BIOLOGY-E TEST or BIOLOGY-M TEST

You MUST decide now whether you want to take a Biology Test with Ecological Emphasis (BIOLOGY-E) or
Molecular Emphasis (BIOLOGY-M). The top portion of the section of the answer sheet that you will use in taking the
Biology Test you have selected must be filled in exactly as shown in one of the illustrations below. Note carefully that
you have to do all of the following on your answer sheet.

1. Print BIOLOGY-E or BIOLOGY-M on the line under the words "Subject Test (print)."

2. In the shaded box labeled 'Test Code" fill in four ovals as follows:

For BIOLOGY-E For BIOLOGY-M

— Fill in oval 1 row labeled V.
in the — Fill in oval 5 in the row labeled V.
— Fill in oval 9 in the row labeled W. — Fill in oval 7 in the row labeled W.
— Fill in oval 4 in the row labeled X. — Fill in oval 5 in the row labeled X.
— Fill in oval B in the row labeled Y. — Fill in oval C in the row labeled Y.

v
w
• ©©®®®®®®
©®®®®®®®^
Test Code
v

w
©®®®*®®®®
®®®®®®*®®
Test Code

© © ® • © y® m © CD ® ® ® ® m y® ® • ® ©
x
q ®®®®©©®©® CD x

o ®®®®®®®©©
Subject Test (print) Subject Test (print)

BIOLOGY-E BIOLOGY-M

3. Please answer the questions below by filling in the appropriate ovals in the row labeled Q on the
answer sheet. The information you provide is for statistical purposes only and will not affect your
score on the test-

Question I How many semesters of biology have you taken in high school? (If you are taking
biology this semester, count it as a full semester.) Fill in only one oval of ovals 1-3.

One semester or less — Fill in oval 1

Two semesters — Fill in oval 2.

Three semesters or more — Fill in oval 3.

Question II Which of the following best describes your biology course? Fill in only one oval of ovals 4-6.

• General Biology — Fill in oval 4.

• Biology with emphasis on ecology — Fill in oval 5.

• Biology with emphasis on molecular biology — Fill in oval 6.

Question III Which of the following best describes your background in algebra? (If you are taking an
algebra course this semester, count it as a full semester.) Fill in only one oval of ovals 7-8.

One semester or less Fill in oval 7.

Two semesters or more Fill in oval 8.

Question IV Are you currently taking Advanced Placement Biology? If you are, fill in oval 9.

When the supervisor gives the signal, turn the page and begin the Biology Test. There are 100 numbered ovals
on the answer sheet. There are 60 questions in the core Biology Test, 20 questions in the Biology-E section, and
20 questions in the Biology-M section. Therefore use ONLY ovals 1-80 (for Biology-E) OR ovals 1-60 plus
81-100 (for Biology-M) for recording your answers.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of

any part of this page is illegal.

209
 BIOLOGY E/M TEST
FOR BOTH BIOLOGY-E AND BIOLOGY-M,
ANSWER QUESTIONS 1-60

Directions: Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered questions or statements immediately following
it. one lettered choice that best answers each question or best fits each statement and then fill in the corre-
vSelect the
sponding oval on the answer sheet. A choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all in each set.

Questions 1-3 Questions 8-12

(A) Carnivores (A) Hydrolysis

(B) Decomposers (B) Dehydration synthesis
(C) Herbivores (C) Ionization
(D) Producers (D) Phosphorylation
(E) Omnivores (E) Fermentation (anaerobic
respiration)
1 Bacteria that convert the excrement of cattle
into simpler substances
8. H 2 C03 H + + HCO3"

2. Rotifers that eat unicellular green algae

9. Glucose alcohol + carbon dioxide

3. Minnows that eat only insect larvae

10. Fat + water fatty acids + glycerol

Questions 4-7
1 1 Glucose + fructose -
sucrose + water

(A) Phagocytosis
(B) Spermatogenesis 12. Polypeptide + water amino acids
(C) Parthenogenesis
(D) Homeostasis
Questions 13-15
(E) Peristalsis

(A) Linked genes

4. The formation of male gametes
(B) Sex-influenced trails

(C) Autosomal recessive traits

5. The action of smooth muscle in the digestive (D) Sex-linked traits

tract (E) Lethal alleles

13. The inheritance of blue eye color in humans

6. The action of white blood cells in destroying
pathogens
14. The occurrence of type O blood in children bom
7. The maintenance of a constant internal salt
to parents who each have type A blood

concentration by brine shrimp

15. The more frequent occurrence of pattern baldness
in men than in women

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210
 BIOLOGY E/M TEST— Continued

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or comple-
tions. Some questions pertain to a set that refers to a laboratory or experimental situation. For each question, select
the one choice that is the best answer to the question and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

16. Which of the following constitutes a likely food chain?

- - heron
(A) Snails
(B) Snails
green algae
-+ green algae
-small
heron —
fish
-small fish
-bass
-bass
(C) Green algae snails small fish bass -
-heron
(D) Green algae -small fish -snails heron —bass
(E) Heron - small fish -bass -green algae -snails

17. Two animal populations are considered to be 20. The main advantage in planting a legume such as
of the same species if their members soybeans in a one year and corn in the same
field
field the next year is that legumes
(A) eat the same food
(B) can live in similar ecological niches (A) use less water than corn does
(C) can interbreed to produce live, fertile (B) produce more oxygen than corn does
offspring (C) increase the aeration of the soil
(D) breed within the same geographic area (D) increase the nitrogen content of the soil
(E) migrate to new locations at the same time (E) increase the phosphorus content of the soil
of year
21. Two mature plants that are each 12 centimeters in
18. Which of the following are NOT members of height are crossed and produce offspring ranging
the Arthropoda? from 4 to 18 centimeters in height when mature.
Of the following, which is the most likely expla-
(A) Grasshoppers
nation for these results?
(B) Lobsters
(C) Centipedes (A) Tallness is dominant over shortness.
(D) Earthworms (B) Multiple genes affect height in plants.
(E) Spiders (C) Height is a sex-linked trait in plants.

