Q.1. Can oral evidence be direct?

Ans. No, it must be direct only as per section 60 of the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872.

Q.2. What is the distinction between Admission and Estoppel?

Ans. Admission is either a written or oral statement which gives

inference to the rights and liabilities of the parties. On the other
hand, Estoppel is a rule of evidence which prevents a person from
retracting his earlier representation.

Q.3. What do you mean by Burden of Proof?

Ans. It means an obligation to prove a fact.

Q.5. What is the difference between custom and usage?

Ans. Usage is inductive as the same is based on the consent of the

persons in a locality whereas custom is deductive and the same is
based on the local usage of a law.

Q.6. On whom does the burden of proving a custom lie?

Ans. The burden of proving a custom lies on that party who is setting
it up.

Q.7. What is judicial notice?

Ans. It is a cognizance taken by the court itself of certain facts which

are so clearly established that evidence of their existence is deemed
unnecessary.

Q.8. What is the rationale behind exclusion of Hearsay evidence?

Ans. If the same is accepted it may encourage the substitution of

weaker for stronger proof.

Q.9. What is the nature of Mandatory Injunction?

Ans. It is prospective and concurrent in nature.

Q.10. Can Specific Relief be granted for enforcing Penal Laws?

Ans. No, this is so provided under section 4 of the Specific Relief Act,
1963.

Q.11. Can a mother act as a guardian of a child even though the

father is still alive?

Ans. Yes.

Q.12. What do you mean by the legal maxim ‘nullum crimine pena
sine lege”?

Ans. It means no crime and no penalty without a law.

Q.13. When does the proposal of contract become complete?

Ans. When the same comes to the knowledge of the person to whom
it is made.

Q.14. On which legal maxim/doctrine the case of Ashby v. White is

based upon?

Ans. It is based upon the legal maxim/doctrine injuria sine damnum

meaning thereby, where there is an infringement of a legal right even
without any damage or loss, there arises a legal remedy.

Q.15. What do you mean by the maxim Salus Populi Suprema Lex?

Ans. It means the welfare of the people is the supreme law.

Q.16. How can an actionable claim be transferred?

Ans. It can be transferred by an execution of instrument in writing

signed by the transferor.

Q17. What is a police report?

Ans. It is a report forwarded by a police officer to a magistrate under

section 173(2) of the Cr PC.

Q.18. Who will decide the dispute pertaining to the election of the
President?
Ans. Article 72 of the Constitution of India provides that all doubts
and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of the
President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of
India.

Q.19. What is Hiba?

Ans. The immediate and unqualified transfer of the corpus of

property without any return is called Hiba.

Q.20. In which case has the Supreme Court recently passed the
judgment pertaining to closing down of liquor shops from 500
metres on Highway, etc.?

Ans. State of Tamil Nadu v. K. Balu

Q.21. To what extent would the Legal Representative of the

deceased judgement Debtor be liable in execution proceedings?

Ans. He will be liable to the extent of the property received by him

from the deceased judgment debtor

Q.22. In which case has the Supreme Court observed that labour
taken from prisoners without paying proper remuneration comes
within forced labour?

Ans. It was so held in the case of Deena v. Union of India.

Q.23. What is Judicial Review?

Ans. It is a device to check arbitrary power of the legislature.

Q.24. Can oral evidence be direct?

Ans. No, it must be direct only as per section 60 of the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872.

Q.25. What is the distinction between Admission and Estoppel?

Ans. Admission is either a written or oral statement which gives

inference to the rights and liabilities of the parties. On the other
hand, Estoppel is a rule of evidence which prevents a person from
retracting his earlier representation.
Q.26. What do you mean by Burden of Proof?

Ans. It means an obligation to prove a fact.

Q.27. What is the difference between custom and usage?

Ans. Usage is inductive as the same is based on the consent of the

persons in a locality whereas custom is deductive and the same is
based on the local usage of a law.

Q.28. On whom does the burden of proving a custom lie?

Ans. The burden of proving a custom lies on that party who is setting
it up.

Q.29. What is judicial notice?

Ans. It is a cognizance taken by the court itself of certain facts which

are so clearly established that evidence of their existence is deemed
unnecessary.

Q.30. What is the rationale behind exclusion of Hearsay evidence?

