Hpat Ireland Additional Practice Questions PDF

HPAT – ireland
Health Professions Admission Test – Ireland
Additional Practice Questions
Australian Council for Educational Research

Copyright © 2013 Australian Council for Educational Research
INTRODUCTION
HPAT – Ireland is a test of general reasoning ability and is designed to provide a measure of your aptitude for the
study of medicine and the health professions.
The purpose of HPAT – Ireland is to assess the general skills and abilities developed over the course of your
education and life experience that are considered by the universities to be important to the study and practice
of medicine and the health sciences. To operate most effectively in these career areas graduates will need to be
flexible; to have good thinking skills (critical and analytical); to be able to respond quickly to new situations
and problems; and to have a well developed ability to understand and respond to patients’ needs and individual
situations. For these reasons HPAT – Ireland has been developed as a test that is not based on learned academic
curriculum or study of particular subjects, but as a test of your response to stimuli that will not necessarily be
familiar. HPAT – Ireland is designed to complement academic achievement and to give universities a more rounded
picture of applicants to assist them in selection decisions.
HPAT – Ireland is not based on any curriculum or subject areas; therefore you do not need any special knowledge.
Intensive preparation is not advisable or necessary, although wide and critical reading may provide helpful
preparation for Sections 1 and 2. However, as with any test, some practice in answering questions of a similar type,
and under similar time constraints as those found in the real test, is helpful and reassuring to most candidates. It is
also helpful to practise using a machine-readable answer sheet similar to the one in the actual test.
ii
STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

stefagiot_syros@hotmail.com
STRUCTURE AND CONTENT OF HPAT – IRELAND
HPAT – Ireland is divided into three separately timed Sections designed to measure ability in the following areas:
Section 1 – Logical Reasoning and Problem Solving

Questions in this Section are based on a brief text or piece of information presented graphically. For each question
you are to decide which of the options given is the correct answer, based only on the information given. The
questions assess your ability to comprehend, draw logical conclusions, reach solutions by identifying relevant
facts, evaluate information, pinpoint additional or missing information, and generate and test plausible hypotheses.
In the test there are 44 questions to be answered in 65 minutes.
Section 2 – Interpersonal Understanding

Questions in this section assess the ability to understand and think about people. Questions are based on a scenario,
dialogue or other text representing specific interpersonal situations. The questions assess your ability to identify,
understand, and, where necessary, infer the thoughts, feelings, behaviour and/or intentions of the people represented
in the situations. In the test there are 36 questions to be answered in 45 minutes.
Section 3 – Non-verbal Reasoning

Questions in this Section may be of several kinds. All are based on patterns or sequences of shapes and are
designed to assess your ability to reason in the abstract and solve problems in non-verbal contexts. In the test there
are 30 questions to be answered in 40 minutes.
All HPAT – Ireland questions are in multiple choice format with four or five possible responses, from which
candidates are asked to select the most appropriate response. There is only one correct response.
iii

GENERAL ADVICE ON TAKING HPAT – IRELAND
In addition to gaining familiarity with actual HPAT – Ireland questions, working through the HPAT – Ireland
practice materials will help you in building your general test-taking skills. It will help you to:
• build a positive attitude

• be prepared and confident
• use your time wisely
• develop your test-taking strategies
• apply strategies for answering multiple-choice questions
• check your answers
Before the test day
Build a positive attitude

Part of your preparation for HPAT – Ireland is to develop a confident attitude. This will also help you in controlling
any pre-test nerves and give you the best chance of doing well.
Focus on positive thoughts about the test, not negative ones. Be aware that although the topic or subject matter
may be new to you, the questions will not depend on any knowledge of the particular subject matter or information
provided in the stimulus material. HPAT – Ireland questions are designed to assess your ability to respond to new
and unknown situations and problems, and to use the skills you have built up over the whole span of your life
and education. You should keep in mind that questions are not based on any particular subject knowledge that
you might bring to the test. Questions are based solely on the information contained in the stimulus material, and
success depends on your ability to use your skills of reasoning and problem solving to reach a solution. So, even
if the topic of a question is new to you, this should not affect your ability to apply your general skills to find the
answer.
Be prepared
There are two key aspects to being prepared:
1 Find out in advance as much as possible about the test.
Most importantly, you should read the HPAT – Ireland booklet thoroughly and consult the HPAT – Ireland webpage
at http://www.hpat-ireland.acer.edu.au as they contain all the essential information you need to take the test as well
as updates and answers to frequently asked questions.
You should know:
• how long the test takes (how much time allowed for each Section);
• the rules you will be expected to follow during the test; and
• the type and number of questions in each Section.
2 Make sure you know the practical details.
You should know:
• when you will receive your Admission Ticket;

