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POST GRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST-2017

DATE and TIME COURSE SUBJ ECT


ME/M.Tech/M.Arch/
01-07-2017 CIVIL
courses offered by
2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m. ENGINEERING
VTU/UVCE/UBDTCE
MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING
100 150 Minutes 120 Minutes
MENTION YOUR PGCE'l NO. QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILS
VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER

A-1 101585
DOs :
I. • Check whether the PGC'ET No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.
2. Ensure whether the circles corresponding to course and the specific branch have been shaded on the ONIR
answer sheet.
This Question Booklet is issued to you by the invigilator after the 2" Bell i.e., after 2.25 p.m.
4. The Serial Number of this question booklet should be entered and the respective circles should also be shaded
completely on the OMR answer sheet. • .
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should also be shaded completely on the OMR answer sheet.
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
I. This question booklet contains 75 (items) questions and each question will have one statement and four answers.
(Four different options / responses.)
2. After the 3"' Bell is rung at 2.30 p.m., remove the paper seal / polythene bag of this question booklet and check
that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so. get it replaced by a
complete test booklet. Read each item and start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
During.- the subsequent 120 minutes:
• Read each question (item) carefully.
• Choose one correct answer from out of the four available responses (options / choices) given under
each question / item. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any. case, choose only one response for each item.
• Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a BLUE OR BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN
a ainst the ( uestion number on the OMR answer sheet.
Correct Method of shading the circle on the OMR answer sheet is as shown below i

4. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet
for the same.
5. After the last Bell is rung at 4.30 pm, stop marking on the OMR answer sheet and affix your, left hand thumb
impression on the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions.
6. liandover the OMR ANSWER SHEET to the room invigilator as it is.
7. After separating the top sheet (KEA copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate's copy)
to you to carry tome for self-evaluation.
X. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year.
9. Only Non-programmable calculators are allowed.
Marks Distribution
PART-I : 50 QUESTIONS- CARRY ONE MARK EACH (I TO 50)
PART-2 : 25 QUESTIONS CARRY TWO MARKS EACH (51 TO 75)

cE_Ai 111111111111111111111111
CIVIL ENGINEERING
PART — 1
Each question carries one mark. (50 x 1 = 50)

1. Strain energy of a member is 4. For a linear elastic system,


minimization of potential energy
(A) function of load only
yields
(B) function of strains and stresses
(A) compatibility conditions
(C) directly proportional to strains
(B) equilibrium equations
(D) directly proportional to stresses
(C) constitutive relations

(D) strain displacement relations


2. For a linear system, type of
displacement function for strain
5. The XY segment in a curved member
energy is
with straight vertical leg carrying load.
(A) Linear `W' at point 'Z' is subjected to
(B) Quadratic

(C) Cubic

(D) Quartic
Y

4-Vertical member
3. The minimum number of members
required to form a simple truss is X
(A) (A) BM, SF and Axial Force

(B) 3 (B) Axial force only

(C) 4 (C) BM and SF

(D) 5 (D) BM and axial force only

Space For Rough Work

CE 3 A-1
6. The colour of Granite is 9. The rigid jointed frame shown in
figure is
(A) Grey

(B) Green

(C) Brown

(D) All of these

7. The defect caused due to over maturity


(A) unstable
, and unventilated storage of the wood
during its transit is called (B) stable and statically determinate

(A) knot (C) stable and statically indeterminate

(B) rind gall


(D) statically indeterminate by /nd
(C) foxiness degree

(D) heart shake

10. The ratio of maximum shear stress to


8. The number of independent displacement average shear stress for a rectangular
components at each joint of a rigid section is
jointed space frame is
(A) 1.28
(A) I
(B) 1.50
(B)

(C) 3 (C) 1.33

(D) 6 (D) 1.55

Space For Rough Work

A-1 4 CE
11. Forces in the legs of a tripod stand is 14. The possible location of shear centre
of the channel section shown in. fig. is
an example for

(A) Coplanar concurrent forces

(B) Non-coplanar concurrent forces

(C) Coplanar-non-concurrent forces 13

(D) Coplanar parallel forces

(A) P
12. Impact test enables one to estimate the (B) Q
property of (C) S
(D) R
(A) hardness