Ans. If the same is accepted it may encourage the substitution of

weaker for stronger proof.

Q.31. What is the nature of Mandatory Injunction?

Ans. It is prospective and concurrent in nature.

Q.32. Can Specific Relief be granted for enforcing Penal Laws?

Ans. No, this is so provided under section 4 of the Specific Relief Act,
1963.

Q.33. Can a mother act as a guardian of a child even though the

father is still alive?

Ans. Yes.

Q.34. What do you mean by the legal maxim ‘nullum crimine pena
sine lege”?

Ans. It means no crime and no penalty without a law.

Q.35. When does the proposal of contract become complete?

Ans. When the same comes to the knowledge of the person to whom
it is made.

Q.36. On which legal maxim/doctrine the case of Ashby v. White is

based upon?

Ans. It is based upon the legal maxim/doctrine injuria sine damnum

meaning thereby, where there is an infringement of a legal right even
without any damage or loss, there arises a legal remedy.

Q.37. What do you mean by the maxim Salus Populi Suprema Lex?

Ans. It means the welfare of the people is the supreme law.

Q.38. What is the difference between a Suit and an Appeal?

Ans. In Ganga Bai v. Vijay Kumar, it was held that a suit for its
maintainability requires no authority of law and it is enough that no
statute bars the suit. But the position in regard to appeals is quite
different as the right to appeal inheres in no one and therefore an
appeal for its maintainability must have the clear authority of law.

Q.39. Can an appeal be converted into Revision?

Ans. Yes, in the case where no appeal lies.

Q.40. What is the effect of Remand?

Ans. An order of remand reverses the decision of the lower court and
re-opens the case for re-trial by the lower court except in regard to
matters decided by the appellate court.

Q.41. Explain the duties of the Appellate Court?

Ans. Duties of Appellate Court are as under:

a) Duty to decide appeal finally;

b) Duty not to interfere with decree for technical errors;

c) Duty to re-appreciate evidence

d) Duty to record reasons.

Q.42. When was the Charter of the United Nations adopted?

Ans. 1945

Q.43. What do you mean by Extradition?

Ans. It means exchange of criminals from one State to the other

State.

Q.44. What do you mean by Privity of Contract?

Ans. It means that a contract is only between the parties and no

other/third party can sue upon it even if the same is made for his
benefit.

Q.45. What is the distinction between Adultery and Rape?

Ans. Adultery is an offence against marriage. Rape is an offence

against the person of the woman.

Q.46. Define Special law.

Ans. A law applicable to a particular subject.

Q.47. Define Damages.

Ans. It is the compensation in terms of money for the loss suffered

by the injured party.

Q.48. Define Tort.

Ans. It is a violation of a right of a person/breach of duty by one

person towards another.

Q.49. What do you mean by Constructive liability?

Ans. It means the liability of a person for an offence which he has not
committed but the same was committed by some other person. In
other words, it is liability of all for the prohibited acts committed by
some other person or persons.
Q.50. What is the basic difference between Common Intention and
Common object?

Ans. Common intention requires a pre-arranged plan whereas the

same is not required in the latter.

Q.51. On which legal maxim is section 95 of the Indian Penal Code

based upon?

Ans. It is based on the maxim de minimis non curat lex which means
the law takes no account of trifles.

Q.52. Define Criminal Conspiracy.

Ans. When two or more persons agree to do or cause to be done an

illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an
agreement is referred to as criminal conspiracy.

Q.53. What do you mean by Per incurium?

Ans. When the court gives a decision in ignorance of a statute or a

rule having statutory effect, such a decision is termed as Per
incurium.

Q.54. What do you mean by Plea of Demurrer?

Ans. It is a plea raised by the contesting respondent in fact.

Q.55. What does pleading consist of?

Ans. It consists of plaint and written statement.

Q.56. Can women be arrested for execution of Money decree?

Ans. No.

Q.57. What do you mean by Garnishee Order?

Ans. Proceedings by which a decree holder seeks to recover money

or property of judgment debtor in the hands of the third party is
known as Garnishee Order.
Q.58. What do you mean by Standing Offer?

Ans. An offer which is allowed to remain open for acceptance over a

period of time is known as standing offer.

Q.59. Whether a minor can become Agent for Principal?

Ans. Yes.

Q.60. What do you mean by Suit for foreclosure?