• your test centre address and reporting time allowed (on the Admission Ticket);
• documents you must take with you on the day;
• equipment you will need for the test (pencils and eraser);
• items you are prohibited from taking into the test; and
• how to complete your answer sheet and mark your answers.
All this information can be found on the HPAT – Ireland website.
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On the day of the test
Allow yourself plenty of time to get to the test centre. This is particularly important if you are taking the test in one
of the major cities which attract large numbers of candidates. Traffic congestion is likely around the entrance to the
test centre. Avoid arriving at the test centre feeling flustered or anxious.
Do not forget to eat breakfast and, depending on the reporting time at your designated centre, you may wish to eat
a small snack before you go into the test room. You will not be allowed to take any food or drink, other than bottled
water, into the test room.
Remember that the test will take 2½ hours, plus time for all candidates to be seated and instructions to be read.
You should expect to be at the test centre for 4 to 4½ hours in total.
Once you are seated in the test room:
Use your time wisely
• Take a moment to settle in and focus on the task ahead; use the waiting time to consciously relax.
• Listen carefully to instructions given by the test supervisor.
• Read the written instructions on the front cover of your test book.
• Take note of the finishing time of each test Section as it is announced. Finishing times will be written up on the
whiteboard at the front of the room. (Remember that each Section is separately timed and you are not allowed to
move to another Section until instructed to do so.)
Apply your test-taking strategies
• Once you have been told to begin work on a Section, scan through the whole Section first to familiarise yourself
with the kinds and number of questions.
• Note where on the answer sheet you must record your answers to the questions in this Section.
• W
hen you are ready to begin, read each piece of stimulus material and its related question/s carefully before
selecting your preferred answer. Be aware that there is only one correct response to each question.
• You may find it helpful to underline key information on the test book.
• S
tart from the beginning, but do not spend too much time on any question you are finding difficult. You may
choose to skip such questions and come back to them later to reconsider. If you decide to skip a question, it
would be a good idea to mark it in the test book so you can check it later. (Do not put any stray marks on your
machine-readable answer sheet.) If you skip a question you should also make sure all subsequent answers are
placed against the correct question number on the answer sheet.
• R
emember that if you mark two responses to any question it will be considered wrong. If you decide to change
an answer, make sure to erase it completely before filling in your new choice on the answer sheet.
• Keep track of the time and try to pace yourself evenly through the Section.
• I f possible allow a few minutes at the end of the Section to review and check over your answers.
(The supervisor will announce when there are 10 minutes remaining.)
• Answer as many questions as possible. (Remember that marks are not deducted for wrong answers.)
• N
ever mark your answers in the test book with the intention of transferring them to the answer sheet later.
Answers should be recorded directly onto the answer sheet. Transferring answers from the test book to the
answer sheet wastes time, and there is the chance of not leaving sufficient time at the end of the Section to
complete the transfer.

HPAT – IRELAND ADDITIONAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS
The HPAT – Ireland Additional Practice questions is made up of a collection of 61 questions selected to provide
examples of the kinds and style of questions you will find in the test. You are advised to allow yourself the following
times to complete each Section:
Additional Practice questions time: 85 minutes
The Additional Practice questions consist of three sections
Section 1 20 questions 30 minutes

Use the answer sheet at the end of this book and mark your answers on this as you would in the real test.
Do not look at the correct answers given on the final page until you have completed all three Sections.
When answering a question,
• read all response options carefully, even if you think you know the answer.
• eliminate responses you know are wrong.
• if none of the alternatives given seems to be correct, re-read the question and try to work out what you have
missed. There is always one correct choice.
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Section 1
Questions 1 and 2
All of the figures in the left box are tribbles, whereas all of the figures in the right box are non-tribbles.
tribbles non-tribbles
1 The examples provided suggest that all tribbles either have

A at least one straight side or contain just one small white square.
B at least one straight side or contain more than one small square.
C at least one straight side or contain more than one small white square.
D just three straight sides or contain at least one small white square.
2 Of the following, which one is least likely to be a tribble?
A C
B D
CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON →
1

Section 1
Question 3
The figure shows values obtained in a study for the mean ratio between the length of the second finger (2D) and
the fourth finger (4D) of children with autism, of parents and siblings of such children, and of various control
groups.
Father
controls
Fathers of
autistic Mother
children controls
Siblings of Mothers of
Autistic autistic autistic Non-autistic Sibling
children children children controls controls
0.95 0.96 0.97 0.98 0.99 1.00

Mean 2D:4D
3 For a given 2D length, the 4D length of siblings of autistic children is, on average,
A the same as that of sibling controls.
B greater than that of sibling controls.
C greater than that of fathers of autistic children.
D less than that of mothers of autistic children.

