1.

The Radiological hallmark of Osteogenic Sarcoma

A. Soap bubble appearance
B. Sun ray appearance
C. Osteoid formation by neoplastic cells
D. Cotton wool appearance

2. True about chest X-ray is all except:

A. Left hilum is higher
B. Left dome is higher
C. All fissures are clearly seen on lateral film
D. None

3. Base of heart formed by :

A. Rt. Ventricle
B. LV
C. LV + RV
D. RA + RV
E. RA + LA
E

4. Structure forming right border of heart

A. SVC
B. IVC
C. Rt. Atrium
D. Lt. Atrial appendage
E. Pulmonary vessels
A,B and C

5. Lt border of the heart in C. X.R. is formed by

A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary Vein
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Arch of aorta
E. Rt ventricles
A and D

6. Contrast used for MRI :

A. Iodine
B. Gadolinium
C. Metrazamide
D. omnipaque
B

7. Plain x-ray skull showing intra-cranial calcification

with cystic lesion :
A. Craniopharyngioma
B. Gliom
C. Meningioma
D. Medulloblastoma
A

8. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all except:

A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Wilson’s disease
 C. Perinatal hypoxia
D. Fate’s syndrome
B

9. Supra sellar classification along with growth

retardation is found in :
A. Thalamic tumor
B. Pituitary tumour
C. Craniopharygioma
D. Pineal tumour
C

10. Calcification of basal ganglia is seen in A/E

A. Berry’s aneurysm
B. Cysticercosis
C. Idiopathic hyperparathroidism
D. Wilson’s disease
C

11. Physiological calcification of Skull in X-ray Is seen

in :
A. Pineal gland
B. Choroid plexus
C. Red nucleus
D. Basal ganglion
A and B

12. Periventricular calcification is often due to:

A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Cytomegalic infection
C. Congenital syphilis
D. All of the above
B

13. USG is sensitive in

A. Ureteric colic
B. Gall stone
C. Blunt abdominal trauma
D. Appendicitis
E. Pancreatic pathology
B,C and D

14. Which of the following show the Looser’s Zone or

Pseudo fracture :
A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Osteoporosis
C. Thyroditis
D. Osteomalacia
D

15. Hampton’s hump is seen in chest X-ray in:

A. Bronchogenic Ca
B. Aspergillosis
C. Pulmonary TB
 D. Pulmonary embolism
D

16. Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones

in a child does not occur in:
A. Rickets
B. Lead poisoning
C. Metaphyseal dysplasia
D. Hypophosphatasia
B

17. Which isotope is used In ventriculography

A. Gallium
B. Lipoidate
C. Technetium
D. Diatrizoate
C

18. . Miliary shadow In chest X-ray Is seen In A/E:

A. TB
B. Loeffler’s pneumonia
C. Klebsiella
D. Varicella pneumonia
C

19. Egg shell calcification is seen in:

A. Silicosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Berylosis
A

20. A patient presents with a solitary pulmonary nodule

(SPN) on x-ray. The best investigation to come to a
diagnosis would be:
A. MRI
B. CT Scan
C. USG
D. Image guided biopsy
B

21. The Popcorn calcification is pathgnomonic for :

A. Lung hamartoma
B. T.B.
C. Metastasis
D. Craniopharyngioma
A

22. Investigation to diagnose stage-1 carcinoma breast:

A. B/L mammogram
B. X-ray chest
C. Bone scan
D. Liver scan
 E. Liver scan
A

23. 1investigation of choice for detection and

characterization of interstitial lung disease is:
A. MRI
B. Chest X-ray
C. High Resolution CT Scan (HRCT)
D. Ventilation Perfusin Scan (VP Scan)
C

24. Honeycombimg of lung in C. X.R. is seen in:

A. R.A.
B. T.B.
C. Scleroderma
D. Carcinoma
E. Interstitial lung disease
A,C and E

25. Which one of the following tumors shows

calcification on CT Scan:
A. Ependymoma
B. Meduloblastoma
C. Meningioma
D. CNS lymphoma
C

26. Finding in meningioma are all except:

A. Vascular markings around falx cerebri
B. Calcification
C. Erosion
D. Osteosclerosis
C

27. Absolute contra-indications of MRI :

A. Pace makers
B. Pregnancy at 1st trimester
C. Aneurismal clip
D. Phobia
A and C

28. A 40-year-old female patient on long term steroid

therapy presents with recent onset of severe pain in
the right hip. Imaging modality of choice for the
problem is:
A. CT scan
B. Bone scan
C. MRI
D. Plain X-ray
C
29. USG can be used to diagnose A/E -
A. Neural tube defect
B. Anencephaly
C. Plancenta previa
D. Down’s syndrome
D