(D) Nondisjunction has occurred.

19. Inbreeding tends to produce (E) A mutation has occurred.
(A) an increase in the frequency of certain
characteristics among the offspring
(B) offspring that are larger than normal
(C) heterozygous offspring
(D) increased strength and vigor in the offspring
(E) greater genetic diversity in the offspring GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

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211
 BIOLOGY E/M TEST— Continued

22. The two nucleotide chains of a DNA double helix 26. Of the following substances available to mam-
are held together by hydrogen bonds between malian cells, which is most readily used as a
source of energy?
(A) sugars
(B) phosphates (A) Fat
(C) nitrogenous bases (B) Glycogen
(D) amino acids (C) Nucleic acid
(E) enzymes (D) Protein
(E) Glucose
23. Female moths release or secrete chemical sub-
stances that influence the behavior of male moths 27. All of the following pairs of animals represent
of the same species. Such substances are classi- examples of similar ecological relationships
fied as EXCEPT
(A) neurotransmitters (A) cat and sparrow
(B) hormones (B) hawk and mouse
(C) enzymes (C) horse and donkey
(D) flavins (D) lizard and grasshopper
(E) pheromones (E) fox and rabbit

24. The human urinary bladder serves to 28. Which of the following does NOT belong to the
phylum Chordata?
(A) concentrate urine
(B) store urine (A) Salamander
(C) reabsorb certain dissolved minerals (B) Frog
(D) change urea to urine (C) Octopus
(E) detoxify certain components of excretion (D) Shark
(E) Whale
25. The process by which a new allele of a gene
arises within a population is

(A) fertilization
(B) independent assortment
(C) mutation
(D) genetic drift GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(E) natural selection

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212
 BIOLOGY E/M TEST— Continued

29. Which of the following biomes contains the .ECTRON MICROSCOPE

greatest diversity of species?

(A) Temperate forest Electron gun

(B) Temperate grassland
Condenser lens
(C) Boreal taiga
(D) Tropical savanna Specimen on
(E) Tropical rain forest movable stage
Objective lens
30. A major ecological role of heterotrophs is to

(A) recycle carbon and oxygen

(B) control soil erosion
compounds Projector lens
(C) provide organic for autotrophs
(D) purify water
(E) act as primary producers
Viewing port

31. A pea plant with the geonotype Aa for one

Electron beam
traitand Bb for another trait is allowed to self-
Vacuum chamber
pollinate,and the characteristics of all the off-
spring are recorded, with the results shown below.
32. In the instrument shown above, which of the
307 offspring with both dominant traits
following serves as the energy source for the
110 offspring with both recessive traits
formation of the image?
These results are most likely accounted for by
(A) Vacuum chamber
which of the following?
(B) Condenser lens
(A) Crossing-over occurred between the genes (C) Projector lens
for these traits. (D) Specimen
(B) The genes for these traits are on the same (E) Electron gun
chromosome.
(C) The alleles for the traits segregated
independently during meiosis.
(D) Multiple alleles exist for these traits.

(E) The traits are codominant.

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 BIOLOGY E/M TEST— Continued

33. Which of the following represents the correct 36. The presence of hydrochloric acid in the stomach
sequence of events that occurs within a cell of mammals is responsible for the
during mitosis?
(A) conversion of starch to sugar
I. The chromosomes migrate to opposite (B) conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin
* poles of the cell. (C) secretion of bile
II. The nuclear membrane disappears. (D) secretion of insulin
III. The chromosomes line up along the (E) secretion of glucose
equator of the cell.

IV. The chromatids of each chromosome 37. One important adaptation that developed in
separate. terrestrial arthropods such as insects, but not
in aquatic arthropods such as crayfish, and that
(A) i, ii, in, iv
allowed the insects to invade the terrestial envi-
(B) i,n,iv,m
ronment is
(Q n, m, i, iv
(D) ii, in, rv, i (A) jointed appendages
(E) m, iv, ii, i (B) digestive system
(C) tracheal respiratory system
34. Which of the following statements is NOT a part (D) muscular system
of Darwin's original theory of natural selection? (E) central nervous system

(A) There is a struggle for survival.

