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PHYSICS
DPP BOOKLET
60 + 28
Topic-wise Chapter-wise Improves
Tests for Concept your learning
Checking & by at least
Speed Building
20%
Ü Collection of 3100 + MCQs of all variety of questions
Ü Unique & innovative way of learning
Ü Detailed solutions to Topic-wise & Chapter-wise practice sheets
Ü Covers all important concepts of each topic
Ü As per latest pattern & syllabus
EBD_7156
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Daily Practice Problem (DPP) Sheets PHYSICS for

NEET/AIIMS/JIPMER (Kota's formula to Success)
PREPARE ASSESS IMPROVE
Assessment is the most integral part of a student’s preparation but still most of them avoid it. Only assessment can tell
where you stand and how you can improve from that point. So it is very important that you take the right assessment, which
is on the correct pattern, has the same level of difficulty as the actual exam and covers all the important concepts of the
subject.
Disha Publication launches a first of its kind product which changed the way coaching was conducted in KOTA - the hub
of Engineering and Medical Entrance education in India.
The book “Daily Practice Problem (DPP) Sheets for NEET/AIIMS” is precise, apt and tuned to all the requirements of a
NEET/AIIMS aspirant.
KEY DIFFERENTIATING FEATURES OF THE DPP SHEETS
• Part A provides 60 DPP's with division of the complete NEET syllabus of Physics into 60 most important Topics.
Each of the chapter has been broken into 2 or more topics.
• Part B consist of — Chapter-wise tests based on NCERT and NEET syllabus.
• Time Limit and Maximum Marks have been provided for each DPP Sheet/ topic. You must attempt each Sheet in
test like conditions following the time limits. Further to achieve perfect preparation in a topic or chapter one has
to score atleast 135 marks.
• Ultimate tool for Concept Checking & Speed Building.
• Collection of 3100 Standardised MCQ’s of all variety of NEW pattern questions – MCQ only one correct option
and Assertion-Reason.
• Unique & innovative way of learning. Whenever you have prepared a topic(Part A) or a chapter (Part B) just
attempt that worksheet.
• Do not refer the Solution Booklet until and unless you have made all the efforts to solve the DPP Sheets.
• Covers all important Concepts of each Topic in the form of different Questions in the DPP Sheets.
• As per latest pattern & syllabus of NEET/AIIMS JIPMER exam.

• Compliant to all boards of education.
No matter where you PREPARE from – a coaching or NCERT books or any other textbook/ Guide - Daily Practice Problem
Sheets provides you the right ASSESSMENT on each topic. Your performance provides you the right clues to IMPROVE
your concepts so as to perform better in the final examination.
It is to be noted here that these are not tests but act as a checklist of student’s learning and ability to apply concepts to
different problems. Do proper analysis after you attempt each DPP sheet and try to locate your weak areas.
It is our strong belief that if an aspirant works hard on the clues provided through each of the DPP sheets he/ she can
improve his/ her learning and finally the SCORE by at least 20%.
Χisha ∆xperts
EBD_7156
The book comprises of following two parts
Part A : Topic-wise DPP Sheets Page No.
Detailed Index (i) to (iv)
Topic-wise Sheets 1-60 (Each sheet 4 pages) 1 - 4
Solutions of Topic-wise Sheets 1 - 158
Part B : Chapter-wise DPP Sheets

Detailed Index (a) to (c)
Chapter-wise Sheets 1-28 p-1 – p-112
Solutions of Chapter-wise Sheets S-1– S-115
TOPIC-WISE
DPP SHEETS
WITH SOLUTIONS
[i]
EBD_7156
INDEX/SYLLABUS
DPP-1Page No.
DPP-1 PHYSICAL WORLD, UNITS & DIMENSIONS P1 - P 4
DPP-2 MEASUREMENTS (ERRORS) P1 - P 4
DPP-3 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 1 (Distance, Displacement, Uniform & Non-uniform motion) P1 - P 4
DPP-4 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 2 (Relative Motion & Motion Under Gravity) P1 - P 4
DPP-5 VECTORS P1 - P 4
DPP-6 MOTION IN A PLANE-1 (Projectile Motion) P1 - P 4
DPP-7 MOTION IN A PLANE-2 (Horizontal Circular Motion) P1 - P 4
DPP-8 MOTION IN A PLANE-3 (Vertical Circular Motion, Relative Motion) P1 - P 4
DPP-9 LAWS OF MOTION-1 (Newton's laws, momentum, pseudo force concept) P1 - P 4
DPP-10 LAWS OF MOTION-2 (Blocks in contact, connected by string, pulley arrangement) P1 - P 4
DPP-11 LAWS OF MOTION-3 (Friction) P1 - P 4
DPP-12 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER-1 (Work by constant and variable forces, kinetic and potential energy,
work energy theorem) P1 - P 4
DPP-13 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER-2 (Conservation of momentum and energy, collision, rocket case) P1 - P 4
DPP-14 CENTRE OF MASS AND ITS MOTION P1 - P 4
DPP-15 ROTATIONAL MOTION – 1: Basic concepts of rotational motion, moment of a force, torque, angular
momentum and its conservation with application P1 - P 4
DPP-16 ROTATIONAL MOTION-2 : Moment of inertia, radius of gyration, (values of moments of inertia simple
geometrical objects) P1 - P 4
DPP-17 ROTATIONAL MOTION - 3 : Rolling Motion, Parallel and perpendicular theorems and their
applications, Rigid body rotation, equations of rotational motion P1 - P 4
DPP-18 GRAVITATION - 1 (The Universal law of gravitation, Acceleration due to gravity and its variation with
altitude and depth, Kepler's law of planetary motion) P1 - P 4
DPP-19 GRAVITATION - 2 (Gravitational potential energy, Gravitational potential, Escape velocity & Orbital
velocity of a satellite, Geo-stationary satellites) P1 - P 4
DPP-20 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS P1 - P 4
DPP-21 FLUID MECHANICS P1 - P 4
[ii]
DPP-22 THERMAL EXPANSION, CALORIMETRY AND CHANGE OF STATE P1 - P 4
DPP-23 HEAT TRANSFER & NEWTON’S LAW OF COOLING P1 - P 4
DPP-24 THERMODYNAMICS-1 (Thermal equilibrium, zeroth law of thermodynamics, concept of temperature,

Heat, work and internal energy, Different thermodynamic processes) P1 - P 4
DPP-25 THERMODYNAMICS-2 (1st and 2nd laws of thermodynamics, Reversible & irreversible processes,
Carnot engine and its efficiency) P1 - P 4
DPP-26 KINETIC THEORY P1 - P 4
DPP-27 OSCILLATIONS-1 (Periodic motion - period, Frequency, Displacement as a function of time. Periodic
functions, Simple harmonic motion and its equation, Energy in S.H.M. - kinetic and potential energies)
P1 - P 4
DPP-28 OSCILLATIONS-2 (Oscillations of a spring, simple pendulum, free, forced and damped oscillations,
Resonance) P1 - P 4
DPP-29 WAVES-1 (Wave motion, longitudinal and transverse waves, speed of a wave, displacement relation for a
progressive wave, principle of superposition of waves, reflection of waves) P1 - P 4
DPP-30 WAVES-2 (Standing waves in strings and organ pipes, Fundamental mode and harmonics, Beats, Doppler
effect in sound) P1 - P 4
DPP-31 PRACTICAL PHYSICS - 1 P1 - P 4
DPP-32 ELECTROSTATICS-1 (Coulomb's law, electric field, field lines, Gauss's law) P1 - P 4
DPP-33 ELECTROSTATICS-2 (Electric potential and potential difference, equipotential surfaces, electric dipole)
P1 - P 4
DPP-34 ELECTROSTATICS -3 (Electrostatic Potential energy, conductors) P1 - P 4
DPP-35 ELECTROSTATICS-4 (Capacitors, dielectrics) P1 - P 4
DPP-36 CURRENT ELECTRICITY – 1 (Electric Current, drift velocity, Ohm's law, Electrical resistance, Resistances
of different materials, V-I characteristics of Ohm and non-ohmic conductors, electrical energy and power,
Electrical resistivity, Colour code of resistors, Temperature dependance of resistance) P1 - P 4
DPP-37 CURRENT ELECTRICITY – 2 Electrical cell and its internal resistance, Potential difference and E.M.F of a
cell, Combination of cells in series and in parallel, Kirchoff's laws and their applications, RC transient circuit,
Galvanometer, Ammeter, Voltmeter] P1 - P 4
DPP-38 CURRENT ELECTRICITY-3 : Wheatstone bridge, Meter bridge, Potentiometer-principle and its applications.
P1 - P 4
DPP-39 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT-1 (Magnetic field due to current carrying wires, Biot savart law)
P1 - P 4
DPP-40 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT-2 : (Motion of charge particle in a magnetic field, force between
current carrying wires.) P1 - P 4
[iii]
EBD_7156
DPP-41 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT-3 (Magnetic dipole, Current carrying loop in magnetic
field,Galvanometer ) P1 - P 4
DPP-42 MAGNETISM AND MATTER - 1 (Bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid, Magnetic field lines, Earth's
magnetic field and magnetic elements) P1 - P 4
DPP-43 MAGNETISM & MATTER-2 (Para, dia and ferro-magnetic substances, magnetic susceptibility and
permeability, Hysteresis, Electromagnets and permanent magnets.) P1 - P 4
DPP-44 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION-1 (Magnetic flux, Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction,

Lenz's law, motional e.m.f.) P1 - P 4
DPP-45 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION - 2 : Self inductance, mutual inductance, Growth and decay of
current in L.R. circuit, Transformer, Electric motor, Generator P1 - P 4
DPP-46 ALTERNATING CURRENT - 1 (Alternating currents, peak and rms value of alternating current/voltage;
reactance and impedance, Pure circuits, LR, CR ac circuits.) P1 - P 4
DPP-47 ALTERNATING CURRENT - 2 (LCR series circuit, resonance, quality factor, power in AC circuits, wattless
and power current) P1 - P 4
DPP-48 EM WAVES P1 - P 4
DPP-49 RAY OPTICS-1 (Reflection on plane mirrors and curved mirrors) P1 - P 4
DPP-50 RAY OPTICS - II (Refraction on plane surface, total internal reflection, prism) P1 - P 4
DPP-51 RAY OPTICS - 3 (Refraction on curved surface lens, Optical instrument) P1 - P 4
DPP-52 WAVE OPTICS - I (Interference of Light) P1 - P 4
DPP-53 WAVE OPTICS - II (Diffraction and polarisation of light) P1 - P 4
DPP-54 DUAL NATURE OF MATTER & RADIATION (Matter Waves, Photon, Photoelectric effect, X-ray) P1 - P 4
DPP-55 ATOMS P1 - P 4
DPP-56 NUCLEI P1 - P 4
DPP-57 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS - 1 (Semiconductors, LED, Photodiode, Zener diode) P1 - P 4
DPP-58 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS-2 (Junction transistor, transistor action, characteristics of a transistor,

transistor as an amplifier, logic gates) P1 - P 4
DPP-59 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS, LASER P1 - P 4
DPP-60 PRACTICAL PHYSICS - 2 P1 - P 4
Solutions to Topic-wise DPP Sheets (1-60) 1-158
[iv]
DPP - Daily Practice Problems

Name : Date :
Start Time : End Time :
01
SYLLABUS : Physical World, Units & Dimensions
Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct
circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.
• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.
• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/
deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.
• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that
syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.
• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time
to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice and n2 are number of particles per unit volume in the position
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out x1 and x2. Find dimensions of D called as diffusion constant.
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) [M 0 L T 2] (b) [M 0 L2 T –4]
0
(c) [M L T ] –3 (d) [M 0 L2 T –1]
Q.1 If L, C and R represent inductance, capacitance and
2
Q.3 X = 3YZ find dimensions of Y in (MKSA) system, if X and
resistance respectively, then which of the following does
not represent dimensions of frequency? Z are the dimensions of capacity and magnetic field
respectively
1 R
(a) (b) (a) [M –3L –2T – 4A –1] (b) [ML– 2]
RC L –3 –2 4 4
(c) [M L T A ] (d) [M –3L– 2T 8A 4]
1 C aZ
(c) (d) a - kq
LC L Q.4 In the relation P = , P is pressure, Z is the distance,
e
Q.2 Number of particles crossing unit area perpendicular to b
k is Boltzmann constant and q is the temperature. The
n2 - n1
X-axis in unit time is given by n = - D , where n1 dimensional formula of b will be
x2 - x1 (a) [M 0L 2T 0] (b) [M 1L 2T 1]
1 0
(c) [M L T ] –1 (d) [M 0L 2T –1]
RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.
Space for Rough Work
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 01
1/ 2
Q.12 Wavelength of ray of light is 0.00006 m. It is equal to
P éF ù (a) 6 microns (b) 60 microns
Q.5 The frequency of vibration of string is given by n = ê ú .
2l ë m û (c) 600 microns (d) 0.6 microns
Here P is number of segments in the string and l is the Q.13 SI unit of permittivity is
length. The dimensional formula for m will be (a) C2 m2 N–2 (b) C–1 m 2N –2
(a) [M 0LT –1] (b) [ML 0T –1] (c) C2 m2 N2 (d) C2 m–2 N –1
(c) [ML T ] –1 0 (d) [M 0L 0T 0]
Q.6 What is the relationship between dyne and newton of force? 1
Q.14 The dimensions of e E2 (e0 = permittivity of free space
(a) 1 dyne = 10–5 newton (b) 1 dyne = 10–7 newton 2 0
(c) 1 dyne = 105 newton (d) 1 dyne = 107 newton and E = electric field) are
Q.7 The speed of light (c), gravitational constant (G) and (a) MLT–1 (b) ML2 T–2
(c) ML T –1 –2 (d) ML2 T–1
Planck's constant (h) are taken as the fundamental units in a
system. The dimensions of time in this new system should Q.15 Which of the following pairs is wrong?
be (a) Pressure-Baromter
(a) G1/2 h1/2 c –5/2 (b) G–1/2 h 1/2 c 1/2 (b) Relative density-Pyrometer
(c) G1/2 h1/2 c –3/2 (d) G1/2 h 1/2 c 1/2 (c) Temperature-Thermometer
Q.8 If the constant of gravitation (G), Planck's constant (h) and (d) Earthquake-Seismograph
the velocity of light (c) be chosen as fundamental units. Q.16 A physical quantity x depends on quantities y and z as
The dimensions of the radius of gyration is follows: x = Ay + B tan Cz, where A, B and C are constants.
(a) h1/2 c –3/2G 1/2 (b) h1/2 c 3/2 G 1/2 Which of the following do not have the same dimensions?
(c) h c1/2 –3/2 G –1/2 (d) h–1/2 c –3/2 G 1/2 (a) x and B (b) C and z–1
Q.9 The magnitude of any physical quantity (c) y and B/A (d) x and A
(a) depends on the method of measurement Q.17 If the time period (T) of vibration of a liquid drop depends
(b) does not depend on the method of measurement on surface tension (S), radius (r) of the drop and density (r)
(c) is more in SI system than in CGS system of the liquid, then the expression of T is
(d) directly proportional to the fundamental units of mass,
length and time
(a) T = k rr 3 / S (b) T = k r1/ 2 r 3 / S
Q.10 The unit of Stefan's constant s is (c) T = k rr 3 / S1/ 2 (d) None of these
(a) Wm–2 K–1 (b) Wm2K–4
(c) Wm K –2 –4 (d) Wm–2K4 Q.18 The dimensional formula for Planck’s constant (h) is
Q.11 In S = a + bt + ct2 , S is measured in metres and t in seconds. (a) [ML–2T–3 ] (b) [M0L2T–2 ]
The unit of c is (c) [M0L2T–1 ] (d) [ML–2T–2 ]
(a) ms–2 (b) m Q.19 What are the dimensions of permeability (m0) of vaccum?
(c) ms –1 (d) None (a) MLT–2I2 (b) MLT–2I–2
(c) ML–1T–2I2 (d) ML–1T –2I–2
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

DPP/ P 01 3
Q.20 A small steel ball of radius r is allowed to fall under gravity Q.23 P represents radiation pressure, c represents speed of light and
through a column of a viscous liquid of coefficient of S represents radiation energy striking unit area per sec. The non
viscosity h. After some time the velocity of the ball attains a zero integers x, y, z such that Px Sy cz is dimensionless are
constant value known as terminal velocity vT. The terminal (1) x = 1 (2) y = – 1
velocity depends on (i) the mass of the ball m, (ii) h, (iii) r (3) z = 1 (4) x = – 1
and (iv) acceleration due to gravity g. Which of the following Q.24 Which of the following pairs have same dimensions?
relations is dimensionally correct? (1) Angular momentum and work
mg hr (2) Torque and work
(a) vT µ (b) vT µ
hr mg (3) Energy and Young’s modulus
(4) Light year and wavelength
mgr
(c) vT µ hrmg (d) vT µ DIRECTION (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below and
h
answer the questions that follows :
Q.21 The equation of state of some gases can be expressed as
Three of the fundamental constants of physics are the universal
æ a ö gravitational constant, G = 6.7 × 10–11m3kg–1s–2, the speed
ç P + 2 ÷ (V - b) = RT . Here P is the pressure, V is the of light, c = 3.0 × 10 8 m/s, and Planck’s constant,
è V ø
h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2 s–1.
volume, T is the absolute temperature and a, b and R are
Q.25 Find a combination of these three constants that has the
constants. The dimensions of 'a' are
dimensions of time. This time is called the Planck time and
(a) ML5 T–2 (b) ML–1 T–2 represents the age of the universe before which the laws of
(c) M0L3T0 (d) M0L6T0 physics as presently understood cannot be applied.
DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, more
hG hG
than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct (a) (b)
answers and mark it according to the following codes: c 4
c3
Codes :
hG hG
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) (d)
c c5
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
Q.26 Find the value of Planck time in seconds
Q.22 The frequency of vibration f of a mass m suspended from
a spring of spring constant k is given by a relation of the (a) 1.3 × 10– 33 s (b) 1.3 × 10– 43 s
type f = c mx ky, where c is a dimensionless constant. The (c) 2.3 × 10– 13 s (d) 0.3 × 10– 23 s
values of x and y are
Q.27 The energy of a photon is given by E = hc .
1 1 l
(1) x= (2) x=-
2 2
If l = 4 ´ 10 -7 m , the energy of photon is
1 1 (a) 3.0 eV (b) 4.5 eV
(3) y=- (4) y=
2 2 (c) 2.10 eV (d) 3.95 eV
RESPONSE 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

GRID 25. 26. 27.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 01
DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two
æ 1 1 ö
statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). v = Rç - ÷ , where the symbols have their usual
çn 2 2÷
Each of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of è 1 n2 ø
which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.
meaning.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Q.29 Statement -1: The time period of a pendulum is given by
correct explanation for Statement-1.
the formula, T = 2p g / l .
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT
a correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement -2: According to the principle of homogeneity of
(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. dimensions, only that formula is correct in which the
(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. dimensions of L.H.S. is equal to dimensions of R.H.S.
Q.28 Statement -1 : Unit of Rydberg constant R is m–1 Q.30 Statement -1: L/R and CR both have same dimensions.
Statement -2 : It follows from Bohr’s formula Statement -2: L/R and CR both have dimension of time.
RESPONSE GRID 28. 29. 30.
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM SHEET 1 - PHYSICS

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120
Attempted Correct
Incorrect N et Score
Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 50
Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score
Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)


Name : Date :
02
SYLLABUS : Measurements (Errors)

Q.1 A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 2% and 2%
length 6 ± 0.06 cm. The maximum percentage error in the respectiely. What is the percentage error in the quantity A
measurement of its density is (a) 12% (b) 7%
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5% (d) 14%
Q.2 If 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result in terms of
Q.4 A physical quantity is given by X = M a LbT c . The
significant figures is
percentage error in measurement of M, L and T are a, b and
(a) 38.4 (b) 38.3937
g respectively. Then maximum percentage error in the
(c) 38.394 (d) 38.39
quantity X is
Q.3 A physical quantity A is related to four observable a, b, c
(a) aa+ bb + cg (b) aa+ bb – cg
a 2b3 a b c
and d as follows, A = the percentage errors of (c) + + (d) None of these
c d a b g
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 02
Q.5 If the length of rod A is 3.25 ± 0.01 cm and that of B is Q.11 The mean time period of second's pendulum is 2.00s and
4.19 ± 0.01 cm then the rod B is longer than rod A by mean absolute error in the time period is 0.05s. To express
(a) 0.94 ± 0.00 cm (b) 0.94 ± 0.01 cm maximum estimate of error, the time period should be
(c) 0.94 ± 0.02 cm (d) 0.94 ± 0.005 cm written as
Q.6 If L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, then L + B = (a) (2.00 ± 0.01)s (b) (2.00 + 0.025) s
(a) 4.431 cm (b) 4.43 cm (c) (2.00 ± 0.05) s (d) (2.00 ± 0.10) s
(c) 4.4 cm (d) 4 cm Q.12 Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. The
Q.7 The number of significant figures in all the given numbers error in the calculated value of its volume is
25.12, 2009, 4.156 and 1.217 × 10–4 is (a) 1% (b) 3%
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5% (d) 7%
Q.8 In an experiment, the following observation's were Q.13 The relative density of material of a body is found by
recorded: L = 2.820 m, M = 3.00 kg, l = 0.087 cm, weighing it first in air and then in water. If the weight in air
is (5.00 ± 0.05) newton and weight in water is (4.00 ± 0.05)
Diameter D = 0.041 cm. Taking g = 9.81 m/s2 using the
newton. Then the relative density along with the maximum
formula, Y = 4 MgL , the maximum percentage error in Y permissible percentage error is
pD 2l (a) 5.0 ± 11% (b) 5.0 ± 1%
is
(a) 7.96% (b) 4.56% (c) 6.50% (d) 8.42% (c) 5.0 ± 6% (d) 1.25 ± 5%
Q.9 A physical parameter a can be determined by measuring V
Q.14 The resistance R = where V = 100 ± 5 volts and
i
b a cb
the parameters b, c, d and e using the relation a = . i = 10 ± 0.2 amperes. What is the total error in R ?
d g ed
If the maximum errors in the measurement of b, c, d and e 5
(a) 5% (b) 7% (c) 5.2% (d) %
are b1%, c1%, d1%, and e1%, then the maximum error in 2
the value of a determined by the experiment is Q.15 The length of a cylinder is measured with a meter rod having
(a) (b1+ c1+ d1+ e1)% (b) (b1+ c1– d1– e1)% least count 0.1 cm. Its diameter is measured with vernier
(c) (ab1+ bc1– gd1– de1)%(d) (ab1+ bc1+ gd1+ de1)% calipers having least count 0.01 cm. Given that length is
5.0 cm. and radius is 2.0 cm. The percentage error in the
Q.10 The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by
calculated value of the volume will be
l (a) 1% (b) 2%
T = 2p where l is about 100 cm and is known to have
g (c) 3% (d) 4%
1mm accuracy. The period is about 2s. The time of 100 Q.16 According to Joule’s law of heating, heat produced H =
oscillations is measured by a stopwatch of least count 0.1s. I2Rt, where I is current, R is resistance and t is time . If the
The percentage error in g is errors in the measurements of I,R. and t are 3%, 4% and
6% respectively then error in the measurement of H is
(a) 0.1% (b) 1%
(a) ± 17% (b) ± 16%
(c) 0.2% (d) 0.8% (c) ± 19% (d) ± 25%
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16.

DPP/ P 02 3
1 Q.22 In the context of accuracy of measurement and significant

3
A B2 figures in expressing results of experiment, which of the
Q.17 A physical quantity P is given by P = 3
. The quantity following is/are correct?
-4 1. Out of the two measurements 50.14 cm and 0.00025
C D2
ampere, the first one has greater accuracy
which brings in the maximum percentage error in P is 2. Out of the two measurements 50.14 cm and 0.00025
(a) A (b) B ampere, the second has greater accuracy.
(c) C (d) D 3. If one travels 478 km by rail and 397 m by road, the
Q.18 If there is a positive error of 50% in the measurement of total distance travelled is 875 km.
velocity of a body, then the error in the measurement of 4. If one travels 697 m by rail and 478 km by road, the
kinetic energy is total distance is 478 km.
(a) 25% (b) 50% Q.23 A thin copper wire of length l metre increases in length by
(c) 100% (d) 125% 2% when heated through 10°C. Which is not the
Q.19 The random error in the arithmetic mean of 100 percentage increase in area when a square copper sheet of
observations is x; then random error in the arithmetic mean length l metre is heated through 10°C
of 400 observations would be (1) 12% (2) 8% (3) 16% (4) 4%
1 1 Q.24 A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8 ± 0.2) m in a
(a) 4x (b) x (c) 2x (d) x
4 2 time (4.0 ± 0.3) s.
Q.20 The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and
speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How much will be the 1. Its velocity with error limit is (3.5 ± 0.31) ms–1
maximum error in the estimation of the kinetic energy 2. Its velocity with error limit is (3.5 ± 0.11) ms–1
obtained by measuring mass and speed?
(a) 11% (b) 8% 3. Percentage error in velocity is ± 4%
(c) 5% (d) 1% 4. Percentage error in velocity is ± 9%
Q.21 The unit of percentage error is
(a) Same as that of physical quantity DIRECTION (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below
(b) Different from that of physical quantity and answer the questions that follows :
(c) Percentage error is unitless
(d) Errors have got their own units which are different The internal radius of a 1m long resonance tube is measured as
from that of physical quantity measured 3 cm. A tuning fork of frequency 2000 Hz is used. The first
resonating length is measured as 4.6 cm and the second
DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, resonating length is measured as 14.0 cm.
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the Q.25 Calculate the maximum percentage error in measurement
correct answers and mark it according to the following of e.
codes: (a) 3.33% (b) 2.23% (c) 4.33% (d) 5.33%
Codes : Q.26 Calculate the speed of sound at the room temperature.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (a) 275 m/s (b) 376 m/s
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (c) 356 m/s (d) 330 m/s
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 02
Q.27 Calculate the end correction. (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(a) 0.2 cm (b) 0.3 cm (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(c) 0.1 cm (d) 0.4 cm Q.28 Statement-1: Number of significant figures in 0.005 is
one and that in 0.500 is three.
DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains Statement-2 : This is because zero is not significant.
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Q.29 Statement-1: Out of three measurements l = 0.7 m;
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, l = 0.70 m and l = 0.700 m, the last one is most accurate.
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
Statement-2: In every measurement, only the last
correct choice.
significant digit is not accurately known.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Q.30 Statement-1: Parallex method cannot be used for
correct explanation for Statement-1. measuring distances of stars more than 100 light years
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is away.
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2: Because parallex angle reduces so much that
it cannot be measured accurately.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 1 (Distance, Displacement, Uniform & Non-uniform motion)
03
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice 1 1 3

(a)v0 t + bt 2 (b) v0 t + bt
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 3 3
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. 1 3 1 2
Q.1 A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance (c) v0 t + bt (d) v0t + bt
6 2
with speed of 3 m/s. The other half of the distance is Q.3 The motion of a body is given by the equation
covered in two equal time intervals with speed of 4.5 m/s
dv(t )
and 7.5 m/s respectively. The average speed of the particle = 6.0 - 3v(t ), where v(t) is speed in m/s and t in sec.
during this motion is dt
(a) 4.0 m/s (b) 5.0 m/s If body was at rest at t = 0
(c) 5.5 m/s (d) 4.8 m/s (a) The terminal speed is 4 m/s
Q.2 The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly with (b) The speed varies with the time as v(t) = 2(1 – e–5t)m/s
time t as bt. The particle starts from the origin with an initial (c) The speed is 0.1m/s when the acceleration is half the
velocity v0. The distance travelled by the particle in time t initial value
will be (d) The magnitude of the initial acceleration is 6.0 m/s2
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 03
Q.4 A particle of mass m moves on the x-axis as follows: it Q.8 A particle starts moving from the position of rest under a
starts from rest at t = 0 from the point x = 0 and comes to constant acc. If it covers a distance x in t second, what
rest at t = 1 at the point x = 1. No other information is distance will it travel in next t second?
available about its motion at intermediate time (0 < t < 1). (a) x (b) 2 x (c) 3 x (d) 4 x
If a denotes the instantaneous acceleration of the particle, Q.9 What will be the ratio of the distances moved by a freely
then falling body from rest in 4th and 5th seconds of journey?
(a) a cannot remain positive for all t in the interval (a) 4 : 5 (b) 7 : 9 (c) 16 : 25 (d) 1 : 1
0 £ t £1 Q.10 If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the
(b) | a | cannot exceed 2 at any point in its path distance covered during the last t seconds of its ascent is
(c) | a | must be > 4 at some point or points in its path 1 2 1
(d) | a | = 2 at any point in its path. (a) (u+gt)t (b) ut (c) gt (d) ut – gt2
2 2
Q.5 A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time Q.11 If the displacement of a particle is (2t2 + t + 5) meter
(t) graph is as shown in the figure. The maximum speed of then, what will be acc. at t = 5 second?
the particle will be (a) 21 m/s2 (b) 20 m/s2
a (c) 4 m/s 2 (d) 10 m/s2
Q.12 A particle moves along x-axis with acceleration a = a0 (1 – t/
10 m/s2
T) where a0 and T are constants if velocity at t = 0 is zero
then find the average velocity from t = 0 to the time when a
= 0.
t (s) a 0T a 0T a 0T a 0T
11 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 110 m/s (b) 55 m/s 3 2 4 5
(c) 550 m/s (d) 660 m/s Q.13 A point moves with uniform acceleration and v1, v2 and v3
denote the average velocities in the three successive
Q.6 A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a for some
intervals of time t1, t2 and t3 . Which of the following
time, after which it decelerates at a constant rate b and relations is correct ?
comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the maximum (a) (v1– v2) : (v2– v3) = (t1– t2) : (t2+ t3)
velocity acquired by the car is (b) (v1– v2) : (v2– v3) = (t1+ t2) : (t2+ t3)
æ a 2 + b2 ö æ a 2 - b2 ö (c) (v1– v2) : (v2– v3) = (t1– t2) : (t2 – t3)
(a) çç ÷t
÷ (b) çç ÷t
÷
(d) (v1– v2) : (v2– v3) = (t1– t2) : (t2 – t3)
è ab ø è ab ø Q.14 The position of a particle moving in the xy-plane at any
(a + b)t abt time t is given by x = (3t2 – 6t) metres, y = (t2 – 2t) metres.
(c) (d) Select the correct statement about the moving particle from
ab a +b
Q.7 A small block slides without friction down an inclined plane the following
starting from rest. Let Sn be the distance travelled from (a) The acceleration of the particle is zero at t = 0 second
Sn (b) The velocity of the particle is zero at t = 0 second
time t = n – 1 to t = n. Then is (c) The velocity of the particle is zero at t = 1 second
S n +1
2n - 1 2n + 1 2n - 1 2n (d) The velocity and acceleration of the particle are never
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero
2n 2n - 1 2n + 1 2n + 1
4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
RESPONSE 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
GRID
14.

DPP/ P 03 3
Q.15 Two cars A and B are travelling in the same direction with Q.19 A particle moves along x-axis as x = 4 (t – 2) + a (t – 2)2
velocities v1 and v2 (v1 > v2). When the car A is at a distance Which of the following is true?
d ahead of the car B, the driver of the car A applied the (a) The initial velocity of particle is 4
brake producing a uniform retardation a. There will be no (b) The acceleration of particle is 2a
collision when (c) The particle is at origin at t = 0
(d) None of these
( v1 - v2 ) 2 v12 - v22 Q.20 The displacement x of a particle varies with time t,
(a) d< (b) d <
2a 2a x = ae –at + bebt, where a, b, a and b are positive constants.
The velocity of the particle will
(v1 - v2 ) 2 v 2 - v22 (a) Go on decreasing with time
(c) d > (d) d > 1
2a 2a (b) Be independent of a and b
Q.16 A body travels for 15 second starting from rest with (c) Drop to zero when a = b
constant acceleration. If it travels distances S1, S2 and S3 (d) Go on increasing with time
in the first five seconds, second five seconds and next five
seconds respectively the relation between S1, S2 and S3 is DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,
(a) S1 = S2 = S3 (b) 5S1 = 3S2 = S3 more than one of the answers given are correct. Select
1 1 the correct answers and mark it according to the following
1 1
(c) S1 = S2 = S3 (d) S1 = S2 = S3 codes:
3 5 5 3
Q.17 The position of a particle moving along the x-axis at certain Codes :
times is given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
t (s) 0 1 2 3
x ( m) -2 0 6 16
Q.21A particle moves as such acceleration is given by
a = 3 sin 4t, then :
Which of the following describes the motion correctly? (1) the acceleration of the particle becomes zero after
(a) Uniform, accelerated p
each interval of second
(b) Uniform, decelerated 4
(c) Non-uniform, accelerated (2) the initial velocity of the particle must be zero
(d) There is not enough data for generalization (3) the particle comes at its initial position after sometime
Q.18 A body A moves with a uniform acceleration a and zero (4) the particle must move on a circular path
initial velocity. Another body B, starts from the same point
Q.22 A reference frame attached to the earth :
moves in the same direction with a constant velocity v. The
(1) is an inertial frame by definition
two bodies meet after a time t. The value of t is
(2) cannot be an inertial frame because the earth is
2v v revolving round the sun
(a) (b)
a a (3) is an inertial frame because Newton’s laws are
v v applicable in this frame
(c) (d) (4) cannot be an inertial frame because the earth is
2a 2a
rotating about its own axis
RESPONSE 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

GRID 20. 21. 22.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 03
Q.23 If a particle travels a linear distance at speed v1 and comes 2 2t 2 2t
back along the same track at speed v2. (a) sin pt - (b) - 2 sin pt +
p2 p p p
(1) Its average speed is arithmetic mean (v1 + v2)/2 2t
(2) Its average speed is harmonic mean 2 v1v2/(v1 + v2)/2 (c) (d) None of these
p
(3) Its average speed is geometric mean v1v2 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions
(4) Its average velocity is zero contains two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and
DIRECTION (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions has four
and answer the questions that follows : alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.
You have to select the correct choice.
A particle moves along x-axis and its acceleration at any time t
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
is a = 2 sin (pt), where t is in seconds and a is in m/s2. The initial
velocity of particle (at time t = 0) is u = 0.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
Q.24. The distance travelled (in meters) by the particle from
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
time to t = 0 to t = 1s will be –
(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
2 1
(a) (b) (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
p p Q.27 Statement-1 : The position-time graph of a uniform motion
4
(c) (d) None of these in one dimension of a body can have negative slope.
p
Statement-2 : When the speed of body decreases with time,
Q.25 The distance travelled (in meters) by the particle from time
the position-time graph of the moving body has negative slope.
t = 0 to t = t will be –
Q.28 Statement-1 : A body having non-zero acceleration can
2 2t 2 2t
(a) sin pt - (b) - 2 sin pt + have a constant velocity.
p 2 p p p Statement-2 : Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.
2t Q.29 Statement-1 : Displacement of a body may be zero when
(c) (d) None of these
p distance travelled by it is not zero.
Q.26 The magnitude of displacement (in meters) by the particle Statement-2 : The displacement is the longest distance
from time t = 0 to t = t will be – between initial and final position.
RESPONSE 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

GRID 28. 29.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 2 (Relative Motion & Motion Under Gravity)
04
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.19) : There are 19 multiple choice v 2hg vé 2h ù

(a) + (b) 1- 1+ ú
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out g 2 g êë g û
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct.
Q.1 A stone is dropped from a minar of height h and it reaches vé 2 gh ù vé 2 2g ù
(c) ê1 + 1 + 2 ú (d) ê1 + v + ú
after t seconds on earth. From the same minar if two stones gë v û gë h û
are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with the same
velocity u and they reach the earth surface after t1 and t2 Q.3 A man throws balls with the same speed vertically upwards,
seconds respectively, then one after the other at an interval of 2 seconds. What should
be the speed of the throw so that more than two balls are in
t1 + t2
(a) t = t1 - t2 (b) t = the sky at any time? (Given g = 9.8 m/s2)
2
(a) At least 0.8 m/s
(c) t = t1t2 (d) t = t12 t22
(b) Any speed less than 19.6 m/s
Q.2 A ball is projected upwards from a height h above the surface (c) Only with speed 19.6 m/s
of the earth with velocity v. The time at which the ball strikes
(d) More than 19.6 m/s
the ground is
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 04
Q.4 If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the Q.8 A body is projected up with a speed 'u' and the time taken
distance covered during the last t second of its ascent is by it is T to reach the maximum height H. Pick out the
1 2 1 correct statement
(a) gt (b) ut - gt 2 (c) (u – gt)t (d) ut d
2 2 (a) It reaches H/2 in T/2 sec
Q.5 A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following (b) It acquires velocity u/2 in T/2 sec
graphs represent velocity-time graph of the ball during its (c) Its velocity is u/2 at H/2
flight? (air resistance is neglected) (d) Same velocity at 2T
v v
Q.9 Time taken by an object falling from rest to cover the height
of h1 and h2 is respectively t1 and t2 then the ratio of t1 to t2
is
(a) t (b) t
(a) h1 : h2 (b) h1 : h2 (c) h1 : 2h2 (d) 2h1 : h2
Q.10 Three different objects of masses m1, m2 and m3 are allowed
v v to fall from rest and from the same point 'O' along three
different frictionless paths. The speeds of the three objects,
t t on reaching the ground, will be in the ratio of
(c) (d) (a) m1 : m2 : m3 (b) m1 : 2m2 : 3m3
1 1 1 1
Q.6 A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the (c) 1 : 1 : 1 (d) : :
m1 m2 m3
ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a
height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air Q.11 From the top of a tower, a particle is thrown vertically
resistance, its velocity v varies with the height h above the downwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. The ratio of the
ground is distances, covered by it in the 3rd and 2nd seconds of the
v v motion is (Take g = 10m/s2)
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 7 : 5 (c) 3 : 6 (d) 6 : 3
d Q.12 A body falls from a height h = 200 m. The ratio of distance
h h
(a) (b) d travelled in each 2 second during t = 0 to t = 6 second of
the journey is
(a) 1 : 4 : 9 (b) 1 : 2 : 4
v v (c) 1 : 3 : 5 (d) 1 : 2 : 3
Q.13 The effective acceleration of a body, when thrown upwards
d d with acceleration a will be :
h h
(c) (d)
(a) a - g2 (b) a2 + g 2
Q.7 P, Q and R are three balloons ascending with velocities U, (c) (a – g) (d) (a + g)
4U and 8U respectively. If stones of the same mass be Q.14 An aeroplane is moving with a velocity u. It drops a packet
dropped from each, when they are at the same height, then from a height h. The time t taken by the packet in reaching
(a) They reach the ground at the same time the ground will be
(b) Stone from P reaches the ground first æ 2g ö æ 2u ö æ h ö æ 2h ö
(c) Stone from R reaches the ground first (a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷ (c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷
è h ø è g ø è 2g ø è g ø
(d) Stone from Q reaches the ground first
4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
RESPONSE 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
GRID
14.

DPP/ P 04 3
Q.15 Two trains, each 50 m long are travelling in opposite direction Q.20 Two particles move simultaneously from two points A and B,
with velocity 10 m/s and 15 m/s. The time of crossing is 300m apart. The particle at A, starts towards B with a velocity
(a) 2s (b) 4s of 25 m/s and that at B, moves normal to the former with a
velocity of 20 m/s.
(c) 2 3s (d) 4 3s (1) The relative velocity of the particle at A, w.r.t. that at B is
Q.16 A train of 150 metre length is going towards north direction 32.02 m/s
at a speed of 10 m/s. A parrot flies at the speed of 5 m/s (2) The relative velocity of the particle at A, w.r.t. that at B is
towards south direction parallel to the railway track. The 12.04 m/s
time taken by the parrot to cross the train is (3) They are closest to each other after 7.32 sec.
(a) 12 sec (b) 8 sec (4) They are closest to each other after 4.25 sec.
(c) 15 sec (d) 10 sec Q.21 A plane is to fly due north. The speed of the plane relative
Q.17 The distance between two particles is decreasing at the rate to the air is 200 km/h, and the wind is blowing from west
of 6 m/sec. If these particles travel with same speeds and in to east at 90 km/h.
(1) The plane should head in a direction of sin –1 (0.45)
the same direction, then the separation increase at the rate
(2) The plane should head in a direction of sin –1 (0.60)
of 4 m/s. The particles have speeds as
(3) The relative velocity of plane w.r.t. ground is 179 km/h
(a) 5 m/sec; 1 m/sec (b) 4 m/sec; 1 m/sec (4) The relative velocity of plane w.r.t. ground is 149 km/h
(c) 4 m/sec; 2 m/sec (d) 5 m/sec; 2 m/sec Q.22 From the top of a multi-storeyed building 40m tall, a boy
Q.18 A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both projects a stone vertically upwards with an initial velocity
with same speed. The observed direction of car to the of 10 ms–1 such that it eventually falls to the ground.
passenger in the train is (1) After 4 s the stone will strike the ground
(a) East-north direction (b) West-north direction (2) After 2 s the stone will pass through the point from
(c) South-east direction (d) None of these where it was projected
Q.19 An express train is moving with a velocity v1. Its driver (3) Its velocity when it strikes the ground is 30 m/s
finds another train is moving on the same track in the same (4) Its velocity when it strikes the ground is 40 m/s
direction with velocity v2. To escape collision, driver applies
DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below
a retardation a on the train, the minimum time of escaping
and answer the questions that follows :
collision will be
When an airplane flies, its total velocity with respect to the
v -v v 2 - v22
(a) t= 1 2 (b) t1 = 1 ground is vtotal = vplane + vwind,
a 2
where vplane denotes the plane’s velocity through motionless air,
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these and vwind denotes the wind’s velocity. Crucially, all the quantities
in this equation are vectors. The magnitude of a velocity vector
is often called the “speed.”
than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct
Consider an airplane whose speed through motionless air is 100
answers and mark it according to the following codes: meters per second (m/s). To reach its destination, the plane must
Codes : fly east.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct The “heading” of a plane is in the direction in which the nose of
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct the plane points. So, it is the direction in which the engines propel
the plane.
RESPONSE 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

GRID 20. 21. 22.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 04
Q.23 If the plane has an eastward heading, and a 20 m/s wind (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
blows towards the southwest, then the plane’s speed is – correct explanation for Statement-1.
(a) 80 m/s (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT
(b) more than 80 m/s but less than 100 m/s a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(c) 100 m/s (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(d) more than 100 m/s (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
Q.24 The pilot maintains an eastward heading while a 20 m/s Q.26 Statement-1 : The magnitude of velocity of two boats
wind blows northward. The plane’s velocity is deflected relative to river is same. Both boats start simultaneously
from due east by what angle?
from same point on the bank may reach opposite bank
-1 20 -1 20 simultaneously moving along different paths.
(a) sin (b) cos
100 100
Statement-2 : For boats to cross the river in same time.
-1 20 The component of their velocity relative to river in
(c) tan (d) none
100 direction normal to flow should be same.
Q.25 Let f denote the answer of above question. The plane has Q.27 Statement-1 : The acceleration of a body of mass 2 kg
what speed with respect to the ground ? thrown vertically upwards is always constant.
(a) (100 m/s) sin f (b) (100 m/s) cos f Statement-2 : A body of all mass group travels under
100 m/ s 100 m/ s constant acceleration when only gravity acts on it.
(c) sin f
(d) cosf Q.28 Statement-1 : The velocity of a body A relative to the body
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions B is the sum of the velocities of bodies A and B if both
contains two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and travel in opposite direction on a straight line.
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions has four Statement-2 : The velocity of a body A relative to the body
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. B is the difference of the velocities of bodies A and B if
You have to select the correct choice. both travel in opposite direction on a straight line.
RESPONSE 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

GRID 28.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Vectors
05
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice 1

(a) zero (b) m/s 2 N-W
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 2
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. 1 1
Q.1 The length of second’s hand in watch is 1 cm. The change
(c) m/s2 N-E (d) m/s 2S-W
2 2
in velocity of its tip in 15 seconds is ur
Q.3 A force F = - K ( yiˆ + xjˆ ) (where K is a positive constant)
p
(a) zero (b) cm/sec acts on a particle moving in the x-y plane. Starting from
30 2 the origin, the particle is taken along the positive x-axis to
p the point (a, 0) and then parallel to the y-axis to the point
p 2 ur
(c) cm/sec (d) cm/sec
30 30 (a, a). The total work done by the forces F on the particle
Q.2 A particle moves towards east with velocity 5 m/s. After is
10 seconds its direction changes towards north with same (a) – 2 Ka2 (b) 2 Ka2
(c) – Ka 2 (d) Ka2
velocity. The average acceleration of the particle is
EBD_7156
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Q.4 A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed to a wall. The
A
sphere is pushed away from the wall by a stick. The forces
acting on the sphere are shown in the second diagram. 30°
Which of the following statements is wrong? 30 N
O
W
q
q (a) 30 3,30 (b) 30 3, 60

(c) 60 3,30 (d) None of these
P
W
Q.9 A boat is moving with a velocity 3iˆ + 4 ˆj with respect to
r r r
(a) P = W tan q (b) T + P + W = 0 ground. The water in the river is moving with a velocity
(c) T 2 = P 2 + W 2 (d) T = P + W – 3iˆ - 4 ˆj with respect to ground. The relative velocity of
Q.5 The speed of a boat is 5km/h in still water. It crosses a
the boat with respect to water is
river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15
minutes. The velocity of the river water is (a) 8 ˆj (b) -6iˆ - 8 ˆj (c) 6iˆ + 8 ˆj (d) 5 2 iˆ
(a) 1 km/h (b) 3 km/h Q.10 A person aiming to reach the exactly opposite point on the
(c) 4 km/h (d) 5 km/h bank of a stream is swimming with a speed of 0.5 m/s at an
Q.6 A man crosses a 320 m wide river perpendicular to the angle of 120° with the direction of flow of water. The speed
current in 4 minutes. If in still water he can swim with a of water in the stream is
speed 5/3 times that of the current, then the speed of the (a) 1 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s (c) 0.25 m/s(d) 0.433 m/s
current in m/min is Q.11 A man can swim with velocity v relative to water. He has to
(a) 30 (b) 40 cross a river of width d flowing with a velocity u (u > v).
(c) 50 (d) 60 The distance through which he is carried down stream by
Q.7 P, Q and R are three coplanar forces acting at a point and the river is x. Which of the following statements is correct?
are in equilibrium. Given P = 1.9318 kg wt, sin q1 = 0.9659,
the value of R is (in kg wt) (a) If he crosses the river in minimum time x = du
v
150° du
P Q
(b) x cannot be less than
v
q2 q1
(c) For x to be minimum he has to swim in a direction making
R
ο ævö
an angle of , sin,1 çç ÷÷÷ with the direction of the
2 çè u ø
(a) 0.9659 (b) 2 flow of water.
1 (d) x will be maximum if he swims in a direction making
(c) 1 (d) p
2 ævö
an angle of + sin -1 ç ÷ with direction of the flow of
Q.8 As shown in figure the tension in the horizontal cord is 30 2 èuø
N. The weight W and tension in the string OA in newton are water.
RESPONSE 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
GRID 9. 10. 11.

DPP/ P 05 3
Q.12 A 120 m long train is moving towards west with a speed of r r
Q.20 Two forces F1 = 5iˆ + 10 ˆj - 20kˆ and F2 = 10iˆ - 5 ˆj - 15kˆ
10 m/s. A bird flying towards east with a speed of 5 m/s
r r
crosses the train. The time taken by the bird to cross the act on a single point. The angle between F1 and F2 is nearly
train will be
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(a) 16 sec (b) 12 sec (c) 10 sec (d) 8 sec
ur (c) 60° (d) 90°
Q.13 What is the value of linear velocity, if w = 3$i - 4 $j + k$ and Q.21 With respect to a rectangular cartesian coordinate system,
r
r = 5i$ - 6 $j + 6k$
three vectors are expressed as
r r
(a) 6$i - 2 $j + 3k$ (b) 6$i - 2 $j + 8k$ a = 4iˆ - ˆj, b = -3iˆ + 2 ˆj , and cr = - kˆ
(c) 4$i - 13 $j + 6k$ (d) -18$i - 13 $j + 2k$ where iˆ, ˆj , kˆ are unit vectors, along the X, Y and Z-axis
ur ur ur ur ur ur
Q.14 If | A ´ B | = 3 A . B, then the value of | A + B | is respectively. The unit vectors r̂ along the direction of sum
1/ 2 of these vector is
æ 2 2 AB ö
(a) çè A + B + ÷ (b) A + B 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ
3ø (a) rˆ = (i + j - k ) (b) rˆ = (i + j - k )
3 2
(c) ( A2 + B 2 + 3 AB )1/ 2 (d) ( A2 + B 2 + AB )1/ 2 1 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ
ur (c) rˆ = (iˆ - ˆj + kˆ) (d) rˆ = (i + j + k )
Q.15 Find the torque of a force F = -3$i + $j + 5k$ acting at a point 3 2
r
r = 7$i + 3 $j + k$ DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions,
(a) 14$i - 38 $j + 16k$ (b) 4$i + 4 $j + 6k$ more than one of the answers given are correct. Select
the correct answers and mark it according to the following
(c) 21$i + 4 $j + 4k$ (d) -14$i + 34 $j - 16k$ codes:
ur ur ur ur ur ur
Q.16 If | A ´ B | = | A . B |, then angle between A and B will be Codes :
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90° (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
ur ur
Q.17 The vector P = ai + a j + 3k and Q = ai$ - 2 $j - k$ are
$ $ $ (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
Q.22 A boy walks uniformally along the sides of a rectangular
perpendicular to each other. The positive value of a is
(a) 3 (b) 4 park of size 400 m × 300 m, starting from one corner to
(c) 9 (d) 13 the other corner diagonally opposite. Which of the
following statements is correct?
Q.18 A particle moves from position 3$i + 2 $j - 6k$ to (1) He has travelled a distance of 700 m
14$i + 13 $j + 9k$ due to a uniform force of (4i$ + $j + 3k$ ) N . (2) His displacement is 500 m
If the displacement in metres then work done will be (3) His velocity is not uniform throughout the walk
(a) 100 J (b) 200 J (c) 300 J d) 250 J (4) His displacement is 700 m
ur ur r r
Q.19 The three vectors A = 3iˆ - 2 ˆj + kˆ, B = iˆ - 3 ˆj + 5kˆ and Q.23 The three vectors A = 3iˆ - 2jˆ - k, ˆ B = iˆ - 3jˆ + 5kˆ and
ur r
C = 2iˆ + ˆj - 4kˆ form C = 2iˆ – ˆj - 4kˆ does not form
(a) an equilateral triangle (b) isosceles triangle (1) an equilateral triangle (2) isosceles triangle
(c) a right angled triangle (d) no triangle (3) a right angled triangle (4) no triangle
12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.
GRID
22. 23.

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r r r r
Q.24 If for two vectors A and B, A ´ B < 0, which of the following DIRECTIONS (Q.28-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains two
is not correct? statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason).
(1) They are perpendicular to each other Each of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of
(2) They act at an angle of 60° which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.
(3) They act at an angle of 30°
(4) They are parallel to each other
DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
and answer the questions that follows : NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
r r
A = 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ and B = iˆ + ˆj + kˆ are two vectors. (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
r (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
Q.25 The unit vector perpendicular to A is
r r r r r
- ˆj + kˆ - ˆj - kˆ iˆ + kˆ iˆ - kˆ Q.28 Statement-1:If A + B = A - B , then angle between A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2 r
r and B is 90°
Q.26 The unit vector parallel to A is r r r r
2iˆ - ˆj + 3kˆ 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ Statement-2 : A + B = B + A
(a) (b) Q.29 Statement-1 : The sum of two vectors can be zero.
2 6
ˆ ˆ
2i - j - k ˆ 2i + ˆj - 2kˆ
ˆ Statement-2 : Two vectors cancel each other, when they
(c) (d) are equal and opposite.
5 6
r
Q.27 The unit vector perpendicular to B is
- ˆj - kˆ - ˆj + kˆ iˆ - kˆ iˆ + kˆ
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 3 2
RESPONSE 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

GRID 29.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : MOTION IN A PLANE-1 (Projectile Motion)

06
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 If t1 be the time taken by a body to clear the top of a building
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out and t2 be the time spent in air, then t2 : t1 will be –
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
Q.1 The path followed by a body projected along y axis is given Q.4 The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given
by x = ct2 and y = bt2. The speed of the particle is
by y = 3 x – (1/2) x2. If g = 10 m/s2 , then the initial
(a) 2t (c + b) (b) 2t c2 - b2
velocity of projectile will be – (x and y are in m)
(c) t c 2 + b 2 (d) 2t c 2 + b 2
(a) 3 10 m/s (b) 2 10 m/s
Q.5 The height y and the distance x along the horizontal at plane
(c) 10 3 m/s (d) 10 2 m/s of the projectile on a certain planet (with no surrounding
Q.2 When the angle of elevation of a gun are 60º and 30º atmosphere) are given by y = (8t – 5t2) metre and x = 6t
respectively, the height it shoots are h1 and h2 respectively, metre where t is in second. The velocity with which the
h1/h2 equal to – projectile is projected is
(a) 3/1 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 2/1 (a) 8 m/s (b) 6 m/s
(c) 10 m/s (d) Data is insufficient
RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
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Q.6 A body is thrown at an angle 30º to the horizontal with the to meet the ball at that instant. What must be his speed so
velocity of 30 m/s. After 1 sec, its velocity will be that he could catch the ball before hitting the ground ?
(in m/s) (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 2.82 m/s (b) 2/ 2 m/s
(a) 10 7 (b) 700 10 (c) 100 7 (d) 10 (c) 39.2 m/s (d) 10 m/s
Q.7 A particle is moving in a plane with a velocity given by, Q.13 A ball is thrown from ground level so as to just clear a wall
r 4 metres high at a distance of 4 metres and falls at a distance
u = u0 î + (wa cos wt) ĵ , where î and ĵ are unit vectors of 14 metres from the wall. The magnitude of velocity of
along x and y-axes respectively. If the particle is at the origin the ball will be
at t = 0, then its distance from the origin at time t = 3p/ (a) 182 m/s (b) 181 m/s
2w will be
(c) 185 m/s (d) 186 m/s
éæ 3pu ö 2 ù éæ 3pu 0 ö 2 ù Q.14 A ball is projeced from O with an initial velocity 700 cm/
(a) êç 0
÷ + a2ú (b) êç ÷+a ú
êëè 2w ø úû ëè 2w ø û s in a direction 37° above the horizontal. A ball B, 500 cm
away from O on the line of the initial velocity of A, is
éæ 3pu ö 2 ù éæ 4pu ö 2 ù released from rest at the instant A is projected. The height
(c) ê ç 0
÷ + a ú (d) êç 0
÷ + a2 ú through which B falls, before it is hit by A and the direction
êëè 2w ø úû êëè 2w ø úû of the velocity A at the time of impact will respectively be
Q.8 A ball thrown by one player reaches the other in 2 sec. The [given g = 10 m/s2, sin 37° = 0.6 and cos 37° = 8.0]
maximum height attained by the ball above the point of (a) 250 cm, 28° 42' (b) 255 cm, 27° 43'
projection will be about- (c) 245 cm, 20° 44' (d) 300 cm, 27° 43'
(a) 2.5 m (b) 5 m (c) 7.5 m (d) 10 m Q.15 A ball is thrown horizontally from a height of 20 m. It hits
Q.9 Rishabh and Bappy are playing with two different balls of the ground with a velocity three times its initial velocity.
masses m and 2m respectively. If Rishabh throws his ball The initial velocity of ball is
vertically up and Bappy at an angle q, both of them stay in (a) 2 m/s (b) 3 m/s (c) 5 m/s (d) 7 m/s
our view for the same period. The height attained by the Q.16 A projectile thrown from a height of 10 m with velocity of
two balls are in the ratio of
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : cos q (d) 1 : sec q 2 m/s, the projectile will fall, from the foot of
Q.10 A projectile is thrown at an angle q and (900 – q) from the projection, at distance-(g = 10 m/s2)
same point with same velocity 98 m/s. The heights attained (a) 1 m (b) 2 m (c) 3m (d) 2m
by them, if the difference of heights is 50 m will be (in m) Q.17 Savita throws a ball horizontally with a velocity of 8 m/s
(a) 270, 220 (b) 300, 250 from the top of her building. The ball strikes to her brother
(c) 250, 200 (d) 200, 150 Sudhir playing at 12 m away from the building. What is the
Q.11 A particle is projected with a velocity u so that its horizontal height of the building ?
range is twice the maximum height attained. The horizontal (a) 11m (b) 10 m (c) 8 m (d) 7 m
range is Q.18 A body is projected downdwards at an angle of 30º to the
(a) u2/g (b) 2u2 /3g (c) 4u2/5g (d) u2/2g horizontal with a velocity of 9.8 m/s from the top of a tower
Q.12 Mr C.P. Nawani kicked off a football with an initial speed 29.4 m high. How long will it take before striking the
19.6 m/s at a projection angle 45º. A receiver on the goal ground?
line 67.4 m away in the direction of the kick starts running (a) 1s (b) 2s (c) 3s (d) 4s
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18.

DPP/ P 06 3
Q.19 A ball is thrown from the top of a tower with an initial velocity (3) A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly at a
of 10 m/s at an angle of 30º above the horizontal. It hits the monkey on a tree. At the instant bullet leaves the gun,
ground at a distance of 17.3 m from the base of the tower. monkey drops, the bullet misses to hit the monkey.
The height of the tower (g = 10 m/s2) will be (4) If a baseball player can throw a ball at maximum
(a) 10 m (b) 12 m (c) 110 m (d) 100 m distance = d over a ground, the maximum vertical
height to which he can throw it, will be d
Q.20 A ball 'A' is projected from origin with an initial velocity
(Ball have same initial speed in each case)
v0 = 700 cm/sec in a direction 37º above the horizontal as Q.22 A ball projected with speed 'u' at an angle of projection
shown in fig .Another ball 'B' 300 cm from origin on a line 15º has range R. The other angle of projection at which the
37º above the horizontal is released from rest at the instant range will not be same with same initial speed 'u' is
A starts. How far will B have fallen when it is hit by A ? (1) 45º (2) 35º
Y (3) 90º (4) 75º
B Q.23 A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of
projections. If t1 and t2 be the times of flight in two cases,
cm A
0 then choose the incorrect relations –
30
= (1) t1t2 µ 1/R2 (2) t1t2 µ R2
B y-axis
O
(3) t1t2 µ 1/R (4) t1t2 µ R
O X
(a) 9 cm (b) 90 cm DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below
(c) 0.9 cm (d) 900 cm and answer the questions that follows :
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, Velocity at a general point P(x, y) for a horizontal projectile
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select motion is given by
the correct answers and mark it according to the following u
codes: u
h
v= u 2 + g 2 t 2
Codes : vy gt
v= v 2x + v 2y ; tan a =
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct vx
R
Q.21 Choose the correct options a is angle made by v with horizontal in clockwise direction
(1) A ball is dropped from the window of a moving train Trajectory equation for a horizontal projectile motion is given
on horizontal rails, the path followed by the ball as by x = vxt = ut
vx
observed by the observer on the ground is parabolic a
path.
vy
(2) If T be the total time of flight of a current of water y = – (1/2) gt2
and H be the maximum height attained by it from the v
point of projection, then H/T will be (1/4) u sinq
gx 2
(u = projection velocity and q = projection angle) eliminating t, we get y = – (1/2)
u2
RESPONSE GRID 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

EBD_7156
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Q.24 A ball rolls off top of a stair way with a horizontal velocity DIRECTIONS (Q.27-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains
u m/s. If the steps are h m high and b meters wide, the ball two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
will just hit the edge of nth step if n equals to (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select
hu 2 u 2g the correct choice.
(a) (b) (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
gb 2 gb 2
2hu 2 2u 2g NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(c) (d)
gb 2 hb 2 (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
Q.25 An aeroplane is in a level flying at an speed of 144 km/hr Q.27 Statement -1 : Two projectiles are launched from the top
at an altitude of 1000 m. How far horizontally from a given of a cliff with same initial speed with different angles of
target should a bomb be released from it to hit the target ? projection. They reach the ground with the same speed.
(a) 571.43 m (b) 671.43 m Statement -2 : The work done by gravity is same in both the
cases.
(c) 471.34 m (d) 371.34 m
Q.28 Statement-1 : A man projects a stone with speed u at some
Q.26 An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity of 720 angle. He again projects a stone with same speed such that
km/h at an altitude of 490 m. When it is just vertically above time of flight now is different. The horizontal ranges in
the target a bomb is dropped from it. How far horizontally it both the cases may be same. (Neglect air friction)
missed the target? Statement-2 : The horizontal range is same for two
(a) 1000 m (b) 2000 m projectiles projected with same speed if one is projected
at an angle q with the horizontal and other is projected at
(c) 100 m (d) 200 m
an angle (90° – q) with the horizontal. (Neglect air friction)
RESPONSE GRID 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : MOTION IN A PLANE-2 (Horizontal Circular Motion)

07
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice (a) 1 : 12 (b) 6 : 1 (c) 12 : 1 (d) 1 : 6
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out Q.4 The angular displacement of a particle is given by
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. 1 2
q = w0t + at , where w0 and a are constant and
Q.1 A particle completes 1.5 revolutions in a circular path of 2
radius 2 cm. The angular displacement of the particle will w0 = 1 rad/sec, a = 1.5 rad/sec2. The angular velocity at
be – (in radian) time, t = 2 sec will be (in rad/sec) -
(a) 6 p (b) 3 p (c) 2 p (d) p (a) 1 (b) 5
Q.2 A particle revolving in a circular path completes first one
third of circumference in 2 sec, while next one third in 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
sec. The average angular velocity of particle will be – (in Q.5 The magnitude of the linear acceleration of the particle
rad/sec) moving in a circle of radius 10 cm with uniform speed
(a) 2p/3 (b) p/3 (c) 4p/3 (d) 5p/3 completing the circle in 4 s, will be -
Q.3 The ratio of angular speeds of minute hand and hour hand (a) 5p cm/s2 (b) 2.5p cm/s2
of a watch is - (c) 5p2 cm/s2 (d) 2.5p2 cm/s2
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Q.6 A cane filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of Q.13 A particle is moving in a circular path with velocity varying
radius 4 m and water just does not fall down. The time with time as v = 1.5t2 + 2t. If the radius of circular path is
period of revolution will be – 2 cm, the angular acceleration at t = 2 sec will be -
(a) 1 s (b) 10 s (a) 4 rad/sec2 (b) 40 rad/sec2
(c) 400 rad/sec 2 (d) 0.4 rad/sec2
(c) 8 s (d) 4 s
Q.7 The length of second's hand in a watch is 1 cm. The change Q.14 A grind stone starts from rest and has a constant-angular
in velocity of its tip in 15 second is - acceleration of 4.0 rad/sec2.The angular displacement and
p angular velocity, after 4 sec. will respectively be -
(a) 0 (b) cm/s
30 2 (a) 32 rad, 16 rad/s (b) 16 rad, 32 rad/s
p p 2 (c) 64 rad, 32 rad/s (d) 32 rad, 64 rad/s
(c) cm/s (d) cm/s
30 30 Q.15 The shaft of an electric motor starts from rest and on the
Q.8 An electron is moving in a circular orbit of radius 5.3 × 10– application of a torque, it gains an angular acceleration
11 metre around the atomic nucleus at a rate of 6.6 × 1015
given by a = 3t – t2 during the first 2 seconds after it starts
revolutions per second. The centripetal force acting on the after which a = 0. The angular velocity after 6 sec will be -
electron will be - (a) 10/3 rad/sec (b) 3/10 rad/sec
(The mass of the electron is 9.1 × 10–31kg) (c) 30/4 rad/sec (d) 4/30 rad/sec
(a) 8.3 × 10–8N (b) 3.8 × 10–8N Q.16 Using rectangular co-ordinates and the unit vectors i and
(c) 4.15 × 10 N –8 (d) 2.07 × 10–8N j, the vector expression for the acceleration a will be (r is
Q.9 An air craft executes a horizontal loop of radius 1 km with a position vector) -
a steady speed of 900 km/h. The ratio of centripetal (a) wr2 (b) –w2 r/2
acceleration to that gravitational acceleration will be- (c) –2wr 2 (d) –w2r
(a) 1 : 6.38 (b) 6. 38 : 1 Q.17 The vertical section of a road over a canal bridge in the
(c) 2.25 : 9.8 (d) 2.5 : 9.8 direction of its length is in the form of circle of radius 8.9
Q.10 A car driver is negotiating a curve of radius 100 m with a metre. Find the greatest speed at which the car can cross
speed of 18 km/hr. The angle through which he has to lean this bridge without losing contact with the road at its highest
from the vertical will be - point, the center of gravity of the car being at a height h =
1 1 1.1 metre from the ground. (Take g = 10 m/sec2)
(a) tan–1 (b) tan–1
4 40 (a) 5 m/s (b) 7 m/s
æ 1 ö÷ æ 1 ö÷ (c) 10 m/s (d) 13 m/s
(c) tan –1 çççè ø÷÷ (d) tan –1 çççè ø÷÷ Q.18 The maximum speed at which a car can turn round a curve
2 20
of 30 metre radius on a level road if the coefficient of
Q.11 A particle moves in a circle of radius 20cm with a linear
friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4, will be -
speed of 10m/s. The angular velocity will be -
(a) 10.84 m/s (b) 17.84 m/s
(a) 50 rad/s (b) 100 rad/s
(c) 11.76 m/s (d) 9.02 m/s
(c) 25 rad/s (d) 75 rad/s
Q.19 The angular speed with which the earth would have to rotate
Q.12 The angular velocity of a particle is given by w = 1.5 t – 3t2 +
on its axis so that a person on the equator would weigh
2, the time when its angular acceleration decreases to be
(3/5)th as much as present, will be:
zero will be -
(Take the equatorial radius as 6400 km)
(a) 25 sec (b) 0.25 sec
(a) 8.7 × 104 rad/sec (b) 8.7 × 103 rad/sec
(c) 12 sec (d) 1.2 sec 4
(c) 7.8 × 10 rad/sec (d) 7.8 × 103 rad/sec
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18. 19.

DPP/ P 07 3
Q.20 A smooth table is placed horizontally and a spring of (1) The speed of the particle will be 0.98 m/s
unstreched length l0 and force constant k has one end fixed
rg
to its centre. To the other end of the spring is attached a (2) tan q = (q is semi-apex angle)
mass m which is making n revolution per second around v2
the centre. Tension in the spring will be (3) The speed of the particle will be 98 m/s
(a) 4p2 m k l0 n2/ (k – 4p2 m n2) rg
(b) 4p2 m k l0 n2/ (k + 4p2 m n2) (4) tan q = (q is semiapex angle)
v
(c) 2p2 m k l0 n2/ (k – 4p2 m n2) Q.24 Choose the correct statements
(d) 2p m k l0 n2/ (k – 4p2 m n2) (1) Centripetal force is not a real force. It is only the
Q.21 A motor car is travelling at 30 m/s on a circular road of requirement for circular motion.
radius 500 m. It is increasing its speed at the rate of 2 m/ (2) Work done by centripetal force may or may not be
s2. Its net acceleration is (in m/s2) – zero.
(a) 2 (b) 1. 8 (3) Work done by centripetal force is always zero.
(c) 2.7 (d) 0 (4) Centripetal force is a fundamental force.
DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the and answer the questions that follows :
correct answers and mark it according to the following
codes: The velocity of the particle changes moving on the curved path,
this change in velocity is brought by a force known as centripetal
Codes :
force and the acceleration so produced in the body is known as
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
centripetal acceleration. The direction of centripetal force or
acceleration is always towards the centre of circular path.
Q.22 Three identical particles are connected by three strings as
Q.25 A ball is fixed to the end of a string and is rotated in a
shown in fig. These particles are revolving in a horizontal
horizontal circle of radius 5 m with a speed of 10 m/sec.
circle. The velocity of outer most particle is v, then choose
The acceleration of the ball will be -
correct relation for T1,T2 and T3
(a) 20 m/s2 (b) 10 m/s2
(where T1 is tension in the outer most string etc.) 2
(c) 30 m/s (d) 40 m/s2
m m Q.26 A body of mass 2 kg lying on a smooth surface is attached
O m
l l l to a string 3 m long and then whirled round in a horizontal
circle making 60 revolution per minute. The centripetal
mvA2
5mv 2A acceleration will be-
(1) T1 = (2) T2 = (a) 118.4 m/s2 (b) 1.18 m/s2
3l 9l 2
(c) 2.368 m/s (d) 23.68 m/s2
6mvA2 5mvA2 Q.27 A body of mass 0.1 kg is moving on circular path of diameter
(3) T3= (4) T3 =
9l 9l 1.0 m at the rate of 10 revolutions per 31.4 seconds. The
Q.23 A particle describes a horizontal circle on the smooth centripetal force acting on the body is -
surface of an inverted cone. The height of the plane of the (a) 0.2 N (b) 0.4 N
circle above the vertex is 9.8 cm, then choose the correct (c) 2 N (d) 4 N
options
RESPONSE 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

GRID 25. 26. 27.

EBD_7156
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two normal as well as tangential acceleration.
statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each Q.29 Statement - 1 : A cyclist is cycling on rough horizontal
of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is circular track with increasing speed. Then the frictional force
the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice. on cycle is always directed towards centre of the circular
track.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Statement - 2 : For a particle moving in a circle, radial
correct explanation for Statement-1. component of net force should be directed towards centre.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is r
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.30 Statement - 1 : If net force F acting on a system is
r
(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. changing in direction only, the linear momentum ( p) of
(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. system changes in direction.
Q.28 Statement - 1 : In non-uniform circular motion, velocity Statement - 2 : In case of uniform circular motion,
vector and acceleration vector are not perpendicular to each magnitude of linear momentum is constant but direction
other. of centripetal force changes at every instant.
Statement - 2 : In non-uniform circular motion, particle has

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : MOTION IN A PLANE-3 (Vertical Circular Motion, Relative Motion)

08
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.19) : There are 19 multiple choice A

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out D
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. E r
Q.1 A man whirls a stone round his head on the end of a string r C
r
4.0 metre long. Can the string be in a horizontal, plane? If
the stone has a mass of 0.4 kg and the string will break, if B
the tension in it exceeds 8 N. The smallest angle the string (a) h > 5 r/2 (b) h < 5 r/2
can make with the horizontal and the speed of the stone (c) h < 2r/5 (d) h > 2r/5
will respectively be (Take g = 10 m/sec2)
Q.3 An aircraft loops the loop of radius R = 500 m with a
(a) 30º, 7.7 m/s (b) 60º, 7.7 m/s
constant velocity v = 360 km/h. The weight of the flyer of
(c) 45º, 8.2 m/s (d) 60º, 8.7 m/s
mass m = 70 kg in the lower, upper and middle points of
Q.2 In figure ABCDE is a channel in the vertical plane, part BCDE
the loop will respectively be-
being circular with radius r. A ball is released from A and
slides without friction and without rolling. It will complete (a) 210 N, 700 N, 1400 N (b) 1400 N, 700 N, 2100 N
the loop path when (c) 700 N, 1400 N, 210 N (d) 2100 N, 700 N, 1400 N
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 08
Q.4 A particle of mass 3 kg is moving under the action of a Q.11 The roadway bridge over a canal is the form of an arc of a
central force whose potential energy is given by U(r) = circle of radius 20 m. What is the minimum speed with
10r3 joule. For what energy and angular momentum will which a car can cross the bridge without leaving contact
the orbit be a circle of radius 10 m ? with the ground at the highest point (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 2.5 × 104 J, 3000 kgm2/sec (a) 7 m/s (b) 14 m/s (c) 289 m/s (d) 5 m/s
(b) 3.5 × 104 J, 2000 kgm2/sec Q.12 A cane filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of
(c) 2.5 × 103 J, 300 kgm2/sec radius 0.5 m and the water does not fall down. The
(d) 3.5 × 103 J, 300 kgm2/sec maximum period of revolution must be -
Q.5 A string of length 1 m is fixed at one end and carries a (a) 1.45 (b) 2.45 (c) 14.15 (d) 4.25
mass of 100 gm at the other end. The string makes 2/p Q.13 A particle of mass m slides down from the vertex of semi-
revolutions per second about a vertical axis through the
hemisphere, without any initial velocity. At what height
fixed end. The angle of inclination of the string with the
from horizontal will the particle leave the sphere-
vertical, and the linear velocity of the mass will respec-
tively be - (in M.K.S. system) 2 3 5 8
(a) 52º14', 3.16 (b) 50º14', 1.6 (a) R (b) R (c) R (d) R
3 2 8 5
(c) 52º14', 1.6 (d) 50º14', 3.16 Q.14 A body of mass m tied at the end of a string of length l is
Q.6 A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant
radius r such that its centripetal acceleration ac is varying projected with velocity 4lg , at what height will it leave
with time t as ac = k2rt2, where k is a constant. The power the circular path -
delivered to the particle by the force acting on it will be -
(a) mk2t2r (b) mk2r2t2 (c) m2k2t2r2 (d) mk2r2t 5 3 1 2
(a) l (b) l (c) l (d) l
Q.7 A car is moving in a circular path of radius 100 m with 3 5 3 3
velocity of 200 m/sec such that in each sec its velocity Q.15 A string of length L is fixed at one end and carries a mass
increases by 100 m/s, the net acceleration of car will be - M at the other end. The string makes 2/p revolutions per
(in m/sec) second around the vertical axis through the fixed end as
(a) 100 17 (b) 10 7 (c) 10 3 (d) 100 3 shown in the figure, then tension in the string is
Q.8 A 4 kg balls is swing in a vertical circle at the end of a cord
1 m long. The maximum speed at which it can swing if the (a) ML S
cord can sustain maximum tension of 163.6 N will be - q

(a) 6 m/s (b) 36 m/s (c) 8 m/s (d) 64 m/s (b) 2 ML L
Q.9 The string of a pendulum is horizontal. The mass of the T

(c) 4 ML
bob is m. Now the string is released. The tension in the M
string in the lowest position is -
(d) 16 ML R
(a) 1 mg (b) 2 mg (c) 3 mg (d) 4 mg
Q.10 A swimmer can swim in still water at a rate 4 km/h. If he Q.16 A train has to negotiate a curve of radius 400 m. By how
swims in a river flowing at 3 km/h and keeps his direction much should the outer rail be raised with respect to inner
(w.r.t. water) perpendicular to the current. Find his velocity rail for a speed of 48 km/hr. The distance between the rails
w.r.t. the ground. is 1 m.
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 5 km/hr (a) 12 m (b) 12 cm
(c) 4 km/hr (d) 7 km/hr (c) 4.5 cm (d) 4.5 m
4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
RESPONSE 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
GRID
14. 15. 16.

DPP/ P 08 3
Q.17 A ship is steaming towards east at a speed of 12 ms–1. A Q.21 A swimmer who can swim in a river with speed mv (with
woman runs across the deck at a speed of 5 ms–1 in the respect to still water) where v is the velocity of river
direction at right angles to the direction of motion of the current, jumps into the river from one bank to cross the
ship i.e. towards north. What is the velocity of the woman river. Then
relative to sea ? (1) If m < 1 he cannot cross the river
(a) 13 m/s (b) 5 m/s (c) 12 m/s (d) 17 m/s (2) If m £ 1 he cannot reach a point on other bank di-
Q.18 A man is walking on a level road at a speed of 3 km/h. rectly opposite to his starting point.
Raindrops fall vertically with a speed of 4 km/h. Find the (3) If m > 1 he can reach a point on other bank
velocity of raindrops with respect to the men. (4) He can reach the other bank at some point, whatever
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 5 km/hr (d) 7 km/hr be the value of m.
Q.19 A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light inextensible string of Q.22 Consider two children riding on the merry-go-round Child
1 sits near the edge, Child 2 sits closer to the centre.
length L = 10 m is whirling in a circular path of radius L Let vl and v2 denote the linear speed of child 1 and child 2,
3 respectively. Which of the following is/are wrong ?
in a vertical plane. If the ratio of the maximum tension in (1) We cannot determine v 1 & v 2 without more
the string to the minimum tension in the string is 4 and if g information
is taken to be 10m / sec2, the speed of the stone at the (2) v1 = v2
highest point of the circle is (3) v1 < v2
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 10 3m/sec (4) v1 > v2
(c) 5 2m/sec (d) 10 m/sec DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below
DIRECTIONS (Q.20-Q.22) : In the following questions,
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the Three of the fundamental constants of physics are the universal
correct answers and mark it according to the following gravitational constant, G = 6.7 × 10–11m3kg–1s–2, the speed of
codes: light, c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, and Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js–1.
Two particles A and B are projected in the vertical plane with
Codes :
same initial velocity u0 from part (0, 0) and (l, –h) towards each
other as shown in figure at t = 0.
Q.20 Two bodies P and Q are moving along positive x-axis their y
r
position-time graph is shown below. If VPQ is velocity of u0
r
P w.r.t. Q and VQP is velocity of Q w.r.t P, then g = 10m/s2
r r x
(1) | VPQ | = | VQP | = constant A x
P (0,0)
r l
(2) VPQ towards origin Q
u0 h
r
(3) VQP towards origin
r r
(4) | VPQ | ¹ | VQP | = constant t (l, –h) B
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22.