30. Earliest congenital malformation that may be

detected on USG is
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Hydrocephalous
C. Anencephaly
D. Sacral Agenesis
C

31. Best investigation for cardiac temponade is

A. 2-D Echocardiography
B. M-Mode Echocardiography
C. Real time echocardiography
D. USG
A
..........

32. Figure of 8 in Chest X-ray is seen in

A. TAPVC
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Transposition of great vessels
D. Ebsteins’ anomaly
A

33. Chest X-ray picture in CCF :

A. Cardiomegaly
B. Thick interlobar septum
C. Superior mediastinal widening
D. Multinodular parenchymal lesion
A and B

34. Craniospinal irradiation is employed in the

treatmentof:
A. Oligodendroglioma
B. Pilocytic astrocytoma
C. Mixed oligoastrocytoma
D. Medulloblastoma
D

35. Kereley’s ‘B’ lines are found In :

A. Interstitial edema.
B. Pulmonary venous congestion
C. Pericardial effusion.
D. Mitral stenosis
A,B and D
36. Cavitating lung lesion is seen in all except:
A. Malignant melanoma
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Carcinoma cervix
D. Osteosarcoma
D
37. Which of the following organs should always be
imaged in a suspected case of bronchogenic
carcinoma.
A. Adrenals
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Pancreas
A

38. Multiple punched out lesions in X-ray skull are seen

in
A. Down syndrome
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. All of the above
B
..

39. An old man had lytic lesions in the vertebra. The X

ray skull showed multiple punched out lesions. The
most probable diagnosis is:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Osteomalacia
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Metastasis
A

40. Pyloric stenosis is featured by a - X-ray

A. Multiple air fluid level
B. Double bubble appearance
C. Single bubble appearance
D. Gas under diaphragm
C

41. A/E are radiological signs of Vit. C deficiency:

A. Widening of epiphysis
B. Osteoporosis of bones
C. Weinberger line
D. White line of Frenkel
A

42. All of the following form radiolucent stones except:

A. Xanthine.
B. Cysteine.
C. Allopurinol.
 D. Orotic acid
B

43. The first investigation of choice in a patient with

suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage should be :
A. Non-contrast computed tomography
B. CSF examination
C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D. Contrast - enhanced computed tomography
A

44. Which of the following is the most Radiosensitive

ovarian tumours :
A. Dysgerminoma
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Serous cyst adenoma
D. Endodermal sinus tumour
A

45. A young man with tuberculosis presents with

massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic
treatment which vascular structure should be
evaluated first
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Bronchial artery
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Superior vena cava
B

46. The Pathognomonic lesion of primary

hyperparathyroidism is -
A. Diffuse osteopenia
B. Loss of lamina dura
C. Subperiostial resorption of phalanges
D. Salt and pepper skull
C

47. Floating water lily sign is seen in

A. Aspergillosis
B. Hamartoma
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Cavitating metastasis
C

48. X-ray of which bone (s) would be diagnostic

hyperparathyroldism:
A. Skull
B. Phalanges
C. Long bones
D. Scapula
E. Spine
A and B
49. String sign is suggestive of
A. Toxic megacolon
B. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Irritable bowel syndrome
B

50. For which malignancy, intensity Modulated

Radiotherapy (IMRT) is the most suitable -
A. Lung
B. Prostate
C. Leukemia
D. Stomach
B

51. Which one of the following imaging modalities is

most sensitive for evaluation of extra- adrenal
phaeochromocytoma.
A. Ultrasound
B. CT
C. MRI
D. MIBG scan
C

52. The gold standard for the diagnosis of Osteoporosis

is
A. Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
B. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry
C. Ultrasonography
D. Quantitative computed tomography
A

53. An eight year old boy presents with back pain and
mild fever. His plain X-ray of the dorsolumbar spine
reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with
preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft
tissue shadow. The most likely diagnosis is :
A. Ewing’s sarcoma
B. Tuberculosis
C. Histiocytosis
D. Metastasis
C