38. Important functions of the stomata include which
(B) Variations arise from gene mutation.
of the following?
(C) Variations are found among individuals in
each species. I. Transporting water to mesophyll cells
(D) More organisms are born than can survive to II. Facilitating an exchange of carbon dioxide
reproduce. and oxygen
(E) Some variations are favorable to an organism III. Preventing excessive loss of water
and help it to survive.
(A) I only
(B) III only
35. Which of the following are the genotypes of
(C) and II only
I
a couple that have four children, each with a
(D) II and III only
different blood type?
(E) I, II, and m
(A) AA and BO
(B) AB and BO
(C) AO and AB
(D) AO and BO
(E) AB and OO
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214
 BIOLOGY E/M TEST— Continued

39. In humans, the rate of breathing is primarily 43. The largest population of omnivores can be
controlled by the supported if they secure their food predomi-
nantly from
(A) cerebral cortex
(B) medulla oblongata (A) primary producers
3
(C) cerebellum (B) primary consumers
(D) pituitary gland (C) secondary consumers
(E) olfactory bulbs (D) decomposers
(E) other omnivores
40. Which of the following statements is true of most
vitamins? 44. An earthworm and a snake both possess which of
the following characteristics?
(A) They catalyze the digestion of starches.
(B) They have similar molecular structures. (A) Radial symmetry
(C) They must be present in large amounts to (B) Dorsal tubular nervous system
be effective. (C) Closed circulatory system
(D) They cannot be synthesized by animals and (D) Chitinous exoskeleton
therefore must be ingested. (E) Scales
(E) All animals require the same vitamins.
45. The trunk of a dicot tree grows in diameter largely
41. Ferns (Pterophyta) have all of the following from cell divisions that occur in the
EXCEPT
(A) apical meristem
(A) seeds (B) vascular cambium
(B) xylem (C) cortex
(C) true leaves (D) phloem
(D) roots (E) xylem
(E) chloroplasts
46. A mouse is placed in a maze containing food. The
42. Which of the following colors of light is LEAST behavior of this mouse in its first search for food
likely to be absorbed by an ordinary plant leaf? is an example of

(A) Violet (A) conditioning

(B) Blue (B) habituation
(C) Green (C) imprinting
(D) Yellow (D) insight
(E) Red (E) trial and error

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215
 BIOLOGY E/M TEST— Continued

Questions 47-50

An experiment was conducted to measure the rate of respiration by germinating pea seeds. Pea seeds were
soaked in water overnight to initiate germination. The volume of germinating pea seeds was measured by water
displacement. The germinating peas were placed in a respirometer containing a 5 mL solution of potassium hydrox-
ide (KOH), which reacts with C0 2 and removes it from the gas phase. Nongerminating pea seeds equal to the total

volume of the germinating pea seeds were placed in a second respirometer that also contained KOH. Stones equal in
volume to the germinating pea seeds were placed in a third respirometer that also contained KOH. Each respirometer
was sealed with an airtight stopper fitted with a graduated pipet. At the beginning of the experiment, several drops of
water were placed in each of the three pipets so that the top of the water was at the zero mark. The respirometers were
then allowed to stand for 2 hours. The diagrams below show the water levels in each of the pipets at the end of the

2-hour period.

Pipet Pipet

Water Water
Zero mark Zero mark

Clamp Clamp Clamp

KOH KOH

Non-
Germinating germinating
Peas — Peas Stones

Respirometer 1 Respirometer 2 Respirometer 3

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216
 BIOLOGY E/M TEST— Continued

47. The experiment is designed to test which of the 49. Which of the following is a possible explanation
following hypotheses? for the rise in the water levels in respirometers 2
and 3?
(A) Seeds consume oxygen when they germinate.
(B) Seeds produce oxygen as they germinate. (A) The atmospheric pressure decreased.
(C) Seeds break down
when they germinate.
water (B) Respiration occurred in the nongerminating
(D) The volume of C0 2 consumed is greater pea seeds
(C) Photosynthesis occurred in the nongermi-
than the volume of 2 produced when seeds
nating pea seeds.
germinate.
(D) The abiotic stones underwent respiration in
(E) Water evaporates less rapidly from stones than
from seeds. the presence of KOH.
(E) The airtight seal in each of these respirom-

48. Which of the following explains why the water eters was broken.
level in respirometer 1 is lower than the water
50. In order to measure the rate of respiration from
levels in respirometers 2 and 3 at the end of the
the experiment, all of the following conditions
2-hour period?
must be met EXCEPT:
(A) The molecular structure of carbon dioxide
is heavier than the molecular structure of (A) The respirometers must have the same

oxygen. volume.
(B) The temperature of the germinating peas in
(B) The stoppers must fit tightly in the respirom-
eters.
respirometer 1 increased.
(C) Oxygen produced in respirometer 1 dissolved (C) The volume of pea seeds, germinating and
in the KOH solution. nongerminating, and the volume of stones

(D) The carbon dioxide gas produced in respirom- must be equal.

eter 1 reacted with KOH, which reduced the (D) The volume in the respirometers must be
volume of gas. recorded several times at fixed intervals.
(E) The temperature of each respirometer must
(E) The amount of water vapor from the KOH in
respirator 1 increased.
fluctuate by 10°C.

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217
 BIOLOGY E/M TEST— Continued

Questions 51-53 refer to the diagrams below, which illustrate the stages in the development of an ovum into an early
embryo.

\<

Late Gastrula Early Gastrula

Cross Section Cross Section

51 . In the late gastrula (stage V), some of the cells of 53. The blastula (stage III) is the product of
layer number 1 will differentiate and become the
(A) transcription
(A) skeleton (B) many meiotic divisions
(B) epidermis (C) many mitotic divisions
(C) circulatory system (D) conjugation
(D) reproductive system (E) cellular fusion
(E) excretory system

52. Which of the stages is characterized by haploid

cells?