(B) toughness 15. A reinforced concrete structure has to


be constructed along a sea coast. The
(C) creep
minimum grade of concrete to be used
(D) strength as per IS 456-2000 is
(A) M-15
(B) M-20
13. Proof resilience is the maximum (C) M-25
energy stored at (D) M-30

(A) limit of proportionality


16. The Poisson's ratio is defined as
(B) elastic limit (A) axial stress/lateral stress
(B) lateral strain/axial strain
(C) plastic limit
(C) lateral stress/axial stress
(D) shrinkage limit (D) axial strain/lateral strain

Space For Rough Work

CE 5 A-1
17. For an isotropic material, relation 20. Closed contours of decreasing values
between Young's Modulus (E), Shear towards their centre represents
Modulus (G) and Poisson's ratio (t) is (A) a hill
given by
(B) a depression

(A) G — (C) a saddle or pass


2(l +p)
(D) a river bed
(B) G —
(I+2p)
21. Planimeter is used tbr measuring
E
(C) G — (A) area
2( — 2p)
(B) volume
(C) contour..gradient
E
(D) G — (D) slope angle
2( l +3p)

22. The advantage of providing super


18. The main principle of surveying is to
elevation on roads is
work
(A) higher speed of vehicles
(A) from part to the whole
(B) increased volume of traffic
(B) from whole to the part
(C) reduced maintenance cost of the
(C) from higher level to the lower
level roads

(D) from lower level to higher level (D) All of the above

19. The line normal to the plumb line is 23. Staggered rail joints are generally
known as provided

(A) horizontal line (A) on curves

(B) level line (B) on tangents

(C) datum line (C) on bridges

(D) vertical line (D) in tunnels

Space For Rough -Work

A-1 6 CE
24. Surf zone is 27. Air binding may occur in

(A) the fathom line of 10 m depth (A) Sewers


(B) Artesian well
(B) the fathom line of 5 m depth
(C) Aerator
(C) the swell of the sea breaking on
(D) Filter
the shore or reefs

(D) the coast line attacked by the


28. Composting and Lagooning are the
kvaves
methods of
(A) Sludge digestion
25. If F is the fetch, the straight line (B) Sludge disposal
distance of open water available in (C) Sedimentation
kilometres, the height of the wave in
(D) Filtration
metres is

(A) 0.15 j 29. The effective size of sand particles


used in slow sand filters is
(B) 0.20 j
(A) 0.25 to 0.35 mm
(C) 0.28 -Nff (B) 0.35 to 0.60 mm

(D) 0.34 (C) 0.60 to 1.00 min


(D) 1.00 to 1.80 mm

26. The Kuichlings formula to determine


30. If pan evaporation is denoted by E r
the rate of fire demand is
and actual evaporation by E, then
(A) Q=4637 -5 [1 —0.01 J] (A) Ep> E

(B) Q= 3182 VII (B) E> E p

(C) Q = 1136 [0.1 P + 10] (C) E= E p

(D) None of the above (D) E Ep

Space For Rough Work

CE 7 A-1•
31. In order to prepare 2 hour unit 34. The effect of increasing diameter- of
hydrograph from a 6 hour unit sewer on the self cleaning velocity is
hydrograph, which of the following
(A) to decrease it
method will be applied ?
(B) to increase it
(A) Synthetic Unit Hydrograph
(C) fluctuating
(B) S-curve Method
(D) nil
(C) Instantaneous Unit Hydrograph

(D) Simple Unit Hydrograph


35. Specific weight of liquid

(A) remains constant at every place.


32. The amount of water stored in a river
channel without any artificial storage (B) does not remain constant at
is called every place.

(A) Bank storage (C) varies from place to place on the


earth.
(B) River storage

(C) Valley storage (D) does not vary on any other


planet.
(D) Dead storage

36. Fluids change the volume under


33. The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate
external pressure due to
BOD is about
(A) Plasticity
(A) 1/3

1/3 (B) Viscosity


(B)

(C) 3/4
(C) Compressibility

(D) 1.0 (D) Tension

Space For Rough Work

A-1 8 CE
37. In an open tube, free surface of 41. Equation of continuity of flow is based
mercury remains on the principle of conservation of
(A) horizontal (A) mass
(B) curved upwards (B) momentum
(C) curved downwards (C) force
(D) level (D) acceleration

38. The unit of the viscosity is 42. The instrument used for measuring the
velocity of flow is known as
(A) kg-s/ m2
(A) Venturimeter
(B) N-s/n1 (B) Orifice meter
,
(C) N-S / 1113 (C) Pitot tube
(D) m- /s (D) Differential manometer