Ans. A suit to obtain a decree under section 67 of the Transfer of

Property Act is known as Suit for foreclosure.

Q.61. What do you mean by English Mortgage?

Ans. When a mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage money

on certain date and transfer mortgage property absolutely to
mortgagee with a condition that upon repayment of mortgage
money, the mortgagee will re-transfer it to the mortgagor.

Q.62. What do you mean by Holder in Due Course?

Ans. A person who becomes possessor of negotiable instrument

payable to the bearer for consideration is known as Holder in Due
Course.

Q.63. In case of continuous breach of contract, what shall be the

period of limitation be reckoned as?

Ans. In this case fresh period of limitation to run at every breach of

contract.

Q.64. What is the time period one must have enjoyed for claiming
easement right in the property of another?

Ans. Twenty years.

Q.65. When can a party institute a suit for rectification of contract?

Ans. When an instrument in writing executed between the parties

does not express the real intention behind it, and then either party
to the suit may institute a suit for rectification of instrument.
Q.66. What is the difference between common intention and
similar intention?

Ans. Common intention requires prior meeting of mind whereas it is

not necessary in case of similar intention.

Q.67. How will you define the term “Life Imprisonment”?

Ans. It means imprisonment that continues till the life of the convict
and nothing less. This was so held in the case of Gopal Vinayak Godse
v. State, AIR 1982 SC 1439.

Q.68. What is the minimum duration of sentence prescribed for an

offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

Ans. Section 510 IPC provides the minimum duration of punishment

of twenty hours for an offence of misconduct in public by a drunken
person.

Q.69. What do you mean by the expression “volenti non fit

injuria”?

Ans. It means he who consents suffers no injury.

Q.70. What is the difference between waging war against the

Government and Rioting?

Ans. In waging war against the Government, the object is to

challenge the authority of the Government whereas in rioting, there
has to be use of force or violence by an unlawful assembly, or by any
member thereof, in prosecution of common object of such unlawful
assembly.

Q.71. What is Hiba-Bil-iwaz?

Ans. It is a gift made by a Muslim for a consideration.

Q.72. Which House of the Parliament is presided over by a Non-

Member?
Ans. Rajya Sabha

Q.73. In which case has the Supreme Court upheld the validity of
the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Divorce) Act, 1986?
Ans. Daniel Latifi v.Union of India.
Q.74. What is Homicide?

Ans. It means killing of one human being by another human being.

Q.75. In which case has the Supreme Court upheld the

constitutional validity of the Death Sentence?

Ans. The Supreme Court in Jagmohan Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR

1973 SC 947 has observed that death sentence is not violative of
Articles 4, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India.

Q.76. Under what circumstances is a Hindu wife not entitled to

separate residence and maintenance from her husband?
Ans. She will not be entitled to separate residence and maintenance
from her husband, if she is unchaste or ceases to be a Hindu by
conversion to another religion.

Q.77. What is the presumption to be drawn by the court regarding

the registered adoption deed?

Ans. The court shall presume that the adoption deed has been made
in compliance with the provisions of the Hindu Adoptions and
Maintenance Act, 1956 unless and until the same is disproved.

Q.78. Whether under section 20 of the Hindu Adoptions and

Maintenance Act, 1956, the expression “parent” includes a childless
step mother?
Ans. Yes.

Q.79. What is the difference between uterine blood and half blood?
Ans. In case of uterine blood, two persons are related to each other
when they are descended from a common ancestress but by
different husbands whereas in case of half blood two persons are
related to each other when they are descended from a common
ancestor but by different wives.

Q.80. What are the grounds of Voidable Marriage under the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955?

Ans. Following are the grounds of Voidable Marriage provided under

section 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:
(a) Marriage not consummated between the parties due to
impotency of the respondent.
(b) Marriage is in contra-vention of section 5 (ii) of Hindu Marriage
Act.

(c) Consent of either party to the marriage or his/her guardian’s

consent, in case of minor, has been obtained by force or by fraud or
by material concealment of fact.

(d) The respondent was at the time of marriage pregnant by some

person other than the petitioner.

Q.81. Whether a criminal prosecution can continue against a dead

person?

Ans. A criminal prosecution cannot continue against a dead person

as in this case the accused does not exist and cannot be convicted.
This was so held by the Supreme Court in the case of U.
Subhadramma v. State of A.P., (2016) 7 SCC 796.

