart does not help to
identify corrective actions.
D Control charts
Incorrect. Control chart is a quality tool used to determine whether a process is predictable and to identify the points at
which corrective action will be taken to prevent unnatural performance. However, control chart does not help to identify
the cause of the problem, so it need further analysis to determine what corrective action is required.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What is known as a series of phases that a project passes through?
A Process Group
B Knowledge Area
C Project Life Cycle
D Project Planning
Hint:
A project has to go through this as it starts, is executed and finally closed out.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
A project life cycle are a series of phases that a project passes through (i.e., starting, organizing and preparing, carrying
out project work, and closing the project). All other options are concepts, which are contained in the PMBOK Guide, but
which do not correspond to the given definition.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The key benefit of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A To maintain or increase the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement
B To identify appropriate strategies to manage stakeholders
C To increase support and reduce the negative impacts of stakeholders
D To enable an effective and efficient communication flow between project stakeholders
Hint:
Think of the purpose of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process includes communicating and negotiating with stakeholders to ensure that
they clearly understand the project goals and benefits, so they could actively support the project activities and decisions.
A To maintain or increase the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement
Incorrect. The Control Stakeholder Engagement process helps to improve the stakeholder engagement by monitoring
stakeholder relationships and adjusting the plan when needed.
B To identify appropriate strategies to manage stakeholders
Incorrect. Identifying strategies for managing stakeholders is the purpose of the Plan Stakeholder Management
process.
C To increase support and reduce the negative impacts of stakeholders
Correct. The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process helps to enhance supports and minimize resistance from
stakeholders by meeting their needs and expectations, addressing any concerns and issues as soon as possible and
fostering stakeholder engagement.
D To enable an effective and efficient communication flow between project stakeholders
Incorrect. The stated description is the key benefit of managing communications.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
During a meeting, a key stakeholder asks information about the total actual incurred project's costs. The project manager
refers him to the enterprise project management software application to obtain that information. This enterprise
management software application is an example of a(n):
A Communication method
B Organizational process asset
C Information Management System
D Project management information system (PMIS)
Hint:
Which of the items contains electronic representations of project's costs, schedule progress, and performance?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition: "An information management system provides a set of standard tools for
the project manager to capture, store, and distribute information to stakeholders about the project's costs, schedule
progress, and performance. Some software packages allow the project manager to consolidate reports from several
systems and facilitate report distribution to the project stakeholders. Examples of distribution formats may include table
reporting, spreadsheet analysis, and presentations. Graphic capabilities can be used to create visual representations of
project performance information. Project information is managed and distributed using a variety of tools, including: 1)
Hardcopy document management; letters, memos, reports, and press releases 2) Electronic communications
management: email, fax, voice mail, telephone, video and web conferencing, websites, and web publishing 3) Electronic
project management tools: web interfaces to scheduling and project management software, meeting and virtual office
support software, portals, and collaborative work management tools".
A Communication method
Incorrect. The communication methods don't include any information about the project's costs. There are several
communication methods that are used to share information among project stakeholders. These methods are broadly
classified as follows: Interactive communication, push communication, and pull communication.
B Organizational process asset
Incorrect. Organizational process assets are the plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific
to and used by the performing organization. They include any artifact, practice, or knowledge from any or all of the
organizations involved in the project that can be used to perform or govern the project. They don't include any
information about the project's costs.
C Information Management System
Correct. Information management systems include project management software, which contains project's costs,
schedule progress and performance.
D Project management information system (PMIS)
Incorrect. The project management information system (PMIS) is an information system consisting of the tools and
techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes. It is used to
support all aspects of the project from initiating through closing, and can include both manual and automated systems.
It may have an archive of documents, which may have information on project's costs, but an enterprise management
software application is not a type of PMIS.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 297, 294, 295 300, 306, 554

CAPM Exam 1
James was part of a group of bank staff members who were asked to conduct a pilot test to review bank statements
generated by the new banking system. James reported to the project manager that he did not like that private information
such as his social security number is included in the new bank statement. The requirements specification did not indicate
removing or obscuring the account holder's social security number and such a change was not part of the original scope.
However, the bank's privacy policy states that it should not be there. What type of change request should the project
manager initiate?
A Corrective action(s)
B Preventive action(s)
C Defect repair(s)
D Updates
Hint:
This is a case of a missed requirement and was not part of the original scope.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
While working on a project, issues can be found that may affect the current set of controlled project documents and plans
in order to reflect modified ideas or content. In this case, there was a missed requirement, such that some work would be
required to handle the missed requirement. The first step would be to understand what the requirement is, to better
understand risks, impact on costs, schedule, resources, etc. and update the project management plan and other affected
documents.
A Corrective action(s)
Incorrect. The change request with a corrective action is an intentional activity that realigns performance with what is
stated in the project management plan. Conforming to the privacy policy was not in the project management plan,
therefore this was a missed requirement/scope item.
B Preventive action(s)
Incorrect. Preventive actions are intended to realign future performance with the project management plan, which is not
the case here.
C Defect repair(s)
Incorrect. The application in this respect is still aligned with the current specifications, so in this respect it is not a
defect that needs to be repaired.
D Updates
Correct. In this case, the project management plan, the project scope and requirements document need to be updated
to account for this missed requirement.
Reference:
CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following identifies all project milestones and indicates whether they are mandatory or optional and may
influence the way activities are scheduled?
A Milestone attributes
B Milestone schedule
C Milestone list
D Milestone charts
Hint:
Which would most likely indicate whether something listed it Is mandatory or optional?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
A milestone list identifies all project milestones and indicates whether the milestone is mandatory, such as those required
by contract, or optional, such as those based on historical information. A milestone list may have scheduled dates for
specific milestones, which may influence the way activities are scheduled.
A Milestone attributes
Incorrect. The PMBOK Guide does not use the term milestone attributes.
B Milestone schedule
Incorrect. A milestone schedule is a graphical depiction or a summarylevel schedule presentation with milestone
activities indicated on certain dates or in certain time periods. It does not contain the information needed to determine
whether milestones are mandatory or optional or how milestones may influence the way activities are scheduled.
C Milestone list
Correct. A milestone list is a list that identifies all project milestones, their dates, and indicates whether they are
mandatory or optional. A milestone list is not a graphical schedule presentation.
D Milestone charts
Incorrect. A milestone chart is an example of a milestone schedule.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, pages, 153,155, 182, 183

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following statements is true regarding a Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract?
A A Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract gives the buyer and the seller some flexibility in that it allows for
deviation from performance.
B A Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract is the least common contract type used in procurement.
C A Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract is used when a seller's performance spans a considerable period of
years, as is desired with many longterm relationships.
D Any cost increase due to adverse performance is the responsibility of seller.
Hint:
The word firm is used to establish limits and responsibility.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
In a firm fixed price contract, any cost increase due to adverse performance is the responsibility of the seller.
A
A Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract gives the buyer and the seller some flexibility in that it allows for deviation from
performance.
False. A firm fixed price contract does not provide flexibility and does not allow for a deviation from the performance
described the contract. Both fixed price incentive fee contracts and fixed price with economic price adjustment
contracts allow this flexibility.
B A Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract is the least common contract type used in procurement.
False. A firm fixed price contract is the most common contract type used in procurement.
C
A Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract is used when a seller's performance spans a considerable period of years, as is
desired with many longterm relationships.
False. A fixed price with economic price adjustments (FPEPA) contract is one where a seller's performance spans a
considerable number of years.
D Any cost increase due to adverse performance is the responsibility of seller.
True. In a firm fixed price contract, any cost increases due to adverse performance by the seller are the responsibility
of the seller.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
A new car design project is a few weeks away from completion. Who would have close interaction with the project team,
in order to transition project deliverables and knowledge of daytoday manufacturing of the car?
A Finance
B Operations
C Legal
D Human resources
Hint:
This group can then support the creation of the product on a regular basis.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Projects are temporary endeavors. At the end of the project, deliverables, and knowledge need to be transferred over to
operations. Operations are then responsible for overseeing, directing, and controlling the daytoday work of manufacturing
the product (e.g., car assembly and production).
A Finance
Incorrect. Undoubtedly, Finance may need to be involved as there may be many financial implications of manufacturing
a new car, but they are not directly involved in daytoday manufacturing.
B Operations
Correct. Operations or also sometimes called Production is the correct answer.
C Legal
Incorrect. Undoubtedly, Legal may need to be involved as there may be many regulatory and legal implications of
manufacturing a new car, but they are not directly involved in daytoday manufacturing.
D Human resources
Incorrect. In the same vein, human resources may be involved if there are staffing implications of including or adding
new car design into operations, but the main recipient of the transition is Operations.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Shutting down the project is considered of which strategies below?
A Accept
B Avoid
C Transfer
D Mitigate
Hint:
Project cancel is to avoid the risk.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In the context of project risk management, four strategies applied for negative risks are risk acceptance, avoidance,
transference and mitigation. While risk acceptance allows the project team to acknowledge the risk without taking any
action, risk transference can be used to shift the risk to a third party. The goal of risk mitigation is to reduce the risk
impact or/and probability to the acceptable level. The aim of risk avoidance is to protect the project from risk impact,
which may include changing project implementation method, extending the project schedule, reducing scope, or even
shutting down the project entirely.
A Accept
Incorrect. 'Accept' is a risk response strategy whereby the project team chooses not take any action to deal with a risk
until it occurs. So shutting down the project is not risk acceptance strategy.
B Avoid
Correct. 'Avoid' is a strategy to eliminate a risk to the project, i.e., by extending project schedule, reducing scope, or
even cancelling the project entirely.
C Transfer
Incorrect. 'Transfer' is a risk response strategy applied to shift the impact of a risk to a third party with ownership of the
response, so cancelling the project is not an example of risk transference.
D Mitigate
Incorrect. 'Mitigate' is a strategy used to reduce the probability or impact of a risk while cancelling the project means
entirely eliminating the impact of risk on the project.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
In which of the following process should project human resource be provided and trained?
C Direct and Manage Project Work
D Monitor and Control Project Work
Hint:
Providing human resource and training should be done in the executing process group.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Providing human resource and necessary training are part of project preparing and should be done through the Direct and
Manage Project Work process, which focuses on leading and performing the project work defined in the project
management plan. The Monitor and Control Project Work and Perform Integrated Change Control processes focus on
monitoring and controlling project work and changes, and not to perform such activities. While Develop Project
Management Plan only helps to define the need of human resource and training for the project.
Incorrect. Perform Integrated Change Control is to review all change requests, approve, and manage changes to project
documents and deliverables. This process does not include providing and conduct training to the project team.
Incorrect. Human resource will not be provided and trained during project planning.
C Direct and Manage Project Work
Correct. It is part of Direct and Manage Project Work to conduct project preparation activities such as providing
necessary resource, conduct training, establishing project communication channels and technologies, etc.
Incorrect. The focus of the Monitor and Control Project Work process is to track, review, and report the project
progress, and not to provide human resource and conduct training.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
When are parametric cost models more reliable?
A When models are complex.
B When parameters are qualitative.
C When historical information is not available.
D When models are scalable.