(A) I

(B) II GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

(C) III

(D) IV
(E) V

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218
 BIOLOGY E/M TEST— Continued

Questions 54-57 refer to an experiment in which 56. Which of the following statements about lactic
people were asked to run on a treadmill moving at acid is supported by the data in the graph?
18 kilometers per hour for 8 seconds, followed by rest
(A) The more frequent the rest periods, the less
periods of either 10 or20 or 30 seconds each. The data
the accumulation of lactic acid.
shown in the graph below were recorded for each person
(B) The longer the period of rest, the less the
as long as the person was able to keep pace with the
accumulation of lactic acid.
treadmill, up to a maximum of 30 runs.
(C) The greater the accumulation of lactic acid,
the slower the person runs.
(D) For the runs with 30-second rest periods,
exhaustion is reached at 23 milligrams of
lactic acid per liter.
(E) There is no relationship between the lactic
acid levels of the blood and the number of
runs achieved.

57. According to the data, which of the following

would maximize the amount of running a person
could perform?

5 10 15 20 25 30 I. Allowing running periods that are

Number of Runs about 16 seconds long

II. Allowing rest periods that are about

Rodolfo Margaria, "The Sources of Muscular Energy." 30 seconds long

Scientific American, March 1972. Reprinted by permission. III. Setting the treadmill to move at a faster
rate
54. According to the data, when the rest period was
(A) II only
20 seconds, exhaustion occurred after how many
(B) III only
runs?
(C) and II only
I

(A) 5 (D) II and III only

(B) 10 (E) I, II, and III
(C) 15
(D) 20
(E) 30

55. An inference consistent with the data obtained

is that lactic acid is
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(A) formed in the blood during rest
(B) produced when oxygen intake is inad-
equate, as during continuous exercise
(C) removed from the blood faster during
exercise than it is during rest
(D) unrelated to exercise rates
(E) decomposed readily when it reaches
saturation levels in the blood

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219
 BIOLOGY E/M TEST— Continued

Questions 58-60

Tay-Sachs disease is a genetic defect controlled by a single pair of alleles. The recessive allele, when homo-
zygous, causes the disease, which is characterized by the inability to synthesize a particular enzyme. For the three
families depicted below, circles represent females and squares represent males. Symbols for individuals who have
Tay-Sachs disease are shaded. Testing has shown that Person I and Person III are carriers of the Tay-Sachs allele
and that Person II is not.

~6

ii in

58. What is the probability that a child of Persons I 60. What is the probability that the mother of Person I

and II will have Tay-Sachs disease? is a carrier?

(A) (A) 100%

(B) 25% (B) 75%
(C) 33% (C) 50%
(D) 50% (D) 33%
(E) 75% (E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.
59. If Person I and Person III have a child, what is the
probability that the child will not have Tay-Sachs
disease?

(A)
(B) 25%
(C) 33%
(D) 50%
(E) 75%

If you are taking the Biology-E test, continue with questions 61-80.
If you are taking the Biology -M test, go to question 81 now.

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220
 BIOLOGY-E SECTION

Directions : Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or comple-
tions. Some questions pertain to a set that refers to a laboratory or experimental situation. For each question, select
the one choice that is the best answer to the question and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

61. Factors that influence population density include 64. All of the following processes occur as part of the
which of the following? carbon cycle EXCEPT

I. Competition within the same species (A) organic decay

II. Competition among different species (B) forest fires
III. Predation (C) photosynthesis
(D) respiration
(A) II only
(E) transpiration
(B) III only
(C) and II only
I
65. Which of the following plays the greatest role in
(D) II and III only
producing acid rain?
(E) I, II, and III
(A) Methane
62. Today's worldwide human population can best be (B) Sulfur dioxide
described as (C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Carbon monoxide
(A) oscillating
(E) Ozone
(B) declining
(C) fluctuating near equilibrium
(D) growing arithmetically
66. A trophic level within an ecosystem is best
defined by the
(E) growing exponentially
(A) total chemical energy contained in nutrients
63. Characteristics of the arctic tundra biome include within the ecosystem
which of the following? (B) total available energy captured by
photosynthesis within an ecosystem
I. Long, cold winters
(C) amount of pollution within the ecosystem
II. Coniferous trees as the dominant species
(D) main source of nutrition of the organisms
III. High levels of precipitation
within it

(A) I only (E) density of the population relative to the

(B) III only carrying capacity of the environment
(C) and II only
I

(D) II and III only

(E) I, II, and III

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221
 BIOLOGY-E SECTION— Continued

Questions 67-70 refer to the following diagram, which shows the numbers of families of marine organisms over
geologic time.

800- c -
c C (/) u o 0D
a 3 3
ca
ed i—
•c
S
'2 O 'i/i
O
'o (SI

X U
//
tH
'> o '6
_3 C c o
2 o > <+-
3 ed <u
•o u '2
Oh H <—>
D
600- -U u
Xo '

53
U
Li.

400-

XU
|
z
3
200- — \

—
600 500 400
1

300 200
— i

100

Millions of Years Ago

67. During the geological period that appears to 69. The greatest number of families of marine animals
have had the most severe mass extinction, approx- existed on Earth during which of the following
imately what percentage of the families of marine time periods?
animals living at that time became extinct?
(A) The present time
(A) rl% (B) 25 million years ago
(B) 10% (C) 50 million years ago
(C) 33% (D) 200 million years ago
(D) 50% (E) 400 million years ago
(E) 98%
70. Useful methods for obtaining the kind of
68. About the same number of families of marine data presented in the graph include which
organisms existed at the beginning of the Car- of the following?
boniferous period as at the end. Which of the
I. Analyses of geological formations
following is the best hypothesis to explain this
II. Radioactive dating
pattern?
III. Study of fossils
(A) Homeostasis stabilized the number of
(A) II only
families.
(B) III only
(B) The number of families that appeared was
(C) I and II only
approximately equal to the number that
(D) I and III only
became extinct.
(E) I, II, and III
(C) Evolution did not occur during this period.
(D) The mutations that occurred during this
period were harmful.
(E) The populations were too large to allow the
appearance of new families.