Section 1
Questions 4 − 6
Jess and Ibrahim use a secret code, Secritalk, to write messages to each other.
The rules are:

Rule I If a word consists of three letters or fewer, repeat it and join the two words.
Rule II If a word ends in a vowel, replace the vowel with the letters OH.
Rule III If a word starts with a consonant followed by a vowel, reverse these two and add the letters NIB at the
front.
Each of the three rules is applied to each word once only, in the order given above. If a word is altered by a rule,
then subsequent rules are applied to the altered word.
4 In Secritalk, how many of the words in the first sentence on this page (Jess and Ibrahim ...) would be
modified first by Rule I and then Rule II?
A four
B five
C six
D more than six
5 In Secritalk, the word ‘I’ becomes

A IOH.
B IOHIOH.
C II.
D IIOH.
6 If the word ‘A’ was given as ‘OHOH’, how had the rules been applied incorrectly?
A Rule I had not been applied.
B Rule II had not been applied.
C Rule II had been applied before Rule I.
D One rule had been applied twice.
3

Section 1
Questions 7 – 9
The figure shows the number of customers waiting in a queue for service, such as in a shop or bank, over a period
of time. Only one customer at a time is served. A queue comprises any customers waiting to be served as well as
the customer being served. Each arrow indicates when a new customer arrives. The circled number associated
with each arrow indciates the service time – the number of minutes taken to serve a customer once they reach the
front of the queue.
For example, at 18 minutes a customer arrives and increases the queue length from one to two. Service time for
that customer is two minutes.
• The service time for the customer arriving at 8 minutes is not shown.
• The queue length at 21 minutes has been obscured by diagonal lines.
2 3 ? 3 5 2 3 2 3 3 3
4
(number of people)
3
Queue length
0
0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32
Time (minutes)
7 The queue length at 21 minutes is

A no people.
B one person.
C two people.
D three people.
8 Suppose the service time is always four minutes and a customer arrives at 0 minutes and then every two
minutes.
At 12½ minutes, the queue length would be
A three people.
B four people.
C five people.
D six people.
9 Suppose that the customers required the service times shown in the figure but could arrive at different
intervals to those shown.
To ensure that queue length is no greater than one person, the intervals between customers should be
A a minimum of two minutes.
B a minimum of five minutes.
C a maximum of two minutes.
D a maximum of five minutes.

Section 1
Questions 10 – 12
The left and right sides of the human brain are generally specialised to process different stimuli and to do so in
different ways. Some people predominantly use their right hemisphere for information processing (RHP), others
predominantly use their left hemisphere (LHP), and some people use both hemispheres equally (EHP).
The following observations have been made:

• RHP people are more often left-handed than right-handed.
• 95% of right-handed people are LHP.
• 70% of left-handed people are LHP.
10 Which of the following most accurately represents the relationship between handedness and hemisphere
preference?
A LHP RHP C LHP RHP
right-handed right-handed
70% 5%
30% 70% left-handed

left-handed
B LHP RHP D LHP RHP
right-handed right-handed
95% 95%
30% 30%
left-handed left-handed
11 Suppose the figure at right represented data concerning

LHP RHP
handedness and hemisphere preference.
right-handed
75%
40%
left-handed
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A The figure suggests that 60% of LHP people are left-handed.
B The figure suggests that there are no equally right- and left-handed people who are RHP.
C The striped region of the figure represents people who are RHP and equally right- and left-handed.
D The striped region of the figure indicates that there are equal numbers of right-handed and left-handed
EHP people.
12 What additional information is needed to find the percentage of people who are not LHP?
A the proportions of the population who are right-handed and left-handed
B the proportions of RHP people who are right-handed and left-handed
C the proportion of right-handed people who are EHP
D None of the above would, on its own, be sufficient.
5