Hint:
Reliability in a model means that cost and accuracy of the model does not vary too widely.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Parametric models are more reliable when parameters are easily quantifiable, when historical information is accurate and
when the model used is scalable (i.e., works for big as well as small endeavors).
A When models are complex.
Incorrect. Complexity does not necessarily correlate with reliability.
B When parameters are qualitative.
Incorrect. Models are more reliable when they are quantifiable (not qualitative).
C When historical information is not available.
Incorrect. The opposite is true. Models are more reliable when historical information is available and is accurate.
D When models are scalable.
Correct. Parametric cost models are more reliable with scalable models.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Stakeholder communication requirements can be found in which of the following?
A Communication management plan and stakeholder management plan
B Stakeholder register and stakeholder management plan
C Stakeholder register and communication management plan
D Project charter and stakeholder register
Hint:
In which process area are the project requirements defined?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Stakeholder communication requirements describe who need what information and when will they need the information.
The communication requirements are defined during the Plan Communications Management process and developed in
details for each stakeholder in the current phase during the Plan Stakeholder Management process.
A Communication management plan and stakeholder management plan
Correct. The stakeholder communication requirements are defined in the communication management plan and
continue to be detailed in the stakeholder management plan.
B Stakeholder register and stakeholder management plan
Incorrect. Although the stakeholder management plan contains additional details on the stakeholder requirements. The
stakeholder communication requirements have not been defined in project initiating, so it is not expected to be found in
the stakeholder register, which is developed during the initiation.
C Stakeholder register and communication management plan
Incorrect. Although the stakeholder communication requirements are defined in the communication management plan,
they are not included in the stakeholder register.
D Project charter and stakeholder register
Incorrect. A project charter is the document issued by the project sponsor that provides an understanding of the
customer needs and highlevel requirements. Consider when you create both the project charter and the stakeholder
register. Detailed information such as stakeholder communication requirements have not been defined when the project
charter or stakeholder register is created.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 403, 406, 71, 296, and 398

CAPM Exam 1
The difference between work performance data and work performance information is:
A Work performance data is quantitative while work performance information is qualitative.
B Work performance data is collected during project execution, while work performance information is the
result of the data analysis and measurement, and provides a foundation for decisionmaking.
C Work performance data is used to communicate internal project, while work performance information is
provided to external parties.
D Work performance data is collected in the Monitor and Control Project Work process, while work
performance information is created during the Direct and Manage Project Work.
Hint:
Remember the flow of project data through various process groups.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Work performance data are the raw data and observations identified during activities being performed in the Direct and
Manage Project Work process, such as performance indicators, number of change requests, start and end dates of
schedule activities, etc. As performance data is raw and can be misinterpreted without proper context, it needs further
analysis to transform performance data into performance information for decisionmaking.
A Work performance data is quantitative while work performance information is qualitative.
Incorrect. Project performance information is project data being analyzed for decisionmaking. The difference between
project performance information and data is not about the characteristic of data.
B
Work performance data is collected during project execution, while work performance information is the result of the
data analysis and measurement, and provides a foundation for decisionmaking.
Correct. Work performance data is collected in the Direct and Manage Project Work, which belongs to the executing
process group, while work performance information is the data being analyzed and may be used for decision making.
C
Work performance data is used to communicate internal project, while work performance information is provided to
external parties.
Incorrect. The performance data is often collected during project execution. The performance data itself cannot be used
for communicating and decisionmaking as they may be misinterpreted without the proper context. While work
performance information is the data being analyzed in context and distributed as part of project communication.
D
Work performance data is collected in the Monitor and Control Project Work process, while work performance
information is created during the Direct and Manage Project Work.
Incorrect. Work performance data is collected during the Direct and Manage Project Work, while work performance
information is created as the result of the performance data analysis in various controlling processes.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Claudia intends to set up project management software in order to better control costs on the computer chip fabrication
project that she is managing. Which of the following should she not include in the project management software to aid her
control project costs?
A Forecast
B EVM metrics
C Graphs of actual cost
D Control chart of the fabrication process
Hint:
Not all data applies to Project Cost Management
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The PMBOK Guide lists project management software as a tool used to control costs using EVM dimensions (PV, EV
and AC) , to display graphical trends and to forecast final project results. A control chart of the fabrication process is not
under the Control Costs process as this tool is used in the Plan Quality Management process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is true about the Acquire Project Team process?
A The staffing management plan is not relevant to the Acquire Project Team process.
B The criteria used in multicriteria decision analysis should not include verifying if adding the team member
is within budget.
C Virtual teams are not an effective way to build teams.
D The project management plan may be updated as a result of changes to team roles or responsibilities.
Hint:
Read each statement closely
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project management plan and its subsidiary plan (the human resource management plan) may be updated as a result
of changes to team roles or responsibilities.
A The staffing management plan is not relevant to the Acquire Project Team process.
False. The human resource management plan, including the staff management plan provides information on the time
periods when the staff member will be needed.
B
The criteria used in multicriteria decision analysis should not include verifying if adding the team member is within
budget.
False. Cost is an example of criteria that can be used within multicriteria decision analysis.
C Virtual teams are not an effective way to build teams.
False. Using virtual teams is an option which creates new possibilities. They come with their unique set of advantages
and disadvantages, which should be managed during the course of the project.
D The project management plan may be updated as a result of changes to team roles or responsibilities.
True. The project management plan may be updated as a result of changes to team roles or responsibilities.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
During a status review, the project manager detects that a complex process is outside the upper and lower specification
limits, so he asks the quality team to analyze the situation and propose a solution to correct it. Upon closer analysis, the
quality team finds out that during the night shift, some of the steps to assemble the product components are not being
performed, so they propose to use:
A Checksheets
B Control charts
C Scatter diagrams
D Quality checklists
Hint:
What tool provides a structured stepbystep record of which activities are being performed?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
During the 'Control Quality' process, checklists should be used to verify all the steps for a given task have been carried
out. As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition: "A checklist is a structured tool, usually componentspecific, used to
verify that a set of required steps has been performed. Based on the project’s requirements and practices, checklists may
be simple or complex. Many organizations have standardized checklists available to ensure consistency in frequently
performed tasks. In some application areas, checklists are also available from professional associations or commercial
service providers. Quality checklists should incorporate the acceptance criteria included in the scope baseline."
A Checksheets
Incorrect. Checksheets are used to organize facts in a manner that will facilitate the effective collection of useful data
about a potential quality problem. In this scenario, checksheets wouldn't help solve the problem.
B Control charts
Incorrect. Control charts are used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance. Upper and
lower specification limits are based on requirements of the agreement. In this scenario, control charts wouldn't help
solve the problem.
C Scatter diagrams
Incorrect. Scatter diagrams are plot ordered pairs that seek to explain a change in the dependent variable, Y, in
relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable, X. In this scenario, control charts wouldn't
help solve the problem.
D Quality checklists
Correct. Quality checklists are used as inputs to the 'Control Quality' process. In this scenario, the quality team
detected that these checklists where not being used and this caused different results depending on who was performing
the activities to assemble the product.
Reference:
CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is a conformance cost and why would it be considered as such?
A Testing because it costs time, money, and effort to assess the quality of a product/service before it
goes to market.
B Lost business because poor quality causes customers not to come back for repeat business.
C Training because you can inform the customer about what quality features to look for in the
product/service.
D Scrap because after the project team finds a defective product, it may not be repairable and should be
scrapped.
Hint:
Conformance costs include costs to prevent nonconformance to requirements as well as appraisal costs to determine if
products or services conform to requirements.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Cost of conformance is money spent to avoid failure during the project, where you prevent conformance by building a
good quality product and incur appraisal costs to assess the quality of your product/service. Internal or external failures
where money is spent during and after the project in order to handle failures found by the project or by the customer.
A
Testing because it costs time, money, and effort to assess the quality of a product/service before it goes to
market.
Correct. Testing is an example of a conformance cost for this reason.
B Lost business because poor quality causes customers not to come back for repeat business.
Incorrect. It is true that poor quality may cause repeat customer business but lost business is an example of the cost
of nonconformance.
C Training because you can inform the customer about what quality features to look for in the product/service.
Incorrect. Although training is a conformance costs, informing the customer about quality features in the
product/service is more along the lines of marketing and not the sort of training relevant to conformance costs. Training
the project team to build a quality product is the type of training that WOULD be a reason.
D Scrap because after the project team finds a defective product, it may not be repairable and should be scrapped.
Incorrect. The choice describes a case of cost of nonconformance due to internal failure costs.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
At what stage/phase of the project is the procurement (SOW) statement of work drafted?
A Execution
B Monitoring and controlling
C Closing
D Planning
Hint:
When would a document that describes what product or services are required be needed?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The procurement statement of work describes the work, services, and products in sufficient detail to permit sellers to
determine if they are capable of providing what has been described. This document is drafted in the planning stage prior
to bids being submitted and sellers being selected.
A Execution
Incorrect. One must know and understand the work that is expected before it can be executed.
B Monitoring and controlling
Incorrect. If the procurement SOW has not been drafted, how can it be used to monitor and control the performance of
the seller?
C Closing
Incorrect. The procurement SOW that describes the work to be done by a seller certainly is not drafted when closing the
project or procurement.
D Planning
Correct. The procurement SOW is produced during the Plan Procurement Management process and is an output of that
process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is true about these Estimate Costs tools and techniques?
A Analogous estimates use relationship between historical data and other variables to estimate cost.
B Threepoint estimates always uses the beta distribution.
C Bottomup estimating uses the summary cost levels to get to greater level of details .
D Cost of quality can be used in Estimate Costs.
Hint:
Read each of the descriptions closely.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The cost of quality includes cost of conformance and cost of nonconformance to requirements. Cost of quality is a tool
and technique for the Plan Quality Management as well as the Estimate Costs processes. The cost of quality is used in
order to create activity cost estimates.
A Analogous estimates use relationship between historical data and other variables to estimate cost.
Incorrect. The definition matches that of parametric estimating.
B Threepoint estimates always uses the beta distribution.
Incorrect. There are other formulas apart from the PERT beta distribution that uses threepoint estimation (e.g.
triangular distribution).
C Bottomup estimating uses the summary cost levels to get to greater level of details .
Incorrect. The definition describes more of a topdown estimating approach, which is not a technique described in the
PMBOK Guide.
D Cost of quality can be used in Estimate Costs.
Correct. Even if this may sound like this is tool that is used for Project Quality Management, quality just as other
project management areas, does have a cost component.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Halfway in the project execution phase, the project manager wants to optimize the work performance reports used to
manage communications. What she should do?
A Distribute reports in a timely manner
B Ensure the performance measurement baseline (PMB) is accurate and reliable
C Control reports in order for them to be accurate
D Ensure reports are comprehensive, accurate, and available in a timely manner
Hint:
Think what is the information contained within the work performance reports.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition: "Work performance reports are a collection of project performance and
status information that may be used to facilitate discussion and to create communications. To optimize this process, it is
important that reports be comprehensive, accurate, and available in a timely manner".
A Distribute reports in a timely manner
Incorrect. The reports also need to be comprehensive and accurate.