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Q.23 The path of particle A with respect to particle B will be – (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
(a) parabola correct explanation for Statement-1.
(b) straight line parallel to x-axis (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(c) straight line parallel to y-axis NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(d) None of these (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
Q.24 Minimum distance between particle A and B during motion (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
will be –
Q.26 Statement-1 : The relative velocity between any two
(a) l (b) h
bodies moving in opposite direction is equal to sum of the
(c) l2 + h 2 (d) l + h velocities of two bodies.
Q.25 The time when separation between A and B is minimum is Statement-2 : Sometimes relative velocity between two
x 2h bodies is equal to difference in velocities of the two.
(a) u 0 cosq (b) g Q.27 Statement-1: A river is flowing from east to west at a
l 2l
speed of 5m/min. A man on south bank of river, capable of
(c) 2u cos q (d) u cosq swimming 10 m/min in still water, wants to swim across
0 0
the river in shortest time. He should swim due north.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains Statement-2 : For the shortest time the man needs to swim
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 perpendicular to the bank.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
Q.28 Statement-1 : Rain is falling vertically downwards with
velocity 6 km/h. A man walks with a velocity of 8 km/h.
correct choice.
Relative velocity of rain w.r.t. the man is 10 km/h.
Statement-2 : Relative velocity is the ratio of two
velocities.
RESPONSE 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

GRID 28.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : LAWS OF MOTION-1 (Newton's laws, momentum, pseudo force concept)

09
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 A boat of mass 1000 kg is moving with a velocity of
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 5 m/s. A person of mass 60 kg jumps into the boat. The
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. velocity of the boat with the person will be -
(a) 4.71 m/s (b) 4.71 cm/s
Q.1 A boy standing on a weighing machine observes his weight (c) 47.1 m/s (d) 47.1 cm/s
as 200 N. When he suddenly jumpes upwards, his friend Q.4 A disc of mass 10 gm is kept horizontally in air by firing
notices that the reading increased to 400 N. The bullets of mass 5 g each at the rate of 10/s. If the bullets
acceleration by which the boy jumped will be- rebound with same speed. The velocity with which the
(a) 9.8 m/s2 (b) 29.4 m/s2 bullets are fired is -
(c) 4.9 m/s 2 (d) 14.7 m/s2 (a) 49 cm/s (b) 98 cm/s (c) 147 cm/s (d) 196 cm/s
Q.2 A force of (6 î + 8 ĵ ) N acted on a body of mass 10 kg. The Q.5 A fire man has to carry an injured person of mass 40 kg
displacement after 10 sec, if it starts from rest, will be - from the top of a building with the help of the rope which
(a) 50 m along tan –1 4/3 with x axis can withstand a load of 100 kg. The acceleration of the
(b) 70 m along tan –1 3/4 with x axis fireman if his mass is 80 kg, will be-
(c) 10 m along tan–1 4/3 with x axis (a) 8.17 m/s2 (b) 9.8 m/s2
(d) None (c) 1.63 m/s 2 (d) 17.97 m/s2
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 09
Q.6 A body of mass 0.02 kg falls from a height of 5 metre into force of engine is 4500 N. The acceleration of the engine
a pile of sand. The body penetrates the sand a distance of 5 and tension in the coupling will respectively be-
cm before stoping. What force has the sand exerted on the (a) 0.04 m/s2, 2000 N (b) 0.4 m/s2, 200 N
body ? 2
(c) 0.4 m/s , 20 N (d) 4 m/s2, 200 N
(a) 1.96 N (b) –19.6 N Q.11 A body whose mass 6 kg is acted upon by two forces
(c) –0.196 N (d) 0.0196 N
(8iˆ + 10j)
ˆ N and (4iˆ + 8j)
ˆ N. The acceleration produced will
Q.7 The magnitude of the force (in newton) acting on a body
varies with time t (in microsecond) as shown in fig. AB, be (in m/s2) –
BC, and CD are straight line segments. The magnitude of (a) (3iˆ + 2j)
ˆ (b) 12iˆ + 18jˆ
the total impulse of the force on the body from t = 4 ms to
t = 16 ms is 1 ˆ ˆ
800 C (c) (i + j) (d) 2iˆ + 3jˆ
(a) 5 × 10–4 N.s 3
600
Force F (N)
400 Q.12 A car of 1000 kg moving with a velocity of 18 km/hr is

(b) 5 × 10–3 N.s 200
A B
stopped by the brake force of 1000 N. The distance covered
F E
(c) 5 × 10–5 N.s by it before coming to rest is -
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 1416D
Time (m s)____ (a) 1 m (b) 162 m (c) 12.5 m (d) 144 m
(d) 5 × 10–2 N.s Q.13 A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a frictionless
Q.8 The total mass of an elevator with a 80 kg man in it is 1000 plane. It is struck by a jet releasing water at a rate of 1 kg/
kg. This elevator moving upward with a speed of 8 m/sec, s and at a speed of 5 m/s. The initial acceleration of the
is brought to rest over a distance of 16m. The tension T in block will be –
the cables supporting the elevator and the force exerted (a) 2.5 m/s2 (b) 5 m/s2 (c) 0.4 m/s2 (d) 0
on the man by the elevator floor will respectively be- Q.14 A man fires the bullets of mass m each with the velocity v
(a) 7800 N, 624 N (b) 624 N, 7800 N with the help of machine gun, if he fires n bullets every
(c) 78 N, 624 N (d) 624 N, 78 N sec, the reaction force per second on the man will be -
Q.9 In the arrangement shown in fig. the ends P and Q of an
unstretchable string move downwards with a uniform speed m mv vn
(a) n (b) m n v (c) (d)
U. Pulleys A and B are fixed. Mass M moves upwards with v n m
a speed of Q.15 A body of mass 15 kg moving with a velocity of 10 m/s is
A B to be stopped by a resistive force in 15 sec, the force will
be -
q q (a) 10 N (b) 5 N
P Q (c) 100 N (d) 50 N
Q.16 A cricket ball of mass 250 gm moving with a velocity of
24 m/s is hit by a bat so that it acquires a velocity of 28 m/
M s in the opposite direction. The force acting on the ball, if
(a) 2U cos q (b) U cos q the contact time is 1/100 of a second, will be -
(c) 2U/cos q (d) U/cos q (a) 1300 N in the final direction of ball
Q.10 An engine of mass 5 × 104 kg pulls a coach of mass 4 × (b) 13 N in the initial direction of ball
104 kg. Suppose that there is a resistance of 1 N per 100 (c) 130 N in the final direction of ball
kg acting on both coach and engine, and that the driving (d) 1.3 N in the initial direction of ball
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16.

DPP/ P 09 3
Q.17 A force of 2 N is applied on a particle for 2 sec, the change Q.23 Choose the correct options
in momentum will be - (1) A reference frame in which Newton’s first law is valid
(a) 2 Ns (b) 4 Ns (c) 6 Ns (d) 3 Ns is called an inertial reference frame.
Q.18 A body of mass 2 kg is moving along x-direction with a (2) Frame moving at constant velocity relative to a known
velocity of 2 m/sec. If a force of 4 N is applied on it along inertial frame is also an inertial frame.
y-direction for 1 sec, the final velocity of particle will be - (3) Idealy, no inertial frame exists in the universe for
practical purpose, a frame of reference may be
(a) 2 2 m/s (b) 2 m/s
considered as inertial if its acceleration is negligible
(c) 1/ 2 m/s (d) 1/ 2 2 m/s with respect to the acceleration of the object to be
Q.19 A cricket ball of mass 150 g is moving with a velocity of observed.
12m/sec and is hit by a bat so that the ball is turned back (4) To measure the acceleration of a falling apple, earth
with a velocity of 20 m/sec, the force on the ball acts for cannot be considered as an inertial frame.
0.01 sec, then the average force exerted by the bat on the
ball will be DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below
(a) 48 N (b) 40 N (c) 480 N (d) 400 N and answer the questions that follows :
Q.20 A body of mass 20 kg moving with a velocity of 3 m/s, Pseudo force is an imaginary force which is recognised only by a
rebounds on a wall with same velocity. The impulse on the non-inertial observer to explain the physical situation according
body is - to newton’s laws. Magnitude of pseudo force Fp is equal to the
(a) 60 Ns (b) 120 Ns (c) 30 Ns (d) 180 Ns product of the mass m of the object and the acceleration a of the
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, frame of reference. The direction of the force is opposite to the
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the direction of acceleration, Fp = –ma
correct answers and mark it according to the following Q.24 A spring weighing machine inside a stationary lift reads
codes: 50 kg when a man stand on it. What would happen to the
scale reading if the lift is moving upward with (i) constant
Codes : velocity (ii) constant acceleratioin ?
æ 50a ö
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (a) 50 kg wt, 50 + kg wt
çè g ÷ø
Q.21 A mass of 60 kg is on the floor of a lift moving down. The
lift moves at first with an acceleration of 3 m/sec2, then æ 50g ö
(b) 50 kg wt, ç 50 + kg wt
with constant velocity and finally with a retardation of è a ÷ø
3m/sec2 . Choose the correct options related to possible
reactions exerted by the lift on the body in each part of the æ 50a ö
(c) 50 kg wt, ç kg wt
motion – è g ÷ø
(1) 408 N (2) 588 N (3) 768 N (4) 508 N æ 50g ö
Q.22 A mass of 10 kg is hung to a spring balance in lift. If the (d) 50 kg wt, ç ÷ kg wt
è a ø
lift is moving with an acceleration g/3 in upward &
Q.25 A 25 kg lift is supported by a cable. The acceleration of
downward directions, choose the correct options related
the lift when the tension in the cable is 175 N, will be -
to the reading of the spring balance.
(a) 2.8 m/s2 (b) 16.8 m/s2
(1) 13.3 kg (2) 6.67 kg (3) 32.6 kg (4) 0 2
(c) – 9.8 m/s (d) 14 m/s2
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 09
Q.26 A body is suspended by a string from the ceiling of an (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT
elevator. It is observed that the tension in the string is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
doubled when the elevator is accelerated. The acceleration (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
will be - (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(a) 4.9 m/s2 (b) 9.8 m/s2
(c) 19.6 m/s 2 (d) 2.45 m/s2 Q.27 Statement-1 : A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept
on it. The cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the
DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains dishes from the table.
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Statement-2 : To every action there is an equal and oppo-
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, site reaction.
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the Q.28 Statement-1 : If the net external force on the body is zero
correct choice. then its acceleration is zero.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Statement-2 : Acceleration does not depend on force.
correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.29 Statement-1 : The slope of momentum versus time graph
give us the acceleration.
Statement-2 : Force is given by the rate of change of
momentum.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : LAWS OF MOTION-2 (Blocks in contact, connected by string, pulley arrangement)

10
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice force of 25 N. The tension in the rope at the point 7 m
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out away from the point of application, will be -
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 11.67 N (b) 13.33 N
(c) 36.67 N (d) None of these
Q.1 A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless
Q.4 A force of 100 N acts in the direction as shown in figure
surface by a rope of mass m. If a force P is applied at the
on a block of mass 10 kg resting on a smooth horizontal
free end of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on the
table. The speed acquired by the block after it has .moved
block will be -
a distance of 10 m, will be -
Pm MP mP (in m/sec) (g = 10 m/sec2)
(a) P (b) (c) (d)
M+m M+m M+m (a) 17 m/sec 100N
Q.2 A body of mass 50 kg is pulled by a rope of length 8 m on (b) 13.17 m/sec 30°
a surface by a force of 108N applied at the other end. The 10kg
(c) 1.3 m/sec
force that is acting on 50 kg mass, if the linear density of (d) 1.7 m/sec
rope is 0.5 kg/m will be - Q.5 In the above example, the velocity after 2 sec will be -
(a) 108 N (b) 100 N (c) 116 N (d) 92 N (in m/sec)
Q.3 A rope of length 15 m and linear density 2 kg/m is lying
length wise on a horizontal smooth table. It is pulled by a (a) 10 3 (b) 5 3 (c) 10 (d) 5
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 10
Q.6 Two blocks of mass m = 1 kg and M = 2 kg are in contact on Q.11 The pulley arrangements of fig (a) and (b) are identical. The
a frictionless table. A horizontal force F(= 3N) is applied to mass of the rope is negligible. In (a) the mass m is lifted up
m. The force of contact between the blocks, will be- by attaching a mass 2 m to the other end of the rope. In (b)
(a) 2 N (b) 1 N (c) 4 N (d) 5 N m is lifted up by pulling the other end of the rope with a
Q.7 A force produces an acceleration of 5 m/s2 in a body and constant downward force F = 2 mg. Which of the following
same force an acceleration of 15 m/s2 in another body. is correct?
The acceleration produced by the same force when applied
to the combination of two bodies will be -
(a) 3.75 m/s2 (b) 20 m/s2
(c) 10 m/s 2 (d) 0.667 m/s2
Q.8 What is the tension in a rod of length L and mass M at a A m m
B 2m F=2mg
distance y from F1 when the rod is acted on by two unequal
forces F1 and F2 (<F1) as shown in fig (a) (b)
y (a) Acceleration in case (b) is 3 times more than that in
C B A
F2
case (a)
T T F1
(b) In case (a) acceleration is g, while in case (b) it is 2g
L (c) In both the cases, acceleration is same
æ yö æyö M æç F1 , F2 ö÷
F1 çç1 , ÷÷ ∗ F2 çç ÷÷
(d) None of the above
(a) (b) yç ÷
èç L ø÷ èç L ø÷ L çè M ø÷ Q.12 Three equal weights of mass m each are hanging on a string
passing over a fixed pulley as shown in fig. The tensions in
æ yö æ yö M æç F1 ∗ F2 ö÷
F1 çç1 ∗ ÷÷ ∗ F2 çç ÷÷ yç ÷ the string connecting weights A to B and B to C will
L çè M ø÷
(c) (d)
çè Lø÷ èç L ø÷ respectively be -
1 1 1 2 2
Q.9 A force produces acceleration 1 , , , , ......... (all in m/ (a) mg, mg
2 3 4 3 3
2 4
s2 ), applied separetly to n bodies. If these bodies are (b) mg , mg T1 T1
combined to form single one, then the acceleration of the 3 3
4 2 A
system will be, if same force is taken into account. (c) mg, mg
3 3 B T2
n 2 n2 n 2 (n + 1) 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 3 C
2 n(n + 1) 2 2 (d) mg, mg
Q.10 Two blocks of masses 6 kg and 4 kg connected by a rope of 2 4
mass 2 kg are resting on frictionless floor as shown in fig. If a Q.13 In the situation shown in figure, both the pulleys and the
constant force of 60 N is applied to 6 kg block, tension in the strings are light and all the surfaces are frictionless. The
rope at A, B, and C will respectively be - acceleration of mass M, tension in the string PQ and force
exerted by the clamp on the pulley, will respectively be -
6kg
2kg 2kg F=60N
(a) (2/3)g, (1/3)Mg, ( 2 /3)Mg T’ Q T
CBA B 2M
Q P (b) (1/3)g, (1/3)Mg, ( 2 /3)Mg
T T
(c) (1/3)g, (2/3)Mg, 3 Mg 2Mg
(a) 30 N, 25 N, 20 N (b) 25 N, 30 N, 20 N
(d) 2g, (1/2)g, 2 Mg A M
(c) 20 N, 30 N, 25 N (d) 30 N, 20 N, 25 N
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE 11. 12. 13.
GRID

DPP/ P 10 3
Q.14 A body of mass 50kg resting on a smooth inclined plane is Q.19 Consider th e double Atwood’s
connected by a massless inextensible string passing over a machine as shown in the figure.
smooth pulley, at the top of the inclined plane have another What is acceleration of the masses ?
mass of 40 kg as shown in the figure. The distance through (a) g/3 T
m
T
a
which 50 kg mass fall in 4 sec will be - (b) g/2
(The angle of the inclined plane is 30º) (c) g mg
T (d) g/4 T
(a) 13.04 m T
T
Q.20 In above question, what is the a m m a
(b) 1.63m C tension in each string ? mg mg
(c) 1.304 m B (a) mg/3 (b) 4mg/3 (c) 2mg/3 (d) 5mg/3
mgcosq mgsinq
mg q
(d) 16.3m 40g DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.22) : In the following questions,
Q.15 A bob is hanging over a pulley inside a car through a string. more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
The second end of the string is in the hand of a person correct answers and mark it according to the following codes:
standing in the car. The car is moving with constant
Codes :
acceleration 'a' directed horizontally as shown in figure.
Other end of the string is pulled with constant acceleration
‘a’ vertically. The tension in the string is – Q.21 Choose the correct options –
car (1) Inertia µ mass (2) 1 newton = 105 dyne
(a) m g2 + a 2
a r DM r r
a (3) Thrust on rocket F = v - Mg
2
(b) m g + a - ma2 Dt
(4) Apparent weight of a body in the accelerated lift is
m
W = m (g + a).
(c) m g 2 + a 2 + ma
Q.22 Choose the correct statements –
(d) m (g + a) (1) For equilibrium of a body under the action of
® ® ® ®
Q.16 In the fig shown, the velocity of each concurrent forces F1 + F2 + F3 + ..... Fn = 0
particle at the end of 4 sec will be - (2) If the downward acceleration of the lift is a = g, then
(a) 0.872 m/s the body will experience weightlessness.
(b) 8.72 m/s (3) If the downward acceleration of the body is a > g,
T T
(c) 0.218 m/s a then the body will rise up to the ceiling of lift
(d) 2.18 m/s A a (4) If the downward acceleration of the lift is a > g, then
Q.17 In the above example, the height B the body will experience weightlessness.
ascended or descended, as the case may
11.5g DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below
be, during that time i.e. 4 sec will be -
(a) 1.744 m (b) 17.44 m and answer the questions that follows :
(c) 0.1744 m (d) None of these A bead of mass m is attached to one end of
B
Q.18 In the above question, if at the end of 4 sec, the string be a spring of natural length R and spring
cut, the position of each particle in next 2 seconds will ( 3 + 1) mg
constant K = . The other end of A
30°
respectively be - R
(a) 17.856 m, 21.344 m (b) –21.344 m, 17.856 m the spring is fixed at point A on a smooth
(c) –17.856 m, 21.344 m (d) –17.856 m, –21.344 m ring of radius R as shown in figure. When
bead is released to move then
RESPONSE 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.

GRID 19. 20. 21. 22.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 10
Q.23 Initial elongation in the spring is – Statement– 2 Acceleration of the both blocks will be
(a) R (b) 2R (c) 2R (d) 3R
different.
Q.24 The normal reaction force at B is –
mg 3 3mg F B
(a) (b) 3mg (c) 3 3mg (d) A
2 2
Q.25 Tangential acceleration of bead just after it is released.
Q.27 Statement– 1 Block A is moving on horizontal surface
g 3 g 2 towards right under the action of force F. All surfaces are
(a) (b) g (c) (d) g
2 4 4 3 smooth. At the instant shown the force exerted by block A
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains on block B is equal to net force on block B.
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Statement– 2 From Newton’s third law of motion, the
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, force exerted by block A on B is equal in magnitude to
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the force exerted by block B on A.
correct choice. A
B
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a F
correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.28 Statement– 1 : In the given fig.
æ m , m1 ÷ö
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. a < ççç 2 ÷g
(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. çè m1 ∗ m 2 ÷÷ø a a
(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. Statement– 2 : In the given fig., T
T
Q.26 Statement–1 In fig the ground is smooth and the masses m ∗ m2
of both the blocks are different. Net force acting on each T< 1 g m1
2m1m 2 m2
of block is not same.
RESPONSE 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

GRID 28.
DAILY PRA CTICE PROBLEM SHEET 10 - PHYSICS

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : LAWS OF MOTION-3 (Friction)

11
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice (a) tan–1 (0.1) (b) tan –1 (0.2)
–1
(c) tan (0.3) (d) tan –1 (0.4)
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. Q.4 The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks
shown in figure is m and the table is smooth. What maximum
Q.1 A body of mass 400 g slides on a rough horizontal surface.
horizontal force F can be applied to the block of mass M
If the frictional force is 3.0 N, the angle made by the contact
so that the blocks move together?
force on the body with the vertical will be
(a) 37º (b) 53º (c) 63º (d) 27º
m
Q.2 In the above question, the magnitude of the contact force
is
(g = 10 m/s2) M F
(a) 3.0 N (b) 4.0 N (c) 5.0 N (d) 7.0 N
Q.3 The coefficient of static friction between a block of mass
m and an inclined plane is ms = 0.3. What can be the (a) mg (M + m) (b) mg (M – m)
maximum angle q of the inclined plane with the horizontal (c) 2mg (M + m) (d) mg (M + 2m)
so that the block does not slip on the plane?
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 11
Q.5 Block A weighs 4 N and block B weighs 8 N. The coefficient of é ù é ù
1 1
kinetic friction is 0.25 for all surfaces. Find the force F to slide B at (a) Rêê1 + ú (b) R ê1 - ú
a constant speed when A rests on B and moves with it. ë (m 2 + 1) úû ê (m2 - 1) úû
ë
(a) 2N (b) 3N (c) 1N (d) 5N é
2
ù é ù
1
Q.6 In the above question, find the force F to slide B at a (c) R êê1 - ú (d) R ê1 - ú
ë (m 2 + 1) úû ê (m + 1) úû
2
constant speed when A is held at rest. ë
Q.12 A body of mass m is released from the top of a rough
(a) 2N (b) 3N (c) 1N (d) 4N
inclined plane as shown in figure. If the frictional force be
Q.7 In the above question, find the force F to slide B at a
F, then body will reach the bottom with a velocity
constant speed when A and B are connected by a light cord
passing over a smooth Pulley. m
(a) 2N (b) 3N (c) 1N (d) 5N
Q.8 Find the maximum value of M/m in the situation shown in
L h
figure so that the system remains at rest. Friction
coefficient at both the contacts is m.
m
2 1
M (a) (mgh - FL) (b) (mgh - FL)
m m
q 2
(c) (mgh + FL) (d) None of these
m 2m m
(a) sin q - m cos q
(b) sin q - m cos q Q.13 A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient
m m of static friction is 0.4.A force F of 2.5 N is applied on the
(c) sin q + m cos q
(d) cos q - m sin q block, as shown. Calculate the force of friction between
Q.9 A block placed on a horizontal surface is being pushed by the block and the floor. (g = 9.8 ms–2)
a force F making an angle q with the vertical, if the (a) 2.5 N (b) 25 N (c) 7.84 N (d) zero
coefficient of friction is m, how much force is needed to Q.14 A block is kept on a horizontal table. The table is undergoing
get the block just started? simple harmonic motion of frequency 3 Hz in a horizontal
m 2m plane. The coefficient of static friction between the block and
(a) sin q - m cos q
(b) sin q - m cos q the table surface is 0.72. Find the maximum amplitude of the
m m table at which the block does not slip on the surface (g = 10 ms–
(c) sin q + m cos q (d) cos q - m sin q 2)
Q.10 Assuming the length of a chain to be L and coefficient of (a) 0.01 m (b) 0.02 m (c) 0.03 m (d) 0.04 m
static friction m. Compute the maximum length of the chain Q.15 Two cars of unequal masses use similar tyres. If they are
which can be held outside a table without sliding. moving at the same initial speed, the minimum stopping
2m L mL mL 3mL distance -
(a) 1 + m (b) 1 - m (c) 1 + m (d) 1 + m (a) is smaller for the heavier car
Q.11 If the coefficient of friction between an insect and bowl is (b) is smaller for the lighter car
m and the radius of the bowl is r, find the maximum height (c) is same for both cars
to which the insect can crawl in the bowl. (d) depends on the volume of the car
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15.

DPP/ P 11 3
Q.16 Consider the situation shown in figure. The wall is smooth DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, more
but the surfaces of A and B in contact are rough in than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct
equilibrium the friction on B due to A – answers and mark it according to the following codes:
(a) is upward Codes :
A B F
(b) is downward (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) is zero (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) the system cannot remain in equilibrium Q.21 Choose the correct statements –
Q.17 A block is placed on a rough floor and a horizontal force F (1) Kinetic friction is lesser than limiting friction.
is applied on it. The force of friction f by the floor on the
(2) In rolling the surfaces at contact do not rub each other.
block is measured for different values of F and a graph is
(3) If a body is at rest and no pulling force is acting on it,
plotted between them –
force of friction on it is zero.
(i) The graph is a straight line of slope 45°
(4) Kinetic friction is greater than limiting friction.
(ii) The graph is straight line parallel to the F axis
Q.22 Choose the correct statements –
(iii) The graph is a straight line of slope 45º for small F and
(1) Force of friction is partically independent of
a straight line parallel to the F-axis for large F.
microscopic area of surface in contact and relative
(iv) There is small kink on the graph
velocity between them. (if it is not high)
(a) iii, iv (b) i, iv (c) i, ii (d) i, iii
(2) Normally with increase in smoothness friction
Q.18 The contact force exerted by a body A on another body B decreases. But if the surface area are made too smooth
is equal to the normal force between the bodies. We by polishing and cleaning the bonding force of
conclude that - adhesion will increase and so the friction will increase
(i) the surfaces must be smooth resulting in 'Cold welding'
(ii) force of friction between two bodies may be equal to (3) Friction is a non conservative force, i.e. work done
zero against friction is path dependent.
(iii) magnitude of normal reaction is equal to that of (4) Force of fricton depends on area
friction Q.23 Choose the correct options –
(iv) bodies may be rough (1) Friction always opposes the motion
(a) ii, iv (b) i, ii (c) iii, iv (d) i, iv (2) Friction may opposes the motion
Q.19 It is easier to pull a body than to push, because - (3) If the applied force is increased the force of static
(a) the coefficient of friction is more in pushing than that friction remains constant.
in pulling (4) If the applied force is increased the force of static
(b) the friction force is more in pushing than that in friction also increases upto limiting friction.
pulling
(c) the body does not move forward when pushed DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below and
(d) None of these answer the questions that follows :
Q.20 A block of metal is lying on the floor of a bus. The
maximum acceleration which can be given to the bus so A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A
that the block may remain at rest, will be - spring is attached to the block whose other end is joined to a rigid
(a) µg (b) µ/g (c) µ2g (d) µg2 wall, as shown in the figure. A horizontal force is applied on the
block so that it remains at rest while the spring is elongated by x.
RESPONSE 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

GRID 21. 22. 23.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 11
mmg DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains
x³ . Let Fmax and Fmin be the maximum and minimum values two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
k
of force F for which the block remains a equilibrium. For a particular (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, only
x, one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct
choice.
Fmax – Fmin = 2N.
Also shown is the variation of Fmax + Fmin versus x, the elonga-
tion of the spring.
Fmax+Fmin (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
///////////////
5N
K (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
1 kg Q.27 A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of same mass M and
////////////////////////////////////////// same radius R are released from the top of a rough
0.1M
x inclined plane. Friction coefficient is same for both the
Q.24 The coefficient of friction between the block and the hori- bodies. If both bodies perform imperfect rolling, then
zontal surface is – Statement - 1 : Work done by friction for the motion of
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 bodies from top of incline to the bottom will be same
(c) 0.3 (d) 0.4 for both the bodies.
Q.25 The spring constant of the spring is – Statement - 2 : Force of friction will be same for both
the bodies.
(a) 25 N/m (b) 20 N/m
(c) 2.5 N/m (d) 50 N/m Q.28 Statement - 1 : Maximum value of friction force between
two surfaces is m × normal reaction.
Q.26 The value of Fmin, if x = 3 cm. is –
where m = coefficient of friction between surfaces.
(a) 0 (b) 0.2 N
Statement - 2 : Friction force between surfaces of two
(c) 5N (d) 1N
bodies is always less than or equal to externally applied
force.
RESPONSE GRID 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Work, Energy and Power-1 (Work by constant and variable forces,
12
kinetic and potential energy, work energy theorem)
r
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 A force F = (7 – 2x + 3x2) N is applied on a 2 kg mass
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out which displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5 m. Work done in
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. joule is -
r (a) 70 (b) 270 (c) 35 (d) 135
Q.1 A body is acted upon by a force F = -î + 2jˆ + 3kˆ . The work
Q.4 An automobile of mass m accelerates from rest. If the engine
done by the force in displacing it from (0,0,0) to (0,0,4m) will supplies a constant power P, the velocity at time t is given by -
be -
(a) 12 J (b) 10 J Pt 2Pt Pt 2Pt
(a) v = (b) v = (c) (d)
(c) 8 J (d) 6 J m m m m
Q.2 The work done in pulling a body of mass 5 kg along an inclined Q.5 In the above question, the position (s) at time (t) is given by -
1/2
plane (angle 60º) with coefficient of friction 0.2 through 2 æ 2Ptö æ 8P ö
(a) çè m ÷ø t (b) çè ÷ø t 3/2
m, will be - 9m
(a) 98.08 J (b) 94.08 J æ 9P ö
1/2
æ 8P ö
1/ 2
(c) 90.08 J (d) 91.08 J (c) ç ÷ t1/2 (d) ç ÷ t
è 8m ø è 9m ø
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 12
Q.6 A particle moving in a straight line is acted by a force, which Q.13 The power output of a 92 U235 reactor if it takes 30 days to
works at a constant rate and changes its velocity from u to use up 2 kg of fuel and if each fission gives 185 MeV of
v in passing over a distance x. The time taken will be - energy (Avogadro number = 6 × 1023/mole) will be -
v-u æ v+u ö (a) 58.4 MW (b) 5.84 MW
(a) x = 2 2 (b) x çè 2 2 ø÷ (c) 584 W (d) 5840 MW
v +u v +u
æ v2 - u 2 ö
Q.14 The stopping distance for a vehicle of mass M moving with
3 æ vö a speed v along a level road, will be -
(c) (x) ç 3 3 ÷ (d) x çè u ÷ø
2 è v -u ø (µ is the coefficient of friction between tyres and the road)
Q.7 A chain of linear density 3 kg /m and length 8 m is lying on
the table with 4 m of chain hanging from the edge. The v2 2v2 v2 v
work done in lifting the chain on the table will be - (a) (b) (c) (d)
mg mg 2mg mg
(a) 117.6 J (b) 235.2 J (c) 98 J (d) 196 J
Q.15 The earth circles the sun once a year. How much work
Q.8 The work done in lifting water from a well of depth 6 m
would have to be done on the earth to bring it to rest
using a bucket of mass 0.5 kg and volume 2 litre, will be-
relative to the sun, (ignore the rotation of earth about -
(a) 73.5 J (b) 147 J (c) 117. 6 J (d) 98 J
its own axis) Given that mass of the earth is 6 × 1024 kg
Q.9 An object of mass 5 kg falls from rest through a vertical
and distance between the sun and earth is 1.5 × 108 km-
distance of 20 m and reaches a velocity of 10 m/s. How
(a) 2.7 × 1033 (b) 2.7 × 1024
much work is done by the push of the air on the object ? 23
(c) 1.9 × 10 (d) 1.9 × 1024
(g = 10 m/s2).
Q.16 A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of
(a) 350 J (b) 750 J (c) 200 J (d) 300 J
radius r, under a centripetal force equal to (–k/r 2), where k
Q.10 A boy pulls a 5 kg block 20 metres along a horizontal sur-
is a constant. The total energy of the particle is -
face at a constant speed with a force directed 45° above
(a) k/2r (b) – k/2r
the horizontal. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.20,
(c) kr (d) –k/r
how much work does the boy do on the block?
Q.17 The work done by a person in carrying a box of mass 10 kg
(a) 163.32 J (b) 11.55 J
through a vertical height of 10 m is 4900 J. The mass of
(c) 150 J (d) 115 J
the person is -
Q.11 A uniform chain is held on a frictionless table with one-
(a) 60 kg (b) 50 kg
fifth of its length hanging over the edge. If the chain has a
(c) 40 kg (d) 130 kg
length l and a mass m, how much work is required to pull
Q.18 A uniform rod of length 4 m and mass 20 kg is lying
the hanging part back on the table ?
horizontal on the ground. The work done in keeping it
(a) mg l / 10 (b) mg l / 5
vertical with one of its ends touching the ground, will be -
(c) mg l / 50 (d) mg l / 2
(a) 784 J (b) 392 J (c) 196 J (d) 98 J
Q.12 A bus of mass 1000 kg has an engine which produces a
Q.19 If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface,
constant power of 50 kW. If the resistance to motion,
the gain in the potential energy of an object of mass m
assumed constant is 1000 N. The maximum speed at which
raised from surface of the earth to a height equal to radius
the bus can travel on level road and the acceleration when
R of the earth is - [M = mass of earth]
it is travelling at 25 m/s, will respectively be -
(a) 50 m/s, 1.0 m/s2 (b) 1.0 m/s, 50 m/s2 GMm GM GMm GM
2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) 5.0 m/s, 10 m/s (d) 10 m/s, 5m/s2 2R R R 2R
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18. 19.

DPP/ P 12 3
Q.20 The potential energy between two atoms in a molecule is given DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below
a b and answer the questions that follows :
by, U(x) = - , where a and b are positive constant and x
x12 x 6 In the figure shown, the system is released from rest with both
is the distance between the atoms. The atoms is an stable the springs in unstretched positions. Mass of each block is 1 kg
equilibrium, when- and force constant of each spring is 10 N/m.
1/6
æ a ö
(a) x=0 (b) x = ç ÷
è 2b ø
1/6 1/6
æ 2a ö æ 11a ö
(c) x= ç ÷ (d) x = ç
è bø è 5b ÷ø
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
codes:
Codes :
Q.23 Extension of horizontal spring in equilibrium is:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (a) 0.2 m (b) 0.4 m
(b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) 0.6 m (d) 0.8 m
(c) 2 and 4 are correct Q.24 Extension of vertical spring in equilibrium is
(a) 0.4 m (b) 0.2 m
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 0.6 m (d) 0.8 m
Q.21 A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. Choose Q.25 Maximum speed of the block placed horizontally is:
incorrect statements related to his work (a) 3.21 m/s (b) 2.21 m/s
(1) Negative work (c) 1.93 m/s (d) 1.26 m/s
(2) Positive but not maximum work DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains
(3) Maximum work two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
(4) No work at all (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
Q.22 Choose the correct options –
correct choice.
(1) The work done by forces may be equal to change in
kinetic energy (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
(2) The work done by forces may be equal to change in correct explanation for Statement-1.
potential energy (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(3) The work done by forces may be equal to change in NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
total energy (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(4) The work done by forces must be equal to change in (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
potential energy.
RESPONSE 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

GRID 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 12
Q.26 As shown in the figure, a uniform sphere is rolling on a Q.27 Statement - 1 : Sum of work done by the Newton’s 3rd law
horizontal surface without slipping, under the action of a pair internal forces, acting between two particles may be
horizontal force F. zero.
Statement - 2 : If two particles undergo same displacement
F
then work done by Newton’s 3rd law pair forces on them is
of opposite sign and equal magnitude.
Q.28 Statement - 1: A particle moves along a straight line with
constant velocity. Now a constant non-zero force is applied
Statement - 1 : Power developed due to friction force is on the particle in direction opposite to its initial velocity.
zero. After the force is applied, the net work done by this force
Statement - 2 : Power developed by gravity force is non- may be zero in certain time intervals.
zero. Statement - 2 : The work done by a force acting on a particle
is zero in any time interval if the force is always
perpendicular to velocity of the particle.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Work, Energy and Power-2 (Conservation of momentum and energy, collision, rocket case)
13
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice travelled a distance of 15 m. The coefficient of friction
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out between the block and the floor will be - (Duration of
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. impact is very short)
1 2 1 3
Q.1 A rifle man, who together with his rifle has a mass of 100 (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 3 4
kg, stands on a smooth surface fires 10 shots horizontally. Q.3 A 20 g bullet pierces through a plate of mass m1 = 1 kg and
Each bullet has a mass 10 gm and a muzzle velocity of 800 then comes to rest inside a second plate of mass m 2 = 2.98
m/s. What velocity does rifle man acquire at the end of 10 kg. It is found that the two plates, initially at rest, now move
shots with equal velocities. The percentage loss in the initial
(a) 0.8 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s (c) 0.3 m/s (d) 1.2 m/s velocity of bullet when it is between m1 and m2. (Neglect
Q.2 A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a velocity of any loss of material of the bodies, due to action of bullet.)
300 m/s strikes a block of wood of mass 290 g which rests will be -
on a rough horizontal floor. After impact the block and the (a) 20% (b) 25%
bullet move together and come to rest when the block has (c) 30% (d) 45%
EBD_7156
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Q.4 A bullet of mass 20 g hits a block of mass 1.98 kg suspended Q.9 The mass of a rocket is 500 kg and the relative velocity of
from a massless string of length 100 cm and sticks to it. the gases ejecting from it is 250 m/s with respect to the
The bullet flies down at an angle of 30º to the horizontal rocket. The rate of burning of the fuel in order to give the
with a velocity of 200 m/s. Through what height the block rocket an initial acceleration 20 m/s2 in the vertically
will rise- upward direction (g = 10 m/s2), will be -
(a) 0.15 m (a) 30 kg/s (b) 60 kg/s
(c) 45 kg/s (d) 10 kg/s
(b) 0.30 m v Q.10 A slow moving electron collides elastically with a hydrogen
(M+m)
(c) 0.45 m atom at rest. The initial and final motions are along the
30° h
same straight line. What fraction of electron's kinetic
(d) 0.75 m M
energy is transferred to the hydrogen atom? The mass of
Q.5 A bullet of mass 0.01 kg travelling at a speed of 500 m/s
hydrogen atom is 1850 times the mass of electron.
strikes a block of mass 2 kg, which is suspended by a string
(a) 0.217 % (b) 2.17 % (c) 0.0217 % (d) 21.7 %
of length 5 m. The centre of gravity of the block is found to
rise a vertical distance of 0.1 m. The speed of the bullet Q.11 A particle of mass 4 m which is at rest explodes into three
after it emerges from the block will be - fragments, two of the fragments each of mass m are found
to move each with a speed v making an angle 90º with each
(a) 1.4 m/s other. The total energy relased in this explosion is -
(b) 110 m/s 1

(a) mv2 (b) mv2
2
(c) 220 m/s v1 3
u1
(c) mv2 (d) 2 mv2
(d) 14 m/s 2
0.1m v2
m1 m
2
Q.12 A body of mass M splits into two parts aM and (1 – a) M
Q.6 The rate of burning of fuel in a rocket is 50 gm/sec. and by an internal explosion, which generates kinetic energy T.
comes out with and velocity 4 × 103 m/s. The force exerted After explosion if the two parts move in the same direction
by gas on rocket will be - as before, their relative speed will be -
(a) 200 N (b) 250 N
T 2T
(c) 2.5 × 106 N (d) 2.5 × 104 N (a) (b)
Q.7 A body of mass 1 kg strikes elastically with another body at (1 - a )M a(1 - a)M
rest and continues to move in the same direction with one T 2T
fourth of its initial velocity. The mass of the other body is - (c) (d)
2(1 - a )M (1 - a )M
(a) 0.6 kg (b) 2.4 kg (c) 3 kg (d) 4 kg
Q.8 A ball moving with a speed of 9 m/s strikes with an identical Q.13 A body of mass 1 kg initially at rest explodes and breaks
stationary ball such that after the collision the direction of into three fragments of masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The
each ball makes an angle of 30° with the original line of two pieces of equal mass fly off perpendicular to each other
motion. Find the speeds of the two balls after the collision. with a speed of 30 m/sec each. What is the velocity of the
Is the kinetic energy conserved in this collision process ? heavier fragment ?
(a) 3 3 m/s, no (b) 3 3 m/s, no (a) 10 2 m/s (b) 15 2 m/s
(c) 6 3 m/s, yes (d) 0, yes (c) 5 2 m/s (d) 20 2 m/s
RESPONSE 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
GRID 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

DPP/ P 13 3
Q.14 A body of mass m moving with a velocity v1 in the X- Q.19 In an inelastic collision-
direction collides with another body of mass M moving in (a) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not
Y-direction with a velocity v2. They coalasce into one body conserved
during collision. The magnitude and direction of the (b) momentum is not conserved but kinetic energy is
momentum of the final body, will be- conserved
æ Mv 2 ö
(c) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved
(a) (mv1 ) + (Mv2 ) , tan–1 çè mv ÷ø (d) both the momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
1 Q.20 Inelastic collision is the-
æ Mv1 ö (a) collision of ideal gas molecules with the walls of the
(b) (mv1 ) + (Mv2 ) , tan–1 çè mv ÷ø
2 container
æ Mv 2 ö (b) collision of electron and positron to an inhilate each
(c) (mv1 ) 2 + (Mv 2 ) 2 , tan–1 çè mv ÷ø other.
1
æ Mv1 ö (c) collision of two rigid solid spheres lying on a
(d) (mv1 ) 2 + (Mv 2 ) 2 , tan–1 çè mv ÷ø frictionless table
2 (d) scattering of a-particles with the nucleus of gold atom
Q.15 A ball of mass m hits a wall with a speed v making an angle
q with the normal. If the coefficient of restitution is e, the DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,
direction and magnitude of the velocity of ball after more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
reflection from the wall will respectively be - correct answers and mark it according to the following
æ tan q ö
codes:
(a) tan–1 çè e ÷ø , v sin 2 q + e 2 cos 2 q Codes :
æ e ö 1 (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) tan–1 çè tan q ÷ø , 2 2 2 (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
v e sin q + cos q Q.21 Which of the following statements is false for collisions-
v
(c) tan–1(e tan q), tan q (1) Momentum is conserved in elastic collisions but not
e in inelastic collisions.
(d) tan–1 (e tan q), v sin 2 q + e2 (2) Total-kinetic energy is conserved in elastic collisions
Q.16 A tennis ball dropped from a height of 2 m rebounds only 1.5 but momentum is not conserved.
metre after hitting the ground. What fraction of energy is lost (3) Total kinetic energy and momentum both are conserved
in the impact? in all types of collisions
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (4) Total kinetic energy is not conserved in inelastic
Q.17 A bullet is fired from the gun. The gun recoils, the kinetic collisions but momentum is conserved
energy of the recoil shall be- Q.22 Which of the following hold when two particles of masses
m1 and m2 undergo elastic collision?
(a) equal to the kinetic energy of the bullet (1) When m1 = m2 and m2 is stationary, there is maximum
(b) less than the kinetic energy of the bullet transfer of kinetic energy in head on collision
(c) greater than the kinetic energy of the bullet (2) When m1 = m2 and m2 is stationary, there is maximum
(d) double that of the kinetic energy of the bullet transfer of momentum in head on collision
Q.18 Conservation of linear momentum is equivalent to- (3) When m1 >> m2 and m2 is stationary, after head on
(a) Newton's second law of motion collision m2 moves with twice the velocity of m1.
(b) Newton's first law of motion (4) When the collision is oblique and m1 = m2 with m2
(c) Newton's third law of motion stationary, after the collision the particle move in
(d) Conservation of angular momentum. opposite directions.
RESPONSE 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.

GRID 19. 20. 21. 22.

EBD_7156
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Q.23 Two balls at the same temperature collide inelastically. DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains
Which of the following is not conserved? two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Velocity (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
(3) Temperature (4) Momentum only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below correct choice.
and answer the questions that follows : (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
A small particle of mass m/10 is moving horizontally at a height (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
of 3R/2 from ground with velocity 10 m/s. A perfectly inelastic NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
collision occurs at point P of sphere of mass m placed on smooth (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
horizontal surface. The radius of sphere is R. (m = 10 kg and R = (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
0.1 m) (Assume all surfaces to be smooth). Q.27 A particle of mass m strikes a wedge of mass M horizontally
as shown in the figure.
m/10 P
m
10 m/s R/2
m M
R
B Statement - 1 : If collision is perfectly inelastic then, it
can be concluded that the particle sticks to the wedge.
Q.24 Speed of particle just after collision is Statement - 2 : In perfectly inelastic collision velocity of
(a) approx 5.0 m/s (b) approx 10 m/s both bodies is same along common normal just after
(c) approx. 15.0 m/s (d) approx 20.0 m/s collision.
Q.25 Speed of sphere just after collision is Q.28 Statement - 1 : In an elastic collision in one dimension
(a) 27/43 m/s (b) 30/43 m/s between two bodies, total momentum remains the same
(c) 35/43 m/s (d) 40/43 m/s before, during and after the collision.
Q.26 Angular speed of sphere just after collision is Statement - 2 : In an elastic collision in one dimension
(a) zero (b) 2 rad/sec between two bodies, total kinetic energy remains the same
(c) 2.5 rad/sec (d) 3 rad/sec before, during and after the collision.
[Assume external forces are absent in both the above
statements].
RESPONSE 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

GRID 28.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Centre of mass and its motion

14
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 The distance between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out in a carbon monoxide molecule is 1.1 Å. Given, mass of
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. carbon atom is 12 a.m.u. and mass of oxygen atom is 16
a.m.u., calculate the position of the centre of mass of the
Q.1 In the HCl molecule, the separation between the nuclei of
carbon monoxide molecule
the two atom is about 1.27 A° (1A° = 10 –10 m). The
(a) 6.3 Å from the carbon atom
approximate location of the centre of mass from the
(b) 1 Å from the oxygen atom
hydrogen atom, assuming the chlorine atom to be about
(c) 0.63 Å from the carbon atom
35.5 times massive as hydrogen is
(d) 0.12 Å from the oxygen atom
(a) 1 Å (b) 2.5 Å (c) 1.24 Å (d) 1.5 Å
Q.4 The velocities of three particles of masses 20g, 30g and
Q.2 A 2 kg body and a 3 kg body are moving along the x-axis. At
a particular instant the 2 kg body has a velocity of 3 ms–1 and the 50g are 10iˆ,10 ˆj and10kˆ respectively. The velocity of the
3 kg body has the velocity of 2ms–1. The velocity of the centre of mass of the three particles is
centre of mass at that instant is (a) 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5kˆ (b) 10(iˆ + ˆj + kˆ)
(a) 5 ms–1 (b) 1 ms–1
(c) 0 (d) None of these (c) 20iˆ + 30 ˆj +5 kˆ (d) 2iˆ + 30 ˆj +50 kˆ
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Q.5 The centre of mass of a triangle shown in figure has Q.10 Two particles of masses m1 and m2 initially at rest start
coordinates moving towards each other under their mutual force of
h b attraction. The speed of the centre of mass at any time t,
(a) x = , y = y when they are at a distance r apart, is
2 2
b h æ m1m2 1 ö
(b) x= , y=
2 2 (a) zero (b) çè G 2 . m ÷ø t
h r 1
b h
(c) x = , y =
3 3 æ m1m2 1 ö æ m1m2 1 ö
h b x (c) çè G 2 . m ÷ø t (d) çè G 2 . m + m ÷ø t
x= , y= r 2 r 1 2
(d) b
3 3
Q.11 A 'T' shaped object, dimensions shown in the figure, is
Q.6 Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are moving with r
velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively along same lying on a smooth floor. A force ' F ' is applied at the point
direction. Then the velocity of their centre of mass will be P parallel to AB, such that the object has only the
(a) 8.1 m/s (b) 7.3 m/s translational motion without rotation. Find the location of
(c) 6.4 m/s (d) 5.3 m/s P with respect to C
Q.7 Four particles of masses m, 2m, 3m and 4m are arranged at 4 l
the corners of a parallelogram with each side equal to a (a) l
A
3 B
and one of the angle between two adjacent sides is 60°. (b) I P
The parallelogram lies in the x-y plane with mass m at the 2 F 2l
origin and 4m on the x-axis. The centre of mass of the (c) l
3
arrangement will be located at 3 C
(d) l
æ 3 ö æ 3 ö 2
(a) ç 2 a, 0.95a ÷ (b) ç 0.95a , 4 a ÷
è ø è ø
Q.12 Two spheres of masses 2M and M are initially at rest at a
æ 3a a ö æ a 3a ö
(c) çè , ÷ø (d) çè , ÷ø distance R apart. Due to mutual force of attraction, they
4 2 2 4
approach each other. When they are at separation R/2, the
Q.8 Three identical metal balls each of radius r are placed touching acceleration of the centre of mass of spheres would be
each other on a horizontal surface such that an equilateral (a) 0 m/s2 (b) g m/s2
triangle is formed, when centres of three balls are joined. (c) 3 g m/s2 (d) 12 g m/s2
The centre of the mass of system is located at Q.13 Masses 8 kg, 2 kg, 4 kg and 2 kg are placed at the corners
(a) Horizontal surface A, B, C, D respectively of a square ABCD of diagonal 80
(b) Centre of one of the balls cm. The distance of centre of mass from A will be
(c) Line joining centres of any two balls (a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm
(d) Point of intersection of the medians (c) 40 cm (d) 60 cm
Q.9 2 bodies of different masses of 2 kg and 4 kg are moving Q.14 If linear density of a rod of length 3m varies as l = 2 + x,
with velocities 20 m/s and 10 m/s towards each other due them the position of the centre of gravity of the rod is
to mutual gravitational attraction. What is the velocity of 7 12
their centre of mass? (a) m (b) m
3 7
(a) 5 m/s (b) 6 m/s 10 9
(c) 8 m/s (d) Zero (c) m (d) m
7 7
RESPONSE 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
GRID 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

DPP/ P 14 3
Q.15 Four bodies of equal mass start moving with same speed Q.19 A cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of mass as
as shown in the figure. In which of the following shown in the fig. Then
combination the centre of mass will remain at origin?
Y
(a) c and d d c
(b) a and b (a) The two pieces will have the same mass
X' X (b) The bottom piece will have larger mass
(c) a and c (c) The handle piece will have larger mass
a b
(d) b and d (d) Mass of handle piece is double the mass of bottom
Y' piece
Q.16 Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are kept as Q.20 Consider a system of two particles having mass m1 and m2.
shown in figure, touching each other, with their centres on If the particle of mass m1 is pushed towards the centre of
a straight line. If their centres are marked P, Q, R mass of particles through a distance d, by what distance
respectively, the distance of centre of mass of the system would be particle of mass m2 move so as to keep the centre
from P is of mass of particles at the original position?
PQ + PR + QR m1 m m2
(a) y
(a) d (b) 1 d (c) d (d) d
3
m1 + m2 m2 m1
PQ + PR
(b) P Q R
3 x DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.22) : In the following questions,
PQ + QR
(c) more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
3
PR + QR
(d) codes:
3
Q.17 A ladder is leaned against a smooth wall and it is allowed Codes :
to slip on a frictionless floor. Which figure represents (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
trace of motion of its centre of mass
Q.21 Choose the wrong statements about the centre of mass
(CM) of a system of two particles
(a) (b) (1) The CM lies on the line joining the two particles
midway between them
Time Time
(2) The CM lies on the line joining them at a point whose
distance from each particle is proportional to the
square of the mass of that particle
(c) (d) (3) The CM is on the line joining them at a point whose
Time Time distance from each particle is proportional to the mass
Q.18 The two particles X and Y, initially at rest, start moving of that particle
towards each other under mutual attraction. If at any instant (4) The CM lies on the line joining them at a point whose
the velocity of X is V and that of Y is 2V, the velocity of distance from each particle is inversely proportional
their centre of mass will be to the mass of that particle
(a) 0 (b) V (c) 2V (d) V/2
RESPONSE 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

GRID 20. 21.

EBD_7156
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Q.22 Choose the wrong statements about the centre of mass of Q.25 Maximum extension in the spring after system loses
a body contact with wall
(1) It lies always outside the body 3mg 3mg
(2) It lies always inside the body (a) (b)
2k 2k
(3) It lies always on the surface of the body 3mg
(4) It may lie within, outside or on the surface of the body (c) (d) None of these
2k
DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below DIRECTIONS (Q. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains
and answer the questions that follows : two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
A system consists of block A and B each of mass m connected (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
by a light spring as shown in the figure with block B in contact only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
with a wall. The block A compresses the spring by 3mg/k from correct choice.
natural length of spring and then released from rest. Neglect (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
friction anywhere. correct explanation for Statement-1.
3mg/k (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
k
B A (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
Q.26 Statement-1 : The centre of mass of a system of n particles
Q.23 Acceleration of centre of mass of system comprising A is the weighted average of the position vector of the n
and B just after A is released is particles making up the system.
(a) 0 (b) 3g/2 Statement-2 : The position of the centre of mass of a
(c) 3g (d) None of these system is independent of coordinate system.
Q.24 Velocity of centre of mass of system comprising A and B Q.27 Statement-1 : The centre of mass of a proton and an electron,
when block B just loses contact with the wall released from their respective positions remains at rest.
Statement-2 : The centre of mass remains at rest, if no
3g m
(a) 3 g m (b) external force is applied.
k 2 k
Q.28 Statement-1 : Position of centre of mass is independent
m of the reference frame.
(c) 2g (d) None of these
k Statement-2 : Centre of mass is same for all bodies.
RESPONSE 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

GRID 27. 28.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Rotational Motion – 1: Basic concepts of rotational motion, moment of a force, torque,
15
angular momentum and its conservation with application
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice (c) When no external impulse acts upon the system
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (d) When axis of rotation remains same
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. Q.3 Two rigid bodies A and B rotate with rotational kinetic
Q.1 A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating energies EA and EB respectively. The moments of inertia
about its axis with a constant angular velocity w. Four of A and B about the axis of rotation are IA and IB respectively.
objects each of mass m, are kept gently to the opposite If IA = IB/4 and EA = 100 EB, the ratio of angular momentum
ends of two perpendicular diameters of the ring. The (LA) of A to the angular momentum (LB) of B is
angular velocity of the ring will be (a) 25 (b) 5/4 (c) 5 (d) 1/4
Q.4 A uniform heavy disc is rotating at constant angular velocity
Mw ( M + 4m) w ( M - 4m) w Mw w about a vertical axis through its centre and perpendicular
(a) (b) (c) (d)
M + 4m M M + 4m 4m to the plane of the disc. Let L be its angular momentum. A
Q..2 The angular momentum of a system of particles is lump of plasticine is dropped vertically on the disc and
conserved sticks to it. Which of the following will be constant?
(a) When no external force acts upon the system (a) w (b) w and L both
(b) When no external torque acts upon the system (c) L only (d) Neither w nor L
EBD_7156
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Q.5 Two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I2 and angular speeds Q.11 An automobile engine develops 100 kW when rotating at a
w1 and w2 are rotating along collinear axes passing through speed of 1800 rev/min. What torque does it deliver
their centre of mass and perpendicular to their plane. If (a) 350 N-m (b) 440 N-m
the two are made to rotate combindly along the same axis
(c) 531 N-m (d) 628 N-m
the rotational KE of system will be
Q.12 A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel
(a)
I1w1 + I 2 w 2
(b)
( I1 + I2 )( w1 + w 2 )2 changes its angular momentum from A0 to 4A0 in 4 seconds.
2 ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 The magnitude of this torque is
( I1w1 + I2 w 2 ) 2
(c) (d) None of these 3A 0
2 ( I1 + I 2 ) (a) (b) A0
4
Q.6 A particle performs uniform circular motion with an
angular momentum L. If the frequency of a particle's (c) 4A0 (d) 12A0
motion is doubled and its kinetic energy is halved, the Q.13 A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg -m2 about its
angular momentum becomes. vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis.
(a) 2 L (b) 4 L (c) L/2 (d) L/4 The torque which can stop the wheel's rotation in 1 minute
Q.7 A round disc of moment of inertia I 2 about its axis would be
perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre is 2p p
placed over another disc of moment of inertia I1 rotating (a) Nm (b) Nm
15 12
with an angular velocity w about the same axis. The final
angular velocity of the combination of discs is p p
(c) Nm (d) Nm
I 2w I1w ( I1 + I2 ) w 15 18
(a) I1 + I 2 (b) w (c) I1 + I 2 (d) I1 r Ù Ù Ù
Q.14 Find the torque of a force F = -3 i + j + 5k acting at the
Q.8 Calculate the angular momentum of a body whose rotational
energy is 10 joule. If the angular momentum vector r Ù Ù Ù
point r = 7 i + 3 j + k
coincides with the axis of rotation and its moment of inertia
about this axis is 8×10-7 kg m2 Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù
(a) 14 i - 38 j + 16 k (b) 4 i + 4 j + 6 k
(a) 4 × 10–3 kg m2 /s (b) 2 × 10–3 kg m2/s
–3
(c) 6 × 10 kg m /s 2 (d) None of these Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù
(c) -14 i + 38 j - 16 k (d) -21 i + 3 j + 5 k
Q.9 If the earth is treated as a sphere of radius R and mass M. Its
angular momentum about the axis of rotation with period T Q.15 A constant torque of 1000 N -m, turns a wheel of moment
is of inertia 200 kg -m2 about an axis passing through the
centre. Angular velocity of the wheel after 3 s will be
pMR 3 MR 2 p 2pMR 2 4pMR 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 15 rad/s (b) 10 rad/s (c) 5 rad/s (d) 1 rad/s
T T 5T 5T
Q.10 If the earth is a point mass of 6×1024kg revolving around Q.16 A torque of 30 N-m is applied on a 5 kg wheel whose
the sun at a distance of 1.5×108 km and in time T = 3.14 moment of inertia is 2kg-m2 for 10 sec. The angle covered
×107s. then the angular momentum of the earth around by the wheel in 10 sec will be
the sun is (a) 750 rad (b) 1500 rad
(a) 1.2 × 1018 kg m2/s (b) 1.8 × 1029 kg m2/s
(c) 1.5 × 1037 kg m2/s (d) 2.7 × 1040 kg m2/s (c) 3000 rad (d) 6000 rad
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16.

DPP/ P 15 3
Q.17 A horizontal force F is applied such that the block remains Q.21 A child is standing with folded hands at the centre of a
stationary, then which of the following statement is false platform rotating about its central axis. The kinetic energy
of the system is K. The child now stretches his arms so
a
that the moment of inertia of the system doubles. The
kinetic energy of the system now is
a
(1) less than 2K (2) equal to K/2
F
(3) more thanK/4 (4) equal to 4K
Q.22 Two uniforms discs of equal mass but unequal radii are
mounted on fixed horizontal axiles. Light strings are
wrapped on each of the discs. The strings are pulled by
constant equal forces F for same amount of time as shown
(a) f = mg [where f is the friction force] in the figure.
(b) F = N [ where N is the normal reaction] F
F
(c) F will not produce torque
(d) N will not produce torque
Q.18 In a bicycle, the radius of rear wheel is twice the radius of
front wheel. If r F and rr are the radius, vF and vr are speeds
Disc I
of top most points of wheel, then
Disc II
(a) vr = 2 vF (b) vF = 2 vr Angular momenta of discs are L1 and L2 and their kinetic
(c) vF = vr (d) vF > vr energies are K1 and K2. Which of the following statements
Q.19 The wheel of a car is rotating at the rate of 1200 revolutions true –
per minute. On pressing the accelerator for 10 seconds, it (1) L1 = L2 (2) L1 < L2 (3) K1 > K2 (4) K1 = K2
starts rotating at 4500 revolutions per minute. The angular
acceleration of the wheel is DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below
(a) 30 rad/sec2 (b) 1880 degree/sec2 and answer the questions that follows :
(c) 40 rad/sec 2 (d) 1980 degree/sec2 Consider a cylinder of mass M = 1kg and radius R = 1 m lying on
Q.20 A wheel rotates with a constant acceleration of 2.0 radian/ a rough horizontal plane. It has a plank lying on its top as shown in
sec 2 . It the wheel starts from rest, the number of the figure.
revolutions it makes in the first ten seconds will be
approximately m = 1kg
F
60°
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 32
A
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the M R
B
codes:
Codes : A force F = 55 N is applied on the plank such that the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct plank moves and causes the cylinder to roll. The plank
always remains horizontal. There is no slipping at any
point of contact.
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22.

EBD_7156
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Q.23 Calculate the acceleration of cylinder. (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(a) 20 m/s2 (b) 10 m/s2 NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(c) 5 m/s 2 (d) None of these (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
Q.24 Find the value of frictional force at A (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(a) 7.5 N (b) 5.0 N Q.26 Statement -1: Torque is equal to rate of change of angular
(c) 2.5 N (d) None of these momentum.
Q.25 Find the value of frictional force at B Statement -2: Angular momentum depends on moment
(a) 7.5 N (b) 5.0 N of inertia and angular velocity.
(c) 2.5 N (d) None of these Q.27 Statement -1: Torque due to force is maximum when angle
r r
DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains between r and F is 90°.
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Statement -2: The unit of torque is newton- meter.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Q.28 Statement -1: It is harder to open and shut the door if we
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the apply force near the hinge.
correct choice. Statement -2: Torque is maximum at hinge of the door.
RESPONSE 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

GRID 28.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Rotational Motion-2 : Moment of inertia, radius of gyration,

16
(values of moments of inertia simple geometrical objects)
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice (a) 2.5 × 10–3 kg–m2 (b) 2 × 10–3 kg–m2
–3
(c) 5 × 10 kg–m 2 (d) 3.5 × 10–3 kg–m2
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. Q.4 A constant torque of 31.4 N–m is exerted on a pivoted
wheel. If angular acceleration of wheel is 4 p rad/sec2, then
Q.1 Five particles of mass 2 kg are attached to the rim of a
the moment of inertia of the wheel is
circular disc of radius 0.1 m & negligible mass. Moment
(a) 2.5 kg–m2 (b) 2.5 kg–m2
of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the 2
(c) 4.5 kg–m (d) 5.5 kg–m2
centre of the disc & perpendicular to its plane is
Q.5 From a uniform wire, two circular loops are made (i) P of
(a) 1 kg-m2 (b) 0.1kg-m2 (c) 2 kg-m2 (d) 0.2 kg-m2
radius r and (ii) Q of radius nr. If the moment of inertia of
Q.2 Two discs of the same material and thickness have radii 0.2
loop Q about an axis passing through its centre and
m and 0.6 m. Their moments of inertia about their axes will
perpendicular to its plane is 8 times that of P about a similar
be in the ratio of
axis, the value of n is (diameter of the wire is very much
(a) 1 : 81 (b) 1: 27 (c) 1 : 9 (d) 1 : 3
smaller than r or nr)
Q.3 A cylinder of 500 g and radius 10 cm has moment of inertia
(a) 8 (b) 6
(about its natural axis)
(c) 4 (d) 2
EBD_7156
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Q.6 The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass M and radius R Q.12 Three point masses m1, m2, m3 are located at the vertices
2
MR 2 . The radius
of an equilateral triangle of length 'a'. The moment of
about an axispassing through itscentre is 5 inertia of the system about an axis along the altitude of the
of gyration of the sphere about a parallel axis to the above triangle passing through m1, is
and tangent to the sphere is a2
æ 7 ö÷ æ 3 ÷ö (a) (m2 + m3) (b) (m1 + m2 + m3) a2
7 3 çç ÷ R ççç ÷÷ R
4
(a) R (b) R (c) çç 5 ÷÷ (d) çè 5 ÷ø a2
5 5 è ø (c) (m1 + m2) (d) (m2 + m3) a2
Q.7 Four particles each of mass m are placed at the corners of 4
a square of side length l. The radius of gyration of the Q.13 Three rods each of length L and mass M are placed along
system about an axis perpendicular to the square and X, Y and Z axis in such a way that one end of each of the
passing through its centre is rod is at the origin. The moment of inertia of this system
about Z axis is
l l
(a) (b) (c) l (d) ( 2)l 2ML2 4ML2 5ML2 ML2
2 2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 3
Q.8 The radius of gyration of a disc of mass 50 g and radius 2.5 Q.14 ABC is a triangular plate of uniform
cm, about an axis passing through its centre of gravity and thickness. The sides are in the ratio A
perpendicular to the plane is shown in the figure. IAB, IBC, ICA are
(a) 0.52 cm (b) 1.76 cm (c) 3.54 cm (d) 6.54 cm the moments of inertia of the plate
Q.9 Moment of inertia of a ring of mass m = 3 gm and radius about AB, BC, CA respectively. For 4 5
r = 1 cm about an axis passing through its edge and parallel this arrangement which one of the
to its natural axis is following relation is correct?
(a) 10 gm–cm2 (b) 100 gm–cm2 B 3 C
(c) 6 gm–cm2 (d) 1 gm–cm2
Q.10 A disc is of mass M and radius r. The moment of inertia of (a) ICA is maximum (b) IBC > IAB
it about an axis tangential to its edge and in plane of the (c) IBC > IAB (d) IAB + IBC = ICA
disc or parallel to its diameter is
Q.15 A 1m long rod has a mass of 0.12 kg. The moment of inertia
5 Mr 2 3 Mr 2
(a) Mr 2 (b) (c) Mr 2 (d) about an axis passin through the centre and perpendicular
4 4 2 2
to the length of rod will be
Q.11 Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 are connected
(a) 0.01kg-m2 (b) 0.001 kg-m2
with a massless rod of length 2R as shown in the figure. 2
(c) 1 kg-m (d) 10 kg-m2
M M Q.16 Two rings of the same radius and mass are placed such that
The moment of inertia
R/2 R/2 their centres are at a common point and their planes are
of the system about an
perpendicular to each other. The moment of inertia of the
axis passing through
system about an axis passing through the centre and
the centre of one of the 2R perpendicular to the plane of one of the rings is (mass of
spheres and
the ring = m and radius = r)
perpendicular to the
1 2
rod will be (a) mr (b) mr2
2
3 2
21 2 2 5 5 (c) mr (d) 2 mr2
(a) Mr (b) Mr 2 (c) Mr 2 (d) Mr 2 2
5 5 2 21
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16.

DPP/ P 16 3
Q.17 One quarter sector is cut from a uniform (a) 3 MR2 Y
circular disc of radius R. This sector has
3
mass M. It is made to rotate about a line (b) MR 2
2
perpendicular to its plane and passing
through the centre of the original disc. (c) 5 MR2
90°
Its moment of inertia about the axis of 7
(d) MR 2 Y¢
rotation is 2
1 1 1
(a) MR 2 (b) MR2 (c) MR 2 (d) 2MR 2 DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions,
2 4 8
Q.18 A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass density r is more than one of the answers given are correct. Select
bent into a circular loop with centre at O as shown in figure. the correct answers and mark it according to the following
The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis XX¢ is codes:
rL3 Codes :
(a)
8p 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
rL3 X X¢ (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
(b)
16 p 2 Q.22 The density of a rod AB increases linearly from A to B. Its
90°
5rL3 midpoint is O and its centre of mass is at C. Four axes pass
(c) O through A, B, O and C, all perpendicular to the length of
16 p 2
3rL3 the rod. The moments of inertia of the rod about these
(d) axes are I A, IB, IO and IC respectively then:.
8p 2
Q.19 Two disc of same thickness but of different radii are made (1) IA > IB (2) IA < IB
of two different materials such that their masses are same. (3) IO > IC (4) IO < IC
The densities of the materials are in the ratio 1 : 3. The Q.23 The moment of inertia of a thin square plate ABCD of
ratio of the moments of inertia of these discs about the uniform thickness about an axis passing through the centre
respective axes passing through their centres and O and perpendicular to the plane of the plate is
perpendicular to their planes will be in 4
(1) I1 + I2 1
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 9 (d) 9 : 1
(2) I3 + I4 A B
R
Q.20 A circular disc of radius R and thickness has moment (3) I1 + I3
6
of inertia I about an axis passing through its centre and (4) I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 3
where I1 , I2 , I3 and I4 are O
perpendicular to its plane. It is melted and recasted into a
solid sphere. The moment of inertia of the sphere about respectively moments of
inertia about axes 1, 2, 3 and D C
one of its diameter as an axis of rotation will be
4 which are in the plane of the 2
2I I I
(a) I (b) (c) (d) plate.
8 5 10
Q.24 Moment of inertia doesn’t depend on
Q.21 Three rings each of mass M and radius R are
(1) distribution of particles
arranged as shown in the figure. The moment
(2) mass
of inertia of the system about YY' will be
(3) position of axis of rotation
(4) None of these
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23. 24.

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4 DPP/ P 16
DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below (a) be doubled
and answer the questions that follows : (b) increase but be less than double
(c) remain the same
Four identical spheres having mass M and (d) decrease
radius R are fixed tightly within a massless ring
such that the centres of all spheres lie in the DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains
plane of ring. The ring is kept on a rough two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
horizontal table as shown. The string is wrapped
around the ring can roll without slipping. correct choice.
The other end of the string is passed over a massless frictionless
pulley to a block of mass M. A force F is applied horizontally on
the ring, at the same level as the centre, so that the system is in
equilibrium. NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Q.25 The moment of inertia of the combined ring system about (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
the centre of ring will be (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(a)
12
MR 2 Q.28 Statement-1 : Radius of gyration of a body is a constant
5 quantity.
48
MR2
F Statement-2 : The radius of gyration of a body about an
(b)
15 axis of rotation may be defined as the root mean square
(c)
24
MR 2
distance of the particles of the body from the axis of rotation.
5 M Q.29 Statement-1 : Moment of inertia of a particle is same,
48
MR2
whatever be the axis of rotation.
(d)
5 Statement-2 : Moment of inertia depends on mass and
Q.26 The magnitude of F is perpendicular distance of the particle from its axis of
(a) Mg (b) 2Mg rotation.
Mg Q.30 Statement-1 : If earth shrink (without change in mass) to
(c) (d) None of these half of its present size, length of the day would become 6
2
Q.27 If the masses of the spheres were doubled keeping their hours.
dimensions same, the force of friction between the ring Statement-2 : When the size of the earth will change, its
and the horizontal surface would moment of inertia will also change.
RESPONSE 25. 26. 27. 28. 29.

GRID 30.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Rotational Motion - 3 : Rolling Motion, Parallel and perpendicular theorems and their
17
applications, Rigid body rotation, equations of rotational motion
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.2 A uniform rod of length 2L is placed with one end in contact
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out with the horizontal and is then inclined at an angle a to the
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. horizontal and allowed to fall without slipping at contact
point. When it becomes horizontal, its angular velocity will
Q.1 A disc is rolling (without slipping) on a horizontal surface. C is be
its centre and Q and P are two points equidistant from C . Let vP,
3g sin a
vQ and vC be the magnitude of velocities of points P, Q and (a) w =
C respectively, then 2L
Q
(a) vQ > vC > vP 2L
C (b) w =
(b) vQ < vC < vP 3g sin a
vP P 6 g sin a
(c) vQ = vP , vC = (c) w =
2 L
(d) vQ < vC > vP L
(d) w =
g sin a
RESPONSE GRID 1. 2.
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 17
Q.3 According to the theorem of parallel axes I = I cm + Mx 2 , Q.8 A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface, shown
the graph between I and x will be in figure with a transnational velocity v m/s. If sphere climbs
I I up to height h then value of v should be
(a) (b) h
v
O x O x
I I 10
(a) ³ 10 gh (b) ³ 2gh (c) 2gh (d) gh
7 7
Q.9 Moment of inertia of a disc about its own axis is I. Its
(c) (d) moment of inertia about a tangential axis in its plane is
O x O x 5 3
(a) I (b) 3I (c) I (d) 2I
Q.4 A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without 2 2
slipping down an inclined plane of length L and height h. Q.10 Three rings each of mass M and radius R are arranged as
What is the speed of its centre of mass when the cylinder shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the system
reaches its bottom about YY' will be Y
3 4
(a) gh (b) gh (c) 4gh (d) 2gh (a) 3MR 2
4 3
Q.5 An inclined plane makes an angle 30° with the horizontal. 3
(b) MR 2
A solid sphere rolling down this inclined plane from rest 2
without slipping has a linear acceleration equal to (c) 5MR 2
g 2g 5g 5g
(a) (b) (c) (d) 7
3 3 7 14 (d) MR 2
Q.6 A cord is wound round the circumference of wheel of radius 2 Y'
r. The axis of the wheel is horizontal and moment of inertia Q.11 One circular ring and one circular disc, both are having the
about it is I. A weight mg is attached to the end of the cord same mass and radius. The ratio of their moments of inertia
and falls from the rest. After falling through a distance h, about the axes passing through their centres and perpendicular
the angular velocity of the wheel will be to their planes, will be
é 2mgh ù
1/ 2 (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
2 gh
(a) (b) ê ú (c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
I + mr ë I + mr 2 û
1/ 2 Q.12 From a disc of radius R, a concentric circular portion of
é 2mgh ù radius r is cut out so as to leave an annular disc of mass M.
(c) ê ú (d) 2gh
ë I + 2 mr 2 û The moment of inertia of this annular disc about the axis
Q.7 A solid sphere, disc and solid cylinder all of the same mass perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre of
and made up of same material are allowed to roll down gravity is
(from rest) on an inclined plane, then 1
1 M (R2 - r 2 )
(a) Solid sphere reaches the bottom first (a) M (R2 + r 2 ) (b)
2 2
(b) Solid sphere reaches the bottom late 1
(c) Disc will reach the bottom first (c) M (R4 + r 4 ) (d) 1 M ( R 4 - r 4 )
2 2
(d) All of them reach the bottom at the same time
RESPONSE 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
GRID 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

DPP/ P 17 3
Q.13 The moment of inertia of a straight thin rod of mass M and (a) 4MR 2
length l about an axis perpendicular to its length and passing
through its one end, is (b) 40
MR 2 2R/3
9 O
2 2 2
Ml Ml Ml
(a) (b) (c) (d) Ml2
12 3 2 (c) 10MR 2 R
Q.14 Four thin rods of same mass M and same length l, form a 37
square as shown in figure. Moment of inertia of this (d) MR 2
9
system about an axis through centre
O and perpendicular to its plane is Q.19 The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass M and length L
4 2 about an axis perpendicular to the rod at a distance L/4 from
(a) Ml l one end is
3
ML2 ML2 7 ML2 7 ML2
Ml 2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) 6 12 24 48
3 l l Q.20 A wheel has a speed of 1200 revolutions per minute and is
Ml 2 O
made to slow down at a rate of 4 radians /s2. The number of
(c)
6 revolutions it makes before coming to rest is
2 2 l (a) 143 (b) 272 (c) 314 (d) 722
(d) Ml
3
Q.15 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular ring, having a DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select
mass M and a radius R, about an axis tangential to the ring
the correct answers and mark it according to the following
and perpendicular to its plane, is
codes:
3 1
(a) 2MR 2 (b) MR 2 (c) MR 2 (d) MR 2 Codes:
2 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
Q.16 The moment of inertia of uniform rectangular plate about an (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
axis passing through its mid-point and parallel to its length Q.21 In pure rolling fraction of its total energy associated with
l is (b = breadth of rectangular plate) rotation is a for a ring and b for a solid sphere. Then
Mb2 Mb3 Mb3 Mb2 (1) a = 1 / 2 (2) b = 2 / 7 (3) b = 2 / 5 (4) a = 1 / 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) Q.22 One solid sphere and a disc of same radius are falling along
4 6 12 12
Q.17 The moment of inertia of a circular ring about an axis passing an inclined plane without slip. One reaches earlier than the
through its centre and normal to its plane is 200 gm × cm2. other due to
Then moment of inertia about its diameter is (1) different size
(2) different radius of gyration
(a) 400 gm × cm2 (b) 300 gm × cm2
(3) different moment of inertia
(c) 200 gm × cm2 (d) 100 gm × cm2 (4) different friction
Q.18 From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9 M, a small disc of Q.23 A body is rolling down an inclined plane. Its translational
radius R/3 is removed from the disc. The moment of inertia of and rotational kinetic energies are equal. The body is not a
the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of (1) solid sphere (2) hollow sphere
the disc and passing through O is (3) solid cylinder (4) hollow cylinder
13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

RESPONSE
18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
GRID
23.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 17
DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below and (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
answer the questions that follows : correct explanation for Statement-1.
A uniform solid cylinder of mass 2m and (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
radius R rolls on a rough inclined plane NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
2m
with its axis perpendicular to the line of (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
R
the greatest slope. m (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
System is released from rest and as q Q.27 Statement-1 : Two cylinders, one hollow (metal) and the
the cylinder rolls it winds up a light ////////////////////////// ////////////////
other solid (wood) with the same mass and identical
string which passes over a light pul- dimensions are simultaneously allowed to roll without
ley. slipping down an inclined plane from the same height. The
Q.24 The acceleration of block of mass m is - hollow cylinder will reach the bottom of the inclined plane
2 4
(a) g (1 - cos q) (b) g (1 - sin q) first.
7 7
(c)
2
g (1 - sin q ) (d)
2
g (1 + sin q)
Statement-2 : By the principle of conservation of energy,
7 14 the total kinetic energies of both the cylinders are identical
Q.25 The tension in the string is –
when they reach the bottom of the incline.
æ 4 + 3sin q ö æ 3 - 4sin q ö
(a) çè 7
÷ø mg (b) èç 7 ø÷
mg Q.28 Statement-1: The force of frction in the case of a disc
æ 3 + 4sin q ö 2 rolling without slipping down an inclined plane is 1/3 g
(c) çè ÷ø mg (d) (1 - sin q) mg
7 7 sin a.
Q.26 The frictional force acting on the cylinder is-
2 æ 6 - sin q ö Statement-2: When the disc rolls without slipping, friction
(a) (1 - sin q) mg (b) çè 7 ÷ø mg is required because for rolling condition velocity of point
7
æ 1 + 6 cos q ö æ 1 + 6 sin q ö of contact is zero.
(c) çè ÷ø mg (d) çè 7 ÷ø mg
7
Q.29 Statement-1: If two different axes are at same distance
DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains from the centre of mass of a rigid body, then moment of
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 inertia of the given rigid body about both the axes will
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, always be the same.
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select Statement-2: From parallel axis theorem, I = Icm + md 2,
the correct choice. where all terms have usual meaning.
RESPONSE 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

GRID 29.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Gravitation - 1 (The Universal law of gravitation, Acceleration due to gravity and its variation
18
with altitude and depth, Kepler's law of planetary motion)
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 The speed with which the earth have to rotate on its axis so
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out that a person on the equator would weigh (3/5) th as much
as present will be -
(Take the equatorial radius as 6400 km.)
Q.1 A mass M splits into two parts m and (M – m), which are (a) 3.28 × 10–4 rad/sec (b) 7.826 × 10–4 rad/sec
then separated by a certain distance. What ratio of (m / M) (c) 3.28 × 10–3 rad/sec (d) 7.28 × 10–3 rad/sec
maximises the gravitational force between the parts. ? Q.4 On a planet (whose size is the same as that of earth and
(a) 2/3 (b) 3/4
mass 4 times to the earth) the energy needed to lift a 2kg
mass vertically upwards through 2m distance on the planet
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/3
is (g = 10m/sec2 on the surface of earth) -
Q.2 What would be the angular speed of earth, so that bodies (a) 16 J (b) 32 J (c) 160 J (d) 320 J
lying on equator may experience weightlessness ? Q.5 Two bodies of mass 102 kg and 103 kg are lying 1m apart.
(g = 10m/s2 and radius of earth = 6400 km) The gravitational potential at the mid-point of the line
(a) 1.25 × 10–3 rad/sec (b) 1.25 × 10–2 rad/sec joining them is -
–4
(c) 1.25 × 10 rad/sec (d) 1.25 × 10–1 rad/sec (a) 0 (b) –1.47 Joule/kg
(c) 1.47 Joule/kg (d) –147 × 10–7 Joule /kg
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Q.6 If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, Q.13 At what height above the earth’s surface does the force of
the gain in P.E. of an object of mass m raised from the surface gravity decrease by 10% ? Assume radius of earth to be
of the earth to a height of the radius R of the earth is - 6370 km.
1 1 (a) 350 km. (b) 250 km. (c) 150 km. (d) 300 km.
(a) mgR (b) 2mgR (c) mgR (d) mgR Q.14 A particle is suspended from a spring and it stretches the
2 4
Q.7 Four particles, each of mass m, are placed at the corners spring by 1 cm on the surface of earth. The same particle
of square and moving along a circle of radius r under the will stretches the same spring at a place 800 km above earth
influence of mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of surface by -
each particle will be - (a) 0.79 cm (b) 0.1 cm
(c) p / 6 rad/hr. (d) 2p / 7 rad/hr.
Gm Gm Q.15 The change in the value of acceleration of earth towards
(a) (2 2 + 1) (b)
r r sun, when the moon comes from the position of solar
Gm æ 2 2 + 1ö eclipse to the position on the other side of earth in line
2 2Gm
with sun is (Mass of moon = 7.36 × 1022 kg, the orbital
r çè 4 ÷ø
(c) (d)
r radius of moon 3.8 × 108m.
Q.8 Three particles of equal mass m are situated at the vertices (a) 6.73 × 10–2 m/s2 (b) 6.73 × 10–3 m/s2
of an equilateral triangle of side l. What should be the (c) 6.73 × 10 m/s–4 2 (d) 6.73 × 10–5 m/s2
velocity of each particle, so that they move on a circular Q.16 The radius of the earth is Re and the acceleration due to gravity
path without changing l ? at its surface is g. The work required in raising a body of
GM GM 2GM GM mass m to a height h form the surface of the earth will be -
(a) (b) (c) (d) mgh mgh mg
2l l l 3l (a)
mgh
(b) (c) (d)
Q.9 What will be the acceleration due to gravity on the surface æ h ö æ h ö
2
æ h ö æ h ö
of the moon if its radius is 1/4 th the radius of the earth and çè 1 - R ÷ø çè 1 + R ÷ø çè1 + R ÷ø çè1 + R ÷ø
e e e e
its mass is 1/80 th the mass of the earth ? Q.17 The masses and the radius of the earth and the moon are
(a) g/6 (b) g/5 (c) g/7 (d) g/8 M1, M2 and R1, R2 respectively their centres are at distance
Q.10 If the value of 'g' at a height h above the surface of the earth d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass
is the same as at a depth x below it, then (both x and h being m should be projected form a point midway between the
much smaller than the radius of the earth) two centres so as to escape to infinity will be -
h
(a) x = h (b) x = 2h (c) x = (d) x = h2 G G
2 (a) 2 (M1 + M 2 ) (b) (M1 + M 2 )
d d
Q.11 At what height above the earth's surface the acceleration
due to gravity will be 1/9 th of its value at the earth’s G M1
G 2
surface? Radius of earth is 6400 km. (c) (M1 + M 2 ) (d)
2d d M2
(a) 12800 km (b) 1280 km
(c) 128000 km (d) 128 km Q.18 With what velocity must a body be thrown upward form the
Q.12 If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its surface of the earth so that it reaches a height of 10 Re?
mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity earth’s mass Me = 6 × 1024 kg, radius Re = 6.4 × 106 m and
on the earth’s surface would - G = 6.67 × 10–11 N–m2/kg2.
(a) decrease (b) remain unchanged (a) 10.7 × 104 m/s (b) 10.7 × 103 m/s
5
(c) 10.7 × 10 m/s (d) 1.07 × 104 m/s
(c) increase (d) None of these
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18.