Section 1
Questions 13 – 16
One system used for estimating the risk of a fatal CVE (cardiovascular event, i.e. heart attack or stroke) considers
information on sex, age, total blood cholesterol, systolic blood pressure and lifestyle (smoking or non-smoking),
and gives the risk of suffering a fatal CVE within the next ten years as a percentage. A simplified version is shown
below.
(mmHg)
pressure
Blood
Women Men
Non- Non-
Smoker Smoker
smoker smoker
180 4 5 7 8 10 13 9 13 18 18 24 33
Age 60
160 3 3 5 5 7 9 6 9 12 12 17 24
140 2 2 3 3 5 6 4 6 9 8 12 17
120 1 2 2 2 3 4 3 4 6 6 8 12
180 1 1 2 2 3 4 4 5 6 7 10 14
160 1 1 1 1 2 3 2 3 5 5 7 10
Age 50
140 – 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 5 7
120 – 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 5
180 – – – – – 1 1 1 2 2 3 4
160 1 1 1 1 2 3
Age 40
– – – – – –
140 – – – – – – – 1 1 1 1 2
120 – – – – – – – 1 1 1 1 1
4 6 8 4 6 8 4 6 8 4 6 8
Total cholesterol (mmol/L)
• The dash symbol (–) in the tables indicates a risk of <1%.

• Blood pressure and total cholesterol less than those given in the tables do not offer increased benefits.
For example, a male smoker aged 40 with a total cholesterol of 8 mmol/L and blood pressure of 180 mmHg is
estimated to have a 4% chance of having a fatal CVE within the next ten years.

Section 1
13 Suppose a 60-year-old male smoker has total cholesterol of 8 mmol/L and blood pressure of 160 mmHg.
He considers the following options:
I giving up smoking
II reducing his blood pressure
III reducing his total cholesterol.
Which of I, II and III are necessary to reduce his CVE risk to less than 5%?
A I, II and III
B I and II only
C I and III only
D II and III only
14 A 50-year-old male non-smoker has blood pressure of 120 mmHg and total cholesterol of 4 mmol/L.
Which of the following, on its own, would most increase his CVE risk?
A being a smoker
B being ten years older
C having double the total cholesterol
D having blood pressure 60 mmHg higher
15 Suppose 1000 60-year-old female smokers with blood pressure of 180 mmHg and total cholesterol of
8 mmol/L gave up smoking, reduced their blood pressure by 40 mmHg and halved their total cholesterol.
Which of the following is the best estimate of the number of these women who would avoid a CVE in the
next ten years?
A 20
B 60
C 110
D 130
16 A 60-year-old man’s CVE risk

A is affected more by smoking than by blood pressure.
B is affected more by blood pressure than by total cholesterol.
C can triple if he smokes, regardless of his blood pressure.
D can triple with increasing blood pressure, but only if he smokes.
7

Section 1
Questions 17 – 20
In an investigation, pigeons were shown a sample shape. They were then shown two comparison shapes. One of
these comparison shapes was the sample shape rotated through an angle up to 180°. The other comparison shape
was a mirror image of the rotated comparison shape (i.e. the shape had been flipped horizontally). The pigeons
were trained to select the rotated comparison shape. Accuracy and reaction time were both measured. A similar
study was done with humans.
Figure 1 shows a sample shape (black), and some comparison shapes, with the correct choice being shaded in
each case. Figure 2 gives average reaction times over a number of rotation angles for two groups of pigeons, and
for a group of humans. Most answers in all groups were correct.
sample comparison comparison

shape shape shape
3.0
Reaction time (seconds) humans
0˚ 2.5
2.0
1.5
45˚ group I pigeons
1.0
0.5 group II pigeons

90˚ 0
0˚ 45˚ 90˚ 135˚ 180˚
Rotation of comparison shapes
Figure 1 Figure 2
17 The data suggest that humans

A learn to compare shapes better with practice.
B are faster at distinguishing shapes than pigeons are.
C are more accurate at distinguishing shapes than pigeons are.
D are better at comparing unrotated shapes than those that have been rotated.
18 The incorrect comparison shape in each case

A can be converted into the sample shape by rotation alone.
B is a sample shape that has been flipped and possibly rotated.
C is a sample shape that has been rotated and possibly flipped.
D cannot be converted into the sample shape by rotation and/or flipping.

Section 1
19
sample shape shape I shape II shape III
Which of shapes I, II and III could be the correct choice for the sample shape shown here?
A I only
B II only
C III only
D II and III only
20 Which one of the following is not true about the two groups of pigeons?
A The greater the rotation of comparison shapes, the slower each group was to select accurately.
B Pigeons in both groups were generally able to pick accurately between comparison shapes in less than
a second.
C Group II pigeons were generally about one-quarter to one-third of a second faster than Group I
pigeons in selecting between comparison shapes.
D A new group comprising equal numbers of pigeons from Groups I and II, would probably take an
average of about 0.85 seconds to distinguish between shapes rotated through 110°.
9

Section 2
Questions 21 – 24
Becky and Fiona are friends from university. They are in their 40s, both married with children. Their
good friend Tamara has died after a long illness and they are helping to clean out her apartment.
Becky: Let’s make a start on the clothes. 1