B Ensure the performance measurement baseline (PMB) is accurate and reliable
Incorrect. The performance measurement baseline (PMB) is an approved plan for the project work to which the project
execution is compared, and deviations are measured for management control. It is unrelated to the optimization of the
work performance reports.
C Control reports in order for them to be accurate
Incorrect. Accuracy is only one of the dimensions the project manager needs to guarantee; it is also required for the
reports to be comprehensive and available in a timely manner.
D Ensure reports are comprehensive, accurate, and available in a timely manner
Correct. It is important that reports be comprehensive, accurate, and available in a timely manner.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
All of the following documents may be used in quality assurance except:
A Quality metrics
B Quality checklists
C Quality management plan
Hint:
Remember the purpose of the Perform Quality Assurance process and of each document.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Perform Quality Assurance process is used to audit the quality requirements described in the quality management
plan and the result of quality control measurements, so both quality management plan and quality control measurements
may be used in this process. Quality metrics provide the measurement requirements and the allowable variations for
auditing while quality checklists are often used in the Control Quality process to verify whether a work product or
deliverable meets the requirements.
A Quality metrics
Incorrect. Quality metrics describe product attributes and how they will be measured against the quality objectives and
the tolerance. Quality metrics provide the measurement requirements and the tolerance that should be used as a basis
for auditing the result of the quality control measurements.
B Quality checklists
Correct. Quality checklist is a checklist of all quality requirements and the acceptance criteria for each work product or
deliverable and often used in control quality to ensure they meet a set of requirements.
C Quality management plan
Incorrect. The quality management plan provides guidelines on how to perform quality assurance, so it is a primary
input for quality assurance.
Incorrect. The quality control measurement is used in quality assurance as the Perform Quality Assurance process is
to audit the result of the quality control measurements.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following should not be considered as reward to a team member?
A Acknowledgement of good work during the team meeting
B A plaque of appreciation
C Regular salary package
D Career growth opportunities
Hint:
Think about the recognition and rewards you or your colleagues may have received.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Receiving your regular salary and compensation package is what a team member expects for fulfilling their role and
responsibility. The team member should be receiving the agreed compensation on a regular basis. All other options
represent tangible and intangible rewards and recognition, which is above their regular salary package.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project charter serves as an input to the following processes except for:
A Plan Quality Management
B Identify Stakeholders
C Collect Requirements
D Plan Costs
Hint:
Think about the relationship among the process groups
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Plan Quality Management requires the project management plan, stakeholder register, risk register, requirements
documentation, enterprise environmental factors and organizational process assets as inputs.
A Plan Quality Management
Correct. The project charter is not used as an input to Plan Quality.
B Identify Stakeholders
Incorrect. The project charter may have information on stakeholders which are affected by the project.
C Collect Requirements
Incorrect. The project charter provides the description of the product, service, or result of the project that is the basis of
detailed requirements.
D Plan Costs
Incorrect. The project charter provides an overall budget and defines project approval requirements that will be used in
the Plan Costs process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Where would you find the historical data for developing the project scope management plan?
A Enterprise environmental factors
B Organizational process assets
C Project charter
D Project statement of work
Hint:
Where do you store the historical information and lessons learned that to be used by the organization?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The organizational process assets that can influence the Plan Scope Management process may include policies and
procedures, as well as historical information and the lessons learned knowledge base.
A Enterprise environmental factors
Incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors refer to conditions, not under the control of the project team, that influence,
constrain, or direct the project such as organizational culture, governance or industry standards, or infrastructure.
B Organizational process assets
Correct. Organizational process assets are the plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to
and used by the performing organization. They include any artifact, practice, or knowledge from any or all of the
organizations involved in the project that can be used to perform or govern the project.
C Project charter
Incorrect. The project charter describes the business needs, assumptions, constraints, the understanding of the
customer’s needs and highlevel requirements, and the new product, service, or result that it is intended to satisfy. It
does not contain historical data.
D Project statement of work
Incorrect. The project statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be
delivered by a project. The SOW does not include historical data.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project issue log contains the problems from stakeholders in order for the team to discuss and agree on appropriate
responses. How is the issue log obtained?
A It is a component of the project's lessons learned
B It is the output of the Identify Stakeholders process
C It is the output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process
D It is the output of the Control Stakeholder Engagement process
Hint:
Which of the options is updated frequently?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The issue log is the output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. Managing stakeholder engagement may
result in the development of an issue log. This log is updated as new issues are identified and current issues are
resolved.
A It is a component of the project's lessons learned
Incorrect. Lessons learned are the knowledge gained during a project, which shows how project events were addressed
or should be addressed in the future with the purpose of improving future performance. The issue log is not a
component of the lessons learned from the project.
B It is the output of the Identify Stakeholders process
Incorrect. The issue log is not an output of the Identify Stakeholder process.
C It is the output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process
Correct. The issue log is the output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process.
D It is the output of the Control Stakeholder Engagement process
Incorrect. The issue log is the input of the Control Stakeholder Engagement process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following statements is true about the change control board?
A Change control board is a group responsible for reviewing and approving or rejecting changes to the
project.
B Change control board is responsible for tracking change status to ensure all approved changes are
correctly implemented.
C Change control board should not include project team to ensure objective decisions are made.
D Every change should be analyzed and approved by the change control board before being implemented.
Hint:
Remember the concept of change control board.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Every change request needs to be either approved or rejected by a responsible individual or a change control board when
required. Depending on the complexity of the specific project or contract requirements, some of changes may be
approved by individuals while other changes may need to be considered by the change control board, including relevant
stakeholders before making decisions. The project team is responsible for implementing and tracking approved change
requests to ensure they are correctly implemented.
A Change control board is a group responsible for reviewing and approving or rejecting changes to the project.
Correct. In project change management, a change control board may be required to review and approve for changes.
Normally, members of the change control board come from various departments to ensure the impact of change
requests to all aspects of the project will be considered and analyzed before making decision.
B
Change control board is responsible for tracking change status to ensure all approved changes are correctly
implemented.
Incorrect. It is the responsibility of project team to implement and track the status of approved changes.
C Change control board should not include project team to ensure objective decisions are made.
Incorrect. Change control board should include people who have the authorization of making decision and it does not
necessarily exclude members of the project team.
D Every change should be analyzed and approved by the change control board before being implemented.
Incorrect. Although all changes should be analyzed and approved before being implemented, not all of these changes
need to be approved by the change control board. The authorization of approval should be defined in the change
management plan to ensure the effectiveness of change management.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which is the purpose of independent estimates in conducting procurements?
A To serve as benchmark on proposals
B To determine whether a project work should be accomplished by the team or purchased from outside
source
C To identify the readiness of vendors
D To plan for procurement management
Hint:
Think of how we normally evaluate the cost proposed in the bidder proposals.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
When evaluating proposals, the project team could independently estimate for the project work and compare the result
with the estimates provided by the bidders. Significant differences could indicate that the statement of work was deficient,
ambiguous, or misunderstood.
A To serve as benchmark on proposals
Correct. For procuring products or services, the organization should prepare (or have an outside professional prepare)
independent estimates for reference when evaluating proposals.
B To determine whether a project work should be accomplished by the team or purchased from outside source
Incorrect. The stated description is the purpose of makeorbuy analysis technique, not the purpose of the independent
estimates technique.
C To identify the readiness of vendors
Incorrect. Analytical techniques are the techniques of reviewing the vendors' past performance to identify their
readiness of performing the contract work. It is not the purpose of independent estimates.
D To plan for procurement management
Incorrect. The independent estimate is a technique used in the Conduct Procurements process, not in the Plan
Procurement Management process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
All of the following are tasks that John Philip should perform as part of closing his project except for?
A Write up lessons learned.
B Create an archive of project documents.
C Ensure client accepts the deliverables.
D Conduct a project retrospective.
Hint:
One of the tasks has to occur before going through the steps to close the project.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Validate scope is the process wherein the client formally accepts the deliverables. Validate scope occurs prior to project
closure. All other choices such as writing up lessons learned, creating an archive of project documents, and conducting a
project retrospective are all part of project or phase closure.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is used as inputs to manage a project team?
A Work performance Information
B Corporate apparel
C Conflict management
D Change requests
Hint:
Think about the difference between inputs, outputs and tools and techniques
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
All of the choices are associated with the Manage Project Team process. Corporate apparel is an example of
organizational process assets that are used as inputs to the process. Work performance reports (not information) would
be considered an input also, while conflict management is a tool and technique while change request is an output of the
process.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, pages 281 285

CAPM Exam 1
Who is responsible for ensuring that risk audits are performed as planned?
A The project sponsor
B The project manager
C Project stakeholders
D The customer
Hint:
Who is responsible for overall project management to achieve the project objectives?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The project manager is responsible for ensuring that risk audits are performed at an appropriate frequency, as defined in
the project's risk management plan.
A The project sponsor
Incorrect. A sponsor is the person or group who provides resources and support for the project and is accountable for
enabling success, but they do not commonly manage the project risk audit.
B The project manager
Correct. The project manager is the person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible
for achieving the project objectives.
C Project stakeholders
Incorrect. A project stakeholder is an individual, group, or organization who may affect, be affected by or perceive itself
affected by the project. Although this is not an incorrect answer, this is not quite specific enough.
D The customer
Incorrect. A customer is the one who ultimately pays for the project's product, service, or result, as such; they are part
of the strategy. They are not responsible for project monitoring and controlling.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is not a valid project baseline?
A Scope baseline
B Schedule baseline
C Cost baseline
D Quality control baseline
Hint:
Think which of the choices contains points of reference against which all future project measurements are compared to.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project management plan integrates and consolidates all of the subsidiary plans and baselines from the planning
processes. The project baselines include, but are not limited to scope baseline, schedule baseline, and cost baseline.
A Scope baseline
Incorrect. The scope baseline is the approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its
associated WBS dictionary.
B Schedule baseline
Incorrect. The schedule baseline is the approved version of a schedule model that can be changed only through formal
change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
C Cost baseline
Incorrect. The cost baseline is the approved version of the timephased project budget, excluding any management
reserves, which can only be changed through formal change control procedures .
D Quality control baseline
Correct. The quality control baseline is not a valid baseline as defined in the PMBOK Guide.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate pair of terms from one of the choices below. Deliverables flow from the
______________ Process Group to the _____________ Process Group.
A Initiating: Closing
B Planning: Executing
C Executing: Monitoring and Controlling
D Monitoring and Controlling: Closing
Hint:
Think about where deliverables are an output and where it then serves as an input.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Deliverables are the products, results, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced. Deliverables are
created in the Executing Process Group (Direct and Manage Project Work) and are then used in the Monitoring and
Controlling Process (Control Quality). Deliverables that are verified in Control Quality are then accepted/rejected in the
Validate Scope process.
A Initiating: Closing
Incorrect. Deliverables are not created when you Initiate a project.
B Planning: Executing
Incorrect. Deliverables are not created when you plan for the project.
C Executing: Monitoring and Controlling
Correct. You create deliverables within the Executing Process Group. It makes sense that you would need to monitor
and control deliverables to ensure sure they conform to requirements and specifications.