DPP/ P 18 3
Q.19 Two concentric shells of uniform density having masses M1 Q.23 Spot the correct statements :
and M2 are situated as shown in the figure. The force on the The acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ decreases if
particle of mass m when it is located at r = b is (1) We go down from the surface of the earth towards its
centre
M1 (2) We go up from the surface of the earth
(3) The rotational velocity of the earth is increased
O (4) We go from the equator towards the poles on the
b
r surface of the earth
m
p DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below and
M2
GM1m GM 2 m
(a) (b) The orbit of Pluto is much more eccentric than the orbits of the
b2 b2
other planets. That is, instead of being nearly circular, the orbit
(M1 + M 2 )m (M1 - M 2 )m
(c) G (d) G is noticeably elliptical. The point in the orbit nearest to the sun
b2 b2 is called the perihelion and the point farthest from the sun is
Q.20 What is the mass of the planet that has a satellite whose called the aphelion.
time period is T and orbital radius is r?
4p 2 r 3 3p 2r 3 4p 2 r 3 4p2T Sun
(a) (b) (c) (d)
GT 2
GT 2
GT 3
GT 2 Aphelion Perihelion
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, more than

one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct answers
Q.24 At perihelion, the gravitational potential energy of Pluto
and mark it according to the following codes:
in its orbit has
Codes : (a) its maximum value
(b) its minimum value
Q.21 The gravitational force between two point masses m1 and (c) the same value as at every other point in the orbit
mm (d) value which depends on sense of rotation
m2 at separation r is given by F = k 1 2 2
r Q.25 At perihelion, the mechanical energy of Pluto’s orbit has
The constant k doesn't (a) its maximum value
(1) depend on medium between masses (b) its minimum value
(2) depend on the place (c) the same value as at every other point in the orbit
(3) depend on time
(d) value which depends on sense of rotation
(4) depend on system of units
Q.26 As Pluto moves from the perihelion to the aphelion, the
Q.22 Which of the following statements about the gravitional
work done by gravitational pull of Sun on Pluto is
constant are false ?
(1) It is a force (a) is zero
(2) It has no unit (b) is positive
(3) It has same value in all system of units (c) is negative
(4) It doesn’t depend on the value of the masses (d) depends on sense of rotation
RESPONSE 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

GRID 24. 25. 26.

EBD_7156
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains two Q.27 Statement-1 : Gravitational force between two particles is
statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). negligibly small compared to the electrical force.
Each of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of Statement-2 :The electrical force is experienced by charged
which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice. particles only.
Q.28 Statement-1 :The universal gravitational constant is same
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a as acceleration due to gravity.
correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2 :Gravitional constant and acceleration due to
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is gravity have different dimensional formula.
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.29 Statement-1 :There is no effect of rotation of earth on the
(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. value of acceleration due to gravity at poles.
(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. Statement-2 :Rotation of earth is about polar axis.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Gravitation - 2 (Gravitational potential energy, Gravitational potential,

19
Escape velocity & Orbital velocity of a satellite, Geo-stationary satellites)
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice centre of the earth will be- (The mass of the earth is 6.00 ×
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 1024 kg and its angular velocity = 7.30 × 10–5 rad./sec.)
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 2.66 × 103 m. (b) 2.66 × 105 m.
(c) 2.66 × 10 m.6 (d) 2.66 × 107 m.
Q.1 A body of mass 100 kg falls on the earth from infinity. Q.3 Two satellites S1 and S2 revolve round a planet in the same
What will be its energy on reaching the earth ? Radius of direction in circular orbits. Their periods of revolutions
the earth is 6400 km and g = 9.8 m/s2. Air friction is are 1 hour and 8 hour respectively. The radius of S1 is 104
negligible. km. The velocity of S2 with respect to S1 will be-
(a) 6.27 × 109 J (b) 6.27 × 1010 J (a) p × 104 km/hr (b) p/3 × 104 km/hr
(c) 6.27 × 10 J 10 (d) 6.27 × 107 J 4
(c) 2p × 10 km/hr (d) p/2 × 104 km/hr
Q.2 An artificial satellite of the earth is to be established in the Q.4 In the above example the angular velocity of S2 as actually
equatorial plane of the earth and to an observer at the equator observed by an astronaut in S1 is -
it is required that the satellite will move eastward, completing (a) p/3 rad/hr (b) p/3 rad/sec
one round trip per day. The distance of the satellite from the (c) p/6 rad/hr (d) 2p/7 rad/hr

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 19
Q.5 The moon revolves round the earth 13 times in one year. If Q.12 The mean distance of mars from sun is 1.524 times the
the ratio of sun-earth distance to earth-moon distance is distance of the earth from the sun. The period of revolution
392, then the ratio of masses of sun and earth will be - of mars around sun will be-
(a) 365 (b) 356 (a) 2.88 earth year (b) 1.88 earth year
(c) 3.56 × 105 (d) 1
(c) 3.88 earth year (d) 4.88 earth year
Q.6 Two planets of radii in the ratio 2 : 3 are made from the
materials of density in the ratio 3 : 2. Then the ratio of Q.13 The semi-major axes of the orbits of mercury and mars are
acceleration due to gravity g1/g2 at the surface of two respectively 0.387 and 1.524 in astronomical unit. If the
planets will be period of Mercury is 0.241 year, what is the period of Mars.
4 (a) 1.2 years (b) 3.2 years
(a) 1 (b) 2 . 2 5 (c) (d) 0.12
9 (c) 3.9 years (d) 1.9 years
Q.7 A satellite of mass m is revolving in a circular orbit of radius Q.14 If a graph is plotted between T2 and r3 for a planet then its
r. The relation between the angular momentum J of satellite slope will be -
and mass m of earth will be -
(a) J = G.Mm 2 r (b) J = GMm 4p 2 GM
(a) (b)
GM 4p 2
mr
(c) J = GMmr (d) J = (c) 4p GM (d) 0
M
Q.8 A spaceship is launched into a circular orbit close to earth's Q.15 The mass and radius of earth and moon are M1, R1 and M2,
surface. What additional velocity has now to be imparted R2 respectively. Their centres are d distance apart. With
to the spaceship in the orbit to overcome the gravitational what velocity should a particle of mass m be projected from
pull? (Radius of earth = 6400 km, g = 9.8 m/sec2) the mid point of their centres so that it may escape out to
(a) 3.285 km/sec (b) 32.85 m/sec infinity -
(c) 11.32 km/sec (d) 7.32 m/sec
G(M1 + M 2 ) 2G(M1 + M 2 )
Q.9 The ratio of the radius of the Earth to that of the moon is (a) (b)
10. The ratio of g on earth to the moon is 6. The ratio of d d
the escape velocity from the earth’s surface to that from 4G(M1 + M 2 ) GM1M 2
the moon is approximately - (c) (d)
d d
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 2 Q.16 A satellite has to revolve round the earth in a circular orbit
Q.10 Acceleration due to gravity on a planet is 10 times the value of radius 8 × 103 km. The velocity of projection of the
on the earth. Escape velocity for the planet and the earth satellite in this orbit will be -
are Vp and Ve respectively. Assuming that the radii of the
(a) 16 km/sec (b) 8 km/sec
planet and the earth are the same, then -
(a) VP = 10 Ve (b) VP = 10 Ve (c) 3 km/sec (d) 7.08 km/sec
Ve Q.17 If the satellite is stopped suddenly in its orbit which is at a
(c) Vp = Ve (d) VP = distnace = radius of earth from earth’s surface and allowed
10 10
Q.11 The Jupiter’s period of revolution round the Sun is 12 times to fall freely into the earth, the speed with which it hits the
that of the Earth. Assuming the planetary orbits are circular, surface of earth will be -
how many times the distance between the Jupiter and Sun (a) 7.919 m/sec (b) 7.919 km/sec
exceeds that between the Earth and the sun. (c) 11.2 m/sec (d) 11.2 km/sec
(a) 5.242 (b) 4.242 (c) 3.242 (d) 2.242
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16. 17.

DPP/ P 19 3
Q.18 A projectile is fired vertically upward from the surface of Q.22 Gas escapes from the surface of a planet because it acquires
earth with a velocity K ve m/s where ve m/s is the escape an escape velocity. The escape velocity will depend on
velocity and K < 1. Neglecting air resistance, the maximum which of the following factors:
height to which it will rise measured from the centre of (1) Mass of the planet
the earth is - (where R = radius of earth) (2) Radius of the planet
2 2 (3) Mass of the particle escaping
(c) 1 - K
R R
(a) (b) (d) K (4) Temperature of the planet
2
1 - K2 K R R
Q.23 ve and vp denotes the escape velocity from the earth and
Q.19 A satellite is revolving in an orbit close to the earth’s
surface. Taking the radius of the earth as 6.4 × 106 metre, another planet having twice the radius and the same mean
the value of the orbital speed and the period of revolution density as the earth. Then which of the following is (are)
of the satellite will respectively be (g = 9.8 meter/sec2) wrong ?
(a) 7.2 km/sec., 84.6 minutes (1) ve = vp (2) ve = 2vp
(b) 2.7 km/sec., 8.6 minutes (3) ve = vp/4 (4) ve = vp / 2
(c) .72 km/sec., 84.6 minutes Q.24 Select the wrong statements from the following
(d) 7.2 km/sec., 8.6 minutes (1) The orbital velocity of a satellite increases with the
Q.20 If the period of revolution of an artificial satellite just above radius of the orbit
the earth be T second and the density of earth be r, kg/m3 (2) Escape velocity of a particle from the surface of the
then earth depends on the speed with which it is fired
(G = 6.67 × 10–11 m3/kg. second2) (3) The time period of a satellite does not depend on the
radius of the orbit
(a) rT2 is a universal constant
(4) The orbital velocity is inversely proportional to the
(b) rT2 varies with time square root of the radius of the orbit
3p
(c) rT2 = DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below and
G
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.21 Two satellites P and Q of same mass are revolving near the It can be assumed that orbits of earth and mars are nearly circular
earth surface in the equitorial plane. The satellite P moves around the sun. It is proposed to launch an artificial planet around
in the direction of rotation of earth whereas Q moves in the sun such that its apogee is at the orbit of mars while its perigee
the opposite direction. The ratio of their kinetic energies is at the orbit of earth. Let Te and Tm be periods of revolution of
with respect to a frame attached to earth will be - earth and mars. Further the variables are assigned the meanings as
2 2 follows.
æ 8363 ö æ 7437 ö æ 8363 ö æ 7437 ö Me ® Mass of earth
(a) ç (b) ç (c) çè ÷ (d) çè ÷
è 7437 ÷ø è 8363 ÷ø 7437 ø 8363 ø Mm ® Mass of mars.
Le ® Angular momentum of earth around the sun.
DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, more than Lm ® Angular momentum of mars around the sun.
one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct answers
Re ® Semi major axis of earth’s orbit.
and mark it according to the following codes:
Rm ® Semi major axis of mars orbit.
Codes : M ® Mass of the artificial planet.
Ee ® Total energy of earth.
Em ® Total energy of mars.
RESPONSE 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

GRID 23. 24.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 19
Q.25 Time period of revolution of the artificial planet about sun DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains
will be (neglect gravitational effects of earth and mars) two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
Te + Tm (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
(a) (b) TeTm only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select
2
3/ 2 the correct choice.
2TeTm é T 2 / 3 + Tm2 / 3 ù
(c) (d) ê e ú (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
Te + Tm êë 2 úû correct explanation for Statement-1.
Q.26 The total energy of the artificial planet’s orbit will be (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
2 M æ Re Ee ö 2M æ Re Ee ö (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(a) (b)
M e çè Re + Rm ÷ø M m çè Re + Rm ÷ø (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
Q.28 Statement-1 :The speed of revolution of an artificial
2 Ee M æ Re + Rm ö æ ö
2 Ee M Re + Rm satellite revolving very near the earth is 8kms–1.
(c) (d) ç ÷
M m çè Rm ÷ø Me ç R2 + R2 ÷ Statement-2 : Orbital velocity of a satellite, become
è e mø independent of height of near satellite.
Q.27 Areal velocity of the artificial planet around the sun will Q.29 Statement-1 :If an earth satellite moves to a lower orbit,
be there is some dissipation of energy but the speed of
(a) less than that of earth gravitational satellite increases.
(b) more than that of mars Statement-2 :The speed of satellite is a constant quantity.
(c) more than that of earth Q.30 Statement-1 :Gravitational potential of earth at every place
(d) same as that of the earth on it is negative.
Statement-2 :Every body on earth is bound by the attraction
of earth.
RESPONSE 25. 26. 27. 28. 29.

GRID 30.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Mechanical Properties of solids

20
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice questions. (a) 44 N (b) 88 N

Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY (c) 132 N (d) 22 N
ONE choice is correct.
Q.1 Length of a wire is doubled, when 20 × 108 N/m2 stress is Q.3 The work done in increasing the length of a one metre long
applied on it. Its Young’s modulus of elasticity in N/m2 will wire of cross-sectional area 1mm2 through 1mm will be
be (Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2)
(a) 20 × 108 (b) 20 × 109
(c) 20 × 10 10 (d) 10 × 108 (a) 250 J (b) 10 J
Q.2 A steel wire of uniform cross-sectional area 2mm2 is heated (c) 5 J (d) 0.1 J
upto 50°C and clamped rigidly at two ends. If the
Q.4 A spring is stretched by 3cm when a load of 5.4 × 10 6 dyne
temperature of wire falls to 30° then change in tension in
is suspended from it. Work done will be-
the wire will be, if coefficient of linear expansion of steel
is 1.1 × 10–5 /°C and young's modulus of elasticity of steel (a) 8.1 × 106 J (b) 8 × 106 J
is 2 × 1011 N/m2.
(c) 8.0 × 106 erg (d) 8.1 ×106 erg

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 20
Q.5 A wire of length 1m and area of cross section 4 × 10-8 m2 Q.12 The compressibility of water is 5 × 10–10 m2/N. If it is
increases in length by 0.2 cm when a force of 16 N is applied. subjected to a pressure of 15 MPa, the fractional decrease in
Value of Y for the material of the wire will be volume will be -
(a) 2 × 106 N/m2 (b) 2 × 1011 kg/m2 (a) 3.3 × 10–5 (b) 5.6 × 10–4
(c) 2 × 1011 N/mm2 (d) 2 × 1011 N/m2 (c) 7.5 × 10–3 (d) 1.5 × 10–2
Q.6 The volume of a solid rubber ball when it is carried from the Q.13 The Young’s modulus of steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2 and its
surface to the bottom of a 200 m deep lake decreases by coefficient of linear expansion is 1.1 × 10–5 per deg. The
0.1%. The value for bulk modulus of elasticity for rubber will pressure to be applied to the ends of a steel cylinder to
be keep its length constant on raising its temperature by 100ºC,
(a) 2 × 109 Pa (b) 2 × 106 Pa will be -
(c) 2 × 104 Pa (d) 2 × 10–4 Pa (a) 5.5 × 104 N/m2 (b) 1.8 × 106 N/m2
Q.7 A steel wire is 4.0 m long and 2 mm in diameter. Young’s (c) 2.2 × 108 N/m2 (d) 2.0 × 1011 N/m2
modulus of steel is 1.96 × 1011 N/m2. If a mass of 20 kg is
suspended from it the elongation produced will be - Q.14 For a given material, the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that
of rigidity modulus. It’s poisson’s ratio is
(a) 2.54 mm (b) 1.27 mm
(a) 1.2 (b) 1.02
(c) 0.64 mm (d) 0.27 mm
Q.8 A brass rod is to support a load of 400 N. If its elastic limit is (c) 0.2 (d) 2
4.0 × 108 N/m2 its minimum diameter must be - Q.15 A wire of length 1m is stretched by a force of 10N. The
(a) 1.13 mm (b) 2.26 mm area of cross-section of the wire is 2 × 10–6 m2 and Y is
2 × 1011N/m2. Increase in length of the wire will be -
(c) 3.71 mm (d) 4.52 mm
(a) 2.5 × 10–5 cm (b) 2.5 × 10–5 mm
Q.9 A 4.0 m long copper wire of cross sectional area 1.2 cm 2 is
stretched by a force of 4.8 × 103 N stress will be - (c) 2.5 × 10–5 m (d) None of these
(a) 4.0 × 107 N/mm2 (b) 4.0 × 107 KN/m2 Q.16 A stress of 1kg/mm2 is applied on a wire. If the modulus of
(c) 4.0 × 107 N/m2 (d) None of these elasticity of the wire is 1010 dyne/cm2, then the percentage
increase in the length of the wire will be
Q.10 A copper rod 2m long is stretched by 1mm. Strain will be -
(a) 0.007 (b) 0.0098 (c) 98 (d) 9.8
(a) 10–4, volumetric (b) 5 × 10–4, volumetric
(c) 5 × 10–4, longitudinal (d) 5 × 10–3, volumetric Q.17 A uniform steel wire of density 7800kg/m3
is 2.5 m long
and weighs 15.6 × 10–3 kg. It extends by 1.25 mm when
Q.11 A wire of cross sectional area 3mm2 is just stretched between loaded by 8kg. Calculate the value of young’s modulus of
two fixed points at a temperature of 20°C. Determine the elasticity for steel.
tension when the temperature falls to 20°C. Coefficient of
linear expansion a = 10–5 /°C and Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2. (a) 1.96 × 1011 N/m2 (b) 19.6 × 1011 N/m2
(a) 120 KN (b) 20 N (c) 120 N (d) 102 N (c) 196 × 1011 N/m2 (d) None of these
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16. 17.

DPP/ P 20 3
Q.18 A metallic wire is suspended by suspending weight to it. If S (2) Reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity is called
is longitudinal strain and Y its young's modulus of elasticity compressibility
then potential energy per unit volume will be
(3) Hollow shaft is much stronger than a solid rod of same
1 2 2 1 2 length and same mass
(a) YS (b) YS
2 2 (4) It is difficult to twist a long rod as compared to small
rod
1 2
(c) YS (d) 2YS2 Q.23 Which statements are false for a metal?
2
Q.19 The lengths and radii of two wires of same material are (1) Y<h (2) Y=h
respectively L, 2L, and 2R, R. Equal weights are applied on
then. If the elongations produced in them are l1 and l2 (3) Y < 1/ h (4) Y>h
respectively then their ratio will be Q.24 Which of the following relations are false
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(1) 3Y = K (1 - s ) (2) s = ( 6K + h) Y
(c) 8 : 1 (d) 1 : 8
9hY 0.5Y - h
Q.20 The ratio of radii of two wires of same material is 2 : 1. If (3) K = (4) s =
these wires are stretched by equal forces, then the ratio of Y+h h
stresses produced in them will be
DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below and
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 answer the questions that follows :
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 A bar of cross section A is subjected to equal and opposite tensile
Q.21 A rod of length l and area of cross-section A is heated from forces F at its ends. Consider a plane through the bar making an
0°C to 100°C. The rod is so placed that it is not allowed to angle q with a plane at right angles to the bar as shown in figure.
increase in length, then the force developed is proportional to
(a) l (b) l –1 (c) A (d) A–1
F q F
correct answers and mark it according to the following Q.25 The tensile stress at this plane in terms of F, A and q is
codes:
Codes : Fcos2 q F
(a) (b)
A A cos2 q
Fsin 2 q F
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (c) (d)
A A sin 2 q
Q.22 Mark the correct statements
Q.26 In the above problem, for what value of q is the tensile
(1) Sliding of molecular layer is much easier than stress maximum ?
compression or expansion
(a) Zero (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 30°
RESPONSE 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

GRID 23. 24. 25. 26.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 20
Q.27 The shearing stress at the plane, in terms of F, A and q is (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
Fcos 2q Fsin 2q (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

(a) (b)
2A 2A Q.28 Statement -1 : Steel is more elastic than rubber.
Fsin q F cos q Statement -2 : Under given deforming force, steel is
(c) (d) deformed less than rubber.
A A
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two Q.29 Statement -1 : Bulk modulus of elasticity (K) represents
statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each incompressibility of the material.
of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is Statement -2 : Bulk modulus of elasticity is proportional
the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.
to change in pressure.
Q.30 Statement -1 :The bridges declared unsafe after a long use.
Statement -2 : Elastic strength of bridges losses with time.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Fluid Mechanics

21
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 The amount of work done in blowing a soap bubble such that its
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out diameter increases from d to D is (T = surface tension of the
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. solution)
Q.1 The force required to separate two glass plates of area
(a) 4p( D 2 - d 2 )T (b) 8p( D 2 - d 2 )T
10–2m–2 with a film of water 0.05 m thick between them, is
(Surface tension of water is 70 × 10–3 N/m) (c) p( D 2 - d 2 )T (d) 2p( D 2 - d 2 )T
(a) 28 N (b) 14 N (c) 50 N (d) 38 N
Q.4 A film of water is formed between two straight parallel
Q.2 A thin metal disc of radius r floats on water surface and bends wires of length 10 cm each separated by 0.5 cm. If their
the surface downwards along the perimeter making an angle q separation is increased by 1 mm while still maintaining their
with vertical edge of the disc. If the disc displaces a weight of parallelism, how much work will have to be done (Surface
water W and surface tension of water is T, then the weight of tension of water = 70 × 10–2 N/m)
metal disc is (a) 7.22 × 10–6 Joule (b) 1.44 × 10–5 Joule
(a) 2prT + W (b) 2prT cos q - W (c) 2.88 × 10–5 Joule (d) 5.76 × 10–5 Joule
(c) 2prT cos q + W (d) W - 2prT cos q
EBD_7156
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Q.5 The liquid meniscus in capillary tube will be convex, if the Q.11 Which graph represents the variation of surface tension
angle of contact is with temperature over small temperature ranges for water ?
(a) Greater than 90° (b) Less than 90°
(c) Equal to 90° (d) Equal to 0°
Q.6 Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4 cm and 5 cm S.T. S.T.
(a) (b)
are touching each other over a common surface S1 S2
(shown in figure). Its radius will be S1 Temp. Temp.
(a) 4 cm
4 cm 5 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 5 cm S2 S.T. S.T.
(d) 4.5 cm (c) (d)
Q.7 The radii of two soap bubbles are r1 and r2 . In isothermal
Temp. Temp.
conditions, two meet together in vaccum. Then the radius Q.12 A solid sphere of density h ( > 1 ) times lighter than water
R of the resultant bubble is given by is suspended in a water tank by a string tied to its base as
(a) R = (r1 + r2 ) / 2 (b) R = r1 ( r1r2 + r2 ) shown in fig. If the mass of the sphere is m then the tension
(c) R 2 = r12 + r22 (d) R = r1 + r2 in the string is given by
Q.8 Two parallel glass plates are dipped partly in the liquid of (a) æ h - 1ö
çè h ÷ø mg
density ' d ' keeping them vertical. If the distance between
(b) hmg
the plates is ' x ' , surface tension for liquids is T and angle
mg
of contact is q , then rise of liquid between the plates due (c)
h -1
to capillary will be (d) ( h - 1)mg
T cos q 2T cos q 2T T cos q
(a) (b) (c) (d) Q.13 A candle of diameter d is floating on a liquid in a cylindrical
xd xdg xdg cos q xdg
container of diameter D ( D >> d ) as shown in figure. If it
Q.9 A capillary tube of radius R is immersed in water and water is burning at the rate of 2 cm/ hour then the top of the candle
rises in it to a height H . Mass of water in the capillary will
tube is M . If the radius of the tube is doubled, mass of
water that will rise in the capillary tube will now be
(a) M (b) 2M (c) M / 2 (d) 4M L
Q.10 In a surface tension experiment with a capillary tube water

L
rises upto 0.1 m. If the same experiment is repeated on an
artificial satellite, which is revolving around the earth, water d
will rise in the capillary tube upto a heights of

(a) 0.1 m D
(b) 0.2 m (a) Remain at the same height

(c) 0.98 m (b) Fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour
(d) Full length of the capillary tube (c) Fall at the rate of 2 cm/hour
(d) Go up the rate of 1 cm/hour
RESPONSE 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
GRID 10. 11. 12. 13.

DPP/ P 21 3
Q.14 A viscous fluid is flowing through a cylindrical tube. The circular hole of radius R at a depth 4y from the top. When
velocity distribution of the fluid is best represented by the the tank is completely filled with water the quantities of
diagram water flowing out per second from both the holes are the
same. Then R is equal to
(a) (b) L L
(a) 2pL (b) (c) L (d)
2p
2p
Q.18 Water is filled in a cylindrical container to a height of 3m.
(c) (d) None of these The ratio of the cross-sectional area of the orifice and the
beaker is 0.1. The square of the speed of the liquid coming
out from the orifice is (g = 10m/s2)
Q.15 When a body falls in air, the resistance of air depends to a (a) 50 m 2 / s 2
great extent on the shape of the body, 3 different shapes
are given. Identify the combination of air resistances which (b) 50.5 m 2 / s2
truly represents the physical situation. (The cross sectional 3m
(c) 51 m 2 / s 2 52.5 cm
areas are the same).
(d) 52 m / s 2 2
R R R
Q.19 An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube
as shown in the following fig. Then the velocity v of the
fluid is
W W W v2 = 1.5 m/s
(1) (2) (3) A
Disc Ball Cigar shaped
v1 = 3 m/s A
(a) 1< 2 < 3 (b) 2 < 3 <1
1.5A
(c) 3 < 2 <1 (d) 3 <1< 2
v
Q.16 A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L( L < H / 2) .
Cross-sectional area A/5 is immersed such that it floats (a) 3.0 m/s (b) 1.5 m/s (c) 1.0 m/s (d) 2.25 m/s
with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface with length Q.20 Radius of a capillary tube is 2 × 10–3m. A liquid of weight
L/4 in the denser liquid as shown in the fig. The lower 6.28 × 10 –4 N may remain in the capillary tube then the
density liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure P0. surface tension of liquid will be
Then density of solid is given by (a) 5 × 10–3 N/m (b) 5 × 10–2 N/m
(c) 5 N/m (d) 50 N/m
H/2 d
3L/4 DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,
H/2 2d
5 4 d codes:
(a) d (b) d (c) d (d)
4 5 5 Codes :
Q.17 A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One is a square (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
hole of side L at a depth y from the top and the other is a (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
RESPONSE 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.

GRID 19. 20.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 21
Q.21 The temperature at which the surface tension of water is Q.24 The force exerted by air on surface P is
zero (a) 0.1 N (b) 1.0023 N (c) 105 N (d) 1.0 N
(1) 370°C Q.25 The force exerted by mercury drop on the surface P is
(2) 0°C (a) 0.1 N (b) 1.0023 N
(3) Slightly less than 647 K (c) 0.00023 N (d) 0.10023 N
(4) 277 K
Q.22 Which of the following statements are true in case when DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains
two water drops coalesce and make a bigger drop? two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
(1) Energy is released. (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
(2) Energy is absorbed. only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
(3) The surface area of the bigger drop is smaller than the correct choice.
sum of the surface areas of both the drops. (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
(4) The surface area of the bigger drop is greater than the correct explanation for Statement-1.
sum of the surface areas of both the drops. (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
Q.23 An air bubble in a water tank rises from the bottom to the NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
top. Which of the following statements are true? (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(1) Bubble rises upwards because pressure at the bottom (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
is greater than that at the top. Q.26 Statement-1 : A large soap bubble expands while a small
(2) As the bubble rises, its size increases. bubble shrinks, when they are connected to each other by a
(3) Bubble rises upwards because pressure at the bottom capillary tube.
is less than that at the top. Statement-2: The excess pressure inside bubble (or drop)
(4) As the bubble rises, its size decreases. is inverse ly proportional to the radius.
Q.27 Statement-1 : Bernoulli’s theorem holds for
DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.25) : Read the passage given below incompressible, non-viscous fluids.
and answer the questions that follows : v2
There is a small mercury drop of radius 4.0mm. A surface P of area Statement-2 : The factor is called velocity head.
2g
1.0 mm2 is placed at the top of the drop. Atmospheric pressure = Q.28 Statement-1 : The velocity increases, when water flowing
105 Pa. Surface tension of mercury = 0.465 N/m. Gravity ef- in broader pipe enter a narrow pipe.
fect is negligible. Statement-2 : According to equation of continuity, product
of area and velocity is constant.
RESPONSE 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

GRID 26. 27. 28.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Thermal Expansion, Calorimetry and Change of State

22
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 An iron tyre is to be fitted on to a wooden wheel 1m in
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out diameter. The diameter of tyre is 6mm smaller than that of
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. wheel. The tyre should be heated so that its temperature
increases by a minimum of (the coefficient of cubical
Q.1 A glass flask is filled up to a mark with 50 cc of mercury at expansion of iron is 3.6 × 10–5/°C)
18°C. If the flask and contents are heated to 38°C, how much (a) 167°C (b) 334°C (c) 500°C (d) 1000°C
mercury will be above the mark? (a for glass is 9 × 10–6/°C Q.4 A rod of length 20 cm is made of metal. It expands by
and coefficient of real expansion of mercury is 180 × 10–6/ 0.075 cm when its temperature is raised from 0°C to
°C) 100°C. Another rod of a different metal B having the same
(a) 0.85 cc (b) 0.46 cc (c) 0.153 cc (d) 0.05 cc length expands by 0.045 cm for the same change in
Q.2 The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass temperature. A third rod of the same length is composed
vessel is 153 × 10–6/°C and in a steel vessel is 144 × 10–6/ of two parts, one of metal A and the other of metal B. This
°C. If a for steel is 12 × 10–6/°C, then that of glass is rod expands by 0.060 cm for the same change in
(a) 9 × 10–6/°C (b) 6 × 10–6/°C temperature. The portion made of metal A has the length
(c) 36 × 10 /°C–6 (d) 27 × 10–6/°C (a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 18 cm

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 22
Q.5 A glass flask of volume one litre at 0°C is filled, level full 0.03 cal/gm°C, latent heat of fusion of lead = 6 cal/gm
of mercury at this temperature. The flask and mercury are and J = 4.2 joule/cal)
now heated to 100°C. How much mercury will spill out, if (a) 410 m/sec (b) 1230 m/sec
coefficient of volume expansion of mercury is 1.82 × 10– (c) 307.5 m/sec (d) None of the above
4/°C andlinear expansion of glass is 0.1 × 10–4/°C? Q.11 The temperature of equal masses of three different liquids
(a) 21.2 cc (b) 15.2 cc (c) 1.52 cc (d) 2.12 cc A, B and C are 12°C, 19°C and 28°C respectively. The
Q.6 The apparent coefficient of expansion of a liquid when temperature when A and B are mixed is 16°C and when B
heated in a copper vessel is C and when heated in a silver and C are mixed is 23°C, The temperature when A and C
vessel is S. If A is the linear coefficient of expansion of are mixed is
copper, then the linear coefficient of expansion of silver (a) 18.2°C (b) 22°C (c) 20.2°C (d) 25.2°C
is Q.12 50 gm of copper is heated to increase its temperature by
C + S - 3A C + 3A - S 10°C. If the same quantity of heat is given to 10 gm of
(a) (b) water, the rise in its temperature is (Specific heat of copper
3 3
S + 3A - C C - S + 3A = 420 Joule-kg–1°C–1)
(c) (d) (a) 5°C (b) 6°C (c) 7°C (d) 8°C
3 3
Q.7 The coefficient of volumetric expansion of mercury is 18 Q.13 A beaker contains 200 gm of water. The heat capacity of
× 10–5/°C. A thermometer bulb has a volume 10–6 m3 and the beaker is equal to that of 20 gm of water. The initial
cross section of stem is 0.004 cm2. Assuming that bulb is temperature of water in the beaker is 20°C. If 440 gm of
filled with mercury at 0°C then the length of the mercury hot water at 92°C is poured in it, the final temperature
column at 100°C is (neglecting radiation loss) will be nearest to
(a) 18.8 mm (b) 9.2 mm (c) 7.4 cm (d) 4.5 cm (a) 58°C (b) 68°C (c) 73°C (d) 78°C
Q.8 A piece of metal weight 46 gm in air, when it is immersed Q.14 One calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to
in the liquid of specific gravity 1.24 at 27°C it weighs 30 raise temperature of 1g of water by 1°C and it is defined
gm. When the temperature of liquid is raised to 42°C the under which of the following condition
metal piece weighs 30.5 gm, specific gravity of the liquid (a) From 14.5°C to 15.5°C at 760 mm of Hg
at 42°C is 1.20, then the linear expansion of the metal will (b) From 98.5°C to 99.5°C at 760 mm of Hg
be (c) From 13.5°C to 14.5°C at 76 mm of Hg
(a) 3.316 × 10–5/°C (b) 2.316 × 10–5/°C (d) From 3.5°C to 4.5°C at 76 mm of Hg
(c) 4.316 × 10 /°C–5 (d) None of these Q.15 A bullet moving with a uniform velocity v, stops suddenly
Q.9 2 kg of ice at – 20°C is mixed with 5 kg of water at 20°C after hitting the target and the whole mass melts be m,
in an insulating vessel having a negligible heat capacity. specific heat S, initial temperature 25°C, melting point
Calculate the final mass of water remaining in the container. 475°C and the latent heat L. Then v is given by
It is given that the specific heats of water and ice are 1 1 mv 2
kcal/kg /°C and 0.5 kcal/kg/°C while the latent heat of fusion (a) mL = mS (475 - 25) + .
2 J
of ice is 80 kcal/kg mv 2
(a) 7 kg (b) 6 kg (c) 4 kg (d) 2 kg (b) mS (475 - 25) + mL =
2J
Q.10 A lead bullet at 27°C just melts when stopped by an
mv 2
obstacle. Assuming that 25% of heat is absorbed by the (c) mS (475 - 25) + mL =
J
obstacle, then the velocity of the bullet at the time of
mv 2
striking (M.P. of lead = 327°C, specific heat of lead = (d) mS (475 - 25) - mL =
2J
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15.

DPP/ P 22 3
Q.16 A stationary object at 4°C and weighing 3.5 kg falls from a DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,
height of 2000 m on a snow mountain at 0°C. If the more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
temperature of the object just before hitting the snow is correct answers and mark it according to the following
0°C and the object comes to rest immediately? (g = 10m/ codes:
s2 and latent heat of ice = 3.5 × 105 joule/sec), then the
Codes :
object will melt
(a) 2 kg of ice (b) 200 gm of ice
(c) 20 gm of ice (d) 2 gm of ice
Q.21 Heat is supplied to a certain homogenous sample of matter,
Q.17 Density of a substance at 0°C is 10 gm/cc and at 100°C,
at a uniform rate. Its temperature is plotted against time,
its density is 9.7 gm/cc. The coefficient of linear expansion
as shown. Which of the following conclusions can be
of the substance will be
drawn?
(a) 102 (b) 10–2 (c) 10–3 (d) 10–4
Q.18 The real coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is
Temperature
0.000597 per °C and linear coefficient of expansion of
glass is 0.000009 per°C. Then the apparent volume
coefficient of expansion of glycerine is
(a) 0.000558 per°C (b) 0.00057 per°C Time
(c) 0.00027 per°C (d) 0.00066 per°C (1) Its specific heat capacity is greater in the liquid state
Q.19 A constant volume gas thermometer shows pressure than in the solid state
reading of 50 cm and 90 cm of mercury at 0°C and 100°C (2) Its latent heat of vaporization is greater than its latent
respectively. When the pressure reading is 60 cm of heat of fusion
mercury, the temperature is (3) Its specific heat capacity is greater in the solid state
(a) 25°C (b) 40°C (c) 15°C (d) 12.5°C than in the liquid state
Q.20 A student takes 50gm wax (specific heat = 0.6 kcal/kg°C) (4) Its latent heat of vaporization is smaller than its latent
and heats it till it boils. The graph between temperature and heat of fusion
time is as follows. Heat supplied to the wax per minute and Q.22 A bimetallic strip is formed out of two identical strips,
boiling point are respectively. one of copper and other of brass. The coefficients of linear
expansion of the two metals are αC and α B . On heating,
250
the temperature of the strip goes up by DT and the strip
bends to form an arc of radius of curvature R. Then R is
200 (1) inversely proportional to DT
Temperature (°C)
150 (2) proportional to α B - α C

(3) inversely proportional to α B - αC
100
(4) proportional to DT
50 Q.23 A bimetallic strip is heated. Choose wrong statements.
0 (1) does not bend at all
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(2) gets twisted in the form of an helix
Time (Minute)
(3) bends in the form of an arc with the more expandable
(a) 500 cal, 50°C (b) 1000 cal, 100°C metal inside.
(c) 1500 cal, 200°C (d) 1000 cal, 200°C (4) bend in the form of an arc with the more expandable
metal outside
RESPONSE 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

GRID 21. 22. 23.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 22
DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains
and answer the questions that follows : two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
In a thermally insulated tube of cross sectional area 4cm2 a liquid only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select
of thermal expansion coefficient 10–3 K–1 is f lowing. Its the correct choice.
velocity at the entrance is 0.1 m/s. At the middle of the tube a
heater of a power of 10kW is heating the liquid. The specific (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
heat capacity of the liquid is 1.5 kJ/(kg K), and its density is correct explanation for Statement-1.
1500 kg/m3 at the entrance. (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
Q.24 The rise in temperature of the liquid as it pass through the NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
tube is (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
1000 1 500
(a) °C (b) °C (c) °C (d) None Q.27 Statement-1 : Fahrenheit is the smallest unit measuring
9 9 9
temperature.
Q.25 What is the density of liquid at the exit ?
Statement-2 : Fahrenheit was the first temperature scale
(a) 1450 kg/m3 (b) 1400 kg/m3
3 used for measuring temperature.
(c) 1350 kg/m (d) None of these
Q.28 Statement-1 : A brass disc is just fitted in a hole in a steel
Q.26 How much bigger is the volume rate of flow at the end of
plate. The system must be cooled to loosen the disc from
the tube than at the entrance in cubic meters ?
the hole.
1 Statement-2 : The coefficient of linear expansion for brass
(a) 9 × 10–5 (b) × 10–5
3 is greater than the coefficient of linear expansion for steel.
4 Q.29 Statement-1 : Laten t heat of fusion of ice is
(c) × 10–5 (d) None
9 336000 J kg–1.
Statement-2 : Latent heat refers to change of state without
any change in temperature.
RESPONSE 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

GRID 29.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Heat transfer & Newton’s law of cooling

23
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice Q.2 A wall is made up of two layers A and B. The thickness of
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out the two layers is the same, but materials are different. The
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. thermal conductivity of A is double than that of B. In thermal
equilibrium the temperature difference between the two
Q.1 Two rods (one semi-circular and other straight) of same ends is 36°C. Then the difference of temperature at the
material and of same cross-sectional area are joined as two surfaces of A will be
shown in the figure. The points A and B are maintained at (a) 6°C (b) 12°C (c) 18°C (d) 24°C
different temperature. The ratio of the heat transferred Q.3 A room is maintained at 20°C by a heater of resistance 20
through a cross-section of a semi-circular rod to the heat ohm connected to 200 volt mains. The temperature is
transferred through a cross section of the straight rod in a uniform through out the room and heat is transmitted
given time is through a glass window of area 1m2 and thickness 0.2 cm.
circular r
(a) 2 : p mi What will be the temperature outside? Given that thermal
od
Se
(b) 1 : 2 conductivity K for glass is 0.2 cal/m/°C/sec and J = 4.2 J/

cal
(c) p : 2
A Straight rod B (a) 15.24°C (b) 15.00°C
(d) 3 : 2 (c) 24.15°C (d) None of these

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 23
Q.4 A composite metal bar of uniform section is made up of Q.9 A cylindrical rod with one end in a steam chamber and the
length 25 cm of copper, 10 cm of nickel and 15 cm of other end in ice results in melting of 0.1 gm of ice per
aluminium. Each part being in perfect thermal contact with second. If the rod is replaced by another with half the length
the adjoining part. The copper end of the composite rod is and double the radius of the first and if the thermal
maintained at 100°C and the aluminium end at 0°C. The 1
conductivity of material of second rod is that of first,
whole rod is covered with belt so that there is no heat loss 4
occurs at the sides. If KCu = 2KAl and KAl = 3KNi, then the rate at which ice melts in gm/sec will be
what will be the temperatures of Cu – Ni and Ni – Al (a) 3.2 (b) 1.6 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.1
junctions respectively Q.10 An ice box used for keeping eatable cold has a total wall
area of 1 metre2 and a wall thickness of 5.0 cm. The thermal
Cu Ni Al conductivity of the ice box is K = 0.01 joule/metre °C. It
100° C 0° C is filled with ice at 0° C along with eatables on a day when
(a) 23.33°C and 78.8°C (b) 83.33°C and 20°C the temperature is 30°C. The latent heat of fusion of ice is
(c) 50°C and 30°C (d) 30°C and 50°C 334 × 103 joules/kg. The amount of ice melted in one day
Q.5 Three rods of the same dimension have thermal is (1 day = 86,400 seconds)
conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as shown (a) 776 gm (b) 7760 gm
in fig. with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 20°C. The (c) 11520 gm (d) 1552 gm
temperature of their junction is Q.11 A solid copper sphere (density r and specific heat capacity
50°C
c) of radius r at an initial temperature 200 K is suspended
(a) 60°C 2K
inside a chamber whose walls are at almost 0 K. The time
100°C
(b) 70°C required (in µ s) for the temperature of the sphere to drop
3K
(c) 50°C K to 100 K is
72 r rc
(b) 7 r rc (c) 27 rrc (d) 7 rrc
20°C
(d) 35°C (a)
7 s 72 s 7 s 27 s
Q.6 A black body is at a temperature of 2880 K. The energy of Q.12 Four rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from
radiation emitted by this object with wavelength between the same metal form the sides of square. The temperature
499 nm and 500 nm is U1, between 999 nm and 1000 nm
is U2 and between 1499 nm and 1500 nm is U3. The Wein's of two diagonally opposite points are T and 2T
constant b = 2.88 × 106 nm K. Then respectively in the steady state. Assuming that only heat
(a) U1 = 0 (b) U3 = 0 (c) U1 > U2 (d) U2 > U1 conduction takes place, what will be the temperature
Q.7 A body initially at 80° C cools to 64° C in 5 minutes and difference between other two points
to 52° C in 10 minutes. The temperature of the body after 2 +1 2
(a) T (b) T
15 minutes will be 2 2 +1
(a) 42.7° C (b) 35° C (c) 47° (d) 40° C (c) 0 (d) None of these
Q.8 A 5 cm thick ice block is there on the surface of water in a Q.13 Consider two hot bodies B1 and B2 which have temperature
lake. The temperature of air is – 10° C; how much time it 100° C and 80° C respectively at t = 0. The temperature
will take to double the thickness of the block of surroundings is 40° C. The ratio of the respective rates
(L = 80 cal/g, Kice = 0.004 erg/s-k, dice = 0.92 g cm–3) of cooling R1 and R2 of these two bodies at t = 0 will be
(a) 1 hour (b) 191 hours (a) R1 : R2 = 3 : 2 (b) R1 : R2 = 5 : 4
. (c) 19.1 hours (d) 1.91 hours (c) R1 : R2 = 2 : 3 (d) R1 : R2 = 4 : 5
RESPONSE 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
GRID 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

DPP/ P 23 3
Q.14 A body cools from 60° C to 50° C in 10 minutes. If the Q.20 If between wavelength l and l + dl, el and al be the
room temperature is 25° C and assuming Newton's law of emissive and absorptive powers of a body and El be the
cooling to hold good, the temperature of the body at the emissive power of a perfectly black body, then according
end of the next 10 minutes will be to Kirchoff’s law, which is true
(a) 38.5° C (b) 40° C (c) 42.85° C (d) 45° C (a) el = al = El (b) el El = al
Q.15 The rates of cooling of two different liquids put in exactly (c) el = al El (d) el al El = constant
similar calorimeters and kept in identical surroundings are the
Q.21 Two thermometers A and B are exposed in sunlight. The
same if
bulb of A is painted black, But that of B is not painted. The
(a) The masses of the liquids are equal
(b) Equal masses of the liquids at the same temperature correct statement regarding this case is
are taken (a) Temperature of A will rise faster than B but the final
(c) Different volumes of the liquids at the same temperature will be the same in both
temperature are taken (b) Both A and B show equal rise in beginning
(d) Equal volumes of the liquids at the same temperature (c) Temperature of A will remain more than B
are taken (d) Temperature of B will rise faster
Q.16 For cooking the food, which of the following type of DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, more
utensil is most suitable than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct
(a) High specific heat and low conductivity
answers and mark it according to the following codes:
(b) High specific heat and high conductivity
(c) Low specific heat and low conductivity Codes :
(d) Low specific heat and high conductivity (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
Q.17 Two rods A and B are of equal lengths. Their ends are kept (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
between the same temperature and their area of cross- Q.22 Two bodies A and B have thermal emissivities of 0.01 and
sections are A1 and A2 and thermal conductivities K1 and 0.81 respectively. The outer surface areas of the two bodies
K2. The rate of heat transmission in the two rods will be are the same. The two bodies emit total radiant power at
equal, if the same rate. The wavelength λ B corresponding to
(a) K1 A2 = K 2 A1 (b) K1 A1 = K2 A2
maximum spectral radiancy in the radiation from B is
(c) K1 = K2 (d) K1 A12 = K 2 A22 shifted from the wavelength corresponding to maximum
Q.18 While measuring the thermal conductivity of a liquid, we spectral radiancy in the radiation from A, by 1.00 mm. If
keep the upper part hot and lower part cool, so that the temperature of A is 5802 K
(a) Convection may be stopped (1) The temperature of B is 1934 K
(b) Radiation may be stopped (2) lB = 1.5 mm
(c) Heat conduction is easier downwards (3) The temperature of B is 11604 K
(d) It is easier and more convenient to do so (4) The temperature of B is 2901 K
Q.19 When fluids are heated from the bottom, convection
Q.23 A cane is taken out from a refrigerator at 0°C. The
currents are produced because
atmospheric temperature is 25°C. If t1 is the time taken to
(a) Molecular motion of fluid becomes aligned
heat from 0°C to 5°C and t2 is the time taken from 10°C
(b) Molecular collisions take place within the fluid
(c) Heated fluid becomes more dense than the cold fluid to 15°C, then the wrong statements are
above it (1) t1 > t2 (2) t1 = t2
(d) Heated fluid becomes less dense than the cold fluid (3) There is no relation (4) t1 < t2
above it
RESPONSE 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.

GRID 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 23
Q.24 The rate of loss of heat from a body cooling under conditions DIRECTIONS (Q.28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two
of forced convection is proportional to its statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each
(1) surface area of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is
(2) excess of temperature over that of surrounding the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.
(3) heat capacity
(4) absolute temperature
A brass ball of mass 100g is heated to 100°C and then dropped (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
into 200g of turpentine in a calorimeter at 15°C. The final (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
temperature is found to be 23°C. Take specific heat of brass as Q.28 Statement-1 : The equivalent thermal conductivity of two
0.092 cal/g°C and water equivalent of calorimeter as 4g. plates of same thickness in contact (series) is less than
Q.25 The specific heat of turpentine is the smaller value of thermal conductivity.
(a) 0.42 cal/g°c (b) 0.96 cal/g°c Statement-2 : For two plates of equal thickness in contact
(c) 0.72 cal/g°c (d) 0.12 cal/g°c (series) the equivalent thermal conductivity is given by
Q.26 Heat lost by the ball is approximately 2 1 1
= +
(a) 810 cal (b) 610 cal K K1 K 2
(c) 710 cal (d) 510 cal Q.29 Statement-1 : The absorbance of a perfect black body is unity.
Q.27 Heat gained by turpentine and calorimeter is approximately Statement-2 : A perfect black body when heated emits
(a) 810 cal (b) 610 cal radiations of all possible wavelengths at that temperature.
(c) 710 cal (d) 510 cal Q.30 Statement-1 : As temperature of a black body is raised,
wavelength corresponding to maximum energy reduces.
Statement-2 : Higher temperature would mean higher
energy and hence higher wavelength.
RESPONSE 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

GRID 29. 30.

Attem pted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Thermodynamics-1 (Thermal equilibrium, zeroth law of thermodynamics,

24
concept of temperature, Heat, work and internal energy, Different thermodynamic processes)

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice questions. (c) 1.5 × 104 cal of heat flowed into the gas
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY (d) 1.5 × 104 cal of heat flowed out from the gas
ONE choice is correct. Q.3 The latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2240 J/gm. If
Q.1 For an isothermal expansion of a perfect gas, the value of the work done in the process of expansion of 1 g of water
is 168 J, then increase in internal energy is
DP
is (a) 2408 J (b) 2240 J
P (c) 2072 J (d) 1904 J
1/ 2 DV DV DV 2 DV Q.4 One mole of an ideal gas expands at a constant temperature
(a) -g (b) - (c) -g (d) -g
V V V V of 300 K from an initial volume of 10 litres to a final
Q.2 When an ideal gas in a cylinder was compressed volume of 20 litres. The work done in expanding the gas is
isothermally by a piston, the work done on the gas was ( R = 8.31 J/mole - K)
found to be 1.5 × 104 Joule. During this process about
(a) 3.6 × 103 cal of heat flowed out from the gas (a) 750 Joules (b) 1728 Joules
(b) 3.6 × 103 cal of heat flowed into the gas (c) 1500 Joules (d) 3456 Joules

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 24
Q.5 The pressure in the tyre of a car is four times the Q.11 For an adiabatic expansion of a perfect gas, the value of
atmospheric pressure at 300 K. If this tyre suddenly bursts,
DP
its new temperature will be ( g = 1.4) is equal to
P
-0.4 /1.4
(a) 300(4)1.4 / 0.4 (b) 300 æç 1 ö÷ (a) - g
DV
(b) -
DV
è4ø V V
(c) 300(2) - 0.4 /1.4 (d) 300(4)-0.4 /1.4 DV DV
(c) -g (d) -g 2
Q.6 A monoatomic gas ( g = 5 / 3) is suddenly compressed to V V
1 Q.12 If 300 ml of gas at 27°C is cooled to 7°C at constant
of its original volume adiabatically, then the pressure pressure, then its final volume will be
8
of the gas will change to (a) 540 ml (b) 350 ml
24 (c) 280 ml (d) 135 ml
(a) (b) 8 Q.13 A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2 . The amount
5
40 of work done by the gas is greatest when the expansion is
(c) (d) 32 times its initial pressure (a) isothermal (b) isobaric
3
(c) adiabatic (d) equal in all cases
8
Q.7 An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to of Q.14 How much work to be done in decreasing the volume of
27
5 and ideal gas by an amount of 2.4 ´ 10-4 m3 at normal
its original volume. If g = , then the rise in temperature
3 temperature and constant normal pressure of 1 ´ 105 N / m 2
is (a) 28 Joule (b) 27 Joule
(a) 450 K (b) 375 k (c) 225 K (d) 405 K
(c) 25 Joule (d) 24 Joule
Q.8 A given system undergoes a change in which the work done
Q.15 One mole of a perfect gas in a cylinder fitted with a piston has
by the system equals the decrease in its internal energy.
The system must have undergone an a pressure P , volume V and temperature T . If the temperature
(a) Isothermal change (b) Adiabatic change is increased by 1 K keeping pressure constant, the increase in
(c) Isobaric change (d) Isochoric change volume is
Q.9 Helium at 27° has a volume of 8 litres. It is suddenly 2V V V
compressed to a volume of 1 litre. The temperature of the (a) (b) (c) (d) V
273 91 273
gas will be [ g = 5 / 3] Q.16 Work done by 0.1 mole of a gas at 27o C to double its
(a) 108°C (b) 9327°C (c) 1200°C (d) 927°C
Q.10 One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of TK volume at constant pressure is ( R = 2 cal mol -1o K -1 )
does 6 R joules of work adiabatically. If the ratio of (a) 54 cal (b) 600 cal (c) 60 cal (d) 546 cal
specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at Q.17 When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure,
constant volume is 5/3, the final temperature of gas will the fraction of the heat energy supplied which increases
be the internal energy of the gas, is
(a) (T + 2.4) K (b) (T - 2.4) K 2 3 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) (T + 4) K (d) (T - 4) K 5 5 7 7
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16. 17.

DPP/ P 24 3
Q.18 When heat is given to a gas in an isothermal change, the DIRECTIONS (Q.22 - Q.23) : In the following questions,
result will be more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
(a) external work done correct answers and mark it according to the following
(b) rise in temperature codes:
(c) increase in internal energy
(d) external work done and also rise in temp. Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
Q.19 An ideal gas expands isothermally from a volume V1 to
Q.22 During the melting of a slab of ice at 273 K and one
V2 and then compressed to original volume V1 atmospheric pressure
(1) Positive work is done on the ice-water system by the
adiabatically. Initial pressure is P1 and final pressure is
atmosphere
P3 . The total work done is W . Then (2) Positive work is done by ice-water system on the
atmosphere
(a) P3 > P1 ,W > 0 (b) P3 < P1 , W < 0
(3) The internal energy of the ice-water system increases
(c) P3 > P1 ,W < 0 (d) P3 = P1 ,W = 0 (4) The internal energy of the ice-water system decreases
Q.20 An ideal gas expands in such a manner that its pressure and Q.23 One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken from A to C
along the path ABC. The temperature of the gas at A is T0.
volume can be related by equation PV 2 = constant. During For the process ABC –
this process, the gas is P
(a) heated 2P0 C
(b) cooled T0
P0 A
(c) neither heated nor cooled B
(d) first heated and then cooled
Q.21 In the following P - V diagram two adiabatics cut two
V0 2V0
isothermals at temperatures T1 and T2 (fig.). The value of (1) Work done by the gas is RT0
Va 11
will be (2) Change in internal energy of the gas is RT0
Vd 2
P
11
a b T1 (3) Heat absorbed by the gas is RT0
2
d
T2 13
(4) Heat absorbed by the gas is RT0
2
Va Vd Vb Vc V
In the figure n mole of a monoatomic ideal gas undergo the
Vb Vc Vd
(a) (b) (c) (d) VbVc process ABC as shown in the P-V diagram. The process AB is
Vc Vb Va isothermal and BC is isochoric. The temperature of the gas at A
is T0. Total heat given to the gas during the process ABC is
measured to be Q.
RESPONSE 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

GRID 23.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 24
DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains
P
A C two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
correct choice.
B
2V 6V correct explanation for Statement-1.
Q.24 Temperature of the gas at C is equal to (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(a) T0 (b) 3 T0 (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(c) 6 T0 (d) 2 T0 (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
Q.25 Heat absorbed by the gas in the process BC Q.27 Statement-1 : The isothermal curves intersect each other
(a) 3nRT0 (b) nRT0 at a certain point.
(c) 2nRT0 (d) 6nRT0 Statement-2 : The isothermal change takes place slowly,
so the isothermal curves have very little slope.
Q.26 The average molar heat capacity of the gas in process ABC
Q.28 Statement-1 : In adiabatic compression, the internal
is
energy and temperature of the system get increased.
Q Q Statement-2 : The adiabatic compression is a slow process.
(a) (b) Q.29 Statement-1 : The specific heat of a gas in an adiabatic
nT0 2nT0
process is zero and in an isothermal process is infinite.
Q 2Q Statement-2 : Specific heat of a gas is directly proportional
(c) (d)
3nT0 nT0 to change of heat in system and inversely proportional to
change in temperature.
RESPONSE 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

GRID 29.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Thermodynamics-2 (1st and 2nd laws of thermodynamics, Reversible &

25
irreversible processes, Carnot engine and its efficiency)

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.19) : There are 19 multiple choice questions. Q.2 An ideal gas is taken from point A to the point B , as
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY shown in the P - V diagram, keeping the temperature
ONE choice is correct. constant. The work done in the process is
P
Q.1 Six moles of an ideal gas performs a cycle shown in figure.
A
If the temperature TA = 600 K , TB = 800 K , TC = 2200 K PA
and TD = 1200 K , the work done per cycle is

P
PB B
B C
V
A
O VA VB
D
1
(a) ( PA - PB )(VB - VA ) (b) ( PB - PA )(VB + V A )
2
T 1 1
(c) ( PB - PA )(VB - V A ) (d) ( PB + PA )(VB - V A )
(a) 20 kJ (b) 30 kJ (c) 40 kJ (d) 60 kJ 2 2
RESPONSE GRID 1. 2.
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 25
Q.3 In the diagrams (i) to (iv) of variation of volume with Q.8 An ideal heat engine working between temperature T1 and
changing pressure is shown. A gas is taken along the path T2 has an efficiency h, the new efficiency of engine if both
ABCD. The change in internal energy of the gas will be the source and sink temperature are doubled, will be
V V
D
C D C h
(a) (b) h (c) 2 h (d) 3 h
(i) (ii) 2
A A B
Q.9 Efficiency of a Carnot engine is 50% when temperature
B
of outlet is 500 K. In order to increase efficiency up to
P P
V
D C
V D 60% keeping temperature of intake the same what will be
C
temperature of outlet
(iii) (iv) (a) 200 K (b) 400 K (c) 600 K (d) 800 K
A B A B Q.10 A scientist says that the efficiency of his heat engine which
P P operates at source temperature 120ºC and sink temperature
(a) Positive in all cases (i) to (iv) 27ºC is 26%, then
(b) Positive in cases (i), (ii) and (iii) but zero in case (iv) (a) It is impossible
(c) Negative in cases (i), (ii) and (iii) but zero in case (iv) (b) It is possible but less probable
(d) Zero in all cases (c) It is quite probable
Q.4 A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1, is (d) Data are incomplete
enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston. The Q.11 The efficiency of Carnot’s engine operating between
gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature T2 reservoirs, maintained at temperatures 27°C and –123°C,
by releasing the piston suddenly. If L1and L2 are the lengths is
of the gas column before and after expansion respectively, (a) 50% (b) 24% (c) 0.75% (d) 0.4%
then T1 / T2 is given by Q.12 The temperature of sink of Carnot engine is 27°C and
æ L1 ö
2/3
L1 L2 æ L2 ö
2/3 Efficiency of engine is 25%. Then temperature of source
(a) ç ÷ (b) L2 (c) L1 (d) ç ÷ is
è L2 ø è L1 ø
(a) 227°C (b) 327°C (c) 127°C (d) 27°C
Q.5 A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles Q.13 In changing the state of thermodynamics from A to B state,
argon at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the heat required is Q and the work done by the system is
the total internal energy of the system is
W. The change in its internal energy is
(a) 4 RT (b) 15 RT (c) 9 RT (d) 11 RT
Q.6 Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in succession. Q -W
(a) Q + W (b) Q – W (c) Q (d)
The first one, A receives heat from a source at T1 = 800 K 2
Q.14 The first law of thermodynamics is concerned with the
and rejects to sink at T2 K . The second engine B receives
conservation of
heat rejected by the first engine and rejects to another sink
(a) Momentum (b) Energy
at T3 = 300 K . If the work outputs of two engines are equal,
(c) Mass (d) Temperature
then the value of T2 will be Q.15 A system is given 300 calories of heat and it does 600
(a) 100K (b) 300K (c) 550K (d) 700 K
joules of work. The internal energy of the system change
Q.7 A Carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir is at 7°C
in this process is
has an efficiency of 50%. It is desired to increase the
(J = 4.18 Joule/cal)
efficiency to 70%. By how many degrees should the
temperature of the high temperature reservoir be increased (a) 654 Joule (b) 156.5 Joule
(a) 840K (b) 280 K (c) 560 K (d) 380K (c) –300 Joule (d) – 528.2 Joule
3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
RESPONSE
8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
GRID
13. 14. 15.

DPP/ P 25 3
Q.16 110 J of heat is added to a gaseous system, whose internal (2) That the process should be too fast
energy change is 40 J, then the amount of external work (3) That the process should be slow so that the working
done is substance should remain in thermal and mechanical
(a) 150 J (b) 70 J (c) 110 J (d) 40 J equilibrium with the surroundings
Q.17 For free expansion of the gas which of the following is (4) The loss of energy should be zero and it should be
true quasistatic
(a) Q = W = 0 and DEint = 0 Q.22 One mole of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic through
(b) Q = 0, W > 0 and DEint = -W the cyclic process shown in the V-T diagram, where V =
(c) W = 0, Q > 0 , and DEint = Q volume and T = absolute temperature of the gas. Which of
the following statements are correct
(d) W > 0, Q < 0 and DEint = 0
V
Q.18 In a given process for an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0 . 2V0
A B
Then for the gas

(a) The temperature will decrease
(b) The volume will increase V0
D
C
(c) The pressure will remain constant
T
(d) The temperature will increase T0 2T0
Q.19 The specific heat of hydrogen gas at constant pressure is (1) Heat is given out by the gas
C p = 3.4 ´ 103 cal / kg oC and at constant volume is (2) Heat is absorbed by the gas
(3) The magnitude of the work done by the gas is RT0 (ln 2)
CV = 2.4 ´ 103 cal / kg oC . If one kilogram hydrogen gas is (4) The magnitude of the work done by the gas is V0T0
heated from 10°C to 20°C at constant pressure, the
external work done on the gas to maintain it at constant DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below and
pressure is answer the questions that follows :
(a) 105 cal (b) 104 cal
V-T graph of a process of monoatomic ideal gas is as shown in
(c) 103 cal (d) 5 × 103 cal
figure.
DIRECTIONS (Q.20-Q.22) : In the following questions, V
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the a b

codes: d c
T
Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct Q.23 Sum of work done by the gas in process abcd is –
Q.20 Which of the following processes are irreversible? (a) zero (b) positive
(1) Transfer of heat by radiation (c) negative (d) data is insufficient
(2) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire Q.24 Heat is supplied to the gas in process(s) –
(3) Transfer of heat by conduction (a) da, ab and bc (b) da and ab only
(4) Isothermal compression (c) da only (d) ab and bc only
Q.21 For a reversible process, unnecessary conditions are Q.25 Change in internal energy of the gas is zero in process(s) –
(1) In the whole cycle of the system, the loss of any type (a) da, ab and bc (b) da and bc only
of heat energy should be zero (c) da only (d) da and ab only
RESPONSE 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

GRID 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 25
DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains two Q.26 Statement-1 : It is not possible for a system, unaided by an
statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each external agency to transfer heat from a body at lower
of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is temperature to another body at higher temperature.
the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice. Statement-2 : According to Clausius statement, “No
process is possible whose sole result is the transfer of
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a heat from a cooled object to a hotter object.
correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.27 Statement-1 : A room can be warmed by opening the door
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is of a refrigerator in a closed room.
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2 : Head flows from lower temperature
(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. (refrigerator) to higher temperature (room).
(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. Q.28 Statement-1 : In isothermal process whole of the heat
energy supplied to the body is converted into internal
energy.
Statement-2 : According to the first law of themodynamics
DQ = DU + PDV

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Kinetic Theory

26
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice questions. (c) Low pressure and high temperature
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY (d) High pressure and low temperature
ONE choice is correct. Q.4 The pressure P, volume V and temperature T of a gas in
Q.1 If pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased the jar A and the other gas in the jar B at pressure 2 P ,
by 0.4% when heated by 1°C, the initial temperature must
V
be volume and temperature 2T, then the ratio of, the
(a) 250 K (b) 250°C (c) 2500 K (d) 25°C 4
Q.2 To double the volume of a given mass of an ideal gas at number of molecules in the jar A and B will be
27°C keeping the pressure constant, one must raise the (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
temperature in degree centigrade to (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
(a) 54 (b) 270 (c) 327 (d) 600 Q.5 A flask is filled with 13 gm of an ideal gas at 27°C and its
Q.3 Under which of the following conditions is the law temperature is raised to 52°C. The mass of the gas that has
PV = RT obeyed most closely by a real gas? to be released to maintain the temperature of the gas in
(a) High pressure and high temperature the flask at 52°C and the pressure remaining the same is
(b) Low pressure and low temperature (a) 2.5 g (b) 2.0 g (c) 1.5 g (d) 1.0 g
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 26
Q.6 The pressure and temperature of two different gases is Q.12 For a gas at a temperature T the root-mean-square velocity
P and T having the volume V for each. They are mixed vrms , the most probable speed vmp , and the average speed
keeping the same volume and temperature, the pressure of v au obey the relationship
the mixture will be
(a) vau > vrms > vmp (b) vrms > va u > vmp
(a) P / 2 (b) P (c) 2P (d) 4P
Q.7 The root mean square velocity of a gas molecule of mass (c) vmp > vau > vrms (d) vmp > vrms > va u
m at a given temperature is proportional to Q.13 One mole of ideal monoatomic gas ( g = 5 / 3) is mixed with
1 one mole of diatomic gas ( g = 7 / 5) . What is g for the
(a) mo (b) m (c) m (d)
m æ Cp ö
mixture? çè g = ÷
Q.8 Which of the following statements is true? Cv ø
(a) Absolute zero temperature is not zero energy (a) 3/2 (b) 23/15 (c) 35/23 (d) 4/3
temperature Q.14 The value of the gas constant (R) calculated from the
(b) Two different gases at the same temperature and perfect gas equation is 8.32 Joule/gm mol K , whereas its
pressure have equal root mean square velocities value calculated from the knowledge of Cp and CV of the
(c) The root mean square speed of the molecules of gas is 1.98 cal/gm mole K . From this data, the value of J
different ideal gases, maintained at the same is
temperature are the same (a) 4.16 J / cal (b) 4.18 J / cal
(d) Given sample of 1 cc of hydrogen and 1 cc of oxygen (c) 4.20 J / cal (d) 4.22 J / cal
both at NTP; oxygen sample has a large number of Q.15 Gas at a pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If the masses
molecules
of all the molecules are halved and their speeds are
Q.9 At room temperature, the r.m.s. speed of the molecules of
doubled, the resulting pressure P will be equal to
certain diatomic gas is found to be 1930 m/s. The gas is
P0
(a) H 2 (b) F2 (c) O2 (d) Cl2 (a) 4P0 (b) 2P0 (c) P0 (d)
2
Q.10 Root mean square velocity of a particle is v at pressure P. Q.16 The relation between the gas pressure P and average kinetic
If pressure is increased two times, then the r.m.s. velocity energy per unit volume E is
becomes
2
(a) 2 v (b) 3 v (c) 0.5 v (d) v (a) P = 1 E (b) P = E (c) P = 3 E (d) P = E
Q.11 In the two vessels of same volume, atomic hydrogen and 2 2 3
helium at pressure 1 atm and 2 atm are filled. If temperature Q.17 Mean kinetic energy (or average energy) per gm molecule
of both the samples is same, then average speed of of a monoatomic gas is given by
3 1 1 3
hydrogen atoms < CH > will be related to that of helium (a) RT (b) KT (c) RT (d) KT
2 2 2 2
< CHe > as Q.18 At which of the following temperature would the molecules
of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at
(a) < CH > = 2 < CHe > (b) < CH > = < CHe >
20°C?
(c) < CH > = 2 < CHe > (d) < CH > =

< CHe > (a) 40o C (b) 80 o C (c) 313o C (d) 586o C
2
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18.

DPP/ P 26 3
Q.19 The kinetic energy of one gram molecule of a gas at normal
Q.23 Let v, vrms and v p respectively denote the mean speed,
temperature and pressure is (R = 8.31 J/mol - K)
root mean square speed and most probable speed of the
(a) 0.56 ´ 10 4 J (b) 1.3 ´ 10 2 J molecules in an ideal monoatomic gas at absolute
temperature T, the mass of a molecule is m. Then
(c) 2.7 ´ 10 2 J (d) 3.4 ´ 10 3 J (1) v p < v < v rms
Q.20 70 calories of heat are required to raise the temperature
3 2
o f (2) The average kinetic energy of a molecule is mv
2 moles of an ideal gas at constant pressure from 30°C to 4 p
35°C. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature (3) No molecule can have speed greater than 2vrms
of same gas through the same range (30o C to 35o C) at (4) No molecule can have speed less than v p / 2
Q.24 A gas in container A is in thermal equilibrium with another
constant volume (R = 2 cal/mol K) gas in container B, both contain equal masses of the two
(a) 30 cal (b) 50 cal (c) 70 cal (d) 90 cal gases in the respective containers. Which of the follow-
Q.21 A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and ing can be true
two moles of nitrogen at 300 K . The ratio of the average (1) PA = PB , VA ¹ VB (2) PA VA = PB VB
rotational kinetic energy per O2 molecule to that per N2 PA PB
molecule is (3) PA ¹ PB , VA = VB (4) V = V
A B
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2 DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below and
(c) 2 : 1 answer the questions that follows :
(d) Depends on the moments of inertia of the two A diathermic piston divides adiabatic cylinder of volume V0 into
molecules two equal parts as shown in the figure. Both parts contain ideal
DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, more than monoatomic gases. The initial pressure and temperature of gas
one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct answers in left compartment are P0 and T0 while that in right compartment
and mark it according to the following codes: are 2P0 and 2T0. Initially the piston is kept fixed and the system
Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct is allowed to acquire a state of thermal equilibrium.
Q.22 From the following statements, concerning ideal gas at any
given temperature T, select the correct one(s) P0 , T0 2 P0 , 2T0
(1) The coefficient of volume expansion at constant
pressure is same for all ideal gases
(2) In a gaseous mixture, the average translational kinetic Q.25 The pressure in left compartment after thermal equilibrium
energy of the molecules of each component is same is achieved is
(3) The mean free path of molecules increases with the 3
decrease in pressure (a) P0 (b) P0
2
(4) The average translational kinetic energy per molecule 4
of oxygen gas is 3KT (K being Boltzmann constant) (c) P0 (d) None of these
3
RESPONSE 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

GRID 24. 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 26
Q.26 The heat that flown from right compartment to left (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
compartment before thermal equilibrium is achieved is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
3 3 2 (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(a) P0V0 (b) P0V0 (c) P0V0 (d) P0V0 (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
4 8 3
Q.27 If the pin which was keeping the piston fixed is removed Q.28 Statement-1 : Internal energy of an ideal gas does not
and the piston is allowed to slide slowly such that a state depend upon volume of the gas.
of mechanical equilibrium is achieved. The volume of left Statement-2 : Internal energy of an ideal gas depends on
compartment when piston is in equilibrium is temperature of gas.
Q.29 Statement-1 : Equal masses of helium and oxygen gases
3 V0 V0 2 are given equal quantities of heat. There will be a greater
(a) V0 (b) (c) (d) V0
4 4 2 3 rise in the temperature of helium compared to that of
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two
oxygen.
statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each Statement-2 : The molecular weight of oxygen is more
of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is than the molecular weight of helium.
the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice. Q.30 Statement-1 : Maxwell speed distribution graph is
asymmetric about most probable speed.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Statement-2 : rms speed of ideal gas, depends upon it’s
correct explanation for Statement-1. type (monoatomic, diatomic and polyatomic).
RESPONSE GRID 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Oscillations-1 (Periodic motion - period, Frequency, Displacement as a function of time. Periodic
27
functions, Simple harmonic motion and its equation, Energy in S.H.M. - kinetic and potential energies)
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.22) : There are 22 multiple choice questions. 1 1 1 1

Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY (a) sec (b) sec (c) sec (d) sec
8 6 4 3
ONE choice is correct.
æ pö
Q.1 A simple h armonic motion is represented by Q.4 If x = a sin ç wt + ÷ and x ' = a cos wt , then what is the
è 6ø
F (t ) = 10sin(20t + 0.5) . The amplitude of the S.H.M. is phase difference between the two waves?
(a) a = 30 cm (b) a = 20 cm (a) p / 3 (b) p / 6
(c) a = 10 cm (d) a = 5 cm
(c) p / 2 (d) p
Q.2 A particle executes a simple harmonic motion of time
period T. Find the time taken by the particle to go directly Q.5 A body is executing S.H.M. when its displacement from
from its mean position to half the amplitude the mean position is 4 cm and 5 cm, the corresponding
velocity of the body is 10 cm/sec and 8 cm/sec. Then the
(a) T / 2 (b) T / 4 (c) T / 8 (d) T /12
Q.3 The periodic time of a body executing simple harmonic time period of the body is
motion is 3 sec. After how much time from time t = 0 , its (a) 2p sec (b) p / 2 sec
displacement will be half of its amplitude (c) p sec (d) 3p / 2sec
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 27
Q.6 If a simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude of 50 Q.12 The total energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is
mm and time period of 2 sec, then its maximum velocity proportional to
is (a) Displacement from equilibrium position
(a) 0.10 m/s (b) 0.15 m/s (b) Frequency of oscillation
(c) 0.8 m/s (d) 0.26 m/s (c) Velocity in equilibrium position
Q.7 The maximum velocity and the maximum acceleration of (d) Square of amplitude of motion
a body moving in a simple harmonic oscillator are 2 m/s Q.13 When the displacement is half the amplitude, the ratio of
and 4 m/s2. Then angular velocity will be potential energy to the total energy is
(a) 3 rad/sec (b) 0.5 rad/sec 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d)
(c) 1 rad/sec (d) 2 rad/sec 2 4 8
Q.8 The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is 4 cm. At the Q.14 A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with
mean position the speed of the particle is 16 cm/sec. The frequency f . The frequency at which its kinetic energy
distance of the particle from the mean position at which changes into potential energy is
the speed of the particle becomes 8 3 cm/s, will be (a) f / 2 (b) f (c) 2 f (d) 4 f
(a) 2 3 cm (b) 3 cm
Q.15 A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a
(c) 1cm (d) 2 cm frequency f . The frequency with which its kinetic energy
Q.9 The amplitude of a particle executing S.H.M. with oscillates is
frequency of 60 Hz is 0.01 m. The maximum value of the (a) f / 2 (b) f (c) 2 f (d) 4 f
acceleration of the particle is Q.16 The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 16 J
(a) 144p 2 m/sec 2 (b) 144 m/sec 2 when it is in its mean position. If the amplitude of
oscillations is 25 cm and the mass of the particle is 5.12
144 kg, the time period of its oscillation is
(c) m/sec 2 (d) 288p 2 m/sec 2
p2 p
Q.10 A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an (a) sec (b) 2p sec (c) 20p sec (d) 5p sec
5
angular velocity and maximum acceleration of 3.5rad/sec Q.17 The displacement x (in metres) of a particle performing
and 7.5 m /s 2 respectively. The amplitude of oscillation simple harmonic motion is related to time t (in seconds) as
is æ pö
x = 0.05cos ç 4pt + ÷ . The frequency of the motion will
(a) 0.28 m (b) 0.36 m (c) 0.53 m (d) 0.61 m è 4ø
Q.11 What is the maximum acceleration of the particle doing be
é pt ù (a) 0.5 Hz (b) 1.0 Hz (c) 1.5 Hz (d) 2.0 Hz
the SHM y = 2sin ê + fú where y is in cm? Q.18 A particle executes simple harmonic motion
ë 2 û
[amplitude = A ] between x = - A and x = + A . The time
p p2
(a) cm/s 2 (b) cm/s 2 taken for it to go from 0 to A / 2 is T1 and to go from
2 2
p p A / 2 to A is T2 . Then
(c) cm/s 2 (d) cm/s 2
4 4 (a) T1 < T2 (b) T1 > T2 (c) T1 = T2 (d) T1 = 2T2
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18.

DPP/ P 27 3
Q.19 A cylindrical piston of mass M slides smoothly inside a DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : In the following questions, more than
long cylinder closed at one end, enclosing a certain mass one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct
of gas. The cylinder is kept with its axis horizontal. If the answers and mark it according to the following codes:
piston is disturbed from its equilibrium position, it
Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
oscillates simple harmonically. The period of oscillation
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
will be
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
h
Q.23 A particle constrained to move along the x-axis in a
M potential V = kx2, is subjected to an external time dependent
r
Gas
force f (t) , here k is a constant, x the distance from the
P A
origin, and t the time. At some time T, when the particle
has zero velocity at x = 0, the external force is removed.
(a) T = 2p æç Mh ö÷ (b) T = 2p æç MA ö÷ Choose the incorrect options –
è PA ø è Ph ø (1) Particle executes SHM
(2) Particle moves along +x direction
(c) T = 2p æç
M ö (3) Particle moves along – x direction
÷ (d) T = 2p MPhA
è PAh ø (4) Particle remains at rest
Q.24 Three simple harmonic motions in the same direction
Q.20 A particle is performing simple harmonic motion along having the same amplitude a and same period are
x-axis with amplitude 4 cm and time period 1.2 sec. The superposed. If each differs in phase from the next by 45°,
minimum time taken by the particle to move from x = 2 then –
cm to x = + 4 cm and back again is given by
(a) 0.6 sec (b) 0.4 sec (1) The resultant amplitude is (1 + 2) a
(c) 0.3 sec (d) 0.2 sec (2) The phase of the resultant motion relative to the first is
Q.21 A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such 90°
that one piece is double the length of the other. Then the (3) The energy associated with the resulting motion is
long piece will have a force constant of
(3 + 2 2) times the energy associated with any single
(a) (2/3)k (b) (3/2)k
motion
(c) 3k (d) 6k
(4) The resulting motion is not simple harmonic
Q.22 A simple pendulum has time period T 1 . The point of
Q.25 For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, which
suspension is now moved upward according to equation
of the following statements is correct?
y = kt2 where k =1m/sec2. If new time period is T2 then
(1) The total energy of the particle always remains the same
T12 (2) The restoring force always directed towards a fixed
ratio will be point
T22
(3) The restoring force is maximum at the extreme
(a) 2/3 (b) 5/6 positions
(c) 6/5 (d) 3/2 (4) The acceleration of the particle is maximum at the
equilibrium position
RESPONSE 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

GRID 24. 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 27
DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.27) : Read the passage given below and DIRECTIONS (Q.28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two
answer the questions that follows : statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each
of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is
The differential equation of a particle undergoing SHM is given the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.
d2 x (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
by a
2
+ bx = 0 . The particle starts from the extreme position. correct explanation for Statement-1.
dt
Q.26 The ratio of the maximum acceleration to the maximum (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
velocity of the particle is – NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
b a (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(a) (b)
a b Q.28 Statement-1 : In S.H.M., the motion is ‘to and fro’ and
periodic.
a b Statement-2 : Velocity of the particle
(c) (d)
b a
Q.27 The equation of motion may be given by : ) w k 2 - x 2 (where x is the displacement and k is
(v=
amplitude)
æ bö
Q.29 Statement-1 : In simple harmonic motion, the velocity is
(a) x = Asin ç a ÷ t
è ø maximum when acceleration is minimum.
Statement-2 : Displacement and velocity of S.H.M. differ
æ bö
in phase by p / 2
(b) x = Acos ç a ÷ t
è ø Q.30 Statement-1 : The graph of total energy of a particle in
SHM w.r.t., position is a straight line with zero slope.
æ b ö
Statement-2 : Total energy of particle in SHM remains
(c) x = A sin ç a t + q÷ where q ¹ p/2
è ø constant throughout its motion.
(d) None of these
RESPONSE GRID 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Oscillations-2 (Oscillations of a spring, simple pendulum, free,

28
forced and damped oscillations, Resonance)
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice

2m m m m
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (a) 2p (b) 2p (c) 2p (d) 2p
k 2k k 3k
Q.2 Three masses 700g, 500g, and 400g are suspended at the
Q.1 A particle of mass m is end of a spring as shown and are in equilibrium.
C B
attached to three identical When the 700g mass is removed, the system oscillates
springs A, B and C each of 90° with a period of 3 seconds, when the 500 gm mass is also
force constant k as shown removed, it will oscillate with a period of
in figure. m
(a) 1 s
O
If the particle of mass m (b) 2 s
is pushed slightly against (c) 3 s
700gm
the spring A and released
12 500gm
then the time period of (d) s
A 5 400gm
oscillations is
RESPONSE GRID 1. 2.
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 28
Q.3 The bob of a simple pendulum is displaced from its Q.7 The time period of a second’s pendulum is 2 sec. The
equilibrium position O to a position Q which is at height h spherical bob which is empty from inside has a mass of 50
above O and the bob is then released. gm. This is now replaced by another solid bob of same
Assuming the mass of the bob to be m and time period of radius but having different mass of 100 gm. The new time
oscillations to be 2.0 sec, the tension in the string when period will be
the bob passes through O is (a) 4 sec (b) 1 sec (c) 2 sec (d) 8 sec
(a) m( g + p 2 g h) Q.8 The length of a simple pendulum is increased by 1%. Its
time period will
(b) m ( g + p2 g h ) (a) Increase by 1% (b) Increase by 0.5%
æ ö
(c) Decrease by 0.5% (d) Increase by 2%
p2
(c) mç g + g h÷ Q Q.9 The bob of a pendulum of length l is pulled aside from its
ç 2 ÷
è ø equilibrium position through an angle q and then released.
h
æ 2 ö The bob will then pass through its equilibrium position with
(d) m ç g + p g h ÷ O a speed v, where v equals
ç 3 ÷
è ø
(a) 2gl (1- sin q) (b) 2gl (1 + cos q)
Q.4 A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such
that one piece is double the length of the other. Then the (c) 2gl (1 - cos q) (d) 2gl (1+ sin q)
long piece will have a force constant of Q.10 A simple pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion
(a) (2 / 3)k (b) (3 / 2)k (c) 3k (d) 6k with a time period T. If the length of the pendulum is
Q.5 A pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a train has a increased by 21%, the percentage increase in the time
period T, when the train is at rest. When the train is period of the pendulum of is
accelerating with a uniform acceleration a, the period of (a) 10% (b) 21% (c) 30% (d) 50%
oscillation will Q.11 A chimpanzee swinging on a swing in a sitting position,
(a) increase (b) decrease stands up suddenly, the time period will
(c) remain unaffected (d) become infinite (a) Become infinite (b) Remain same
Q.6 A simple pendulum is set up in a trolley which moves to the (c) Increase (d) Decrease
right with an acceleration a on a horizontal plane. Then the Q.12 A simple pendulum consisting of a ball of mass m tied to a
thread of the pendulum in the mean position makes an angle thread of length l is made to swing on a circular arc of angle q
q with the vertical is in a vertical plane. At the end of this arc, another ball of mass
a m is placed at rest. The momentum transferred to this ball at
(a) tan -1 in the forward direction rest by the swinging ball is
g
g mq
a
(b) tan -1 in the backward direction (a) Zero (b) mq (c) l
(d) m 2p l
l l g l g
g
Q.13 The time period of a simple pendulum of length L as
g
(c) tan -1 in the backward direction measured in an elevator descending with acceleration g / 3
a is
-1 g
(d) tan in the forward direction æ 3L ö æ 3L ö
a (a) 2p 3L (b) p ç ÷ (c) 2p ç ÷ (d) 2p 2L
g è gø è 2g ø 3g
3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
RESPONSE
8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
GRID
13.