Fiona: I feel odd going through Tamara’s underwear. 2
Becky: Better you than that brother of hers. 3
Fiona: Glad she couldn’t hear the funeral. The family had no idea – I mean – they didn’t 4
seem to be talking about Tamara at all. It was more some kind of stuffy academic
… I wonder whether Tamara regretted not marrying?
Becky: I expect she did. I think most people really want a partner. Tamara always seemed 5
to find blokes who were already hitched.
Fiona: She was so full of energy – it must have been a really fulfilling life. She was 6
always on the go. Until she became ill, that is.
Becky: She was a bit too flamboyant to tie down. Anyway, she always seemed to have 7
someone. How about that last one with the Mercedes sports? What was his name
– Joshua – or was that one Jackson?
Fiona: Do you reckon she chose to be single? Maybe she knew that marriage wouldn’t 8
work for her?
Becky: I can’t imagine her supporting a husband with a demanding job – I mean, you 9
and I have put our careers on the back burner a bit haven’t we?
Fiona: I’m not so sure about that. And anyway, there’s other kinds of marriage – where 10
you are two compatible individuals – who respect each other’s separate interests.
Becky: But still, you have to work hard at a marriage. I can’t see Tamara doing that. 11
Fiona: Well – unfortunately we’ll never know, Beck. 12
21 Fiona speaks of Tamara in a way that most strongly suggests

A a naive dependence.
B respect and some admiration.
C a little contemptuousness and irreverence.
D pity and regret at not having been more supportive.
22 The following are comments from a website on hints for a successful marriage. Which one is closest to
Becky’s view (comments 9 and 11)?
A ‘You may have to put your partner first.’
B ‘Remember that marriage is an equal partnership.’
C ‘Your partner must be your best friend as well as your lover.’
D ‘Before you take the plunge be sure that you both love each other deeply.’
23 If asked whether Tamara’s shortened life had been a good one,

A Fiona would be more doubtful than Becky.
B Becky would be more doubtful than Fiona.
C Becky and Fiona would both agree that it was an unfortunate life.
D Becky and Fiona would both agree that Tamara made the most of her life.
24 Which comment about Tamara shows the greatest degree of possessiveness?

A comment 2
B comment 4
C comment 8
D comment 12
10

Section 2
Question 25
“To really get to know someone, you’ve got to divorce them.”
25 The man’s comment suggests that he

A is regretful that his marriage ended in divorce.
B has come to a new understanding of his ex-wife.
C has accepted that his ex-wife is a stranger to him.
D is ashamed that he didn’t get to know his ex-wife better.
11

Section 2
Questions 26 – 29
The following passage is from a novel. Paul is a sixty-year-old man whom has had a leg amputated
as the result of being hit by a car while riding a bicycle. A prosthesis is an artificial limb.
‘Today we’re going to have you walking,’ says young Dr Hansen. ‘This afternoon. Not a long walk,
just a few steps to give you the feel of it. Elaine and I will be there to lend you a hand.’ He nods to
the nurse. Nurse Elaine. ‘Elaine, can you set it up with Orthopaedics?’
‘I don’t want to walk today,’ Paul says. He is learning to talk through clenched teeth. It is not
just that the jaw is bruised, the molars on that side have been loosened too, he cannot chew. ‘I don’t 5
want to be rushed. I don’t want a prosthesis.’
‘That’s fine,’ says Dr Hansen. ‘It’s not a prosthesis we are talking about anyway, that is still
down the line, this is just rehabilitation. But we can start tomorrow or the next day. Just so you can
see it isn’t the end of the world, losing a leg.’
‘Let me say it again: I don’t want a prosthesis.’ 10
Dr Hansen and Nurse Elaine exchange glances.
‘If you don’t want a prosthesis, what would you prefer?’
‘I would prefer to take care of myself.’
‘All right, end of subject, we won’t rush you into anything, I promise. Now can I talk to you
about your leg? Can I tell you about care of the leg?’ 15
Care of my leg? He is smouldering with anger – can they not see it? You anaesthetised me
and hacked off my leg and dropped it in the refuse for someone to collect and toss into the fire.
How can you stand there talking about care of my leg?
‘We have brought the remaining muscle over the end of the bone,’ Dr Hansen is saying,
demonstrating with cupped hands how they did it, ‘and sewn it there. Once the wound heals we 20
want that muscle to form a pad over the bone. During the next few days, from the trauma and from
the bed rest, there will be a tendency to oedema and swelling. We need to do something about that.
There will be a tendency for the muscle to retract towards the hip, like this.’ He stands sideways,
pokes out his behind. ‘We counteract this by stretching. Stretching is very important. Elaine will
show you some stretching exercises and help you if you need help.’ 25
Nurse Elaine nods.
‘Who did this to me?’ Paul says. He cannot shout because he cannot open his jaws, but that
suits him, suits his teeth-grinding rage. ‘Who hit me?’ There are tears in his eyes.
12