D Monitoring and Controlling: Closing
Incorrect. You may be thinking about accepted deliverables, which indeed flow from Monitoring and Controlling process
group to the Closing process group, but deliverables and accepted deliverables are different concepts in the PMBOK
Guide.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What does assumptions analysis identify?
A Risks to the project from inaccuracy, instability, inconsistency, or incompleteness of assumptions
B A comprehensive list of project risks
C The probability of each risk occurrence and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs
D Which RBS structure will be appropriate for a particular type of project
Hint:
Identifying risks is not an exact science and assumptions must be made.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Risks to the project from inaccuracy, instability, inconsistency, or incompleteness of assumptions
Correct. This is the definition of Assumptions analysis.
B A comprehensive list of project risks
Incorrect. This description matches the output of Brainstorming.
C The probability of each risk occurrence and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs
Incorrect. This description corresponds to filling out a probability and impact matrix.
D Which RBS structure will be appropriate for a particular type of project
Incorrect. Different RBS structures are appropriate for different types of projects. However, finding appropriate RBS
structure is not related to Assumptions analysis.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 325, 324, 318, and 317

CAPM Exam 1
Estimate Activity Durations and Estimate Costs have the following tools and techniques in common.
A Expert judgment
B Threepoint estimating
C Reserve analysis
D All of the above
Hint:
Think about the process of developing an approximation of time or costs to complete project activities.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Estimate Activity Durations and Estimate Costs have a number of tools and techniques in common. Think about it,
themselves are quite similar where the major difference of course is that one process considers time/schedule whereas
the other considers costs. Both processes use expert judgment, analogous, parametric estimating, threepoint estimating,
reserve analysis, and group decision techniques.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following techniques is normally used to define the vendor selection criteria?
A Makeorbuy analysis
B Procurement documents
C Expert judgment
D Meetings
Hint:
Think of the purpose of each technique. Which of them could help the buyer to define the source selection criteria?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Source selection criteria are often a part of the procurement documents, which are created through the Plan Procurement
Management process. Although all of these techniques are often used in the Plan Procurements process, only expert
judgment normally helps to develop the selection criteria and evaluate proposals. Other techniques such as market
research and meetings are used to gather relevant information for conducting procurements, while makeorbuy analysis
focuses on opting for work to be accomplished by the project team or by outside suppliers.
A Makeorbuy analysis
Incorrect. Makeorbuy analysis is often used to making decision on whether a project work should be accomplished by
the project team or purchased by external suppliers. It does not help to define the selection criteria.
B Procurement documents
Incorrect. Procurement documents are outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process and not tools. Vendor
selection criteria are sometimes included within procurement documents in order to better target the prospective sellers.
C Expert judgment
Correct. Expert judgment is often used to provide expertise on making procurement documents, including developing
the specifications and the selection criteria.
D Meetings
Incorrect. Meetings are often used in the Plan Procurement process to provide official information on the procurement
as well as exchange information with prospective bidders.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
When an a predecessor activity must be completed before a successor activity can begin the term that describes the
logical relationship between these activities is called:?
A Finish to finish
B Start to start
C Finish to start
D Start to finish
Hint:
What is another word for completed and what is another word for begin?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
A finish to start relationship requires that a predecessor activity be complete before a successor activity can't begin.
A Finish to finish
Incorrect. A finishtofinish logical relationship is one in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor
activity has finished
B Start to start
Incorrect. A starttostart logical relationship is one in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor
activity has started
C Finish to start
Correct. A finishtostart logical relationship is one in which is successor activity cannot start until a predecessor
activity has finished. This is the most common logical relationship between activities in a typical schedule
D Start to finish
Incorrect. A start to finish logical relationship is one in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor
activity has started.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What is the referred to as the approved version of the timephased project budget?
A Cost forecast
B Cost management plan
C Cost baseline
D Activity cost estimates
Hint:
Think of the process where you create the budget.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide, "A project budget includes all funds authorized to execute the project. The cost baseline
is the approved version of the timephased project budget, but excludes management reserves."
A Cost forecast
Incorrect. A cost forecast is the estimate at completion which you have derived through calculation or from a bottom up
estimation.
B Cost management plan
Incorrect. A cost management plan describes how project costs will be managed and controlled.
C Cost baseline
Correct. The cost baseline is determined by aggregating all the costs of all the work packages.
D Activity cost estimates
Incorrect. Activity cost estimates is an assessment of probable costs that results from the Estimate Costs process.
The activity cost estimates is what is used to determine the budget.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which statement is true about scope creep?
A Scope creep is uncontrolled expansion of scope.
B Scope creep mainly results from poor scope planning.
C Scope creep may have both negative and positive impacts on project objectives.
D Any change to the scope after the project scope is baselined is considered scope creep.
Hint:
Remember the concept of scope creep.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK Guide, scope creep is known as "the uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without
adjustments to time, cost, and resources", so scope creep mainly arises from poor scope control, not from poor scope
planning. Scope creep should be prevented as it has negative impacts to the project due to poor controlling over scope
changes. Change is evitable and needs to go through a formal change control process to analyze whether or not it should
be accepted.
A Scope creep is uncontrolled expansion of scope.
Correct. Changes to project scope without adjustments to time, cost and resource are considered scope creep.
B Scope creep mainly results from poor scope planning.
Incorrect. Although poor scope planning may result in large number of change requests, but if change requests are
properly controlled, scope creep can be minimized. Scope creep results from poor scope control.
C Scope creep may have both negative and positive impacts on project objectives.
Incorrect. As scope creep is uncontrolled scope change, it is considered as a negative factor to the project success.
D Any change to the scope after the project scope is baselined is considered scope creep.
Incorrect. Changes in project scope are inevitable and only changes performed without controlled adjustments to the
project plan are considered scope creep.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Requirements prioritization process is included in which of the following:
B Requirements traceability matrix
C Requirements management plan
Hint:
Remember that the plan is to describe how to do work, so requirements prioritization process should be included in the
requirements management plan.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Requirements prioritization process describes how to prioritize the requirements for further analysis and implementation.
This process should be clearly stated in the requirements management plan, which guides how to analyze and manage
requirements. Other requirementrelated documents such as requirements traceability matrix, requirements documentation
should be created based on the requirements prioritization process. While the scope management plan focuses on
providing guidance on defining and managing the project scope.
Incorrect. Requirements documentation describes how each requirement meets the business need and may include
business requirements, stakeholder requirements, solution requirements, etc., and requirements assumptions and
constraints. Requirements documentation does not contain the requirements reprioritization process.
B Requirements traceability matrix
Incorrect. The requirement traceability matrix describes the link between the requirements and work products to ensure
all requirements are delivered at the end of the project. It does not include the requirements prioritization process.
C Requirements management plan
Correct. The requirements management plan describes how requirements will be prioritized, analyzed, and managed
throughout the project lifecycle. So, the requirement prioritization process should be mentioned in this plan.
Incorrect. The scope management plan describes how the scope will be defined, developed, and verified. This plan
focuses on defined the scoperelated processes and does not often include the requirements prioritization process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The sponsor of a complex multinational telecommunications project wants to make sure scope creep will be avoided.
What is the best document to look for this information?
A Scope management plan
B Requirements management plan
C Scope control plan
D Scope baseline
Hint:
Think of the most relevant output of the 'Plan Scope Management' process.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Scope creep is the uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.
The scope management plan is the best document to understand how scope creep will be avoided because it describes
how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and verified. "
A Scope management plan
Correct. The primary output of the 'Plan Scope Management' process is the scope management plan that documents
how the project scope will be defined, validated, and controlled.
B Requirements management plan
Incorrect. The requirements management plan is a component of the project or program management plan that
describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.
C Scope control plan
Incorrect. Scope control plan is not a valid entity within the PMBOK Guide.
D Scope baseline
Incorrect. The scope baseline is the approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its
associated WBS dictionary; it does not specify how the scope will be managed.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What is an output of the control schedule process that is an input into the Monitor and Control Project work process?
A Work performance data
B Schedule baseline
C Activity duration estimates
D Work performance information
Hint:
One of these is for raw data the other is the analysis of that data that can then be used to make intelligent decisions
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Work performance information is an output of the Control Schedule which is used in the Monitor and Control project work
process. Work performance information is a summarized or analyzed version of work performance data and is a very
common input into the monitor and control project work process.
A Work performance data
Incorrect. Work Performance Data is the data that is not summarized or raw data that is created during project
execution and is often used as an input and not an output to control processes such as the Control Schedule process .
B Schedule baseline
Incorrect. Schedule Baseline is an output of the Develop Schedule process and not an output of any other processes.
C Activity duration estimates
Incorrect. Activity duration estimates come from the Estimate Activity Duration process.
D Work performance information
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, pages 65, 186,452

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following information in the project charter helps to develop the scope management plan?
A Assigned project manager, responsibility, and authority level
B Name and authority of the sponsor or other person(s) authorizing the project charter
C Stakeholder list
D Highlevel project description and boundaries
Hint:
Which information is directly related to project scope?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project charter is used to provide the project context needed to plan the scope management processes. All the
choices listed are what you expect to be in a project charter, however only the highlevel project description and product
characteristics is helpful in developing the scope management plan.
A Assigned project manager, responsibility, and authority level
Incorrect. Although the project manager's name, responsibility, and authority are included in the project charter, they are
not related to the project scope.
B Name and authority of the sponsor or other person(s) authorizing the project charter
Incorrect. The sponsor's name is not helpful in developing the scope management plan.
C Stakeholder list
Incorrect. Stakeholder list is also not helpful in developing project scope management plan.
D Highlevel project description and boundaries
Correct. Highlevel project description and boundaries provide the understanding of project scope and highlevel
requirements.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
You are managing a project to build a park in a new neighborhood subdivision. In order to meet some new deadlines
imposed on related activities and projects, you have been asked to shorten your project schedule by three weeks.
Additional resources are available and cost is not as great a concern as time. In order to meet this new objective, you
should do the following?
A Crash or fast track activities on the critical path
B Remove external dependencies
C Shorten lead and lag times on your project
D Use a scheduling tool to perform resource leveling
Hint:
Look carefully at all the information provided and choose the best option based on that information.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Provided that resources are available and an increase in cost is acceptable, you should use schedule compression
techniques such as crashing and fast tracking to shorten your project schedule. In this case, crashing or adding additional
resources to a task in order to complete it earlier than scheduled is a good option to shorten your project schedule. Fast
tracking or working on scheduled tasks in parallel rather than in series is another good option to use to shorten your
project schedule when you have task dependencies that are discretionary or not mandatory.
A Crash or fast track activities on the critical path
Correct. Crashing or fast tracking are two schedule compression techniques that can be used to shorten the overall
project schedule. Given the information that resources were available and costs was not a great concern relative to
time, this is the best answer choice
B Remove external dependencies
Incorrect. Removing external dependencies is not always possible as they are often outside the project team's control.
Removing external dependencies does not guarantee the project can be finished earlier.
C Shorten lead and lag times on your project
Incorrect. Although this strategy can be used to bring project activities that are behind, back into alignment to a plan or
schedule, often lead or lag times cannot easily be shortened. For instance, the lead time required to procure goods or
services may be fixed or the time you must wait to allow primer to dry before you paint. You were provided the
information that there were extra resources and cost was not a great concern, thus crashing or fast tracking is a better
solution.