DPP/ P 28 3
Q.14 A mass m is suspended from the two coupled springs is maximum for w = w2, then (where w0 natural frequency
connected in series. The force constant for springs are k1 of oscillation of particle)
and k2. The time period of the suspended mass will be (a) w1 = w0 and w 2 ¹ w 0 (b) w1 = w0 and w 2 = w 0
(a) æ m ö
(b) æ m ö (c) w1 ¹ w0 and w 2 = w 0 (d) w1 ¹ w0 and w 2 ¹ w 0
T = 2p ç ÷ T = 2p ç ÷
è k1 + k 2 ø è k1 + k 2 ø c
Q.20 Amplitude of a wave is represented by A =
æ mk k ö a +b-c
æ m(k1 + k2 ) ö T = 2p ç 1 2 ÷ Then resonance will occur when
(c) T = 2p ç ÷ (d)
è k1k2 ø è k1 + k 2 ø
(a) b = – c/2 (b) b = 0 & a = c
Q.15 A spring having a spring constant k is loaded with a mass
(c) b = – a/2 (d) None
m. The spring is cut into two equal parts and one of these is
loaded again with the same mass. The new spring constant is DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,
(a) k / 2 (b) k (c) 2k (d) k2 more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
Q.16 A mass m = 100 gm is attached at the end of a light spring correct answers and mark it according to the following
which oscillates on a frictionless horizontal table with an codes:
amplitude equal to 0.16 metre and time period equal to 2
sec. Initially the mass is released from rest at t = 0 and Codes :
displacement x = –0.16 metre. The expression for the (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
displacement of mass at any time t is (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
(a) x = 0.16 cos(pt ) (b) x = - 0.16 cos(pt ) Q.21 Two blocks A and B each of mass m are connected by a
massless spring of natural length L and spring constant k.
(c) x = 0.16sin(pt + p) (d) x = - 0.16sin(pt + p ) The blocks are initially resting on a smooth horizontal floor
Q.17 Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together by a massless with the spring at its natural length. A third identical block
spring of constant k. When the masses are in equilibrium, C also of mass m moves on the floor with a speed v along
m1 is removed without disturbing the system. The amplitude the line joining A and B and collides with A. Then
of oscillations is (1) The kinetic energy of the A – B system at maximum
m1g compression of the spring is mv2/4
(a)
k (2) The maximum compression of the spring is v m / 2k
m2 g
(b) (3) The kinetic energy of the A-B system at maximum
k
compression of the spring is zero
(m1 + m2 ) g
(c) k m1
(4) The maximum compression of the spring is v m / k
(m1 - m2 ) g m2 Q.22 A simple pendulum of length L and mass (bob) M is
(d) k oscillating in a plane about a vertical line between angular
Q.18 The composition of two simple harmonic motions of equal limits – f and + f. For an angular displacement θ ( θ < f) ,
periods at right angle to each other and with a phase the tension in the string and the velocity of the bob are T
difference of p results in the displacement of the particle and v respectively. The following relations hold good under
along the above conditions
(a) Straight line (b) Circle Mv 2
(1) T - Mg cos θ =
(c) Ellipse (d) Figure of 8 L
Q.19 A particle with restoring force proportional to (2) T cosθ = Mg
displacement and resisting force proportional to velocity (3) The magnitude of the tangential acceleration of the bob
is subjected to a force F sin wt. If the amplitude of the a T = g sin θ
particle is maximum for w = w1 and the energy of the particle (4) T = Mg cos q
RESPONSE 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.

GRID 19. 20. 21. 22.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 28
Q.23 Identify wrong statements among the following DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains
(1) The greater the mass of a pendulum bob, the shorter two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
is its frequency of oscillation (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
(2) A simple pendulum with a bob of mass M swings with
an angular amplitude of 40°. When its angular
correct choice.
amplitude is 20°, the tension in the string is less than
Mgcos20°. (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
(3) The fractional change in the time period of a pendulum correct explanation for Statement-1.
on changing the temperature is independent of the (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
length of the pendulum. NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(4) As the length of a simple pendulum is increased, the (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
maximum velocity of its bob during its oscillation will (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
also decreases.
Q.26 Statement-1 : Consider motion for a mass spring system
DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.25) : Read the passage given below under gravity, motion of M is not a simple harmonic motion
and answer the questions that follows : unless Mg is negligibly small.
A particle performs linear SHM such that it is placed on plat- Statement-2 : For simple harmonic k = force constant
Ma = kx + Mg
form & platform along with particles oscillate vertically up and motion acceleration must be X
down with amplitude A = 1cm. If the particle does not loose proportional to displacement and is
contact with platform anywhere and mass of particle is 1 kg, directed towards the mean position. M = Mass
find : Q.27 Statement-1 : The periodic time of a hard spring is less as

Q.24 The minimum, possible time period (Take p = g ) compared to that of a soft spring.
(a) 0.1 sec. (b) 0.2 sec. Statement-2 : The periodic time depends upon the spring
(c) 0.3 sec. (d) 0.4 sec. constant, and spring constant is large for hard spring.
Q.25 For minimum time period condition average potential Q.28 Statement-1 : The percentage change in time period is
energy between t = 0 to t = 0.05 sec (Take g = 10 m/s2) 1.5%, if the length of simple pendulum increases by 3%
(a) 0.025 Joule (b) 0.1 Joule Statement-2:Time period is directly proportional to length of
(c) 0.08 Joule (d) 0.06 Joule pendulum.
RESPONSE 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

GRID 28.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Waves-1 (Wave motion, longitudinal and transverse waves, speed of a wave, displacement relation for a
29
progressive wave, principle of superposition of waves, reflection of waves)

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice 3.5s respectively, the distance between the cliffs is
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (Velocity of sound in air = 340 ms–1)
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 1190 m
(b) 850 m
Q.1 A tuning fork makes 256 vibrations per second in air. When (c) 595 m
the velocity of sound is 330 m/s then wavelength of the tone (d) 510 m
emitted is Q.4 v1 and v2 are the velocities of sound at the same temperature
(a) 0.56 m (b) 0.89 m (c) 1.11 m (d) 1.29 m in two monoatomic gases of densities r 1 and r 2
Q.2 In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point
1
to move from maximum displacement to zero respectively. If r1 / r 2 = then the ratio of velocities v 1
4
displacement is 0.170 second. The frequency of the wave
and v2 will be
is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
(a) 1.47Hz (b) 0.36 Hz (c) 0.73 Hz (d) 2.94 Hz
Q.5 A wave of frequency 500 Hz has velocity 360 m/sec. The
Q.3 A man is standing between two parallel cliffs and fires a
distance between two nearest points 60° out of phase, is
gun. If he hears first and second echoes after 1.5 s and
(a) 0.6 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 120 cm
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 29
Q.6 Two waves are given by y1 = a sin(wt - kx) and y2 = a cos Q.12 The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by
(wt – kx). The phase difference between the two waves is y = 0.025sin (100t + 0.25 x ) . The frequency of this wave
p p p would be
(a) (b) p (c) (d)
4 8 2 50 100
Q.7 The relation between time and displacement for two (a) Hz (b) Hz (c) 100Hz (d) 50Hz
p p
particles is given by
Q.13 A wave travelling in positive X-direction with A = 0.2m
y = 0.06sin 2 p(0.04t + f1 ), y2 = 0.03sin 2 p(1.04t + f 2 ) has a velocity of 360 m/sec. If l = 60m, then correct
The ratio of the intensities of the waves produced by the expression for the wave is
vibrations of the two particles will be
é æ x öù é æ x öù
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 (a) y = 0.2sin ê 2p ç 6t + ÷ ú (b) y = 0.2 sin ê p ç 6t + ÷ ú
Q.8 A tr ansverse wave is descr ibed by the equation ë è 60 ø û ë è 60 ø û
æ xö é æ x öù é æ x öù
Y = Y0 sin2p ç ft - ÷ . The maximum particle velocity is four y = 0.2sin ê 2p ç 6t - ÷ ú (d) y = 0.2 sin ê p ç 6t - ÷ ú
è l ø (c)
ë è 60 ø û ë è 60 ø û
times the wave velocity if
Q.14 The equation of a wave is given as
pY pY
(a) l = 0 (b) l = 0 y= 0.07 sin (12 px - 3000pt ). where x is in metre and t in
4 2
(c) l = pY0 (d) l = 2pY0 sec , then the correct statement is
Q.9 Which one of the following does not represent a travelling (a) l = 1/ 6m, v = 250 m/s (b) a = 0.07m, v = 300m/s
wave? (c) n = 1500, v = 200 m/s (d) None
(a) y = sin( x - vt ) (b) y = ym sin k ( x + vt ) Q.15 The equation of a progressive wave is given by
(c) y = ym log( x - vt ) (d) y = f ( x2 - vt 2 ) y = 0.5sin ( 20 x - 400t ) where x and y are in metre and
Q.10 The path difference between the two waves
t is in second. The velocity of the wave is
æ 2px ö æ 2px ö
y1 = a1 sin ç wt - ÷ and y2 = a2 cos ç wt - + f ÷ is (a) 10 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 200 m/s (d) 400 m/s
è l ø è l ø
Q.16 There is a destructive interference between the two waves
l l æ pö
(a) f (b) çf+ ÷ of wavelength l coming from two different paths at a
2p 2p è 2ø
point. To get maximum sound or constructive interference
2p æ pö 2p at that point, the path of one wave is to be increased by
(c) çf - ÷ (d) f
l è 2ø l l l
Q.11 A transverse wave is represented by the equation (a) (b)
4 2
2p 3l
y = y0 sin ( vt - x ) , Here v = wave velocity (c) (d) l
l
4
For what value of l , the maximum particle velocity equal Q.17 If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude on
to two times the wave velocity superimposition produced a resultant disturbance of the
(a) l = 2 py0 (b) l = py0 / 3 same amplitude, the waves differ in phase by
(c) l = py0 / 2 (d) l = py0 (a) p (b) 2p /3 (c) p / 2 (d) zero
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17.

DPP/ P 29 3
Q.18 Equation of motion in the same direction is given by (1) A wave travelling in the negative X direction with a
y1 = A sin( wt - kx ), y 2 = A sin(wt - kx - q) .The amplitude velocity of 1.5 m/sec
of the medium particle will be (2) A wave travelling in the negative X direction with a
wavelength of 0.2 m
q
(a) 2 A cos (b) 2 A cos q (3) A wave travelling in the positive X direction with a
2
velocity of 1.5 m/sec.
q
(c) 2 A cos (d) 2A cos q (4) A wave travelling in the positive X direction with a
2
Q.19 The amplitude of a wave, represented by displacement wavelength of 0.2 m
Q.23 It is usually more convenient to describe a sound wave in
1 1
equation y = sin wt ± cos wt will be terms of pressure wave as compared to displacement wave
a b because –
a+b a+ b a± b a+b (1) Two waves of same intensity but different frequencies
(a) (b) (c) (d) have different displacement amplitude but same
ab ab ab ab
Q.20 The displacement due to a wave moving in the positive pressure amplitude
1 (2) The human ear responds to the change in pressure and
x -direction is given by y = at time t = 0 and by
(1 + x2 ) not to the displacement wave.
1 (3) The electronic detector (microphone) does respond
y= at t = 2 seconds, where x and y are in to the change in pressure but not to the displacement.
[1 + ( x - 1)2 ]
metres. The velocity of the wave in m/s is (4) None of the above
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, and answer the questions that follows :
Sound from a point isotropic source spreads equally in all
directions in homogeneous medium. Therefore its intensity
codes:
decreases with square of distance from the source. When
Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct distance between observer and the source changes, apart from
(b) 1 and 2 are correct changes in intensity, the observer listens sound of pitch higher
(c) 2 and 4 are correct or lower than actual pitch depending upon the fact that the
(d) 1 and 3 are correct distance between the observer and source is decreasing or
Q.21 P, Q and R are three particles of a medium which lie on the increasing respectively. An observer O is at a distance 2R from
x-axis. A sine wave of wavelength l is travelling through centre of a circle of radius R. A point isotropic sound source S
the medium in the x-direction. P and Q always have the moves on the circle with uniform angular velocity w = p/3 rad/
same speed, while P and R always have the same velocity. s. Initially observer, source and centre of the circle are in same
The minimum distance between – line.
(1) P and Q is l (2) P and Q is l/2 2R
(3) P and R is l/2 (4) P and R is l R=1m
Q.22 A wave represented by the given equation
æ πö O S C
Y = A sin ç10πx + 15πt + ÷ , where x is in meter and t is
è 3ø 1R R
in second. The expression represents
RESPONSE 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

GRID 23.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 29
Q.24 Starting from initial moment, the source moves through DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains
an angular displacement 180°. Intensity of the sound as two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
observed by the observer decreases by a factor of – (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
(a) 2 (b) 3 only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
(c) 4 (d) 9
correct choice.
Q.25 During a complete round trip of star on the circle, the
observer listens a sound, whose – (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
(a) wavelength first decreases to a maximum value then correct explanation for Statement-1.
increases to the original value (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(b) wavelength first increases to a maximum value then NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
decreases to the original value (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(c) During the first half time wavelength increases then (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
decreases to the original value Q.27 Statement-1 : Particle velocity and wave velocity both are
(d) None of the above is correct because in Doppler's independent of time.
effect, it is the pitch of sound which changes and not Statement-2 : For the propagation of wave motion, the
its wavelength, irrespective of motion of source or medium must have the properties of elasticity and inertia.
observer.
Wavelength
Q.26 Sound emitted by the source at two successive instants t1 Q.28 Statement-1 : Speed of wave =
Time period
and t 2 has minimum and maximum observed pitch
respectively, then – Statement-2 : Wavelength is the distance between two
(a) t1 = 1s, t2 = 5s nearest particles vibrating in phase.
(b) t1 = 5s, t2 = 7s Q.29 Statement-1 : Transverse waves are not produced in liquids
(c) t1 = 7s, t2 = 11s and gases.
(d) t1 = 5s, t2 = 11s Statement-2 : Light waves are transverse waves.
RESPONSE 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

GRID 29.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Waves-2 (Standing waves in strings and organ pipes, Fundamental mode and
30
harmonics, Beats, Doppler effect in sound)
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.22) : There are 22 multiple choice Q.2 A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out contain gases of densities r1 and r2 respectively. The
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both
Q.1 A police car moving at 22 m/s, chases a motorcylist. The the pipes are vibrating in their first overtone with same
police man sounds his horn at 176 Hz, while both of them frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is
move towards a stationary siren of frequency 165 Hz. 4 L r2
L 4L 4 L r1
Calculate the speed of the motorcycle, if it is given that he (a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 r2 3 r1
does not observes any beats
Police Car Motorcycle Q.3 Two whistles A and B produces notes of frequencies 660
Hz and 596 Hz respectively. There is a listener at the mid-
point of the line joining them. Now the whistle B and the
listener start moving with speed 30 m/s away from the
22 m/s Stationary siren whistle A. If speed of sound be 330 m/s, how many beats
(176 Hz) (165 Hz) will be heard by the listener
(a) 33 m/s (b) 22 m/s (c) Zero (d) 11 m/s (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 30
Q.4 An open organ pipe is in resonance in its 2nd harmonic Q.10 An observer is moving away from source of sound of
with tuning fork of frequency f1. Now, it is closed at one frequency 100 Hz. His speed is 33 m/s. If speed of sound
end. If the frequency of the tuning fork is increased slowly is 330 m/s, then the observed frequency is
from f1 then again a resonance is obtained with a frequency (a) 90 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 91 Hz (d) 110 Hz
f2. If in this case the pipe vibrates nth hamonics then Q.11 A whistle giving out 450 Hz approaches a stationary
3 5 observer at a speed of 33 m/s. The frequency heard by the
(a) n = 3, f 2 = f1 (b) n = 3, f 2 = f1
4 4 observer in Hz is
5 3 (a) 409 (b) 429 (c) 517 (d) 500
(c) n = 5, f 2 = f1 (d) n = 5, f 2 = f1
4 4 Q.12 Two sirens situated one kilometre apart are producing sound
Q.5 The source producing sound and an observer both are of frequency 330 Hz. An observer starts moving from one
moving along the direction of propagation of sound waves. siren to the other with a speed of 2 m/s. If the speed of
If the respective velocities of sound, source and an sound be 330 m/s, what will be the beat frequency heard
observer are v, vs and v0, then the apparent frequency heard by the observer
by the observer will be (n = frequency of sound) (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 1
n (v + v0 ) n(v - v0 ) Q.13 A small source of sound moves on a circle as shown in the
(a) (b)
v - v0 v - vs figure and an observer is standing on O. Let n1, n2 and n3 be
n (v - v0 ) n(v + v0 ) the frequencies heard when the source is at A, B and
(c) (d)
v + vs v + vs
C respectively. Then
Q.6 A whistle sends out 256 waves in a second. If the whistle
approaches the observer with velocity 1/3 of the velocity (a) n1 > n2 > n3
of sound in air, the number of waves per second the (b) n2 > n3 < n1
observer will receive (c) n1 = n2 > n3
(a) 384 (b) 192 (c) 300 (d) 200 (d) n2 > n1 > n3 O
Q.7 A source of sound emitting a note of frequency 200 Hz Q.14 A person carrying a whistle emitting continuously a note
moves towards an observer with a velocity v equal to the of 272 Hz is running towards a reflecting surface with a
velocity of sound. If the observer also moves away from speed of 18 km/hour. The speed of sound in air is 345ms–
the source with the same velocity v, the apparent frequency 1. The number of beats heard by him is
heard by the observer is (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 3
(a) 50 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 150 Hz (d) 200 Hz Q.15 A source of sound of frequency 256 Hz is moving rapidly
Q.8 The speed of sound in air at a given temperature is 350 m/ towards a wall with a velocity of 5m/s. The speed of sound
s. An engine blows whistle at a frequency of 1200 cps. It is is 330 m/s. If the observer is between the wall and the
approaching the observer with velocity 50 m/s. The apparent source, then the beats heard per second will be
frequency in cps heard by the observer will be (a) 7.8 Hz (b) 7.7 Hz
(a) 600 (b) 1050 (c) 1400 (d) 2400 (c) 3.9 Hz (d) Zero
Q.9 A source of sound of frequency n is moving towards a Q.16 The harmonics which are present in a pipe open at one end
stationary observer with a speed S. If the speed of sound in are
air is V and the frequency heard by the observer is n1 ,the (a) odd harmonics
value of n1 / n is (b) even harmonics
(c) even as well as odd harmonics
(a) (V + S)/V (b) V/ (V + S)
(d) None of these
(c) (V – S)/V (d) V/ (V – S)
4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
RESPONSE
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
GRID
14. 15. 16.

DPP/ P 30 3
Q.17 A source of sound placed at the open end of a resonance
column sends an acoustic wave of pressure amplitude P0
inside the tube. If the atmospheric pressure is PA, then the
ratio of maximum and minimum pressure at the closed end codes:
of the tube will be
( PA + P0 ) ( PA + 2 P0 ) Codes :
(a) ( P - P ) (b) ( P - 2 P ) (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
A 0 A 0 (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
æ 1 ö Q.23 You are given four tuning forks, the lowest frequency of
çè PA + P0 ÷ø the fork is 300Hz. By striking two tuning forks at a time
PA 2
(c) P (d) æ 1 ö any of 1, 2, 3, 5, 7 & 8 Hz beat frequencies are heard. The
A çè PA - P0 ÷ø possible frequencies of the other three forks –
2
(1) 301, 302 & 307 (2) 301, 303 & 308
Q.18 The frequency of fundamental tone in an open organ pipe (3) 300, 304 & 307 (4) 305, 307 & 308
of length 0.48 m is 320 Hz. Speed of sound is 320 m/sec. Q.24 Doppler shift in frequency depends upon
Frequency of fundamental tone in closed organ pipe will (1) the frequency of the wave produced
be (2) the velocity of the source
(a) 153.8 Hz (b) 160.0 Hz (3) the velocity of the observer
(c) 320.0 Hz (d) 143.2 Hz (4) distance from the source to the listener
Q.19 A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed Q.25 The ( x, y ) coordinates of the corners of a square plate are
between two atoms having a distance 1.21Å between them. (0, 0), (L, 0), (L, L) and (0, L). The edges of the plate are
The wavelength of the standing wave is clamped and transverse standing waves are set up in it. If
(a) 1.21 Å (b) 2.42 Å (c) 6.05 Å (d) 3.63 Å u ( x, y) denotes the displacement of the plate at the point
Q.20 A string on a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its
( x, y ) at some instant of time, the possible expression(s)
fundamental frequency is 270 Hz. If the desired frequency
of 1000 Hz, is to be produced, the required length of the for u is (are) (a = positive constant)
string is px py px 2 py
(1) a sin sin (2) a sin sin
(a) 13.5 cm (b) 2.7 cm (c) 5.4 cm (d) 10.3 cm L L L L
Q.21 The loudness and the pitch of a sound depends on px py 2px py
(a) intensity and velocity (3) a cos cos (4) a cos cos
2L 2L L L
(b) frequency and velocity
(c) intensity and frequency DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.27) : Read the passage given below
(d) frequency and number of harmonics and answer the questions that follows :
Q.22 If in an experiment for determination of velocity of sound
A plate was cut from a quartz crystal and is used to control the
by resonance tube method using a tuning fork of 512 Hz,
frequency of an oscillating electrical circuit. Longitudinal
first resonance was observed at 30.7 cm and second was
standing waves are set up in the plate with displacement antinodes
obtainded at 63.2 cm, then maximum possible error in
at opposite faces. The fundamental frequency of vibration is
velocity of sound is (consider actual speed of sound in air
is 332 m/s) 2.87 ´ 104
given by the equation f0 = . Here s is thickness of
(a) 204 cm/sec (b) 110 cm/sec s
(c) 58 cm/sec (d) 80 cm/sec the plate and density of quartz is 2658.76 kg/m3.
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 30
Q.26 Young’s modulus of elasticity for quartz is – Q.28 Statement-1 : Beats cannot be produced by light sources.
(a) 7 × 1011 N/m2 (b) 8.76 × 1012 N/m2 Statement-2: Light sources have constant phase
12
(c) 2 × 10 N/m 2 (d) Information insufficient difference.
Q.27 If the quartz plate is vibrating in 3rd harmonic while
Q.29 Statement-1 : In the case of a stationary wave, a person
measuring the frequency of 1.2 × 106 Hz, then the thickness
hear a loud sound at the nodes as compared to the antinodes.
of the plateis
(a) 71.75cm (b) 7.175 cm Statement-2 : In a stationary wave all the particles of the
(c) 6.02 cm (d) 0.07 cm medium vibrate in phase.
Q.30 Statement-1 : Velocity of particles, while crossing mean
DIRECTIONS (Q.28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains position (in stationary waves) varies from maximum at
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 antinodes to zero at nodes.
Statement-2: Amplitude of vibration at antinodes is
maximum and at nodes, the amplitude is zero, and all
correct choice.
particles between two successive nodes cross the mean
position together.
RESPONSE GRID 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Practical Physics - 1

31
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.24) : There are 24 multiple choice (a) N (b) N – 1 (c) 1/10 N (d) 1/N – 1
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out Q.4 The figure shows a situation when the jaws of vernier are
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. touching each other. Each main scale division is of 1 mm.
Find zero correction.
Q.1 One cm on the main scale of a vernier callipers is divided
(a) – 0.5 mm main
into ten equal parts. If 20 divisions of vernier scale coincide 0 1 2(cm)
(b) + 0.5 mm scale
with 8 small divisions of the main scale. What will be the
least count of callipers ? (c) – 0.4 mm 0 5 10 Vernier
(a) 0.05 cm (b) 0.06 cm (d) + 0.4 mm scale
(c) 0.04 cm (d) 0.01 cm
Q.2 The shape of stress vs strain graph within elastic limit is : Q.5 In an experiment for measurement of young’s modulus,
(a) parabolic (b) curve line following readings are taken. Load = 3.00 kg, length =
(c) straight line (d) ellipse 2.820 m, diameter = 0.041 cm and extension = 0.87.
Q.3 In a vernier calliper N divisions of vernier scale coincides Determine the percentage error in the measurement of Y.
with N – 1 divisions of main scale (in which length of one (a) ± 5% (b) ± 6.5%
division is 1 mm). The least count of the instrument should
be (c) ± 5.5% (d) ± 15%
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 31
Q.6 When the zero of the circular scale of a screw gauge that the screw gauge has a zero error of – 0.03 mm. While
coincides with the zero of the main scale before A and B measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the
come in contact then the instrument has
main scale reading of 3 mm and the number of circular
(a) positive zero error
scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The
(b) negative zero error AB
diameter of the wire is
(c) no zero error
(d) can't be said anything (a) 3.32 mm (b) 3.73 mm
Q.7 If h be the elevation or depression of a spherical surface (c) 3.67 mm (d) 3.38 mm
from the plane glass plate and c be the mean distance Q.12 In an experiment the angles are required to be measured
between two consecutive points corresponding to the using an instrument, 29 divisions of the main scale exactly
impressions made by the three legs of a spherometer then coincide with the 30 divisions of the vernier scale. If the
the radius of curvature is
smallest division of the main scale is half- a degree (=
c2 h c2 h 2 c2 h c2 2 0.5°), then the least count of the instrument is :
(a) - (b) + (c) + (d) +
6h 2 6h 2 6h 2 6h h (a) half minute (b) one degree
Q.8 The least count of a spherometer is given by
(c) half degree (d) one minute
(a) pitch × no. of circular divisions
pitch
Q.13 In a screw gauge, the zero of main scale coincides with
(b) fifth division of circular scale in figure (i). The circular
no. of circular divisions
no. of circular divisions divisions of screw gauge are 50. It moves 0.5 mm on main
(c)
pitch scale in one rotation. The diameter of the ball in figure (ii)
pitch is
(d) mean distance between two consecutive legs of the spherometer
Q.9 The specific heat of a solid is determined by the method 0 10
5
0 30
25
known as 0 20
(a) the method of fusion

(b) the method of mixture
(c) the method of vaporisation Figure (i) Figure (ii)
(d) the method of cooling (a) 2.25 mm (b) 2.20 mm

Q.10 Which principle is involved in the experiment to determine (c) 1.20 mm (d) 1.25 mm
the specific heat of a liquid by the method of mixture ?
Q.14 A student performs an experiment for determination of
(a) Heat gained by solid = Heat lost by calorimeter and
liquid. æ 4p 2 l ö
(b) Heat lost by solid = Heat gained by calorimeter and gç= ÷ . The error in length l is Dl and in time T is DT
è T2 ø
liquid.
(c) Heat lost by solid and liquid = Heat gained by and n is number of times the reading is taken. The
calorimeter. measurement of g is most accurate for
(d) Heat gained by solid and calorimeter = Heat lost by Dl DT n
liquid. (a) 5 mm 0.2 sec 10
Q.11 Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover (b) 5 mm 0.2 sec 20
a distance of 1mm on its main scale. The total number of (c) 5 mm 0.1 sec 10
divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found (d) 1 mm 0.1 sec 50
RESPONSE 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
GRID 11. 12. 13. 14.

DPP/ P 31 3
Q.15 A student performs an experiment to determine the Young’s Vg (r1 – r2 ) Vgr1
modulus of a wire, exactly 2 m long, by Searle’s method. In (a) (b)
k k
a particular reading, the student measures the extension in Vg r1 Vg (r1 – r2 )
the length of the wire to be 0.8 mm with an uncertainty of ± (c) (d)
k k
0.05 mm at a load of exactly 1.0 kg. The student also Q.19 A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having densities
measures the diameter of the wire to be 0.4 mm with an r1 and, r2 respectively. A solid ball, made of a material of density
uncertainty of ± 0.01 mm. Take g = 9.8 m/s2 (exact). The r3 , is dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position
Young’s modulus obtained from the reading is shown in the figure.Which of the following is true for r1, r2and
(a) (2.0±0.3)×1011 N/m2 (b) (2.0 ± 0.2) × 1011 N/m2 r3?
(c) (2.0±0.1)×1011 N/m2 (d) (2.0 ± 0.05) × 1011 N/m2
(a) r3 < r1 < r2
r1
Q.16 Students I, II and III perform an experiment for measuring

the acceleration due to gravity (g) using a simple pendulum. (b) r1 > r3 > r2 r3
They use different lengths of the pendulum and /or record (c) r1 < r2 < r3
time for different number of oscillations. The observations (d) r1 < r3 < r2
are shown in the table. Q.20 A capillary tube (A) is dipped in water. Another identical
Least count for length = 0.1 cm tube (B) is dipped in a soap-water solution. Which of the
Least count for time = 0.1 s following shows the relative nature of the liquid columns
Student Length of the No. of Total time for Time in the two tubes?
pendulum (cm) oscillations (n) oscillations period (s) A B
(n) (s) A B
I 64.0 8 128.0 16.0

II 64.0 4 64.0 16.0 (a) (b)
III 20.0 4 36.0 9.0
If EI, EII and EIII are the percentage errors in g, i.e., A B A B
æ Dg ö
çè g ´ 100÷ø for students I, II and III, respectively, then (c) (d)
(a) EI = 0 (b) EI is minimum
(c) EI = EII (d) EII is maximum Q.21 Two wires are made of the same material and have the same
Q.17 If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density volume. However wire 1 has cross-sectional area A and
wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1
= 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid (density = 1.5
increases by Dx on applying force F, how much force is
kg/m 3 ), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount of energy?
(density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the same size in the same liquid (a) 4 F (b) 6 F (c) 9 F (d) 1 F
(a) 0.4 m/s (b) 0.133 m/s Q.22 The vernier constant of two vernier callipers A and B are
(c) 0.1 m/s (d) 0.2 m/s 0.01 cm and 0.01 mm respectively. Which one can measure
Q.18 A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of the length of an object more accurately?
density r1. It is falling through a liquid of density r2 (r2< (a) Vernier A (b) Vernier B
r1). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the (c) Accuracy in measurement does not depend on vernier
constant
ball that is proportional to the square of its speed v, i.e.,
(d) Both A and B are equally accurate.
Fviscous = –kv2 (k > 0). The terminal speed of the ball is
RESPONSE 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

GRID 20. 21. 22.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 31
Q.23 The acceleration due to gravity at a place can be determined (2) Distilled water should be avoided.
with the help of a simple pendulum. For this purpose (3) Distilled water should be added.
effective length of the pendulum is considered. If 'l' be (4) Dirty liquid should be used.
the length of the string and 'd' the diameter of the bob then Q.27 The temperature-time variation graphs, as obtained by four
the effective length is equal to students 1, 2, 3 and 4 are as shown. The graphs, likely to be
d d wrong are
(a) l + d (b) l + (c) l - (d) l – d
2 2 80 80
Q.24 If x, y, p and q represent the increase in length, the original 70 70
Temperature
Temperature
length of the experimental wire, load applied to the wire (1)
60
(2)
60
50 50
and area of cross-section of the wire respectively then 40 40
Young's modulus of the wire is given by 30 30
xy xp py pq 0 5 10 10 20 25 30 35 0 5 10 10 20 25 30 35
(a) pq
(b) yq (c) xq (d) xy 80 Time 80 Time
70 70
Temperature
Temperature
DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : In the following questions, (3)
60
(4)
60
50 50
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the 40 40
correct answers and mark it according to the following 30 30
codes: 0 5 10 10
Time
20 25 30 35 0 5 10 10 20
Time
25 30 35
Codes : DIRECTIONS (Q.28-Q.30) : Read the passage given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct and answer the questions that follows :
Q.25 What is the function of a screw gauge in the experiment of The internal radius of a 1m long resonance tube is measured as
determining Young's modulus of a wire ? 3 cm. A tuning fork of frequency 2000 Hz is used. The first
(1) It measures the extension in the wire. resonating length is measured as 4.6 cm and the second
(2) It measures the load applied. resonating length is measured as 14.0 cm.
(3) It measures the length of the wire. Q.28 Calculate the maximum percentage error in measurement
(4) It measures the diameter of the wire. of e.
Q.26 Consider the following statements regarding the (a) 3.33% (b) 2.23% (c) 4.33% (d) 5.33%
experiment to determine the surface tension of water by Q.29 Calculate the speed of sound at the room temperature.
capillary rise method. Choose the correct statements. (a) 275 m/s (b) 376 m/s (c) 356 m/s (d) 330 m/s
(1) Capillary tube should be clean and liquid should be Q.30 Calculate the end correction.
free from dirt and grease. (a) 0.2 cm (b) 0.3 cm (c) 0.1 cm (d) 0.4 cm
RESPONSE 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

GRID 28. 29. 30.

Attempted Correct

Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Electrostatics-1 (Coulomb's law, electric field, field lines, Gauss's law)
32
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.18) : There are 18 multiple choice 1 Q2 1 Q2

(c) 180o , o
(d) 180 , 4p Î 2
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 4p Î0 2 L2 0 L
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. Q.3 Electric charges of 1mC , -1mC and 2mC are placed in air at
Q.1 A total charge Q is broken in two parts Q1 and Q 2 and they the corners A,B and C respectively of an equilateral triangle
ABC having length of each side 10 cm. The resultant force
are placed at a distance R from each other. The maximum on the charge at C is
force of repulsion between them will occur, when (a) 0.9 N (b) 1.8N (c) 2.7 N (d) 3.6 N
Q Q Q 2Q Q.4 An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen
(a) Q 2 = , Q1 = Q - (b) Q2 = , Q1 = Q -
R R 4 3 atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The coulomb force
Q 3Q Q Q ur 1
(c) Q 2 = , Q1 = (d) Q1 = , Q2 = F between the two is (here K = )
4 4 2 2 4 p Î0
Q.2 Two small balls each having the charge + Q are suspended e r e2 r
2 2
e e2
by insulating threads of length L from a hook. This (a) - K 3 r$ (b) K 3 r (c) - K 3 r (d) K 2 r$
r r r r
arrangement is taken in space where there is no
gravitational effect, then the angle between the two Q.5 Equal charges q are 2placed at the four corners A2, B, C , D of a
o 1 Q 1 Q
suspensions and the tension in each thread will be (a) 180
square ,
of length a . The
2 magnitude ofothe
(b) 90 , force on the charge
4 p Î0 (2 L ) 4p Î0 L
2
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2 DPP/ P 32
at B will be of –3Q, it is
3q 2
q 2 (a) –E (b) E/3 (c) –3E (d) –E/3
(a) (b) Q.12 Charges q, 2q, 3q and 4q are placed at the corners A, B, C
4p Î0 a 2 p Î0 a 2
æ 1+ 2 2 ö q2
and D of a square as shown in the following figure. The
æ 1 ö q2
(c) çè ÷ (d) ç 2 + ÷ø direction of electric field at the centre of the square is
2 ø 4p Î0 a 2 è 2 4 p Î0 a 2 parallel to side.
Q.6 The charges on two spheres are +7mC and –5mC D C
(a) AB 4q 3q
respectively. They experience a force F. If each of them is
given an additional charge of –2mC, the new force of (b) CB
attraction will be O
(c) BD q 2q
(a) F (b) F/2 (c) F / 3 (d) 2F (d) AC A B
Q.7 Electric lines of force about negative point charge are Q.13 Three infinitely long non-conducting charge sheets are
(a) Circular, anticlockwise (b) Circular, clockwise placed as shown in figure. The electric field at point P is
(c) Radial, inward (d) Radial, outward 2s $
Q.8 Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a (a) k
e0 Z
charged body. If the electric field at A and B are E A and
2s $
(b) – k Z = 3a
EB respectively and if the distance between A and B is r then e0
P
(a) E A > EB 4s $ -2 s Z=a
(c) k
(b) E A < E B e0 x
E A B 4s $ Z=–a
(c) E A = B
r (d) – k
r e0
EB Q.14 Gauss's law is true only if force due to a charge varies as
(d) E A = 2 (a) r–1 (b) r–2 (c) r–3 (d) r–4
r
Q.9 The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that, Q.15 The electric intensity due to an infinite cylinder of radius
an electron placed in it would experience an electrical R and having charge q per unit length at a distance r(r > R)
force equal to its weight is given by from its axis is
e e2
(a) Directly proprotional to r2
mg
(a) mge (b) (c) mg (d) 2 g (b) Directly proprotional to r3
e m
(c) Inversely proprotional to r
Q.10 A charge particle is free to move in an electric field. It
(d) Inversely proprotional to r2
will travel
Q.16 A sphere of radius R has a uniform distribution of electric
(a) Always along a line of force
charge in its volume. At a distance x from its centre, for
(b) Along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero
x < R, the eletric field is directly proportional to
(c) Along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity in
the direction of an acute angle with the line of force 1 1
(d) None of the above (a) (b) (c) x (d) x2
x2 x
Q.11 Two point charges Q and –3Q are placed at some distance apart.
Q.17 A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which makes an
If the electric field at the location of Q is E then at the locality
angle q with a large charged conducting sheet P, as shown
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16.

DPP/ P 32 3
in the figure. The surface charge density s of the sheet is (3) If a uniform downward electric field is switched on, T will
proportional to increase
+ (4) If a uniform downward electric field is switched on,
(a) sin q +
P + T will decrease
(b) tan q + q
+ DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : Read the passage given below
(c) cos q + S
+ and answer the questions that follows :
(d) cot q B
Q.18 A charge q is placed at the centre of a cube. Then the flux A sphere of radius R contains charge density r (r ) = A( R - r ),
passing through one face of cube will be for 0 < r < R. The total electric charge inside the sphere is Q.
q q q q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Î0 2 Î0 4 Î 0 6 Î0 Q.21 The value of A in terms of Q and R is
DIRECTIONS (Q.19-Q.20) : In the following questions, 2Q 2 3Q 3Q 2 3Q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select pR 4 pR 4 pR 3 pR
the correct answers and mark it according to the following Q.22 The electric field inside the sphere is
codes:
12Q2 é 1 æ r ö 1 æ r ö ù
2
3Q é 1 æ r ö 1 æ r ö ù
2
Codes : (a) ê ç ÷- ç ÷ ú (b) ê ç ÷- ç ÷ ú
Î0 R 2 êë 3 è R ø 4 è R ø úû R3 êë 3 è R ø 4 è R ø úû
120Q é 1 æ r ö 1 æ r ö ù 12 é 1 æ r ö 1 æ r ö ù
2 2
(c) ê ç ÷ - ç ÷ ú (d) 2 ê ç ÷ - ç ÷ ú
Q.19 A solid sphere S1 is connected to a charge reservoir through 5 Î0 R 2 êë 4 è R ø 3 è R ø úû R Q êë 3 è R ø 4 è R ø úû
a heater H as shown in figure.
Q.23 The electric field outside the sphere is æç k =
S2 1 ö
S1
H è 4 p Î0 ÷ø
Solid Solid
Heater
sphere sphere kQ kQ kQ kQ 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Flux through a closed spherical surface around S1 is given r r2 r3 r2
by f = a t2 where a is a constant and t is time in seconds.
If resistance of heater is R then select correct statements DIRECTIONS (Q. 24-Q.26) : Each of these questions
(1) Power consumed by heater will be 4a2e02 Rt2. contains two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and
(2) Electric flux through a closed spherical surface around Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions has four
S2 will be – a t2. alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.
(3) Rate of change of electric flux through a closed You have to select the correct choice.
spherical surface around S2 will be –2a t (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
(4) All of the above are correct correct explanation for Statement-1.
Q.20 A simple pendulum has a time period T. The bob is now (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
given some positive charge – NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(1) If some positive charge is placed at the point of (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
suspension, T will increases (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(2) If some positive charge is placed at the point of
suspension, T will not change Q.24 Statement-1 : Electric lines of force cross each other.
Statement-2 : Electric field at a point superimpose to give
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23.

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4 DPP/ P 32
one resultant electric field. Q.26 Statement-1 : Direction of electric field at a point signifies
Q.25 Statement-1 : A point charge is brought in an electric field. The direction of force experienced by a point charge placed at
field at a nearby point will increase, whatever be the nature of that point.
the charge. Statement-2 : Electric field is a vector quantity.
Statement-2 : The electric field is dependent on the nature of
charge.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Electrostatics-2 (Electric potential and potential difference,

33
equipotential surfaces, electric dipole)

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.19) : There are 19 multiple choice Q2. Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), square of each side ' a ' . Work done in removing a charge
out of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. – Q from its centre to infinity is
Q1. In the electric field of a point charge q , a certain charge is 2Q2 2Q2 Q2
carried from point A to B, C, D and E. Then the work done (a) 0 (b) (c) (d)
4pÎ0 a pÎ0 a 2pÎ0 a
by electric force is Q3. A particle A has charge +q and a particle B has charge +4q
A
(a) least along the path AB with each of them having the same mass m. When allowed
(b) least along the path AD to fall from rest through the same electric potential
(c) zero along all the paths AB, vA
B
+q
E difference, the ratio of their speed will become
AC, AD and AE vB
C D (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(d) least along AE
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
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Q4. In the figure the charge Q is at the centre of the circle. Q9. Two electric charges 12µC and – 6µC are placed 20 cm
Work done (by electrostatic force on q) is maximum when apart in air. If there will be a point P on the line joining these
another charge q is taken from point P to (consider both charges and outside the region between them, at which the
the charges to be positive) electric potential is zero, then the distance of P from – 6µC
K
P charge is
(a) 0.10 m (b) 0.15 m (c) 0.20 m (d) 0.25 m
Q10. In the rectangle shown below, the two corners have charges
L
Q q1 = –5 mC and q2 = +2.0 mC. The work done by external
agent in moving a charge q = +3.0 mC slowly from B to A is
q1 A
M
N (Take 1/ 4pe 0 =1010 Nm2 /C2 )
(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N (a) 2.8 J
5 cm
Q5. How much kinetic energy will be gained by an a- particle (b) 3.5 J
in going from a point at 70V to another point at 50V ? (c) 4.5 J
(a) 40 eV (b) 40 keV (c) 40 MeV (d) 0 eV (d) 5.5 J B 15 cm
q 2
Q6. Ten electrons are equally spaced and fixed around a circle Q11. Electric charges q, q, –2q are placed at the corners of an
of radius R. Relative to V = 0 at infinity, the electrostatic equilateral triangle ABC of side l. The magnitude of electric
potential V and the electric field E at the centre C are dipole moment of the system is
ur ur
(a) V ¹ 0 and E ¹ 0 (b) V ¹ 0 and E = 0 (a) ql (b) 2ql (c) 3ql (d) 4ql
ur ur
(c) V = 0 and E = 0 (d) V = 0 and E ¹ 0 Q12. A charge (–q) and another charge (+Q) are kept at two
Q7. The displacement of a charge Q in the electric field points A and B respectively. Keeping the charge (+Q) fixed
ur r at B, the charge (–q) at A is moved to another point C such
E = e1i$ + e2 $j + e3 k$ is r = ai$ + b $j . The work done is that ABC forms an equilateral triangle of side l . The net
work done by electrostatic field in moving the charge (–q)
(a) Q ( ae1 + be2 ) (b) Q ( ae1 )2 + (be2 )2 is
æ 2 2ö 1 Qq 1 Qq
(c) Q ( e1 + e2 ) a 2 + b 2 (d) Q ç e1 + e2 ÷ ( a + b ) (a) 4pÎ0 l (b) 4pÎ 2
è ø 0 l
Q8. As shown in the figure, charges + q and -q are placed at 1
(c) Qql (d) zero
the vertices B and C of an isosceles triangle. The potential 4p Î0
at the vertex A is Q13. In an hydrogen atom, the electron revolves around the
nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.53 × 10–10m. Then the
1 2q
. A electrical potential produced by the nucleus at the position
(a) 4pe0 a 2 + b2 of the electron is
(b) Zero (a) –13.6V (b) –27.2V (c) 27.2V (d) 13.6V
a
1 q Q14. Point charge q1 = 2mC and q 2 = -1mC are kept at points x =
(c) . b b
4pe0 a 2 + b2 B C 0 and x = 6 respectively. Electrical potential will be zero at
+q –q
points
(d)
1 ( -q ) (a) x = 2 and x = 9 (b) x = 1 and x = 5
.
4pe0 a 2 + b2 (c) x = 4 and x = 12 (d) x = -2 and x = 2
4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
RESPONSE
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
GRID
14.

DPP/ P 33 3
Q15. The distance between H+ and Cl– ions in HCl molecule is 1.28 DIRECTIONS (Q.20-Q.21) : In the following questions,
Å. What will be the potential due to this dipole at a distance of more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
12 Å on the axis of dipole correct answers and mark it according to the following
(a) 0.13 V (b) 1.3 V (c) 13 V (d) 130 V codes:
Q16. Two identical thin rings each of radius R metres are
coaxially placed at a distance R metres apart. If Q1 coulomb Codes :
and Q2 coulomb are respectively the charges uniformly (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
spread on the two rings, the work done by external agent in (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
moving a charge q slowly from the centre of ring with q q 2q
Q20. Consider a system of three charges , and - placed at
charge Q1 to that of other is 3 3 3
point A, B and C respectively, as shown in the figure. Take
q(Q2 - Q1 )( 2 - 1)
(a) zero (b) O to be the centre of the circle of radius R and angle
2.4 p Î0 R CAB = 60°. Choose the incorrect options
q 2(Q1 + Q2 ) q (Q1 + Q2 )( 2 + 1) q
(c) (d) (1) The electric field at point O is
4p Î0 R 4p Î0 R 8pe 0 R 2 y
Q17. Identical point charges, each having + q charge, are fixed directed along the negative x-axis B
at each of the points x = x0 , x = 3x0 , x = 5 x0 ......... (2) The potential energy of the
C
infinite, on the x-axis and a identical point charges, each system is zero O
x
having -q charge, ar e fixed at each of the points

60°
q
(3) The potential at point O is A
x = 2 x0 , x = 4 x0 , x = 6 x0 ... .... i nfinit e. Her e x0 is a 12pe 0 R
positive constant. Potential at the origin due to the above (4) The magnitude of the force between the charges at C
system of charges is q2
and B is
q 54pe 0 R 2
(a) 0 (b)
8pÎ0 x0 ln 2 Q21. For spherical symmetrical charge distribution, variation
q ln 2 of electric potential with distance from centre is given in
(c) ¥ (d)
4pÎ0 x0 q q
diagram. Given that : V = for r £ R0 and V =
Q18. A uniform electric field pointing in positive x - direction 4pe 0 R 0 4 pe 0r
V
exists in a region. Let A be the origin, B be the point on the for r ³ R0
x - axis at x = +1 cm and C be the point on the y - axis at Then which option (s) are correct :
y = +1 cm. Then the potentials at the points A, B and C (1) Total charge within 2R0 is q
(2) Total electrostatic energy r
satisfy
for r £ R0 is non-zero r = R0
(a) VA < VB (b) VA > VB (c) VA < VC (d) VA > VC (3) At r = R0 electric field is discontinuous
Q19. A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of an electrical (4) There will be no charge anywhere except at r < R0.
dipole of dipole moment p . If the distance of Q from the
dipole is r (much larger than the size of the dipole), then
electric field at Q is proportional to
(a) P–1and r –2 (b) p and r–2 An electric dipole (AB) consisting of two particles of equal and
opposite charge and same mass is released in an electric field.
(c) P2 and r–3 (d) p and r–3
In the figure field lines are without considering effect of field
of dipole.
RESPONSE 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

GRID 20. 21.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 33
B +q two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
y
–q only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
A correct choice.
x
Q22. The centre of mass of the dipole (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(a) Has no acceleration NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(b) Has acceleration with positive x and y components (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(c) Has acceleration with positive x component and nega- (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
tive y component Q24. Statement -1 : A bird perches on a high power line and
(d) Has acceleration with negative x component and posi- nothing happens to the bird.
tive y component Statement -2 : The level of bird is very high from the
Q23. Angular acceleration of the dipole, immediately after it is ground.
released Q25. Statement -1 : Electrons move away from a low potential
(a) is zero to high potential region.
(b) is clockwise Statement- 2 : Because electrons have negative charge
(c) is anticlockwise Q26. Statement -1 : Surface of a symmetrical conductor can
(d) cannot be determined from the given information. be treated as equipotential surface.
Statement -2 : Charges can easily flow in a conductor.
RESPONSE GRID 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : ELECTROSTATICS -3 (Electrostatic Potential energy, conductors)

34
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.16) : There are 16 multiple choice 1 q2 1 2q 2

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (a) (b)
4pÎ0 l 4pÎ0 l
1 3q 2 1 4q 2
Q.1 Three charges Q, + q and + q are placed at the vertices of (c) 4pÎ0 l
(d) 4pÎ0 l
right-angled isosceles triangle as shown in the figure. The
Q.3 If identical charges (-q) are placed at each corner of a cube
net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero if Q is
equal to Q of side b , then electric potential energy of charge
(+q) which is placed at centre of the cube will be
-q -2q
(a) (b) 8 2q2 -8 2q 2
1+ 2 2+ 2 (a) (b)
(c) –2q (d) + q
+q +q 4pÎ0 b p Î0 b
a
Q.2 Three charges of equal value ‘q’ are placed at the vertices -4 2q 2 -4q2
of an equilateral triangle. What is the net potential energy, (c) (d)
pÎ0 b 3pÎ0 b
if the side of equilateral Dis l ?
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Q.4 Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart, shown in (a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains unchanged (d) becomes zero
the figure. A third charge q3 is moved along the arc of a Q.9 Two identical charges are placed at the two corners of an
circle of radius 40 cm from C to D. The change in the equilateral triangle. The potential energy of the system is
U. The work done in bringing an identical charge from
q3
potential energy of the system is k , here k is infinity to the third vertex is
4pÎ0 (a) U (b) 2U (c) 3U (d) zero
(a) 8q2 q3
Q.10 Potential energy of two equal negative point charges 2mC
C held 1 m apart in air is
(b) 8q1 (a) 2 J (b) 2eV (c) 4 J (d) 0.036 J
(c) 6q2 40 cm
Q.11 Four charges + q, –q, + q and –q are put together on four
q2
corners of a square as shown in figure. The work done by
(d) 6q1 q1
D
external agent in slowly assembling this configuration is
A 30 cm B
+q –q
Q.5 Three particles, each having a charge of 10mC are placed

at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm. The
electrostatic potential energy of the system is (Given
–q +q
1
= 9 ´109 N m 2 /C2 ) (a) zero (b) –2.59kq2/a
4p Î0
(c) +2.59kq2/a (d) none of these
(a) Zero (b) Infinite (c) 27 J (d) 100 J Q.12 As shown in figure a dust particle with mass m = 5.0 × 10 –9
Q.6 Two equal charges q are placed at a distance of 2a and a kg and charge q0 = 2.0 nC starts from rest at point a and
third charge -2q is placed at the midpoint. The potential moves in a straight line to point b . What is its speed v at
point b?
energy of the system is
3.0 nC a b –3.0 nC
q2 6q 2 –
(a) (b) 1.0 cm 1.0 cm 1.0 cm
8p Î0 a 8p Î0 a
7 q2 9q 2 (a) 26 ms–1 (b) 34 ms–1 (c) 46 ms–1 (d) 14 ms–1

(c) – (d)
8p Î0 a 8p Î0 a Q.13 Charges –q, Q and –q are placed at equal distance on a
Q.7 An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge is q and straight line. If the total potential energy of the system of
its dipole moment is p . It is placed in a uniform electric three charges is zero, then find the ratio Q/q.
–q –q
field E. If its dipole moment is along the direction of the Q
r r
field, the force on it and its potential energy are
2r
respectively
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 2/3 (d) 3/4
(a) 2q.E and minimum (b) q.E and p.E Q.14 When the separation between two charges is increased,
(c) Zero and minimum (d) q.E and maximum the electric potential energy of the charges
Q8 In bringing an electron towards another electron, (a) increases (b) decreases
electrostatic potential energy of the system: (c) remains the same (d) may increase or decrease
4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
RESPONSE
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
GRID
14.

DPP/ P 34 3
Q.15 A positive charge is moved from a low potential point A to Q.18 A proton moves a distance d in a uniform electric field
high potential point B. Then the electric potential energy ®
E as shown in the figure. Then which of the following
of the system statements are correct ?
(a) increases ®
(b) decreases E
(c) will remain the same
(d) nothing definite can be predicted +
Q.16 If V and u are electric potential and energy density, p
respectively, at a distance r from a positive point charge, d
then which of the following graph is correct ? (1) Electric field do a negative work on the proton
4 4
V V (2) Electric potential energy of the proton increases
(3) Electric field do a positive work on the proton
(a) (b)
(4) Electric potential energy of the proton decreases
u u
V
4
V
4 DIRECTIONS (Q.19-Q.21) : Read the passage given below
(c) (d) Three concentric spherical conductors A, B and C of radii R, 2R
u u
and 4R respectively. A and C is shorted and B is uniformly
DIRECTIONS (Q.17-Q.18) : In the following questions, charged.
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the C
B +
correct answers and mark it according to the following +
+ +
+
A
codes: + +
+ +
Codes : 4R +
+
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct R +
+
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct +
2R +
+
+
Q.17 S is a solid neutral conducting sphere. A point charge q of + +
1 × 10–6 C is placed at point A. C is the centre of sphere Q.19 Charge on conductor A is

and AB is a tangent. BC = 3m and AB = 4m. (a) Q/3 (b) – Q/3
A B (c) 2Q/3 (d) None of these
Q.20 Potential at A is
Q Q
(a) (b)
4pe 0 R 16 pe0 R
S Q
20pe0 R
(1) The electric potential of the conductor is 1.8 kV
Q.21 Potential at B is
(2) The electric potential of the conductor is 2.25 kV
Q Q
(3) The electric potential at B due to induced charges on (a) (b)
the sphere is – 0.45 kV 4 pe 0 R 16 pe0 R
(4) The electric potential at B due to induced charges on 5Q
the sphere is 0.45 kV 48pe0 R
RESPONSE 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

GRID 20. 21.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 34
DIRECTIONS (Q. 22-Q.24) : Each of these questions contains Statement-2 : Inside the sphere electric potential is same
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 at each point, but outside it is different for different points.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Q.23 Statement-1 : Electric potential of earth is taken to be
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the zero as a reference.
correct choice. Statement-2 : The electric field produced by earth in
surrounding space is zero.
Q.24 Statement - 1 : The electric potential and the electric field
intensity at the centre of a square having four fixed point
charges at their vertices as shown in figure are zero.
(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. +q –q
Q.22 Statement-1 : No work is done in taking a small positive
charge from one point to other inside a positively charged
metallic sphere while outside the sphere work is done in
taking the charge towards the sphere. Neglect induction
–q +q
due to small charge.
Statement - 2 : If electric potential at a point is zero then
the magnitude of electric field at that point must be zero.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : ELECTROSTATICS-4 (Capacitors, dielectrics)

35
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.15) : There are 15 multiple choice e0 AV 2e0 AV e0 AV 2e0 AV

(a) , (b) ,
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 2d 2d 2d 2d
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. e 0 AV -2e0 AV
(c) ,
Q.1 A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential d d –
1 2 3 4 5
difference of 50V. It is discharged through a resistance. -e 0 AV -2e0 AV +
V
After 1 second, the potential difference between plates (d) ,

d d
becomes 40V. Then Q.3 Figure given below shows two identical parallel plate capacitors
(a) Fraction of stored energy after 1 second is 16/25 connected to a battery with switch S closed. The switch is now opened
(b) Potential difference between the plates after 2 and the free space between the plates of capacitors is filled with a
seconds will be 30V dielectric of dielectric constant 3. What will be the ratio of total
(c) Potential difference between the plates after 2 electrostatic energy stored in both capacitors before and after the
seconds will be 20V introduction of the dielectric?
(d) Fraction of stored energy after 1 second is 4/5 (a) 3:1
Q.2 Five identical plates each of area A are joined as shown in
(b) 5:1 V A B
the figure. The distance between the plates is d. The plates
are connected to a potential difference of V volts. The (c) 3:5
charge on plates 1 and 4 will be respectively (d) 5:3
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 35
Q.4 All six capacitors shown are identical, Each can withstand 2e 0 A
(a) ( K1 + K2 )
maximum 200 volts between its terminals. The maximum d
voltage that can be safely applied between A and B is 2e0 A æ K1 + K 2 ö
(a) 1200 V (b) ç ÷
d è K1 ´ K2 ø K1
(b) 400 V A B
d
(c) 800 V 4e0 A æ K1 ´ K 2 ö K2
(c) ç ÷
(d) 200 V d è K1 + K 2 ø
Q.5 A capacitor of capacity C1 is charged upto V volt and then 2e0 A æ K1 ´ K 2 ö
connected to an uncharged capacitor of capacity C2. Then (d) ç ÷
d è K1 + K 2 ø
final potential difference across each will be Q.10 Eight drops of mercury of equal radii possessing equal
C2V æ C2 ö C1V æ C2 ö charges combine to form a big drop. Then the capacitance
(a) C1 + C2
(b) çè 1 + C ÷ø V (c) C + C (d) çè 1 - C ÷ø V of bigger drop compared to each individual small drop is
1 1 2 1
Q.6 Two capacitors of capacitances 3mFand 6mFare charged to a (a) 8 times (b) 4 times
potential of 12V each. They are now connected to each other, (c) 2 times (d) 32 times
with the positive plate of each joined to the negative plate Q.11 Separation between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor
of the other. The potential difference across each will be is d and the area of each plate is A. When a slab of material
(a) 6 volt (b) 4 volt of dielectric constant k and thickness t(t < d) is introduced
(c) 3 volt (d) zero between the plates, its capacitance becomes
Q.7 In the figure a capacitor is filled with dielectrics K1, K2 e0 A e0 A
(a) (b) æ 1ö
and K3. The resultant capacitance is æ 1ö
d + t ç1 - ÷ d + t ç1 + ÷
è kø è kø
2e 0 A é 1 1 1 ù A/2 A/2
(a) ê + + ú (c)
e0 A
(d)
e0 A
d ë K1 K 2 K3 û d/2 K1 æ 1ö æ 1ö
d d - t ç1 - ÷ d - t ç1 + ÷
e0 A é 1 1 1 ù K3
è kø è kø
(b) ê + + ú K2
Q.12 There is an air filled 1pF parallel plate capacitor. When
d ë K1 K 2 K3 û
the plate separation is doubled and the space is filled with
2e 0 A
(c) [ K1 + K2 + K3 ] wax, the capacitance increases to 2pF. The dielectric
d
(d) None of these constant of wax is
Q.8 The resultant capacitance of given circut is (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
Q.13 Between the plates of a parallel plate condenser, a plate of
(a) 3C P
2C
thickness t1 and dielectric constant k1 is placed. In the rest
(b) 2C 2C
of the space, there is another plate of thickness t 2 and
(c) C 2C
dielectric constant k2 . The potential difference across the
C
C C C condenser will be
(d)
3 Q
Q æ t1 t ö e 0Q æ t1 t ö
Q.9 Two dielectric slabs of constant K1 and K2 have been filled (a) ç + 2 ÷ (b) ç + 2 ÷
Ae0 è K1 K 2 ø A è K1 K 2 ø
in between the plates of a capacitor as shown below. What
will be the capacitance of the capacitor Q æ K1 K 2 ö e0 Q
(c) ç + ÷ (d) ( K1t1 + K 2 t2 )
Ae0 è t1 t2 ø A
RESPONSE 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
GRID 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

DPP/ P 35 3
Q.14 A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery Q.18 The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser depends on
is then disconnected. If the plates of the capacitor are moved (1) Area of the plates
further apart by means of insulating handles, then (2) Medium between the plates
(a) The charge on the capacitor increases (3) Distance between the plates
(b) The voltage across the plates decreases (4) Metal of the plates
(c) The capacitance increases
(d) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor DIRECTIONS (Q.19-Q.21) : Read the passage given below and
increases answer the questions that follows :
Q.15 A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plates separation Capacitor C3 in the circuit is variable capacitor (its capacitance
distance d is charged by applying a potential V0 between the can be varied). Graph is plotted between potential difference V1
plates. The dielectric constant of the medium between the (across capacitor C1) versus C3.
plates is K. What is the uniform electric field E between the Electric potential V1 approaches on asymptote of 10 volts as
plates of the capacitor ? C3 ® ¥.
V1
CV0 V0
(a) E = Î0 (b) E= 10
KA Kd C1 8
6
V0 Kv 0 d V 4
C2 C3
(c) E= (d) E = 2
KA Î0 A C3
2 4 6 8
C1
than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct Q.19 The ratio of the capacitance will be
answers and mark it according to the following codes: C2
(a) 2 / 3 (b) 4 / 3 (c) 3 / 4 (d) 3 / 2
Codes : Q.20 The value of C3 for which potential difference across C1
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct will become 8V, is
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (a) 1.5C1 (b) 2.5C1 (c) 3.5 C1 (d) 4.5 C1
Q.16 A parallel plate air condenser is connected with a battery. Q.21 The ratio of energy stored in capacitor C1 to that of total
Its charge, potenital difference, electric field and energy are energy when C3 ® ¥ is
Q0 , V0 , E0 , and U0 , respectively. In order to fill the complete (a) zero (b) 1/3
space between the plates a dielectric slab is inserted, the (c) 1 (d) Data insufficient
battery is still connected. Now the corresponding values Q,
V, E and U are in relation with the initially stated as DIRECTIONS (Q. 22-Q.24) : Each of these questions contains
(1) V > V0 (2) Q > Q0 (3) E > E0 (4) U > U0 two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
Q.17 The false statement are, on increasing the distance between (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
the plates of a parallel plate condenser, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
(1) The electric field intensity between the plates will correct choice.
decrease
(2) The electric field intensity between the plates will
increase
(3) The P. D. between the plates will decrease
(4) The electric field intensity between the plates will NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
remain unchanged (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
RESPONSE 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.

GRID 19. 20. 21.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 35
Q.22 Statement-1 : The force with which one plate of a parallel Statement-2 : The capacitors are very delicate and so quickly
plate capacitor is attracted towards the other plate is equal break down.
to square of surface density per 2 Î0 per unit area. Q.24 Statement-1 : If the distance between parallel plates of a
Statement-2 : The electric field due to one charged plate capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is made three
of the capacitor at the location of the other is equal to times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
surface density per 2 Î0. Statement-1 : Capacitance of the capacitor does not
Q.23 Statement-1 : Circuit containing capacitors should be depend upon the nature of the material of plates.
handled cautiously even when there is no current.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : CURRENT ELECTRICITY – 1 (Electric Current, drift velocity, Ohm's law, Electrical resistance,
36
Resistances of different materials, V-I characteristics of Ohm and non-ohmic conductors, electrical energy and power,
Electrical resistivity, Colour code of resistors, Temperature dependance of resistance)
1W 1W 1W 1W
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.14) : There are 14 multiple choice (a) 4 W A
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (b) 8 W
2W 1W
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (c) 6 W 2W 2W
Q.1 In the following fig. the ratio of current in 3W and 1W (d) 2 W B

resistances is– Q.3 How will reading in the ammeter Switch
3W A be affected if an other
(a) 1/3 identical bulb Q is connected in Mains
3A 1W P Q
(b) 2/3 parallel to P as shown in the fig.
X Y Z
(c) 1 The voltage in the mains is
6W maintained at constant value A
(d) 2 (a) the reading will be reduced to one half.
Q.2 The resultant resistance between the points A and B in the (b) the reading will be double of previous one.
following fig. will be – (c) the reading will not be affected.
(d) the reading will increase four fold.
EBD_7156
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Q.4 In the circuit shown, the galvanometer G reads zero. If Q.10 In the fig. shown, Calculate the current through 3 ohm
batteries have negligible internal resistances, the value of resistor. The emf of battery is 2 volt and its internal
resistance X wil be – resistance is 2/3 ohm.
(a) 10 W
(b) 100 W
(c) 200 W
(d) 500 W
Q.5 A cylindrical wire is stretched to increase its length by
10%. The percentage increase in the resistance of the wire (a) 0.33 amp. (b) 0.44 amp.
will be– (c) 1.22 amp. (d) 0.88 amp.
(a) 20% (b) 21% (c) 22% (d) 24% Q.11 The current in the given circuit will be
Q.6 In the figure, the equivalent resistance between A and B is–
1
(a) 2R/3 (a) A
45 i
(b) R/3 1
(c) R (b) A 30 W
15 2V 30 W
(d) 3R 1
(c) A
Q.7 In the adjoining network of resistors, each is of resistance 10 30 W
r ohm, the equivalent resistance between points A and B is–
(a) 5r 1
(d) A
5
(b) 2r/3 Q.12 The equivalent resistance of the following infinite network
(c) r of resistance is
(d) r/2. 2W 2W 2W
Q.8 In the figure a carbon resistor has bands of different
2W 2W 2W
colours on its body as mentioned in the figure. The value
of the resistance is Silver
(a) 2.2 k W 2W 2W 2W
(b) 3.3 k W (a) Less than 4 W
(c) 5.6 k W (b) 4W
White
(d) 9.1 k W Brown Red (c) More than 4W but less than 12W
Q.9 Two wires of same material have length L and 2L and cross- (d) 12 W
sectional areas 4A and A respectively. The ratio of their Q.13 A heater coil connected to a supply of a 220 V is dissipating
specific resistance would be some power P1. The coil is cut into half and the two halves
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 8 : 1 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 1 : 1 are connected in parallel. The heater now dissipates a power
P2. The ratio of power P1 : P2 is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
RESPONSE 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
GRID 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

DPP/ P 36 3
Q.14 An electric lamp is marked 60 W, 230 V. The cost of a 1 (1) The potential difference across RL is 18 V
kWh of energy is ` 1.25. The cost of using this lamp 8 hrs (2) The current I through the battery is 7.5 mA
a day for 30 days is (approximately) (3) Ratio of powers dissipated in R1 and R2 is 3
(a) ` 10 (b) ` 16 (c) ` 18 (d) ` 20 (4) If R1 and R2 are interchanged magnitude of the power
dissipated in RL will decrease by a factor of 9
more than one .of the answers given are correct. Select the DIRECTIONS (Q.18-Q.20) : Read the passage given below
correct answers and mark it according to the following and answer the questions that follows :
codes: In the circuit shown in the figure,
Codes : 1W 12 V
Q.15 In the fig below the bulbs are identical, The bulbs, light
most brightly are
5W
E F Q.18 Rate of conversion of chemical energy within the battery
is
(a) 24 W (b) 20 W (c) 4 W (d) 14 W
A
B C Q.19 Rate of dissipation of electrical energy in battery is
(a) 24 W (b) 20 W (c) 4 W (d) 14 W
Q.20 Rate of dissipation of electrical energy in external resistor
P D Q
is
(a) 4 W (b) 20 W (c) 14 W (d) 24 W
(1) A (2) B (3) F (4) D DIRECTIONS (Q. 21-Q.23) : Each of these questions contains
Q.16 An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of the two statements': Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
coils is switched on, the water begins to boil in 6 minutes. (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
When the other is switched on, the boiling begins in 8 only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
minutes. The time when the boiling begin if both coils are correct choice.
switched on simultaneously is (i) in series (ii) in
parallel (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
(1) 14 min in series (2) 3.43 min in parallel correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) 3.43 min in series (4) 14 min in parallel (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
Q.17 For the circuit shown in the figure NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Q.21 Statement-1 : The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases
with temperature.
Statement-2 : The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with
larger amplitude at higher temperatures thereby increasing
its resistivity.
RESPONSE 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.

GRID 19. 20. 21.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 36
Q.22 Statement-1 : In a simple battery circuit the point of lowest Q.23 Statement-1 : The temperature coefficient of resistance is
potential is negative terminal of the battery. positive for metals and negative for p-type semiconductor.
Statement-2 : The current flows towards the point of the Statement-2 : The effective charge carriers in metals are
higher potential as it flows in such a circuit from the negatively charged whereas in p-type semiconductor they
negative to the positive terminal. are positively charged.
RESPONSE GRID 22. 23.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
37
SYLLABUS : CURRENT ELECTRICITY – 2 Electrical cell and its internal resistance, Potential difference and E.M.F
of a cell, Combination of cells in series and in parallel, Kirchoff's laws and their applications, RC transient circuit,
Galvanometer, Ammeter, Voltmeter]
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.18) : There are 18 multiple choice (a) G/10 (b) G/100 (c) G/99 (d) G/999
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out Q.3 The shunt required for 10% of main current to be sent
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. through the moving coil galvanometer of resistance 99W
will be-
Q.1 The voltmeter shown in fig, reads 6V across the 60 W
(a) 0.9 W (b) 11 W (c) 90 W (d) 9.9 W
resistor. Then the resistance of the voltmeter is-
Q.4 The reading of voltmeter in the following circuit will be-
(a) 0 W
(b) ¥ W 20 W 80 W
(c) 200 W
V
(d) 300 W
®
80 W
Q.2 If only one hundredth part of total current flowing in the
+ –
circuit is to be passed through a galvanometer of resistance 2V
GW, Then the value of shunt resistance required will be- (a) 2 volt (b) 0.80 volt (c) 1.33 volt (d) 1.60 volt
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 37
Q.5 The figure below shows currents in a part of electric circuit. Q.11 To get the maximum current from a parallel combination
The current i is 2 amp 1 amp of n identical cells each of internal resistance r in an
(a) 1.7 amp external resistance R,
(b) 3.7 amp 1.3 amp (a) R >> r (b) R << r (c) R > r (d) R = r
(c) 1.3 amp 2 amp Q.12 In the circuit shown below, if the value of R is increased
(d) 1 amp then what will be the effect on the reading of ammeter if
i
the internal resistance of cell is negligible-
Q.6 A voltmeter can measure upto 25 volt and its resistance is
1000 W. The resistance required to add with voltmeter to
measure upto 250 volt will be-
(a) 9000 W (b) 1000 W (c) 2500 W (d) 900 W
Q.7 When a Laclanche cell is connected to a 10W resistance
then a current of 0.25 ampere flows in the circuit. If the (a) The reading of ammeter will decrease
resistance is reduced to 4W then current becomes (b) The reading of ammeter will increase
0.5ampere. The internal resistance of galvanometer will be- (c) The reading of ammeter will remain unchanged
(a) 1.5 W (b) 0.5 W (c) 1 W (d) 2 W (d) The reading of ammeter will become zero.
Q.8 Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The value of Q.13 Twelve wires of equal length and same cross-section are
current I3 is connected in the form of a cube. If the resistance of each
28 W 54 W
(a) 5 A B of the wires is R, then the effective resistance between
the two diagonal ends would be
(b) 3 A (a) 2 R
6V
(c) – 3 A I3 (b) 12 R
(d) – 5/6 A 5
8V 12 V (c) R
6
Q.9 If VB – VA = 4 V in the given figure, then resistance X will
(d) 8 R
be
Q.14 The arrangement as shown in figure is called as
10 W 5V
(a) 5 W
(a) Potential divider ( )
(b) 10 W A B (b) Potential adder
Total P.D.
(c) 15 W
(c) Potential substracter
2V X
(d) 20 W
(d) Potential multiplier Variable P.D.
Q.10 In the given circuit the current I1 is
Q.15 When a cell of emf E and internal resistance r, is connected
(a) 0.4 A to the ends of a resistance R, then current through
30 W
I1 resistance is I. If the same cell is connected to the ends of
(b) – 0.4 A a resistance R/2 then the current would be-
I2
40 W 40 V I3 (a) less than I
(c) 0.8 A (b) I
40 W
(c) greater then I but less than 2I
(d) – 0.8 A 80 V
(d) greater than 2I
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15.

DPP/ P 37 3
Q.16 The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is Q.21 A microammeter has a resistance of 100W and a full scale
(a) Zero (b) Very low range of 50 µA. It can be used as a voltmeter or a higher
(c) Very large (d) Infinite range ammeter provided a resistance is added to it. Pick
Q.17 An ammeter with internal resistance 90 W reads 1.85 A the correct range and resistance combination(s).
when connected in a circuit containing a battery and two (1) 10V range with 200 kW resistance in series.
resistors 700 W and 410 W in series. Actual current will (2) 50V range with 10 kW resistance in series.
be (3) 5 mA range with 1W resistance in parallel.
(a) 1.85 A (b) Greater than 1.85 A (4) 10 mA range with 1 kW resistance in parallel.
(c) Less than 1.85 A (d) None of these
Q.18 The figure shows a network of currents. The magnitude of DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.23) : Read the passage given below
currents is shown here. The current I will be and answer the questions that follows :
1A A 6V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected across
a uniform wire AB of length 100cm. The positive terminal of
another battery of emf 4V and internal resistance 1W is joined
10 A I to the point A as shown in figure. Take the potential at B to be
zero.
6A 6V
2A
A B
(a) 3 A (b) 9 A D C
(c) 13 A (d) 19 A
4V 1
DIRECTIONS (Q.19-Q.21) : In the following questions, Q.22 What are the potentials at points A and C ?
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the (a) 6V, 2V (b) 8V, 4V
correct answers and mark it according to the following (c) 6V, 4V (d) 8V, 3V
codes: Q.23 If the points C and D are connected by a wire, what will be
Codes : the current through it ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (a) zero (b) 1A
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (c) 2A (d) 3A
Q.19 In the figure,
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24-Q.26) : Each of these questions contains
X E r Y two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
15 V 6V (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
(1) current may flow from X to Y only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
(2) current may flow from Y to X correct choice.
(3) current’s direction depends on E (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
(4) current’s direction depends on r correct explanation for Statement-1.
Q.20 Kirchoff’s laws are based on conservation of (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(1) charge (2) potential NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) energy (4) mass (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
RESPONSE 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

GRID 21. 22. 23.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 37
Q.24 Statement -1 : Voltameter measures current more Q.26 Statement - 1 : In the circuit shown, Vab or Va – Vb = 0,
accurately than ammeter. if
I = 2A.
Statement -2 : Relative error will be small if measured
from voltameter.
a 4V 2 b
Q.25 Statement - 1 : A larger dry cell has higher emf.
Statement - 2 : Potential difference across the
Statement - 2 : The emf of a dry cell is independent of its size. terminals of a non ideal battery is less than its emf when a
current flows through it.

Attem pted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : CURRENT ELECTRICITY-3 : Wheatstone bridge, Meter bridge, Potentiometer-principle and its
38
applications.
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.16) : There are 16 multiple choice Q.3 In a potentiometer experiment the balancing with a cell is
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out at length 240 cm. On shunting the cell with a resistance of
2 W, the balancing length becomes 120 cm. The internal
resistance of the cell is
Q.1 A Potentiometer wire of length 1 m is connected in series (a) 4 W (b) 2 W (c) 1 W (d) 0.5 W
with 490 W resistance and 2V battery. If 0.2 mV/cm is the Q.4 A potentiometer consists of a wire of length 4 m and
potential gradient, then resistance of the potentiometer resistance 10 W . It is connected to cell of emf 2 V. The
wire is potential difference per unit length of the wire will be
(a) 4.9 W (b) 7.9 W (c) 5.9 W (d) 6.9 W (a) 0.5 V/m (b) 10 V/m (c) 2 V/m (d) 5 V/m
Q.2 Two resistances are connected in two gaps of a metre Q.5 In given figure, the potentiometer wire AB has a resistance
bridge. The balance point is 20 cm from the zero end. A of 5 W and length 10 m. The balancing length AM for the
resistance of 15 ohms is connected in series with the emf of 0.4 V is
smaller of the two. The null point shifts to 40 cm. The (a) 0.4 m
(b) 4 m
value of the smaller resistance in ohm is
(c) 0.8 m
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12 (d) 8 m
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 38
Q.6 In the circuit shown in the figure, the current flowing in (a) 33.3 cm (b) 66.67 cm (c) 25 cm (d) 50 cm
2W resistance Q.12 A potentiometer has uniform potential gradient across it.
10 W 2W
(a) 1.4 A Two cells connected in series (i) to support each other
1.4 A and (ii) to oppose each other are blanced over 6m and 2m
(b) 1.2 A G
respectively on the potentiometer wire. The e.m.f’s of the
(c) 0.4 A cells are in the ratio of
25 W 5W
(d) 1.0 A (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
Q.7 For the post office box arrangement to determine the value Q.13 In a potentiometer experiment two cells of e.m.f E1 and E2
of unknown resistance the unknown resistance should be are used in series and in conjunction and the balancing
connected between length is found to be 58 cm of the wire. If the polarity of
E2 is reversed, then the balancing length becomes 29 cm.
E1
The ratio E of the e.m.f. of the two cells is
2
(a) 1:1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
Q.14 The resistance of a 10 meter long potentiometer wire is
1 ohm/metre. A cell of e.m.f. 2.2 volts and a high resistance
box are connected in series with this wire. The value of
(a) B and C (b) C and D (c) A and D (d) B1and C1 resistance taken from resistance box for getting potential
Q.8 The e.m.f. of a standard cell balances across 150 cm length gradient of 2.2 millivolt/metre will be
of a wire of potentiometer. When a resistance of 2W is (a) 790 W (b) 810 W (c) 990 W (d) 1000 W
connected as a shunt with the cell, the balance point is Q.15 In the shown arrangement of the experiment of the meter
obtained at 100 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is bridge if AC correspondin g to null deflection of
(a) 0.1 W (b) 1W (c) 2W (d) 0.5W galvanometer is x, what would be its value if the radius of
Q.9 Five resistors are connected as shown in the diagram. The the wire AB is doubled
equivalent resistance between A and B is C
(a) 6 W 5W 4W
(b) 9 W 9W R1 R2
A B
(c) 12 W 10 W 8W
(d) 15 W D G
Q.10 A potentiometer has uniform potential gradient. The B
A x C
specific resistance of the material of the potentiometer
wire is 10–7 ohm-meter and the current passing through it (a) x (b) x / 4 (c) 4x (d) 2x
is 0.1 ampere; cross-section of the wire is 10–6m2. The Q.16 In meter bridge or Wheatstone bridge for measurement of
potential gradient along the potentiometer wire is resistance, the known and the unknown resistances are
(a) 10–4 V/m (b) 10–6 V/m interchanged. The error so removed is
–2
(c) 10 V/m (d) 10–8 V/m (a) End correction
Q.11 Resistance in the two gaps of a meter bridge are 10 ohm (b) Index error
and 30 ohm respectively. If the resistances are interchanged (c) Due to temperature effect
the balance point shifts by (d) Random error
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16.