54. Chain of lakes appearance in ERCP is seen is

A. Acute Pancreatitis
B. Chronic Pancreatitis
C. Carcinoma Pancreas
D. Ductal Adenoma
B

55. Most chemoresistant tumors among the following

is:
A. Synovial sarcoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
D. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
C
56. Maximum permissible radiation dose in pregnancy is:
A. 0.5 rad.
B. 1.0 rad.
C. 1.5 rad.
D. 3.0 rad
A

57. Drug that is radioprotective:

A. Paclitaxel
B. Vincristine
C. Amifostine
D. Etoposide
C

58. Most harmful to individual cell:

A. X-rays
B. alpha Particles
C. beta particles
D. X-rays ( gamma rays)
B

59. Most Radio sensitive stage

A. S2 phase
B. G2 phase
C. G2 phase
D. G2M phase
D

60. Tc labelled RBC’s are used for

A. Biliary tree
B. Renal disease
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Splenic disease
D

61. Ion used both in brachy and tele therapy is:

A. Iridium
B. Chromium
C. Selenium
D. Cobalt
D

62. . In computed tomography (CT), the attenuation values

are measured in Hounsefield units (HU). An
attenuation value of ‘0’ (zero) HU corresponds to:
A. Water
B. Air
C. Very dense bone structure
D. Fat
A

63. Which of the following agents is used to measure

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR):
A. Iodohippurate
 B. Tc99m-DTPA
C. Tc99m-MAG3
D. Tc99m-DMSA
B

64. . Half life of I131 is

A. 4 hours
B. 8 days
C. 4 days
D. 10 days
B

65. Cardiotoxicity caused by radiotherapy &

chemotherapy is best detected by
A. ECHO
B. Endomyocardial biopsy
C. ECG
D. Radionucleide scan
B

66. Longest acting L.A

A. Bupivacaine
B. Tetracaine
C. Xylocaine
D. Procaine
B

67. Nerve Fibre affected by local anesthesia first

A. Type A
B. TypeB
C. Type C
D. Type
C

68. Local anaesthesia acts by

A. Na+ channel inhibition
B. Ca+ channel inhibition
C. Mg*4 channel inhibition
D. K+ channel inhibition
A

69. Best anaesthesia for status Asthmaticus is

A. Thiopentone
B. Ether
C. Ketamine
D. N2O
C

70. Which drug of anaesthetics causes hallucination:

A. Ketamine
B. Trilene
C. Halothane
D. Trichloroethylene
A
71. A 5 year old child is suffering from cyanotic heart
disease. He is planned for corrective surgery. The
induction agent of the choice would by -
A. Thiopentone
B. Ketamine
C. Halothane
D. Midazolam
B

72. Post anaesthetic muscle soreness is caused by

A. Gallamine
B. d-Tubocurarine
C. Suxamethonium
D. Xylocaine
C

73. Agent causing malignant hyperthermia

A. Succinyl Choline
B. Dantroline
C. gallamine
D. Ketamine
A

74. In high spinal anaesthesia what is seen

A. Hypertension and Bradycardia
B. Hypertension and Tachycardia
C. Hypotension and Bradycardia
D. Hypotension and Tachycardia
C

75. Concentration of Lidocaine used in spinal anaesthesia

A. 5%
B. 3%
C. 2%
D. 1%
A

76. Best way to prevent hypotension during spinal

anesthesia
A. preloading with crystalloids
B. Mephentermine
C. Dopamine
D. Tredelenbug’s position
A

77. Hepatoxic anaesthetic agent is:

A. Ketamine
B. Ether
C. Nitrous Oxide
D. Halothane
D
78. Anesthesia agent with least analgesic property
A. N2O
B. Halothane
C. Ether
D. Propane
B

79. During surgery for aortic arch aneurysm under deep

hypothermic circulatory arrest which of the following
anaesthetic agent administered prior to circulatory
arrest that also provides cerebral protection ?
A. Etomidate
B. Thiopental Sodium
C. Propofal
D. Ketamine
B

80. Laryngeal mask Airway (LMA) is used for;

A. Maintenance of the airway
B. Facilitating laryngeal surgery
C. Prevention of aspiration
D. Removing oral secretions
A

81. End-tidal CO2 is increased to maximum level in:

A. Pulmonary. Embolism
B. Malignant hyperthermia
C. Extubation
D. Blockage of secretion
B

82. Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of

choice in renal failure?
A. Rapacurium
B. Pancuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Rocuronium
C