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222
 BIOLOGY-E SECTION— Continued

Questions 71-75

An ecology class counted every tree in a 3-hectare woodland and measured each trunk's diameter at a height of
1 meter. By measuring annual growth rings in samples of trees cut in a nearby woodland, the class found that all of
the species grew about 2 cm in diameter each year. It was also discovered that each tree species requires about 5 years
to grow to a height of 1 meter. The measurements of the growth rings were converted into an approximate age for each
tree. Data for the three most common species are graphed below. By interviewing nearby residents, the class learned that
the 3-hectare site had been a hay field until 25 years ago.

Maples Oaks Pines

1,000 1,000- 1,000-,

« 900 9 °°-
H
£ 800-
<* 700 <g 700-
u 600-
-9 500 •o 500-
I 400-
Z 300 Z 300-
200-
100-
0-
0-5 6-10 11-15 16-20 21-25 0-5 6-10 11-15 16-20 21-25 0-5 6-10 11-15 16-20 21-25

Age (years) Age (years) Age (years)

71. Trees of which of the following species are 74. Some trees of which of the following species
reproducing in the 3-hectare woodland? are about 2 meters tall? 9

(A) Maples only (A) Maples only

(B) Oaks only (B) Oaks only
(C) Pines only (C) Pines only
(D) Pines and oaks only (D) Maples and oaks only
(E) Maples and oaks only (E) Oaks and pines only

72. The age of the woodland is approximately equaled 75. For the oldest trees, the diameter of the trunk
by the average age of which of the following at the height of one meter above the ground is

populations? closest to

(A) Maples only (A) 10 cm

(B) Oaks only (B) 20 cm
(C) Pines only (C) 25 cm
(D) Maples and pines only (D) 40 cm
(E) Oaks, maples, and pines (E) 75 cm

73. The data collected suggest that the woodland

is undergoing

(A) desertification
(B) succession
(C) eutrophication
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(D) biological magnification
(E) speciation

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223
 BIOLOGY-E SECTION— Continued

Questions 76-80 refer to the study of three artificial ponds that are essentially identical in depth, surface area,

volume, and site characteristics (soil type, elevation, slope orientation). The ponds differ in nutrients, turbidity,
and the predominant organisms that cause the turbidity, as shown in the table below.

Nitrogen Phosphorus Potassium

Location Concentration Concentration Concentration Turbidity Predominant
of Pond Organisms
(mg/m ) (mg/m" (mg/m )

Undisturbed
517 ± 17 8 ± 2 844 ± 26 Very low Autotrophs
field

Cow Decomposers
pasture 942 ± 88 11 ± 4 827 ± 32 Moderate and
autotrophs
Cultivated
1,445 ± 263 87 ± 24 854 ± 81 Very Autotrophs
field
high

76. Which of the following most likely accounts for 77. Which of the following best accounts for the rela-
the difference in the predominant organisms in the tively high concentration of phosphorus in the pond
pond in the undisturbed field and those in the pond in the cultivated field?
in the cow pasture?
(A) Organic compounds in the pond have decom-
(A) The difference in potassium concentration in posed.
the two ponds (B) Runoff water from the field contains excess
(B) The difference in phosphorus concentration fertilizers.

in the two ponds (C) The soil beneath the pond is releasing more
(C) The greater input of organic matter into the phosphorus.
pond in the cow pasture (D) The high turbidity inhibits the evaporation of
(D) The release of oxygen by the decomposers phosphorus into the atmosphere.
into the pond in the cow pasture (E) Nitrogen fixation promotes the release of
(E) The release of methane by the autotrophs into phosphorus from plants in the field.
the pond in the cow pasture

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224
 BIOLOGY-E SECTION— Continued

78. The data suggest that the low turbidity in the pond 80. In a special study, 200 seedlings of the same
in the undisturbed field can be the result of which species were divided into groups. The water
of the following? from each pond was given to a different group
of seedlings, and the fourth group was watered with
I. Relatively limited availability of nitrogen
distilled water.Each group received the same
and phosphorus for autotrophs
volume of water. After 2 months, which of the
II. Relatively limited availability of potas-
following is the most likely result?
sium for autotrophs
III. Relatively high activity of decomposers (A) All four groups will have the same total

biomass.
(A) I only
(B) The seedlings watered from the cow pasture
(B) II only
pond will be dead.
(C) III only
(C) The seedlings watered from the cultivated
(D) I and II only
field pond will have the greatest biomass.
(E) I, II, and III
(D) The seedlings watered with distilled water
will have the greatest biomass.
79. The most likely source of the additional nitrogen
(E) The seedlings watered from the pond in the
compounds in the cow pasture pond is
undisturbed field will be greener.
(A) animal excrement
(B) the trampled plants in the pasture
(C) the soil churned up by the cows' hooves
(D) the carbon-fixing actions of the autotrophs
(E) methane produced in the cows' stomachs

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THE
ENTIRE BIOLOGY-E TEST ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER TEST IN THIS BOOK.

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225
 BIOLOGY-M SECTION
If you are taking the Biology-M test, continue with questions 81-100.
Be sure to start this section of the test by filling in oval81 on your answer sheet.