Q.82. What is Rule Nisi?

Ans. It means “to show cause”. Under this, the court order will have
no force unless a particular condition is met. Once the same is met,
the order shall become absolute.

Q.83. What is the object behind recalling of a witness?

Ans. The purpose behind recalling of a witness is to enable court to

clarify any issues or doubts. This was observed by the Supreme Court
in the case of Gayathri M. Girish, (2016) 14 SCC 142.

Q.84. Who can and under what circumstances can a joint session of
the Parliament be called?

Ans. It can be called by the President of India to ponder a particular

bill in case:

a) A bill passed by one House is rejected by the other.

b) The amendments made by the other House are not accepted by

the House in which the same originates.

c) If the bill remains unpassed by the Parliament for more than six
months.
Q.85. Which House of the Parliament can be dissolved?

Ans. Only Lok Sabha can be dissolved.

Q.86. Under what circumstances may the divorced persons lawfully

marry again?

Ans. Section 15 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides the

following circumstances under which divorced persons may marry
again. These are:

a) When there is no right to appeal against the decree; or

b) If there is such a right to appeal, the time for appealing has

expired without an appeal having been presented; or

c) An appeal has been presented but has been dismissed.

Q.87. When are goods said to be in a deliverable state?

Ans. Goods are said to be in a deliverable state, when they are in

such a state that the buyer would under the contract be bound to
take delivery of them.

Q.88. When does an agreement to sell become a sale?

Ans. It becomes sale when the time elapses or the conditions are
fulfilled subject to which the property is to be transferred.

Q.89. What are the remedies available to an aggrieved party in case

of breach of contract?

Ans. Following are the remedies to an aggrieved party in case of

breach of contract:

1) Suit for price

2)Damages for non-acceptance.

3) Damages for non-delivery

4) Specific Performance of Contract.

Q.90. Whether the unpaid seller of goods, having a lien thereon,
loses his lien by reason that he has obtained a decree for the price
of goods?

Ans. No

Q.100. Whether criminal revision lies against the interlocutory

orders?

Ans. No.

Q.101. What do you mean by Attempt to commit an offence?

Ans. It means when the preparations for committing an offence by

the culprit are complete and culprit has moved a step towards the
commission of an offence.

Q.102. Whether the Supreme Court has the power to transfer a civil
or criminal case pending in any court in the State of Jammu and
Kashmir to a court outside and vice versa?

Ans. Yes, it has power to transfer a civil or criminal case pending in

any court in the State of Jammu and Kashmir to a court outside and
vice versa even if there is no provision under C.P.C or Cr.P.C with
regard to it, provided the Supreme Court is satisfied that denial of
such transfer would result in violation of right to access to justice to a
litigant in the given facts and circumstances of the case. This was so
observed by the Supreme Court in the case of Anita Kushwaha v.
Pushap Sudan, 2016 (8) SCC 509.

Q. 103. What do you mean by Default Bail?

Ans. When the prosecution has failed to file the charge sheet within
the prescribed period, then the accused has to be released on bail in
respect of non-bailable offence this is known as default bail.

Q.104. What are the grounds for declaring Financial Emergency in

India?
Ans. When there is threat to the financial stability or credit of India
or any part of the territory of India.
Q.105. What do you mean by Right to Equality?

Ans. It ensures that there is no special privilege in favour of any

person. That all are equal in the eyes of law and are subject to the
ordinary law of the land and that no person, whatever his rank or
condition, is above the law.

Q.106. In which case has the Supreme Court laid down the new
approach to Equality?

Ans. This was so held by the Supreme Court in the case of E.P.
Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1974 SC 555.

Q.107. Which case is known as Habeas Corpus Case?

Ans. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivakant Shukla.

Q.108. In which case was it laid down that Judicial Review is basic
part of the Constitution?

Ans. In Keshavananda Bharati v. .

Q.109. What do you mean by Doctrine of Eclipse?

Ans. When an existing law is inconsistent with the fundamental

rights as enumerated in Part III of the Constitution, then the existing
law becomes inoperative from the date of the commencement of the
Constitution of India i.e. 26-1-1950.

Q.110. Is it correct that doctrine of eclipse applies to post

constitutional laws against citizens?