83. Train of four fade is a characteristic feature of:

A. Depolarizing block
B. Non depolarizing block
C. Both depolarizing and non-depolarizing block
D. Malignant hyperthermia
B

84. Which of the following statements about propofol

is not true?
A. It is contraindicateed in porphyria
B. It does not trigger malignant hyperthermia
C. Commercial preparations contains egg
D. It is a suitable agent for day care surgery
A
85. In raised intracranial tension, anaesthetic agent
used is
A. Nitrous oxide (N2O)
B. Trichloroethylene
C. Enflurane
D. Isoflurane
D

86. Preanesthetic medication is used to:

A. Decrease does of anesthetic
B. Decrease BP
C. Prevent aspiration
D. Produce amnesia for peri-operative events
E. Relieve anxiety
A, D & E

87. Malignant hyperthermia is caused by:

A. Halothane
B. Cyclopropane

C. Suxamethonium
D. Ether
A&C

88. Which gas is most commonly used in laparoscopy:

A. O2
B. CO,
C. N2O
D. N,
B

89. Muscle relaxant contraindicated in Renal failure is:

A. Atracurium
B. D-tubocurare
C. Vecuronium
D. Gallamine
D

90. Which of the following statements is not true about

etomidate?
A. It is an intravenous anesthetic
B. It precipitates coronary insufficiency
C. It inhibits cortisol synthesis
D. It causes pain at site of injection
B

91. Visual analogue scale (VAS) most widely used to

measure
A. Sleep
B. Sedation
C. Pain intensity
D. Depth of Anaesthesia
C
92. Which of the following agents is used for the
treatment of postoperative shivering?
A Thiopentone
B. Suxamethonium
C. Atropine
D. Pethidine
D

93. Which of the following inhaled gases is used to

decrease pulmonary artery pressure in adults &
infants
A. nitrous oxide
B. nitrogen dioxide
C. nitric oxide
D. nitrogen
C

94. Which of the following in anaesthesia will produce

decreased EEG activities
A. Hypothermia
B. Early hypoxia
C. Ketamine
D. N2O
A

95. Atropine as preanesthesia has all effects except

A. decrease secretion
B. Bronchoconstriction.
C. prevent bradycardia
D. prevebt hypotension
B

96. Swan Ganz catheter measure:

A. PCWP
B. CO.
C. Mixed venous 02 saturation
D. Pulm. capillary pressure
A

97. The outcome following resuscitation of a cardiac

arrest is worsened if during resuscitation patient is
given -
A. Ringer’s lactate
B. Colloids
C. 5% Dextrose
D. Whole blood transfusion
C

98. In a 10 year old child presented anaphylactic shock,

drug of choice is:
A. I/V adrenaline
B. S.C. adrenaline
C. Anti histamine
D. Corticosteroids
A

99. A 6 month old child is suffering from patent ductus

arteriosus (PDA) with congestive cardiac failure.
Ligation of ductus arteriosus was decided for surgical
 management. The most appropriate inhalational
anaesthetic agent of choice with minimal
haemodynamic alteration fro induction of
anaesthesia is -
A. Sevoflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Enfiurane
D. Halothane
A

100. The Pin index code of Nitrous oxide is:

A. 2,5.
B. 1,5.
C. 3,5.
D. 2,6
C

101. A 20-year-old patient presented with early

pregnancy for Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(MTP) in day care facility. What will be the anesthetic
induction agent of choice?
A. Thiopentone
B. Ketamine
C. Propofol
D. Diazepam
C

102. Shortest acting NDMR:

A. Succinyl choline
B. Rapacuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Pancuronium
B

103. Which of the following statements about propofol

is not true?
A. It is contraindicated in porphyria
B. It does not trigger malignant hyperthermia
C. Commercial preparations contains egg
D. It is a suitable agent for day care surgery
A

104. True about endotracheal intubation is:

A. It reduces the normal anatomical dead space
B. It produces resistance to respiration
C. Sub-glottic oedema is the most common complication
D. All of the above
A

105. True about endotracheal cuff:

A. Low-volume, high pressure
B. Low-volume, low pressure
C. High-volume, low pressure
D. High volume, high pressure
E. Equal volume and pressure
A&C
106. Malampatti Grading is for:
A. To assess mobility of cervical spine
B. To assess mobility if atlantotaxial joint
C. For assessment of free rotation of neck before intubation.
D. Inspection of oral cavity before intubation
D