D Use a scheduling tool to perform resource leveling
Incorrect. Using a scheduling tool or any other approach to perform resource leveling will not shorten the project and
could actually lengthen the project if a resource is over allocated
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
In order to justify the financial investment for a new manufacturing plant, the sponsor requires the creation of business
case. Which of the following is mandatory to be included as part of the business case?
A Project statement of work
B Costbenefit analysis
C Tree diagram
D Enterprise environmental factors
Hint:
Think which option contains the key variables required to justify an investment
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
An organization's business need may be based on a market demand, technological advance, legal requirement,
government regulation, or environmental consideration. Typically, both the business need and the costbenefit analysis
are contained in the business case to justify the project.
A Project statement of work
Incorrect. The project statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be
delivered by the project. Along with the business case, it is another input to the Develop Project Charter process.
B Costbenefit analysis
Correct. The costbenefit analysis is a systematic approach to estimating the strengths and weaknesses of alternatives
that satisfy transactions, activities, or functional requirements for a business.
C Tree diagram
Incorrect. Tree diagrams are also known as systematic diagrams and may be used to represent decomposition
hierarchies such as the WBS, RBS, and OBS.
D Enterprise environmental factors
Incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors are considered inputs to most planning processes, may enhance or
constrain project management options, and may have a positive or negative influence on the project outcome.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project manager in charge of building new, highly complex tablet computer software was asked by the sponsor if she
was confident enough that the tablet software would be developed to conform to all the requirements. What should she
use to measure completion of the product scope?
A Product requirements
C WBS
D Stakeholder needs document
Hint:
Think of which item contains the specifications for the product.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth edition: "Completion of the project scope is measured against the project
management plan (Section 4.2.3.1). Completion of the product scope is measured against the product requirements
(Section 5.2)".
A Product requirements
Correct. Completion of the product scope is measured against the product requirements.
Incorrect. Completion of the project scope, not relevant in this scenario, is measured against the project management
plan.
C WBS
Incorrect. The WBS contains a subdivision of project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable
components and is not the best answer.
D Stakeholder needs document
Incorrect. 'Stakeholder needs' is an abstract term. There is no 'stakeholder needs document' listed in the PMBOK
Guide.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is true about the qualitative risk analysis and the quantitative risk analysis?
A The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis processes are often
concurrently performed.
B Performing qualitative risk analysis is often more expensive than performing quantitative risk analysis.
C The purpose of the qualitative risk analysis is to allow project managers to focus on highpriority risks
while the quantitative risk analysis is to support decisionmaking based on quantitative information.
D The quantitative risk analysis is more important than the qualitative risk analysis
Hint:
Think of how risks will be qualitatively and quantitatively analyzed.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is a process of analyzing project risks by assessing their probabilities and
impacts, in order to set priority for the project risks and allow the project manager to focus on highpriority risks. While the
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is about numerically analyzing the effect of risks on the project to support the
decisionmaking to reduce the uncertainty of the project. Performing qualitative risk analysis, therefore, is often less time
consuming and costly than performing quantitative risk analysis. The quantitative risk analysis could be performed to
highpriority risks as the result of the qualitative risk analysis, and usually performed after the qualitative risk analysis. It
could not be said which one is more important as they should be chosen based on the management needs as well as the
budget and effort are expected to spent on risk analysis.
A
The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis processes are often concurrently
performed.
False. The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is usually conducted to establish the risk priority for the Plan
Risk Responses process and to provide risk information for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process if required.
Therefore, the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is often performed after the Perform Qualitative Risk
Analysis process.
B Performing qualitative risk analysis is often more expensive than performing quantitative risk analysis.
False. Performing quantitative risk analysis requires risks to be numerically analyzed which is often more expensive
and timeconsuming than performing qualitative risk analysis.
C
The purpose of the qualitative risk analysis is to allow project managers to focus on highpriority risks while the
quantitative risk analysis is to support decisionmaking based on quantitative information.
True. The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is usually to set priorities for identified risks for further analysis or
actions, if needed. Risks that need further analysis then move to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process to be
numerically analyzed their effect on overall project objectives to support decision making.
D The quantitative risk analysis is more important than the qualitative risk analysis
False. The risk analysis method should be considered based on risk management requirements, time and effort allowed
for risk management activities. It is not appropriate to state, which one is more important than the other.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project manager wants to distribute key project information aligned with the communications management plan. In
order to do that he is currently analyzing baseline versus actual data to understand and communicate the project progress
and performance, as well as to forecast the project results. Which of the following is not part of this analysis?
A Current status of risks and issues
B Communication constraints
C Analysis of past performance
D Work completed during the period
Hint:
Which of the options doesn't belong to the performance reporting activity?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The project manager is performing the performance reporting activity within the 'Manage Communications' process. As
stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition: "Performance reporting is the act of collecting and distributing performance
information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts. Performance reporting involves the periodic
collection and analysis of baseline versus actual data to understand and communicate the project progress and
performance as well as to forecast the project results. Performance reporting needs to provide information at an
appropriate level for each audience. The format may range from a simple status report to more elaborate reports and may
be prepared regularly or on an exception basis. A simple status report might show performance information, such as
percent complete or status dashboards for each area (i.e., scope, schedule, cost, and quality). More elaborate reports
may include: Analysis of past performance, analysis of project forecasts (including time and cost), current status of risks
and issues, work completed during the period, work to be completed in the next period, summary of changes approved in
the period and other relevant information, which is reviewed and discussed.
A Current status of risks and issues
Incorrect. Current status of risks and issues may be included as part of an elaborate report within the performance
reporting tool and technique.
B Communication constraints
Correct. Communications constraints, included within the communication management plan, are usually derived from a
specific legislation or regulation, technology, and organizational policies. They don't belong to the performance reporting
tool and technique.
C Analysis of past performance
Incorrect. Analysis of past performance may be included as part of an elaborate report within the performance reporting
tool and technique.
D Work completed during the period
Incorrect. Work completed during the period may be included as part of an elaborate report within the performance
reporting tool and technique.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Kurt is a project manager has been hired by a consulting company who specializes in implementing point of sale
systems. Although Kurt is new to this particular type of technology, the company itself has extensive experience in
setting up and managing this type of project. Kurt is being asked to submit a fixed price proposal to a new client to install
their point of sales system. What type of project life cycle should Kurt recommend?
A Adaptive since this is a software project where something always goes wrong.
B Iterative and Incremental since they can add one feature at a time of the POS software.
C Metamorphic since Kurt should want to implement the point of sales system but then use that as an
opportunity to sell other services which the company has to offer.
D Predictive since with all the experience, the company is a good position to have established scope,
schedule, and costs early in the project.
Hint:
Focus on the key facts provided in the question.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Predictive Life Cycles are also known as plan driven life cycles. They are as described, where you want to have a clear
understanding of what the rest of the project will look like (e.g. how much is it going to cost, what is your scope, how long
will it take to complete) as early as possible in the project. The product and deliverables are scoped out and defined in the
beginning and any changes then have to be carefully managed. Some types of projects and project within certain
industries work very well under these assumptions. In this case, the depth of experience of the company in POS systems
gives them an advantage, where they are able to make a reasonable estimate to include for their fixed price bid.
A Adaptive since this is a software project where something always goes wrong.
Incorrect. Although an adaptive life cycle is typical in software related projects, it does not have to be the approach
used every time.
B Iterative and Incremental since they can add one feature at a time of the POS software.
Incorrect. There is nothing to suggest that implementing one feature at a time is required. The iterations and increments
of the project need not center around features.
C
Metamorphic since Kurt should want to implement the point of sales system but then use that as an opportunity to
sell other services which the company has to offer.
Incorrect. There is no such term described in the PMBOK Guide.
D
Predictive since with all the experience, the company is a good position to have established scope, schedule, and
costs early in the project.
Correct. Kurt should recommend using the predictive life cycle.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following techniques should be used when resolving conflicts to create the consensus and commitment?
A Accommodate
B Compromise
C Collaborate
D Force
Hint:
Which technique focuses on addressing the problem?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Of the four stated techniques, only the collaborate or problem solving technique focuses on addressing the problem in a
collaborative and open dialogue, so that it will help to build consensus and commitment when resolving conflicts.
Accommodate avoids the areas of difference, so it often does not prevent the same conflicts from occurring again.
Similarly, the compromise technique only temporarily or partially resolves the conflicts while force or direct method offer
only winlose solutions that do not satisfy all parties.
A Accommodate
Incorrect. Accommodate is a technique of resolving conflicts that focus on areas of agreement to maintain harmony in
project team, but it does not resolve problem so it does not help to create the consensus and commitment.
B Compromise
Incorrect. Compromise only partially resolves the conflict by searching a solution that brings some degree of
satisfaction to all participants. It does not often lead to consensus.
C Collaborate
Correct. Collaborate is a technique used to resolve conflicts by incorporating different viewpoints, so this technique
could help to reach consensus of all parties.
D Force
Incorrect. Force is a technique that offers only winlose solution, so it does not help to reach the commitment of all
parties.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
During the past few weeks, there have been many changes to the project deliverables and the project manager is not sure
which changes add real business value. Which of the following she could use to find out?
A Change log
B Requirements log
C Requirements traceability matrix
D Business case
Hint:
Think of the item that links requirements with business and project objectives.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide: "The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their
origin to the deliverables that satisfy them. The implementation of a requirements traceability matrix helps ensure that
each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives. It provides a means to track
requirements throughout the project life cycle, helping to ensure that requirements approved in the requirements
documentation are delivered at the end of the project. Finally, it provides a structure for managing changes to the product
scope."
A Change log
Incorrect. The change log is a comprehensive list of changes made during the project.
B Requirements log
Incorrect. The requirements log is not a valid entity within the PMBOK.
C Requirements traceability matrix
Correct. The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them.
D Business case
Incorrect. The business case is a documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits of a
selected component.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
In which process are the information needs of the project stakeholders identified and analyzed?
A Collect Requirements
B Plan Communications Management
D Identify Stakeholders
Hint:
Notice that the information needs of stakeholders is an important part of the communication requirements.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
During the Plan Communications Management process, the communication requirements, including the information
needs, will be identified and analyzed by the communication requirements analysis technique. These requirements may
be used as an input for the Collect Requirements and Plan Stakeholder Management processes. While the Identify
Stakeholders process provides an input of the stakeholder register for the Plan Communications Management process.
A Collect Requirements
Incorrect. Stakeholder communication requirements serve as an input to the Collect Requirements process.
B Plan Communications Management
Correct. The Plan Communications Management process often needs to use the communication requirements analysis
to determine the information needs of stakeholders.
Incorrect. The Plan Stakeholder Management process focuses on identifying an appropriate approach to manage
stakeholders, not in identifying and analyzing their information needs.
D Identify Stakeholders
Incorrect. The Identify Stakeholders process is mainly about identifying stakeholders and analyzing their impacts,
powers and interests to the project. Therefore, it does not focus on identifying the information needs of stakeholders.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What is the purpose of prioritizing stakeholders?