Ans. Yes, as held by the Supreme Court in the case of Dulare Lodh v.
3rd Additional Judge, Kanpur, AIR 1984 SC 1260.

Q.111. Can a citizen have the power to waive his Fundamental

Right?
Ans. In Basheshwar Nath v. C.I.T., AIR 1959 SC 149 it was laid down
that citizens cannot have the power to waive their fundamental
rights.

Q.112. What is the most striking feature of the Federal

Government?
Ans. Division of power between the Centre and the State.
Q.113. Under the Constitution of India, who has the power to
proclaim National Emergency in India?

Ans. President on the written advice of the Union Cabinet can

proclaim National Emergency in India.

Q.114. What are the consequences of the Proclamation of

Emergency in India?

Ans. Following are the consequences of proclaiming Emergency in

India:
i. Extend the Parliament’s power to make laws on those subjects
which are enumerated in the State List.

ii. Automatic suspension of Article 19 of the Constitution of India.

iii. Extends the Executive power of the Centre/Union.

Q.115. What is the nature of Muta Marriage?

Ans. It is a temporary marriage.

Q.116. With whom can a Shia male marry?

Ans. Only with a Muslim woman.

Q.117. Whether a wife has the power to prosecute her husband as

adulterer for the offence of adultery as enumerated in Section 497
IPC?
Ans. No, This was so explained by the Supreme Court in the case of
Revathi v. Union of India wherein the Court observed that the right
to prosecute the adulterer is only given to the husband of the
adulteress but has not been given to the wife of the adulterer and
further held that there was no discrimination based on sex and
section 497 IPC is thereby held valid.

Q.118. In which case was the validity of Sections 3 and 4 of the

Muslim women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 was
challenged?
Ans. Daniel Latifi v. Union of India, AIR 2001 SC 3262.
Q.119. What is the prescribed period provided under CPC 1908
within which a written statement can be filed by the defendant?

Ans. Written statement is to filed by the defendant within 30 days

from the date of service of summons.

Q.120. What is meant by Reasoned Decision?

Ans. Decision which contains reasons in support of it is known as

Reasoned decision.

Q.121. What are the grounds on which writ of prohibition as

envisaged under Article 32 of the Constitution of India can be
invoked?

Ans. Following are the grounds on which writ of prohibition as

envisaged under Article 32 of the Constitution of India can be issued:

1) For violating the principles of natural justice;

2) Abuse of jurisdiction.

Q.122. Distinction between Fraud and misrepresentation?

Ans. Fraud is more or less an intentional wrong whereas

misrepresentation may be reasonably innocent.

Q.123. What do you mean by Consensus ad idem?

Ans. It means an agreement upon the same thing in the same sense.

Q.124. What is counter offer?

Ans. It is a rejection of an original offer.

Q.125. Define Novation?

Ans. It is a change in the nature of obligation between the parties to

the contract.

Q.126. Define Vassal State.

Ans. State which is under the suzerainty of another state is known as

Vassal State.
Q.127. Define Frustration Of Contract?

Ans. It can be defined as cancellation of contract due to impossibility

of its performance.

Q.128. Which Amendment of the Constitution provides for special

provisions with respect to the State of Karnataka?

Ans. 98th Constitutional Amendment Act

Q.129. Which Amendment of the Constitution is referred to as the

Mini Constitution?

Ans. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.

Q.130. Who said that “Law is uncertain and certainty of law is a

legal myth”?

Ans. Jerome Frank.

Q.131. To whom can the Annual Report of the State PSC be

submitted?
Ans. It can be submitted to the Governor of the concerned State.

Q.132. On what basis are seats allocated in the Lok Sabha/Lower

House of the Parliament?

Ans. In Lok Sabha seats are allocated on the basis of the Population.

Q.133. Define Domicile?

Ans. It is the place/area where a person ordinarily resides.

Q.134. Who is an Abettor?

Ans. He is a person who instigates the other person to commit an

offence.

Q.135. In what circumstances can death punishment be awarded by

a Court of Law?

Ans. It can only be awarded in the rarest of rare cases.

Q.136. Whether to get sex education in schools is one’s
fundamental right?

Ans. No.

Q.137. Define Mortgage?

Ans. It is a transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for

the purpose of securing the payment of money in advance/loan.