Section 2
26 In context, Dr Hansen’s assertion that losing a leg ‘isn’t the end of the world’ (line 9)
A shows impatience.
B is an attempt to encourage optimism.
C shows that he thinks Paul is being self-indulgent.
D is meant to conceal the hopelessness of Paul’s situation.
27 In lines 19–25 Dr Hansen seems to understand Paul’s treatment principally as

A offering the patient comfort.
B motivating a lethargic patient.
C carrying out a mechanical repair.
D overcoming the patient’s stupidity.
28 When Dr Hansen and Nurse Elaine ‘exchange glances’ (line 11) it shows that they
A disagree about how to handle this situation.
B have a shared understanding of this situation.
C are experiencing this situation for the first time.
D are embarrassed by the situation they have created.
29 By the end of the passage Paul’s rage has been

A dispelled.
B trivialised.
C contained.
D redirected.
13

Section 2
Questions 30 – 32
The following passage is from a short story. Kezia and her grandmother are resting in the middle of
a summer day. The grandmother is knitting. Kezia has asked her grandmother why she keeps staring
at the wall.
The old woman sighed, whipped the wool twice round her thumb, and drew the bone needle
through.
‘I was thinking of your Uncle William, darling,’ she said quietly.
‘My Australian Uncle William?’ said Kezia. She had another.
‘Yes, of course.’ 5
‘The one I never saw?’
‘That was the one.’
‘Well, what happened to him?’ Kezia knew perfectly well, but she wanted to be told again.
‘He went to the mines and he got a sunstroke there and died,’ said old Mrs Fairfield.
Kezia blinked and considered the picture again … A little man fallen over like a tin soldier by 10
the side of a big black hole.
‘Does it make you sad to think about him, grandma?’ She hated her grandma to be sad.
It was the old woman’s turn to consider. Did it make her sad? To look back, back. To stare
down the years, as Kezia had seen her doing. To look after them as a woman does, long after they
were out of sight. Did it make her sad? No, life was like that. 15
‘No, Kezia.’
30 ‘Kezia knew perfectly well, but she wanted to be told again’ (line 8).
Why did Kezia want to be told again?
A She was trying to compare her two uncle Williams.
B She thought that her grandmother might alter the story.
C It provided familiarity and connectedness to her family.
D It was helping her to confront the reality of her uncle’s death.
14

Section 2
31 The grandmother’s response to Kezia’s question, ‘Does it make you sad to think about him, grandma?’
(line 12) suggests that the grandmother
A has not come to terms with the death.
B feels comfortable thinking about him.
C does not want to admit to Kezia that she is still sad.
D no longer has a clear memory because it was so long ago.
32 The way that the grandmother responds to Kezia suggests that

A she prefers not to talk about Uncle William.
B she is slightly irritated by Kezia’s persistence.
C she thinks Kezia is still too young to understand.
D Kezia is welcome to raise the topic again one day.
15

Section 2
Questions 33 − 37
The following passage is from a novel. Nina and Lewis met in their late twenties while travelling.
They married, settled and taught at the same high school. After a few years, Nina gave up her
job because her subject, Latin, was phased out. This passage is set some time after Nina stopped
teaching.
They had left it rather late to have a child. And Nina suspected that they were both a little
too vain – they didn’t like the thought of wrapping themselves up in the slightly comic and
diminished identities of Mum and Dad. Both of them – but particularly Lewis – were admired
by the students for being unlike the adults around home. More energetic mentally and physically,
more complex and vivid and capable of getting some good out of life. 5
Nina had joined a choral society. Many of its recitals were given in churches, and it was
then that she learned what a deep dislike Lewis had of these places. She said that he was being
old-fashioned and that there was little harm any religion could do nowadays. This started a great
row1. They had to rush around slamming the windows so that their raised voices might not be
heard out on the sidewalk in the warm summer evening. 10
A fight like this was stunning, revealing not just how much he was on the lookout for
enemies, but how she too was unable to abandon argument which escalated into rage. Neither of
them would back off, they held bitterly to principles.
‘Can’t you tolerate people being different, why is this so important?’
‘If this isn’t important, nothing is.’ 15
The air seemed to grow thick with loathing. All over a matter that could never be resolved.
They went to bed speechless, parted speechless the next morning, and during the day were
overtaken by fear – hers that he would never come home, his that when he did she would not be
there. Their luck held, however. They came together in the late afternoon pale with contrition,
shaking with love, like people who had narrowly escaped an earthquake and had been walking 20
around in naked desolation.
That was not the last time. Nina, brought up to be so peaceable, wondered if this was
normal life. She couldn’t discuss it with him – their reunions were too grateful, too sweet and
silly. He called her Sweet Nina-Hyena and she called him Merry Weather Lewis.
———————————————
1 row: argument
33 What do Nina and Lewis dislike in particular about the idea of being parents?
A the financial burden
B the emotional challenge
C the sense of responsibility
D the ordinariness of the task
16