DPP/ P 38 3
DIRECTIONS (Q.17-Q.19) : In the following questions, DIRECTIONS (Q.20-Q.22) : Read the passage given below
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the and answer the questions that follows :
correct answ]ers and mark it according to the following
codes: A battery is connected to a potentiometer and a balance point is
obtained at 84 cm along the wire. When its terminals are
Codes :
connected by a 5W resistor, the balance point changes to 70 cm
Q.20 Calculate the internal resistance of the cell.
Q.17 Which of the following statements are correct? (a) 4 W (b) 2 W (c) 5 W (d) 1 W
(1) Voltmeter should have high resistance. Q.21 Find the new position of the balance point when 5W
(2) Ammeter should have low resistance. resistance is replaced by 4W resistor.
(3) Voltmeter is placed in parallel across the conductor (a) 26.5 cm (b) 52 cm (c) 67.2 cm (d) 83.3 cm
in a circuit. Q.22 How can we change a galvanometer with Re = 20.0W and
(4) Ammeter is placed in parallel across the conductor Ifs = 0.00100 A into a voltmeter with a maximum range of
in a circuit. 10.0 V?
Q.18 Which are correct statements? (a) By adding a resistance 9980 W in parallel with the
(1) The Wheatstone bridge is most sensitive when all the galvanometer
four resistances are of the same order (b) By adding a resistance 9980 W in series with the
(2) Kirchhoff’s first law (for currents meeting at a junction in galvanometer
an electric circuit) expresses the conservtion of charge. (c) By adding a resistance 8890 W in parallel with the
(3) The rheostat can be used as a potential divider. galvanometer
(4) In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, interchanging the (d) By adding a resistance 8890 W in series with the
positions of galvanometer and cell affects the balance galvanometer
of the bridge.
Q.19 Figure shows a balanced Wheatstone's bridge DIRECTIONS (Q. 23-Q.25) : Each of these questions contains
R = 5W Q = 50W two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
A C only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
S = 10W P = 100W correct choice.
G (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(1) If P is slightly increased, the current in the
galvanometer flows from A to C.
(2) If P is slightly increased, the current in the
galvanometer flows from C to A. Q.23 Statement -1 : In meter bridge experiment, a high
(3) If Q is slightly increased, the current in the resistance is always connected in series with a
galvanometer flows from C to A. galvanometer.
(4) If Q is slightly increased, the current in the Statement -2 : As resistance increases current through the
galvanometer flows from A to C. circuit increases.
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 38
Q.24 Statement -1: A potentiometer of longer length is used Q.25 Statement -1: The e.m.f. of the driver cell in the
for accurate measurement. potentiometer experiment should be greater than the e.m.f.
Statement -2: The potential gradient for a potentiometer of the cell to be determined.
of longer length with a given source of e.m.f. becomes Statement -2: The fall of potential across the
small. potentiometer wire should not be less than the e.m.f. of
the cell to be determined.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT-1 (Magnetic field due to current carrying wires, Biot savart law)
39
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.19) : There are 19 multiple choice Q.3 A current i is flowing in a conductor PQRST shaped as
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out shown in the figure. The radius of curved part QRS is r and
length of straight portions PQ and ST is very large. The
magnetic field at the centre O of the curved part is -
Q.1 The magnitude of magnetic field at a point having
perpendicular distance 50 mm from a long straight
conducting wire carrying a current of 3A is O Q i P
R y
r
(a) 0.12 G (b) 1.2 G 90° x
(c) 12 G (d) 0.012 G
S i T z
Q.2 A circular arc of wire of radius of curvature r subtends an
angle of p/4 radian at its centre. If i current is flowing in
µ0 i é 3 p ù ˆ µ0i é 3p ù ˆ
it then the magnetic induction at its centre is - (a) + 1ú k (b) - 1ú k
4 pr êë 2 û 4 pr êë 2 û
m0 i m i
(a) (b) 0
8r 4r µ0i é 3p ù ˆ µ0i é 3p ù ˆ
m0 i (c) + 1ú (- k) (d) - 1ú (- k)
(c) (d) 0 4pr êë 2 û 4pr êë 2 û
16r
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 39
Q.4 Consider the loop PQRSP, carrying clockwise current i, shown Q.9 A current of 1.0 ampere is flowing in the sides of an equilateral
in the figure. The magnitude of magnetic field at the centre O of triangle of side 4.5 × 10–2 m. Find the magnetic field at the
the curved portion is centroid of the triangle.
(Permeability constant m0 = 4p × 10–7 V-s/A-m).
m0 i (a) 4.0 × 10–5 weber/m2 (b) 6.0 × 10–8 weber/m2
(a) [p – f + tan f] S
2p r (c) 2.0 × 10–5 weber/m2 (d) 7.0 × 10–12 weber/m2
Q.10 An air-solenoid has 500 turns of wire in its 40 cm length.
m0 i O
(b) i i If the current in the wire be 1.0 ampere then the magnetic
2p r r field on the axis inside the solenoid is -
(
(c) 0 f f (a) 15.7 gauss (b) 1.57 gauss
P Q R (c) 0.157 gauss (d) 0.0157 gauss
m0 i Q.11 A solenoid of length 0.2m has 500 turns on it. If
(d) [p – f + tan f]
2p r 8.71 × 10–6 Weber/m2 be the magnetic field at an end of
the solenoid, then the current flowing in the solenoid is –
Q.5 A circular coil of 0.2 m diameter has 100 turns and carries a
current of 0.1 ampere. The intensity of magnetic field at the 0.174 0.0174 17.4 174
(a) A (b) A (c) A (d) A
centre of the coil is - p p p p
Q.12 A circular current carrying coil has a radius R. The distance
(a) 6.28 × 10–4 N/A.m (b) 62.8 × 10–4 N/A.m
from the centre of the coil on the axis where the magnetic
(c) 6.28 × 10 N/A.m
–5 (d) 62.8 × 10–5 N/A.m
1
Q.6 For the arrangement of two current carrying identical coils induction will be th to its value at the centre of the coil,
shown in the figure, the magnetic field at the center O is 8
is
(N and a represent number of turns and radius of each coil)- R 2
(a) (b) R 3 (c) 2 3R (d) R
3 3
y Q.13 The average radius of an air cored made toroid is 0.1 m
Coil-2 and it has 500 turns. If it carries 0.5 ampere current, then
x
the magnetic field inside it is :
I z
(a) 5 × 10–4 tesla (b) 5 × 10–3 tesla
I (c) 5 × 10 tesla
–2 (d) 2 × 10–3 tesla
Coil-1 Q.14 The straight long conductors AOB and COD are
m0 NI m 0 NI m 0 NI m NI perpendicular to each other and carry current i1 and i2. The
(a) (b) (c) (d) 0
2a 2 2a 2 2a magnitude of the magnetic induction at point P at a distance
Q.7 A current is flowing through a conducting hollow pipe a from the point O in a direction perpendicular to the plane
whose area of cross-section is shown in the fig. The value ACBD is B1
of magnetic induction will be zero at- μ0
•R (a) ( i +
1 2 i ) P B2
(a) Point P, Q and R 2πa
μ0 a
(b) Point R but not at P and Q •P (b) ( i1 - i2 )
(c) Point Q but not at P and R 2πa A i2
(
μ 0 2 2 1/ 2
)
•Q i1
(d) Point P but not at Q and R (c) i1 + i2 C D
Q.8 Dimensional formula of m0 is- 2πa B O
μ 0 i1i2
(a) MLT–2 A–2 (b) MLT–2A–2 (d) 2πa ( i + i )
1 2
(c) MLT A–2 2 (d) MLT2 A2
4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
RESPONSE
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
GRID
14.

DPP/ P 39 3
Q.15 A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant m 0 (I1 - I2 )
ur (1) into the plane of paper (If I1 > I2)
current i. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B , such pR
ur (2)
m 0 (I 2 - I1 )
out of the plane of paper (if I2 > I1)
that B is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The pR
magnetic force acting on the loop is m 0 (I1 - I 2 )
ur ur ur (3) out of the plane of paper (if I2 > I1)
(a) ir B (b) 2pri B (c) zero (d) pri B pR 2
Q.16 The radius of a circular loop is r and a current i is flowing m 0 (I 2 - I1 )
(4) into the plane of paper (if I1 > I2)
in it. The equivalent magnetic moment will be pR 2
1 Q.21 A wire of length L carrying current I is bent into a circle
(a) ir (b) 2pir (c) ipr 2 (d) of one turn. The field at the center of the coil is B1. A
r2 similar wire of length L carrying current I is bent into a
Q.17 A current of 30 A is flowing in a vertical straight wire. If square of one turn. The field at its center is B2. Then
the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is 2 × B1
10–5 tesla then the distance of null point from wire is - (1) B1 > B2 (2) B1 = B2 (3) =2 (4) B1 < B2
B2
(a) 0.9 m (b) 0.3 mm (c) 0.3 cm (d) 0.3 m
Q.18 A charged particle is released from rest in a region of steady DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : Read the passage given below
uniform electric and magnetic fields which are parallel to and answer the questions that follows :
each other. The particle will move in a A conducting wire is bent into a loop as shown in the figure. The
(a) Straight line (b) Circle segment AOB is parabolic given by the equation y2 = 2x while
(c) Helix (d) Cycloid segment BA is a straight line parallel to the y-axis.
Q.19 A 6.28m long wire is turned into a coil of diameter 0.2m ur
and a current of 1 amp is passed in it. The magnetic The magnetic field in the region is B = –8k$ and the current in
induction at its centre will be - the wire is 2A.
(a) 6.28 × 10–5 T (b) 0 T y
(c) 6.28 T (d) 6.28 × 10–3 T A
DIRECTIONS (Q.20-Q.21) : In the following questions, O C x
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the 2m D
B
codes:
Codes : Q.22 The torque on the loop will be
(a) 16 2 Nm (b) 16 Nm
(c) 18 2 Nm (d) Zero
Q.20 Two long straight parallel wires carry Q.23 The field created by the current in the loop at point C will be
currents I1 and I2 respectively, in the same I
µ µ0 $
(a) – 0 k$
1 I2
direction (as shown). The distance (b) – k
between the wires is R. The magnetic 4p 2p
field at the centre of the two wires will µ0 2 $
be- R (c) – k (d) None of these
p
RESPONSE 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

GRID 20. 21. 22. 23.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 39
Q.24 Magnetic field at point D due to segment AO of the loop is (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT
directed parallel to a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(a) k̂ (b) - k̂ (c) î (d) ĵ (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
DIRECTIONS (Q. 25-Q.27) : Each of these questions contains Q.25 Statement -1: Cyclotron does not accelerate electron.
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Statement-2: Mass of the electron is very small.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Q.26 Statement-1: The ion cannot move with a speed beyond a
only one of which is] the correct answer. You have to select the certain limit in a cyclotron.
correct choice. Statement-2: As velocity increases time taken by ion
increases.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Q.27 Statement-1: If an electron, while coming vertically from
correct explanation for Statement-1. outerspace, enter the earth's magnetic field, it is deflected
towards west.
Statement-2: Electron has negative charge.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT-2 :

40
(Motion of charge particle in a magnetic field, force between current carrying wires.)

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.18) : There are 18 multiple choice Q.3 An electron is revolving in a circular path of radius
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 2×10–10 m with a speed of 3×106 m/s. The magnetic field
at the centre of circular path will be-
(a) 1.2 T (b) 2.4 T (c) 0 (d) 3.6 T
Q.1 A proton, a deutron and an a-particle are accelerated Q.4 An a particle travels at an angle of 30º to a magnetic field
through same potential difference and then they enter a 0.8 T with a velocity of 105 m/s. The magnitude of force
normal uniform magnetic field. The ratio of their kinetic will be-
energies will be- (a) 1.28 × 10–14 N (b) (1.28)Ö3 ×10–4 N
(c) 1.28 × 10 N –4 (d) (12.8)Ö3 ×10–4 N
(a) 2 : 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 : 4
Q.2 A proton of energy 8eV is moving in a circular path in a Q.5 A beam of protons is moving horizontally towards you. As
uniform magnetic field. The energy of an a-particle it approaches, it passes through a magnetic field directed
moving in the same magnetic field and along the same path downward. The beam deflects- × × × ×
will be- (a) to your left side v
(a) 4eV (b) 2eV (b) to your right side × × × F
(c) 8eV (d) 6eV (c) does not deflect × × × ×
(d) nothing can be said × × × ×
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 40
Q.6 If a particle moves in a circular path in clockwise direction Bp
after entering into a downward vertical magnetic field. The (c) sin q =
qd
charge on the particle is-
(a) positive (b) negative pd
(d) sin q =
(c) nothing can be said (d) neutral Bq
Q.7 In the example above, after how much time, particle comes Q.11 An a particle is moving in a magnetic field of (3iˆ + 2ˆj)
to the starting point for the first time. (mass of particle =
m) tesla with a velocity of 5×105 $i m/s. The magnetic force
acting on the particle will be-
2p m
(a) (a) 3.2 × 10–13 dyne (b) 3.2 × 1013 N
3qB (c) 0 (d) 3.2 × 10–13 N
2p m Q.12 If an a-particle moving with velocity 'v' enters perpendicular
(b) to a magnetic field then the magnetic force acting on it will
qB
(c) Never be-
(d) It will leave the circular path before coming to the (a) evB (b) 2evB (c) 0 (d) 4evB
starting point Q.13 What is the net force on the square coil ?
Q.8 A current of 2.0 amp is flowing through a wire of length 10 cm
50 cm. If this wire be placed at an angle of 60º with the
direction of a uniform magnetic field of 5.0 × 10–4 N/Am 2A
the force on the wire will be- 1A 15 cm
(a) 4.33 × 10–4 N (b) 2.50 × 10–4 N
(c) 5.0 × 10 N –4 (d) 2.33 × 10–4 N
Q.9 A particle of mass m and charge q moves with a constant 2 cm
velocity v along the positive x direction. It enters a region (a) 25 ´ 10–7 N towards wire
containing a uniform magnetic field B directed along the (b) 25 ´ 10–7 N away from wire
negative z direction, extending from x = a to x = b. The (c) 35 ´ 10–7 N towards wire
minimum value of v required so that the particle can just (d) 35 ´ 10–7 N away from wire
enter the region x < b is Q.14 A proton is to circulate the earth along the equator with a
(a) qb B/m (b) q(b – a) B/m speed of 1.0 × 107 m/s. The minimum magnetic field which
(c) qa B/m (d) q(b + a) B/2m should be created at the equator for this purpose.
Q.10 A particle with charge q, moving with a momentum p, enters (The mass of proton = 1.7 × 10–27 kg and radius of earth
a uniform magnetic field normally. The magnetic field has = 6.37 × 106 m.) will be (in Wb/m2)
magnitude B and is confined to a region of width d, where (a) 1.6 × 10–19 (b) 1.67 × 10–8
(c) 1.0 × 10 –7 (d) 2 × 10–7
p
d < Bq , The particle is deflected by an angle q in crossing Q.15 An a-particle is describing a circle of radius 0.45 m in a
the field. Then × × × × field of magnetic induction 1.2 weber/m2. The potential
Bqd × × × × difference required to accelerate the particle, (The mass
(a) sin q = p B of a-particle is 6.8 × 10–27 kg and its charge is 3.2 × 10–
p × × × × 19 coulomb.) will be —
q
p × × × ×
(b) sin q = d (a) 6 × 106 V (b) 2.3 × 10–12 V
Bqd 6 (d) 3.2 × 10–12 V
× × × × (c) 7 × 10 V
RESPONSE 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
GRID 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

DPP/ P 40 3
Q.16 An electron beam passes through a magnitic field of DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : Read the passage given below
2 × 10–3 weber/m2 and an electric field of 1.0 × 104 volt/ and answer the questions that follows :
m both acting simultaneously. If the electric field is
removed, what will be the radius of the electron path ? r
A charge particles q enters in a magnetic field B = yiˆ + xjˆ with
(a) 1.43 cm. (b) 0.43 cm (c) 2.43 cm. (d) 3.43 cm. r
Q.17 A straight horizontal copper wire carries a current i = 30 the velocity v = xiˆ + yjˆ . Neglect any force other than magnetic
A. The linear mass density of the wire is 45 g/m. What is force. Now answer the following question.
the magnitude of the magnetic field needed to balance its Q.21 When particle arrives at any point P (2, 2) then force acting
weight? on it, will be –
(a) 147 G (b) 441 G (c) 14.7 G (d) 0 G (a) Zero (b) 4 2q (c) 8q (d) 2 2q
Q.18 A 1m long conducting wire is lying at right angles to the
Q.22 Magnetic force F acting on charge is proportional to –
magnetic field. A force of 1 kg. wt is acting on it in a
(a) F µ (x2 – y2)
magnetic field of 0.98 tesla. The current flowing in it will
(b) F µ (x2 + y2)
be-
(a) 100 A (b) 10 A (c) 1 A (d) 0 (c) Fµ x 2 + y2
DIRECTIONS (Q.19-Q.20) : In the following questions, (d) F does not depend on x or y co-ordinate
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the Q.23 Which of the following is true for the direction of magnetic
correct answers and mark it according to the following force ?
codes: (a) if x > y then force works along (–z) direction
(b) if x < y then force works along (+z) direction
Codes :
(c) if x > y then force works along (+z) direction
(d) None of these
Q.19 In the fig the two parallel wires PQ and ST are at 30 cm DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24-Q.26) : Each of these questions contains
apart. The currents flowing in the wires are according to two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
fig. The force acting over a length of 5m of the wires is- (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
P 10A Q only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
correct choice.
S 15A T (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(1) 5 × 10–4 N (2) attraction correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) 5 × 10–8 N (4) repulsion (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
Q.20 A beam of protons enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
tesla with a velocity of 4 × 105 m/s at an angle of 60º to (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
the field. Then, (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(Mass of the proton = 1.7 × 10–27 kg.) Q.24 Statement -1 : If two long wires, hanging freely are
(1) the radius of the helical path is 1.226 × 10–2 m connected to a battery in series, they come closer to each
(2) the pitch of the helix is 4.45 × 10–2 m other.
(3) the radius of the helical path is 1.226 × 10–3 m Statement -2 : Force of repulsion acts between the two
(4) the pitch of the helix is 4.45 × 10–4 m wires carrying current.
RESPONSE 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

GRID 21. 22. 23. 24.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 40
Q.25 Statement - 1 : For a charged particle to pass through a Q.26 Statement - 1 : If an electron is not deflected while passing
uniform electro-magnetic field without change in velocity, through a certain region of space, then only possibility is
its velocity vector must be perpendicular to the magnetic that there is no magnetic region.
field. Statement - 2 : Magnetic force is directly proportional to
Statement - 2 : Net Lorentz force on the particle is given the magnetic field applied.
r r r r
by F = q [ E + v ´ B] .

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT-3 (Magnetic dipole, Current carrying loop in

41
magnetic field,Galvanometer )
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice questions. Q.3 The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY (a) directly proportional to the torsional constant
ONE choice is correct. (b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
Q.1 A circular coil has radius 4 cm and 20 number of turns (c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil
carries a current of 3 ampere. It is placed in a magnetic (d) inversely proportional to the current flowing
field of intensity 0.5 weber/m2. The magnetic dipole Q.4 A moving coil galvanometer has N number of turns in a
coil of effective area A. It carries a current I. The magnetic
æ 22 ö field B is radial. The torque acting on the coil is
moment of the coil is çè Take p = ÷ø
7 (a) NA2 B 2 I (b) NABI 2 (c) N 2 ABI (d) NABI
(a) 0.15 ampere m2 (b) 0.3 ampere m2 Q.5 A current carrying loop is free to turn in a uniform magnetic
(c) 0.45 ampere m2 (d) 0.6 ampere m2 field. The loop will then come into equilibrium when its
Q.2 A circular coil of radius 4 cm has 50 turns. In this coil a plane is inclined at
current of 2 A is flowing. It is placed in a magnetic field of (a) 0° to the direction of the field
0.1 weber/m2. The amount of work done in rotating it (b) 45° to the direction of the field
through 180° from its equilibrium position will be (c) 90° to the direction of the field
(a) 0.1 J (b) 0.2 J (c) 0.4 J (d) 0.8 J (d) 135° to the direction of the field
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 41
Q.6 A 100 turns coil shown in figure carries a current of 2 amp
LiB 2 Li 2 B L2 iB Li 2 B
in a magnetic field B = 0.2Wb/m2. The torque acting on (a) (b) (c) (d)
the coil is 2 2 4p 4p
Q.12 In ballistic galvanometer, the frame on which the coil is
A B wound is non-metallic. It is
(a) to avoid the production of induced e.m.f.
10 cm
N S (b) to avoid the production of eddy currents
(c) to increase the production of eddy currents
D C (d) to increase the production of induced e.m.f.
8 cm Q.13 A solenoid of length 0.4 m and having 500 turns of wire
(a) 0.32 Nm tending to rotate the side AD out of the page carries a current of 3 amp. A thin coil having 10 turns of wire
(b) 0.32 Nm tending to rotate the side AD into the page and of radius 0.01 m carries a current of 0.4 amp. The torque
(c) 0.0032 Nm tending to rotate the side AD out of the (in Nm) required to hold the coil in the middle of the solenoid
page with its axis perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid is
(d) 0.0032 Nm tending to rotate the side AD into the page (m0 = 4p × 10–7 V-s/A-m)
Q.7 A rectangular coil of size 20 cm × 20 cm has 100 turns
(a) 59.2 × 10–6 (b) 5.92 × 10–6
and carries a current of 1 A. It is placed in a uniform
magnetic field B = 0.5 T with the direction of magnetic (c) 0.592 × 10–6 (d) 0.592 × 10–4.
field parallel to the plane of the coil. The magnitude of the Q.14 If an electron is moving with velocity v in an orbit of radius
torque required to hold this coil in this position is r in a hydrogen atom, then the equivalent magnetic moment is
(a) zero (b) 200 Nm µ0 e ev ev´ 10,7 evr
(c) 2 Nm (d) 10 Nm (a) (b) 2 (c) 3 (d)
Q.8 A circular loop of area 0.01m2 carrying a current of 10 A, 2r r r 2
is held perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity 0.1 Q.15 In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil q is
T. The torque acting on the loop is related to the electrical current i by the relation
(a) zero (b) 0.01 Nm (a) i µ tan q (b) i µ q
(c) 0.001 Nm (d) 0.8 Nm (c) i µ q2 (d) i µ q
Q.9 The magnetic moment of a current carrying circular coil is
Q.16 A thin circular wire carrying a current I has a magnetic
(a) directly proportional to the length of the wire
(b) inversely proportional to the length of the wire moment M. The shape of the wire is changed to a square
(c) directly proportional to the square of the length of and it carries the same current. It will have a magnetic
the wire moment
(d) inversely proportional to the square of the length of 4 4 p
the wire (a) M (b) 2 M (c) M (d) M
p p 4
Q.10 What is the shape of magnet in moving coil galvanometer Q.17 A ring of radius R, made of an insulating material carries a
to make the radial magnetic field? charge Q uniformly distributed on it. If the ring rotates about
(a) Concave cylindrical (b) Horse shoe magnet the axis passing through its centre and normal to plane of
(c) Convex cylindrical (d) None of these the ring with constant angular speed w, then the magnitude
Q.11 Current i is carried in a wire of length L. If the wire is of the magnetic moment of the ring is
turned into a circular coil, the maximum magnitude of
torque in a given magnetic field B will be 1 1
(a) QwR 2 (b) QwR 2 (c) Qw 2 R (d) Qw 2 R
2 2
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17.

DPP/ P 41 3
Q.18 The (t - q) graph for a current carrying coil placed in a
uniform magnetic field is
P Q R S
(a) (b) (1) Couple on loop P will be the highest

(2) Couple on loop Q will be the highest
0° q 0° q (3) Couple on loop R will be the highest
90° 180° 90° 180°
(4) Couple on loop S will be the highest
Q.22 The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer can be
increased by
(1) decreasing the couple per unit twist of the suspension
(c) (d) (2) increasing the number of turns in the coil
q q
(3) decreasing the area of the coil
0° 90° 180° 0° 90° 180° (4) decreasing the magnetic field
Q.19 A rectangular loop carrying a current i is placed in a Q.23 A current carrying rectangular coil is placed in a uniform
uniform magnetic field B. The area enclosed by the loop magnetic field. In which orientation, the coil will tend to
is A. If there are n turns in the loop, the torque acting on rotate
the loop is given by (1) The magnetic field is parallel to the plane of the coil
r r r r
(a) ni A ´ B (b) ni A.B (2) The magnetic field is at 45° with the plane of the coil
1 r r 1 r r (3) In any orientation
(c) (i A ´ B) (d) (iA.B) (4) The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of
n n
the coil
Q.20 The pole pieces of the magnet used in a pivoted coil
galvanometer are DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below
(a) plane surfaces of a bar magnet and answer the questions that follows :
(b) plane surfaces of a horse-shoe magnet
y
(c) cylindrical surfaces of a bar magnet A wire carrying a 10 A current is
bent to pass through sides of a cube 2
(d) cylindrical surfaces of a horse-shoe magnet
of side 10 cm as shown in figure. A 1
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, r 3
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the magnetic field B = (2iˆ - 3jˆ + k)T
ˆ is
x
present in the region. Then, find 4
correct answers and mark it according to the following z
codes: Q.24 The net force on the loop
r r
Codes : (a) Fnet = 0 (b) Fnet = (0.1iˆ - 0.2k)Nˆ
r r
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) Fnet = (0.3iˆ + 0.4k)N ˆ (d) Fnet = (0.36k)N ˆ
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct Q.25 The magnetic moment vector of the loop.
Q.21 Four wires each of length 2.0 metre are bent into four loops
(a) (0.1iˆ + 0.05jˆ - 0.05k)Am
ˆ 2 (b)
(0.1iˆ + 0.05jˆ + 0.05k)Am
ˆ 2
P, Q, R and S and then suspended into uniform magnetic
field. Same current is passed in each loop. Which (c) (0.1iˆ - 0.05jˆ + 0.05k)Am
ˆ 2 (d)
(0.1iˆ - 0.05jˆ - 0.05k)Am
ˆ 2
statements are incorrect?
RESPONSE 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

GRID 23. 24. 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 41
Q.26 The net torque on the loop. (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(a) - 0.1iˆ + 0.4kˆ Nm (b) -0.1iˆ - 0.4kˆ Nm
Q.27 Statement-1 : The coil is bound over the metallic frame
(c) 0.1iˆ - 0.4kˆ Nm (d) 0.1iˆ - 0.4kˆ Nm in moving coil galvanometer.
Statement-2 : The metallic frame help in making steady
DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains deflection without any oscillation.
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Q.28 Statement-1 : Torque on the coil is maximum, when coil
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, is suspended in a radial magnetic field.
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the Statement-2 : The torque tends to rotate the coil on its
correct choice. own axis.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Q.29 Statement-1 : A current carr ying loop placed in
correct explanation for Statement-1. equilibrium in a uniform magnetic field starts oscillating
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is when disturbed from equilibrium.
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2 : A system when disturbed slightly from stable
equilibrium oscillates.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : MAGNETISM AND MATTER - 1 (Bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid, Magnetic field lines,
42
Earth's magnetic field and magnetic elements)

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 mul1tiple choice wb/m–2 making an angle of 30° with the field. Find the
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out couple acting on it.
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 2.5 Nm (b) 5.5 Nm (c) 7.5 Nm (d) 9.0 Nm
Q.4 The force experienced by a pole of strength 100 Am at a
Q.1 A north pole of strength 50 Am and south pole of strength distance of 0.2 m from a short magnet of length 5 cm and
100 Am are separated by a distance of 10 cm in air. Find pole strength of 200 Am on its axial line will be
the force between them. (a) 2.5 × 10-2 N (b) 2.5 × 10-3 N
(a) 50 × 10–3 N (b) 25 × 10–3 N (c) 5.0 × 10 N-2 (d) 5.0 × 10-3 N
(c) 20 × 10–6 N (d) 30 × 10–18 N Q.5 A magnet of moment M is lying in a magnetic field of induction
Q.2 Calculate magnetic induction at a distance of 20 cm from B. W1 is the work done in turning it from 0º to 60º and W2 is
a pole of strength 40 Am in air. the work done in turning it from 30º to 90º. Then
(a) 10–4 wb/m2 (b) 10–8 wb/m2
–1
(c) 10 wb/m 2 (d) 10–12 wb/m2 W1
(a) W2 = W1 (b) W2 =
Q.3 A bar magnet of length 0.2 m and pole strength 5 Am is 2
kept in a uniform magnetic induction field of strength 15 (c) W2 = 2W1 (d) W2 = 3 W1
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 42
Q.6 A bar magnet of magnetic moment 4.0 A-m2 is free to rotate comparison to the separation between them. A magnetic
about a vertical axis through its centre. The magnet is needle is placed between the magnets at point P which gets
released from rest from east-west position. Kinetic energy deflected through an angle q under the influence of
of the magnet in north-south position will be (Horizontal magnets. The ratio of distances d1 and d2 will be
component of earth’s magnetic field BH = 25mT) B
(a) (2 tan q)1/3
(a) 10-2 J (b) 10-4 J (c) 10-6 J (d) 0
Q.7 The length of a bar magnet is 10 cm and its pole strength is (b) (2 tan q)-1/3 A P
10-3 Weber. It is placed in a magnetic field of induction
(c) (2 cot q)1/3 q d
4 p × 10-3 Tesla in a direction making an angle 30º with d1 2
the field direction. The value of torque acting on the magnet (d) (2 cot q)-1/3
will be – Q.14 The period of oscillation of a freely suspended bar magnet
(a) 2p × 10-7 N-m (b) 2p × 10-5 N-m is 4 second. If it is cut into two equal parts length wise
2
(c) 0.5 × 10 N-m (d) None of these then the time period of each part will be
Q.8 At magnetic poles of earth, angle of dip is (a) 4 sec (b) 2 sec (c) 0.5 sec (d) 0.25 sec
(a) zero (b) 45° (c) 90 ° (d) 180 ° Q.15 The length, breadth and mass of two bar magnets are same
Q.9 A short bar magnet is placed with its north pole pointing but their magnetic moments are 3M and 2M respectively.
south. The neutral point is 10 cm away from the centre of These are joined pole to pole and are suspended by a string.
the magnet. If H = 0.4 gauss, calculate magnetic moment When oscillated in a magnetic field of strength B, the time
of the magnet. period obtained is 5s. If the poles of either of the magnets
(a) 2 Am2 (b) 1A m2 (c) 0.1 A m2 (d) 0.2 Am2 are reverse then the time period of the combination in the
Q.10 A bar magnet with its poles 25 cm apart and of pole strength same magnetic field will be –
24.0 A-m rests with its centre on a frictionless pivot. A
force F is applied on the magnet at a distance of 12 cm (a) 3 3 s (b) 2 2 s (c) 5 5 s (d) 1s
from the pivot, so that it is held in equilibrium at an angle Q.16 A thin magnetic needle oscillates in a horizontal plane with
of 30º with respect to a magnetic field of induction 0.25 a period T. It is broken into n equals parts. The time period
T. The value of force F is of each part will be
(a) 65.62 N (b) 2.56 N (c) 6.52 N (d) 6.25 N T T
Q.11 A small magnet of magnetic moment 4A-m2 is placed on a (a) T (b) (c) Tn2 (d) 2
n n
deflection magnetometer in tan-B position at a distance Q.17 A bar magnet made of steel has a magnetic moment of 2.5 A-
of 20 cm from the compass needle. At what distance from m2 and a mass of 6.6 × 103 kg. If the density of steel is
compass needle should another small magnet of moment 7.9 × 109 kg/m3, find the intensity of magnetization of the
0.5A-m2 be placed such that the deflection of the needle magnet.
remains zero ? (a) 3.0 × 106 A/m (b) 2.0 × 106 A/m
(a) 12 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 30 cm 6
(c) 5.0 × 10 A/m (d) 1.2 × 106 A/m
Q.12 The ratio of intensities of magnetic field, at distances x Q.18 A short magnet of length 4 cm is kept at a distance of 20
and 2x from the centre of magnet of length 2cm on its cm to the east of a compass box such that is axis is
axis, will be perpendicular to the magnetic meridian. If the deflection
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 approx produced is 45°, find the pole strength (H = 30 Am–1)
(c) 8 : 1 (d) 8 : 1 approx (a) 17.7 Am (b) 44.2 Am
Q.13 Two magnets A and B are identical and these are arranged (c) 27.7 Am (d) 37.7 Am
as shown in the figure. Their length is negligible in
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18.

DPP/ P 42 3
Q.19 A 10 cm long bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.34 Am2 Q.23 The correct statements regarding the lines of force of the
is placed in the magnetic meridian with its south pole magnetic field B are
pointing geographical south. The neutral point is obtained (1) Magnetic intensity is a measure of lines of force
at a distance of 15 cm from the centre of the magnet. passing through unit area held normal to it
Calculate the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic (2) Magnetic lines of force form a closed curve
field. (3) Due to a magnet magnetic lines of force never cut
(a) 0.12 × 10–4 T (b) 0.21× 10–4 T each other
(c) 0.34 × 10 T –4 (d) 0.87 × 10–7 T (4) Inside a magnet, its magnetic lines of force move from
Q.20 A 30 cm long bar magnet is placed in the magnetic meridian north pole of a magnet towards its south pole
with its north pole pointing south. The neutral point is Q.24 A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 5.25 × 10–2 JT–1
obtained at a distance of 40 cm from the centre of the is placed with its axis perpendicular to the earth’s field
magnet. Pole strength of the magnet is (The horizontal direction. Magnitude of the earth’s field at the place is given
component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.34 Gauss) to be 0.42 G. Ignore the length of the magnet in comparison
(a) 26.7 Am (b) 16.7 Am (c) 12.7 Am (d) 15.2 Am to the distance involved. Then
Q.21 A long straight horizontal cable carries a current of 2.5 A (1) the distance from the centre of the magnet on its
in the direction 10° south of west to 10° north of east. The normal bisector at which the resultant field is inclined
magnetic meridian of the place happens to be 10° west of at 45° with the earth's field is 5 cm
the geographic meridian. The earth’s magnetic field at the (2) the distance from the centre of the magnet on its axis
location is 0.33 Gauss, and the angle of dip is zero. at which the resultant field inclined at 45° with the
Distance of the line of neutral points from the cable is earth's field is 6.3 cm
(Ignore the thickness of the cable). (3) the distance from the centre of the magnet on its
(a) 1.5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 3.5 cm (d) 2.0 cm normal bisector at which the resultant field inclined
at 45° with the earth's field is 8.3 cm
DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, (4) the distance from the centre of the magnet on its axis
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the at which the resultant field inclined at 45° with the
correct answers and mark it according to the following earth's field is 8 cm
codes:
Codes : and answer the questions that follows :
A telephone cable at a place has four long, straight horizontal wires
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct carrying a current of 1.0 A in the same direction east to west. The
Q.22 Which of the following is/are not the main difference
earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.39 Gauss, and the angle of
between electric lines of force and magnetic lines of force dip is 35°. The magnetic declination is nearly zero. (cos 35° =
? 0.82, sin 35° = 0.57)
(1) Electric lines of force are closed curves whereas Q.25 The magnetic field produced by four current carrying
magnetic lines of force are open curves. straight cable wires at a distance 4 cm is
(2) Magnetic lines of force cut each other whereas (a) 0.2 Gauss (b) 0.3 Gauss
electric lines of force do not cut. (c) 0.4 Gauss (d) 0.5 Gauss
(3) Electric lines of force cut each other whereas Q.26 The resultant magnetic field below at points 4cm and above
magnetic lines of force do not cut. the cable are
(4) Electric lines of force are open curves whereas (a) 0.25, 0.56 Gauss (b) 0.14, 0.32 Gauss
magnetic lines of force are closed curves. (c) 0.23, 0.34 Gauss (d) 0.52, 0.62 Gauss
RESPONSE 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

GRID 24. 25. 26.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 42
Q.27 The angle that resultant makes with horizontal in case below (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
and above the cable respectively, are (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(a) 30°, 45° (b) tan–1 1.8, tan–1 0.43 Q.28 Statement-1 : Gauss theorem is not applicable in
magnetism.
(c) tan–1 2, tan–1 2 (d) sin–1 0.7, sin–1 0.9
Statement-2 : Mono magnetic pole does not exist.
DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains Q.29 Statement-1 : A compass needle when placed on the
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 magnetic north pole of the earth cannot rotate in vertical
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, direction.
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the Statement-2 : The earth has only horizontal component
correct choice. of its magnetic field at the north poles.
Q.30 Statement-1 : We cannot think of magnetic field
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a configuration with three poles.
correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2 : A bar magnet does not exert a torque on
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is itself due to its own field.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : MAGNETISM & MATTER-2 (Para, dia and ferro-magnetic substances, magnetic susceptibility and
43
permeability, Hysteresis, Electromagnets and permanent magnets.)

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.24) : There are 24 multiple choice Q.3 If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out material, paramagnetic material and ferromagnetic material
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. denoted by m d , m p , m f respectively then
Q.1 Susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance is
(a) > 1 (b) < 1 (c) 0 (d) 1 (a) md , ¹ 0 and m f ¹ 0 (b) m p = 0 and m f ¹ 0
Q.2 Among the following properties describing diamagnetism
identify the property that is wrongly stated. (c) m d = 0 and m p ¹ 0 (d) m d ¹ 0 and m p = 0
(a) Diamagnetic material do not have perman ent
magnetic moment Q.4 When a piece of a ferromagnetic substance is put in a
(b) Diamagnetism is explained in terms of uniform magnetic field, the flux density inside it is four
electromagnetic induction. times the flux density away from the piece. The magnetic
(c) Diamagnetic materials have a small positive permeability of the material is
susceptibility
(d) The magnetic moment of individual electrons (a) 1 (b) 2
neutralize each other (c) 3 (d) 4
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 43
Q.5 The given figure represents a material which is Q.13 The relative permeability is represented by µr and the
(a) Paramagnetic susceptibility is denoted by c for a magnetic substance.
Then for a paramagnetic substance
(b) Diamagnetic
(a) m r < 1, c < 0 (b) m r < 1, c > 0
(c) Ferromagnetic
(d) None of these (c) m r > 1, c < 0 (d) m r > 1, c > 0
Q.6 Liquid oxygen remains suspended between two pole faces Q.14 The use of study of hysteresis curve for a given material is
to estimate the
of a magnet because it is
(a) voltage loss (b) hysteresis loss
(a) diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic
(c) current loss (d) all of these
(c) ferromagnetic (d) antiferromagnetic
Q.15 The magnetic moment of atomic neon is
Q.7 A superconductor exhibits perfect
(a) zero (b) mB/2
(a) ferrimagnetism (b) ferromagnetism (c) mB (d) 3mB/2
(c) paramagnetism (d) diamagnetism Q.16 A ferromagnetic material is heated above its Curie
Q.8 Which of the following is the most suitable for the core temperature, then which one is a correct statement ?
of electromagnets? (a) Ferromagnetic domains are perfectly arranged
(a) Soft iron (b) Steel (b) Ferromagnetic domains becomes random
(c) Copper-nickel alloy (d) Air (c) Ferromagnetic domains are not influenced
Q.9 The universal property of all substances is (d) Ferromagnetic material changes itself into
(a) diamagnetism (b) ferromagnetism diamagnetic material
(c) paramagnetism (d) all of these Q.17 If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south
pole of a bar magnet, it is
Q.10 If a magnetic substance is kept in a magnetic field, then
(a) attracted by the poles
which of the following substance is thrown out ?
(b) repelled by the poles
(a) Paramagnetic (b) Ferromagnetic
(c) repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole
(c) Diamagnetic (d) Antiferromagnetic
(d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
Q.11 In the hysteresis cycle, the value of H needed to make the
Q.18 The material of permanent magnet has
intensity of magnetisation zero is called
(a) high retentivity, low coercivity
(a) Retentivity (b) Coercive force
(b) low retentivity, high coercivity
(c) Lorentz force (d) None of these (c) low retentivity, low coercivity
Q.12 If a diamagnetic solution is poured into a U-tube and one (d) high retentivity, high coercivity
arm of this U-tube placed between the poles of a strong Q.19 Diamagnetic substances are
magnet with the meniscus in a line with field, then the level (a) feebly attracted by magnets
of the solution will
(b) strongly attracted by magnets
(a) rise (b) fall (c) feebly repelled by magnets
(c) oscillate slowly (d) remain as such (d) strongly repelled by magnets
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

DPP/ P 43 3
Q.20 For an isotropic medium B, µ, H and M are related as (where Q.25 A magnetising field of 1600 Am–1 produces a magnetic
B, µ0, H and M have their usual meaning in the context of flux of 2.4 × 10–5 weber in a bar of iron of area of cross-
magnetic material) section 0.2 cm2. Then,
(a) (B – M) = µ0H (b) M = µ0(H + M) (1) the magnetic permeability of th e bar is
(c) H = µ0(H + M) (d) B = µ0(H + M) 7.5 × 10–4 TA–1m
Q.21 Relative permeability of iron is 5500, then its magnetic (2) the susceptibility of the bar is 596.1
susceptibility will be (3) the magnetic permeability of the bar is 4.1 Wbm–2
(a) 5500 × 107 (b) 5500 × 10–7 (4) the susceptibility of the bar is 496.1
(c) 5501 (d) 5499 Q.26 Which of the following statements are correct about
Q.22 A magnetising field of 2 × 103 amp/m produces a magnetic hysteresis?
flux density of 8p Tesla in an iron rod. The relative
(1) This effect is common to all ferromagnetic substances
permeability of the rod will be
(2) The hysteresis loop area is proportional to the thermal
(a) 102 (b) 100 (c) 104 (d) 101
energy developed per unit volume of the material
Q.23 The mass of a specimen of a ferromagnetic material is 0.6
(3) The shape of the hysteresis loop is characteristic of
kg. and its density is 7.8 × 103 kg/m 3 . If the area of
hysteresis loop of alternating magnetising field of the material
frequency 50Hz is 0.722 MKS units then the hysteresis (4) The hysteresis loop area is independent of the thermal
loss per second will be Y energy developed per unit volume of the material
Soft iron Q.27 Which of the following statments are false about the
(a) 277.7 × 10-5 Joule I
Steel
magnetic susceptibility c m of paramagnetic substance?
(b) 277.7 × 10-6 Joule
X'
H
X (1) Value of c m is directly proportional to the absolute
(c) 277.7 × 10-4 Joule temperature of the sample
(d) 27.77 × 10-4 Joule (2) c m is negative at all temperature
Y'
(3) c m does not depend on the temperature of the sample
Q.24 A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(a) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field (4) c m is positive at all temperature
(b) perpendicular to the field
(c) from stronger to the weaker parts of the field
(d) None of these two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : In the following questions, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct choice.
codes: (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
Codes : (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
RESPONSE 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

GRID 25. 26. 27.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 43
Q.28 Statement-1 : The ferromagnetic substance do not obey Statement-2 : The magnetisation does not depend on
Curie’s law. temperature.
Statement-2 : At Curie point a ferromagnetic substance Q.30 Statement-1 : The permeability of a ferromagnetic
start behaving as a paramagnetic substance. material dependent on the magnetic field.
Q.29 Statement-1 : A paramagnetic sample displays greater Statement-2 : Permeability of a material is a constant
magnetisation (for the same magnetising field) when quantity.
cooled.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION-1 (Magnetic flux, Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, Lenz's
44
law, motional e.m.f.)

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice (a) 31 mV

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (b) 19 mV
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (c) 14 mV
r (d) 6 mV
Q.1 A loop of wire is placed in a magnetic field B = 0.02iˆ T..
Then the flux through the loop if its area vector Q.3 A current carrying solenoid is approaching a conducting
r loop as shown in the figure. The direction of induced
A = 30iˆ + 16ˆj + 23kˆ cm2 is
current as observed by an observer on the other side of the
(a) 60 mWb (b) 32 m Wb loop will be -
(c) 46 m Wb (d) 138 m Wb (a) anti-clockwise
Q.2 The magnetic flux passing perpendicular to the plane of (b) clockwise V
the coil and directed into the paper is varying according to (c) east
the relation f = 3t2 + 2t + 3, where f is in milliweber and (d) west
t is in second. Then the magnitude of emf induced in the
loop when t = 2 second is-

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 44
Q.4 Consider the arrangement shown in figure in which the north (a) Zero
pole of a magnet is moved away from a thick conducting × × × × ×
(b) B vR2/2 and M is at higher potential × B × N × ×
loop containing capacitor. Then excess positive charge will
(c) pRBV and Q is at higher potential × × ×V × ×
arrive on × × × × ×
(a) plate a (d) 2RBV and Q is at higher potential M Q
(b) plate b Q.10 An aeroplane having a distance of 50 metre between the
(c) both plates a and b edges of its wings is flying horizontally with a speed of
(d) neither a nor b plates 360km/hour. If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic
Q.5 An electron moves along the line AB, which lies in the field is 4 × 10–4 weber/m2, then the induced emf between
same plane as a circular loop of conducting wires as shown the edges of its wings will be –
in the diagram. What will be the direction of current (a) 2 mV (b) 2 V (c) 0.2 V (d) 20 V
induced if any, in the loop? Q.11 At certain location in the northern hemisphere, the earth's
(a) No current will be induced magnetic field has a magnitude of 42 mT and points down
(b) The current will be clockwise ward at 57º to vertical. The flux through a horizontal surface
A B
(c) The current will be anticlockwise of area 2.5 m2 will be- (Given cos 33º = 0.839, cos 57º =
(d) The current will change direction as the electron passes by 0.545)
Q.6 When a small piece of wire passes between the magnetic (a) 42 × 10–6 Wb/m2 (b) 42 × 10–6 Wb/m2
poles of a horse-shoe magnet in 0.1 sec, emf of 4 × 10 –3 –6
(c) 57 × 10 Wb/m 2 (d) 57 × 10–6 Wb/m2
volt is induced in it. The magnetic flux between the poles Q.12 A square loop of side a is rotating about its diagonal with
is : angular velocity w in a perpendicular magnetic field as shown
(a) 4 × 10–2 weber (b) 4 × 10–3 weber in the figure. If the number of turns in it is × × × × × ×
–4 × × × × × ×
(c) 4 × 10 weber (d) 4 × 10–6 weber 10 then the magnetic flux linked with the × × × × × ×
Q.7 The normal magnetic flux passing through a coil changes loop at any instant will be– × × × × ××
× × × × ××
with time according to following equation (a) 10Ba2 cos wt (b) 10Ba × × w× × × ×
× × × × ××
f = 10t2 + 5t + 1 2 2 × × × × ××
(c) 10Ba (d) 20Ba
where f is in milliweber and t is in second. The value of
induced e.m.f. produced in the coil at t = 5s will be – Q.13 Two identical coaxial circular loops carry current i each
(a) zero (b) 1 V (c) 2 V (d) 0.105 V circulating in the clockwise direction. If the loops are
Q.8 A bicycle wheel of radius 0.5 m has 32 spokes. It is rotating approaching each other, then
at the rate of 120 revolutions per minute, perpendicular to (a) Current in each loop increases
the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field (b) Current in each loop remains the same
BH = 4 × 10–5 tesla. The emf induced between the rim and (c) Current in each loop decreases
the centre of the wheel will be- (d) Current in one-loop increases and in the other it
(a) 6.28 × 10–5 V (b) 4.8 × 10–5 V decreases
(c) 6.0 × 10 V –5 (d) 1.6 × 10–5 V Q.14 The distance between the ends of wings of an aeroplane is
Q.9 A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling 3m. This aeroplane is descending down with a speed of
with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic induction 300 km/hour. If the horizontal component of earths
B. At the position MNQ shown in the fig, the speed of the magnetic field is 0.4 gauss then the value of e.m.f. induced
ring is V. The potential difference developed across the in the wings of the plane will be –
semicircular ring is (a) 1 V (b) 2 V (c) 0.01 V (d) 0.1 V
4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
RESPONSE
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
GRID
14.

DPP/ P 44 3
Q.15 A gramophone disc of brass of diameter 30 cm rotates (a) zero
horizontally at the rate of 100/3 revolutions per minute. If
(b) 2 Blv
the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field be 0.01
weber/metre2, then the emf induced between the centre (c) 2 Blv sin (q/2)
and the rim of the disc will be- (d) 2 Blv cos (q/2)
(a) 7.065 × 10–4 V (b) 3.9 × 10–4 V
(c) 2.32 × 10 V –4 (d) None of the above DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,
Q.16 A closed coil consists of 500 turns on a rectangular frame more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
of area 4.0 cm2 and has a resistance of 50 ohm. The coil is correct answers and mark it according to the following
kept with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic codes:
field of 0.2 weber/meter 2. The amount of charge flowing
Codes :
through the coil if it is turned over (rotated through 180º) (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
will be - (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 C (b) 1.6 × 10–9 C Q.21 A rectangular coil of size 10 cm ×20 cm has 60 turns. It is
(c) 1.6 × 10 C –3 (d) 1.6 × 10–2 C rotating about one of its diagonals in magnetic field
Q.17 A copper disc of radius 0.1 m rotates about its centre with 0.5 Wb/m2 with a rate of 1800 revolution per minute. The
10 revolution per second in 'a uniform magnetic field of induced e.m.f. in the coil can be
0.1 T. The emf induced across the radius of the disc is - (1) 111 V (2) 112 V (3) 113 V (4) 114 V
(a) p/10 V (b) 2p/10 V (c) 10p mV (d) 20p mV Q.22 A closed coil of copper whose area is 1m × 1m is free to
Q.18 Two rail tracks, insulated from each other and the ground, rotate about an axis. The coil is placed perpendicular to a
are connected to milli voltmeter. What is the reading of magnetic field of 0.10 Wb/m2. It is rotated through 180º
the milli voltmeter when a train passes at a speed of 180 in 0.01 second. Then (The resistance of the coil is 2.0W)
km/hr along the track ? Given that – the horizontal (1) The induced e.m.f. in the coil is 20 V
component of earth’s magnetic field BH is 0.2 × 10–4 Wb/ (2) The induced current in the coil is 10 A
m2 and rails are separated by 1 metre. (3) The induced e.m.f. in the coil is 10 V
(a) 1 mV (b) 10 mV (c) 100 mV (d) 1 V (4) The induced current in the coil is 20 A
Q.19 The annular disc of copper, with inner radius a and outer Q.23 5.5 × 10–4 magnetic flux lines are passing through a coil
radius b is rotating with a uniform angular speed w, in a of resistance 10 ohm and number of turns 1000. If the
number of flux lines reduces to 5 × 10–5 in 0.1 sec. Then
region where a uniform magnetic field B along the axis of
(1) The electromotive force induced in the coil is 5V
rotation exists. Then, the emf induced between inner side
(2) The electromotive force induced in the coil is
and the outer rim of the disc is- 5 × 10–4 V
1 (3) The current induced in the coil is 0.5 A
(a) Zero (b) Bwa2 (4) The current induced in the coil is 10 A
2
1 1 DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below
(c) Bwb2 (d) Bw (b2 – a2) and answer the questions that follows :
2 2
Q.20 A conducting wire in the shape of Y with each side of length In the figure shown, the rod has a resistance R, the horizontal
l is moving in a uniform magnetic field B, with a uniform rails have negligible friction. Magnetic field of intensity B is
speed v as shown in fig. The induced emf at the two ends X directed perpendicular into the plane of paper. A cell of e.m.f. E
and negligible internal resistance is connected between points a
and Y of the wire will be-
and b. The rod is initially at rest.
RESPONSE 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

GRID 20. 21. 22. 23.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 44
ROD
B DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions
a
× × × × contains two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions has four
× × × × alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.
You have to select the correct choice.
E L
× × × × correct explanation for Statement-1.
b (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
× × × × NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Q.24 The velocity of the rod as a function of time t (where (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
t = mR/Bl2) is (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
E E Q.27 Statement-1 : The induced e.m.f. and current will be same
(a) (1 - e - t / t ) (b) (1 + e - t / t ) in two identical loops of copper and aluminium, when
Bl Bl
E rotated with same speed in the same magnetic field.
(c) 3 E (1 - e- t / t ) (d) (1 - e - t / t ) Statement-2 : Induced e.m.f. is proportional to rate of
2 Bl 2Bl
Q.25 After some time the rod will approach a terminal speed. change of magnetic field while induced current depends
The speed is on resistance of wire.
Q.28 Statement-1 : An aircraft flies along the meridian, the
3 E E E 2E
(a) (b) (c) (d) potential at the ends of its wings will be the same.
2 Bl 2Bl Bl Bl
Q.26 The current when the rod attains its terminal speed is Statement-2 : Whenever there is change in the magnetic
flux e.m.f. induces.
2E E 3E
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero Q.29 Statement-1 : Lenz’s law violates the principle of
R R 2R
conservation of energy.
Statement-2 : Induced e.m.f. opposes the change in
magnetic flux responsible for its production.
RESPONSE 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

GRID 29.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION - 2 : Self inductance, mutual inductance,

45
Growth and decay of current in L.R. circuit, Transformer, Electric motor, Generator
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice

Q.1 A current increases uniformly from zero to one ampere in (A) (B) (C)
0.01 second, in a coil of inductance 10 mH. The induced (a) Maximum in situation (A)
e.m.f. will be - (b) Maximum in situation (B)
(a) 1 V (b) 2 V (c) 3 V (d) 4 V (c) Maximum in situation (C)
Q.2 The current in a coil varies with respect to time t as I = 3t2 + (d) The same in all situations
2t. If the inductance of coil be 10 mH, the value of induced Q.4 A current of 10 A in the primary coil of a circuit is reduced
e.m.f. at t = 2s will be- to zero at a uniform rate in 10–3 second. If the coefficient
(a) 0.14 V (b) 0.12 V (c) 0.11 V (d) 0.13 V of mutual inductance is 3H, the induced e.m.f. in the
Q.3 Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the three secondary coil will be-
situations shown in the figure. Their mutual inductance will (a) 3 kV (b) 30 kV (c) 2 kV (d) 20 kV
be
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 45
Q.5 Three inductances are connected as shown below.
Assuming no coupling, the resultant inductance will be-
(L1 = 0.75 H, L2 = L3 = 0.5 H) L2 L
(a) 0.25 H L1
(b) 0.75 H
(c) 0.01 H
(d) 1 H L3
Q.6 A solenoid has an inductance of 50 mH and a resistance of
0.025 W. If it is connected to a battery, how long will it (a) 2.0A (b) 3.0A
take for the current to reach one half of its final equilibrium (c) 5.0A (d) 6.0A
value? Q.12 Two inductors L1 and L2 are at a sufficient distance apart.
(a) 1.34 s (b) 1.38 s (c) 1.38 ms (d) 0.23 s Equivalent inductance when they are connected (i) in series
Q.7 The current in the primary coil of a transformer (assuming (ii) in parallel are
no power loss) as shown in fig. will be – L1L 2 L1L2
(a) L1 + L2, (b) L1 – L2,
(a) 0.01 A P S L1 + L2 L1 - L2
(b) 1.0 A L1 + L2
/\/\/\/
VP = 220 V 220 W (c) L1 L2, L L (d) None of these
(c) 0.1 A 1 2
(d) 10–6 A. P S Q.13 A small coil of N1 turns, l1 length is tightly wound over the
Q.8 A current of 5A is flowing at 220V in the primary coil of a centre of a long solenoid of length l2, area of cross-section
transformer. If the voltage produced in the secondary coil A and number of turns N2. If a current I flows in the small
is 2200V and 50% of power is lost, then the current in the coil, then the flux through the long solenoid is
secondary coil will be –
m 0 N12 AI
(a) 2.5A (b) 5A (c) 0.25A (d) 0.025A (a) zero (b)
Q.9 An inductor (L = 100 mH), a resistor (R = 100W) and a l1
battery (E = 100 V) are initially connected in series as m 0 N1 N 2 AI
shown in the figure. After a long time the battery is (c) inifinite (d)
l2
disconnected after short circuiting the points A and B. The
current in the circuit 1 ms after the short circuit is Q.14 If the current in the primary coil is reduced from 3.0
L ampere to zero in 0.001 second, the induced e.m.f in the
(a) e A secondary coil is 1500 volt. The mutual inductance of the
(b) 0.1 A two coils will be-
R
(c) 1 A (a) 0.5 H (b) 0.05 H (c) 0.005 H (d) 0.0005 H
A B Q.15 A 50 Hz a.c. current of crest value 1A flows through the
(d) 1/e A E
primary of a transformer. If the mutual inductance between
Q.10 Which of the following is constructed on the principle of
the primary and secondary be 1.5 H, the crest voltage
electromagnetic induction ?
induced in secondary is-
(a) Galvanometer (b) Electric motor
(a) 75 V (b) 150 V (c) 471 V (d) 300 V
(c) Generator (d) Voltmeter
Q.16 In an inductor of inductance L = 100 mH, a current of I =
Q.11 In the circuit, E = 10 volt, R1 = 5.0 ohm, R2 = 10 ohm and
10A is flowing. The energy stored in the inductor is
L = 5.0 henry. The current just after the switch S is pressed
(a) 5 J (b) 10 J (c) 100 J (d) 1000 J
is.
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16.

DPP/ P 45 3
Q.17 A step up transformer has transformation ratio 5 : 3. What DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below
is voltage in secondary if voltage in primary is 60 V and answer the questions that follows :
(a) 20 V (b) 60 V (c) 100 V (d) 180 V
Q.18 A transformer has turn ratio 100 : 1. If secondary coil has In Fig., there is a conducting loop ABCDEFA, of resistance l
4 amp current then current in primary coil is per unit length placed near a long straight current-carrying wire.
(a) 4 A (b) 0.04 A (c) 0.4 A (d) 400 A The dimensions are shown in the figure. The long wire lies in
Q.19 A step-down transformer is used on a 1000 V line to deliver the plane of the loop. The current in the long wire varies as I = I0
20 A at 120 V at the secondary coil. If the efficiency of t.
the transformer is 80%, the current drawn from the line
is: A
a
B
(a) 3 A (b) 30 A (c) 0.3 A (d) 2.4 A
l a
Q.20 Energy stored in an inductor is proportional to (i = current
in the inductor) C
F
(a) i (b) i (c) i2 (d) i3 a
E
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, a D
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the I

codes: Q.24 The mutual inductance of the pair is
m0a æ 2a + l ö m0a æ 2a - l ö
Codes : (a) 1n ç ÷ (b) 1n ç ÷
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct 2p è l ø 2p è l ø
2m0a æ a + l ö
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (c) 1n ç ÷ (d) m0 a 1n æç a + l ö÷
Q.21 Voltage (r. m. s) in the secondary coil of a transformer p è l ø p è l ø
depends upon Q.25 The e.m.f. induced in the closed loop is
(1) voltage in the primary coil m0 I0 a æ 2a + l ö m0 I0 a æ 2a - l ö
(2) ratio of number of turns in the two coils (a) 1n ç ÷ (b) 1n ç ÷
(3) frequency of the source
2p è l ø 2p è l ø
(4) time-period of the source 2m0 I0 a æ a + l ö m0 I0 a æ a + l ö
(c) 1n ç ÷ (d) 1n ç ÷
Q.22 Core of a transformer can’t be made up of p è l ø p è l ø
(1) steel (2) alnico (3) iron (4) soft iron Q.26 The heat produced in the loop in time t is
Q.23 Large transformer, when used for some time, become hot 2 2
é m0 æ a + l ö ù é m0 æ 2a + l ö ù
and are cooled by circulating oil. The heating of ê 1n ç ÷ I0 ú at ê 1n ç ÷ I0 ú at
transformer is due to (a) ë 2p è l ø û (b) ë 2 p è l ø û
(1) heating effect of current 4l 8l
2 2
(2) hysteresis loss é 2m 0 æ a + l ö ù é m 0 æ 3a + l ö ù
(3) chemical effect of current ê p 1n ç l ÷ I0 ú at ê 1n ç ÷ I0 ú at
(c) ë è ø û (d) ë 2p è l ø û
(4) magnetic effect of current 3l 6l
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 45
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains Q.27 Statement-1 : Soft iron is used as a core of transformer.
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Statement-2 : Area of hysteresis loop for soft iron is
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, small.
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the Q.28 Statement-1 : An electric motor will have maximum
correct choice. efficiency when back e.m.f. is equal to half of the applied
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a e.m.f.
correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2 : Efficiency of electric motor depends only
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is on magnitude of back e.m.f.
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.29 Statement-1 : A transformer cannot work on dc supply.
(c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
Statement-2 : dc changes neither in magnitude nor in
direction.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : ALTERNATING CURRENT - 1 (Alternating currents, peak and rms value of

46
alternating current/voltage; reactance and impedance, Pure circuits, LR, CR ac circuits.)
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice Q.3 In an ac circuit I = 100 sin 200pt. The time required for
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out the current to achieve its peak value will be
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. 1 1 1 1
(a) sec (b) sec (c) sec (d) sec
Q.1 The resistance of a coil for dc is 5 ohm. In ac, the resistance 100 200 300 400
will Q.4 The frequency of ac mains in India is
(a) remain same (b) increase (a) 30 c/s or Hz (b) 50 c/s or Hz
(c) decrease (d) be zero (c) 60 c/s or Hz (d) 120 c/s or Hz
Q.5 The peak value of an alternating e.m.f. E given by
Q.2 If instantaneous current is given by i = 4 cos(wt + f)
amperes, then the r.m.s. value of current is E = E0 cos wt is 10 volts and its frequency is 50 Hz. At
(a) 4 ampere (b) 2 2 ampere 1

time t = sec, the instantaneous e.m.f. is
(c) 4 2 ampere (d) zero ampere 600
(a) 10 V (b) 5 3 V (c) 5 V (d) 1 V
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 46
Q.6 An alternating current is given by the equation (a) 0.32 A (b) 0.016 A
i = i1 cos wt + i2 sin wt . The r.m.s. current is given by (c) 0.48 A (d) 0.80 A
Q.13 A 20 volt ac is applied to a circuit consisting of a resistance
1 1 and a coil with negligible resistance. If the voltage across
(a) (i1 + i2 ) (b) (i1 + i2 ) 2
2 2 the resistance is 12 V , the voltage across the coil is
(a) 16 volt (b) 10 volt
1 1 2 2 1/ 2 (c) 8 volt (d) 6 volt
(c) (i12 + i22 )1/ 2 (d) (i1 + i2 )
2 2 Q.14 An alternating voltage E = 200 2 sin(100t ) is connected
Q.7 In a circuit, the value of alternating current is measured by to a 1 microfarad capacitor through an ac ammeter. The
hot wire ammeter as 10 ampere. Its peak value will be reading of the ammeter will be
(a) 10 A (b) 20 A (c) 14.14 A (d) 7.07 A (a) 10 mA (b) 20 mA
Q.8 The frequency of an alternating voltage is 50 cycles/sec (c) 40 mA (d) 80 mA
and its amplitude is 120V. Then the r.m.s. value of voltage Q.15 A resistor and a capacitor are connected in series with an
is a.c. source. If the potential drop across the capacitor is 5
(a) 101.3V (b) 84.8V (c) 70.7V (d) 56.5V V and that across resistor is 12 V, applied voltage is
Q.9 A resistance of 20W is connected to a source of an (a) 13 V (b) 17 V
alternating potential V = 220sin(100pt ) . The time taken (c) 5 V (d) 12 V
by the current to change from its peak value to r.m.s. value Q.16 A 120 volt ac source is connected across a pure inductor
is of inductance 0.70 henry. If the frequency of the ac source
(a) 0.2 sec (b) 0.25 sec is 60 Hz, the current passing through the inductor is
(c) 25 × 10–3 sec (d) 2.5 × 10–3 sec (a) 4.55 amp (b) 0.355 amp
Q.10 An alternating current of frequency f is flowing in a circuit (c) 0.455 amp (d) 3.55 amp
containing a resistor of resistance R and a choke of Q.17 The instantaneous value of current in an A.C. circuit is
inductance L in series. The impedance of this circuit is I = 2 sin (100 pt + p/3)A. The current will be maximum
for the first time at
(a) R + 2pfL (b) R 2 + 4p2 f 2 L2 1 1
(a) t = s (b) t = s
100 200
(c) R 2 + L2 (d) R 2 + 2pfL
1 1
Q.11 An alternating voltage is connected in series with a (c) t = s (d) t = s
400 600
resistance R and an inductance L. If the potential drop across
the resistance is 200 V and across the inductance is 150 V, æ 0.4 ö
Q.18 In an L – R circuit, the value of L is ç ÷ henry and the
then the applied voltage is è p ø
(a) 350 V (b) 250 V value of R is 30 ohm. If in the circuit, an alternating e.m.f.
(c) 500 V (d) 300 V of 200 volt at 50 cycles per sec is connected, the
Q.12 An inductive circuit contains resistance of 10W and an impedance of the circuit and current will be
inductance of 20 H. If an ac voltage of 120 V and frequency (a) 11.4W,17.5A (b) 30.7 W,6.5A
60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the current would be nearly
(c) 40.4W,5A (d) 50W, 4A
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18.

DPP/ P 46 3
Q.19 The voltage across a pure inductor is represented by the DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.23) : In the following questions,
following diagram. Which one of the following diagrams more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
will represent the current? correct answers and mark it according to the following
V codes:
Codes :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
t (b) 1 and 2 are correct
Q.22 If an alternating voltage is represented as E = 141 sin
Ai Ai
(628t), then
(1) the rms voltage is 141V
(a) (b) (2) the rms voltage is 100V
t t
(3) the frequency is 50 Hz
(4) the frequency is 100 Hz
Q.23 The r.m.s. value of an ac of 50 Hz is 10 A.
Ai Ai (1) The time taken by the alternating current in reaching
from zero to maximum value is 5×10–3 sec
(c) (d) (2) The time taken by the alternating current in reaching
t t from zero to maximum value is 2×10–3 sec
(3) The peak current is 14.14 A
(4) The peak current is 7.07 A
Q.20 One 10 V, 60 W bulb is to be connected to 100 V line. The
required induction coil has self-inductance of value DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below
( f = 50 Hz) and answer the questions that follows :
(a) 0.052 H (b) 2.42 H If the voltage in an ac circuit is represented by the equation,
(c) 16.2 mH (d) 1.62 mH
V = 220 2 sin (314t – f), then
1
Q.21 A resistance of 300W and an inductance of henry are Q.24 RMS value of the voltage is
p (a) 220 V (b) 314 V
connected in series to a ac voltage of 20 volt and 200 Hz (c) 220 2 V (d) 200 / 2 V
frequency. The phase angle between the voltage and current Q.25 Average voltage is
is (a) 220 V (b) 622/pV
-1 4 -1 3 (c) 220 2 V (d) 200 / 2 V
(a) tan (b) tan
3 4 Q.26 Frequency of ac is
-1 3 -1 2 (a) 50 Hz (b) 50 2 Hz
(c) tan (d) tan
2 5 (c) 50 2 Hz (d) 75 Hz
RESPONSE 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

GRID 24. 25. 26.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 46
DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains Q27 Statement-1: The alternating current lags behind the em.f.
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 by a phase angle of p/2, when ac flows through an inductor.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Statement-2 : The inductive reactance increases as the
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the frequency of ac source decreases.
correct choice. Q.28 Statement-1 : An alternating current does not show any
magnetic effect.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Statement-2: Alternating current varies with time.
correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.29 Statement-1 : A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is used in an ac circuit in place of the choke coil.
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2 : A capacitor blocks dc and allows ac only.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : ALTERNATING CURRENT - 2 (LCR series circuit, resonance, quality factor, power in AC circuits,
47
wattless and power current)
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice 40 volt respectively. The electromotive force of alternating
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out current source in volt is
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 94 (b) 14 (c) 10 (d) 76
Q.4 A 10 ohm resistance, 5 mH inductance coil and 10 mF
Q.1 In a series LCR circuit capacitance is changed from C to 2 capacitor are joined in series. When a suitable frequency
C. For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the alternating current source is joined to this combination,
inductance would be changed from L to the circuit resonates. If the resistance is halved, the
(a) L/2 (b) 2 L (c) 4 L (d) L/4 resonance frequency
Q.2 The power factor of LCR circuit at resonance is (a) is halved (b) is doubled
(a) 0.707 (b) 1 (c) Zero (d) 0.5 (c) remains unchanged (d) is quadrupled
Q.3 An alternating current source of frequency 100 Hz is Q.5 The phase difference between the current and voltage of
joined to a combination of a resistance, a capacitance and LCR circuit in series combination at resonance is
a inductance in series. The potential difference across the (a) 0° (b) p/2
inductance, the resistance and the capacitor is 46, 8 and (c) p (d) – p
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 47
Q.6 The coefficient of induction of a choke coil is 0.1H and Q.12 For the series LCR circuit shown in the figure, what is the
resistance is 12W. If it is connected to an alternating current resonance frequency and the amplitude of the current at
source of frequen cy 60 Hz, then power factor is the resonating frequency
approximately 8 mH
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.30 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.1
Q.7 The resonant frequency of a circuit is f. If the capacitance
is made 4 times the initial values, then the resonant 220 V 20µF
frequency will become
(a) f /2 (b) 2f (c) f (d) f/4
Q.8 In the non-resonant circuit, what will be the nature of the
44 W
circuit for frequencies higher than the resonant frequency?
(a) Resistive (b) Capacitive (a) 2500 rad s -1 and 5 2A (b) 2500rad s -1 and 5A
(c) Inductive (d) None of the above 5
(c) 2500rad s -1 and A (d) 25rad s -1 and 5 2A
Q.9 In a series LCR circuit, resistance R = 10W and the impedance 2
Z = 20W . The phase difference between the current and the Q.13 In an ac circuit, V and I are given by V = 100sin(100 t ) volt,
voltage is æ pö
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90° I = sin ç 100t + ÷ mA . The average power dissipated in
è 3ø
æ 1 ö circuit is
Q.10 An alternating e.m.f. of frequency n ç = is
è 2 p LC ÷ø (a) 104 watt (b) 10 watt
applied to a series LCR circuit. For this frequency of the (c) 0.025 watt (d) 2.5 watt
applied e.m.f. Q.14 For a series LCR circuit R = XL = 2XC. The impedance of
(a) The circuit is at resonance and its impedance is made the circuit and phase difference between V and I
up only of a reactive part respectively will be
(b) The current in the circuit is not in phase with the 5R 5R
(a) , tan -1 (2) (b) , tan -1 (1 / 2)
applied e.m.f. and the voltage across R equals this 2 2
applied emf (c) 5X C , tan -1 (2) (d) 5R, tan -1 (1/ 2)
(c) The sum of the p.d.’s across the inductance and
æ pö
capacitance equals the applied e.m.f. which is 180° Q.15 If a current I given by I0 sin ç wt - ÷ flows in an ac circuit
ahead of phase of the current in the circuit è 2ø
across which an ac potential of E = E0 sin wt has been
(d) The quality factor of the circuit is wL / R or 1/ wCR
and this is a measure of the voltage magnification applied, then the average power consumption P in the circuit
(produced by the circuit at resonance) as well as the will be
E I
sharpness of resonance of the circuit (a) P = 0 0 (b) P = 2 E0l0
Q.11 In a circuit L,C and R are connected in series with an 2
alternating voltage source of frequency f. The current leads (c) P = E0 I 0 (d) P = 0
the voltage by 45°. The value of C is 2
1 1 Q.16 An ac supply gives 30V r.m.s. which passes through a 10 W
(a) 2pf (2pfL + R ) (b) resistance. The power dissipated in it is
pf (2pfL + R )
1 1 (a) 90 2 W (b) 90 W (c) 45 2 W (d) 45 W
(c) (d)
2pf (2pfL - R ) pf (2pfL - R)
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16.

DPP/ P 47 3
Q.17 The figure shows variation of R,XL and X C with frequency Q.21 For series LCR circuit, correct statements are
(1) Applied e.m.f. and potential difference across
f in a series L, C , R circuit. Then for what frequency resistance may be in phase
point, the circuit is inductive (2) Applied e.m.f. and potential difference at inductor coil
XC XL
have phase difference of p/2
(3) Potential difference across resitance and capacitor
have phase difference of p/2
(4) Potential difference at capacitor and inductor have
R phase difference of p/2
Q.22 An ac source is connected to a resistive circuits. Which
A B C
f of the following statements are false?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) All points (1) Current leads the voltage
Q.18 An alternating e.m.f. of angular frequency w is applied (2) Current lags behind the voltage
across an inductance. The instantaneous power developed (3) Any of (1) or (2) may be true depending upon the value
in the circuit has an angular frequency of resistance
w w (4) Current and voltage are in same phase
(a) (b) (c) w (d) 2w Q.23 A series LCR arrangement with XL = 80 W, XC = 50 W, R = 40 W
4 2
Q.19 In the circuit shown in figure neglecting source resistance is applied across a.c. source of 200 V. Choose the correct
the voltmeter and ammeter reading will respectively, be options.
(1) Wattless current = 3.2 A
V (2) Power current = 3.2 A
(3) Power factor = 0.6
(4) Impedance of circuit = 50 W
R = 30W X C = 25W
A X L = 25W
240 V A student constructs a series RLC circuit. While operating the

(a) 0V ,3 A (b) 150V ,3 A circuit at a frequency f she uses an AC voltmeter and measures
(c) 150V , 6 A (d) 0V ,8 A the potential difference across each device as (DVR) = 8.8 V,
(DVL) = 2.6V and (DVC) = 7.4V.
Q.20 In an LCR circuit, the sharpness of resonance depends on
Q.24 The circuit is constructed so that the inductor is next to
(a) Inductance (L) (b) Capacitance (C)
the capacitor. What result should the student expect for
(c) Resistance (R) (d) All of these
a measurement of the combined potential difference
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, (DVL + DVC) across the inductor and capacitor ?
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the (a) 10.0 V (b) 7.8 V
correct answers and mark it according to the following (c) 7.4 V (d) 4.8 V
codes: Q.25 What result should the student expect for a measurement of
Codes : the amplitude Em of the potential difference across the power
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct supply ?
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (a) 18.8 V (b) 13.6 V (c) 10.0 V (d) 4.0 V
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 47
Q.26 What will happen to the value of (DVL) if the frequency is (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
adjusted to increase the current through the circuit? NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(a) (DVL) will increase. (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(b) (DVL) will decrease. (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(c) (DVL) will remain the same regardless of any changes Q.27 Statement-1 : For an electric lamp connected in series
to f. with a variable capacitor and ac source, its brightness
(d) There is not enough information to answer the increases with increase in capacitance.
question. Statement-2 : Capacitive reactance decreases with
increase in capacitance of capacitor.
Q.28 Statement-1 : When capacitive reactance is smaller than
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
the inductive reactance in LCR current, e.m.f. leads the
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the current.
correct choice. Statement-2 : The phase angle is the angle between the
alternating e.m.f. and alternating current of the circuit.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Q.29 Statement-1 : Choke coil is preferred over a resistor to
correct explanation for Statement-1. adjust current in an ac circuit.
Statement-2 : Power factor for inductance is zero.
RESPONSE GRID 26. 27. 27. 28. 29.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : EM Waves
48
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength?
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (a) g-rays (b) b-rays
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (c) a-rays (d) X -rays
Q.1 Light is an electromagnetic wave. Its speed in vacuum is Q.4 A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and seperation
given by the expression between the plates d, is charged by a constant current i.
Consider a plane surface of area A/4 parallel to the plates
mo eo 1
(a) m o eo (b) (c) (d) and drawn symetrically between the plates, what is the
eo mo m o eo displacement current through this area?
Q.2 The range of wavelength of the visible light is (a) i (b) 2 i (c) i /4 (d) i / 2
(a) 10 Å to 100 Å Q.5 The charging current for a capacitor is 1 A, then the
(b) 4,000 Å to 8,000 Å displacement current is
(c) 8,000 Å to 10,000 Å (a) 1 A (b) 0.5 A
(d) 10,000 Å to 15000 Å (c) 0 (d) 2 A

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 48
r r Q.12 Elecromagnetic waves travel in a medium with a speed of
Q.6 If E and B be the electric and magnetic field of E.M.
wave then the direction of propogation of E.M. wave is 2 × 108 m/s. The relative permeability of the medium is 1.
along the direction. What is the relative permittivity of the medium ?
r r (a) 2.25 (b) 1.25 (c) 3.25 (d) 0.25
(a) E (b) B
r r r r Q.13 A magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given
(c) E × B (d) B × E by By = 2 × 10–7 sin(0.5 × 103x + 1.5 × 1011t) T. Fequency
Q.7 Which of the following pairs of space and time varying E of the wave is
and B fields would generate a plane electromagnetic wave (a) 23.9 Hz (b) 13.9 Hz
travelling in (–Z) direction ? (c) 33.9 Hz (d) 12.9 Hz
(a) Ex, By (b) Ey, Bx Q.14 The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave
(c) Ez, By (d) Ey, Bz in vacuum is represented by
Q.8 Choose the wrong statement for E.M. wave. They- Ex = 0, Ey = 0.5 cos[2p × 108 (t – x/c)] and Ez = 0.
(a) are transverse Determine the wavelength of the wave.
(b) travel in vacuum with the speed of light (a) 4 m (b) 5 m (c) 3 m (d) 6 m
(c) are produced by accelerated charges Q.15 A light beam travelling in the X-direction is described by
(d) travel with same speed in all medium the electric field Ey = (300 V/m)sinw(t – x/c). An electron
is constrained to move along the Y-direction with a speed
Q.9 The intensity of light from a source is 500/p W/m2. Find
of 2.0 × 107 m/s. Find the maximum magnetic force (in N)
the amplitude of electric field in this wave-
on the electron.
(a) 3 × 102 N/C (b) 2 3 × 102 N/C (a) 3.2 × 10–18 (b) 5.1 × 10–16
(c) 6.5 × 10–11 (d) 7.8 × 10–12
3
(c) × 102 N/C (d) 2 3 ×101 N/C Q.16 Which of the following waves have minimum frequency ?
2
(a) Microwaves (b) Audible waves
Q.10 A point source of 2 watt is radiating uniformly in all
direction in vacuum. Find the amplitude of electric field (c) Ultrasonic waves (d) Radiowaves
at a distance 2m from it- Q.17 Electromagnetic waves travel in a medium which has
(a) 3 × 10–4 (b) relative permeability 1.3 and relative permittivity 2.14.
30
Then the speed of the electromagnetic wave in the medium
(c) 3 × 10–4 (d) 3 × 10–2 will be
Q.11 In a EM wave the amplitude of electric field is 10 V/m. (a) 13.6 × 106 m/s (b) 1.8 × 102 m/s
The frequency of wave is 5 × 10 4 Hz. The wave is (c) 3.6 × 108 m/s (d) 1.8 × 108 m/s
propagating along Z-axis. Then the average energy density Q.18 If lv, lx and lm represent the wavelength of visible light
of magnetic field is- x-rays and microwaves respectively, then
(a) 2.21 × 10–10 J/m3 (b) 2.21 × 10–8 J/m3 (a) lm > lx > lv (b) lv > lm > lx
(c) 2 × 10–8 J/m3 (d) 2 × 10–10 J/m3 (c) lm > lv > lx (d) lv > lx > lm
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18.