A To ensure that effort should only be spent on the stakeholders with positive impacts.
B To ensure the efficient use of effort for managing the identified stakeholders
C To ensure that only important stakeholders are kept informed.
D To identify and remove stakeholders with negative impact to the project.
Hint:
Prioritization is necessary to ensure the efficient use of limited effort.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
With limited resource and time, the project manager should consider focusing on important stakeholders to enhance their
support as well as reduce their negative impacts to the project.
A To ensure that effort should only be spent on the stakeholders with positive impacts.
Incorrect. It is recommended that the project manager should consider all stakeholders, especially negative ones who
could result to the project failure, so this choice is not the purpose of stakeholder prioritization.
B To ensure the efficient use of effort for managing the identified stakeholders
Correct. Prioritization allows project managers to spend their limited time on managing important stakeholders while
keeping monitoring others.
C To ensure that only important stakeholders are kept informed.
Incorrect. Although prioritization allows the project manager to focus on important stakeholders, it is recommended that
important stakeholders should be closely managed, not just kept informed and other stakeholders should also be
monitored.
D To identify and remove stakeholders with negative impact to the project.
Incorrect. It is not the purpose of prioritizing stakeholders to identify negative stakeholders, it focuses on the
importance of the stakeholders regardless of their negative or positive impacts.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which is true about the project management plan?
A It is usually completely specified and defined before the project starts.
B It is usually progressively elaborated by updates.
C It requires sign off by the stakeholders.
D It requires consensus among the stakeholders.
Hint:
Think of how the project management plan is developed.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
As stated in the PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, "The project management plan's content varies depending upon the
application area and complexity of the project. It is developed through a series of integrated processes extending through
project closure. This process results in a project management plan that is progressively elaborated by updates, and
controlled and approved through the Perform Integrated Change Control process."
A It is usually completely specified and defined before the project starts.
Incorrect. This is not always true. The executing phase may start before the project management plan is completely
defined, for example using the rolling wave planning technique, in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is
planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level.
B It is usually progressively elaborated by updates.
Correct. The project management plan is most commonly developed through a series of integrated processes extending
through project closure.
C It requires sign off by the stakeholders.
Incorrect. The stakeholders don't need to sign off the project plan.
D It requires consensus among the stakeholders.
Incorrect. This is not always true. Though some stakeholders may not agree with some details on the project plan, the
project manager may decide to move ahead despite their disagreement.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following documents list resources required, constraints and assumptions, person or group responsible for
executing the work?
A WBS and activity list
B Code of accounts and accounts list
C WBS Dictionary and activity attributes
D Milestone list and milestone schedule
Hint:
Which of the choices contain details about individual activities or work packages?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The resources required to accomplish the task or activity, constraints and assumptions, and the person or group
responsible for executing the work are both listed in the WBS dictionary and activity attributes.
A WBS and activity list
Incorrect. Neither the WBS or the activity list specifies required resources, constraints and assumptions or the person
or group responsible for executing the work
B Code of accounts and accounts list
Incorrect. The code of accounts is a numbering system used to uniquely identify each come opponents of the work
breakdown structure (WBS). Accounts list does not exist
C WBS Dictionary and activity attributes
Correct. Both the WBS dictionary and the activity attributes contain details about resources required constraints and
assumptions and the person or group responsible for executing the work.
D Milestone list and milestone schedule
Incorrect. The milestone list is a list identifying all project milestones and normally indicates whether the milestone is
mandatory or optional
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, pages, 132, 153

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is not an example of a ground rule?
A Treating other team member's with respect.
B All meetings should begin and end on time.
C Using unique and obscure acronyms.
D In meetings, minimize side conversations and interruptions.
Hint:
Which one does not belong?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Ground rules are set and enforced by team members. Ground rules define expectations regarding acceptable behaviors
by project team members. All choices are examples of ground rules except using unique and obscure acronyms. A more
likely ground rule is to avoid using such acronyms, which other team members and stakeholders will not understand or be
familiar with.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following best describes the relationship among Project Management, Portfolio Management, and Program
Management?
A Portfolios have an organizational scope that does not change with the strategic objectives of the
organization, while the scope of a program has to adjust to ever changing organizational objectives.
B Portfolio, program, and project management are aligned with organizational strategies.
C The projects and programs under a portfolio have to be directly related.
D Portfolio managers and program managers do not need to have detailed plans.
Hint:
Programs, portfolios, and projects may differ in how they contribute to overall organizational goals.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Programs, portfolios, and projects may differ in how they contribute to overall organizational goals, but in the end, they
should align with the organizational strategies and objectives.
A
Portfolios have an organizational scope that does not change with the strategic objectives of the organization, while
the scope of a program has to adjust to ever changing organizational objectives.
Incorrect. Portfolios have a scope that changes with the strategic objectives of the organization.
B Portfolio, program, and project management are aligned with organizational strategies.
Correct. All of three forms of management have to be aligned with organizational strategies.
C The projects and programs under a portfolio have to be directly related.
Incorrect. Projects and programs under a portfolio may not necessarily be directly related or interdependent.
D Portfolio managers and program managers do not need to have detailed plans.
Incorrect. Both high level and detailed plans are required for projects, portfolios, and programs.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Risk priority is often set based on the following criteria except:
A Probability of occurrence
B Impact
C Risk category
D Urgency
Hint:
Risk category is to group risks for management purpose, not to reflect the risk characteristics.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to effectively deal with project risks, risks should be prioritized for further quantitative analysis and planning risk
response based on their risk rating. Ratings are often defined based on the risk's probability of occurrence and impact. In
some cases, the risk rating is combined with the assessment of risk urgency to give a final risk severity rating. While risk
category is often used to categorize risks by sources of risk, causes of risks or work types for effective risk responses.
A Probability of occurrence
Incorrect. The probability of occurrence is the likelihood that each specific risk will occur. Risks with high probability
often have high priority although these risks should still be assessed together with other criteria to better reflect its
importance.
B Impact
Incorrect. Impact is a criteria often used with the probability to prioritize project risks for further actions or analysis.
Impact assessment identifies the potential effect on project objectives such as schedule, cost, quality, etc.
C Risk category
Correct. Risks may be categorized based on sources of risks, causes of risks, etc. to determine which areas of the
project most exposed to the uncertainties and support effective risk responses. Risk categorization often has no
relationship with risk priority.
D Urgency
Incorrect. In addition to risk probability and impact, the project may conduct a risk urgency assessment in order to
prioritize risks and consider how urgently risks need to be addressed.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What output of Perform Integrated Change Control process serves as the input for both the Control Quality and Control
Procurements processes?
A Approved change requests
B Change log
C Project management plan updates
D Project documents updates
Hint:
Think of how modifications to certain documents affects the Control Quality and Control Procurements
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
If approved change requests have to do with changes to contracts or the procurement statement of work including
changes to price, delivery schedule, this affects the Control Procurements process. If the approved change requests
have to do with defect repairs, revised work methods and revised schedule, this affects the Control Quality process.
A Approved change requests
Correct. Certain approved change requests could affect Control Quality, others might affect Control Procurements.
B Change log
Incorrect. The change log could include both approved and unapproved changes.
C Project management plan updates
Incorrect. Project management plan updates are outputs (not inputs) to the Control Quality and Control Procurement
processes.
D Project documents updates
Incorrect. Project documents updates are outputs (not inputs) to the Control Quality and Control Procurement
processes.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following processes helps to determine which project documents will be subject to the formal change control
process?
B Develop Project Charter
C Monitor and Control Project Work
Hint:
Such decisions should be made in project planning.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Develop Project Management Plan is a process of defining and integrating all subsidiary plans into a comprehensive
project management plan. This plan should also define the change management plan, which describes how changes will
be controlled and managed throughout the project lifecycle. Thus, the Develop Project Management plan process may
include determining which project documents will be subject to the formal change control process. Develop Project
Charter does not define such detailed information while other processes are in the monitoring and controlling process
group.
Incorrect. Perform Integrated Change Control is a process of reviewing and approving change requests. It should follow
the change management plan, which describes how change requests will be managed, which level of changes should
be formally approved and by whom. The change management plan is created in project planning.
B Develop Project Charter
Incorrect. The purpose of the Develop Project Charter is to develop a document that formally authorizes a project and
provides the project manager the authority to start managing the project. This process does not mention project
document management in detail.
C Monitor and Control Project Work
Incorrect. Monitor and Control Project Work is about tracking, analyzing and reporting the project's progress, it is not to
determine how to control changes to deliverables and project documents.
Correct. The project management plan should include the configuration management plan, which defines the subject of
the formal change control process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following can be considered a project constraint when acquiring your project team?
A Project team members are preassigned.
B Many in the organization possess the skills, competencies, and experience required for the project.
C All the team members you hired are bilingual and are fluent in both English and Spanish since you plan to
work with contractors from both the US and Mexico.
D Your project sponsor let you know that since this project is critical, you could pick who you wanted to be
involved from each department of the organization.
Hint:
Which one of these options can limit the project?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Preassignment can prove to your advantage as resources are already lined up. However, that also serves as a
constraint, if you later come across a more capable or person better fit for the role, you may not be able to replace team
members who have already been preassigned. All the other options provide you more flexibility and are not examples of
constraints.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
A study of the US nonalcoholic beverage market was used in the business case for Alyssa's project to launch a new
flavored water brand. Understanding the conditions of that market segment will affect not only the decision whether or not
to launch the new product, but also the strategy and implementation of the launch. Marketplace conditions is just one
example of considerations that influence, constrain, or direct a project towards a particular course. Such considerations
are also known as which of the following?
A Organizational Process Assets
B Competition
C Enterprise Environmental Factors
D Expert Judgment
Hint:
In other words, market place conditions is an example of _______.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Enterprise environmental factors are conditions that influence , constrain or direct a project. The project team has not
immediate control over such factors. These factors include the market place conditions, e.g. consumer demand for the
potential new product, level of competition in this market, etc.
A Organizational Process Assets
Incorrect. Organizational Process Assets relate more to the knowledge bases, and policies and procedures of the
organization.
B Competition
Incorrect. Competition may be part of marketplace conditions, but the question is not looking for examples of market
place conditions.
C Enterprise Environmental Factors
Correct. 'Market place conditions' is an example of Enterprise Environmental Factors
D Expert Judgment
Incorrect. Expert judgment may be used to assess market conditions, but market place conditions is not an example of
expert judgment.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following has the key benefit of bringing objectivity to the acceptance process and increases the chance of
final product, service, or result acceptance by validating each deliverable?
A Validate Scope
B Work breakdown structure
C Planning Process Group
Hint:
Think about client approval.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The Validate Scope process as described in the PMBOK Guide is "the process of formalizing acceptance of the
completed project deliverables. … it brings objectivity to the acceptance process and increases the chance of final
product, service, or result acceptance by validating each deliverable."
A Validate Scope
Correct. The Validate Scope process brings objectivity to the acceptance process and increases the chance of final
product, service, or result acceptance by validating each deliverable.