39. A • floating body attains stable 43. For a most economical rectangular
equilibrium if its metacentre is channel, the hydraulic mean depth, is
equal to
(A) above the centroid
(A) the depth of flow
(B) at the centroid
(B) half the depth of flow
(C) below the centroid
(C) one-third the depth of flow
(D) anywhere
(D) two-third the depth of flow

40. Total head of a liquid particles may


44. Soils that have been transported by
possess
wind
(A) Potential head and Kinetic head
(A) Lacustrine deposits
(B) Kinetic-head and Pressure head
(B) Glacial deposits
(C) Potential head and Pressure head
(C) Aeolin deposits
(D) Potential head, Kinetic head and
(D) Alluvial deposits
Pressure head
Space For Rough Work

CE .9 A-1
45. The ratio of total volume of voids to 48. The collapsible soil is associated with
total volume of soil is (A) Dune sands
(A) Porosity (B) Laterite soils
(B) Void ratio (C) Loess
(C) Air content (D) Black cotton soil
(D) Degree of saturation

49. The two. criteria for the determination

46. The correct order of capillary rise in of allowable bearing capacity of a


increasing order in different types of foundation are
soil is (A) Tensile failure and compression
(A) Fine sand, Clay, Silt, Colloids failure

(B) Silt, Fine sand, Clay, Colloids (B) Tensile failure and settlement

(C) Fine Sand, Clay, Colloids, Silt (C) Bond failure and shear failure

(D) Fine Sand, Silt, Clay, Colloids (D) Shear failure and settlement

47. Negative skin friction in a soil is 50. Soil are arranged in face to face
considered when the pile - is orientation. This type of soil structure

constructed through a is

(A) Fill material (A) Dispersed

(B.) Dense coarse sand (B) Cohesive matrix

(C) Over consolidated stiff clay (C) Honey comb

(D) Dense tine sand (D) Flocculent

Space For Rough Work

A-1 10 CE
PART — 2

(Each question carries two marks) (25 x 2 = 50)

51. For the beam shown in figure, the 53. For the beam subjected to uniformly
value of support moment is distributed moment M kN-m per unit

kN-M. length, bending moment at mid span is


M kN-ni per unit length
21ikN
Az
Infernal hinge
0
K---3 m (A) Zero
(B) M
(C) MI
(A) 5 kN-M
(D) M//
(B) 10 kN-M

(C) 40 kN-M 54. A rigid bar GM of length `/' is


(D) Zero kN-M supported by a hinge and a springyg of
stillness `I(' as shown in figure.
Buckling load per for the bar will be
52. Ultimate collapse load (P) interms of
plastic Moment (Mr) by kinematic H
approach for a propped cantilever `13'
acting at mid span is

N
/12 >PC //2
(A) P = 2Mp//
(A) 0.5 k/
(B) P = 4Mp//
(B) 0.8 k/
(C) P -= oMpll (C) 0.9 k!
(D) P = 8Mp// (D) 1.0 k/

Space For Rough Work

CE 11 • A-1
55. A concrete beam of rectangular cross 57. If a ladder is not in equilibrium against
section of 200 mm x 400 mm is
stressed by a force of 400 kN at a smooth vertical wall, then it can be
eccentricity 100 mm. The maximum
made in equilibrium by
compressive stress in the concrete is
(A) 12.5 N/ mm'
(A) increasing angle of inclination
(B) 7.5 N/ mm2
(C) 5.0 N/ mm2 with horizontal.
(D) 2.5 N/ mm'
56. A ball of weight W is supported on (B) decreasing angle of inclination
smooth planes as shown. The free
body diagram of the ball is with horizontal.

(C) increasing area of the ladder.

(D) decreasing area of the ladder.