Section 2
34 How does Nina seem to feel about students admiring Lewis in particular?
A jealous
B amused
C accepting
D embarrassed
35 Which of the following appears to matter most to Nina and Lewis as a couple?
A not regretting the past
B how other people see them
C maintaining different interests
D how they relate to other people
36 How does Nina seem to regard their argument?

A worrying but beyond her control to stop
B as an inevitable step towards separation
C as an opportunity to challenge Lewis
D trivial and unworthy of discussion
37 The passage suggests that Nina and Lewis argue because their relationship is
A full of unresolved tensions about being childless.
B dominated by Lewis who feels the need to control Nina.
C predominantly one of conflict with few moments of peace.
D one of prolonged tolerance that eventually explodes into rage.
17

Section 2
Questions 38 and 39
In the following passage, the mother of a disabled child (named Jane) speaks about her early
experiences when facing other people’s reactions to her child.
When Jane was fitted with her hearing aids she was just a baby and I thought they looked awful
– they were so noticeable. One day I plucked up enough courage to wheel her down the street in
the pram and I was a bit terrified about how I would handle comments about the hearing aids. Do
you know, nobody I spoke to said anything about them and just about everyone said ‘What a pretty
dress’. I know it was hard for them but I felt like saying ‘Forget the dress – why don’t you say
something about the hearing aids?’
5
38 The mother assumed that people did not mention the hearing aids because they
A were too distracted by Jane’s dress.
B felt uncomfortable raising the topic.
C were trying to be sensitive towards her feelings.
D did not think they were important enough to mention.
39 Which of the following actions by the mother would have most helped her in this situation?
A dressing Jane more plainly
B not stopping to talk to people
C drawing attention to the hearing aids herself
D removing the hearing aids before she went out
18

Section 2
Questions 40 – 43
The following passage is taken from a novel. Richard and Sandy are having a baby. Janet is Sandy’s mother.
‘You can’t be serious about this home-birth nonsense,’ Janet would say by way of greeting when she rang.
‘I mean, Richard, being all green and political is one thing, but the day comes when you have to behave
like adults.’
‘Hello, Janet. We’re both well, thanks for asking.’ He’d glance across at Sandy, who’d be on the couch
with a pillow over her head when she realised who it was on the phone. 5
‘Is it money, is that it? I realise people like you wouldn’t bother to have health insurance, but if it’s a
question of not being able to pay for private care …’
‘Janet, it’s nothing about private or public hospitals. It’s hospitals per se. It’s the way they make birth a
medical procedure, like a disease.’
He’d listen to himself dredging up again words that sounded false and flimsy even as he spoke them, 10
anxious to get her off the phone and out of their hair, but everything he said seemed to galvanise her with
more energy.
‘I have to say, Richard, that attitude is totally ridiculous, and I’d like to speak with Sandra right now.’
‘She’s asleep right now, Janet.’
‘Well, go and wake her up.’ 15
‘What?’
‘I said go and wake her up. This thing has gone far enough. I won’t have it.’
He closed his eyes, breathed deeply. Imagined Sandy as a teenager, trying to do normal teenage things
with Janet suffocating every move from on high, Janet not having it at every turn.
‘You want me to go and wake her up? Well, I’ll try, but it might take a while. Hang on.’ 20
40 The phone conversation suggests that Janet thinks Richard is

A unpredictable.
B insensitive.
C immature.
D unkind.
41 Richard and Sandy are likely to view Janet’s offer of financial assistance (lines 6 and 7) as
A supportive and loving.
B insulting and intrusive.
C too generous to accept.
D an effort to win their approval.
42 When Richard says, ‘Hello, Janet. We’re both well, thanks for asking’ (line 4) his intention is to be
A respectful and polite.
B sarcastic and flippant.
C aggressive and assertive.
D positive and encouraging.
43 When Janet wants to speak to Sandy (lines 13–17) she seems to be