B Work breakdown structure
Incorrect. A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out
by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
C Planning Process Group
Incorrect. The Planning Process Group's key benefit is to delineate the strategy and tactics as well as the course of
action or path to successfully complete the project or phase.
Incorrect. The Monitor and Control Project Work has the key benefit of allowing stakeholders to understand the current
state of the project, the steps taken, and budget, schedule, and scope forecasts.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
You are the project manager on a project to develop a new customer service system for a major manufacturer of medical
devices. You and your team have just concluded a meeting whose outcomes included establishing goals, defining and
negotiating roles and responsibilities, and defining procedures and processes. What project management interpersonal
skill was practiced during this meeting?
A Team Building
B Decision Making
C Negotiation
D Communication
Hint:
Negotiation is only one part of this important interpersonal skill.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Team building is the process of helping a group of individuals, bound by a common purpose, to work with each other, the
leader, external stakeholders, and the organization. The result of good leadership and good team building is teamwork.
Teambuilding activities consist of tasks (establish goals, define, and negotiate roles, responsibilities, and procedures)
and processes (interpersonal behavior with emphasis on communication, conflict management, motivation, and
leadership).
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
In what process group does one define the course of action required to reach project objectives?
A Initiating
B Planning
C Executing
D Monitoring and Controlling
Hint:
Think of the word 'define'.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Planning process group consists of processes for defining the course of action required to reach project objectives. It
also is used to establish the total scope of effort and to refine or define the project objectives. Defining the course of
action is key here, as you do not do that in initiating, where the focus is establishing the new project. Nor do you define
the course of action at executing, where you are following the course of action you set out to do in planning. Monitoring
and Controlling is where you verify how you are doing relative to what you have planned and perhaps even revisit if you
should continue your current course of action.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following processes needs to use the WBS?
A Control Risks
B Plan Risk Management
C Identify Risks
D Plan Risk Responses
Hint:
Think of the definition of each process.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The WBS is a part of the scope baseline, which is considered a critical input for the Identify Risks process as it provides
a basis for identifying risks by reviewing through each level of the WBS. Risks are often attached to each component of
project scope, from control account level to work package level. Other processes do not need to use the WBS as the
input.
A Control Risks
Incorrect. The Control Risks process focuses on implementing risk responses, monitoring risks and evaluating risk
processes. The WBS is not really useful in these activities, so it not often used in the Control Risks process.
B Plan Risk Management
Incorrect. The Plan Risk Management is about defining the plan of how to conduct risk management activities, it is not
necessary to use the WBS to develop such plan.
C Identify Risks
Correct. The WBS provides a whole picture of project works at both micro and macro levels. It could help to identify
risks by reviewing through all control accounts and work packages. Therefore, the Identify Risks process often needs to
use WBS.
D Plan Risk Responses
Incorrect. The Plan Risk Response process is to plan on how to address project risks based on their priority. It does not
necessary to use the WBS in this process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the statements is false about the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)?
A The RAM illustrates the connection between team members and activities.
B The RAM illustrates the connection between work packages and project team members.
C In a RAM, there is only one person accountable for one task.
D RAM is created as the result of the Plan Human Resource Management process.
Hint:
Remember that RAM is a technique.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is a technique used to assign project resources to each component of the
project. The RAM can be developed at different levels. A highlevel RAM could be used to link team members to project
components while a lower level RAM could illustrate the relationship between team members and specific activities. In a
RAM, there should be only one resource accountable for a task to avoid confusion in the responsibility. The RAM is a
technique, so it is not an output of the Plan Human Resource Management process.
A The RAM illustrates the connection between team members and activities.
True. The RAM could be developed at different levels of WBS. When RAM is created to a very granular level, it can be
used to show the link between team members and specific activities.
B The RAM illustrates the connection between work packages and project team members.
True. RAM could be developed at different levels of WBS. A highlevel RAM could be used to show the connection
between team members and work packages.
C In a RAM, there is only one person accountable for one task.
True. RAM helps to ensure that there is only one resource accountable to any one task to avoid confusion of
responsibility.
D RAM is created as the result of the Plan Human Resource Management process.
False. RAM is a technique used in the Plan Human Resource Management process to show the resource assigned to
each work package. It is not created as the output of the Plan Human Resource Management process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
What is the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of any successor
activity or violating a schedule constraint?
A Duration
B Total float
C Free float
D Effort
Hint:
This time is also referred to as slack.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Free float is the amount of time the schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of any successor
activity or violating a schedule constraint.
A Duration
Incorrect. Duration is the time it takes to complete any schedule activity.
B Total float
Incorrect. Total float is the amount of time the schedule activity can be delayed or extended from early start day without
delaying the projects finished day or violating a schedule constraint.
C Free float
Correct. Free float is the amount of time to schedule activity can be delayed without delaying a successor activity or
violating a schedule constraint.
D Effort
Incorrect. Effort is the number of labor units required to complete a schedule activity often expressed an hours, days, or
weeks.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Decomposition is a technique that is common to which pairs of processes?
A Create WBS and Sequence Activities
B Develop Schedule and Estimate Activity Resources
C Define Activities and Create WBS
D Define Activities and Estimate Activity Durations
Hint:
Which processes involve breaking down project work into smaller parts?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Create WBS and the Define Activities processes both require project work to be decomposed into smaller more
manageable parts. Create WBS involves breaking down all of the project work into distinct work packages while the
Define Activities process focuses on further subdividing the work packages into individual activities that are executed to
complete the work package.
A Create WBS and Sequence Activities
Incorrect. While the Create WBS process uses decomposition as a technique Sequence activities does not.
B Develop Schedule and Estimate Activity Resources
Incorrect. Neither Develop Schedule and Estimate Activity Resources processes use decomposition as a technique.
C Define Activities and Create WBS
Correct. Decomposition is a technique that is commonly used in both Define Activities and Create WBS processes.
D Define Activities and Estimate Activity Durations
Incorrect. While the Define Activities process uses decomposition as a technique, Estimate Activity Durations does
not.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
The project manager gathers an external expert group to help the team analyze the information needed to decompose the
project deliverables. Which of the following is not an expected output from this activity?
A Backlog
C WBS dictionary
D WBS
Hint:
Think of which item does not belong to the scope baseline.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The scope baseline is the most relevant output from this activity, which contains the approved version of the scope
statement, the work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary. The project manager is using expert
judgment as a technique during the 'Create WBS' process.
A Backlog
Correct. The backlog is a listing of product requirements and deliverables to be completed, written as stories, and
prioritized by the business to manage and organize the project's work.
Incorrect. The project scope statement is a component of the scope baseline, which is the most relevant output from
this meeting.
C WBS dictionary
Incorrect. The WBS dictionary is a component of the scope baseline, which is the most relevant output from this
meeting.
D WBS
Incorrect. The WBS is a component of the scope baseline, which is the most relevant output from this meeting.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is included in the project scope statement?
A WBS
B WBS and WBS dictionary
C Assumptions
D Requirements traceability matrix
Hint:
Which process helps to create the project scope statement?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The project scope statement is created through the Define Scope process. The project scope statement describes the
project scope, deliverables, assumptions, and constraints. It is used as an input to develop WBS and WBS dictionary.
While the requirement traceability matrix is developed in the Collect Requirements process and not part of the project
scope statement.
A WBS
Incorrect. The project scope statement is often used to develop the WBS through the Create WBS process. So, the
WBS is not a part of the project scope statement.
B WBS and WBS dictionary
Incorrect. WBS and WBS dictionary are expected to be created during the Create WBS process, which uses the project
scope statement as its primary input. Therefore, they are not included in the project scope statement.
C Assumptions
Correct. The project scope statement includes the project scope, major deliverables with assumptions and constraints.
D Requirements traceability matrix
Incorrect. The requirements traceability matrix is a document used to track the requirements with its corresponding
work products during the project lifecycle. The RTM is created through the Collect Requirements process, while the
project scope statement is created in the Define Scope process.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following activities are not involved in monitoring and controlling the schedule?
A Reviewing current work performance data
B Performing trends analysis of project performance data
C Using modeling techniques to better optimize the schedule
D Estimating activity durations
Hint:
Which one of these is considered a planning activity?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Reviewing current work performance data, performing trend analysis, and using modeling techniques to better optimize
the schedule are all involved in monitoring and controlling the project schedule. Estimating activity durations is a planning
activity that is not involved in monitoring project performance with respect to schedule performance or controlling the
project schedule.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page ,153

CAPM Exam 1
All of the following are outputs of one or more processes of the Executing Process Group that is then used by processes
in the Monitoring and Controlling Process group except for?
A Performance reports
B Quality control measurements
C Makeorbuydecisions
D Approved change requests
Hint:
Think of purpose of each of the choices, which ones would your use for Monitoring and Controlling?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Performance reports, quality control measurements, and approved change requests are created when you execute the
project. They are then used in order to Monitor and Control the project, whereas makeorbuydecisions arise from
planning and are used when you execute the project.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following is not true regarding the schedule baseline?
A The schedule baseline can only be changed through formal change control procedures.
B Contingency reserves are a part of the schedule baseline.
C A schedule baseline is used to determine if variances have occurred.
D Management reserves are added to the schedule baseline to account for "unknownunknowns".
Hint:
The schedule baseline does not take this into account.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Management reserve is an amount of time or duration set aside to account for unforeseen work that may arise that is
within the scope of the project. Management reserves are not included in the schedule baseline. For management
reserves to be added to the schedule baseline, approval of management would be required.
A The schedule baseline can only be changed through formal change control procedures.
True. The schedule baseline is the approved version of the schedule model that can only be changed through formal
change control procedures.
B Contingency reserves are a part of the schedule baseline.
True. Contingency reserves are included in the schedule baseline to account for known unknowns. As the project
progresses, they may be removed from the schedule baseline if deemed unnecessary.
C A schedule baseline is used to determine if variances have occurred.
True. The schedule baseline is used during monitoring and controlling to determine if schedule variances have occurred.
D Management reserves are added to the schedule baseline to account for "unknownunknowns".
False. While management reserves are used to account for unforeseen work, they are not considered part of the
schedule baseline.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Amanda is a project manager who is trying to get new team members for her team. Which of the following would not help
her to acquire a new team?
A Developing a scoring method based on team member cost, experience, availability and ability.
B Forming teams with employees who work from home offices.
C Using resources as listed as part of the project charter.
D Poaching team members from your functional manager who were preassigned to other teams.
Hint:
Look for what tools and techniques each choice corresponds to (if any).
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Acquire Project Team process, a project manager is free to use tools such as multicriteria decision analysis,
virtual teams, preassignment and negotiation. However, in doing so, the project manager should be honest and fair and
comply with the standard of behavior set forth in the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Behavior. Poaching team
members from functional managers who were preassigned to other teams is not ethical behavior.
A Developing a scoring method based on team member cost, experience, availability and ability.
Incorrect. This method refers to multicriteria decision analysis, which is a tool commonly used in the Acquire Project
Team process.
B Forming teams with employees who work from home offices.
Incorrect. A team utilizing team members who work from home is an example of a virtual team, also often used to
acquire a project team.
C Using resources as listed as part of the project charter.
Incorrect. Preassignment is where resources may be defined as early as when the project is formed as is documented
in the project charter.