Directions : Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or comple-
tions. Some questions pertain to a set that refers to a laboratory or experimental situation. For each question, select
the one choice that is the best answer to the question and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

81. The initial role of chlorophyll in photosyn- 85. What is the maximum number of amino acids that
thesis is to could be incorporated into a polypeptide encoded
by 15 nucleotides of messenger RNA?
(A) absorb light energy

(B) fixC0 2 (A) 3

(B) 5
(C) convert ADP to ATP (C) 15
(D) synthesize glucose (D) 30
(E) 45
(E) oxidize water

86. Solutions of lactose and lactase are placed

82. Which of the following processes utilizes
together in a test tube. After 30 minutes at 37°C,
atmospheric oxygen?
lactose, lactase, and equal amounts of glucose and
(A) Photosynthesis galactose are found in the tube. Which of the fol-
(B) Cellular respiration lowing is a reasonable interpretation of these data?
(C) Fermentation
(A) Lactose and lactase decompose at 37°C.
(D) Glycolysis
(B) Lactose consists of glucose and galactose
(E) Hydrolysis
monosaccharide units.

83. Which of the following characteristics directly

(C) Lactose consists only of galactose monosac-

contributes to the function of a protein?

charide units that can further decompose
into glucose.
(A) Tertiary structure (D) The concentration of lactase at the end of the
(B) Base pairing experiment is smaller than at the beginning.
(C) Atomic mass (E) The concentration of lactose is the same at the
(D) Nucleic acid composition beginning and at the end of the experiment.
(E) Type of peptide bonds
87. When a mutation in a particular gene prevents the
84. Which of the following is an end product of synthesis of a particular enzyme, it is most likely
both cellular respiration and the light-dependent that
reactions of photosynthesis?
(A) the messenger RNA with the correct
(A) Glucose sequence for that enzyme is not produced
(B) C0 2 (B) ATP will no longer be synthesized
(C) the ribosomes of the cell become inactive
(C) Chlorophyll
(D) transfer RNA in the cell is no longer func-
(D) Oxygen tional

(E) ATP (E) some essential amino acids from the cell
are missing

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226
 BIOLOGY-M SECTION— Continued

Questions 88-90 refer to an experiment in which liver cells from a live culture were mechanically ruptured to release
the cell components. The resulting suspension was centrifuged several times in succession to produce layers in which
certain cell organelles predominated, as shown in the diagram below.

Centrifuged 10 min.
WW Top layer centrifuged
at 600 x gravity. tOoOoo 10 min. at
8,500 x gravity.

Bottom layer suspended in

Top layer removed appropriate solution.
Bottom layer removed for analysis.
and centrifuged
30 min. at
100,000 x gravity.
Certrifuged 3 hr. at
100,000 x gravity.

88. Upon analysis, layer A was found to

W
have the 90. Upon analysis, layer C had the greatest concentra-
highest proportion of DNA, indicating that the tion of RNA and was probably made up mostly of
layer contained the major portion of the
(A) mitochondria
(A) mitochondria (B) nuclei
(B) nuclei (C) ribosomes
(C) ribosomes (D) lysosomes
(D) lysosomes (E) plasma membrane
(E) endoplasmic reticulum

89. Upon analysis, layer D was found to have the

highest rate of oxygen uptake. This layer most
likely contained

(A) mitochondria GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

(B) nuclei
(C) ribosomes
(D) lysosomes
(E) endoplasmic reticulum

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227
 BIOLOGY-M SECTION— Continued

Questions 91-93 refer to the following laboratory experiment.

A student tests the effect of pH on the enzymatic activity of pepsin. Ten test tubes are set up, each with 5 milliliters
of a gelatin (a protein) solution. To each sodium hydroxide are added to adjust the
tube, drops of hydrochloric acid or
pH. To each of tubes 1-5,2 milliliters of a 5 percent pepsin solution added and 2 milliliters of distilled water added to
each of tubes 6-10. All tubes are placed in an incubator at 37°C. After 1 hour, the contents of each tube are tested for
the presence or absence of gelatin. The results are summarized in the table below.

Tube Presence of Gelatin at End of Incubation

Number pH (relative units)

1 1.0 + (Trace)
2 3.0 - (None)
3 5.0 ++ +
4 7.0 ++ + +
5 9.0 ++ + +
6 1.0 ++ + +
7 3.0 ++ + +
8 5.0 ++ + +
9 7.0 ++ + +
10 9.0 ++ + +

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228
 BIOLOGY-M SECTION— Continued

91. According to the data, the digestion of gelatin 93. Which of the following graphs most closely
by pepsin is accomplished most effectively under represents the relationship between pH and the
which of the following conditions? digestion of gelatin by pepsin?

(A) At any pH when the reaction is carried out (A) (B)

for 12 hours at 37°C
u
(B) At neutral pH only
o <u O <u
(C) At a pH between 8.0 and 1 1 .0 — oo ~ oo

(D) In any acid medium

1-9
(E) At a pH between 1 .0 and 3.0

92. The experiment lends support to which of the 13 5 7 13 5 7

following statements? pH pH
(A) All foods are digested by pepsin. (C) (D)
(B) Some enzymes operate most efficiently A A
qo •o
<o
within a narrow range of pH. tn .^v ti as
*t;
O / o
— u
\ <u
(C) The lower the pH, the better the digestive 00 w eo

process. §5 1
§5 I

i-s g.s /
(D) Enzyme activity is not appreciably affected
^ o
I < - \ /
by variations in temperature. Ih Ih
£ 1 1 1 1 l~ £ ~
(E) Certain proteins are digested only in alkaline
13 5 7 9 13 5 7 9
solutions of pepsin. pH pH
(E)

O 0)
«-. oo

i-s

3 5 7
PH

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229
 BIOLOGY-M SECTION— Continued

Questions 94-97

Three blood samples are prepared according to the following procedure.