DPP/ P 48 3
Q.19 Light wave is travelling along + y-direction. If the Q.23 An electromagnetic wave of frequency n = 3.0 MHz passes
r from vacuum into a dielectric medium with permitivity
corresponding E vector at that time is along + x-direction,
r e = 4.0. Then the wrong statements are
B vector must be directed along.
y (1) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains
(a) y-axis
unchanged
(b) x-axis (2) Wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
x
(c) + z-axis (3) Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
z
(d) – z axis (4) Wavelength is halved and frequency remains
Q.20 A wave is propagating in a medium of dielectric constant 2 unchanged
and relative magnetic permeability 50. The wave impedance DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below
of such a medium is and answer the questions that follows :
(a) 5W (b) 376.6W
The electron density of a layer of ionosphere at a height 150
(c) 1883 W (d) 3776 W km from the earth surface is 9 ×1010 per m3. For the sky wave
transmission from this layer upto a range of 250 km, find
Q.24 The critical frequency of the layer
correct answers and mark it according to the following (a) 2.7 × 106 Hz (b) 2.7 × 105 Hz
codes: (c) 4.7 × 106 Hz (d) 4.8 × 105Hz
Q.25 The maximum usuable frequency
Codes :
(a) 3.17 × 108 Hz (b) 3.17 × 106 Hz
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 4.57 × 106 Hz (d) 4.57 × 106Hz
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
Q.26 The angle of incidence of this layer
(a) 34.5° (b) 25.2°
(c) 31.6° (d) 40°
Q.21 Which of the following statements are true ?
(1) Photographic plates are sensitive to ultraviolet rays. DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains
(2) Photographic plates can be made sensitive to infrared two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
rays. (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
(3) Infrared rays are emitted by hot objects. correct choice.
(4) Infrared photon has more energy than the photon of (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
visible light. correct explanation for Statement-1.
Q.22 Which of the following are electromagnetic waves ? (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(1) Cosmic rays (2) Gamma rays NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) X-rays (4) b- rays (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
RESPONSE 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

GRID 24. 25. 26.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 48
Q.27 Statement-1: The electromagnetic waves of shorter Q.28 Statement-1: Ultraviolet radiation are of higher frequency
wavelength can travel longer distances on earth's surface waves and are dangerous to human being.
than those of longer wavelengths. Statement-2: Ultraviolet radiation are absorbed by the
Statement-2: Shorter the wavelength, the larger is the atmosphere.
velocity of wave propagation. Q.29 Statement-1: Radio waves can be polarised.
Statement-2: Sound waves in air are longitudinal in nature.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : RAY OPTICS-1 (Reflection on plane mirrors and curved mirrors)

49
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.22) : There are 22 multiple choice (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 1 (d) 7
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out Q.4 Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle q. A ray of light
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. is incident on one mirror at an angle of incidence i. The
Q.1 Find the number of images formed by two mutually ray is reflected from this mirror, falls on the second mir-
perpendicular mirrors – ror from where it is reflected parallel to the first mirror.
What is the value of i, the angle of incidence in terms q ?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 2
(a) 2q - 90º (b) 4q - 90º
Q.2 The angle q between two plane mirrors producing five
images of a given object is given by. (c) q - 90º (d) 3q - 90º
(a) 30º £ q £ 72º (b) 45º £ q £ 72º Q.5 A girl stands at a distance 30 cm from the mirror. She is
able to see her erect image but of 1/5 height of actual
(c) 60º £ q £ 72º (d) 15º £ q £ 72º
height. The mirror will be :
Q.3 Two mirrors are inclined at an angle of 50º. Then what is
the number of images formed for an object placed in be- (a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror
tween the mirrors ? (c) convex mirror (d) plane convex mirror
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 49
Q.6 An object is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a convex Q.11 A 0.5 cm high object is placed at 30 cm from a convex
mirror. A plane mirror is placed in front of the convex mirror whose focal length is 20 cm. Find the position and
mirror in such a way that it convers half of the convex size of the image.
mirror. If the distance between object and plane mirror is (a) 12 cm, 0.2 cm (b) 18 cm, 0.2 cm
30 cm then there is no parallax between the images formed
(c) 6 cm, 0.5 cm (d) 5 cm, 0.1 cm
by two mirrors , the radius of curvature of convex mirror
will be : Q.12 There is a convex mirror of radius 50 cm. The image of a
point at a distance 50 cm from the pole of mirror on its
(a) 50 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 12.5 cm (d) 100cm axis will be formed at :
//
Q.7 Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 30º. Then the (a) infinity ////
//// ////
O· ·C
first four images of an object O placed between the two (b) pole 50 cm 50 cm
////
mirrors are correctly represented by /// ////
(c) focus
M1 I1 M1 (d) 16.67 cm behind the mirror
I1 I4
I4
Q.13 A particle is moving at a constant speed v0 from a large
distance towards a concave mirror of radius R along its
(a) M2 (b) M2 principle axis. Find the speed of the image formed by the
I2 I2 I3 mirror as a function of the distance u of the particles from
I3
the mirror.
I3 M1 I1 I3 2 2
M1 æ R ö æ R ö
(a) ç
è 2u - R ÷ø 0
.v (b) ç
è 2u + R ÷ø 0
I1 .v
(c) M2 (d) M2 2
I2 æ 2R ö
(c) ç
è 2u - R ÷ø 0
.v (d) None of these
I4 I2 I4
Q.8 The plane of a mirror makes an angle of 30º with horizontal. Q.14 A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of a
If a vertical ray is incident on a mirror, then what is the concave mirror of focal length f at a distance u from the
angle between mirror and reflected ray ? pole of the mirror. Find the approximate size of the image.
2 2
(a) 60º (b) 90º (c) 45º (d) 30º æ f ö æ f ö
(a) b ç (b) b ç
è u - f ÷ø è u + f ÷ø
Q.9 Two plane mirrors are placed at an angle a so that a ray paral-
2
lel to one mirror gets reflected parallel to the second mirror æ 2f ö
(c) b ç (d) None of these
after two consecutive reflections. The value of a will be è u - f ÷ø
(a) 30º (b) 60º (c) 75º (d) 90º Q.15 The relation between the linear magnification m, the object
Q.10 A 0.2 cm high object is placed 15 cm from a concave mirror distance u and the focal length f for a spherical mirror is
of focal length 5 cm. Find position and size of the image. f -u f
(a) m = f
(b) m = f - u
(a) 7.5 cm, 0.1 cm. (b) 7.5 cm, 0.4 cm.
f +u f
(c) 10.0 cm, 0.5 cm. (d) 7.5 cm, 0.4 cm. (c) m = f
(d) m = f + u
RESPONSE 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
GRID 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

DPP/ P 49 3
Q.16 An object of length 1 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm Q.21 A concave mirror of focal length f0(in magnitude) produces
from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The nature a real image n time the size of the object. What is the
and size of the image are distance of the object from the mirror?
(a) real, inverted, 1.0 cm (b) real, inverted, 2.0 cm
-(n +1) (n +1) (n - 1) -(n2 +1)
(c) virtual, erect, 0.5 cm (d) virtual, erect, 1.0 cm (a) f0 (b) f0 (c) f0 (d) f0
n n n n
Q.17 In an experiment to determine the focal length
(f ) of a concave mirror by the u - v method, a student places Q.22 The focal length of a concave mirror is 30 cm. Find the
the object pin A on the principal axis at a distance x from position of the object in front of the mirror, so that the
the pole P. The student looks at the pin and its inverted image is three times the size of the object.
image from a distance keeping his/her eye in line with PA. (a) 20 cm (only) (b) 40 cm (only)
When the student shifts his/her eye towards left, the image
appears to the right of the object pin. Then, (c) 30 cm (only) (d) 20 cm or 40 cm
(a) x < f (b) f< x< 2f (c) x = 2f (d) x > 2f DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : In the following questions,
Q.18 Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at some angle. more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
A ray of light incident at 30º on one, after reflection from correct answers and mark it according to the following
the other retraces its path. The angle between the mirrors codes:
is Codes :
(a) 30º (b) 45º (c) 60º (d) 90º
Q.19 A convex mirror is used to form the image of an object.
Which of the following statements is wrong ? (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
(a) The image lies between the pole and the focus Q.23 A plane mirror reflecting a ray of incident light is rotated
(b) The image is diminished in size through an angle q about an axis through the point of
(c) The image is erect incidence in the plane of the mirror perpendicular to the
plane of incidence, then
(d) The image is real
Q.20 A point source of light B is placed at a distance L in front (1) The reflected ray rotates through an angle 2q
of the centre of a mirror of width 'd' hung vertically on a (2) The incident ray is fixed
wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along a line parallel (3) The reflected ray does not rotate
to the mirror at a distance 2L from it as shown in fig. The
(4) The reflected ray rotates through an angle q
greatest distance over which he can see the image of the
light source in the mirror is Q.24 The light reflected by a plane mirror will not form a real
B image
d (1) If the rays incident on the mirror are diverging
(2) Under no circumstances
L
(3) If the object is real
2L
(4) If the rays incident on the mirror are converging
(a) d/2 (b) d (c) 2d (d) 3d
RESPONSE 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

GRID 21. 22. 23. 24.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 49
Q.25 Which of the following form(s) a virtual and erect image DIRECTIONS (Qs. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains
for all positions of the object? two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
(1) Convex lens (2) Concave lens (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,
(3) Convex mirror (4) Concave mirror correct choice.
DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.27) : Read the passage given below (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
and answer the questions that follows : correct explanation for Statement-1.
A plane mirror (M1) and a concave mirror Y M2
(M2) of focal length 10 cm are arranged as 20 cm
10 cm (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
shown in figure. An object is kept at origin.
Answer the following questions. (Consider (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
45°
image formed by single reflection in all O X Q.28 Statement-1: The mirrors used in search lights are
cases) M1
parabolic and not concave spherical.
Q.26 The co-ordinates of image formed by plane mirror are Statement-2: In a concave spherical mirror the image
formed is always virtual.
(a) (–20 cm, 0) (b) (10 cm, – 60 cm) Q.29 Statement-1: When an object is placed between two plane
(c) (10 cm, –10 cm) (d) (10 cm, 10 cm) parallel mirors, then all the images found are of different
intensity.
Q.27 The co-ordinates of image formed by concave mirror are
Statement-2: In case of plane parallel mirrors, only two
(a) (10 cm, – 40 cm) (b) (10 cm, – 60 cm) images are possible.
(c) (10 cm, 8 cm) (d) None of these Q.30 Statement-1: The size of the mirror doesn't affect the
nature of the image.
Statement-2: Small mirror always forms a virtual image.
RESPONSE 25. 26. 27. 28. 29.

GRID 30.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : RAY OPTICS - II (Refraction on plane surface, total internal reflection, prism)
50
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice Q.3 Light of wavelength 6000Å enters from air into water
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (a medium of refractive index 4/3). Find the speed and
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. wavelength [c = 3 × 108 m/s]
(a) 2.25 × 108 m/s, 4500Å (b) 1.25 × 108 m/s, 2500Å
Q.1 A thin prism of angle A = 6° produces a deviation d = 3°.
Find the refractive index of the material of prism. (c) 3.15 × 108 m/s, 3500Å (d) 3.45 × 108 m/s, 5500Å
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 Q.4 A ray of light is incident on a transparent glass-slab of
(c) 2.5 (d) 0.5 refractive index 1.5. If the reflected and refracted rays are
Q.2 A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° on one face of mutually perpendicular, what is the angle of incidence ?
a prism which has an angle of 30°. The ray emerging out of
the prism makes an angle of 30° with the incident ray. -1 2
(a) 30° (b) sin
Calculate the refractive index of the material of the prism 3
(a) 1 (b) 2 2
-1 -1 3
(c) tan (d) tan
(c) 3 (d) 2 3 2

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 50
Q.5 An optical fibre consists of core of m1 surrounded by a Region I Region II Region III Region IV
cladding of m2 < m1. A beam of light enters from air at an
angle a with axis of fibre. The highest a for which ray can
be travelled through fibre is q n0 n0 n0
n0 2 6 8
(a) cos -1 m 22 - m12
m2 0 0.2 m 0.6 m
(b) sin -1
m12 - m 22 a m1 æ 3ö -1 æ 1 ö
(a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) sin ç ÷
4
è ø è8ø
(c) tan -1 m12 - m 22 -1 æ ö
1 -1 æ 1 ö
(c) sin ç ÷ (d) sin ç ÷
è4ø è3ø
-1
(d) sec m12 - m 22 Q.10 The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and
Q.6 A glass plate 4 mm thick is viewed from the above through its prism angle is 30º. One of its refracting faces is polished.
a microscope. The microscope must be lowered 2.58 mm The incident beam of light will return back for the angle of
as the operator shifts from viewing the top surface to incidence
viewing the bottom surface through the glass. What is the (a) 60º (b) 45º (c) 30º (d) 0º
index of refraction of the glass ? Q.11 A ray of light incident on a prism surface at an angle of 50º
(a) 1.61 (b) 1.55 (c) 3.24 (d) 1.21 in the minimum deviation position. If the angle of prism is
Q.7 A vertical microscope is focussed on a point at the bottom 60º then the values of dm and m will be respectively –
of an empty tank. Water (m = 4/3) is then poured into the (sin 50º = 0.766)
tank. The height of the water column is 4cm. Another lighter (a) 40º and 1.532 (b) 60º and 1.532
liquid, which does not mix with water and which has (c) 90º and 1.532 (d) 0º and 1.532
refractive index 3/2 is then poured over the water.The height Q.12 A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 and angle of prism 6º
of liquid column is 2cm. What is the vertical distance is put in contact with another prism of refractive index 1.6
through which the microscope must be moved to bring the when a ray of light is made incident on this combination
object in focus again ? normally then it emerges out undeviated. The angle of
(a) 2.61 m (b) 1.55 m (c) 3.12 m (d) 1.67 m second prism will be –
Q.8 Light from a sodium lamp (l0 = 589 nm) passes through a (a) 6º (b) 5º (c) 4º (d) 3º
tank of glycerin (refractive index 1.47) 20m long in a time Q.13 A crown glass prism of angle 5° is to be combined with a
t1. If it takes a time t2 to traverse the same tank when filled flint glass prism in such a way that the mean ray passes
with carbon disulphide (index 1.63), then the difference t2 – undeviated. Find the angle of the flint glass prism needed
t1 is and the angular dispersion produced by the combination
(a) 6.67 × 10-8 sec (b) 1.09 × 10-7 sec when white light goes through it. Refractive indices for
(c) 2.07 × 10 sec -7 (d) 1.07 × 10-8 sec red, yellow and violet light are 1.514, 1.517 and 1.523
Q.9 A light beam is travelling from Region I to Region IV (Refer respectively for crown glass and 1.613, 1.620 and 1.632
Figure). The refractive index in Regions I, II, III and IV are for flint glass.
n n n (a) 4.2°, 0.0348° (b) 4.2°, 0.0138°
n0, 0 , 0 and 0 , respectively. The angle of incidence q (c) 1.2°, 0.0348° (d) 4.4°, 0.0218°
2 6 8
Q.14 Calculate the dispersive power for crown glass from the
for which the beam just misses entering Region IV is (given data : mv= 1.5230, m r =1.5145)
(a) 0.0163 (b) 0.0183 (c) 0.0142 (d) 0.0112
RESPONSE 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
GRID 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

DPP/ P 50 3
Q.15 A prism of dispersive power 0.021 and refractive index Q.21 A prism having an apex angle 4° and refraction index 1.5
1.53 form an achromatic combination with prism of angle is located in front of a vertical plane mirror as shown in
4.2° and dispersive power 0.045 having refractive index figure. Through what total angle is the ray deviated after
1.65. Find the resultant deviation. reflection from the mirror
(a) 1.12° (b) 2.16° (c) 3.12° (d) 4.18°
Q.16 A ray of light fall normally on a refracting face of a prism 90° 4°
of refractive index 1.5. Find the angle of the prism if the
ray just fails to emerge from the prism.
(a) 55° (b) 22° (c) 12° (d) 42°
Q.17 The refractive indices of material of a prism for blue and (a) 176° (b) 4°
red colours are 1.532 and 1.514 respectively. Calculate (c) 178° (d) 2°
angular dispersion produced by the prism if angle of prism
is 8°. DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions,
(a) 0.144° (b) 0.122° (c) 0.133° (d) 0.111° more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
Q.18 A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m above the surface correct answers and mark it according to the following
of water in a lake. The refractive index of water is 4/3. A codes:
fish inside the lake, in the line of fall of the ball, is looking
Codes :
at the ball. At an instant, when the ball is 12.8 m above the
water surface, the fish sees the speed of ball as [g = 10 m/
s2]
Q.22 A ray of monochromatic light is incident on the plane
(a) 9 m/s (b) 12 m/s (c) 16 m/s (d) 21.33 m/s
surface of separation between two media x and y with angle
Q.19 The dispersive powers of crown and flint glasses are 0.03
of incidence i in the medium x and angle of refraction r in
and 0.05 respectively. The refractive indices for yellow
the medium y. The graph shows the relation between sin i
light for these glasses are 1.517 and 1.621 respectively .
and sin r.
It is desired to form an achromatic combination of prisms
of crown and flint glasses which can produce a deviation sin r
of 1° in the yellow ray. The refracting angle of the flint
glass prism is
(a) 2.4° (b) 1.4° (c) 3.4° (d) 5.2°
Q.20 A glass prism (m = 1.5) is dipped in water ( m = 4/3) as
shown in figure. A light ray is incident normally on the 30°
surface AB. It reaches the surface BC after T.I.R
sin i
B A (1) The speed of light in the medium y is 3 times than in
q
medium x
1
(2) The speed of light in the medium y is times than in
3
C medium x.
(3) The total internal reflection can take place when the
incidence is in x.
(a) sin q ³ 8/9 (b) 2/3 < sin q < 8/9
(4) The total internal reflection can take place when the
(c) sin q £ 2/3 (d) It is not possible
incidence is in y
RESPONSE 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

GRID 20. 21. 22.

EBD_7156
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Q.23 Dispersive power does not depend upon (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
(1) The shape of prism (2) Angle of prism NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Height of the prism (4) Material of prism
Q.24 The wrong statements are
(1) The order of colours in the primary and the secondary (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
rainbows is the same Q.25 Statement-1: There is no dispersion of light refracted
(2) The intensity of colours in the primary and the through a rectangular glass slab.
secondary rainbows is the same
Statement-2: Dispersion of light is the phenomenon of
(3) The intensity of light in the primary rainbow is greater
and the order of colours is the same than the secondary splitting of a beam of white light into its constituent
rainbow colours.
(4) The intensity of light for different colours in primary Q.26 Statement-1: Dispersion of light occurs because velocity
rainbow is greater and the order of colours is reverse of light in a material depends upon its colour.
as that in the secondary rainbow Statement-2: The dispersive power depends only upon the
material of the prism, not upon the refracting angle of the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 25-Q.27) : Each of these questions contains
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 prism.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Q.27 Statement-1: If a plane glass slab is placed on the letters
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the of different colours all the letters appear to be raised up to
correct choice. the same height.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Statement-2: Different colours h ave differen t
correct explanation for Statement-1. wavelengths.
RESPONSE GRID 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : RAY OPTICS - 3 (Refraction on curved surface lens, Optical instrument)

51
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice Q.3 In case of thin lens of focal length f an object is placed at
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out a distance x1 from first focus and its image is formed at a
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. distance x2 from the second focus, find x1 x2
(a) f (b) f 3
Q.1 A small point object is placed at O, at a distance of 0.60
(c) f 2 (d) 1/f
metre in air from a convex spherical surface of refractive
Q.4 What is the refractive index of material of a plano-convex
index 1.5. If the radius of the curvature is 25 cm, then what
lens , if the radius of curvature of the convex surface is
is the position of the image on the principal axis ?
10 cm and focal length of the lens is 30 cm ?
(a) 4.5 m (b) 2.5 m
(a) 1/3 (b) 4/3
(c) 1.5 m (d) 5.5 m
(c) 2/3 (d) 1/4
Q.2 The radius of a glass ball is 5 cm. There is an air bubble at
Q.5 A convex lens of focal length 10.0 cm is placed in contact
1cm from the centre of the ball and refractive index of
with a convex lens of 15.0 cm focal length. What is the
glass is 1.5. The position of image viewed from surface
focal length of the combination ?
near the bubble is.
(a) 6 cm (b) 12 cm
(a) 3.63 cm (b) 4.63 cm
(c) 8 cm (d) 4 cm
(c) 2.12 cm (d) 5.12 cm
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 51
Q.6 A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in contact (a) 25.0 cm (b) 16.7 cm (c) 50.3 cm (d) 33.3 cm
with a diverging lens of unknown focal length. The lens Q.12 A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It
combination acts as a converging lens and has a focal length forms images of area A1 and A2 on the wall for its two
of 30 cm. What is the focal length of the diverging lens ? different positions. The area of the source of light is
(a) – 10 cm (b) – 30 cm (c) – 60 cm (d) – 90 cm -1
A1 +A 2 é 1 1 ù
Q.7 A pin is placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal (a) (b) ê + ú
length 20 cm, made of material having refractive index 1.5. 2 ë A1 A 2 û
The surface of the lens farther away from the pin is silvered 2
é A1 + A 2 ù
and has a radius of curvature 22 cm. Determine the position (c) A1A 2 (d) ê ú
of the final image. ëê 2 ûú
(a) 11 cm in front (b) 21 cm in front Q.13 A convex lens of power 4D is kept in contact with a concave
(c) 15 cm in front (d) 31 cm in front lens of power 3D, the effective power of combination will
Q.8 An image is formed on the screen by a convex lens. When be
upper half part of lens is covered with black paper, then : (a) 7D (b) 4D/3
(a) half image is formed (c) 1D (d) 3D/4
(b) full image is formed Q.14 The power of a plano-convex lens is P. If this lens is cut
(c) intensity of image will be enhanced longitudinally along its principal axis into two equal parts
(d) None of these and then they are joined as given in the figure. The power
Q.9 A convex lens is made out of a substance of 1.2 refractive of combination will be :
index. The two surfaces of lens are convex. If this lens is (a) P
placed in water whose refractive index is 1.33, it will (b) 2P
behave as : (c) P/2
(a) convergent lens (b) divergent lens (d) zero
(c) plane glass plate (d) like a prism Q.15 The plane surface of a planoconvex lens is silvered. If
Q.10 An equiconvex lens has a power of 5 diopter. If it is made radius of curved surfaceisR and refractiveindex is m, then
of glass of refractive index 1.5 then the radius of the the system behaves like a concave mirror whose radius
curvature of each surface will be will be
(a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 5 cm (d) zero R
Q.11 A convex lens when placed in the first position forms a (a) (b) Rm
m
real image of an object on a fixed screen. The distance
between the object and the screen is 75 cm. On displacing R
(c) (d) R (m – 1)
the lens from first position by 25 cm to the second position, m -1
again a real image is formed on the screen. Then the focal Q.16 A slide projector lens has a focal length 10 cm. It throws
length of the lens is an image of a 2cm × 2 cm slide on a screen 5 m from the
D = 75 cm lens. Find the size of the picture on the screen.
x = 25 cm (a) ( 98 × 98) cm2 (b) (88 × 88) cm2
(c) (64 × 64) cm 2 (d) (78 × 78) cm2
Q.17 If the focal length of a magnifier is 5 cm calculate the
Object I2 power of the lens.
(a) 20D (b) 10D
I1
First position Second position (c) 5D (d) 15D
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17.

DPP/ P 51 3
Q.18 In the above question, find the magnifying power of the Q.23 Resolving power of a microscope doesn't depend upon
lens for relaxed and strained eye. (1) Velocity of light used
(a) 2×, 3× (b) 5×, 6× (2) Frequency of light used
(c) 4×, 2× (d) 1×, 2× (3) Focal length of objective
Q.19 A 35 mm film is to be projected on a 20 m wide screen (4) Wavelength of light used
situated at a distance of 40 m from the film-projector. Q.24 The light gathering power of a camera lens
Calculate the focal length of projection lens. doesn't depend on
(a) 70 mm (b) 35 mm (1) Ratio of focal length and diameter
(c) 40 mm (d) 20 mm (2) Product of focal length and diameter
Q.20 In a compound microscope the objective and the eyepiece (3) Wavelength of light used
have focal lengths of 0.95 cm and 5 cm respectively, and (4) Its diameter
are kept at a distance of 20 cm. The last image is formed at
a distance of 25 cm from the eyepiece. Calculate the DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below
total magnification. and answer the questions that follows :
(a) 94 (b) 84
(c) 75 (d) 88
Q.21 A Galilean telescope consists of an objective of focal
length 12 cm and eyepiece of focal length 4 cm. What m1 m2
mw
should be the separation of the two lenses when the virtual
image of a distant object is formed at a distance of 24 cm
from the eyepiece? O
L1 L2
(a) 7.2 cm (b) 8.2 cm.
(c) 12.4 cm. (d) 2.8cm.
DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, A cylindrical tube filled with water (µw = 4/3) is closed at its
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the both ends by two silvered plano convex lenses as shown in the
correct answers and mark it according to the following figure. Refractiveindex of lenses L1 and L2 are 2.0 and 1.5 while
codes: their radii of curvature are 5 cm and 9 cm respectively. A point
object is placed somewhere at a point O on the axis of cylindrical
Codes : tube. It is found that the object and image coincide each other.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct Q.25 The position of object w.r.t lens L1 is
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm
Q.22 An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification (c) 12 cm (d) 14 cm
of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The separation between Q.26 The position of object w.r.t lens L2 is
the objective and eyepiece is 36 cm and the final image (a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm
is formed at infinity. (c) 12 cm (d) 14 cm
(1) the focal length of objective is 30 cm Q.27 The length of the cylindrical tube is
(2) the focal length of objective is 25 cm (a) 16 cm (b) 18 cm
(3) the focal length of eye piece is 6 cm
(c) 20 cm (d) 22 cm
(4) the focal length of eye piece is 12 cm
RESPONSE 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

GRID 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 51
DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains Q.28 Statement-1: A double convex lens (m = 1.5) has focal
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 length 10 cm. When the lens is immersed in water (m = 4/
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, 3) its focal length becomes 40 cm.
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the 1 ml - mm æ 1 1ö
correct choice. Statement-2: = ç - ÷
f m m è R1 R2 ø
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Q.29 Statement-1: The focal length of lens changes when red
correct explanation for Statement-1. light is replaced by blue light.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is Statement-2: The focal length of lens does not depend on
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. colour of light used.
Q.30 Statement-1: By increasing the diameter of the objective
of telescope, we can increase its range.
(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. Statement-2: The range of a telescope tells us how far
away a star of some standard brightness can be spotted by
telescope.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : WAVE OPTICS - I (Interference of Light)

52
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice nm and the interference pattern is observed on a screen
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 1.0 m away. Find the separation between the successive
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. bright fringes.
(a) 6.6 mm (b) 6.0 mm (c) 6 m (d) 6 cm.
Q.1 The intensity ratio of two waves is 9 : 1. These waves Q.4 In Young’s double slit experiment the two slits are
produce the event of interference. The ratio of maximum illuminated by light of wavelength 5890 Å and the angular
to minimum intensity will be separation between the fringes obtained on the screen is
(a) 1 : 9 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 0.2°. If the whole apparatus is immersed in water then the
Q.2 The equation of two light waves are y1 = 6cos wt, angular fringe width will be, if the refractive index of water
y2 = 8cos(wt + f). The ratio of maximum to minimum is 4/3?
intensities produced by the superposition of these waves (a) 0.30° (b) 0.15° (c) 15° (d) 30°
will be Q.5 The intensities of two light sources are I and 9I respectively.
(a) 49 : 1 (b) 1 : 49 If the phase difference between the waves emitted by them
(c) 1 : 7 (d) 7 : 1 is p then the resultant intensity at the point of observation
Q.3 In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between will be –
the slits is 0.10 mm, the wavelength of light used is 600 (a) 3I (b) 4I (c) 10I (d) 82I
EBD_7156
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Q.6 In Fresnel’s biprism experiment the width of 10 fringes is (a) 12 th (b) 14 th
2cm which are formed at a distance of 2 meter from the (c) 16 th (d) 18 th
slit. If the wavelength of light is 5100Å then the distance Q.12 In Young’s double slit experiment, white light is used. The
between two coherent sources will be separation between the slits is b. The screen is at a distance
(a) 5.1 × 10–4 m (b) 5.1 × 104 cm d (d > > b) from the slits. Some wavelengths are missing
(c) 5.1 × 10 mm–4 (d) 10.1 × 10–4cm exactly in front of one slit. One of these wavelengths is
Q.7 Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1 : 4 produce an
b2 2b 2 b2 2b 2
interference pattern. The fringe visibility will be - (a) l = (b) l = (c) l = (d) l =
(a) 1 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.6 6d d 3d 3d
th
Q.13 In Fresnel’s biprism experiment distance of m bright
Q.8 When a mica sheet (m = 1.6) of thickness 7 microns is
placed in the path of one of interfering beams in the biprism fringe from zeroth order fringe will be –
experiment then the central fringe gets shifted at the lD mDl
position of seventh bright fringe. The wavelength of light (a) (2m – 1) (b)
2d d
used will be –
md lD
(a) 4000Å (b) 5000Å (c) 6000 Å (d) 7000Å (c) (d) (2m + 1)
Q.9 In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance between lD 2d
two slits is made three times then the fringe width will Q.14 Consider interference between waves from two sources
become – of Intensites I & 4I. Find intensities at points where the
(a) 9 times (b) 1/9 times (c) 3 times (d) 1/3 times p
Q.10 In the given diagram, CP represents a wavefront and AO & phase difference is .
2
BP, the corresponding two rays. Find the condition on q
(a) I (b) 5 I (c) 4 I (d) 3 I
for constructive interference at P between the ray BP and
Q.15 The width of one of the two slits in a Young’s double slit
reflected ray OP
experiment is double of the other slit. Assuming that the
O
Q R amplitude of the light coming from a slit is proportional
to slit-width. Find the ratio of the maximum to the
qq
minimum intensity in the interference pattern.
C (a) 34 : 1 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 16 : 1
d
Q.16 The intensity of the light coming from one of the slits in a
young’s double slit experiment is double the intensity from
A the other slit. Find the ratio of the maximum intensity to
P
B the minimum intensity in the interference fringe pattern
observed.
(a) cos q = 3l/2d (b) cos q = l/4d
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 34 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 16 : 1
(c) sec q – cosq = l/d (d) sec q – cosl = 4l/d
Q.17 Two waves originating from source S1 and S2 having zero
Q.11 In Young’s double slit experiment 10th order maximum is
phase difference and common wavelength l will show
obtained at the point of observation in the interference
completely destructive interference at a point P if
pattern for l = 7000 Å. If the source is replaced by another
(S1 P – S2 P) is-
one of wavelength 5000 Å then the order of maximum at
(a) 5l (b) 3l/4
the same point will be–
(c) 2l (d) 11l/2
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17.

DPP/ P 52 3
Q.18 In an interference pattern, at a point we observe the 16th (1) electron gun voltage be increased.
order maximum for l1= 6000Å. What order will be visible (2) the slits be moved away from each other.
here if the source is replaced by light of wavelength ? (3) the screen be moved closer to interfering slits.
l2 = 4800 Å. (4) electron gun voltage be decreased.
(a) 40 (b) 20 Q.23 Interference fringes were produced in Young’s double slit
(c) 10 (d) 80 experiment using light of wave length 5000 Å. When a film
Q.19 In Young’s experiment the wavelength of red light is of material 2.5 × 10–3 cm thick was placed over one of the
7.5 × 10–5 cm. and that of blue light 5.0 × 10–5 cm. The slits, the fringe pettern shifted by a distance equal to 20
value of n for which (n + 1)th blue bright band coincides fringe width. The refractive index of the material of the
with nth red bright band is- film cannot be
(a) 8 (b) 4 (1) 1.25 (2) 1.33
(c) 2 (d) 1 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.4
Q.20 In Young’s double slit experiment, carried out with light of
wavelength l = 5000Å, the distance between the slits is DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below
0.2mm and the screen is at 200 cm from the slits. The and answer the questions that follows :
central maximum is at x = 0. The third maximum will be at
In a Young’s double slit experiment a monochromatic light whose
x equal to.
wavelength is l strikes on the slits, separated by distance d, as
(a) 1.67 cm (b) 1.5 cm
shown in the figure. Refractive index of the medium between
(c) 0.5 cm (d) 5.0 cm
slits and screen varies with time t as n = n0 + kt. Here n0 and k
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, are positive constants. Position of any point P on screen is
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the measure by its y-coordinate as shown.
correct answers and mark it according to the following P
codes:
AIR
Codes : y
2 n = (n0+ kt)
d f O
Q.21 The Young’s double slit experiment, the ratio of intensities
of bright and dark fringes is 9. This means that l
S1
(1) The intensities of individual sources are 5 and 4 units
respectively
(2) The intensities of individual sources are 4 and 1 units D
respectively
(3) The ratio of the their amplitudes is 3 Q.24 The y co-ordinate of central maxima at any time t is
(4) The ratio of their amplitude is 2 D sin f D cos f
Q.22 In an experiment similar to Young’s experiment, (a) (b)
n0 + kt n0 + kt
interference is observed using waves associated with
electrons. The electrons are being produced in an electron D sin f D cos f
(c) 2
(d)
gun. In order to decrease the fringe width (n0 + kt ) (n0 + kt )2
RESPONSE 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

GRID 23. 24.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 52
Q.25 The velocity of central maxima at any time t as a function (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
of time t is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
–2kD sin f – kD sin f (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(a) 2
(b) (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(n0 + kt ) (n0 + kt )2
Q.27 Statement-1 : No interference pattern is detected when
–2kD sin f – kD sin f two coherent sources are infinitely close to each other.
(c) (d)
(n0 + kt ) (n0 + kt ) Statement-2 : The fringe width is directly proportional to
Q.26 If a glass plate of small thickness b is placed in front of S1. the distance between the two slits.
How should its refractive index vary with time so that Q.28 Statement-1 : In Young’s experiment, the fringe width for
central maxima is formed at O. dark fringes is same as that for white fringes.
2 d sin f 2d sin f Statement-2 : In Young’s double slit experiment performed
(a) n0 + kt + (b) n0 + kt – with a source of white light, only black and bright fringes
b b
are observed.
d sin f d sin f
(c) n0 + kt – (d) n0 + kt + Q.29 Statement-1 : In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringes
b b become indistinct if one of the slits is covered with
DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains cellophane paper.
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Statement-2 : The cellophane paper decreases the
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, wavelength of light.
correct choice.
RESPONSE GRID 25. 26. 27. 28. 29.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : WAVE OPTICS - II (Diffraction and polarisation of light)

53
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.22) : There are 22 multiple choice Q.3 Width of slit is 0.3mm. Fraunhoffer diffraction is observed
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out in focus plane of lense of a lense of focal length 1 m. If
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. third minima is at 5 mm distance from central maxima,
then wavelength of light is-
Q.1 The first diffraction minima due to a single slit diffraction
(a) 7000Å (b) 6500Å (c) 6000Å (d) 5000Å
is at q = 30° for a light of wavelength 5000Å. The width of
the slit is- Q.4 When a wave of wavelength 0.2 cm is made incident
(a) 5 × 10–5 cm (b) 1.0 × 10–4 cm normally on a slit of width 0.004m, then the semi-angular
(c) 2.5 × 10 cm–5 (d) 1.25 × 10–5 cm width of central maximum of diffraction pattern will be-
Q.2 Two spectral line of sodium D1 & D2 have wavelengths of (a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 90° (d) 0°
approximately 5890Å and 5896Å. A sodium lamp sends Q.5 A parallel beam of monochromatic light is incident on a
incident plane wave on to a slit of width 2 micrometre. A narrow rectangular slit of width 1mm. When the diffraction
screen is located at 2m from the slit. Find the spacing pattern is seen on a screen placed at a distance of 2m. the
between the first maxima of two sodium lines as measured width of principal maxima is found to be 2.5 mm. The wave
on the screen. length of light is-
(a) 10–4 m (b) 9 × 10–4 m (a) 6250 nm (b) 6200 nm
(c) 9 × 10 m 4 (d) None (c) 5890 nm (d) 6000 nm
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Q.6 Light of wavelength 6328Å is incident normally on slit Q.12 Image of sun formed due to reflection at air water interface
having a width of 0.2 mm. The width of the central is found to be very highly polarised. Refractive index of
maximum measured from minimum to minimum of water being m = 4/3, find the angle of sun above the horizon.
diffraction pattern on a screen 9.0 meters away will be
about - (a) 36.9º (b) 26.9º
(a) 0.36° (b) 0.18° (c) 16.9º (d) 46.9º
(c) 0.72° (d) 0.09° Q.13 When light of a certain wavelength is incident on a plane
Q.7 A screen is placed 2m away from the single narrow slit. surface of a material at a glancing angle 30º, the reflected
Calculate the slit width if the first minimum lies 5mm on light is found to be completely plane polarised. Determine
either side of the central maximum. Incident plane waves refractive index of given material –
have a wavelenght of 5000Å.
(a) 2 × 10–4 m (b) 2 × 10–3 cm (a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 2 × 10 cm–4 (d) None
(c) 1 / 2 (d) 2
Q.8 Red light of wavelength 6500Å from a distant source falls
on a slit 0.5 mm wide. What is the distance between two Q.14 Two polaroids are oriented with their planes perpendicular
dark bands on each side of central bright band of diffraction to incident light and transmission axis making an angle of
pattern observed on a screen placed 1.8 m from the slit. 30º with each other. What fraction of incident unpolarised
(a) 4.68 × 10–3 cm (b) 4.68 × 10–3 mm light is transmitted ?
(c) 4.68 × 10 nm–3 (d) 4.68 × 10–3 m (a) 57.5 % (b) 17.5 %
Q.9 Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern is observed at a distance (c) 27.5 % (d) 37.5 %
of 2m on screen, when a plane-wavefront of 6000Å is
incident perpendicularly on 0.2 mm wide slit.Width of Q.15 Unpolarised light of intensity 32 Wm–2 passes through
central maxima is: three polarisers such that the transmission axis of the last
polariser is crossed with the first. If the intensity of the
(a) 10 mm (b) 6 mm
emerging light is 3 Wm –2 . At what angle will the
(c) 12 mm (d) None of these
transmitted intensity be maximum ?
Q.10 A diffraction pattern is produced by a single slit of width
0.5mm with the help of a convex lens of focal length 40cm. (a) 45º (b) 15º
If the wavelength of light used is 5896Å. then the distance (c) 35º (d) 75º
of first dark fringe from the axis will be-
Q.16 V0 and VE represent the velocities, m0 and mE the refractive
(a) 0.047 cm (b) 0.047 m indices of ordinary and extraordinary rays for a doubly
(c) 0.047 mm (d) 47 cm refracting crystal. Then
Q.11 What should be the size of the aperture of the objective of
(a) V0 ³ VE, m0 £ mE if the crystal is calcite
telescope which can just resolve the two stars of angular
width of 10–3 degree by light of wavelength 5000Å? (b) V0 £ VE, m0 £ mE if the crystal is quartz
(a) 3.5 cm (b) 3.5 mm (c) V0 £ VE, m0 ³ mE if the crystal is calcite
(c) 3.5 m (d) 3.5 km (d) V0 ³ VE, m0 ³ mE if the crystal is quartz
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16.

DPP/ P 53 3
Q.17 A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass plate at DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : In the following questions,
an angle of incidence equal to Brewster’s angle f. If m more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the
represents the refractive index of glass with respect to air. correct answers and mark it according to the following
then the angle between reflected and refracted rays is codes:
(a) 90° + f (b) sin–1 (m cosf) Codes :
(c) 90° (d) 90° – sin–1 ( cosf/m)
Q.18 A light has amplitude A and angle between analyser and
polariser is 60°. Light transmitted by analyser has
amplitude Q.23 Plane polarised light is passed through a polaroid. On
viewing through the polaroid we find that when the polariod
(a) A 2 (b) A / 2 (c) 3 A / 2 (d) A/2 is given one complete rotation about the direction of the
light, which of the following is not observed ?
Q.19 A slit of size 0.15 cm is placed at 2.1 m from a screen. On
illuminating it by a light of wavelength 5×10–5 cm, the width (1) The intensity of light gradually decreases to zero and
of central maxima will be remains at zero
(2) The intensity of light gradually increases to a
(a) 70 mm (b) 0.14 mm (c) 1.4 mm (d) 0.14 cm
maximum and remains at maximum
Q.20 What will be the angle of diffraction for the first minimum (3) There is no change in intensity
due to Fraunhoffer diffraction with sources of light of wave
lenght 550 nm and slit width 0.55 mm ? (4) The intensity of light is twice maximum and twice
zero
(a) 0.001 rad (b) 0.01 rad Q.24 Out of the following statements which are correct ?
(c) 1 rad (d) 0.1 rad (1) Nicol’s prism works on the principle of double
Q.21 In Fresnel diffraction, if the distance between the disc and refraction and total internal reflection
the screen is decreased, the intensity of central bright spot (2) Nicol’s prism can be used to produce and analyse
will polarised light
(a) increase (b) decrease (3) Calcite and Quartz are both doubly refracting crystals
(c) remain constant (d) none of these (4) When unpolarised light passes through a Nicol’s
prism, the emergent light is elliptically polarised
22. When an unpolarized light of intensity I 0 is incident on a Q.25 Which statements are incorrect for a zone plate and a lens?
polarizing sheet, the intensity of the light which does not (1) Zone plate has one focus whereas lens has multiple
get transmitted is focii
1 1 (2) Both zone plate and lens have multi focii

(a) I0 (b) I0 (c) I 0 (d) zero (3) Zone plate has one focus whereas a lens has infinite
4 2
(4) Zone plate has multi focii whereas lens has one
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25.

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Angular width of central maximum in the Fraunhoffer-diffraction (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
pattern of a slit is measured. The slit is illuminated by light of (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
wavelength 6000 Å. When the slit is illuminated by light of Q.28 Statement-1 : The unpolarised light and polarised light
another wavelength, the angular width decreases by 30%. can be distinguished from each other by using polaroid.
Q.26 The wavelength of the light is Statement-2 : A polaroid is capable of producing plane
(a) 4200Å (b) 3500Å (c) 5000 Å (d) 5200Å polarised beams of light.
Q.27 The same decrease in the angular width of central maximum Q.29 Statement-1 : Nicol prism is used to produce and analyse
is obtained when the original apparatus is immersed in a plane polarised light.
liquid. Find refractive index of the liquid. Statement-2 : Nicol prism reduces the intensity of light
(a) 1.23 (b) 1.43 (c) 2.2 (d) 2.43 to zero.
Q.30 Statement-1 : The cloud in sky generally appear to be
whitish.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Statement-2 : Diffraction due to clouds is efficient in equal
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the measure at all wavelengths.
correct choice.
RESPONSE GRID 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : DUAL NATURE OF MATTER & RADIATION (Matter Waves, Photon, Photoelectric effect, X-ray)
54
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice Q.3 One electron & one proton is accelerated by equal potential.
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out Ratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths is-
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. mp me mp
Q.1 Energy of a a-particle, having de broglie wavelength of (a) (b) mp (c) (d) 1
me me
0.004 Å is approximately.
Q.4 de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is 10 Å then velocity
(a) 1275 eV (b) 1200 KeV will be-
(c) 1200 MeV (d) 1200 GeV (a) 7.2 × 107 m/s (b) 7.2 × 106 m/s
5
(c) 7.2 × 10 m/s (d) 7.2 × 104 m/s
Q.2 Velocity of a proton is c/20. Associated de-Broglie Q.5 One electron & one proton have equal energies then ratio
wavelength is (Take h = 6.626 × 10–34 J–s) of associated de-Broglie wavelength will be-
(a) 2.64 × 10–24 mm (b) 2.64 × 10–24 cm (a) 1 : (1836)2 (b) 1836 :1
(c) 2.64 × 10–14 Å (d) 2.64 × 10–14 m (c) 1836 : 1 (d) (1836)2 : 1

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Q.6 The ratio of wavelength of deutron & proton accelerated Q.13 A photon and an electron have equal energy E. lphoton/
by an equal potential is lelectron is proportional to
1 2 1
(a) (b) (a) E (b)
2 1 E
1 2
(c) (d) 1
2 1 (c) (d) Does not depend upon E.
E
Q.7 In photoelectric effect if intensity of light is doubled then
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons will become Q.14 In a photoemissive cell with exciting wavelength l, the
(a) Double (b) Half fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting wavelength is
(c) Four time (d) No change changed to 3l/4, the speed of the fastest emitted electron
Q.8 Quantum nature of light is explained by which of the will be
following phenomenon? (a) v (3/4)1/2 (b) v (4/3)1/2
(a) Huygen wave theory (c) Less than v (4/3)1/2 (d) Greater than v (4/3)1/2
(b) Photoelectric effect Q.15 Which of the following figure repesents variation of
(c) Maxwell electromagnetic theory particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie
(d) de- Broglie theory wavelength?
Q.9 From rest an electron is accelerated between two such
points which has potential 20 & 40 volts respectively. p p
Associated de-Broglie wavelength of electron is-
(a) 0.75 Å (b) 7.5 Å
(c) 2.75 Å (d) 2.75 m (a) (b)
Q.10 An electron microscope uses 40 keV electrons. Find its
resolving limit on the assumption that it is equal to the l l
wavelength of the electron-
(a) 0.61 Å (b) 0.6 Å p p
(c) 0.06 Å (d) 0.061 Å
Q.11 A hydrogen atom moving at a speed v absorbs a photon of
wavelength 122 nm and stops. Find the value of v. (c) (d)
(Mass of hydrogen atom = 1.67 × 10–27 kg)
l l
(a) 3.5 m/s (b) 32.5 m/s
(c) 3.05 m/s (d) 3.25 m/s Q.16 The work function for the surface of aluminium is 4.2 eV.
Q.12 The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is 0.2 Å. Calculate What will be the wavelength of that incident light for which
the potential difference (approximate) required to retard the stopping potential will be zero.
it to rest- (h » 6.6 × 10–34 J–s e » 1.6 × 10–19 C)
(a) 3.76 × 10–3 V (b) 3.76 × 103 V
3 (a) 2496 Å (b) 2946 × 10–7 m
(c) 3.76 × 10 eV (d) 376.5 V
(c) 2649 Å (d) 2946 Å
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16.

DPP/ P 54 3
Q.17 Slope of V0 – n curve is- Q.22 Ultraviolet light of wavelength 280 nm is used in an
(where V0 = Stopping potential and n = frequency) experiment on photo electric effect with lithium (f = 2.5
h eV) cathode.
(a) e (b) (c) f0 (d) h (1) The maximum kinetic energy is 1 .9 eV
e
Q.18 A radio station is transmitting waves of wavelength 300 m. (2) The stopping potential is1.9 V
If diffracting power of transmitter is 10 kW, then numbers (3) The maximum kinetic energy is 4.4 V
of photons diffracted per second is- (4) The stopping potential is 4.4 eV
(a) 1.5 × 1035 (b) 1.5 × 1031 Q.23 The separation between Bragg’s planes in a crystal is
(c) 1.5 × 10 29 (d) 1.5 × 1033 10 Å. Then the wavelength of those X-rays which can be
Q.19 Light of wavelength 3320 Å is incident on metal surface diffracted by this crystal is-
(work function = 1.07 eV). To stop emission of photo (1) 5 Å (2) 10 Å
electron, retarding potential required to be
(3) 20 Å (4) 25 Å
(Take hc » 12420 eV – Å)
(a) 3.74 V (b) 2.67 V (c) 1.07 V (d) 4.81 V Q.24 Electrons are accelerated in television tubes through
Q.20 The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode potential difference of about 10 KV.
potential for a photo-sensitive surface for three different (1) The lowest wavelength of the emitted X-rays is 12.4Å
radiations. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be the intensities and fa, fb and fc (2) The lowest wavelength of the emitted X-rays is 1.24Å
be the frequencies for the curves a, b and c respectively. (3) The highest frequency of the emitted X-rays is
Then 2.4 × 108 Hz
(a) fa = fb and Ia ¹ Ib (4) The highest frequency of the emitted X-rays is
c b 2.4 × 1018 Hz
(b) fa = fc and Ia = Ic a
(c) fa = fb and Ia = Ib and answer the questions that follows :
(d) fa = fb and Ia = Ic A physicist wishes to eject electrons by shining light on a metal
O
Q.21 An electromagnetic radiation of frequency 3 × 1015 cycles surface. The light source emits light of wavelength of 450 nm.
per second falls on a photo electric surface whose work The table lists the only available metals and their work functions.
function is 4.0 eV. Find out the maximum velocity of the Metal W0 (eV)
photo electrons emitted by the surface- Barium 2.5
(a) 13.4 × 10–19 m/s (b) 19.8 × 10–19m/s Lithium 2.3
6
(c) 1.73 × 10 m/s (d) None Tantalum 4.2
Tungsten 4.5
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select Q.25 Which metal(s) can be used to produce electrons by the
the correct answers and mark it according to the following photoelectric effect from given source of light ?
codes: (a) Barium only
(b) Barium or lithium
Codes :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) Lithium, tantalum or tungsten
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (d) Tungsten or tantalum
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25.

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Q.26 Which option correctly identifies the metal that will (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
produce the most energetic electrons and their energies ? NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(a) Lithium, 0.45 eV (b) Tungsten, 1.75 eV (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(c) Lithium, 2.30 eV (d) Tungsten, 2.75 eV (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
Q.27 Suppose photoelectric experiment is done separately with
Q.28 Statement -1 : Mass of moving photon varies directly as
these metals with light of wavelength 450 nm. The
the wavelength.
maximum magnitude of stopping potential amongst all the
Statement -2 : Energy of the particle = Mass × (Speed of
metals is-
light)2
(a) 2.75 volt (b) 4.5 volt
Q.29 Statement -1 : Photosensitivity of a metal is large if its
(c) 0.45 volt (d) 0.25 volt
work function is small.
DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains Statement -2 : Work function = hf 0 where f 0 is the
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 threshold frequency.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Q.30 Statement -1 : The de-Broglie wavelength of a molecule
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select varies inversely as the square root of temperature.
the correct choice. Statement -2 : The root mean square velocity of the
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a molecule is proportional to square root of absolute
correct explanation for Statement-1. temperature.
RESPONSE GRID 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Atoms
55
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice Q.4 The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum is shown in
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out figure. There are some transitions. A,B,C,D and E.
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. Transition A, B and C respectively represent
(a) First spectral line of
Q.1 In nature there may not be an element for which the Lyman series, third
principal quantum number n > 4 , then the total possible spectral line of Balmer
number of elements will be series and the second
(a) 60 (b) 32 (c) 4 (d) 64 spectral line of Paschen
Q.2 In the following atoms and molecule for the transition series.
from n = 2 to n = 1 , the spectral line of minimum (b) Ionization potential of hydrogen, second spectral line
wavelength will be produced by of Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen
(a) Hydrogen atom (b) Deuterium atom series
(c) Series limit of Lyman series, third spectral line of
(c) Uni-ionized helium (d) Di-ionized lithium
Balmer series and second spectral line of Paschen
Q.3 The Lyman series of hydrogen sperctum lies in the region series
(a) Infrared (b) Visible (d) Series limit of Lyman series, second spectral line of
(c) Ultraviolet (d) X - rays Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen series
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Q.5 Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom corresponding to Q.11 According to Bohr’s theory the moment of momentum of
increasing values of energy i.e. E A < EB < EC . If an electron revolving in second orbit of hydrogen atom will
be
l1 , l 2 , l3 are the wavelengths of radiations corresponding
p h
to the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, (a) 2ph (b) ph (c) (d)
which of the following statements is correct? h p
C Q.12 In the Bohr model of a hydrogen atom, the centripetal force
l1 is furnished by the coulomb attraction between the proton
B
l3
l2 and the electron. If a0 is the radius of the ground state orbit,
A m is the mass, e is the charge on the electron and e0 is the
l1l 2 vacuum permittivity, the speed of the electron is
(a) l3 = l1 + l 2 (b) l3 = l + l
1 2 e
(a) 0 (b) e a m
(c) l1 + l 2 + l3 = 0 (d) l32 = l12 + l 22 0 0
Q.6 If m is mass of electron, v its velocity, r the radius of e 4pe0 a0 m
stationary circular orbit around a nucleus with charge Ze, (c) 4pe0 a0 m (d)
e
then from Bohr’s first postulate, the kinetic energy
Q.13 Which of the following transitions in hydrogen atoms emit
1
K = mv2 of the electron in C.G.S . system is equal to photons of highest frequency?
2 (a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 2 to n = 6
1 Ze 2 1 Ze 2 Ze2 Ze (c) n = 6 to n = 2 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 r 2 r 2
r r2 Q.14 As per Bohr model, the minimum energy (in eV ) required
Q.7 When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to to remove an electron from the ground state of doubly
an excited state ionized Li atom ( Z = 3) is
(a) P. E. increases and K. E. decreases
(a) 1.51 (b) 13.6
(b) P. E. decreases and K. E. increases
(c) 40.8 (d) 122.4
(c) Both kinetic energy and potential energy increase
Q.15 The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalent to
(d) Both K. E. and P. E. decrease
hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm. The ground
Q.8 The value of the kinetic energy divided by the total energy
state energy of an electron of this ion will be
of an electron in a Bohr orbit is
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV
(a) – 1 (b) 2
(c) 54.4 eV (d) 122.4 eV
(c) 0.5 (d) None of these
Q.16 The wavelength of radiation emitted is l0 when an electron
Q.9 The ratio of the frequencies of the long wavelength limits
jumps from the third to the second orbit of hydrogen atom.
of Lyman and Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is
For the electron jump from the fourth to the second orbit of
(a) 27 : 5 (b) 5 : 27
the hydrogen atom, the wavelength of radiation emitted will
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
be
Q.10 Ratio of the wavelengths of first line of Lyman series and
first line of Balmer series is 16 20 27 25
(a) l 0 (b) l0 (c) l0 (d) l0
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 27 : 5 (c) 5 : 27 (d) 4 : 9 25 27 20 16
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16.

DPP/ P 55 3
Q.17 The energy of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions,
-13.6 more than one of the answers given are correct. Select
is expressed as En = eV . The shortest and longest the correct answers and mark it according to the following
n2 codes:
wavelength of Lyman series will be
(a) 910 Å, 1213 Å (b) 5463 Å, 7858 Å Codes :
(c) 1315 Å , 1530 Å (d) None of these (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
Q.18 Consider a hydrogen like atom whose energy in nth exicited
Q.22 The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition n 1 ®
13.6 Z 2
state is given by En = - when this excited atom n2, where n 1 and n2 are the principal quantum numbers of
n2 two states. Assume the Bohr model to be valid. The time
makes a transition from excited state to ground state, most period of the electron in the initial state is eight times that
energetic photons have energy Emax = 52.224 eV and least in the final state. Then
energetic photons have energy Emin = 1.224 eV . The (1) n1 = 4 (2) n2 = 2 (3) n2 = 5 (4) n1 = 5
atomic number of atom is Q.23 A free hydrogen atom in ground state is at rest. A neutron
(a) 2 (b) 5 of kinetic energy K collides with the hydrogen atom.
(c) 4 (d) None of these After collision hydrogen atom emits two photons in
Q.19 In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, let R, v and E succession one of which has energy 2.55eV. Assume that
represent the radius of the orbit, the speed of electron and the hydrogen atom and neutron has same mass.
the total energy of the electron respectively. Which of the (1) Minimum value of K is 25.5 eV
following quantity is proportional to the quantum number (2) Minimum value of K is 12.75 eV
n (3) The other photon has energy 10.2eV
(4) The upper energy level is of excitation energy 12.5
(a) R / E (b) E / v eV
(c) RE (d) vR Q.24 Which of the series of hydrogen spectrum are not in the
Q.20 An a - particle of 5 MeV energy strikes with a nucleus visible region?
of uranium at stationary at an scattering angle of 180°. The (1) Lyman series (2) Paschen series
nearest distance upto which a - particle reaches the (3) Bracket series (4) Balmer series
nucleus will be closest to
(a) 1 Å (b) 10–10cm and answer the questions that follows :
–12
(c) 10 cm (d) 10–15cm
Q.21 In a hypothetical Bohr hydrogen, the mass of the electron A gas of identical hydrogen like atoms has some atoms in ground
state and some atoms in a particular excited state and there are
is doubled. The energy E0 and the radius r0 of the first no atoms in any other energy level. The atoms of the gas make
orbit will be ( a0 is the Bohr radius) transition to a higher energy state by absorbing monochromatic
light of wavelength 304Å. Subsequently, the atoms emit radia-
(a) E0 = -27.2eV ; r0 = a0 /2 tion of only six different photon energies. Some of emitted pho-
(b) E0 = -27.2eV ; r0 = a0 tons have wavelength 304 Å, some have wavelength more and
some have less than 304Å (Take hc = 12420 eV–Å)
(c) E0 = -13.6eV ; r0 = a0 /2
Q.25 Find the principal quantum number of the initially excited
(d) E0 = -13.6eV ; r0 = a0 state.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25.

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Q.26 Identify the gas (Z = ?) (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
Q.27 Find the maximum and minimum energies of emitted Q.28 Statement-1 : Bohr postulated that the electrons in
photons (in eV) stationary orbits around the nucleus do not radiate energy.
(a) 20.4, 10.6 (b) 10.4, 3.6 Statement-2 : According to classical physics all moving
(c) 40.8, 10.6 (d) None of these electrons radiate energy.
Q.29 Statement-1 : The force of repulsion between atomic
DIRECTIONS (Q.28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains nucleus and a-particle varies with distance according to
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 inverse square law.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Statement-2 : Rutherford did a-particle scattering
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select experiment.
the correct choice. Q.30 Statement-1 : Hydrogen atom consists of only one
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a electron but its emission spectrum has many lines.
correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2 : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is spectrum of hydrogen atom whereas in the emission
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. spectrum, all the series are found.
RESPONSE GRID 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Nuclei
56
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice (a) 6 × 1023, 6 × 1023 , 6 × 1023
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (b) 36 × 1023 , 36 × 1023 , 36 × 1023
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (c) 12 × 1023, 12 × 1023, 12 × 1023
(d) 18 × 1023, 18 × 1023, 18 × 1023
Q.1 The energy released per fission of uranium 235 is about Q.4 Nuclear radius of 8O16 is 3 × 10–15 m. Find the density of
200 MeV. A reactor using U-235 as fuel is producing 1000 nuclear matter.
kilowatt power. The number of U-235 nuclei undergoing (a) 7.5 × 1017 kg m–3 (b) 5.7 × 1017 kg m–3
fission per sec is, approximately- 17
(c) 2.3 × 10 kg m –3 (d) 1.66 × 1017 kg m–3
(a) 106 (b) 2 × 108 (c) 3 × 1016 (d) 931 Q.5 Consider the decay of radium-226 atom into an alpha
Q.2 Power output of 92U235 reactor if it takes 30 days to use up particle and radon-222. Then, what is the mass defect of the
2kg of fuel, and if each fission gives 185 MeV of useable reaction-
energy is- Mass of radium -226 atom = 226.0256 u
(a) 5.846 kW (b) 58.46 MW Mass of radon - 222 atom = 222.0715 u
(c) .5846 kW (d) None Mass of helium - 4 atom = 4.0026 u
Q.3 How many electrons, protons and neutrons are there in a (a) 0.0053 u (b) 0.0083 u
6 gm of 6C12. (c) 0.083 u (d) None
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 56
Q.6 If mass equivalent to one mass of proton is completely Q.12 If the binding energy of deuterium is 2.23 MeV, then the
converted into energy then determine the energy produced? mass defect will be- (in a.m.u.)
(a) 931.49 MeV (b) 731.49 MeV (a) 0.0024 (b) – 0.0024
(c) 911.49 MeV (d) 431.49 MeV (c) – 0.0012 (d) 0.0012
Q.13 The ratio of the radii of the nuclei 27 e125

Q.7 If mass equivalent to one mass of electron is completely 13 Al and 52Te is
converted into energy then determine the energy liberated. approximately -
(a) 1.51 MeV (b) 0.51 MeV (a) 6 : 10 (b) 13 : 52
(c) 3.12 MeV (d) 2.12 MeV (c) 40 : 177 (d) 14 : 73
Q.8 If the mass defect in the formation of helium from Q.14 The radius of the 30 Zn64 nucleus is nearly (in fm)-
hydrogen is 0.5%, then the energy obtained, in kWH, in (a) 1.2 (b) 2.4
forming helium from 1 kg of hydrogen will be-
(c) 3.7 (d) 4.8
(a) 1.25 (b) 125 × 104
Q.15 How many electrons, protons, and neutrons are there in a
(c) 1.25 × 108 (d) 1.25 × 106 nucleus of atomic number 11 and mass number 24?
Q.9 The half life of radioactive Radon is 3.8 days. The time at (a) 11, 12, 13 (b) 11, 11, 13
the end of which 1/20th of the Radon sample will remain
(c) 12, 11, 13 (d) 11, 13, 12
undecayed is
Q.16 Energy of each photon obtained in the pair production
(Given log 10e = 0.4343)
process will be, if the mass of electron or positron is
(a) 3.8 days (b) 16.5 days
1/2000 a.m.u-
(c) 33 days (d) 76 days (a) 0.213 MeV (b) 0.123 MeV
Q.10 In the nuclear reaction, (c) 0.321 MeV (d) 0.465 MeV
92 U238 ® A 4
ZTh + 2He , the values of A and Z are- Q.17 Deuterium is an isotope of hydrogen having a mass of
(a) A = 234, Z = 94 (b) A = 234, Z = 90 2.01470 amu. Find binding energy in MeV of this isotope
(c) A = 238, Z = 94 (d) A = 238, Z = 90 (a) 2.741 MeV (b) 2.174 MeV
Q.11 The mass of helium nucleus is less than that of its (c) 1.741 MeV (d) 0.741 MeV
constituent particles by 0.03 a.m.u. The binding energy per Q.18 The binding energy per nucleon for 3Li7 will be, if the mass
nucleon of 2He4 nucleus will be- of 3Li7 is 7.0163 a.m.u.
(a) 7 MeV (b) 14 MeV (a) 5.6 MeV (b) 39.25 MeV
(c) 3.5 MeV (d) 21 MeV (c) 1 MeV (d) zero
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18.

DPP/ P 56 3
Q.19 Sun radiates energy in all direction. The average energy (1) atoms disintegrated per second in r eactor is
recieved at earth is 1.4 kW/m2. The average distance 3.125 ×1016
between the earth and the sun is 1.5 × 10 11 m. If this energy (2) atoms disintegrated per second in r eactor is
is released by conservation of mass into energy, then the 3.125 ×1018
mass lost per day by the sun is approximately
(3) decay in mass per hour is 4 × 10–8 kg
(Use 1day = 86400 sec)
(4) decay in mass per hour is 4 × 10–6 kg
(a) 4.4 × 109 kg (b) 7.6 × 1014 kg Q.23 Which of the following are not examples of nuclear fusion?
(c) 3.8 × 1012 kg (d) 3.8 × 1014 kg (1) Formation of Ba and Kr from U235
Q.20 Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy (2) Formation of Pu – 235 from U–235
per nucleon in them
(3) Formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen
(a) increases with mass number at high mass number
(4) Formation of He from H
(b) decreases with mass number at high mass number
Q.24 Which of the following are mode of radioactive decay?
(c) increases with mass number at low mass numbers (1) Positron emission (2) Electron capture
(d) decreases with mass number at low mass numbers (3) Alpha decay (4) Fusion
Q.21 Half life of Bi210 is 5 days. If we start with 50,000 atoms
of this isotope, the number of atoms left over after 10 days
is
(a) 5,000 (b) 25,000 In a living organism, the quantity of C14 is the same as in the
atmosphere. But in organisms which are dead, no exchange takes
(c) 12,500 (d) 20,000 place with the atmosphere and by measuring the decay rate of
14C in the old bones or wood, the time taken for the activity to
reduce to this level can be calculated. This gives the age of the
wood or bone.
codes: Given : T1/2 for 14 C is 5370 years and the ratio of
14 C/ 12 C is 1.3 × 10 –12 .
Codes :
Q.25 The decay rate of 14C in 1g of carbon in a living organism
is
(a) 25 Bq (b) 2.5 Bq
Q.22 On disintegration of one atom of U235 the amount of energy
(c) 0.25 Bq (d) 5 Bq
obtained is 200 MeV. The power obtained in a reactor is
1000 KW. Then
RESPONSE 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

GRID 24. 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 56
Q.26 If in an old sample of wood of 10g the decay rate is 30 (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is
decays per minute, the age of the wood is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(a) 50 years (b) 1000 years (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(c) 13310 years (d) 15300 years (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
Q.27 The decay rate in another piece is found to be 0.30 Bq per Q.28 Statement-1 : Amongst alpha, beta and gamma rays, g-has
gm then we can conclude maximum penetrating power.
Statement-2 : The alpha particle is heavier than beta and
(a) the sample is very recent
gamma rays.
(b) the observed decay is not that of 14C alone Q.29 Statement-1 : The mass of b-particles when they are
(c) there is a statistical error emitted is higher than the mass of electrons obtained by
other means.
(d) all of these Statement-2 : b-particle and electron, both are similar
particles.
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Q.30 Statement-1 : Electron capture occurs more often than
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, positron emission in heavy elements.
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the Statement-2 : Heavy elements exhibit radioactivity.
correct choice.
RESPONSE GRID 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS - 1 (Semiconductors, LED, Photodiode, Zener diode)

57
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice Q.4 Let nh and ne be the number of holes and conduction
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out electrons respectively in a semiconductor. Then
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) nh > nein an intrinsic semiconductor
Q.1 When a semiconductor is heated, its resistance (b) nh = nein an extrinsic semiconductor
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) nh = ne in an intrinsic semiconductor
(c) reamins unchanged (d) nothing is definite (d) ne > nh in an intrinsic semiconductor
Q.2 The energy band gap of Si is Q.5 Which statement is correct?
(a) 0.70 eV (a) N-type germanium is negatively charged and P-type
(b) 1.1 eV
germanium is positively charged
(c) between 0.70 eV to 1.1eV
(d) 5 eV (b) Both N-type and P-type germanium are neutral
Q.3 The forbidden energy ban d gap in conductors, (c) N-type germanium is positively charged and P-type
semiconductors and insulators are EG1, EG2 and EG3 germanium is negatively charged
respectively. The relation among them is (d) Both N-type and P-type germanium are negatively
(a) EG1 = EG2 = EG3 (b) EG1 < EG2 < EG3 charged
(c) EG1 > EG2 > EG3 (d) EG1 < EG2 > EG3

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 57
Q.6 Wires P and Q have the same resistance at ordinary (room) Q.12 The energy gap for diamond is nearly
temperature. When heated, resistance of P increases and (a) 1 ev (b) 2 ev (c) 4 ev (d) 6 ev
that of Q decreases. We conclude that Q.13 The valence band and conduction band of a solid overlap at
(a) P and Q are conductors of different materials low temperature, the solid may be
(b) P is n-type semiconductor and Q is p-type (a) metal (b) semiconductor
semiconductor (c) insulator (d) None of these
(c) P is semiconductor and Q is conductor Q.14 Choose the correct statement
(a) When we heat a semiconductor its resistance
(d) P is conductor and Q is semiconductor
increases
Q.7 In extrinsic P and N-type, semiconductor materials, the (b) When we heat a semiconductor its resistance
ratio of the impurity atoms to the pure semiconductor decreases
atoms is about (c) When we cool a semiconductor to 0 K then it becomes
(a) 1 (b) 10–1 (c) 10–4 (d) 10–7 super conductor
Q.8 At zero Kelvin a piece of germanium (d) Resistance of a semiconductor is independent of
(a) becomes semiconductor temperature
(b) becomes good conductor Q.15 If ne and vd be the number of electrons and drift velocity
(c) becomes bad conductor in a semiconductor. When the temperature is increased
(d) has maximum conductivity (a) ne increases and vd decreases
Q.9 Electronic configuration of germanium is 2, 8, 18 and 4, (b) ne decreases and vd increases
To make it extrinsic semiconductor small quantity of (c) Both ne and vd increases
antimony is added (d) Both ne and vd decreases
(a) The material obtained will be N-type germanium in Q.16 The reverse biasing in a PN junction diode
which electrons and holes are equal in number (a) decreases the potential barrier
(b) The material obtained will be P-type germanium (b) increases the potential barrier
(c) The material obtanied will be N-type germanium (c) increases the number of minority charge carriers
which has more electrons than holes at room (d) increases the number of majority charge carriers
temperature Q.17 Two PN-junctions can be connected in series by three
(d) The material obtained will be N-type germanium different methods as shown in the figure. If the potential
which h as less electrons than holes at room difference in the junctions is the same, then the correct
temperature connections will be
Q.10 The intrinsic semiconductor becomes an insulator at P N N P P N P N N P N P
(a) 0°C (b) –100°C
(c) 300 K (d) 0 K
Q.11 Energy bands in solids are a consequence of + – + – + –
(a) Ohm’s Law 1 2 3
(b) Pauli’s exclusion principle (a) In the circuit (1) and (2)
(c) Bohr’s theory (b) In the circuit (2) and (3)
(c) In the circuit (1) and (3)
(d) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(d) Only in the circuit (1)
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17.

DPP/ P 57 3
Q.18 The approximate ratio of resistances in the forward and Q.22 In the given figure, which of the diodes are forward biased?
reverse bias of the PN-junction diode is +10V
(a) 102 : 1 (b) 10–2 : 1 (1) (2) –12V
–4 R
(c) 1 : 10 (d) 1 : 104
Q.19 The dominant mechanisms for motion of charge carriers
in forward and reverse biased silicon P-N junctions are +5V R –5V
(a) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias R
(b) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias (3) (4) –10V
R
(c) Diffusion in both forward and reverse bias
(d) Drift in both forward and reverse bias
Q.20 In a triclinic crystal system –10V
(a) a ¹ b ¹ c, a ¹ b ¹ g Q.23 Which of the following materials are crystalline?
(b) a = b = c, a ¹ b ¹ g (1) Copper (2) Sodium chloride
(c) a ¹ b ¹ c, a ¹ b = g (3) Diamond (4) Wood
(d) a = b = c, a = b = g Q.24 A piece of copper and the other of germanium are cooled
from the room temperature to 80 K, then which of the
Q.21 The correct cymbol for zener diode is
following would be wrong statements?
(1) Resistance of each increases
(a)
(2) Resistance of each decreases
(3) Resistance of copper increases while that of
+ – germanium decreases
(b)
(4) Resistan ce of copper decreases while that of
+ – germanium increases
(c)
+ – A student performs an experiment for drawing the static
(d)
characteristic curve of a triode valve in the laboratory. The
following data were obtained from the linear portion of the
DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, curves:
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the Grid voltage Vg (volt) –2.0 –3.5 –2.0
Plate voltage Vp (volt) 180 180 120
codes:
Plate current IP (mA) 15 7 10
Codes :
Q.25 Calculate the plate resistance rp of the triode valve?
(a) 0.12 × 104 ohm (b) 1.2 × 10 4 ohm
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct 4
(c) 1.3 × 10 ohm (d) 1.4 × 10 4 ohm
RESPONSE 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

GRID 23. 24. 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 57
Q.26 Calculate the mutual conductance gm of the triode valve? (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(a) 5.33 × 10–3 ohm–1 (b) 53.3 × 10–3 ohm–1 (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
–3
(c) 4.32 × 10 ohm –1 (d) 5.00 × 10–3 ohm–1 Q.28 Statement-1 : The number of electrons in a P-type silicon
Q.27 Calculate the amplification factor µ, of the triode valve? semiconductor is less than the number of electrons in a
(a) 64 (b) 52 pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
(c) 54 (d) 62 Statement-2: It is due to law of mass action.
Q.29 Statement-1 : The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases
with temperature.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Statement-2 : The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the larger amplitude at higher temperature there by increasing
correct choice. its resistivity.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Q.30 Statement-1 : We can measure the potential barrier of a
correct explanation for Statement-1. PN junction by putting a sensitive voltmeter across its
terminals.
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2 : The current through the PN junction is not
same in forward and reversed bias.
RESPONSE GRID 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS-2 (Junction transistor, transistor action, characteristics of a

58
transistor, transistor as an amplifier, logic gates)

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 In an NPN transistor 1010 electrons enter the emitter in
questions. Each] question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), 10–6 s and 2% electrons recombine with holes in base,
out of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. then a and b respectively are
(a) a = 0.98, b = 49 (b) a = 49, b = 0.98
Q.1 A NPN transistor conducts when (c) a = 0.49, b = 98 (d) a = 98, b = 0.49
(a) both collector and emitter are positive with respect
Q.4 If l1, l2 , l3 are the lengths of the emitter, base and collector
to the base
(b) collector is positive and emitter is negative with of a transistor then
respect to the base (a) l1 = l2 = l3 (b) l3 < l2 > l1
(c) collector is positive and emitter is at same potential (c) l3 < l1 < l2 (d) l3 > l1 > l2
as the base Q.5 In an NPN transistor circuit, the collector current is 10
(d) both collector and emitter are negative with respect mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector,
to the base the emitter current (iE) and base current (iB) are given by
Q.2 In the case of constants a and b of a transistor (a) iE = -1mA, iB = 9mA (b) iE = 9mA, iB = -1mA
(a) a = b (b) b < 1, a > 1
(c) iE = 1mA, iB = 11mA (d) iE = 11mA, iB = 1mA
(c) a = b2 (d) b > 1, a < 1
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 58
Q.6 The transfer ratio of a transistor is 50. The input resistance Q.12 For the given combination of gates, if the logic states of
of the transistor when used in the common-emitter inputs A, B, C are as follows A = B = C = 0 and
configuration is 1 kW. The peak value for an A.C input
A = B = 1,
voltage of 0.01 V peak is
C = 0 then the logic states of output D are
(a) 100 μA (b) 0.01 mA
(c) 0.25 mA (d) 500 μA
Q.7 For transistor, the current amplification factor is 0.8. The
transistor is connected in common emitter configuration. (a) 0, 0 (b) 0, 1 (c) 1, 0 (d) 1, 1
The change in the collector current when the base current Q.13 Correct statement for ‘NOR’ gate is that, it gives
changes by 6 mA is (a) high output when both the inputs are low
(a) 6 mA (b) 4.8 mA (b) low output when both the inputs are low
(c) 24 mA (d) 8 mA (c) high output when both the inputs are high
Q.8 In NPN transistor the collector current is 10 mA. If 90% (d) None of these
of electrons emitted reach the collector, then Q.14 A gate has the following truth table
(a) emitter current will be 9 mA P 1 1 0 0
(b) emitter current will be 11.1 mA Q 1 0 1 0
(c) base current will be 0.1 mA
(d) base current will be 0.01 mA R 1 0 0 0
Q.9 In a transistor in CE configuration, the ratio of power gain The gate is
to voltage gain is (a) NOR (b) OR (c) NAND (d) AND
(a) a (b) b / a Q.15 What will be the input of A and B for the Boolean
(c) ba (d) b expression ( A + B).( A.B) = 1
Q.10 The following truth table corresponds to the logic gate (a) 0, 0 (b) 0, 1 (c) 1, 0 (d) 1, 1
Q.16 To get an output 1 from the circuit shown in the figure, the
A 0 0 1 1 input can be
B 0 1 0 1
X 0 1 1 1
(a) NAND (b) OR
(c) AND (d) XOR
Q.11 The truth table shown in figure is for (a) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 (b) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
A 0 0 1 1 (c) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 (d) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
Q.17 The truth-table given below is for which gate?
B 0 1 0 1
A 0 0 1 1
Y 1 0 0 1
B 0 1 0 1
(a) XOR (b) AND
C 1 1 1 0
(c) XNOR (d) OR
(a) XOR (b) OR (c) AND (d) NAND
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17.

DPP/ P 58 3
Q.18 The combination of gates shown below produces Q.22 Given below are symbols for some logic gates. The XOR
gate and NOR gate are respectively
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(a) AND gate (b) XOR gate Q.23 Given below are four logic gates symbol (figure). Those
(c) NOR gate (d) NAND gate for OR, NOR and NAND are respectively
Q.19 Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the study of A y A y
(1) (2) B
truth table it can be found that to produce a high output (1) B
at R, we must have A y A y
(3) B (4) B

Doping changes the fermi energy of a semiconductor. Consider
(a) X = 0, Y = 1 (b) X = 1, Y = 1 silicon, with a gap of 1.11 eV between the top of the valence
(c) X = 1, Y = 0 (d) X = 0, Y = 0 bond and the bottom of the conduction band. At 300K the Fermi
Q.20 In the case of a common emitter transistor as/an amplifier, level of the pure material is nearly at the mid-point of the gap.
the ratio Ic /Ie is 0.96, then the current gain (b) of the amplifier Suppose that silicon is doped with donor atoms, each of which
is has a state 0.15 eV below the bottom of the silicon conduction
(a) 6 (b) 48 band, and suppose further that doping raises the Fermi level to
(c) 24 (d) 12 0.11 eV below the bottom of that band.
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, Conduction Band
correct answers and mark it according to the following Fermi Donor
1.11eV level level
codes:
Codes :
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct Valence Band
Q.21 Which of the following are false? Q.24 For both pure and doped silicon, calculate the probability
(1) Common base transistor is commonly used because that a state at the bottom of the silicon conduction band is
current gain is maximum occupied? (e4.524 = 70.38)
(2) Common collector is commonly used because current (a) 5.20 × 10–2 (b) 1.40 × 10–2
gain is maximum (c) 10.5 × 10 –2 (d) 14 × 10–2
(3) Common emitter is the least used transistor Q.25 Calculate the probability that a donor state in the doped
(4) Common emitter is commonly used because current material is occupied? e–1.547 = 0.212
gain is maximum (a) 0.824 (b) 0.08
(c) 0.008 (d) 8.2
RESPONSE 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

GRID 23. 24. 25.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 58
DIRECTIONS (Q. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains Q.27 Statement -1 : The following circuit represents ‘OR’ gate
correct choice. Statement-2 : For the above circuit Y = X = A + B = A + B
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Q.28 Statement -1 : De-morgan’s theorem A + B = A.B may be
correct explanation for Statement-1. explained by the following circuit
Q.26 Statement -1 : The logic gate NOT cannot be built by using
diode.
Statement -2 : In the following circuit, for output 1 inputs
Statement -2 : The output voltage and the input voltage of
A,B,C are 1, 0, 1.
the diode have 180° phase difference.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Communication Systems, Laser

59
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice Q.3 Range of frequencies allotted for commercial FM radio
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out broadcast is
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 88 to 108 MHz (b) 88 to 108 kHz
Q.1 In short wave communication which of the following (c) 8 to 88 MHz (d) 88 to 108 GHz
frequencies will be reflected back by the ionospheric layer, Q.4 The process of superimposing signal frequency (i.e. audio
having electron density 1011 per m3. wave) on the carrier wave is known as
(a) 2.84 MHz (b) 10.42 MHz
(a) Transmission (b) Reception
(c) 12.24 MHz (d) 18.1 MHz
(c) Modulation (d) Detection
Q.2 In an amplitude modulated wave for audio frequency of
500 cycle/second, the appropriate carrier frequency will Q.5 The characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable is of the
be order of
(a) 50 cycles/sec (b) 100 cycles/sec (a) 50W (b) 200W
(c) 500 cycles/sec (d) 50, 000 cycles/sec (c) 270W (d) None of these

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 59
Q.6 If m1 and m 2 are the refractive indices of the materials of (b) that converts radio frequency signal into
electromagnetic energy
core and cladding of an optical fibre, then the loss of light
(c) that converts guided electromagnetic waves into free
due to its leakage can be minimised by having
space electromagnetic waves and vice-versa
(a) m1 > m2 (b) m1 < m 2 (d) None of these
(c) m1 = m2 (d) None of these Q.14 While tuning in a certain broadcast station with a receiver,
we are actually
Q.7 Maximum usable frequency (MUF) in F-region layer is x,
(a) varying the local oscillator frequency
when the critical frequency is 60 MHz and the angle of
(b) varying the frequency of the radio signal to be picked
incidence is 70o . Then x is (cos 70° = 0.34) up
(a) 150 MHz (b) 170 MHz (c) tuning the antenna
(c) 175 MHz (d) 190 MHz (d) None of these
Q.8 A laser is a coherent source because it contains Q.15 In a communication system, noise is most likely to affect
(a) many wavelengths the signal
(b) uncoordinated wave of a particular wavelength (a) At the transmitter
(c) coordinated wave of many wavelengths (b) In the channel or in the transmission line
(d) coordinated waves of a particular wavelength (c) In the information source
Q.9 A laser beam is used for carrying out surgery because it (d) At the receiver
(a) is highly monochromatic Q.16 In an FM system a 7 kHz signal modulates 108 MHz
(b) is highly coherent
carrier so that frequency deviation is 50 kHz . The carrier
(c) is highly directional
swing is
(d) can be sharply focussed
Q.10 Laser beams are used to measure long distances because (a) 7.143 (b) 8
(a) they are monochromatic (c) 0.71 (d) 350
(b) they are highly polarised Q.17 The phenomenon by which light travels in an optical fibres
(c) they are coherent is
(d) they have high degree of parallelism (a) Reflection
Q.11 An oscillator is producing FM waves of frequency (b) Refraction
2 kHz with a variation of 10 kHz . What is the modulating (c) Total internal reflection
index? (d) Transmission
(a) 0.20 (b) 5.0 (c) 0.67 (d) 1.5 Q.18 In frequency modulation
Q.12 If f a and ff represent the carrier wave frequencies for (a) The amplitude of modulated wave varies as frequency
amplitude and frequency modulations respectively, then of carrier wave
(a) fa > f f (b) fa < f f (b) The frequency of modulated wave varies as amplitude
of modulating wave
(c) fa = f f (d) fa ³ f f (c) The amplitude of modulated wave varies as amplitude
Q.13 An antenna is a device of carrier wave
(a) that converts electromagnetic energy into radio (d) The frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency
frequency signal of modulating wave
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18.