D Poaching team members from your functional manager who were preassigned to other teams.
Correct. The term poaching implies that there is an element of stealth and dishonesty in the way you acquire the
resources. A project manager must be honest and fair in how they acquire project resources as per the PMI Code of
Ethics and Professional Behavior.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, page 270 271

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following statements is true?
A Processes are not iterative.
B Processes can overlap.
C Processes do not overlap, so a process has to complete before another process can begin.
D Processes cannot have interknowledge area relationships.
Hint:
Think about how processes under Project Integration Management interrelates with other processes and knowledge
areas.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Processes can overlap. They are iterative. Processes are highly interactive and data can flow within as well as outside of
a knowledge area. Just think about Project Integration Management and how it interacts with other processes.
A Processes are not iterative.
False. Processes are very interactive both within a knowledge area and across knowledge areas.
B Processes can overlap.
True. Processes can overlap, so although the diagrams on the PMBOK Guide show discrete elements, in practical
application, it could be the case that you are starting a process without all the inputs completed.
C Processes do not overlap, so a process has to complete before another process can begin.
False. As explained for the correct answer, processes may overlap. For example, process xyz could have a
dependency on another process abc, where you may not have necessarily completed a process abc and all its outputs,
but this might not stop you for starting process xyz.
D Processes cannot have interknowledge area relationships.
False. Many processes are highly interactive and interrelate even outside a knowledge area.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following techniques commonly uses triangular and beta distribution to calculate or estimate activity
durations?
A Analogous estimating
B Parametric estimating
C Expert judgment
D Threepoint estimating
Hint:
Triangular distribution has how many points?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Threepoint estimation commonly uses both triangular distribution and beta distribution to minimize uncertainty when
deriving an estimate for the duration of an activity.
A Analogous estimating
Incorrect. Analogous estimating is a technique for estimating the duration or cost of an activity by using historical data
from a similar activity or project. It is using comparison to roughly estimate duration as opposed to formulas like
triangular or beta distributions.
B Parametric estimating
Incorrect. Like analogous estimating parametric estimation relies on historical data and uses an algorithm to estimate
costs. For instance, using square footage of prior construction project activities to estimate the cost of a similar activity
based on the square footage of that activity.
C Expert judgment
Incorrect. Expert judgment when used to estimate activity durations takes into account historical information and expert
knowledge to determine the recommended maximum duration of any activity.
D Threepoint estimating
Correct. Threepoint estimation uses estimate such as most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic, in formulas such as the
triangular distribution or beta distribution to determine the expected duration of an activity.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
In risk management, which of the following is the purpose of the variance and trend analysis technique?
A To understand how variations in project objectives affect uncertain elements and vice versa.
B To investigate the likelihood that a risk will occur.
C To determine if the remaining reserve is adequate.
D To indicate the potential impact of new threats or opportunities
Hint:
Remember the purpose of variance and trend analysis technique.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Variance and trend analysis is used in the Control Risks process to compare the actual results against the planned
results to identify the deviation from the baseline, which may indicate new risks (or opportunities) to the project. This
technique is not useful in assessing the potential impact and probability of risk occurrence. The remaining reserve should
be assessed by using reserve analysis technique, not by the variance and trend analysis.
A To understand how variations in project objectives affect uncertain elements and vice versa.
Incorrect. It is the sensitivity analysis that helps to examine the extent to which each risk affects the project objective.
It examines how project objectives correlate with uncertain elements (and vice versa, how uncertain elements affect
project objectives). While variance and trend analysis focuses on identifying the gap between the actual performance
with the plan, it is not useful to assess the potential impact of risks on the project.
B To investigate the likelihood that a risk will occur.
Incorrect. Variance analysis is to compare the actual result to the plan and may be used to identify risks. However, this
technique does not help to estimate the probability of risk occurrence.
C To determine if the remaining reserve is adequate.
Incorrect. The reserve analysis is a technique used in the Control Risks process to determine whether the remaining
reserve is adequate by comparing the reserve remaining to the risk remaining. Therefore, the stated description is not
the purpose of the variance and trend analysis technique.
D To indicate the potential impact of new threats or opportunities
Correct. Variance analysis is used to identify if there is any deviation from the project plan. Deviation from the baseline
plan may indicate the potential impact of threats (risks) or opportunities.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following activities is not included in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A Defining the roles and responsibilities of the change control board
B Hold a change control meeting to review and make decision of change requests
C Communicate the decisions made of changes
D Perform configuration verification and audit
Hint:
Change control board, if required, should be established with clearly roles and responsibility in the change management
plan during the project planning.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Perform Integrated Change Control is to review, approve, and manage changes to deliverables and all project documents;
and to communicate their disposition. Therefore, it includes conducting change control meetings, communicating the
change meeting result, as well as performing configuration management activities such as configuration verification,
audit, and accounting. Defining the roles and responsibilities of the change control board should be done in project
planning, not in the Perform Integrated Change Control process.
A Defining the roles and responsibilities of the change control board
Correct. If a project requires a change control board to control changes in project, when developing the change
management plan, a clear description of participants, roles and responsibilities are delineated in the change
management plan.
B Hold a change control meeting to review and make decision of change requests
Incorrect. In the Perform Integrated Change Control process, change control meetings may be hold by the change
control board to review and approve or reject change requests.
C Communicate the decisions made of changes
Incorrect. The decisions of change requests made in a change control meeting will be communicated and confirmed
with relevant stakeholders to ensure it satisfies their expectations as well as will be implemented by the project team.
D Perform configuration verification and audit
Incorrect. Configuration verification and audit is a part of Perform Integrated Change Control to ensure the project’s
configuration items are correct, and corresponding changes are registered and correctly implemented.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
All of the following documents may be used in developing the quality management plan except for:
A Risk register
B Requirements documentation
C Process improvement plan
Hint:
Remember that the process improvement plan is created in the Plan Quality Management process.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The project management plan and requirements documentation are primary inputs of the Plan Quality Management
process as they provide information of the project requirements with the acceptance criteria, so the team could define
how to plan for the quality activities to ensure these requirements will be met. While the risk register may be used to
identify if there is any threat that may impact the quality requirements. As the process improvement is a part of the
quality activities, the process improvement plan is often created when developing the quality management plan.
A Risk register
Incorrect. The risk register contains information of risks that may affect the quality requirements.
B Requirements documentation
Incorrect. The requirements documentation includes the project and product requirements upon which the project team
will plan how to conduct quality control for the project.
C Process improvement plan
Correct. The process improvement plan is often developed along with the quality management plan in the Plan Quality
Management process. This plan describes steps for analyzing processes to identify the improvement opportunities.
Incorrect. The project management plan provides important information that is necessary for developing the quality
management plan such as scope baseline, schedule baseline, cost baseline, etc.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
All of the following activities are included in Monitor and Control Project Work except:
A Identifying new risks
B Managing risks and implementing risk response activities
C Tracking and monitoring existing risks
D Providing information for making reports
Hint:
Monitor and Control Project Work is all about monitoring and controlling, it does not include implementing project
activities.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Managing risks and implementing risk response plan should be done in the executing process group, so it is not included
in the Monitor and Control Project Work process. Monitor and Control Project Work is the process of tracking and
reporting the progress against the project management plan, which may include identifying new risks, tracking current
risks as well as providing information for reporting.
A Identifying new risks
Incorrect. As the result of monitoring project work, new risks may be identified.
B Managing risks and implementing risk response activities
Correct. Managing and implementing risk response activities should be done in the Direct and Manage Project Work.
C Tracking and monitoring existing risks
Incorrect. Tracking and monitoring existing risks are part of Monitor and Control Project Work.
D Providing information for making reports
Incorrect. Monitor and Control Project Work is to track, review, and report the project performance, so this process
includes providing information to support reporting and forecasting.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following statements is not true with respect to bidder conferences?
A They are meetings between the buyers and prospective sellers.
B They are conducted after proposals have been submitted but before sellers are selected in order clarify
questions.
C Responses to questions raised during the bidder conference can be incorporated as amendments to
procurement documents.
D Bidder conferences are sometimes referred to as contractor or vendor conferences.
Hint:
When are they conducted and what is the purpose?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Bidder conferences are meetings between the buyer and all prospective sellers prior to submittal of a bid or proposal.
They are used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement
requirements.
A They are meetings between the buyers and prospective sellers.
True. They are meetings between the buyer and prospective sellers.
B They are conducted after proposals have been submitted but before sellers are selected in order clarify questions.
False. Bidder conferences are conducted prior to proposals being submitted.
C
Responses to questions raised during the bidder conference can be incorporated as amendments to procurement
documents.
True. Responses to questions can be incorporated into the procurement documents has amendments.
D Bidder conferences are sometimes referred to as contractor or vendor conferences.
True. Bidder conferences are sometimes called contractor or vendor conferences or prebid conferences.
Reference:

CAPM Exam 1
Amanda asked human resources to remove which of the following functions from a job posting for a project management
office role, as it did not fall in line with the primary functions of the PMO?
A Coordinate communication among projects
B Establish standards and process for creating, maintaining, and storing of project documentation
C Ensure specific project objectives are met
D Provide guidance on how shared resources time will be allocated across projects
Hint:
The scope of the project management office cuts across different projects
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The scope of the project management office cuts across different projects, so it has responsibilities in coordinating
communication among projects, establishing standards and process that affect projects, and in providing guidance on
shared resources amongst projects. Ensuring specific project objectives are met is an indirect responsibility of the PMO
and a direct and primary responsibility of the project manager.
Reference:
PMBOK Guide Fifth Edition, pages 11 12

CAPM Exam 1
Which of the following statements is true about the Plan Stakeholder Management process?
A The Plan Stakeholder Management process is an iterative process.
B The Plan Stakeholder Management process generates the stakeholder register.
C The Plan Stakeholder Management process is where you identify potential stakeholders and their
impacts, powers, and interests on the project.
D The Plan Stakeholder Management process requires project managers to apply the communication and
interpersonal skills.
Hint:
Remember that planning is an iterative process.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
As the project progresses, the stakeholder list and their required engagement may change, the stakeholder management
plan should be regularly reviewed, therefore, the Plan Stakeholder Management process is considered to be iterative.
A The Plan Stakeholder Management process is an iterative process.
True. As project progresses, new stakeholders may appear and current stakeholder impacts, interest and power may
change, therefore, the stakeholder management plan needs to be regularly reviewed and revised to ensure appropriate
strategies are chosen for managing stakeholders. Thus, this process is an iterative process.
B The Plan Stakeholder Management process generates the stakeholder register.
False. The stakeholder register is created through the Identify Stakeholders process and used as an input to develop
the stakeholder management plan.
C
The Plan Stakeholder Management process is where you identify potential stakeholders and their impacts, powers,
and interests on the project.
False. The process of identifying potential stakeholders with relevant information is Identify Stakeholders, not Plan
Stakeholder Management.
D
The Plan Stakeholder Management process requires project managers to apply the communication and interpersonal
skills.
False. Although communication and interpersonal skills of a project manager could be used in all activities of the
project, they are not really important in planning for stakeholder management.
Reference:
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