Sample X — 1 drop of
blood plus a drop of
0.85% saline

Sample Y — 1 drop of Sample Z — 1 drop of

Solution X plus 9 drops solution X plus 9 drops
of 10%NaCl of distilled water

Slides are made of each sample and the cells are viewed microscopically. The concentration of solutes
in the solution used in preparing sample X is the same as that of the red blood cells.

94. The blood cells in sample Z would 96. The cells in sample X are unaffected because

(A) look the same as those in solution Y (A) sample X is unstable at temperatures
(B) undergo lysis below 37°
(C) shrink (B) sample X has a higher solute concentration
(D) exhibit turgor pressure than human plasma
(E) show wilting (C) sample X has the same solute concentration
as human plasma
95. Which of the following is true regarding the blood (D) sample X has the same concentration as
cells in sample Y ? seawater from which animals evolved
(E) red blood cells are selectively impermeable
(A) The cells would look like those in sample X to water
when viewed microscopically.
(B) The cells would lose water to the surrounding 97. The results of the experiment illustrate which of
solution. the following processes?

(C) The concentration of the NA + and CI ~ ions (A) Dehydration

in the cells would decrease. (B) Active transport
(D) The amount of NA + entering the cells will (C) Cellular homogeneity
equal the amount of Cl~ leaving the cells. (D) Osmosis
(E) Hydrolysis
(E) The cells would swell.

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230
 BIOLOGY-M SECTION— Continued

Questions 98-100 99. Which of the species would require the fewest
point mutations in the original sequence in order
The gene for a certain protein has been isolated
to give rise to the new sequence 3 .GGTAT. 5 ?
and sequenced from five different species. During their '. . . . '

evolution from a common ancestor, these species have

undergone only single-nucleotide mutations. A partial (A) I
DNA sequence from each of the five species is (B) II

(C) III
I. 3' ..AGTAC. ..5 1
(D) IV
II. 3' ..AGTTC. .5' (E) V
III. 3' ..AGTAT. .5'
100. Which is most likely to be the oldest species if
IV. 3' ..TGTTC .5 1

3 '
. . . AGAAC . . . 5 '
were the partial DNA
V. 3' ..ACTTC.. .5' sequence of the common ancestor of the group?

(A) I
98. The sequence 5UGAAG 3 would most
'
. . . . . .
'

(B) II
likely represent an RNA sequence transcribed (C) III
from which of the following species? (D) IV
(A) I
(E) V
(B) II

(C) in
(D) IV
(E) V

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THE ENTIRE
BIOLOGY-M TEST ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER TEST IN THIS BOOK.

UNAUTHORIZED REPRODUCTION OR USE OF ANY PART OF THIS TEST IS PROHIBITED.

231
Real SAT Subject Tests

How to Score the SAT Subject Test in Biology-E

When you take the Biology-E Subject Test, your answer sheet will be "read" by a

scanning machine that will record your responses to each question. Then a

computer will compare your answers with the correct answers and produce your
raw score. You get one point for each correct answer. For each wrong answer, you
lose one-fourth of a point. Questions you omit (and any for which you mark more
than one answer) are not counted. This raw score is converted to a scaled score
that is reported to you and to the colleges you specify.

Worksheet 1 . Finding Your Raw Test Score

STEP 1: Table A lists the correct answers for all the questions on the SAT Subject
Test in Biology-E that is reproduced in this book. It also serves as a

worksheet for you to calculate your raw score.

• Compare your answers with those given in the table.

• Put a check in the column marked "Right" if your answer is correct.

• Put a check in the column marked "Wrong" if your answer is incorrect.

• Leave both columns blank if you omitted the question.

STEP 2: Count the number of right answers.

Enter the total here:

STEP 3: Count the number of wrong answers.

Enter the total here:

STEP 4: Multiply the number of wrong answers by .250.

Enter the product here:

STEP 5: Subtract the result obtained in Step 4 from the total you obtained

in Step 2.

Enter the result here:

STEP 6: Round the number obtained in Step 5 to the nearest whole number.

Enter the result here:

The number you obtained in Step 6 is your raw score.

232
 Biology E/M

How to Score the SAT Subject Test in Biology-M

When you take the Biology-M Subject Test, your answer sheet will be "read" by a

scanning machine that will record your responses to each question. Then a
computer will compare your answers with the correct answers and produce your
raw score. You get one point for each correct answer. For each wrong answer, you
lose one-fourth of a point. Questions you omit (and any for which you mark more
than one answer) are not counted. This raw score is converted to a scaled score
that is reported to you and to the colleges you specify.

Worksheet 1 . Finding Your Raw Test Score

STEP 1: Table A lists the correct answers for all the questions on the SAT
Subject Test in Biology-M that is reproduced in this book. It also serves

as a worksheet for you to calculate your raw score.

• Compare your answers with those given in the table.

• Put a check in the column marked "Right" if your answer is correct.

• Put a check in the column marked "Wrong" if your answer is incorrect.

• Leave both columns blank if you omitted the question.

STEP 2: Count the number of right answers.