58. A steel column, pinned at both ends,

has a buckling load of 200 kN. If the


(B)
column is restrained against lateral

movement at its mid height, its


(C)
buckling load is

(A) 200 kN

(B) 283 kN

(D) (C) 400 kN

(D) 800 kN

Space For Rough Work

A-1 12 CE
59. The stepped cantilever is subjected to 61. In a BG railway track a specified
moments M as shown in figure. ruling gradient is I in 250. The
horizontal curve of 3° on a gradient of
The vertical deflection at the free end
1 in 250 will have permissible gradient
is
of
(A) 1 in 357
M (B) 1 in 251
2 El I1I (C) 1 in 163
Qm
82 >I< 1/2 --31 (D) I in 158

62. The main plate of a transit is divided


M/ 2
(A) into 1080 equal divisions, 60 divisions
8E1
of the Vernier coincide exactly with 59
M /2 divisions of the main plate. The transit
(B)
4E1 can read angles accurate upto
(A) 20"
(C) M /2 (B) 30"
2E1
(C) 10"
(D) Zero
(D) 40"

60. The RL of bench mark is 100.00. The


63. The radius of a horizontal curve is 100 in.
back sight is 1.215 in and foresight is The design speed is 50 kmph and the
1.870 in, the RL of the forward station design co-efficient of lateral friction is
is 0.15. What would he the rate of super
elevation if full lateral friction is
(A) 99.345 in
considered ?
(B) 100.12 in
(A) 1/21.3
(C) 85.6 m (B) 1/15
(D) 73.2 m (C) 1/2
(D) 1/8.9
Space For Rough Work

CE 13 A-I
64. The chlorine usage in the treatment of 67. Two million litres of water per clay is
20,000 cum per day is 8 kg/day. The passing through a sedimentation tank
residual after 10 min contact is 20 which is 6 m wide, 15 m long and.
having water depth of 3.0 M.
mg/L. The chlorine dosage in
Detention time for the tank will he
milligrams per litre will be
(A) 3.24 hours
(A) 0.4
(B) 1.68 hours
(B) 0.5
(C) 1.5 hours
(C) 0.6 (D) 2.26 hours
(D) 0.8
68. Two small orifices A and B of
65. The volume of sedimentation tank is diameters I cm and 2 cm respectively •
are placed on sides of a tank at depths
10 M x50 M x 1.5 M (deep). Flow
of h 1 and h, below the open liquid
rate = 500 M/day. The retention time
surface. If discharges through A and B
would be
are equal, then ratio of h and II,
(A) 3.0 hours
(assuming equal coefficient of
(B) 2.4 hours discharge) will be
(C) 2.8 hours (A) 16: 1
(D) 1.8 hours (B) 8:1
(C) 4:1
(D)2:1
66. If self purification constant of a large
stream flowing with low velocity is
69. A model of reservoir is emptied in 10
2.0 and its re-oxygenation co-efficient
minutes, If model scale is 1:25, then
is 0.2, then its de-oxygenation co-
time taken by the prototype to empty
efficient will be itself, would be
(A) 0.22 (A) 250 minutes
(B) 0.1 (B) 50 minutes
(C) 0.18 (C) 60 minutes
(D) 0.4 (D) 2 minutes

Space For Rough Work

A-1 14 CF
70. If capillary rise of water in a 1 mm 73. If a rectangular beam Of c/s 300 mm x
diameter tube is 3 cm, the height of 400 mm - is subjected to a shear force
capillary rise of water in a 0.2 mm of 50 kN, then maximum shear stress
diameter tube in cm will he in the section is

(A) 1.5 cm (A) 0.625 N/

(B) 7.5 cm (B) 0.15 N/

(C) 15 cm (C) 0.53 1\1/ mm'

(D) 75 cm (D) 0.18 N/ mm'

71. -A trapezoidal channel with base width 74. If dry density of a sand with porosity
6 m and side slopes 2H to I V convey 0.387 is 1600 kg/ ms , then the void

water as 16 m3 /s with depth of flow ratio is

of 1.5 in. Froude number will be (A) 0.52

(A) 0.18 (B) 0.59


(C) 0.631
(B) 0.28
(D) 0.789
(C) 0.38
(D) 0.48
75. A retaining wall retains a sand strata
with (1) = 30° upto its top. If a uniform
72. An undisturbed soil sample has a
surcharge of 12000 N/ m2 is put on the
plastic limit of 25%, a natural moisture
strata then the increase in the lateral
content of 40% and a liquidity index
earth pressure intensity on wall will be
of 50%. Its liquid unit is
(A) 6000 N/ m2
(A) 50%
(B) 3000 N/ m '
(B) 55%
(C) 65% (C) 4000 N/ 1112

(D) 75% (D) 2000 N/ m'

Space For Rough Work

CE 15 A-1
Space For Rough Work

A-1 16 CE

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