DPP/ P 59 3
Q.19 Audio signal cannot be transmitted because Q.23 What type of modulation is not employed in India for radio
(a) The signal has more noise transmission?
(b) The signal cannot be amplified for distance (1) A mixture of both frequency and pulse modulation.
communication
(c) The transmitting antenna length is very small to design (2) Pulse modulation
(d) The transmitting antenna length is very large and (3) Frequency modulation
impracticable (4) Amplitude modulation
Q.20 For sky wave propagation of a 10 MHz signal, what should
be the minimum electron density in ionosphere Q.24 Which of the following are the characteristics of Laser
beams?
(a) ~ 1.2 ´ 1012 m -3
(1) They are monochromatic
(b) ~ 106 m -3
(2) They are coherent
(c) ~ 1014 m-3 (3) They have high degree of parallelism
(d) ~ 10 22 m -3 (4) They are not monochromatic
Q.21 What should be the maximum acceptance angle at the
aircore interface of an optical fibre if n1 and n2 are the and answer the questions that follows :
refractive indices of the core and the cladding, respectively
The electron density of a layer of ionosphere at a height 150 km
(a) sin -1 (n2 / n1 ) (b) sin -1 n12 - n22 from the earth's surface is 9 × 10 9 per m 3 . For the sky
transmission from this layer up to a range of 250 km,
é -1 n2 ù é -1 n1 ù
(c) ê tan n ú (d) ê tan n ú Q.25 The critical frequency of the layer is
ë 1û ë 2û
(a) 2 Hz (b) 2.7 Hz
more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the (c) 2.78 kHz (d) 2.7 MHz
correct answers and mark it according to the following Q.26 Maximum usable frequency is
codes:
(a) 3.17 Hz
Codes :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 3.17 × 106 HZ
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (c) 3.17×10 3 Hz
Q.22 In which of the following remote sensing technique is used?
(d) 3.17 × 1010Hz
(1) Forest density
(2) Pollution Q.27 Angle of incidence of this layer is
(3) Wetland mapping (a) 0° (b) sec–1 (1.51)
(4) Medical treatment (c) sec–1 (1.17) (d) 37°
RESPONSE 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

GRID 24. 25. 26. 27.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 59
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains Q.28 Statement-1 : Television signals are not received through
two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 sky-wave propagation.
(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Statement-2 : The ionosphere reflects electromagnetic
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the waves of frequencies greater than a certain critical
correct choice. frequency.
Q.29 Statement-1 : The electromagnetic waves of shorter
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a wavelength can travel longer distances on earth’s surface
correct explanation for Statement-1. than those of longer wavelengths.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is Statement-2 : Shorter the wavelength, the larger is the
NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. velocity of wave propagation.
(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. Q.30 Statement-1 : A dish antenna is highly directional.
(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. Statement-2 : This is because a dipole antenna is omni
directional.

Attempted Correct


Name : Date :
SYLLABUS : Practical Physics - 2

60
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.26) : There are 26 multiple choice (b) To include the resistance of the connecting wire and
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out copper strip
of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (c) To balance the known and unknown resistance.
(d) To eliminate the resistance of the gap.
Q.1 In making an Ohm’s law circuit, which of the following Q.3 Potential gradient of a potentiometer is equal to
connection is correct? (a) e.m.f per unit length
(a) Voltmeter in series and ammeter in parallel (b) potential drop per unit length
(b) Voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series (c) current per unit length
(c) Voltmeter and ammeter both are in parallel (d) resistance per unit length
(d) Voltmeter and ammeter both are in series Q.4 The refractive index of the material of a prism does not
Q.2 To calculate an unknown resistance with the help of a meter depend on which of the following factor?
bridge why is it advised to change the gap with the known (a) Nature of the material
and unknown resistance? (b) Wavelength or colour of light
(a) To eliminate the resistance of the connecting wire and (c) Temperature
copper strip (d) Angle of the prism.

EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 60
Q.5 A meter-bridge is based on the principle of Q.10 Current gain is maximum in which of the following
(a) Wheatstone bridge configuration of a transistor ?
(b) Variation of resistance with temperature (a) common emitter configuration
(c) Galvanometer (b) common base configuration
(d) None of these (c) common collector configuration
Q.6 A potentiometer works on the principle that (d) equal in both common emitter and common base
(a) when a current flows through a wire of uniform configuration
thickness and material, potential difference between Q.11 Which of the following operations will not increase the
its two points is directly proportional to the length of sensitivity of a potentiometer?
the wire between the two points (a) Increase in the number of wires of the potentiometer.
(b) when a current flows through a wire of uniform (b) Reducing the potential gradient.
thickness and material, potential difference between (c) Increasing the current through the potentiometer
its two points is inversely proportional to the length (d) Increasing the sensitivity of the galvanometer.
of the wire between the points Q.12 Which two circuit components are connected in parallel
(c) when a current flows through a wire of uniform in the following circuit diagram ?
thickness and material, potential difference between (a) Rheostat and voltmeter
its two points doesn't depend on the length of the wire (b) Voltmeter and ammeter
between the points
(c) Voltmeter and resistor
(d) none of these
(d) Ammeter and resistor
Q.7 Which of the following statement is wrong regarding a
Q.13 A current of 4A produces a deflection of 30° in the
p–n junction diode?
galvanometer. The figure of merit is
(a) When the p-type section is connected to the positive
(a) 6.5 A/rad (b) 7.6 A/rad
terminal and the n-type section to the negative terminal
(c) 7.5 A/rad (d) 8.0 A/rad
of the battery the diode is called forward biased
(b) When the p-type section is connected to the negative Q.14 Two potentiometers A and B having 4 wires and 10 wires,
terminal and the n-type section to the positive terminal each having 100 cm in length are used to compare e.m.f.
of the battery the diode is said to be reverse biased of 2 cells. Which one will give a larger balancing length?
(c) When the diode is in reverse biased mode a forward (a) Balancing length doesn't depend on the total length
current flows of the wire.
(d) When the diode is in forward biased mode a forward (b) Both A and B will give same balancing length
current flows. (c) Potentiometer B
Q.8 A Zener diode operates on which of the following bias? (d) Potentiometer A
(a) Forward bias Q.15 An LED operates under which biasing condition?
(b) Reverse bias (a) Forward bias
(c) Both forward and reverse bias. (b) Reverse bias
(d) No biasing is required for it. (c) Can operate both in forward and reverse bias
Q.9 The transfer characteristics of a transistor means a plot of (d) No biasing is required.
(a) input voltage versus input current Q.16 How are the currents flowing in the emitter, base and the
(b) output voltage versus output current. collector related to each other?
(c) output voltage versus input voltage (a) Ic =Ib + Ie (b) Ie =Ib + Ic
(d) input current versus output current. (c) Ib =Ie + Ic (d) Ie =Ic – Ib
5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
RESPONSE
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
GRID
15. 16.

DPP/ P 60 3
Q.17 The potential gradient of a potentiometer can be increased (a) (1.5 ± 0.05)kW R H
by which of the following operation? (b) (1.2 ± 0.05) k W E
(a) By increasing the area of cross-section of the (c) (1.2 ± 0.08) kW V R
potentiometer wire. (d) (1.5 ± 0.08) kW A
(b) By decreasing the area of cross-section of the Q.21 In an experiment to measure the focal length of a concave
potentiometer wire. mirror, it was found that for an object distance of 0.30 m,
(c) By decreasing the current through it. the image distance come out to be 0.60 m. Determine the
(d) By using a wire of material of low specific resistance. focal length.
when A is decreased, k will increase. (a) (0.2 ± 0.01) m (b) (0.1 ± 0.01) m
Q.18 Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one (c) (0.2 ± 0.02) m (d) (0.1 ± 0.02) m
is reverse biased ? Q.22 In an experiment to determine an unknown resistance, a
+10 V 100 cm long resistance wire is used. The unknown
resistance is kept in the left gap and a known resistance is
–12 V R
(a) R
(b) put into the right gap. The scale used to measure length has
+5 V –5 V a least count 1 mm. The null point B is obtained at 40.0 cm
+5 V from the left gap. Determine the percentage error in the
(c) (d) R
computation of unknown resistance.
R
(a) 0.24% (b) 0.28% (c) 0.50% (d) 0.42%
–10 V
Q.23 In an experiment to determine the focal length
Q.19 To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors (f ) of a concave mirror by the u - v method, a student places
when connected in series, a student arranged the circuit the object pin A on the principal axis at a distance x from
components as shown in the diagram. But he did not the pole P. The student looks at the pin and its inverted
succeed to achieve the objective. image from a distance keeping his/her eye in line with PA.
When the student shifts his/her eye towards left, the image
appears to the right of the object pin. Then,
(a) x < f (b) f < x < 2f
(c) x = 2f (d) x > 2f
æ 1ö æ 1ö
Which of the following mistakes has been committed by Q.24 For a convex spherical mirror, the graph of çè v ÷ø verses çè u ÷ø
him in setting up the circuit ?
is
(a) Position of voltmeter is incorrect (a) 1/ v (b) 1/ v
(b) Position of ammeter is incorrect
(c) Terminals of voltmeter are wrongly connected
(d) Terminals of ammeter are wrongly connected O 1/ u
1/ u
Q.20 In the circuit shown, voltmeter is ideal and its least count O
(c) 1/ v (d) 1/ v
is 0.1 V. The least count of ammeter is 1 mA. Let reading
of the voltmeter be 30.0 V and the reading of ammeter is
0.020 A. Calculate the value of resistance R within error
1/ u 1/ u
limits. O O
RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID 22. 23. 24.

EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 60
Q.25 If the wire in the experiment to determine the resistivity (ii) Calculate field E(r) at distance ‘r’ from A by using Ohm’s
of a material using meter bridge is replaced by copper or law E = r j, where j is the current per unit area at ‘r’.
hollow wire the balance point i.e. null point shifts to (iii) From the ‘r’ dependence of E(r), I DV I
(a) right (b) left obtain the potential V(r) at r.

(c) at same point (d) none of these (iv) Repeat (i), (ii) and (iii) for current a b a
A B C D
Q.26 Which device is used to measure the potential difference ‘I’ leaving ‘D’ and superpose
between two points of a conductor in the laboratory ? results for ‘A’ and ‘D’.
(a) Voltameter (b) Ammeter
(c) Potentiometer (d) Galvanometer Q.27 DV measured between B and C is
DIRECTIONS (Q.27-Q.28) : Read the passage given below rI rI rI rI
(a) – (b) –
and answer the questions that follows : pa p(a + b) a (a + b)
Consider a block of conducting material of resistivity ‘r’ shown rI rI rI
in the figure. Current ‘I’ enters at ‘A’ and leaves from ‘D’. We (c) – (d)
2pa 2p(a + b) 2p(a - b)
apply superposition principle to find voltage ‘DV’ developed Q.28 For current entering at A, the electric field at a distance ‘r’
between ‘B’ and ‘C’. The calculation is done in the following from A is
steps:
(i) Take current ‘I’ entering from ‘A’ and assume it to spread rI rI rI rI
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 2 (d)
over a hemispherical surface in the block. 8pr r 2pr 4pr 2

Attempted Correct

DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 01
1 8. (a) Let radius of gyration [ k ] µ [ h]x [c ] y [G ]z
1. (d) f =
2p LC By substituting the dimension of
æ Cö [k] = [L] [h] = [ ML2T -1 ],[c ] = [ LT -1 ],
\ç ÷ does not represent the dimension of frequency..
è Lø
[G ] = [M -1 L3T -2 ]
2. (d) [n] = Number of particles crossing a unit area in unit
time = [L –2T –1] and by comparing the power of both sides
[n2] = [n1] = number of particles per unit volume = [L–3] we can get x = 1/2, y = – 3/2, z = 1/2
[x2] = [x1] = positions So dimension of radius of gyration are
[h]1/2 [c]–3/2[G]1/2
é L-2T -1 ù ´ [ L]
[n][ x2 - x1 ] 9. (b) Because magnitude is absolute.
\ D= =ë û = [ L2T -1 ]
[n2 - n1 ] -3 E
[L ] 10. (c) Stefan's law is E = s(T 4 ) Þ s =
T4
X M -1L-2T 4 A2
3. (d) Y = = = [M -3 L-2T 8 A4 ] Energy Watt
3Z 2 [ MT -2 A-1 ]2 where, E = = 2
Area ´ Time m
4. (a) In given equation, aZ should be dimensionless
kq Watt - m-2
s= = Watt - m-2 K -4
4
K
kq [ML2T -2 K -1 ´ K ]
\ a= Þ [a ] = = [ MLT -2 ] 11. (d) ct2 must have dimensions of L
Z [ L] Þ c must have dimensions of L/T2 = LT
T–2
a -2 12. (b) 6 × 10–5 = 60 × 10–6 = 60 microns
é a ù [ MLT ]
and P = Þ [b] = ê ú = = [ M 0 L2T 0 ]
b ë P û [ ML-1T -2 ] 1 q1q2 1 q1q2
13. (d) F= Þ Î0 = = C 2 m-2 N -1
4p Î0 r 2 4p Fr 2
1/ 2
P éF ù 2 P2 é F ù F 14. (b) According to the defition.
5. (c) v= Þ v = 2 êë m úû
\m µ
2l êë m úû 4l 2 2
l v 15. (b) Pyrometer is used for measurement of temperature.
16. (d) x = Ay + B tan Cz,
é MLT -2 ù -1 0 From the dimensional homogenity
Þ [m] = ê 2 -2 ú = [ ML T ]
ëê L T ûú éxù éBù
[ x ] = [ Ay] = [ B] Þ ê ú = [ y] = ê ú
6. (d) By substituting the dimensions of mass [M], length [L] ë Aû ë Aû
and coefficient of rigidity [ML–1T–2] we get [Cz] = [M0L0T0] = Dimensionless
M B
T = 2p is the right formula for time period of x and B; C and z–1; y and have the same dimension
hL A
oscillations. but x and A have the different dimensions.
7. (a) Time µ c x G y h z Þ T = kc x G y h z 17. (a) Let T µ S x r y r z
Putting the dimensions in the above relation by substituting the dimension of
Þ [ M 0 L0T 1 ] = [ LT -1 ]x [ M -1L3T -2 ] y [ ML2T -1 ]z [T] = [T], [ S ] = [ MT -2 ],[r ] = [ L ],[r] = [ML-3 ]
Þ [ M 0 L0T 1 ] = [ M - y + z Lx+ 3 y + 2 z T - x- 2 y - z ] and by comparing the power of both the sides
x = –1/2, y = 3/2, z = 1/2
Comparing the powers of M, L and T
–y+z=0 ....(i) 3
x + 3y + 2z = 0 ....(ii) so T µ rr 3 / S Þ T = k rr
– x – 2y – z = 1 ....(iii) S
On solving equations (i) and (ii) and (iii) 18. (c) E = hv Þ [ML2T -2 ] = [h][T -1 ] Þ [h] = [ ML2T -1 ]
-5 1
x= ,y=z=
2 2 ur ur ur
19. (c) P = A + B
Hence, dimension of time are [G1/2 h1/2c–5/2]. ur ur ur
Q= A–B
EBD_7156
2 DPP/ P 01
ur ur ur ur ur ur
P.Q = 0 Þ (A + B).(A – B) = 0 hc 6.6 ´10 -34 ´ 3 ´108
ur ur 27. (a) E= = = 4.95 ´10-19 J
Þ A2 – B2 = 0 Þ | A |=| B | l 4 ´10-7
= 3.0 eV
QP ^ Q 28. (a) Both statement -1 and statement -2 are correct and
20. (a) By substituting dimension of each quantitity in R.H.S. statement -1 follows from statement -2
of option (a) we get 29. (c) Let us write the dimension of various quantities on
two sides of the given relation.
é mg ù é M ´ LT -2 ù -1
ê hr ú = ê -1 -1 ú = [ LT ]. L.H.S. = T = [T],
ë û ëê ML T ´ L ûú
LT -2
This option gives the dimension of velocity. R.H.S. = 2p g / l = = [T -1 ]
21. (a) By principle of dimensional homogeneity L
(\ 2p has no dimension).
é a ù As dimension of L.H.S. is not equal to dimension of
ê 2 ú = [ P] R.H.S. therefore according to principle of homogeneity
ëV û
the relation.
\ [a ] = [ P ][V ]2 = [ ML-1T -2 ] ´ [ L6 ] = [ ML5T -2 ]
T = 2p g / l .
22. (c) f = c mx ky;
30. (a) Unit of quantity (L/R) is Henry/ohm.
Spring constant k = force/length.
As Henry = ohm × sec,
[M0L0T–1] = [Mx (MT–2)y] =[ Mx + y T–2y]
hence unit of L/R is sec
1 i.e. [L/R] = [T].
Þ x + y = 0, - 2 y = -1 or y =
2 Similarly, unit of product CR is farad × ohm
1 Coulomb Volt
Therefore, x = – or ×
2 Volt Amp
23. (a) Try out the given alternatives.
When x = 1, y = –1, z = 1 Sec×Amp
or = second
Amp
PC
P x S y C z = P1S-1C1 = i.e. [CR] = [T]
S
therefore, [L/R] and [CR] both have the same
[ML–1T –2 ] [LT –1 ] dimension.
= = [M 0 L0 T 0 ]
2 –2 2
[ML T / L T]
24. (c) Dimensions of angular momentum, [ L] = éë ML T ùû

2 -1
Dimensions of work, [ W ] = éë ML T ùû
2 -2
Dimensions of torque, [ t ] = éë ML T ùû
2 -2
Dimensions of energy, [ E ] = éë ML T ùû
2 -2
Dimensions of Young¢s modulus,
[ Y] = éëML-1T-2 ùû
Dimensions of light year = [L]
Dimension of wavelength = [L]
25. (d), 26. (b)
hG kgm 2s-1 ´ m3kg -1s-2

5
= 5 5
= s2 = s
c m /s
Putting the values of h, G and c in above relation
Planck time = 1.3 × 10– 43 s.
DPP/ P 02 3
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 02
M M l
1. (d) Density r = = 2 10. (c) T = 2p
V pr L g
Dr DM Dr DL l 4p 2 l
Þ = +2 + Þ T 2 = 4p 2 Þ g= 2
r M r L g T
0.003 0.005 0.06 1mm 0.1
= + 2´ + Here % error in l = ´ 100 = ´ 100 = 0.1%
0.3 0.5 6 100cm 100
= 0.01 + 0.02 + 0.01 = 0.04
0.1
Dr and % error in T = ´ 100 = 0.05%
\ Percentage error = ´ 100 = 0.04 ´100 = 4% 2 ´ 100
r
\ % error in g
2. (a) In division (or multiplication), the number of significant = % error in l + 2(% error in T)
digits in the answer is equal to the number of = 0.1 + 2 × 0.05 = 0.2%
significant digits which is the minimum in the given 11. (c) Mean time period T = 2.00 sec
numbers. & Mean absolute error DT = 0.05 sec.
3. (d) Percentage error in A To express maximum estimate of error, the time period
should be written as (2.00 ± 0.05) sec
æ 1 ö
= ç 2 ´ 1 + 3 ´ 3 + 1´ 2 + ´ 2 ÷ % = 14%
è 2 ø 12. (b) V = 4 pr 3
4. (a) Percentage error in X = aa+ bb + cg 3
5. (c) Errors in A and B will be added. \ % error in volume = 3 × % error in radius
6. (c) Given, L = 2.331 cm = 3 × 1 = 3%
= 2.33 (correct upto two decimal places) 13. (a) Weight in air = (5.00 ± 0.05)N
and B = 2.1 cm = 2.10 cm Weight in water = (4.00 ± 0.05)N
\ L + B = 2.33 + 2.10 = 4.43 cm. = 4.4 cm Loss of weight in water = (1.00 ± 0.1)N
Since minimum significant figure is 2.
weight in air
7. (d) The number of significant figures in all of the given Now relative density =
number is 4. weight loss in water
8. (c) 4MgL so maximum permissible error in Y 5.00 ± 0.05

Y= i.e. R.D =
pD 2l 1.00 ± 0.1
Now relative density with max permissible error
DY æ DM Dg DL 2DD Dl ö
= ´ 100 = ç + + + + ÷ ´ 100 5.00 æ 0.05 0.1 ö
Y è M g L D l ø = ±ç ± ÷ ´100 = 5.0 ± (1 + 10)%
1.00 è 5.00 1.00 ø
= æç
1 1 1 1 1 ö = 5.0 ± 11%
+ + + 2 ´ + ÷ ´ 100
è 300 981 2820 41 87 ø
æ DR ö DV Dl
= 0.065 × 100 = 6.5% 14. (b) \ ç ´100 ÷ = ´100 + ´ 100
è R ømax V l
b a cb
9. (d) a = 5 0.2
d g ed = ´ 100 + ´100 = (5 + 2)% = 7%
100 10
So, maximum error in a is given by
15. (c) Volume of cylinder V = pr2l
æ Da ö Db Dc Percentage error in volume =
ç ´ 100 ÷ = a. ´ 100 + b. ´100
è a ømax b c DV 2Dr Dl
´ 100 = ´ 100 + ´ 100
Dd De V r l
+ g. ´ 100 + d. ´ 100
d e æ 0.01 0.1 ö
=ç 2´ ´100 + ´ 100 ÷ = (1 + 2)% = 3%
= (ab1+ bc1+ gd1+ de1)% è 2.0 5.0 ø
EBD_7156
4 DPP/ P 02
24. (d) Here, s = (13.8 ± 0.2) m
DV 2Dr Dl
t = (4.0 ± 0.3) s
´ 100 = ´ 100 + ´ 100
V r l s 13.8
velocity, v = = = 3.45 ms–1 = 3.5 ms–1
t 4.0
æ 0.01 0.1 ö
= ç 2´ ´100 + ´ 100 ÷ = (1 + 2)% = 3% (rounding off to two significant figures)
è 2.0 5.0 ø
16. (b) H = I2Rt Dv æ Ds Dt ö

= ±ç + ÷ = ±ç
æ 0.2 0.3 ö ( 0.8 + 4.14)
+ ÷=±
v è s t ø è 13.8 4.0 ø 13.8 ´ 4.0
DH æ 2D I D R D t ö
´ 100 = ç + + ÷ ´ 100
H è I R t ø Dv 4.94
Þ =± = ±0.0895
= (2 × 3 + 4 + 6)% = 16% v 13.8 ´ 4.0
17. (c) Quantity C has maximum power. So it brings maximum D v = ± 0.0895 × v = ± 0.0895 × 3.45 = ± 0.3087 = ± 0.31
error in P. (rounding off to two significant fig.)
1
Hence, v = (3.5 ± 0.31) ms–1
18. (d) Kinetic energy E = mv 2
2 Dv
% age error in velocity = ´ 100 = ± 0.0895 × 100 = ± 8.95
v
DE v '2 - v 2 % = ± 9%
\ ´ 100 = ´ 100 = [(1.5)2 – 1] × 100
E v2 25. (a) Maximum percentage error in measurement of e, as given
by Reyleigh’s formula.
DE
\ ´100 = 125% (Given error is measurement of radius is 0.1 cm)
E De = 0.6 DR = 0.6 × 0.1 = 0.06 cm.
x De 0.06
19. (b) Required random error = Percentage error is ´ 100 = ´ 100 = 3.33%
4 e 0.6 ´ 3
1 2 26. (b) Speed of sound at the room temperature.
20. (b) \ E = mv l1 = 4.6 cm, l2 = 14.0 cm.,
2
\ % Error in K.E. l = 2 (l2 – l1) = 2 (14.0 – 4.6) = 18.8 cm.
= % error in mass + 2 × % error in velocity 18.8
= 2 + 2 × 3 = 8% v = f l = 2000 ´ = 376 m / s
100
21. (c)
27. (c) End correction obtained in the experiment.
22. (d) Since for 50.14 cm, significant number = 4 and for
0.00025, significant numbers = 2 l 2 - 3l1 14.0 - 3 ´ 4.6
e= = = 0.1 cm.
23. (a) Since percentage increase in length = 2% 2 2
Hence, percentage increase in area of square sheet 28. (d) Since zeros placed to the left of the number are never
= 2 × 2% = 4% significant, but zeros placed to right of the number are
significant.
29. (b) The last number is most accurate because it has
greatest significant figure (3).
30. (a) As the distance of star increases, the parallex angle
decreases, and great degree of accuracy is required for
its measurement. Keeping in view the practical
limitation in measuring the parallex angle, the maximum
distance of a star we can measure is limited to 100 light
year.
DPP/ P 03 5
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 03
1. (a) If t1 and 2 t2 are the time taken by particle to cover first 4. (a) The body starts from rest at x = 0 and then again comes
and second half distance respectively. to rest at x = 1. It means initially acceleration is positive
x/2 x and then negative.
t= = ...(i) So we can conclude that a can not remain positive for
3 6
x1 = 4.5t2 and x2 = 7.5 t2 all t in the interval 0 £ t £ 1 i.e. a must change sign
during the motion.
x x 5. (b) The area under acceleration time graph gives change
So, x1 + x2 = Þ 4.5t2 + 7.5t2 =
2 2 in velocity. As acceleration is zero at the end of 11 sec.
x i.e. vmax= Area of DOAB
t2 = ...(ii)
24 1
= ´11´10 = 55m/s
Total time t = t1 + 2t2 = x + x = x 2
6 12 4
So,average speed = 4 m/sec. a
2 B
dv bt 2 10 m/s
2. (c) = bt Þ dv = bt dt Þ v = + K1
dt 2
At t = 0, v = v0 Þ K1 = v0 A
t
1 2 O 11 sec.
We get v = bt + v0
2
6. (d) Let the car accelerate at rate a for time t1 then maximum
dx 1 2 1 bt 2 velocity attained, v = 0 + at1 = at1
Again = bt + v0 Þ x = + v0t + K 2
dt 2 2 3 Now, the car decelerates at a rate b for time (t – t1) and
finally comes to rest. Then,
At t = 0, x = 0 Þ K 2 = 0
0 = v – b(t – t1)
1
x = bt 3 + v0 t Þ 0 = at1 – bt + bt1
\
6
b
dv dv Þ t1 = t
3. (d) = 6 - 3v Þ = dt a +b
dt 6 - 3v
ab
dv Þ v= t
Integrating both sides, ò (6 - 3v) = ò dt a+b
log e (6 - 3v ) a
Þ = t + K1 7. (c) Sn = u + (2 n - 1)
-3 2
Þ loge(6 – 3v) = – 3t + K2 ....(i) a
At t = 0, v = 0 Þ loge 6 = K2 = (2 n - 1) (Qu = 0)
Substituting the value of K2 in equation (i) 2
loge(6 – 3v) = – 3t + loge 6 a a
Sn+1 = [ 2(n + 1) - 1] = (2n + 1)
æ 6 - 3v ö -3t 6 - 3v 2 2
Þ loge ç ÷ = -3t Þ e =
è 6 ø 6
Sn 2n - 1
\ =
Þ 6 - 3v = 6e-3t Þ 3v = 6(1 - e -3t ) Sn+1 2n + 1
Þ v = 2(1 - e-3t ) 8. (b) Distance = Area under v – t graph
\ vterminal = 2 m/s (when t = ¥) = A1 + A2 + A3 + A4
dv d é 1 1
Acceleration a = = 2(1 - e-3t ) ù = 6e -3t = ´1 ´ 20 + (20 ´ 1) + (20 + 10) ´1 + (10 ´ 1)
dt dt ë û 2 2
2
Initial acceleration = 6 m/s . = 10 + 20 + 15 + 10 = 55 m
EBD_7156
6 DPP/ P 03
æ t 2 t3 ö
Þ x = a0 ç - ÷ Qa=0Þ t=T
30 è 2 6T ø
Velocity (m/s)
20
displacement
Average velocity =
time
10 A2 æ T 2 T3 ö
A1 A3 A4 a0 ç - ÷
0 è 2 6T ø a 0 T
1 2 3 4 = =
T 3
Time (in second)
1 2 14. (b) Let u1, u2, u3 and u4 be velocities at time t = 0, t1,

9. (c) As acc. is constant so from s = ut + at we have (t1 + t2) and (t1 + t2 + t3) respectively and acceleration
2 is a then
1 2
x= at [u = 0] ....(i) u1 + u2 u + u3 u3 + u4
2 v1 = , v2 = 2 and v3 =
2 2 2
Now if it travels a distance y in next t sec.
in 2t sec total distance travelled Also u2 = u1 + at1, u3 = u1 + a(t1 + t2)
and u4 = u1 + a(t1 + t2 + t3)
1 By solving, we get
x+y= a(2t)2 ....(ii) (t + t = 2t)
2
v1 - v2 (t1 + t2 )
x+y =
Dividing eqn. (ii) by eqn (i), = 4 or y = 3x v2 - v3 (t2 + t3 )
x
dx d
g 15. (c) vx = = (3t2 – 6t) = 6t – 6. At t = 1, vx = 0
(2 ´ 4 - 1) dt dt
x ( 4) 2 7
= = a
10. (b) x (5) g 9 [QS = u+ (2n - 1)] dy d 2
(2 ´ 5 - 1) n th 2 vy = = (t – 2t) = 2t – 2. At t = 1, vy = 0
2 dt dt
11. (c) Let body takes T sec to reach maximum height.
Then v = u – gT B v=0 Hence v = v x2 + v 2y = 0
v = 0, at highest point.
16. (c) Initial relative velocity = v1 – v2.
u C Final relative velocity = 0
T= ...................(1]
g From v2 = u2 – 2as
Velocity attained by body in (T – t) sec
H
Þ 0 = (v1 – v2)2 – 2 × a × s
v = u – g (T – t)
u ( v1 - v2 ) 2
u Þ s=
+ gt 2a
= u – gT + gt = u – g
g A
If the distance between two cars is 's' then collision will
or v = gt ...................(2) take place. To avoid collision d > s
\Distance travelled in last t sec of its ascent
(v1 - v2 ) 2
1 1 \ d>
S = (gt ) t - gt 2 = gt 2 2a
2 2 where d = actual initial distance between two cars.
dx d 17. (c) If the body starts from rest and moves with constant
12. (c) v = = (2t2 + t + 5) = 4t + 1 m/s
dt dt acceleration then the ratio of distances in consecutive
dv d equal time interval S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5
and a = = (4t + 1) ; a = 4 m/s2
dt dt Dx
18. (c) Instantaneous velocity v =
dv æ tö Dt
13. (a) = a0 çè1 - ÷ø
dt T By using the data from the table
t v
æ tö æ t2 ö 0 - ( -2) 6-0
v1 = = 2m/s, v2 = = 6m/s,
Þò dv = ò è Tø
a 0 ç 1 - ÷ dt Þ v = a 0 ç t - ÷ 1 1
0 0 è 2T ø
16 - 6
dx æ t
t2 ö v3 = = 10m/s
Q = v so, ò dx = ò v dt Þ x = ò a 0 çè t - 2T ÷ø dt 1
dt So, motion is non-uniform but accelerated.
0
DPP/ P 03 7
23. (c) For an inertial frame of reference, its acceleration should
19. (a) 1 2 2v
at = vt Þ t = be zero. As reference frame attached to the earth i.e. a
2 a rotating or revolving frame is accelerating, therefore, it
20. (b) x = 4(t – 2) + a(t – 2)2 will be non-inertial.
At t = 0, x = – 8 + 4a = 4a – 8 Thus (2) & (4) are correct, so correct answer is (c).
dx 24. (c) Average speed
v= = 4 + 2 a (t - 2)
dt Total distance 2x 2v1v 2
= = =
At t = 0, v = 4 – 4a = 4(1 – a) Total time x x v1 + v 2
+
v1 v 2
d2x
But acceleration, a = = 2a
dt 2 Total displacement
Average velocity =
-at bt Total time
21. (d) x = ae + be
Q It comes back to its initial position
dx d
Velocity v = = (ae -at + bebt ) \ Total displacement is zero.
dt dt Hence, average velocity is zero.
= a.e-at (-a) + bebt (b) = -aae-at + bbebt Sol. For Qs. 25-27. a = sin pt
-at bt 2
Acceleration = -aae (-a ) + bbe .b \ ò dv = ò 2sin pt dt or v = - cos pt + C
p
= aa 2 e-at + bb2 eb t 2 2
Acceleration is positive so velocity goes on increasing At t = 0, v = 0 \ C = or v = (1 - cos pt)
p p
with time.
Velocity is always non-negative, hence particle always moves
22. (d) (1) a = 3 sin 4t
along positive x-direction.
dv \ Distance from time t = 0 to t = t is
Þ = 3sin 4t
dt
t t
2 2æ 1 ö 2 2
S=ò (1 - cos pt) dt = ç t - sin pt ÷ = t - 2 sin pt
Þ ò dv = ò 3sin 4t dt + c 0
p pè p ø0 p p
-3
Þ v= cos 4t + c 2t 2
4 Also displacement from time t = 0 to t = - sin pt
p p2
For initial velocity, t = 0
3 2
v0 = - +C Distance from time t = t to t = 1s = meters.
4 p
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (b)
3
At particular value of C = , v0 = 0 28. (d) Negative slope of position time graph represents that
4 the body is moving towards the negative direction and
Therefore, initial velocity may or may not be zero. if the slope of the graph decrease with time then it
(2) Acceleration = 0 represents the decrease in speed i.e. retardation in
Þ a = 3 sin4t = 0 Þ sin 4t = 0 motion.
np 29. (c) As per definition, acceleration is the rate of change of
Þ 4t = np Þ t= velocity,
4
r
where n = 0, 1, 2, ................. r dv
i.e. a = .
Therefore, the acceleration of the particle becomes zero dt
p If velocity is constant
after each interval of second. r
4 dv r
= 0, \ a = 0
(3) As acceleration is sinusoidal function of time, so dt
particle repeats its path periodically. Thus, the particle Therefore, if a body has constant velocity it cannot
comes to its initial position after sometime (period of have non zero acceleration.
function). 30. (d) The displacement is the shortest distance between
(4) The particle moves in a straight line path as it initial and final position. When final position of a body
performs S.H.M. coincides with its initial position, displacement is zero,
Since (1) & (3) are correct, hence correct answer is (d). but the distance travelled is not zero.
EBD_7156
8 DPP/ P 04
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 04
1. (c) If a stone is dropped from height h
-2 2 g ± 8 g + 8 g - 2 ± 2
1 2 t2 = =
then h = gt ......... (i) 2g g
2
If a stone is thrown upward with velocity u then Taking + ve sign t2 = (2 - 2) / g
1 2
h = -ut1 + gt1 ......... (ii) t1 2/ g 1
2 \ = = and so on.
t2 (2 - 2) / g 2 -1
If a stone is thrown downward with velocity u then
4. (d) Interval of ball throw = 2 sec.
1 2
h = ut2 + gt2 ......... (iii) If we want that minimum three (more than two) ball
2 remain in air then time of flight of first ball must be
From (i), (ii) and (iii) we get greater than 4 sec.
1 2 1 2 T > 4 sec.
-ut1 + gt1 = gt ......... (iv)
2 2 2u
> 4sec Þ u > 19.6m / s
1 2 1 2 g
ut2 + gt2 = gt ......... (v)
2 2 for u = 19.6 First ball will just strike the ground(in sky)
Dividing (iv) and (v) we get Second ball will be at highest point (in sky)
Third ball will be at point of projection or at ground
1 (not in sky)
g (t 2 - t12 )
-ut1 2 5. (a) The distance covered by the ball during the last t
\ =
ut2 1 seconds of its upward motion = Distance covered by it
g (t 2 - t22 )
2 in first t seconds of its downward motion
1 2
t t2 - t2 From h = ut + gt
or - 1 = 2 12 2
t2 t - t2
1 2
h= gt [As u = 0 for it downward motion]
By solving t = t1t2 2
2. (c) Since direction of v is opposite to the direction of g 6. (d) In the positive region the velocity decreases linearly
and h so from equation of motion (during rise) and in the negative region velocity
increases linearly (during fall) and the direction is
1 2 opposite to each other during rise and fall, hence fall is
h = -nt + gt
2 shown in the negative region.
7. (a) For the given condition initial height h = d and velocity
Þ gt 2 - 2nt - 2h = 0
of the ball is zero. When the ball moves downward its
velocity increases and it will be maximum when the ball
2n ± 4n2 + 8 gh
Þ t= hits the ground & just after the collision it becomes
2g half and in opposite direction. As the ball moves
upward its velocity again decreases and becomes zero
né 2 gh ù at height d/2. This explanation match with graph (a).
Þ t= ê1 + 1 + 2 ú
gë n û 8. (c) Acceleration of body along AB is g cos q
1 2
1 2 1 Distance travelled in time t sec = AB = ( g cos q)t
3. (c) h = ut + gt Þ 1 = 0 ´ t1 + gt12 Þ t1 = 2 / g 2
2 2
Velocity after travelling 1m distance 1
From DABC, AB = 2R cosq; 2 R cos q = g cos qt 2
2
v 2 = u 2 + 2 gh Þ n 2 = (0) 2 + 2 g ´ 1 Þ n = 2 g
4R R
For second 1 meter distance t2 = or t = 2
g g
1 2 9. (b) It has lesser initial upward velocity.
1 = 2 g ´ t2 + gt2 Þ gt22 + 2 2 gt2 - 2 = 0
2 10. (b) At maximum height velocity n = 0
DPP/ P 04 9
We know that n = u + at, hence uuur
Velocity of car w.r.t. train (nct ) is towards
0 = u - gT Þ u = gT West – North
u 21. (a) As the trains are moving in the same direction. So the
When n = , then initial relative speed (v1 – v2 ) and by applying
2 retardation final relative speed becomes zero.
u u gT T
= u - gt Þ gt = Þ gt = Þt = From v = u - at Þ 0 = (v1 - v2 ) - at Þ t = v1 - v2
2 2 2 2 a
r r
T u 22. (d) Let v A and v B be the respective velocities of the
Hence at t = , it acquires velocity .
2 2 particles at A and B. The relative velocity of particle at
A. w.r.t. to that at B is given by
2h t h r r r r
11. (b) t= Þ 1 = 1 v A - v B = v A + (- v B )
g t2 h2
12. (c) Speed of the object at reaching the ground n = 2 gh

If heights are equal then velocity will also be equal.
A B
10 vA=25m/s
13. (b) S = 10 + (2 ´ 3 - 1) = 35m
3rd 2 300m
10 S rd 7
S nd = 10 + (2 ´ 2 - 1) = 25 Þ 3 = (see figure). From triangle law of velocities if OP and
2 2 S nd 5
2 r r
PQ represent v A and - v B , then the required relative
14. (c) Sn µ (2n - 1) . In equal time interval of 2 seconds r
velocity v R is given by OQ .
Ratio of distance = 1 : 3 : 5
15. (c) Net acceleration of a body when thrown upward r
| vR | = 252 + 202 = 625 + 400 = 32.02 m / s
= acceleration of body – acceleration due to gravity
=a–g
16. (d) The initial velocity of aeroplane is horizontal, then the 25 æ 5ö
vertical component of velocity of packet will be zero. If Ð PQO = q, then tan q = Þ q = tan -1 ç ÷
20 è 4ø
2h
So t = vA 25
g P
vB=20m/s O
Totallength 50 + 50 100
17. (b) Time = = = = 4sec
Relative velocity 10 + 15 25 20
18. (d) Relative velocity
= 10 + 5 = 15 m/sec
Q
150
\t = = 10 sec Thus, the particle at A, appears to approach B, in a direction
15 making an angle of tan–1 (5/4) with its direction of motion.
19. (a) When two particles moves towards each other then
Let us draw a line from A, as AC, such that Ð BCA is equal
v1 + v2 = 4 ....... (i)
When these particles moves in the same direction then to q .
v1 – v2 = 4 ....... (ii) 300m B
By solving v1 = 5 and v2 = 1 m/s A
uuur uur uur
20. (b) nct = nc - nt
uuur uur uur
n ct = n c + (-nt ) M
vc
C
vct Thus, to B, A appears to move along AC. From B, draw a
perpendicular to AC as BM.
BM is the shortest distance between them.
4
45° \ BM = ABcos q = 300 ´ = 187.41 m
41
Also, AM = AB sin q = 234 .26 m
-vt vt \ time taken to cover a distance
EBD_7156
10 DPP/ P 04
AB = 234.26 m with a velocity of 32.02 m/s 25. (b) Vplane = 100 m/s
234.26
= = 7.32 sec.
32.02
23. (d) Since the wind is blowing toward the east, the plane
must head west of north as shown in figure. The velocity
of the plane relative to the ground vr pg will be the sum of vplane
the velocity of the plane relative to the air vr pa and the
velocity of the air relative to the ground vr ag.
(i) 1. The velocity of the plane relative to the ground is
given by equation :
r r r
v pg = v pa + v ag vwind vtotal
2. The sine of the angle q between the velocity of
the plane and north equals the ratio of vag and
vpa . Vtotal = (20)2 + (100)2 + 2 ´ 20 ´ 100 ´ cos135°
v ag 90 km / h æ 1 ö
sin q = = = 0.45 \ q = 26.74 = 400 + 10000 + 2 ´ 20 ´ 100 ´ ç - ÷
v pa 200 km / h è 2ø
(ii) Since vag and vpg are perpendicular, we can use the = 87 m/s
Pythagorean theorem to find the magnitude of vr pg.
v2pg = v2ag + v2pg v wind
26. (c) tan f = vwind
vplane vtotal
vpg = v 2pa 2
- v ag = (200 km / h )2 - (90 km / h )2
= 179 km/h. 20
=
100
r r 1r
24. (a) Using, S = uT + aT 2
2 æ 20 ö
\ f = tan -1 ç
è 100 ÷ø f
1 2 vplane
(i) -40 = 10T - gT u=10m/s
2 u vplane
2 27. (d) cos f =
or -40 = 10T - 5T 40m v total
v v plane 100
\ v total = = m /s
or 5T 2 - 10T - 40 = 0 h cos f cos f
28. (a) If components of velocities of boat relative to river is
2
10 + 10 - 4 ´ 5(-40) 10 + 100 + 800 same normal to river flow (as shown in figure) are same,
or T= = both boats reach other bank simultaneously.
2´5 10
10 + 30
= = 4 sec.
10 Boat 2 v Boat 1
v q q
2 ´ 10 River
(ii) t = = 2 sec.
g
29. (a) Both statement - 1 & statement - 2 are correct and
(iii) v = 10 + g × 2 = 30 m/s
statement - 2 is correct explanation of statement - 2
30. (d) Statement - 1 is true but statement - 2 is false.
DPP/ P 05 11
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 05
5. (b) Time taken to cross the river along shortest possible
æ 90° ö path is given by
1. (d) Dv = 2v sin ç
è 2 ÷ø
d
t=
1 v - u2
2
= 2v sin 45° = 2v ´ = 2v
2 v = velocity of boat in still water
u = velocity of river water
2p 2p d = width of river
= 2 ´ rw = 2 ´ 1 ´ = cm/s
60 30 15 1
\ =
10 60 5 - u2
2
æ qö
2. (b) Dv = 2v sin ç ÷ = 2 ´ 5 ´ sin 45° =
è2ø 2 Þ u = 3 km/h
320
Dv 10 / 2 1 6. (d) Here d = 320 m = km
\ a= = = m/s2 1000
Dt 10 2 t = 4 min
3. (c) For motion of the particle from (0, 0) to (a, 0) 5
ur ur v= u
F = - K (0iˆ + ajˆ) Þ F = - Ka $j 3
r
Displacement r = (aiˆ + 0 ˆj ) - (0iˆ + 0 ˆj ) = ai$ Putting values in t =
d
, u = 60 m/min
So work done from (0, 0) to (a, 0) is given by v - u2
2
ur r
W = F . r = - Ka $j . ai$ = 0 P Q R
7. (c) = =
For motion (a, 0) to (a, a) sin q1 sin q2 sin150°
ur
F = - K (ai$ + a $j ) and displacement 1.93 R
Þ =
r sin q1 sin150°
r = (aiˆ + ajˆ) - (aiˆ + 0 ˆj ) = a $j
So work done from (a, 0) to (a, a) 1.93 ´ sin150° 1.93 ´ 0.5
Þ R= = =1
ur r sin q1 0.9659
W = F . r = - K (ai$ + a $j ). a $j = - Ka 2
150°
So total work done = - Ka 2
P Q
4. (d) q2 q1
T T cos q
R
q
T sin q 8. (b)
P T
T cos 30°
W
30°
As the metal sphere is in equilibrium under the effect
of the three forces therefore
ur ur uur
T + P +W = 0 T sin 30° 30 N
From the figure
T cos q = W ................... (i)
T sin q = P ................... (ii)
From equation (i) and (ii) we get
P = W tan q and T 2 = P 2 + W 2
W
EBD_7156
12 DPP/ P 05
From the figure ur ur ur ur
T sin 30° = 30 ...(i) 16. (b) | A ´ B | = A. B
T cos 30° = W ...(ii) Þ AB sin q = AB cos q
By solving equation (i) and (ii) we get Þ tan q = 1
W = 30 3 N and T = 60 N \ q = 45°
ur ur
9. (c) Relative velocity = (3iˆ + 4 ˆj ) - (-3iˆ - 4 ˆj ) = 6iˆ + 8 ˆj 17. (a) P . Q = 0
10. (c) Þ a 2 - 2a - 3 = 0
vr
Þa=3
r uur ur
18. (a) S = r2 - r1
ur ur
vm W = F .S
30°
= (4$i + $j + 3k$ ).(11$i + 11$j + 15k$ )
90°
= (4 × 11 + 1 × 11 + 3 × 15) = 100 J
ur ur ur
19. (c) A = 3iˆ - 2 ˆj + kˆ, B = iˆ - 3 ˆj + 5kˆ , C = 2iˆ + ˆj - 4kˆ
vr 1 r
sin 30° = = A = 32 + ( -2) 2 + 12 = 9 + 4 + 1 = 14
vm 2
r
vm 0.5 B = 12 + ( -3) 2 + 52 = 1 + 9 + 25 = 35
Þ vr = = = 0.25 m/s
2 2 r
11. (a) To cross the river in minimum time, the shift is given C = 2 2 + 12 + ( -4) 2 = 4 + 1 + 16 = 21
du
by . As B = A2 + C 2 therefore ABC will be right angled
v triangle.
12. (d) Relative velocity = 10 + 5 = 15 m/s. r r
F1.F2
120 20. (b) cos q =
Time taken by the bird to cross the train = = 8 sec F1 F2
15
r ur r
13. (d) v = w ´ r (5iˆ + 10 ˆj - 20kˆ).(10iˆ - 5 ˆj - 15kˆ)
=
$i $j k$ 25 + 100 + 400. 100 + 25 + 225
= 3 -4 1 = -18i$ - 13 $j + 2 k$ 50 - 50 + 300
=
5 -6 6 525. 350
ur ur ur ur 1
14. (d) | A ´ B | = 3 ( A . B) Þ cos q =
2
AB sin q = 3 AB cos q
\ q = 45°
Þ tan q = 3
r r r r
Þ q = 60° 21. (a) r = a + b + c = 4iˆ - ˆj - 3iˆ + 2 ˆj - kˆ = iˆ + ˆj - kˆ
ur ur ur
Now | R | = | A + B | r
r iˆ + ˆj - kˆ iˆ + ˆj - kˆ
rˆ = = =
|r| 2 2
1 + 1 + (-1) 2
= A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos q 3
æ1ö
= A2 + B 2 + 2 AB ç ÷
è 2ø D C
2 2 1/ 2
= ( A + B + AB )
r r ur 300 m
15. (a) t = r ´ F = (7$i + 3 $j + k$ )(-3$i + $j + 5k$ )
22. (a)
$i $j k$
r A B
t= 7 3 1 = 14$i - 38 $j + 16k$ 400 m
uuur uuur uuur
-3 1 5 Displacement AC = AB + BC
DPP/ P 05 13
AC = (AB)2 + (BC) 2 = (400)2 + (300) 2 = 500 m r r æ - ˆj + kˆ ö

Unit vector perpendicular to A and B is ç ÷.
Distance = AB+BC =400+300=700 m è 2 ø
r r r
23. (a) A = 3iˆ - 2ˆj + k,
ˆ B = î - 3jˆ + 5k,
ˆ C = 2iˆ - ˆj + 4kˆ Any vector whose magnitude is k (constant) times
r r 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ
A = 32 + ( -2) 2 + 12 = 9 + 4 + 1 = 14 (2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ) is parallel to A so, unit vector
6
r r
B = 12 + ( -3) 2 + 52 = 1 + 9 + 25 = 35
is parallel to A .
uv
C = 22 + 12 + ( -4) 2 = 4 + 1 + 16 = 21 r r r r
28. (b) A+ B = A- B
As B = A 2 + C2 therefore ABC will be right angled Þ A2 + B2 + 2AB cosq = A2 + B2 + 2AB cosq
triangle. Hence cosq = 0 which gives q = 90°
r r Also vector addition is commutative.
24. (a) A ´ B = 0 \ sin q = 0 \q = 0°
r r r r
Two vectors will be parallel to each other. Hence A + B = B + A
25. (a), 26 (b), 27. (b) r r
29. (a) Let P and Q are two vectors in opposite direction,
iˆ ˆj kˆ r r r r
r r then their sum P + (-Q) = P - Q
A´ B = 2 1 1
= iˆ(1 - 1) - ˆj(2 - 1) + kˆ(2 - 1) r r
If P = Q then sum equal to zero.
1 1 1
30. (d) The resultant of two vectors of unequal magnitude
= - ĵ + kˆ given by R = A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos q cannot be zero
for any value of q.
EBD_7156
14 DPP/ P 06
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 06
1. (b) Given, that y = 3 x – (1/2) x2 ....(1) 2u sin q 2u sin q
8. (b) T = Þ2= Þ u sin q = g
The above equation is similar to equation of trajectory g g
of the projectiles
u 2 sin 2 q g 2 g
g H= = = =5m
y = tan q x – 1/2 x2 ....(2) 2g 2g 2
u 2 cos 2 q
Comparing (1) & (2) we get 9. (b) Let u1 and u2 be the initial velocities respectively. If h1
and h 2 are the heights attained by them, then
tan q = 3 Þ q = 60º
u12 u 22 sin 2 q
g h1 = and h2 = ...(1)
and 1/2 = (1/2) 2 2
2g 2g
u cos q
The times of ascent of balls are equal,
Þ u2 cos2 q = g Þ u2 cos2 60° = 10
we have t = u1/g = u2 sin q/g
Þ u2 (1/4) = 10 Þ u2 = 40 Þ u = 2 10 m/s \ u1 = u2 sin q ... (2)
2. (a) For angle of elevation of 60º, we have maximum height 2
h1 u
From eq. (1) = 2 12 ... (3)
u 2 sin 2 60º 3u 2 h2 u 2 sin q
h1 = =
2g 8g
h1 1
For angle of elevation of 30º, we have maximum height From (2) & (3), =
h2 1
u 2 sin 2 30 º u 2 h1 3
h2 = = ; = u 2 sin 2 q u 2 sin 2 (90 - q)
2g 8g h 2 1
10. (a) h1 = and h2 =
3. (b) Total time of flight = 2 × time taken to reach max. height 2g 2g
Þ t2 = 2t1 Þ t2/t1 = 2/1 \ h1 + h2 = u2/2g (sin 2q + cos2q)
4. (d) vx = dx/dt = 2ct, vy = dy/dt = 2bt
982
\v= v 2x + v 2y = u2/2g = = 490
= 2t c2 + b 2 2 ´ 10
5. (c) vy = dy/dt = 8 – 10 t = 8, when t = 0 (at the time of h1 – h 2 = 50, \ h1 = 270 m and h 2 = 220 m
projection.) 11. (c) Greatest height attained
v 2x + v 2y = u 2 sin 2 q
vx = dx/dt = 6, v = 8 2 + 6 2 = 10 m/s h= ... (1)
2g
6. (a) Horizontal component of velocity
Horizontal range
vx = ux = u cos q = 30 × cos 30º = 15 3 m/s
2
Vertical component of the velocity u 2 sin 2q 2u sin q cos q
R= = ... (2)
vy = u sin q – gt = 30 sin 30º – 10 × 1 = 5 m/s g g
v2 = vx2 + vy2 = 700 Þ u = 10 7 m/s Given that R=2h
7. (a) Let ux and uy be the components of the velocity of the
2u 2 sin q cos q 2 u 2 sin 2 q
particle along the x- and y-directions. Then Þ =
ux = dx/dt = u0 and uy = dy/dt = wa cos wt g 2g
Integration : x = u0 t and y = a sin wt Þ tan q = 2 ... (3)
Eliminating t : y = a sin (wx/u0)
This is the equation of the trajectory Hence sin q = 2/ 5 , cos q = 1/ 5 ,
At t = 3p/2w, we have, \ From (2) R = 4u2/5g
x = u0 3p/2w and y = a sin 3p/2 = – a
u 2 sin 2q
\ The distance of the particle from the origin is 12. (d) R = = (19.6)2 sin 90º /10 = 39.2 m
g
éæ 3pu ö 2 ù Man must run (67.4m – 39.2 m) = 28.2 m in the time
2
x +y 2 = êç 0
÷ + a2 ú taken by the ball to come to ground. Time taken by the
êëè 2w ø úû
ball.
DPP/ P 06 15
(b) Let at the time of impact, vx and vy be the horizontal
2u sin q 2´ 19.6 sin 45º 4
t= = = = 2.82 sec and vertical velocities respectively, then
g 9.8 2 vx = 700 × cos 37° = 700 × 0.8 = 560 cm/s
28 . 2 m and vy = – 700 × sin 37° + 1000 × (5/7)
Velocity of man = = 10 m/s = – 700 × 0.6 + (5000/7) = – 420 + 714.3
2 . 82 sec
= + 294.3 cm/sec (downward)
13. (a) Referring to (fig.) let P be a point on the trajectory B
whose co-ordinates are (4, 4). As the ball strikes the
ground at a distance 14 metre from the wall, the range is m
0c h
4 + 14 = 18 metre. The equation of trajectory is 50
vx
x2 / s
y = x tan q -(1/2) g cm
0
70 v
u 2 cos 2 q 37º
vy
A C
Y O 40 0cm
Velocity of the ball at the time of collision
v sina v= ( v 2x + v 2y )
v
·
usinq
u P v cosa \v= [(560 ) 2 + ( 294 .3) 2 ] = 632.6 cm/sec

q h
vy 294 .3
A ucosq B X Again tan q = =
vx 560
é gx ù æ 294 .3 ö
or y = x tan q ê1 - 2 2 ú or q = tan–1 ç ÷ = 27° 43'
ë 2 u cos q. tan q û è 560 ø
15. (d) Initial velocity is constant let the ball touches the
é 2u 2 x ù
ground at an angle q and velocity 3u
or y = x tan q ê1 - g sin q cos q ú
ëê ûú Hence 3u cos q = u or cos q = 1/3 or sin q = 8 /3
é xù The vertical component of velocity at the ground
= x tan q ê1 - ú ... (1)
ë Rû 3 8
Here x = 4, y = 4 and R = 18 = 3u sin q = = 8u
u 3
é 4ù æ7ö
\ 4 = 4 tan q ê1 - ú = 4 tan q ç ÷
ë 18 û è9ø 20 m
or tan q = 9/7, sin q = 9/ 130 and
cos q = 7/ 130 q u
Again R = (2/g) u2 sin q cos q
= (2/9.8) × u2 × (9/ 130 ) × (7/ 130 )
For a freely falling body it covers 20 m to acquire veloc-
18´ 9.8 ´ 130 ´ 130 98 ´ 13
u2 = = = 182, ity 8u
2´ 9 ´ 7 7
\ ( 8 u)2 – 0 = 2 × 9.8 × 20 or u = 7 m/s
u = 182 metre per second.
16. (b) The horizontal range of the projectile on the ground
14. (b) The situation is shown in fig.
(a) Let the ball collide after t sec 2h 2 ´ 10
From fig. OC = OB cos 37° = 500 cos 37° R= u g ÞR= 2 10
= 2 . 2 = 2m
= 500 × 0.8 = 400 cm ...(1)
Horizontal velocity = 700 × cos 37º 17. (a) R = ut Þ t = R/u = 12/8
\ OC = 700 × cos 37° × t Now h = (1/2) gt2 = (1/2) × 9.8 × (12/8)2 = 11 m
= 700 × 0.8 × t = 560 t ... (2) 18. (b) The situation is shown in the adjoining figure.
From eqs. (1) and (2) 560 t = 400 The time taken by the body is equal to the time taken
or t = (5/7) sec. by the freely falling body from the height 29.4 m. Initial
Now h = (1/2) g t2 = (1/2) × 1000 × (5/7)2 = 255.1 cm velocity of body
EBD_7156
16 DPP/ P 06
Here uy = – uy' = – 5.0 m/s and t = 2.0 s
30º \ h = (–5.0) × 2.0 + 1/2 × 10 × (2.0)2
v = – 10 + 20 = 10 meter
29.4 m 21. (b) Let the ball B hits the ball A after t sec
The X-component of velocity of A is
v0 cos 37º = 700 cos 37º
A B The X-compoment of position of B is 300 cos 37º
u sin q = 9.8 sin 30º = 4.9 m/s
The collision will take place when the X-coordinate of
From the relation, h = u sin q t + (1/2) gt2,
A is the same as that of B.
we get 29.4 = 4.9 t + (1/2) × 9.8 t2 Þ t = 2 sec
19. (b) The horizontal and vertical velocities of the bomb are As the collision takes place at a time t, hence
independent to each other. The time taken by the bomb 700 cos 37º × t = 300 cos 37º
to hit the target can be calculated by its vertical mo- or t = (300/700) = (3/7) sec
tion. Let this time be t. Putting h = 490 m and g = 9.8 m/
In this time the ball B has fallen through a distance
s2 in the formula h = 1/2 gt2,
we have 490 = (1/2) × 9.8 × t2, y = – 1/2 gt2 (Free fall of body B)
= – 1/2 × 980 × (3 / 7)2 = – 90 cm
2 ´ 490
\t= = 10 sec Hence the ball B falls a distance 90 cm
9.8
22. (b)
The bomb will hit the target after 10 sec of its dropping. (1) Because force is constant hence acceleration will be
The horizontal velocity of the bomb is 60 km/hr which constant. When force is in oblique direction with initial
is constant. Hence the horizontal distance travelled by velocity, the resultant path is parabolic path.
the bomb in 10 sec (horizontal velocity × time)
= 60 km/hr × 10 sec 2u sin q
(2) Total time of flight = T = ,
= 60 km/hr × 10/(60 × 60) hr = 1/6 km g
Hence the distance of aeroplane from the enemy post
is 1/6 km = 1000/6 m = 500/3 meter. u 2 sin 2 q
The trajectory of the bomb as seen by an observer on Maximum height attained H =
2g
the ground is parabola. Since the horizontal velocity of
the bomb is the same as that of the aeroplane, the fall- H u sin q
ing bomb will always remain below the aeroplane. Hence Now =
T 4
the person sitting inside the aeroplane will observe the
bomb falling vertically downward. (3) Initially the height of the monkey = MB = y = x tan q
20. (a) The angle of projection of the ball is q0 ( = 30º) and the Let the monkey drop to along line MA and the bullet
velocity of projection is u ( = 10 m/s). Resolving u in reach along the parabolic path OA. If both reach at A
horizontal and vertical components, simultaneously, the monkey is hit by the bullet.
we have horizontal component,
gx 2
ux = u cos q0 = 10 cos 30º = 8.65 m/s AB = x tan q – ,
and vertical component (upward), 2u 2 cos 2 q
uy = u sin 30º = 5.0 m/s \ MA = MB – AB
If the ball hit the ground after t sec of projection, then
the horizontal range is R = ux × t = 8.65 t meter gx 2
MA = x tan q – x tan q +
R 17 . 3m 2u 2 cos 2 q
\t= = = 2.0 s
8 .65 8 .65 m / s
gx 2
If h be the height of the tower, = ....(i)
then h = u'y t + (1/2) g t2, 2u 2 cos 2 q
where uy' is the vertical component M
v
(downward) of the velocity of the ball. A
Y
u
uy
X
ux
q
O B
h
Tower Time taken by the bullet to reach point A,
X x
t= ....(ii)
R=17.3m u cos q
DPP/ P 06 17
Hence from (1), MA = (1/2) gt2 25. (c) If the ball hits the n th step, the horizontal
The monkey drops through distance (1/2) gt2 in the and vertical distances traversed are nb and nh
same time. So the monkey is hit by the bullet. respectively.
u 2 sin 2q u
(4) The range R =
g h 1
b
u2 2
\ Maximum range Rmax = d = ....(iii)
g
u 2 sin 2 q
Height H = nth step
2g
\ Maximum height R
u2 Let t be the time taken by the ball for these horizontal

Hmax= ....(iv) and vertical displacement. Then velocity along
2g
horizontal direction remains constant = u ; initial vertical
From (iii) & (iv), Hmax = d/2 velocity is zero
\ nb = ut ....(1)
u 2 sin 2q
23. (a) Range of projectile, R = nh = 0 + (1/2) gt2 ....(2)
g From (1) & (2) we get
The range is same for two angle q1 and q2 provided nh = (1/2) g (nb/u)2
q2 = 90º – q1
2hu 2
2
u sin 2q1 Þ n= (eleminating t)
gb 2
At an angle q1, range R1 =
g 26. (a) y = (1/2) gt2 (downward)
At an angle of projection q2, Þ 1000 = (1/2) × 10 × t2 Þ t = 14.15 sec
u 2 sin 2q 2 æ 144´10 3 ö
Range R2 = ç ÷
g x = ut = ç 60´60 ÷ × 14.15= 571.43 m
è ø
u 2 sin 2 ( 90 º - q1 ) u 2 sin 2q1 27. (b) Horizontal component of velocity
= = = 720 × 5/8 = 200 m/s
g g Let t be the time taken for a freely falling body from 490.
Þ R1 = R2 Then y = (1/2) gt2
\ other angle = 90º - q1 = 90º – 15º = 75º Þ 490 = (1/2) × 9.8 × t2 Þ t = 10 second
Now horizontal distance = Velocity × time
= 200 × 10 =2000m
2u sin q
24. (a) t1 = Hence the bomb missed the target by 2000 m
g 28. (a) Since W = D K implies that the final speed will be same.
2u sin(90º -q) 2u cos q 29. (a) The time of flight depends only on the vertical
t2 = = component of velocity which remains unchanged in
g g
collision with a vertical wall.
2 u 2 sin 2q 2 30. (a) In statement-2, if speed of both projectiles are same,
t1 t2 = = .R horizontal ranges will be same. Hence statement-2 is
g g g
correct explanation of statement-1.
where R is the range, Hence t1t2 µ R
EBD_7156
18 DPP/ P 07
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 07
(1) (b) We have angular displacement (6) (d) We know that
linear displacement Circumference 2pr
= radius of path Time period = =
Criticalspeed gr
DS 2 ´ 22 ´ 4
Þ Dq = = = 4 sec
r 7 ´ 10 ´ 4
Here, DS = n (2pr) = 1.5 (2p × 2 × 10–2) = 6p × 10–2
Circumference 2 pr
6 p ´ 10 -2 (7) (b) Velocity = =
\ Dq = = 3p radian Time of revolution 60
2 ´ 10 -2
2p ´ 1 p
® Total angular displacement = = cm/s
60 30
(2) (a) We have w av =
Total time
2 2
For first one third part of circle, æ pö æ pö
Change in velocity Dv = çè 30 ÷ø + çè 30 ÷ø
S1 2 pr / 3
angular displacement, q1 = =
r r p
= 2 cm/s
For second one third part of circle, 30
2pr / 3 2 p (8) (a) Let the radius of the orbit be r and the number of
q2 = = rad revolutions per second be n. Then the velocity of electron
r 3
is given by v = 2pnr,
Total angular displacement,
q = q1 + q2 = 4p/3 rad v2 4p 2 r 2 n 2
Total time = 2 + 1 = 3 sec \ Acceleration a = = = 4 p2 r n2
r r
® 4p / 3 4p 2p Substituting the given values, we have
\ w av = rad/s = = rad/s a = 4 × (3.14)2 × (5.3 × 10–11) (6.6 × 1015)2
3 6 3
= 9.1 × 1022 m/s2 towards the nucleus.
(3) (c) Angular speed of hour hand,
The centripetal force is
Dq 2p FC = ma = (9.1 × 10–31) (9.1 × 1022)
w1 = = 12 ´ 60 rad/sec = 8.3 × 10–8 N towards the nucleus.
Dt
(9) (b) Given that radius of horizontal loop
Angular speed of minute hand, r = 1 km = 1000 m
2p w 12 9000 ´ 5
w2 = rad/sec Þ 2 = Speed v = 900 km/h = = 250 m/s
60 w1 1 18
1 2 dq v2 250 ´ 250
(4) (d) We have q = w0t + at Þ = w0 + at Centripetal acceleration ac= = = 62.5 m/s2
2 dt r 1000
This is angular velocity at time t.
Now angular velocity at t = 2 sec will be Centripetal acceleration ac 62.5
\ Gravitational acceleration = = = 6.38 : 1
g 9.8
æ dq ö
w = çè dt ÷ø = w0 + 2a = 1 + 2 × 1.5 = 4 rad/sec 2
t =2sec æ 5ö
2 ç 18 ´ ÷
(5) (d) The distance covered in completing the circle is v è 18 ø
(10) (b) We know that, tan q = =
2pr = 2p × 10 cm rg 100 ´ 10
2 pr 2p ´ 10
The linear speed is v = = = 5p cm/s 1 1
t 4 = Þ q = tan–1
40 40
The linear acceleration is,
v
v2 (5p )2 (11) (a) The angular velocity is w =
a= = = 2.5 p2 cm/s2 r
r 10 Hence, v = 10 m/s
This acceleration is directed towards the centre of the circle r = 20 cm = 0.2 m \ w = 50 rad/s
DPP/ P 07 19
(12) (b) Given that w = 1.5t – 3t2 + 2 (18) (a) Let W = Mg be the weight of the car. Friction
force = 0.4 W
dw
a= = 1.5 – 6t
dt M v2 W v2
Centripetal force = =
When, a = 0 r gr
Þ 1.5 – 6t = 0
1.5 W v2
Þt= = 0.25 sec 0.4 W =
6 gr
(13) (c) Given v = 1.5 t2 + 2t Þ v2 = 0.4 × g × r = 0.4 × 9.8 × 30 = 117.6
Linear acceleration a = dv/dt = 3t + 2 Þ v = 10.84 m/sec
This is the linear acceleration at time t (19) (c) Let v be the speed of earth's rotation.
Now angular acceleration at time t We know that W = mg
a 3t + 2 3 m v2
a= Þa= Hence W = mg –
r 2 ´ 10 -2 5 r
Angular acceleration at t = 2 sec
3 m v2
3 ´ 2+2 8 or mg = mg –
5 r
(a)at t = 2sec = = × 102
2 ´ 10 -2 2
2 m v2 2g r
= 4 × 102 = 400 rad/sec2 \ mg = or v2 =
3 r 5
(14) (a) Angular displacement after 4 sec is
1 2 1 2 1 2 ´ 9.8 ´ (6400 ´ 103 )
q = w0t + at = at = × 4 × 42 = 32 rad Now v2 =
2 2 2 5
Angular velocity after 4 sec Solving, we get v = 5 × 109 m/sec,
w = w0 + at = 0 + 4 × 4 = 16 rad/sec
(15) (a) Given a = 3t – t2 æ 2g ö
w= çè ÷ø = 7.8 × 104 radian/sec.
5r
dw
Þ = 3t – t2 Þ dw = (3t – t2)dt (20) (a) Let T be the tension produced in the stretched string.
dt
The centripetal force required for the mass m to move in a
3t 2 t 3 circle is provided by the tension T. The stretched length of
Þ w= - +c the spring is r (radius of the circle). Now,
2 3
Elongation produced in the spring = (r – l0)
At t = 0, w = 0 Tension produced in the spring,
3t 2 t 3 T = k (r – l0) ........ (1)
\ c = 0, w = - Where k is the force constant
2 3 Linear velocity of the motion v = 2p r n
Angular velocity at t = 2 sec, (w)t = 2 sec
mv2 m(2prn)2
3 8 10 \ Centripetal force = =
= (4) - = rad/sec r r
2 3 3
= 4p2 r n2 m ........ (2)
Since there is no angular acceleration after 2 sec
Equating equation. (1) and (2), we get
\ The angular velocity after 6 sec remains the same.
k (r – l0) = 4p2 r n2 m (\ T = mv2/r)
(16) (d) îx + yj
ˆ , x = r cos q, Þ kr – k ll0 = 4 p r n m
2 2
y = r sin q where q = wt r (k – 4p2 n2 m) = k l0

k l0
r = î ( r cos wt) + ĵ (r sin wt) Þ r= ........(3)
(k - 4 p 2 n 2 m)
v = dr/dt = – î (wr sin wt) – ĵ (w r cos wt) Substituting the value of r in eqn. (1) we have
a = d2 r/dt2 = – w2 r
(17) (c) Let R be the normal reaction exerted by the road on the é kl 0 ù 4p 2 n 2 ml 0 k
T=k ê 2 2
- l 0 ú or T =
car. At the highest point, we have ë (k - 4p n m) û (k - 4 p2 n 2 m)
m v2
= mg – R, R should not be negative. (21) (c) Two types of acceleration are experienced by the car
(r + h)
(i) Radial acceleration due to circular path,
Therefore v2 £ (r + a)g = (8.9 + 1.1) × 10
or v2 £ 10 × 10v £ 10 m/sec v2 (30)2
ar = = = 1.8 m/s2
\ vmax = 10 m/sec r 500
EBD_7156
20 DPP/ P 07
(ii) A tangential acceleration due to increase of tangential
speed given by
at = Dv/Dt = 2 m/s2
Radial and tangential acceleration are perpendicular to each
other.
Net acceleration of car
a= 2
a 2r + a 2t = (1.8) 2 + (2) 2 = 2.7 m/s
(22) (a) For A :
N sin q mg rg
Þ = Þ tan q = 2
N cos q 2
mv / r v
mv A2
Required centripetal force = r r rg
3l But tan q = \ = 2
h h v
(net force towards centre = T1)
This will provide required centripetal force Þ v= hg = 9.8 ´ 9.8 ´ 10 -2 = 0.98 m/s
mv A2 (24) (d) (1) Centripetal force is not a real force. It is only the
particle at A, \ T1 = requirement for circular motion. It is not a new kind of
3l force. Any of the forces found in nature such as gravitational
force, electric friction force, tension in string, reaction force
m(vB2 ) may act as centripetal force.
For B : Required centripetal force =
2l (3) Work done by centripetal force is always zero.
Remember w i.e. angular velocity, of all the particles is same
v2
vA vB vC (25) (a) We know, a =
\ w= = = r
3l 2l l
When a system of particles rotates about an axis, the (10)2
Hence v = 10 m/s, r = 5 m \ a = = 20 m/s2
angular velocity of all the particles will be same, but their 5
linear velocity will be different, because of different (26) (a) Given that the mass of the particle, m = 2 kg
distances from axis of rotation i.e. v = rw. Radius of circle = 3 m
Angular velocity = 60 rev/minute
2mv 2A 60 ´ 2p
Thus for B, centripetal force =
9l = rad/sec = 2p rad/sec
60
Because the angle described during 1 revolution is 2p radian
2mv 2A
Net force towards the centre T2 – T1 = The linear velocity v = rw = 2p × 3 m/s = 6p m/s
9l
v2 (6p )2
The centripetal acceleration = = m/s2
2mv 2A 5mv 2A r 3
Þ T2 = + T1 = (Putting value of T1)
9l 9l = 118.4 m/s2
For C :
mv2
(27) (a) F = = mrw2
mvC2 mvA2 r
Centripetal force. = Here m = 0.10 kg, r = 0.5 m
3l 9l
Net force towards centre = T3 – T2 2pn 2 ´ 3.14 ´ 10
and w = = = 2 rad/s
2 2 t 31.4
mvA mvA F = 0.10 × 0.5 × (2)2 = 0.2
\ T3 – T 2 = Þ T3 = + T2
9l 9l (28) (a) In non-uniform circular motion acceleration vector
makes some angle with radius hence it is not
6mvA2 perpendicular to velocity vector.
T3 = (on putting value of T2)
9l (29) (c) If speed is increasing there is a tangential acceleration.
Net acceleration is not pointing towards centre.
mv2 (30) (b) Both statements are true but statement-2 is not correct
(23) (b) N cos q = and N sin q = mg
r explanation for statement-1.
DPP/ P 08 21
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 08
(1) (a). O centrifugal force acting upward at point D, should be equal
or greater than the force mg acting downward at point D
q l should be equal or greater than the force mg acting
T Tcosq downward. Therefore
T q m v2D
·A · Tsinq · r
³ mg or v 2D ³ r g
mg
mg From equation (2) v 2D = 2g (h – 2r),
5
Form figure \ 2g (h – 2r) ³ r g Þ h ³ r
2
T cos q = mg ...... (1)
(3) (d). See fig, Here v = 360 km/hr = 100 m/sec
2 2
mv mv
T sin q = = ...... (2)
r l sin q N
mg
mg
Form eq. (1), T = · N
cosq
When the string is horizontal, q must be 90º i.e.,cos 90º = 0
N
mg
\T= =¥
0
mg
Thus the tension must be infinite which is impossible, so
mv2
the string can not be in horizontal plane. At lower point, N – mg = ,
The maximum angle q is given by the breaking tension of R
the string in the equation T cos q = m.g
mv2
Here T (Maximum) = 8 N and m = 0.4 kg N = weight of the flyer = mg +
\ 8 cos q = 0.4 × g = 0.4 × 10 = 4 R
1 70 ´ (10000)
cos q = (4/8) = , q = 60º N = 70 × 10 + = 2100 N
2 500
The angle with horizontal = 90º – 60º = 30º
mv2
At upper point, N + mg = ,
0.4 ´ v 2 R
From equation (2), 8 sin 60º =
4 sin 60o mv2
N= – mg = 1400 – 700 = 700 N
R
32sin 2 60º
v2 = = 80 sin2 60º
0.4 mv2
At middle point, N = = 1400 N
Þ v = 80 sin 60º = 7.7 m/sec R
(2) (a). Let m be the mass of the ball. When the ball comes (4) (a). Given that U(r) = 10r3
down to B, its potential energy mgh which is converted So the force F acting on the particle is given by,
into kinetic energy. Let vB, be the velocity of the ball at B. ¶U ¶
F=– =– (10 r3) = –10 × 3 r2 = –30 r2
1 ¶r ¶r
Then, mgh = m vB2 For circular motion of the particle,
2
The ball now rises to a point D, where its potential energy
m v2
is mg(h – 2r). If vD be the velocity of the ball at D, then, F= = 30 r2
r
1 Substituting the given values, we have,
m g (h – 2 r) = m v 2D ......(2)
2
Now to complete the circular path, it is necessary that the 3 ´ v2
= 30 × (10)2 or v = 100 m/s
10
EBD_7156
22 DPP/ P 08
The total energy in circular motion (8) (b). Suppose v be the velocity of particle at the lowest
position B.
1
E = K.E. + P.E. = mv2 + U(r) According to conservation of energy
2 (K.E. + P.E.) at A = (K.E. + P.E.) at B
1
= × 3 × (100)2 + 10 + (10)3 = 2.5 × 104 joule A
2 l
O
Angular momentum
= mvr = 3 × 100 × 10 = 3000 kg–m2/sec l
2pr 2 ´ p ´ 10 p
Also time period T = = = sec
v 100 5
B
(5) (a). Let T be the tension, q the angle made by the string
with the vertical through the point of suspension.
h 1 mg
The time period t = 2p = = p/2 1
g frequency
Þ 0 + mgl = mv2 + 0 Þ v = 2gl
2
g h 1
Therefore w = =4Þ = mv2
h g 16 q (9) (a). Maximum tension T = + mg
T r
h g
cos q = = h mv2
l 16 \ = T – mg
= 0.6125 Þ q = 52º 14' r
Linear velocity · mv2
= (l sin q)w =1 × sin 52º 14' × 4 or = 163.6 – 4 × 9.8 Þ v = 6 m/s
mg r
= 3.16 m/s
(10) (c). The situation is shown in fig. Let v be the velocity of
v2 the bob at the lowest position. In this position the P.E. of
(6) (d). Centripetal acceleration, ac = = k2 rt2 bob is converted into K.E. hence -
r
\ Variable velocity v = k2r 2 t2 = k r t
The force causing the velocity to varies
dv
F= m =mkr
dt
The power delivered by the force is,
P = Fv = mkr × krt = mk2r2t
1
(7) (a). We know centripetal acceleration mgl = mv2 Þ v2 = 2gl ....(1)
2
(tangential velocity) 2 (200)2 If T be the tension in the string,
ac = = = 400 m/sec2
radius 100
mv 2
then T – mg = ....(2)
at l
From (1) & (2), T = 3 mg
r
(11) (b). The velocity of the swimmer w.r.t. water vSR = 4.0 km/
ac h in the direction perpendicular to the river. The velocity of
O r
river w.r.t. the ground is vRG = 3.0 km/h along the length
of river.
Y
Tangential acceleration
at = 100 m/sec2 (given) VSG
2 2 o VSR
\ anet = a c + a t + 2a c a t cos 90 = 2
ac + a t 2
X
= (400) 2 + (100) 2 = 100 17 m/s2
VRG
DPP/ P 08 23
r
The velocity of the swimmer w.r.t. the ground is vSG where
mv2
= T + mg cos a
® ® ® l
V SG = V SR + V RG
On leaving the circular path
2
VSG = VSR 2
+ VRG = 4 2 + 32 T=0
= 16 + 9 = 25 = 5 km / hr mv2
\ = mg cos a
(12) (b). The minimum speed at highest point of a vertical circle l
Þ v2 = g l cosa ....(1)
is given by vc = rg = 20 ´ 9.8 = 14 m/s According to law of conservation of energy
(13) (a). The speed at highest point must be (K.E. + P.E.) at A = (K.E. + P.E.) at B
2p 1
v> gr , v = rw = r Þ 0 + 2mgl = mv2 + mgh
T 2
2p Þ v2 = 2g (2l – h) ....(2)
\ r > rg
T 5
From (1) & (2) h = l
2pr 3
r 0.5
T< < 2p < 2p < 1.4 sec h-l
rg g 9.8 Also, cos a =
Maximum period of revolution = 1.4 sec l
(14) (a). Let the particles leaves the sphere at height h, S
(16) (d) T sin q = M w 2 R
A
q
N T sin q = Mw 2 L sin q
B From (i) and (ii) L
h q q T
mg v
T = Mw 2 L q
2
= M4 p 2 n 2 L mw R
R
2
mv2
æ 2ö
= M4p2 ç ÷ L
= mg cos q – N è pø
R
When the particle leaves the sphere i.e. N = 0 = 16 ML
2
mv 50
= mg cos q (17) (a). v = 60 km/hr = m/s
R 3
Þ v2 = gR cos q ....(1) r = 0.1 km = 100m
According to law of conservation of energy
(K.E. + P.E.) at A = (K.E. + P.E.) at B v2
\ tan q = = 0.283
1 rg
Þ 0 + mgR = mv2 + mgh \ q = tan–1 (0.283)
2
Þ v2 = 2g (R – h) ....(2)
v2
2 (18) (c). We know that tan q = ..... (1)
From (1) & (2), h = R rg
3 Let h be the relative raising of outer rail with respect to
2 inner rail. Then
Also cos q=
3 h
(15) (a). Let the body will have the circular path at height h tan q = ...... (2)
l
above the bottom of circle from figure
(l = separation between rails)
v
v2
B From (1) & (2) , h = ×l
rg
120
h
O Hence v = 48 km/hr = m/s, (r = 400 m, l = 1m),
9
mg
(120 / 9)2 ´ 1
\ h= = 0.045 m = 4.5 cm
A 400 ´ 9.8
EBD_7156
24 DPP/ P 08
(19) (a). The woman has two velocities simultaneously while
running on the deck, one velocity is equal to the velocity mv2B
of ship i.e. 12 m/s due east and other velocity is 5 m/s due TB L 4 v 2 + gL 4
\ = = or B =
north. TT mvT2 1 v 2T - gL 1
- mg
N L
/s
13 m or v 2B + gL = 4v 2T - 4gL but v 2B = v 2T + 4gL
5 m/s
12m/s E \ vT2 + 4gL + gL = 4v 2T - 4gL Þ 3v 2T = 9gL