Q.138. What do you mean by Prompt Dower?

Ans. The Dower which is immediately payable on demand of the

Muslim Wife is called Prompt Dower.

Q.139. In which case has the Supreme Court held that right to free
and fair elections is a basis feature of the Constitution?

Ans. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975).

Q.140. What do you mean by Surety?

Ans. He is a person who gives Guarantee for Principal Debtor.

Q.141. What is Double Jeopardy?

Ans. It means putting the same person on trial twice for the same
offence.

Q.142. In which case is secondary evidence admissible in law?

Ans. Where the non-production of primary evidence has been

accounted for by the plaintiff.

Q.143. Under what circumstances may a proposal be revoked?

Ans. Under the following circumstances, a proposal may be revoked:-

• By communication of notice of revocation by the proposer to the
other party

• By death or insanity of the proposer

• By lapse of time fixed in the proposal for its acceptance.

Q.144. How can a contract of agency be terminated?

Ans. Contract of Agency can be terminated in the following ways:-

• The principal revoking his authority

• Agent renouncing the business of agency

• Death of the principal or the agent.

Q.145. Define Liquidated Damages?

Ans. Genuine pre-estimate of the prospective damages is known as

liquidated damages.

Q.146. What are the circumstances in which injunction cannot be

granted?
Ans. Following are the circumstances in which injunction cannot be
granted:-

• Plaintiff has not come to the court with clean hands

• When equally efficacious relief can be obtained.

Q.147. Define Garnishee Order?

Ans. A garnishee order is an order directing the decree holder to take

payment from the judgment debtor’s debtor.

Q.148. Under what circumstance may pardon be tendered to an

accomplice under section 306 of Cr.P.C.?

Ans. When an accomplice undertakes to make full and true

disclosure of the facts relating to the offence.

Q.149. Define Partnership at Will?

Ans. A partnership not for any fixed duration is known as Partnership

at Will.

Q.150. Which writ can be issued to correct jurisdictional error?

Ans. Writ of Certiorari.

Q.151. Who said that “International law is a positive morality”?

Ans. Austin.
Q.152. Under Muslim Law, to whom does the custody of the
illegitimate children belong to?

Ans. Mother of the illegitimate children.

Q.153. What do you mean by Marz-ul-Maut?

Ans. Disease which causes death is known as Marz-ul- Maut.

Q.154. What is an Easement?

Ans. It is a right of beneficial enjoyment of property.

Q.155. Who headed the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee?

Ans. J.B Kriplani.

Q.156. Define specific performance of contract.

Ans. Actual execution of the contract according to its terms/

stipulations/conditions is known as specific performance of contract.

Q.157. How can a foreign judgment be enforced in India?

Ans. There are two ways by which a foreign judgment can be

enforced in India, namely:-

(i) By instituting a suit in India on such foreign judgment.

(ii) By instituting execution proceedings in certain cases as
mentioned in section 44A CPC,1908.

Q.158. Can a gift as to future property be made?

Ans. No, it is void.

Q.159. For confirmation of death sentence upon an accused, what

is the minimum number of Judges required?

Ans. Minimum two judges of the High Court.

Q.160. Till what stage can a court alter the charge?

Ans. At any time before the judgment is pronounced.

Q.161. Define theft?

Ans. Taking or moving of any movable property dishonestly, out of

the possession of any person without his consent is called Theft.

Q.162. When may leading question be asked?

Ans. It may be asked in cross examination.

Q.163. Define Novation?

Ans. When the parties to a contract substitute a new contract in

place of the old contract, it is called ‘novation of contract’.

Q.164. Name any two Directive Principles of State Policy?

Ans. (1) Uniform Civil Code for the citizens. (2) Organization of
Panchayats.

Q.165. To which class I or II of the Schedule prescribed in the Hindu

Succession Act, 1956 does ‘Father’ belong?

Ans. Father is successor in Class II.

Q.166. Who is a Sajjadanashin?

Ans. Incharge of Khankah is known as Sajjadanashin.

Q.167. Define Res gestae?

Ans. Facts so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the

same transaction is known as res gestae.

Q.168. What are the kinds of notice?

Ans. (i) Direct Notice (ii) Constructive Notice.

Q.169. How can preventive relief be granted by the courts?

Ans. It is granted in the form of temporary or permanent injunctions