A intimidated by Richard.
B determined to exert control.
C seeking reassurance from Sandy.
D primarily concerned with her daughter’s health.
19

Section 3
Questions 44 – 49 Middle of Sequence
For each of the following items, reorder the five figures to form a logical sequence. Select the alternative that
would most logically and simply be in the middle of the sequence.
44
A B C D E
45 110
A B C D E
46
A B C D E
47
A B C D E
48
A B C D E
49
A B C D E
20

Section 3
Questions 50 – 55 Missing Segment
For each of the following items, select the alternative that most logically and simply completes the picture.
50 A C E
?
B D
A C E
51
B D
52 A C E
B D
21

Section 3
53 A C E
B D
54 A C E
B D
A C E
55
B D
22

Section 3
Questions 56 – 61 Next in Series
For each of the following items, select the alternative that most logically and simply continues the series.
56
A B C D E
57
A B C D E
58
A B C D E
23

Section 3
110
A B C D E
59
A B C D E
60 1
A B C D E
END OF PRACTICE TEST
24

ANSWERS
Section 1
1 A 6 C 11 B 16 B
2 C 7 C 12 A 17 D
3 B 8 B 13 A 18 B
4 A 9 B 14 D 19 C
5 A 10 C 15 C 20 A
Section 2
21 B 27 C 33 D 39 C
22 A 28 B 34 C 40 C
23 B 29 D 35 B 41 B
24 B 30 C 36 A 42 B
25 B 31 B 37 D 43 B
26 B 32 D 38 B
Section 3
44 B 49 B 54 C 59 D
45 C 50 A 55 C 60 A
46 C 51 D 56 A 61 A
47 D 52 E 57 D
48 E 53 B 58 C
25

26

ACER thanks rights holders who have kindly granted permission to reproduce the
material cited below. Every effort has been made to trace and acknowledge copyright.
However, should any infringement have occurred, ACER tenders its apology and
invites copyright owners to contact ACER at <permissions@acer.edu.au>.
Acknowlegements
Q25 © William Hamilton / The New Yorker Collection / www.cartoonbank.com;
Q26–29 Slow Man by J M Coetzee (Knopf, 2005). Used with permission of David
Higham Associates;
Q33–37 From Hateship, Friendship, Courtship, Loveship, Marriage by Alice Munro.
Published by Chatto & Windus. Reprinted by permission of The Random House
Group Limited;
Q38–39 Facing the Crowd: Managing other people’s insensitivities to your disabled
child by Deborah Fullwood and Peter Cronin (Royal Victorian Institute for the Blind,
1986). Used with permission of Vision Australia;
Q40–43 Cate Kennedy, The World Beneath, Scribe Publications, 2009.
27


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HPAT – ireland

Health Professions Admission Test – Ireland

Additional Practice Questions

Australian Council for Educational Research

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

Section 1 – Logical Reasoning and Problem Solving

Section 2 – Interpersonal Understanding

Section 3 – Non-verbal Reasoning

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

• build a positive attitude

Before the test day

Build a positive attitude

1 Find out in advance as much as possible about the test.

You should know:

2 Make sure you know the practical details.

You should know:

• when you will receive your Admission Ticket;

All this information can be found on the HPAT – Ireland website.

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

Once you are seated in the test room:

Use your time wisely

Apply your test-taking strategies

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

Additional Practice questions time: 85 minutes

The Additional Practice questions consist of three sections

Section 1 20 questions 30 minutes

When answering a question,

• eliminate responses you know are wrong.

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

1 The examples provided suggest that all tribbles either have

2 Of the following, which one is least likely to be a tribble?

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

0.95 0.96 0.97 0.98 0.99 1.00

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

The rules are:

5 In Secritalk, the word ‘I’ becomes

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

7 The queue length at 21 minutes is

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

The following observations have been made:

A LHP RHP C LHP RHP

30% 70% left-handed

B LHP RHP D LHP RHP

11 Suppose the figure at right represented data concerning

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

• The dash symbol (–) in the tables indicates a risk of <1%.

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

16 A 60-year-old man’s CVE risk

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

sample comparison comparison

0.5 group II pigeons

17 The data suggest that humans

18 The incorrect comparison shape in each case

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

sample shape shape I shape II shape III

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

Becky: Let’s make a start on the clothes. 1

21 Fiona speaks of Tamara in a way that most strongly suggests

23 If asked whether Tamara’s shortened life had been a good one,

24 Which comment about Tamara shows the greatest degree of possessiveness?

STEFANOS AGIOTAKIS - DOB: 19-12-1995

“To really get to know someone, you’ve got to divorce them.”

25 The man’s comment suggests that he