Enter the total here:

STEP 3: Count the number of wrong answers.

Enter the total here: '

STEP 4: Multiply the number of wrong answers by .250.

Enter the product here:

STEP 5: Subtract the result obtained in Step 4 from the total you obtained

in Step 2.

Enter the result here:

STEP 6: Round the number obtained in Step 5 to the nearest whole number.

Enter the result here:

The number you obtained in Step 6 is your raw score.

233
Real SAT Subject Tests

TABLE A
Answers to the SAT Subject Test in Biology E/M, Form 3UAC2 reformatted, and
Percentage of Students Answering Each Question Correctly

Percentage Percentage
of Students of Students
Answering Answering
Question Correct the Question Question Correct the Question
Number Answer Right Wrong Correctly* Number Answer Right Wrong Correctly*

1 B 95 31 B 19
2 C 83 32 E 75
3 A 78 33 D 52
'4 B 93 34 B 56
5 E 71 35 D 45
6 A 60 36 B 41

7 D 79 37 C 73
8 C 75 38 D 45
9 E 81 39 B 38
10 A 42 40 D 47
11 B 48 41 A 41

12 A 42 42 C 55
13 C 48 43 A 46
14 C 68 44 C 23
15 B 47 45 B 27
16 C 85 46 E 61

17 C 87 47 A 40
18 D 63 48 D 53
19 A 73 49 A 47
20 D 59 50 E 70
21 B 59 51 B 60
22 C 50 52 A 54
23 E 67 53 C 55
24 B 71 54 D 71

25 C 65 55 B 83
26 E 67 56 B 78
27 C 71 57 A 70
28 C 41 58 A 44
29 E 88 59 E 53
30 A 36 60 A 44

Table A continued on next page

234
 Biology E/M

Table A continued from previous page

Percentage Percentage
of Students of Students
Answering Answering
Question Correct the Question Question Correct the Question
Number Answer Right Wrong Correctly* Number Answer Right Wrong Correctly*

61 E 77 81 A 89
62 E 67 82 B 71

DO A
r\ A 4n
HU
64 E 37 84 E 63
65 B 43 85 B 42
66 D 19 86 B 41

67 D 64 87 A 53
68 B 56 88 B 88
69 A 86 89 A 80
70 E 67 90 C 79
71 E 77 91 E 78
72 C 56 92 B 60
73 B 41 93 C 62
74 D 79 94 B 32
75 D 59 95 B 64
76 C 64 96 C 69
77 B 51 97 D 72
78 A 48 98 E 84
79 A 74 99 C 82
80 C 69 100 A 63

These percentages are based on an analysis of the answer sheets for a random sample of 2,725
students who took the Biology-E test and 2,685 students who took the Biology-M test in November
1998. They may be used as an indication of the relative difficulty of a particular question. Each
percentage may also be used to predict the likelihood that a typical SAT Subject Test in Biology E/M
candidate will answer correctly that question on this edition of this test.

235
Real SAT Subject Tests

TABLE B
Scaled Score Conversion Table
Biology-E Subject Test (Form 3UAC2)

Raw Scaled Raw Scaled Raw Scaled

Score Score Score Score Score Score

80 800 45 600 10 370

79 800 44 600 9 360
78 800 43 590 8 360
77 800 42 590 7 350
76 800 41 580 6 340
75 800 40 570 5 340
74 800 39 570 4 330
73 800 38 560 3 330
72 790 37 550 2 320
71 780 36 550 1 310
70 780 35 540 300
69 770 34 530 -1 290
68 760 33 520 -2 280
67 760 32 510 -3 270
66 750 31 510 -4 270
65 740 30 500 -5 260
64 730 29 490 -6 250
63 730 28 480 -7 250
62 720 27 480 -8 240
61 710 26 470 -9 240
60 710 25 460 -10 240
59 700 24 460 -11 240
58 690 23 450 -12 230
57 690 22 440 -13 230
56 680 21 440 -14 230
55 670 20 430 -15 230
54 670 19 430 -16 230
53 660 18 420 -17 220
52 650 17 410 -18 220
51 640 16 410 -19 220
50 630 15 400 -20 220
49 630 14 400
48 620 13 390
47 610 12 380
46 610 11 380

238
 Biology E/M

TABLE C
Scaled Score Conversion Table
Biology-M Subject Test (Form 3UAC2)

Raw Scaled Raw Scaled Raw Scaled

Score Score Score Score Score Score

80 800 45 600 10 380

79 800 44 600 9 370
78 800 43 590 8 360
77 800 42 590 7 360
76 800 41 580 6 350
75 800 40 570 5 350
74 800 39 570 4 340
73 790 38 560 3 330
72 790 37 560 2 330
71 780 36 550 1 320
70 770 35 540 310
69 770 34 530 -1 310
68 760 33 530 -2 300
67 750 32 520 -3 290
66 750 31 510 -4 280
65 740 30 500 -5 270
64 730 29 490 -6 260
63 720 28 490 -7 250
62 720 27 480 -8 250
61 710 26 470 -9 250
60 700 25 470 - -10 240
59 700 24 460 -11 240
58 690 23 460 -12 240
57 680 22 450 -13 240
56 680 21 440 -14 230
55 670 20 440 -15 230
54 660 19 430 -16 230
53 660 18 430 -17 230
52 650 17 420 -18 220
51 640 16 410 -19 220
50 630 15 410 -20 220
49 630 14 400
48 620 13 400
47 610 12 390
46 610 11 380
«

239