The resultant velocity of woman 10
\ vT2 = 3 ´ g ´ L = 3 ´ 10 ´ or v T = 10m / sec
= (12)2 + (5)2 = 13 m/s 3
r r r
(20) (c). If we consider velocity of rain with respect to the man (22) (d). Use definition of relative velocity VPQ = VP - VQ
is V km/h. r r
VP = const. ; VQ = const.
r r r r
vrg = 4km/h Rain \ | VPQ | = | VQP | = const. ; | VP | > | VQ |
r r
\ VPQ ® + ve ; VQP = - ve i.e. towards origin.
vmg = 3km/h (23) (c). He can only reach the opposite point if he can cancel
up the velocity of river by his component of velocity.
(24) (a). v = Rw
Road v1 > v2
(25) (b), (26) (b), (27) (c).
Relative velocity of man w.r.t. ground The path of a projectile as observed by other projectile is a
® ® ® straight line.
v mg = vm - v g ........(1)
u0sinq
Velocity of rain w.r.t. ground
® ® ® q
u0cosq
v rg = vr - v g ........(2)
u0sinq
u0cosq q v ba
vmg = 3 km/hr u0cosq B
u0sinq
vrm vrm= 4 km/hr v A = u cos q iˆ + (u sin q - gt) ˆj.vAB = (2u cos q) î
v B = -u cos q î + (u sin q - gt) ˆj ; a BA = g - g = 0

-vmg The vertical component u0 sin q will get cancelled.
The relative velocity will only be horizontal which is equal
® ® ® to 2u0 cos q
Velocity of rain w.r.t. man v rm = vr - v m Hence B will travel horiozontally towards left w.r.t A with
On subtracting eqn. 1 from eqn. 2 constant speed 2u0 cos q and minimum distance will be h.
® ® ® Srel l
v rm = v rg - v mg =
Vrel 2u 0 cos q
(28) (a) When two bodies are moving in opposite direction,
| vrm |= vrg 2 + vmg 2 = 42 + 32 = 5 km / hr relative velocity between them is equal to sum of the
(21) (d) Since the maximum tension TB in the string moving in velocity of bodies. But if the bodies are moving in same
the vertical circle is at the bottom and minimum tension TT direction their relative velocity is equal to difference in
is at the top. velocity of the bodies.
(29) (b) Time taken is shortest when one aims perpendicular to
mv2B mv2T the flow.
\ TB = + mg and TT = - mg
L L
(30) (d) v r / m = v r2 + v m
2
DPP/ P 09 25
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 09
(1) (a) Force causing the acceleration = 400 – 200 = 200N (8) (a) (a) The elevator having an initial upward speed of 8 m/
mass of the boy = 200/9.8 sec is brought to rest within a distance of 16 m
200 Hence, 0 = (8)2 + 2a (16) (Q v2 = u2 + 2as),
hence acceleration = F/m = × 9.8 = 9.8 m/s2
200 8´8
r a= - = – 2 m/sec2
F 6iˆ + 8jˆ 2 ´ 16
(2) (a) Acceleration = = in the direction of force Resultant upward force on elevator = T – mg. According to
m 10
and displacement Newton's law.
T – mg = ma
ˆ ˆ
r r 1r 1 æ 6i + 8j ö or T = mg + ma = m (g + a) = 1000 (9.8 – 2) = 7800 N
S = ut + at 2 = 0 + ç 10 ÷ 100 = 30 î + 40 ĵ (b) Let P be the upward force exerted on the man by the
2 2 è ø
elevator floor. If m' be the mass of the man, then, weight of
4 the man acting downward = m' g ,
So the displacement is 50 m along tan–1 with x-axis Upward force on the man = P – m'g
3
According to Newton's law. P–m' g = m' a or
(3) (a) From the law of conservation of momentum
P = m' (a + g) = (– 2 + 9.8) = 624 N
1000 × 5 + 0 = (1000 + 60) v
(9) (d) As P and Q move down, the length l decreases at the
1000 ´ 5 rate of U m/s
Þv= = 4.71 m/s
1060
A b b B
10
(4) (b) Weight of disc = kg , y
1000
q q
Let speed of the bullet = v
So rate of change of momentum of the bullets P Q
2 ´ 10 ´ 5
=
1000
v = applied force on the disc M
2 ´ 10 ´ 5 10 ´ g From figure, l2 = b2 + y2
Now × v=
1000 1000 Differentiating with respect to time
Þ v = 0.98 m/s2 = 98 cm/s2
dl dy
(5) (c) Total mass = 80 + 40 = 120 kg 2l = 2y (Q b is constant)
The rope cannot with stand this load so the fire man should dt dt
slide down the rope with some acceleration dy l dl 1 dl U
\ The maximum tension = 100 × 9.8 N \ = . = . =
dt y dt cos q dt cosq
m (g – a) = tension ,
120 (9.8 – a) = 100 × 9.8 Þ a = 1.63 m/s2 (10) (a) The engine, coach, coupling and resistance are, shown
(6) (b) Suppose the velocity of the body at the instant when it in figure.
reaches the pile of sand be v. Then
v2 = 0 + 2 (9.8) × (5 metre) = 98(Q v2 = u2 + 2as) COACH ENGINE
T
98 DRIVING
a=– = – 980 m/sec2 FORCE
2 ´ (0.05)
Driving force = 4500 N
Now, retarding force
F = mass × acceleration= 0.02 kg × (– 980 m/sec2) = –19.6 N (5 + 4)104
(7) (b) Impulse = F . t = Area under F-t curve from 4 ms to 16 Opposing force (Resistance) = = 900 N
100
ms = Area under BCDFB
= Area of trapizium BCEF + area of DCDE Resultant force = 4500 – 900 = 3600 N
Mass of engine and coach = 9 × 104 kg
1 1 According to Newton's law, F = ma
= (200+800) (2×10–6) + ×10 × 10–6 × 800
2 2 \ 3600 = 9 × 104 a
= 10 × 10–4 + 40 × 10–4 N–s = 50 × 10–4 or a = (3600) / (9 × 104) = 0.04 m/sec2
= 5.0 × 10–3 N-s So acceleration of the train = 0.04 m/sec2
EBD_7156
26 DPP/ P 09
Now considering the equilibrium of the coach only, we (17) (a) The change in momentum in the final direction is equal
have (T – R) = 4 × 104 × 0.04 (Q F = ma)
2.50 æ 250 ö
4 ´ 104
to the impulse = × 28 – çè - 1000 ´ 24÷ø = 13 Ns
1000
or T – = 4 × 104 × 0.04,
100
impulse 13
T = 4 × 104 × 0.04 + 4 × 102 = 1600 + 400 = 2000 N and force = = = 1300 N
time 1/ 100
® ®
(11) (d) Given that F1 = (8iˆ + 10j)ˆ and F = (4iˆ + 8j) ˆ in the direction of the ball.
2
r r dpr r r
Then the total force F = 12iˆ + 18jˆ (18) (b). We know F = Þ Fdt = dp
dt
r r r
r F 12iˆ + 18jˆ Þ 2 × 2 = dp Þ 4 = dp
So acceleration a = = = 2iˆ + 3jˆ m/sec2
m 6 Therefore change in momentum = 4 Ns
Net acceleration r dpr
®
(19) (a) We know = F
dt
| a | = 2 2 + 32 = 4+9 = 13 m/sec2 r r r r r r
(12) (c) From the relation Þ Fdt = dp = p2 - p1 = mv 2 - mv1
F 1000 r
F = ma Þ a = = = 1 m/s2 Þ 4 ĵ . 1 = 2 . v2 – 2(2 î )
m 1000
r ˆ = 2.vr - 2 (2i)ˆ = 4jˆ + 4iˆ
As the force is brake force, acceleration is – 1 m/s2 using Þ 2v2 4j.1 2
relation v2 = u2 + 2as, we obtain r
Þ v2 = 2iˆ + 2ˆj
2
æ 5ö r
2 çè18 ´ ÷ø Þ | v2 | = 2 2 m/s
u 18
2as = u2 Þ s = = = 12.5 m (20) (c) Initial momentum of the ball
2a 2
150
(13) (a) The water jet striking the block at the rate of 1 kg/s at a = × 12 = 1.8 kg.m/sec
speed of 5 m/s will exert a force on the block 1000
dm 150
F=v =5×1=5N Final momentum of the ball =– × 20= – 3.0 kg m/sec
dt 1000
Change in momentum = 4.8 kg m/sec
4.8
2 kg Average force exerted = Impulse/ time = = 480 N
a .01
(21) (b) Initial momentum of the body = mu = 20 × 3 = 60
And under the action of this force of 5 N, the block of mass and final momentum of the body = – mu = –20 × 3 = – 60
2 kg will move with an acceleration given by, The change in momentum of body in initial direction
F = ma Þ a = F/m = 5/2 = 2.5 m/s2 = – 60 – 60 = –120
(14) (a) Relative speed of the ball = (v + u) The change in momemtum imparted to the body in opposite
Speed after rebouncing = – (v + u) direction = 120
Dv m[(v + u) - {-(v + u)}] \ The impulse imparted to the body = 120 Ns
So, F = m = (22) (a) (1) Since the lift is moving down with an acceleration of
Dt t
3 m/sec2, then the inertial force F = ma, acts upwards on
2m(v + u) the body
=
t
2
R a=3 m/s
dp F=ma
(15) (b) F = Þ F dt = dp = p2 – p1
dt
Þ F × 1 = mnv – 0
Þ F = mnv
(Total mass of the bullets fired in 1 sec = mn) mg
(16) (a) The initial momentum = 15 × 10 = 150 kgm/s and Now, R + F= mg
change in momentum 0 - 150 or R = mg – F = mg – ma = m (g – a) = 60 (9.8 – 3) = 408 N
Force = = = –10 N (2) When the lift is moving down with constant velocity
time 15
A constant force of 10 N must be acting in opposite a = 0 and hence, R = mg = 60 × 9.8 = 588 N
direction to the motion of body. (3) The lift is now moving down with a retardation of
DPP/ P 09 27
3 m/sec2. i.e. W' = W + R = m (g + a)
The retardation is 3 m/sec2 in the downward direction is Hence, scale show a reading of
equivalent to an acceleration of 3 m/sec2 upwards.
Hence the direction of fictitious force is downwards. æ 50g ö
m (g + a) Newton = çè 50 +
a ÷ø
kg wt
Now, R = mg + ma = m (g + a) = 60 (12.8) = 768 N
(23) (b) When the lift is moving up m (g + a) = force (26) (a) Tension = m (g + a), when lift moving up, putting the
values, we get
æ gö 175 = 25 (9.8 + a) Þ a = 2.8 m/s2
10 ç g + ÷
m(g + a) è 3ø [negative sign shows that lift is moving downward]
The scale reading = = = 13.3 kg
g g (27) (b) Apparent tension, T = 2T0
When lift is moving down the scale reading æ a0 ö
So, T = 2T0 = T0 ç 1 + ÷
æ gö è gø
10 ç g - ÷
m(g - a) è 3ø
= = = 6.67 kg a
g g or 2 = 1 + 0 Þ a0 = g = 9.8 m/s2
g
(24) (a)
(1) A reference frame in which Newton’s first law is valid is (28) (b) Cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the dishes
called an inertial reference frame. from the table because of inertia. Therefore,
(2) Frame moving at constant velocity relative to a known statement- 1 is true.
inertial frame is also an inertial frame. This is Newton's third law and hence true. But
(3) Idealy, no inertial frame exists in the universe for statement 2 is not a correct explanation of statement 1.
practical purpose, a frame of reference may be considered (29) (d) According to Newton’s second law
as Inertial if its acceleration is negligible with respect to
the acceleration of the object to be observed. Force
Acceleration = i.e. if net external force on the
(4) To measure the acceleration of a falling apple, earth can Mass
be considered as an inertial frame. body is zero then acceleration will be zero.
(25) (a)
(i) In the case of constant velocity of lift, there is no reaction, dp
(30) (c) F= = Slope of momentum -time graph
therefore the apparent weight = actual weight. Hence the dt
reading of machine is 50 kg wt. i.e. Rate of change of meomentum = Slope of
(ii) In this case the acceleration is upward the reaction R = momentum-time graph = force.
ma acts downward, therefore apparent weight is more than
actual weight .
EBD_7156
28 DPP/ P 10
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 10
(1) (c) Force on the block (5) (a) We have acceleration
= Mass of the block × acceleration of the system
Fcos q 50 3
a= = = 5 3 m /sec2
P m 10
=M×
M+m The velocity after 2 sec, v = u + at
1 Þ v = 0 + 5 3 × 2 = 10 3 m/sec
(2) (b) Mass of the rope = 8 × = 4 kg (6) (a) All the forces acting on the two blocks are shown in
2
fig. As the blocks are rigid under the action of a force F,
Total mass = 50 + 4 = 54 kg both will move together with same acceleration.
F 108 R1
\ a= = = 2 m/s2
m 54
Force utilised in pulling the rope =4×2 = 8 N R1 M
Force applied on mass = 108 – 8 = 100 N
(3) (b) Mass of the rope = 15 × 2 = 30 kg F R
A
m
F 25 5
acceleration = = = m/s2
m 30 6 mg Mg
At the point 7 m away from point of application the a = F/(m+M) = 3/(1+2) = 1 m/s2
mass of first part of rope = 14 kg Now as the mass of larger block is m and its acceleration
5 a so force of contact i.e. action on it.
\ Force used in pulling 14 kg = 14 × = 11.67 N MF 2´3
6
f = Ma = = = 2N
The remaining force = (25 –11.67)N = 13.33 N M + m 2 +1
(4) (b) The various forces acting are shown in fig. (7) (a) As the same force is applied to the combined
The force of 100N has mass, we have
(i) horizontal component of 100 cos 30º = 50 3 N 1 1 1 a1a 2 5 ´ 15

= + or a= = = 3.75 m/s2
and (ii) A vertical component = 100 sin 30º = 50N a a1 a 2 a1 + a 2 5 + 15
(8) (a) As net force on the rod = F1 – F2 and its mass is M so
R acceleration of the rod will be
a = (F1 – F2)/M ...(i)
100 Now considering the motion of part AB of the rod,
N 50 3N which has mass (M/L)y,
30° Acceleration a given by
(i) Assuming that tension at B is T
M
W=10×10N F1 – T = y×a (from F = ma)
L
50N
M F1 - F2
Since the block is always in contact with the table, the Þ F1 – T = y (using eq. (1))
L M
net vertical force
R = mg + F sin q = (10 × 10 + 50) N = 150N æ yö æ yö
Þ T = F1 ç 1 - ÷ + F2 ç ÷
When the block moves along the table, work is done è Lø è Lø
by the horizontal component of the force. Since the (9) (b) The net acceleration of the system is given by
distance moves is 10 m, the work done is 1 1 1
= +
50 3 × 10 = 500 3 Joule. a a1 a 2
If v is the speed acquired by the block, the work done 1 1 1 1
must be equal to the kinetic energy of the block. = + + ...... = 1 + 2 + 3 + ......... + n
a a1 a 2 an
Therefore, we have
1 n n 2
500 3 = × 10 × v2 Þ v2 = 100 3 Þ v = 13.17 m/sec = [2 + (n – 1) 1] = [n + 1] =
2 2 2 n(n + 1)
DPP/ P 10 29
(10) (a) As the mass of the system is 6 + 4 + 2 = 12 kg and (15) (b) The string is massless and inextensible the tension T is
applied force is 60 N, the acceleration of the system same. Let mass B move down the inclined plane.
F 60 For B the equation of motion m1g sin q – T = m1a
a= = = 5 m/s2 30 × 9.8 × sin 53º – T = 30a
m 12
Þ 235.2 – T = 30 a ...(1)
Now at point A as tension in pulling the rope of mass
and for A the equation of motion
2kg and block Q of mass 4kg.
TA = (2 + 4) × 5 = 30N T – 20 × 9.8 × sin 37º = 20a
Similarly for B and C, T – 117.6 = 20a ...(2)
TB= (1 + 4) × 5 = 25N From (1) & (2) T = 164.64 N
and TC = (0 + 4) × 5 = 20N (16) (c)
(11) (a) In case (a), the pulling force = 2mg – mg = mg
and the mass is 2m + m = 3m
so acceleration a = mg/3m = g/3
While in case (b), the pulling force = 2mg – mg = mg
T
but, the mass in motion = m + 0 = m
Acceleration, a = mg/m = g ma m a
(12) (c) It this problem as the pulling force is 2mg while
a
opposing force is mg, so net force
F= 2mg – mg = mg,
mg
and as the mass in motion = m + m + m = 3m (Force diagram in the frame of the car)
force mg g Applying Newton’s law perpendicular to string
So the acceleration = = =
mass 3m 3 mg sin q = ma cos q
Now as A is accelerated up while B and C down. so
tension T1, is such that mg < T1 < 2mg a
tan q =
Actually for the motion of A, g
4 Applying Newton’s law along string
T1 = m (g + a) = m(g + g/3) = mg
3 Þ T - m g 2 + a 2 = ma
Now to calculate tension in the string BC we consider
the downward motion of C,
i.e. T2 = m (g – a) = m (g – g/3) = (2/3) mg or T = m g 2 + a 2 + ma
(13) (a) As pulley Q is not fixed so if it moves a distance d the (17) (a) As A moves up and B moves down with acceleration a
length of string between P and Q will changes by for the motion of A ,
2d (d from above and d from below) i.e. M will move 2d. T – 11 g = 11 a ... (i)
This in turn implies that if a (®2d) is the acceleration of for the motion of B,
M, the acceleration of Q and so 2M will be of (a/2) 11.5 g – T = 11.5 a ...(ii)
Now if we consider the motion of mass M, it is From (i) & (ii) ,
accelerated down so T = M(g – a) ...(1)
And for the motion of Q, m1 - m 2
2T – T' = 0 × (a/2) = 0 Þ T' = 2T ...(2) a= m +m
1 2
And for the motion of mass 2M,
T' = 2M (a/2) Þ T' = Ma ...(3) (11.5 - 11)9.8
g= = 0.218 m/sec2
1 11.5 + 11
From equation (2) and (3) T = Ma, so eq. (1) reduces Assuming that the particles are initially at rest, their
2
velocity at the end of 4 sec will be
æ 1ö 2 v = u + at = 0 + 0.218 × 4 = 0.872 m/s
çè 2 ÷ø Ma = M (g – a) Þ a = g (18) (a) The height ascended by A in 4 sec
3
(14) (a) The tension is same in two segments 1 2 1
For B the equation is h = ut + at = 0 + (0.218) 42 = 1.744 m
2 2
(40 × 9.8 – T) = 40a ...(1)
This is also the height descended by B in that time.
For C the equation is
(19) (c) At the end of 4 sec the string is cut. Now A and B are no
1 longer connected bodies but become free ones, falling
(T – 50 × 9.8 × ) = 50a ...(2)
2 under gravity.
From equation (1) and (2) a = 1.63 m/s2 Velocity of A, when the string was cut
distance of fall = 0.872 m/s upwards.
1 2 1 Acceleration a = – g (acting downwards),
S= at = × 1.63 × 42 = 13.04 m displacement from this position in the subsequent 2 sec
2 2
EBD_7156
30 DPP/ P 10
(2) If the downward acceleration of the lift is a = g, then the
1 2 1
h = ut + at = (0.872) × 2 + (–9.8) 22 body will enjoy weightlessness.
2 2 (3) If the downward acceleration of the body is a > g, then
= 1.744 – 4.9 × 4 = –17.856m the body will rise up to the ceiling of lift
A descends down by a distance of 17.856 m from the (25) (d), (26) (d), (27) (a).
position it occupied at the end of 4 sec from its start. B
has a free fall. Its position is given by Initial elongation = 2R cos 30° = 3R
So the acceleration of mass M is (2/3)g
while tension in the string PQ will be N
T = M(g – (2/3)g) = (1/3)Mg F
The force exerted by clamp on the pulley
30° 60° mg
2 2 2
= T +T = Mg
3
(20) (a) Here the system behaves as a rigid system, therefore
every part of the system will move with same accelera-
tion. Thus applying newton’s law
mg – T = ma ......... (i) Extension in the spring is
2T – mg = ma ......... (ii) x = AB – R = 2R cos 30° – R = ( 3 - 1) R
Doubling the first equation and adding
\ Spring force
1
mg = 3ma or acceleration a = g ( 3 - 1) mg
3 F = kx = ( 3 - 1) R = 2mg
(21) (c) Tension in the string R
FBD of bead is
æ gö
T = m (g – a) = m çè g - ÷ø 3 3 3
3 N = F (mg cos 30°) = (2mg + mg) = mg
2 2
2 Tangential force F1 = F sin 30° – mg sin 30°
T= mg
3
mg
(22) (a) = (2mg – mg) sin 30° =
(1) Inertia µ mass 2
(2) 1 Newton = 105 dyne \ tangential acceleration = g/2
28. (d) Here the acceleration of both will be same, but their
r DM r r masses are different. Hence, the net force acting on
(3) Thrust on rocket F = v - Mg
Dt each of them will not be same.
(4) Apparent weight of a body in the lift accelerated up is 29. (c) The FBD of block A in Figure is
W = m (g + a).
(23) (b) N
(1) If a1, a2, ... an be the accelerations produced in n
different bodies on applying the same force, the mg
acceleration produced in their combination due to the
The force exerted by B on A is N (normal reaction). The
1 1 1 1
same force will be = + + ...... force acting on A are N (horizontal) and mg (weight
a a1 a 2 an downwards). Hence statement I is false.
(2) Newton's Ist and IIIrd law can be derived from second 30. (d) T – m1g = m1a – .... (1)
law therefore IInd law is the most fundamental law out m2g – T = m2a – .... (2)
of the three law.
(24) (a) æ 2m1m2 ö æ m 2 - m1 ö
Solving (1) and (2), T1 = çè m + m ÷ø g a = ç m + m ÷ g
(1) For equilibrium of a body under the action of concurrent 1 2 è 1 2ø
® ® ® ®
forces F1 + F2 + F3 + .....Fn = 0
DPP/ P 11 31
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 11
(1) (a) Let the contact force on the block by the surface be F
minimum possible force F that can be applied, the friction
which makes an angle q with the vertical. The component
is limiting and hence
of F perpendicular to the contact surface is the normal f = mN, where N is normal force.
force N and the component F parallel to the surface is the in the vertical direction, there is no acceleration
friction f. As the surface is horizontal, N is vertically upward. \ N = mg
For vertical equilibrium in the horizontal direction,
F N let the acceleration be a, then
q mN = ma
mmg = ma
a = mg
f f = mN
Next consider the motion of M
The equation of motion is
N = Mg = (0.400) (10) = 4.0 N
F = mN = Ma
The frictional force is f = 3.0 N
F – mmg = Mmg
f 3 F = mg (M + m)
tan q = = Þ q = tan–1 (3/4) = 37º
N 4
N
(2) (c) The magnitude of the contact force is
F= 2 2
N 2 + f 2 = (4) + (3) = 5.0 N
(3) (c) The forces on the block are f = mN F
N f
Mg
(5) (b) When A moves with B the force opposing the motion is
mg the only force of friction between B and S the horizontal
q and velocity of the system is constant
(i) the weight mg downward by the earth R2

(ii) the normal contact force N by the incline, and
(iii) the friction f parallel to the incline up the plane, by the A
incline.
R1
As the block is at rest, these forces should add up to zero. F
Also since q is the maximum angle to prevent slipping, this B
is a case of limiting equilibrium and so f1
f = mSN
Taking component perpendicular to the lncline, F = f1 = mR1 = 0.25 (4 + 8) = 3N
N – mg cos q = 0 Þ N = mg cos q ....... (1) (6) (d) When A is held stationary the friction opposing the
Taking component parallel to the incline motion is between A and B and B and S. So
f – mg sin q = 0 Þ f = mg sin q ........ (2)
\ mSN = mg sin q R2 A
Dividing (2) by (1) ms = tanq
q = tan–1mS = tan–1 (0.3) f2
(4) (a) When the maximum force F is applied, both the blocks R1
F B
move together towards right. The only horizontal force on
the upper block of mass m is that due to the friction by the
S f1
lower block of mass M. Hence this force on m should be
towards right. The force of friction on M by m should be F = mR1 + mR2 = 3 + 0.25 (4)
towards left by Newton's third law. As we are talking of the F= 3+1= 4N
EBD_7156
32 DPP/ P 11
(7) (d) In this situation for dynamic equilibrium of B (10) (c) If y is the maximum length of chain which can be hang
out side the table without sliding, then for equilibrium of
R2 A the chain, the weight of hanging part must be balanced by
force of friction from the portion on the table
f2
f2 L–y
F R1 R
f1 f1
F = mR1 + mR2 + T ..... (1) W’

While for the uniform motion of A y
T = mR2 ....... (2)
Substituting T from Equation (2) in (1) we get
F = mR1 + 2mR2 = 3 + 2 x 1 = 5N
(8) (a) Figure shows the forces acting on the two blocks. As
we are looking for the maximum value of M/m, the W
equilibrium is limiting. Hence the frictional forces are equal
to m times corresponding normal force. W = fL ....... (1)
Equilibrium of the block m gives
M
N1 But from figure W = y g and
L
T M
m R = W' = (L – y)g
mN1 N2 L
mM
mg mN1 M So that fL = mR = (L – y) g
L
mg Substituting these values of W and fL in equation (1) we
q
get
T = mN1 and N1 = mg Þ T = mmg .... (1) M M
Next consider the equilibrium of the block M. Taking yg = m (L – y) g
L L
components parallel to the incline
T + mN2 = Mg sin q (11) (d) The insect will crawl up the bowl till the component of
Taking components normal to the Incline its weight along the bowl is balanced by limiting friction
N2 = Mg cos q so, resolving weight perpendicular to the bowl and along
These give T = Mg (sin q – m cos q) ...... (2) the bowl we get
From (1) and (2) mmg = Mg (sin q – m cos q)
M m R
=
m sin q - m cos q
(9) (a) The situation is shown in figure in the limiting
y
equilibriums the frictional force f will be equal to mN.
fL q R = mg sin
N
F q mg sinq mg cos
q
F q
fS = m N
fL = mg cos q
Mg y 1
R R 1 =
For horizontal equilibrium tanq = = 1 = ; 2 2 m
f L mR1 m R -y
F sin q = mN
For vertical equilibrium R1
F cos q + mg = N m2y2 = R2 – y2 ; y=
Eliminating N from these equations m2 + 1
F sin q = mF cos q + mmg
R é ù
m 1
F= So, h = R – y = R – = R ê1 - ú
(sin q - m cos q) m2 + 1 ê (m 2
+ 1) ú
ë û
DPP/ P 11 33
(12) (a) (18) (a) (i) In the force applied v/s friction graph : The graph is
a straight line of slope 45º for small F and a straight line
parallel to the F-axis for large F.
m (ii) There is small kink on the graph
(19) (a) (i) force of friction between two bodies may be equal to
L h zero
(ii) bodies may be rough
(20) (b) It is easier to pull a body than to push, because the
friction force is more in pushing than that in pulling
Loss in P.E. in reaching the bottom = mgh and gain in K.E. (21) (a)ma = µmg
a = µg
1 (22) (a)
reaching the bottom = mv2
2 (1) Kinetic friction is lesser than limiting friction.
where v is velocity gained by the body in reaching the (2) In rolling the surfaces at contact do not rub each other.
bottom (3) If a body is at rest and no pulling force is acting on it,
force of friction on it is zero.
1
\ Net loss in energy = mgh – mv2 (23) (a)
2 (1) Force of friction is partically independent of microscopic
work done against friction = FL area of surface in contact and relative velocity between
them. (if it is not high)
1 2
\ mgh – mv2 = FL ; v = (mgh - FL) (2) Normally with increase in smoothness friction
2 m decreases. But if the surface area are made too smooth by
(13) (a) Let R be the normal reaction on the block exerted by the polishing and cleaning the bonding force of adhesion will
floor. The limiting (maximum) force of static friction is increase and so the friction will increase resulting in 'Cold
fs = msR = msmg welding'
(3) Friction is a non conservative force, i.e. work done
= 0.4 × 2kg × 9.8 ms–2 = 7.84 N
against friction is path dependent.
The applied force F is 2.5 N, that is less than the limiting
(24) (c)
frictional force. Hence under the force F, the block does
(2) Friction may opposes the motion
not move. So long the block does not move, the (adjustable)
(4) If the applied force is increased the force of static friction
frictional force is always equal to the applied force. Thus
also increases upto limiting friction.
the frictional force is 2.5 N.
(25) (a), (26) (a), (27) (a).
(14) (b) When the block does not slip on the table surface, it
Fmax = kx + µ mg
performs simple harmonic motion along with the table.
Fmin = kx – µ mg
x = a sin wt
\ Fmax + Fmin = 2µ mg
The instantaneous acceleration of the block is
or 2 = 2 µ 10
d2 x \ µ = 0.1
= –w2a sin wt Fmax + Fmin = 2kx ......... (1)
dt 2
From graph, Fmax + Fmin = 5 and x = 0.1
Putting in eq. (1)
d2 x
The maximum acceleration is = w2a t = 2k (0.1) ; k = 25 N/m
dt 2 max
When x = 0.03
The maximum force on the block is fmax = mw2a kx = 25 × 0.03 = 0.75 N, which is less than µ mg
where m is its mass. The frictional force on the block is = 0.1 × 10 = 1N
mmg. since the block is at rest with respect to the table, we \ The block will be at rest, without applying force F.
have mw2a = mmg (28) (b) It is easier to pull a heavy object than to push it on a
(2pf)2a = mg level ground. Statement-1 is true. This is because the
mg 0.72 ´ 10 normal reaction in the case of pulling is less as compared
Þa= = = 0.02 m by pushing. (f = m N). Therefore the functional force is
4p 2f 2 4 ´ (3.14) 2 ´ 32
small in case of pulling.
(15) (c) Stopping distance is independent on mass. Statement-2 is true but is not the correct explanation of
(16) (a) (i) coefficient of static friction is always greater than the statement-1.
coefficient of kinetic friction
(29) (c) W = (force) × (displacement of point of application)
(ii) limiting friction is always greater than the kinetic friction
(30) (d) Statement – 2 is false because friction force may be
(iii) limiting friction is never less than static friction
more than applied force when body is retarding and
(17) (d) The system can not remain in equilibrium
external force is acting on body.
EBD_7156
34 DPP/ P 12
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 12
r
(1) (a) Here F = -î + 2jˆ + 3kˆ &
r v2 mu 2
Now from (1), m = kt +
d = (0 – 0) î + (0 – 0) ĵ + (4 – 0) k̂ = 4 k̂ 2 2
rr
\ W (Work done) = F.d = (-î + 2jˆ + 3k) ˆ . 4 k̂ = 12 J 1
Þ m (v2 – u2) = kt .....(2)
(2) (a) The minimum force with a body is to be pulled up along 2
the inclined plane is mg (sin q + m cos q) mdv
rr Again v= k
Work done, W = F.d dt
= Fd cos q = mg (sin q + m cos q) × d dv
= 5 × 9.8 (sin 60º + 0.2 cos 60º) × 2 = 98.08 J Þ m.v v = k Þ mv2 dv = kdx
dx
5 5 Intergrating,
(d) W = ò F dx = (7 - 2x + 3x 2 ) dx
(3)
ò 1
0 0 m (v3 – u3) = kx .....(3)
3
5 5 From (2) and (3),
é 2x 2 ù é 3x3 ù
= [7 x ] – ê 2 ú + ê 3 ú = 135 Joule
5
3 æ v -u ö
2 2
0 êë úû 0 êë úû 0
t= ç ÷ (x)
(4) (d) Given that, power = Fv = P = constant 2 è v3 - u 3 ø
dv mdv (7) (b) Mass of the chain hanging = 4 × 3 = 12 kg
or m v=P [as F = ma = ] Shift in center of gravity = 4/2 = 2m
dt dt
Work done, W = mgh = 12 × 9.8 × 2 = 235 .2 J
P v2 P (8) (b) Mass of 2 litre, water = 2 kg
or ò v dv = ò m dt Þ 2
=
m
t + C1 Total mass to be lifted = 2 + 0.5 = 2.5 kg
Work done , W = mgh = 2.5 × 9.8 × 6 = 147 J
Now as initially, the body is at rest
(9) (b) The following two forces are acting on the body
i.e v = 0 at t = 0 so, C1 = 0
(i) Weight mg is acting vertically downward
2Pt (ii) The push of the air is acting upward.
\ v= As the body is accelerating downward, the resultant force
m
is (mg – F)
1/2 Workdone by the resultant force to fall through a vertical
ds ds æ 2Pt ö
(5) (b) By definition v = or =ç distance of 20 m = (mg – F) × 20 joule
dt dt è m ÷ø
1
1/2 1/2 Gain in the kinetic energy = mv2
æ 2Pt ö æ 2P ö 2 3/2 2
Þ ò ds = ò ç dt Þ s = ç ÷ t + C2
è m ÷ø è mø 3 Now the workdone by the resultant force is equal to the
change in kinetic energy i.e.
Now as t = 0, s = 0, so C2 = 0
1
1/2 (mg – F) 20 = mv2 (From work-energy theorem)
æ 8P ö 2
s= ç t3/2
è 9m ÷ø
F
mdv
(6) (c) The force acting on the particle =
dt
æ mdv ö
Power of the force = ç
è dt ÷ø
v = k (constant)
a
v2
Þm = kt + c .....(1)
2
mu 2
At t = 0, v = u \ c=
2 mg
DPP/ P 12 35
mg l mgl
U= × =
5 10 10
\ Work done = U = mg l/50
(12) (a) At maximum speed all the power is used to overcome
the resistance to motion. Hence if the maximum speed is v,
1 then 50000 = 1000 × v or v = 50 m/s
or (50 – F) 20 = × 5 × (10)2
2 At 25 m/s, let the pull of the engine be P, then the power
or 50 – F = 12.5 or F = 50 – 12.5
50, 000
\ F = 37.5 N or P = = 2000 N
Work done by the force = – 37.5 × 20 = – 750 joule 25
(The negative sign is used because the push of the air is Now resultant force = 2000 – 1000 = 1000 N
upwards while the displacement is downwards.) Applying Newton's law ; F = ma, we have
(10) (a) 1000 = 1000 a or a = 1.0 m/s2
(13) (a) 1 mole i.e.235 gm of uranium contains 6 × 1023 atoms, so
R 2 kg i.e. 2 × 103 gm of uranium will contain
F sin 45°
2 ´ 103 ´ 6 ´ 1023
= atoms = 5.106 × 1024 atoms
235
F cos 45° Now as in each fission only one uranium atom is con-
sumed i.e. Energy yield per uranium atom
= 185 MeV = 185 × 1.6 × 10 –13 J = 2.96 × 10–11 J
So Energy produced by 2 kg uranium
mR = (No. of atoms ) × (energy /atom)
mg = 5.106 × 1024 × 2.96 × 10–11 = 1.514 × 10–14 J
As 2 kg uranium is consumed in 30 days i.e. 1.51 × 10–14 J
The different forces acting on the block are shown in fig.
of energy is produced in the reactor in 30 days i.e.
Now we have
2.592 × 106 sec
R + F sin 45° = m g ............(1)
So, power output of reactor
F cos 45° = m R ............(2)
From equation (1) and (2) E 1.514 ´ 1014 J
= = = 58.4 MW
m mg t 2.592 ´ 106 S
\ F=
cos 45º +m sin 45º (14) (c) When the vehicle of mass m is moving with velocity v,
Substituting the given values, we have 1
the kinetic energy of the where K = mv2 and if S is the
0.20 ´ (5 ´ 9.78) 2
F= = 11.55 N
(0.707) + (0.20 ´ 0.707) stopping distance, work done by the friction
The block is pulled through a horizontal distance W = FS cos q = m MgS cos 180º = – m MgS
r = 20 metre So by Work-Energy theorem,
Hence, the work done W = D K = Kf – ki
W = F cos 45° × r = (11. 55 × 0.707) × 20 = 163. 32 Joule
(11) (c) 1 2
v2
Þ – m MgS = 0 – Mv Þ S =
2 2mg
(15) (a) As T = (2p/w),
so w = 2p/(3.15 × 107) = 1.99 × 10–7 rad/s
Now v = rw = 1.5 × 1011 × 1.99 × 10–7 » 3 × 104 m/s
Now by work - energy theorem ,
l/5
1
W = Kf – Ki = 0 – mv2
2
1
=– × 6 × 1024 (3 × 104)2 = – 2.7 × 1033 J
Mass of the hanging part of the chain = (m/5) The weight 2
mg/5 acts at the centre of gravity of the hanging chain, i.e., Negative sign means force is opposite to the motion.
at a distance = l/10 below the surface of a table. (16) (b) As the particle is moving in a circle, so
The gain in potential energy in pulling the hanging part on
the table. mv2 k 1 k
= 2 Now K.E = mv2 =
r r 2 2r
EBD_7156
36 DPP/ P 12
dU
(22) (a) W = 0
Now as F=– (23) (b)
dr
(1) There will be an increase in potential energy of the
r r
æ kö k system if work is done upon the system by a conservative
Þ P.E, U = – ò Fdr = ò + çè r 2 ÷ø dr = – r
force.
¥ ¥
(2) The work done by the external forces on a system equals
k k k the change in total energy
So total energy = U + K.E = – + =-
r 2r 2r (24) (a)
Negative energy means that particle is in bound state . (1) The work done by all forces equal to change in kinetic
(17) (c) Let the mass of the person is m energy
Work done, W = P.E at height h above the earth surface
(2) The work done by conservative forces equal to change
= (M + m) gh in potential energy
or 4900 = (M + 10) 9.8 × 10 or M = 40 kg
(18) (b) As the rod is kept in vertical position the shift in the (3) The work done by external and nonconservative forces
centre of gravity is equal to the half the length = l/2 equal to change in total energy
(25) (b), (26) (b), 27. (c)
l 4
Work done W = mgh = mg = 20 × 9.8 × = 392 J For vertical block
2 2
(19) (a) We know that the increase in the potential energy mg = kx + 2T ....... (1)
For horizontal block
é1 1 ù
DU = GmM ê - ú T = k (2x) ....... (2)
ë R R 'û
From eq. (1) and eq. (2)
According to question R' = R + R = 2R
mg
é1 1 ù GMm x= = 0.2m
DU = GMm ê - ú = 5k
ë R 2R û 2R
\ Extension of vertical spring = 0.2m
1 Extension of horizontal spring = 2x = 0.4m
(20) (c) In first case, W1 = m(v1)2 + mgh
2
From conservation of energy
1
m(12)2 + m × 10 × 12
= 1 2 1 1 1
2 mgx = kx + k(2x)2 + mv2 + m(2v)2
2 2 2 2
= 72 m + 120 m = 192 m
and in second case,W2 = mgh = 120 m 3 2 3
The percentage of energy saved mgx = kx + mv 2
2 2
192m - 120m
= × 100 = 38% 7 3
192m mgx = mv 2
10 2
a b
(21) (c) Given that, U (x) = -
12
x x6 v=
7
gx
15
du
We know F = – = (–12) a x–13 – (– 6b) x–7 = 0 Required speed = 2v = 1.9 m/s
dx
(28) (d) Statement – 1 is true but statement – 2 is false.
6b 12a
or
7
= (29) (a) Work done by action reaction force may be zero only if
x x13 displacement of both bodies are same.
1/6 (30) (b) Both statements are true and independent.
æ 2a ö
or x6 = 12a/6b = 2a/b or x = ç ÷
è bø
DPP/ P 13 37
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 13
(1) (a) Let m1 and m2 be the masses of bullet and the rifleman
m1. Applying conservation of linear momentum for the
and v1 and v2 their respective velocities after the first shot.
collision of bullet with plate m2.
Initially the rifleman and bullet are at rest, therefore initial
i.e. mv1 = (m2 + m) v
momentum of system = 0.
0.02 v1 = (2.98 + 0.02) v
As external force is zero, momentum of system is constant
i.e. initial momentum = final momentum 3
i.e. v1 = v = 150 v .........(2)
= m1v1 + m2v2 .02
(10 ´ 10-3 kg)(800m / s) Required percentage loss in initial velocity of bullet
m1 v1
or v2 = =– = – 0.08 m/s u - v1 200v - 150v
m2 100 kg
× 100% = × 100 = 25%
Velocity acquired after 10 shots u 200 v
= 10 v2 = 10 × (–0.08) = – 0.8 m/s (4) (a) Part (I) - The horizontal component of the momentum of
i.e, the velocity of rifle man is 0.8 m/s in a direction opposite the bullet is equal to the momentum of the block with the
to that of bullet. bullet
(2) (c) Let the mass of block and bullet be M and m respectively mu cos a = (M + m) V ..........(1)
If v is the velocity of bullet and V is the velocity of block Where V is the velocity of the block plus bullet embedded
with bullet embedded in it, in it.
Now according to conservation of momentum , Part (II) - As the block can move as a pendulum, the block
mv = (M + m) V rises till its kinetic energy is converted into potential energy.
(10×10 –3)(300) = (290×10–3 + 10 ×10–3) V or V = 10 m/s So, if the block rises upto a height h,
1 1
The kinetic energy just after impact is(M + m) V2, which (M + m) V2 = (M + m) gh ..........(2)
2 2
is lost due to work done on it by the force of friction F. From (1) & (2)
Since force of friction F = m (M+m)g and the work done is 2
æ m ö u 2 cos 2 a
given by Fd, we have h= ç ÷ .
èM+mø 2g
1
(M + m) V2 = m (M + m) gd
2 æ 20 ´ 10-3 ö
2
cos2 30o
= çç ÷ .(200)2 .
÷ = 0.15 m
1 V
2
1 10 2 1 2 (2) (10)
è ø
or m= = × =
2 gd 2 (10)(15) 3 (5) (c) Initial velocity of bullet, u1 = 500 m/s
(3) (a) Let the in itial velocity of the bullet of mass Let v1 and v2 be the speeds of bullet and block after collision
m = 20 g = 0.020 kg be u and v the velocity with which each
plate moves.
The initial momentum of system (bullet + plate) = mu
v1
m u1
0.1m m1 m v2
2
m4 m2
Final momentum of system = m1v + (m2 + m) v 1
respectively then, m v 22 = mgh
(Since bullet remains in 2nd plate) 2
\ According to principle of conservation of momentum
Þ v2 = 2gh = 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 0.1 = 1.4 m/s
i.e. mu = m1v + (m2 + m) v,
i.e. 0.02u = 4v According to principle of conservation of linear momentum,
We have
4
or u= = 200 v ..........(1) m1u1 + 0 = m1v1 + m2 v2
.02 or 0.01 × 500 = 0.01 v1 + 2 × 1.4 Þ v1 = 220 m/s
Let v1 be the velocity of the bullet as it comes out of plate
EBD_7156
38 DPP/ P 13
(6) (a) The rate of change of momentum is equal to force \ (v1 – v2) = 0 ......(4)
Solving equations (3) and (4), we have
dp dm
F= =v (Here v is constant) v1 = 3 3 m/s and v2 = 3 3 m/s
dt dt
dm
Here v = 4 × 103 m/s & = 50 × 10–3 kg/s
dt
\ F = 4 × 103 × 50 × 10 –3 = 200 N
v1
(7) (a) Given that, Initial velocity = u
30°
u 30°
Final velocity =
4
v2
So by conservation of momentum, we have
u 3u
1×u+0=1× + m × v2 Þ mv2 = ....... (1) According to law of conservation of energy
4 4
and by conservation of energy, we have Energy before collision = Energy after collision
1 1 1 1
1 1 æ uö 1
2 m u12 + m u 22 = m v12 + m v 22
× 1 × u2 + 0 = × 1 ç ÷ + m v 22 2 2 2 2
2 2 è 4ø 2
1 1 1
m (9)2 + 0 = m (3 3 )2 + m (3 3 )2
15 2 2 2 2
or v 22
= u ....... (2)
16
81 m 54 m
From equation (1) and (3), =
2 2
(mv2 )2 (9 / 16)u 2 L.H.S. # R.H.S.
= or m = 0.6 kg i.e., energy is not conserved in this collision or this is a
mv 22 (15 / 16)u 2
case of inelastic collision.
(8) (a) Initial momentum of the balls (9) (a) The situation is shown in fig.
=m×9+m ×0= 9m ........(1) Let v1 and v2 be the velocities of two pieces after explosion.
where m is the mass of each ball. Applying the law of conservation of energy, we have
Let after collision their velocities are v1 and v2 respectively.
Final momentum of the balls after collision along the same m1 = 4kg v1
line = mv1 cos 30° + mv2 cos 30° m = 8kg
mv1 3 mv2 3 q
= + ........(2) 30°
2 2
According to law of conservation of momentum u = 50m/s
v2
mv1 3 mv2 3
9m= +
2 2 1 1 1
(8) (50)2 + 15000 = (D) v12 + (D) v 22
9´ 2 2 2 2
= v1 + v2 .......(3)
3 or 25000 = 2 ( v12 + v22 ) ......(1)
Applying the law of conservation of momentum along
x-axis and y-axis respectively, we get
8 (50) = 4 v1 cos q + v2 cos 30° ......(2)
and 0 = 4 v1 sin q
Stationary ball
= 4 v2 sin 30° = 2 v2 ......(3)
(a) Before collision
The initial momentum of the balls along perpendicular v2
or sin q = ......(4)
direction = 0 . 2v1
Final momentum of balls along the perpendicular direction From eq. (2)
m 100 = v1 cos q + v2 cos 30°
= mv1 sin 30° – mv2 sin 30° =
(v – v ) (10) (a) Let m be the mass of the rocket and vr the relative
2 1 2
velocity of the gas ejecting from the rocket. Suppose the
Again by the law of conservation of momentum
fuel is burnt at a rate (dm/dt) to provide the rocket an
(m/2) (v1 – v2) = 0
acceleration a.
DPP/ P 13 39
(13) (a) Let the speed of the body before explosion be u. After
vr æ dm ö
Then a = ç ÷ –g ......(1) explosion, if the two parts move with velocities u1 and u2
m è dt ø in the same direction, then according to conservation of
Here vr = 250 m/s, m = 500 kg, g = 10 m/s2 and a = 20 m/s2 momentum,
dm m a Mu1 + (1 – a) M u2 = Mu
Now from (1) = (a + g) The kinetic energy T liberated during explosion is given
dt vr
1 1 1
500 by T = a M u12 + (1 – a) M u 22 – Mu2
= (20 + 10) = 60 kg/s 2 2 2
250
(11) (a) Let m1 and m2 be the masses of electron and hydrogen 1 1 1
= a M u12 + (1 – a) M u 22 –
atom respectively. If u1 and v1 be the initial and final 2 2 2M
velocities of electron, then initial kinetic energy of electron [ a Mu1 + (1 – a) Mu2]2
æ 1ö 1
Ki = çè ÷ø m u12 = M a (1 – a) [ u12 + u 22 – 2 u1 u2]
2 2
æ 1ö 2T
Final kinetic energy of electron Kf = çè ÷ø m v12 (u1 – u2)2 =
2 a (1 - a )M
Fractional decrease in K.E.,
2T
Ki - K f v12 Þ (u1 – u2) =
a(1 - a)M
= 1 - .........(1)
Ki u12 (14) (a) The situation is shown in fig.
For such a collision, we have Let A and B be two pieces of equal mass (1/5 kg) which fly
off perpendicular to a each other with equal velocity
æ m1 - m 2 ö (30 m/sec)
v1 = ç m + m ÷ u1
è 1 2ø Momentum of A or B = (1/5 × 30)
v1 æ m1 - m 2 ö
\ =ç ÷ .........(2) A 1
u1 è m1 + m 2 ø m = kg
5
From eqs. (1) and (2) we have v = 30 m/s
2
Ki - K f æ m1 - m 2 ö 4m1m2
=1– ç =
Ki è m1 + m 2 ÷ø (m1 + m2 )2
B
Ki - K f 4(m 2 / m1 ) 4 ´ 1850
or = =
Ki (1 + m 2 / m1 )2 (1 + 1850) 2 1
m= kg
= 0.00217 = 0.217% 5
(12) (c) v = 30 m/s
3
C m= kg
5
m
\ Resultant momentum
m = {(1 / 5) ´ 30}2 + {(1 / 5) ´ 30}2 = 6 2 kg m/sec
along the bisector of Ð AOB
2m
(3/5) × v = 6 2 Þ v = 10 2 m/sec
(15) (c) The situation is shown in fig.
v/ 2 Equating the total initial and final momentum along each
axis, we get
Now the total energy released in the explosion mv1 + 0 = (M + m) v' cos q .........(A)
2 0 + Mv2 = (M + m) v' sin q ......... (B)
1 1 1 æ v ö 3
= mv2 + mv2 + 2m ç = mv2 Squaring and adding eq. (A) and (B), we get
2 2 2 è 2 ÷ø 2 (mv1)2 + (Mv2)2 = (M + m)2 v'2 .........(C)
EBD_7156
40 DPP/ P 13
(18) (a) A bullet is fired from the gun. The gun recoils, the kinetic
y energy of the recoil shall be less than the kinetic energy of
the bullet.
(M+m)v¢ (19) (a) Conservation of linear momentum is equivalent to
Newton's second law of motion
(20) (a) In an inelastic collision momentum is conserved but
A kinetic energy is not.
q x (21) (a) Inelastic collision is the collision of electron and
mv1 positron to an inhilate each other.
(22) (a) Total kinetic energy is not conserved in inelastic
collisions but momentum is conserved
Mv2 (23) (a) (1) when m1 = m2 and m2 is stationary, there is maximum
transfer of kinetic energy in head an collision
(2) when m1 = m2 and m2 is stationary, there is maximum
transfer of momentum in head on collision
(3) when m1 >> m2 and m2 is stationary, after head on
The final momentum collision m2 moves with twice the velocity of m1.
(24) (a) Momentum remains conserved
P = (M + m) v' = [(mv1 ) 2 + (Mv 2 ) 2 ]
(25) (a) Speed of particle after the collision
[form eqn. (3)]
2
Dividing eqn. (2) by eqn. (1), we have æ 15 ö
= ç ´ 3 ÷ + 25 = 5.036 m /s
è 43 ø
Mv2 æ Mv2 ö
tan q = or q = tan–1 ç mv ÷
mv1 è 1ø 30
(26) (b) Speed of the sphere just after collision = m/s
(16) (a) Let the angle of reflection be q' and the magnitude of 43
velocity after collision be v'. As there is no force parallel to (27) (a) Angular speed of sphere is zero as impulse due to
the wall, the component of velocity parallel to the surface collision passes through centre of sphere.
remains unchanged. (28) (c) When e = 0, velocity of separation along common normal
Therefore, v' sin q ' = v sin q ......(1) zero, but there may be relative velocity along common
As the coefficient of restitution is e, for perpendicular tangent.
component of velocity (29) (c) Statement – 1 is false but statement – 2 is true.
Velocity of separation = e x velocity of approach (30) (d) Momentum remains constant before, during and after
–(v' cos q ' – 0) = –e (v cos q – 0) ......(2) the collision but KE does not remain constant during
From (1) and (2) the collision as the energy gets converted into elastic
potential energy due to deformation.
v' = v sin 2 q + e2 cos 2 q
and tan q ' = tan q/e
(17) (a) The fraction of energy lost is given by,
DE mg(h - h ') h - h'
= =
E mgh h
given that, h = 2 meter and h' = 1.5 meter
DE 2 - 1.5 1
\ = =
E 2 4
DPP/ P 14 41
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 14
r r
1. (c) m1 = 1, m2 = 35.51, r1 = 0, r2 = 1.27iˆ æ b hö
i.e. coordinates of centre of mass is çè , ÷ø
r r 3 3
r m r ´ m2 r2 r 35.5 ´ 1.27 ˆ
r = 11 r= r r
m1 + m2 Þ
i r m v + m2 v2
1 + 35.5 6. (b) vcm = 1 1
m1 + m2
r 35.5
r= ´ 1.27iˆ = 1.24iˆ
36.5 2 ´ 2 + 4 ´ 10
= = 7.3 m/s
2+4
y 7. (b) Let m1 = m, m2 = 2m, m3 = 3m, m4 = 4m
H Cl 2m 3m
x
m1 m2
a sin 60°
1.27Å a
r r
r m1v1 + m2 v2 60°
2. (d) vcm = x
m1 + m2
m 4m
a cos 60°
2 ´ 3 + 3 ´ 2 12
= = = 2.4 m/s
2+3 5 r
3. (c) m1 = 12, m2 = 16 y r1 = 0iˆ + 0 ˆj
r
r1 = 0iˆ + 0 ˆj, r2 = 1.1iˆ + 0 ˆj r a a 3 ˆ
r2 = a cos 60iˆ + a sin 60 ˆj = i + j
r r 2 2
r m r + m2 r2
r1 = 1 1
m1 + m2 r 3 a 3 ˆ
C O x r3 = (a + a cos 60)iˆ + a sin 60 ˆj = aiˆ + j
m1 m2 2 2
r 16 ´ 1.1 ˆ
r1 = i = 0.63iˆ r
28 r4 = aiˆ + 0 ˆj
i.e. 0.63Å from carbon atom. by substituting above value in the following formula
r r r r r r r
r m v + m2 v2 + m3 v3 r m1r1 + m2 r2 + m3r3 + m4 r4 3 ˆ
4. (a) vcm = 1 1 r= = 0.95ai + aj
m1 + m2 + m3 m1 + m2 + m3 + m4 4
20 ´ 10iˆ + 30 ´ 10 ˆj + 50 ´ 10kˆ é 3 ù
= So the location of centre of mass ê0.95a, aú
100 4 û
ë
\ vcm = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5kˆ 8. (d)
5. (c) We can assume that three particles of equal mass m are r r
9. (d) m1 = 2kg, m2 = 4kg, v1 = 2m / s, v2 = -10m / s
placed at the corners of triangle.
ur ur r r
y r m v + m2 v2
r1 = 0iˆ + 0j,r
ˆ = biˆ + 0jˆ
2 vcm = 1 1
ur (0,h) m1 + m2
and r3 = 0iˆ + hjˆ
2 ´ 20 - 4 ´ 10
ur ur ur = = 0m / s
uuur m1 r1 + m2 r2 + m3 r3 2+ 4
\ rcm = 10. (a) As initially both the particles were at rest therefore
m1 + m2 + m3
velocity of centre of mass was zero and there is no
x
(0,0) (b,0) external force on the system so speed of centre of mass
b h
= î + ˆj remains constant i.e. it should be equal to zero.
3 3
EBD_7156
42 DPP/ P 14
11. (a) For translatory motion the force should be applied on
80 80
the centre of mass of the body, so we have to calculate the 0+2´ + 4´ +0
location of centre of mass of 'T' shaped object. 2 2 30
= =
Let mass of rod AB is m so the mass of rod CD will be 2m. 16 2
Let y1 is the centre of mass of rod AB and y2 is the centre of
30
mass of rod CD. We can consider that whole mass of the Similarly y = so, r = x 2 + y2 = 30 cm
rod is placed at their respective centre of mass i.e., mass m 2
is placed at y1 and mass 2 m is placed at y2. 14. (b) Linear density of the rod varies with distance
y dm
= l (Given ) \ dm = ldx
dx
D
A B
y1
l
dx
y2
l
x x
C
Taking point 'C' at the origin, position vector of point y1

ur ur
and y2 can be written as r1 = 2l ˆj, r2 = l ˆj , and m1 = m and
Position of centre of mass
m2 = 2m
Position vector of centre of mass of the system
xcm =
ò dm ´ x
r r
r m r + m2 r2 m2l ˆj + 2ml ˆj ò dm
rcm = 1 1 =
m1 + m2 m + 2m
3
4ml ˆj 4 ˆ ò (l dx) ´ x
= = lj
3m 3 =
0
3
Hence the distance of centre of mass from C = l

4
ò l dx
3 0
12. (a) Initial acceleration is zero of the system. So it will
always remain zero because there is no external force on 3
3 é 2 x3 ù
the system.
ò (2 + x) ´ xdx ê
ëê
x + ú
3 úû
0 0
13. (b) According to figure let A is the origin and co-ordinates = =
3 3
of centre of mass be (x, y) then, é x3 ù
ò (2 + x)dx ê2x + ú
2 úû
y 0 êë 0
2 kg 4 kg
D C 9 + 9 36 12
= = = m.
9 21 7
6+
2
(x,y) 15. (c) Centre of mass lies always on the line that joins the
two particles.
8 kg r 2 kg For the combination cd and ab this line does not pass
x through the origin.
A B
For combination bd, initially it pass through the origin
but later on it moves toward negative x-axis.
m1 x1 + m 2 x 2 + m3 x 3 + m 4 x 4 But for combination ac it will always pass through
x=
m1 + m 2 + m3 + m 4 origin. So we can say that centre of mass of this
combination will remain at origin.
DPP/ P 14 43
1 ´ 0 + 1 ´ PQ + 1 ´ PR PQ + PR m1
16. (b) xcm = = By solving d' = - d
1 +1+ 1 3 m2
and ycm = 0 Negative sign shows that particle m2 should be
17. (a) displaced towards the centre of mass of the system.
R1
1
22. (a) We know m1r1 = m2r2 Þ m × r = constant \ r µ
m
23. (a) Depends on the distribution of mass in the body.
R2 r1 m2 1
24. (a) m1r1 = m2 r2 Þ = \r µ
mg r2 m1 m
m1a1 + m2 a2 m ´ 0 + m ´ 3g 3g
Due to net force in downward direction and towards 25. (b) acm = = =
m1 + m2 m1 + m2 2
left centre of mass will follow the path as shown in
figure. 26. (b)
18. (a) Initially both the particles were at rest so vcm = 0. As
external force on the system is zero therefore velocity
of centre of mass remains unaffected.
r r l0
19. (a) m1r1 + m2 r2 = 0 0 m/s v
m ˆ 3m r m m
Þ 15 j + r2 = 0
4 4
r
Þ r2 = -5 ˆj 2
1 æ 3mg ö 1
i.e. larger fragment is at y = – 5 cm. By COE, kç ÷ = mv 2
2 è k ø 2
20. (b) Centre of mass is closer to massive part of the body
therefore the bottom piece of bat have larger mass.
21. (b) Initial position of centre of mass 9mg 2 m
v= = 3g
k k
m1 x1 + m2 x2
rcm = ...(i)
m1 + m2 m ´ 0 + mv v 3g m
vcm = = =
m+m 2 2 k
1 2 1
27. (a) By COE in CM-frame, mvref = kx 2
x1 d 2 2
2
m1 m2 1m æ mö 1 2
2 2 ç 3g k ÷ = 2 kx
è ø
x2
9 2 m2 x=
3mg
g = kx 2 ;
If the particle of mass m1 is pushed towards the centre 2 k 2k
of mass of the system through distance d and to keep
the centre of mass at the original position let second 28. (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2
particle displaced through distance d' away from the is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
centre of mass. 29. (a) Initially the electron and proton were at rest so their
m1 ( x1 + d ) + m2 ( x2 + d ') centre of mass will be at rest. When they move towards
Now rcm = ...(ii) each other under mutual attraction then velocity of
m1 + m2
centre of mass remains unaffected because external
Equating (i) and (ii) force on the system is zero.
m1 x1 + + m2 x2 30. (d) The centre of mass of a system of particles depends
m1 + m2 only on the masses of particles and the position of the
particles relative to one another. The location of
m1 ( x1 + d ) + m2 ( x2 + d ') reference frame will not affect the location of centre of
= mass.
m1 + m2
EBD_7156
44 DPP/ P 15
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 15
1. (a) Initial angular momentum of ring. L = Iw =Mr2w 10. (d) Angular momentum, of earth about its axis of rotation,
Final angular momentum of ring and four particles
2 2p 4pMR 2
L = lw = MR 2 ´ =
2 2
( 2 '
system Mr w = Mr + 4mr w = ) Mw
M + 4m
5 T 5T
2. (b) The angular momontum of a system of particles is con 2 2p 2

11. (d) Angular momentum, L = mvr = mwr = m ´ ´r
served when no external torque acts on the system. T
L2 ( )
2
3. (c) Rotational kinetic energy E \ L = 2EI 2 ´ 3.14 ´ 6 ´ 10 24 ´ 1.5 ´ 1011
2l = = 2.7 ´ 1040 kg - m 2 / s
7
3.14 ´ 10
L E A IA 1 2p ´ 1800
Þ A = ´ = 100 ´ = 5 12. (c) w = 2p n = = 60p rad/s
LB E B IB 4 60
4. (c) Angular momentum L = Iw constant P = t ´w
\ I increases and w decreases P 100 ´ 103
5. (c) Conservation of angular momentum Þ t = = = 531 N - m
w 60p
I1w1+I2w2 = (I1w1+I2)w ur
r dL L -L 4 A - A0 3 A0
I1w1 + I2 w 2 13. (a) t= = 2 1= 0 =
Angular velocity of system w = dt Dt 4 4
I1 + I 2
æ 60 ö
1 2p ç 0 - ÷
2p (n2 - n1 ) è 60 ø
\ Rotational kinetic energy = ( I1 + I2 ) w
2
2 14. (c) a = =
t 60
æI w +I w ö
2
( I1w1 + I2 w2 ) 2 -2p -p
1 = = rad / sec2
= ( I1 + I2 ) ç 1 1 2 2 ÷ =
2 ( I1 + I2 ) 60 30
2 è I1 + I2 ø
\t = I a
1 1 2´ p p
6. (d) Kinetic energy E = Lw = L ´ 2pn = = N -m
2 2 30 15
r r ur
L 2 E 2 n1 15. (a) t = r ´ f = (7$i + 3 $j + k$ ) ´ (-3i$ + $j + 5k$ )
\ E ¥L ´ n Þ = ´
L1 E1 n 2
$i $j k$
r
L 2 é E1 / 2 ù é n1 ù L2 L t = 7 3 1
=ê ú´ê ú Þ L2 = =
L1 ë E1 û ë 2n1 û 4 4 -3 1 5
L2 = $i (15 - 1) - $j (35 + 3) + k$ (7 + 9)
7. (b) E = . If boy stretches hgis arm then moment of
2I = 14$i - 38 $j + 16k$
inertia increases and accordingly kinetic energy of the system
t 1000
1 16. (a) a = = = 5 rad / sec 2
decreases because L = constant and E¥ I 200
I
From w = w 0 + a t = 0 + 5 ´ 3 = 15 rad/s
8. (c)According to conservation of angular momentum
t 30
I1w 17. (a) a = = = 15 rad/s 2
\ I1w1 = I2 w 2 Þ I1w = ( I1 + I2 ) w 2 Þ w 2 = I 2
I1 + I2
1 2
-7 -3 2 Q q = w 0t + at
9. (a) L = 2EI = 2 ´ 10 ´ 8 ´ 10 = 4 ´ 10 kg m / s 2
DPP/ P 15 45
22. (a) As mechanical contact is not made, total angular
1
= 0+ ´ (15) ´ (10)2 momentum remains constant.
2 \ Iw0= constant
= 750 rad Differentiating both sides,
18. (d) As the block remains stationary therefore D (Iw0) = 0
For translatory equilibrium Þ I Dw0 + w0 DI = 0
å Fx = 0 \ F = N Dw DI DI Dw 0
Þ + =0 Þ =-
and å Fy = 0 \ f = mg w I I w0
Dw 0 DI
f Also, =-
w0 I
2 DR æ DI 2DR ö
=- çQ = ÷ = -2 a DT
R è I R ø
L2 1
23. (a) E= = K (given) \ K µ (If L = constant)
F 2I I
O
When child stretches his arms the moment of inertia of
system get doubled so kinetic energy will becomes half i.e.
N K/2.
24. (c). Angular impulse = change in angular momentum : Frt =
L Þ L1 < L2
mg
L2
K= Þ K1 = K2
2I
For rotational equilibrium åt = 0 25. (b); 26. (a); 27. (c)
By taking the torque of different forces about point 0 Drawing the F.B. D of the plank and the cylinder.
uuur uur uuur uuuur
t F + t f + t N + t mg = 0 F sin q
As F and mg passing through point O N1
uur uuur
\ t f + tN = 0
As t f ¹ 0 \t N ¹ 0 F cos q
and torque by friction and normal reaction will be in f1
opposite direction.
19. (c) The velocity of the top point of the wheel is twice that
of centre of mass and the speed of centre of mass is mg
same for both the wheels (Angular speeds are different).
æ 4500 - 1200 ö f1
2p ç ÷ø
2p (n2 - n1 ) è 60 N1
20. (d) a = = rad/s2
t 10
Mg
3300
2 p
60 3 6 0 d e g ree N2
= ´
10 2 p s2 f2
a = 1980 degree/s 2 Equations of motion are

F cos q – f1 = ma ....(1)
1 F sinq + N1 = mg ....(2)
21. (b) q = w 0 t + a t 2 f1+ f2 = MA .....(3)
2
f1R – f2R = Ia .....(4)
Þ q = 100 rad A = Ra .....(5)
100
\ Number of revolution = = 16 (approx.)
4 ´ 55 ´
1
2p 4 F cos q 2
a= = = 10 m/s 2
3M + 8m [ ( 3 ´ 1) + (8 ´ 1)]
EBD_7156
46 DPP/ P 15
1 29. (b) t = rF sin q. If q = 90° then t max = rF
3´ 1 ´ 55 ´
3MF cos q 2 = 7.5 N Unit of torque is N-m.
f1 = =
3M + 8 m 3 ´ 1+ 8 ´1 30. (d) Torque = Force × perpendicular distance of the line of
action of force from the axis of rotation (d).
1 Hence for a given applied force, torque or true tendency
1 ´ 55 ´
and f = MF cos q = 2 = 2.5 N of rotation will be high for large value of d. If distance
2
3M + 8 m 3 ´ 1 + 8 ´ 1 d is smaller, then greater force is required to cause the
ur same torque, hence it is harder to open or shut down
r dL
28. (b) t = and L = I w the door by applying a force near the hinge.
dt
DPP/ P 16 47
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 16
(1) (b) As the mass of disc is negligible therefore only moment
1 R 2.5
of inertia of five particles will be considered. (8) (b) MR 2 = MK 2 Þ K = = = 1.76 cm
2 2 2
I= å mr 2 = 5 mr2 = 5 × 2 × (0.1)2 = 0.1 kg-m2 (9) (c) I = 2MR2 = 2 × 3 × (1)2 = 6 gm-cm2
(2) (a) I=
1
2
1
2
(
MR 2 = ´ pR 2 t ´ p ´ R 2 ) (10) (a) I=
5
4
Mr 2
(11) (a)
Þ I µ R4 (As t and p are same)
4 y
4
I æR ö æ 0.2 ö 1 Q
\ 1 =ç 1÷ =ç ÷ =
I2 è R 2 ø è 0.6 ø 81
R/2
1 1
(3) (a) I= MR 2 = ´ 0.5 ´ (0.1)2 = 2.5 ´ 10 -3 kg - m 2
2 2
y¢
t 31.4
(4) (a) I== = 2.5kg m 2
a 4p 2R
(5) (d) Let the mass of loop P (radius = r) = m
So the mass of loop Q (radius = nr) = nm Moment of inertia of the system about yy¢
Iyy¢ = Moment of inertia of sphere P about yy¢
+ Moment of inertia of sphere Q about yy¢
Moment of inertia of sphere P about yy¢
2
r 2 æRö
= M ç ÷ + M ( x) 2 [Parallel axis theorem]
5 è2ø
P
Q 2
2 æRö 2
= = M ç ÷ + M (2R )2 = MR + 4MR 2
Moment of inertia of loop P, IP = mr2 5 è2ø 10
Moment of inertia of loop Q. IQ = nm (nr)2 = n3 mr2 2
2 æRö
IQ Moment of inertia of sphere Q about yy¢ is M çè ÷ø
\ = n3 = 8 Þ n = 2 5 2
IP
2
MR 2 2 æRö 21
(6) (c) Moment of inertia of sphere about its tangent Now I yy ¢ = + 4MR 2 + M ç ÷ = MR 2
10 5 è2ø 5
7 7
MR 2 = MK 2 Þ K = R (12) (a) M.I. of system about the axis which passing through
5 5 m1
(7) (a) Moment of inertia of system about point P
m m m1
l
2 a a
p
m2 m3
m m a/2 a/2
2
æ l ö 2 2
= 4m ç = 2ml 2 and 4mK2 = 2ml2 Isystem = m1 (0)2 + m2 æç ö÷ + m3 æç ö÷
a a
è 2 ÷ø è 2ø è2ø
l
\K = a2
2 Isystem = (m2 + m3 )
4
EBD_7156
48 DPP/ P 16
Ml 2 3
(13) (a) M.I. of rod (1) about Z – axis I1 = Moment of inertia of loop about given axis = MR 2
3 2
2
3 æ Lö 3rL3
= rL ç ÷ =
2 è 2p ø 8p 2
3
1 1 æ M ö 1 M2
(19) (b) M.I. of disc = MR 2 = M ç =
2 2 è pt r ÷ø 2 pt r
2 1
æ M M ö
çè As r = Therefore R 2 =
2
pR t pt r ÷ø
1
Ml 2 If mass and thickness are same then, I µ
M.I. of rod (2) about Z-axis, I 2 = r
3
M.I. of rod (3) about Z – axis, I3 = 0 I r 3
Because this rod lies on Z-axis \ 1 = 2 = .
I 2 r1 1
2Ml 2 (20) (c) According to problem disc is melted and recasted into
\ Isystem = I1 + I2 + I3 = a solid sphere so their volume will be same.
3
(14) (c) Distribution of mass about BC axis is more than that 2 4 3
VDisc = VSphere Þ pRDisc t= pRSphere
about AB axis i.e. radius of gyration about BC axis is 3
more than that about AB axis.
i.e. KBC > KAB \ IBC > IAB > ICA 3 æ RDisc ö 4 3 é RDisc ù
Þ pRDisc çè 6 ÷ø = 3 pRSphere êt = 6 , given ú
ë û
Ml 2 0.12 ´ 12
(15) (a) I= = = 0.01 kg - m 2 RDisc
12 12 3 3
Þ RDisc = 8RSphere Þ RSphere =
(16) (c) 2
Moment of inertia of disc
1 1 2
IDisc = MR Disc = I (given)
2
2
\ M ( R Disc ) = 2I
x 2
2 2
Moment of inertia of sphere Isphere = MRSphere
5
2
1 2 æ RDisc ö M 2I 1
I1 = M.I. of ring about its diameter = mR
2 = M = ( RDiscs )2 = =
2 5 çè 2 ÷ø 10 10 5
I2 = M.I. of ring about the axis normal to plane and (21) (d) Moment of inertia of system about YY'
passing through centre = mR2 I = I 1 + I2 + I3 Y
Two rings are placed according to figure. Then
1 3 3 1
1 3 = MR 2 + MR 2 + MR 2
I xx ¢ = I1 + I 2 = mR 2 + mR 2 = mR 2 2 2 2
2 2 2 3
(17) (a) Mass of the centre disc would be 4M and its moment 7
= MR 2
2
1 2
of inertia about the given axis would be (4 M ) R .
2 (22) (d) As C is the centre of mass, so, IC will be minimum.
For the given section the moment of inertia about the Also more mass is towards B so IA > IB.
(23) (a) Applying the theorem of perpendicular axis,
1
same axis would be one quarter of this i.e. MR 2 . I = I1 + I2 = I3 + I4
2 Because of symmetry, we have I1 = I2 and I3 = I4 Hence
(18) (d) Mass per unit length of the wire = r I = 2I1 = 2I2 = 2I3 = 2I4 or I1 = I2 = I3 = I4
Mass of L length, M = rL i.e. sum of two moment of inertia of square plate about
and since the wire of length L is bent in a or of circular any axis in a plane (Passing through centre) should be
L equal to moment of inertia about the axis passing
loop therefore 2pR = L Þ R = through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of
2p the plate.
DPP/ P 16 49
(24) (d) Moment of inertia depends on all the three factors given (28) (c) Radius of gyration of a body is not a constant quantity.
in (1), (2) & (3). Its value changes with the change in location of the
axis of rotation. Radius of gyration of a body about a
é2 ù r12 + r22 + ..... + rn2

(25) (d) I = 4 ê MR2 + M (R 2)2 ú given axis is given as K =
ë5 û n
(29) (c) The moment of inertia of a particle about an axis of
é2 ù rotation is given by the product of the mass of the
= 4MR 2 ê + 2ú
ë 5 û particle and the square of the perpendicular distance
of the particle from the axis of rotation. For different
4 MR 2 ´ 12 48 MR 2 axis, distance would be different, therefore moment of
= = . inertia of a particle changes with the change in axis of
5 5
rotation.
(26) (b) Let a be the acceleration of centre of mass (30) (a) When earth shrinks, it angular momentum remains
Mg – T = 0 ... (i)
2 2p
F.x = T.2x ... (ii) constant. i.e. L = I w = mR 2 ´ = constant.
5 T
\ T µ I µ R 2 . It means if size of the earth changes
F then its moment of inertia changes.
x In the problem radius becomes half so time period
M 1
(Length of the day) will becomes of the present value
4
(27) (c) remain the same 24
i.e. = 6 hr.
4
EBD_7156
50 DPP/ P 17
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 17
1. (a) Since disc is rolling (without slipping) about point O.
Hence g sin q g sin q g / 2 5 g
w 6. (d) a= = = =
K 2 2 7 / 5 14
1+ 1+
Q R2 5
K2 2
C As q = 30o and =
2 5
R
P 2 gh
7. (b) We know v =
k2
1+
O r2
OQ > OC > OP Q v = rw
\ vQ > vC > vP v 2 gh
\w = =
2. (d) Applying the theorem of perpendicular axis, r r + k2
2
I = I1 + I2 = I3 + I4 2mgh 2mgh 2mgh

Because of symmetry, we have Þw= 2 2
= 2
=
mr + mk mr + I I + mr 2
I1 = I2 and I3 = I4
K2
Hence I = 2I1 = 2I2 = 2I3 = 2I4 8. (a) Because its M.I. (or value of ) is minimum for
R2
or I1 = I2 = I3 = I4
sphere.
i.e. sum of two moment of inertia of square plate about 9. (b) As body is moving on a frictionless surface. Its
any axis in a plane (Passing through centre) should be mechanical energy is conserved. When body climbes
equal to moment of inertia about the axis passing up the inclined plane it keeps on rotating with same
through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of angular speed, as no friction force is present to provide
the plate. retarding torque so
3. (a) By the conservation of energy
1 2 1 1
Iw + mv 2 ³ Iw2 + mgh Þ v ³ 2gh
2 2 2
1
10. (a) MR 2 = I Þ MR 2 = 2I
l/2 2
Moment of inertia of disc about a tangent in a plane
a
5 5 5
= MR2 = (2I ) = I
P.E. of rod = Rotational K.E. 4 4 2
l 1 11. (d) Moment of inertia of system about YY’
mg sin a = Iw 2
2 2 I = I1 + I2 + I3
l 1 ml2 2 3 g sin a 1 3 3 7
= MR 2 + MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2
Þ mg sin a = w Þw=
2 2 3 l 2 2 2 2
But in the problem length of the rod 2L is given Y
3g sin a
\w =
2L
4. (c) Graph should be parabola symmetric to I- axis, but it 1
should not pass from origin because there is a constant
value Icm is present for x = 0 .
2 3
2 gh 2 gh 4
5. (b) v= = = gh
K2 1 3
1+ 1+
R2 2
DPP/ P 17 51
19. (a) M.I. of complete disc about ‘O’ point
I Ring MR 2
12. (b) = = 2 :1 1
I Disc 1 ITotal - (9M ) R 2
MR 2 2
2
13. (a)
14. (b) It follows from the theorem of parallel axes.
15. (a) l
A B 2R/3
O
P
R
O
Moment of inertia of Rod AB about point P and
MI2
perpendicular to the plane = R/3
12
M.I. of rod AB about point ‘O’
2
MI 2 æ Iö MI2 O
= + Mç ÷ =
12 è 2ø 3 R
(By using parallel axis theorem)
but the system consists of four rods of similar type so
by the symmetry
æ Ml2 ö
Isystem = 4 ç ÷
è 3 ø
Radius of removed disc = R
16. (a) 3
17. (d) l
9M
\ Mass of removed disc = =M
9
b [As M = pR 2 t \ M ¥R 2 ]
O M.I. of removed disc about its own axis
2
1 æRö MR 2
2
Mb = Mç ÷ =
M.I. of plate about O and parallel to length = 2 è3ø 18
12 Moment of inertia of removed disc about ‘O’
18. (d) Iz = Ix + I y Iz 2
MR2 æ 2R ö MR2
Iremoved disc = Icm + mx2 = +M ç ÷ =
18 è 3 ø 2
Ix
M. I. of complete disc can also be written as
ITotal = I Re moved disc + I Re maining disc
MR 2
ITotal = + I Re maining disc ..... (ii)
2
Equating (i) and (ii) we get
Iy
MR 2 9MR 2
+ I Re maining disc =
2 2
200 = I D + I D = 2 I d
9MR 2 MR 2 8MR 2
\ I D = 100 gm ´ cm 2 \ I Re maining disc = - = = 4MR 2
2 2 2
EBD_7156
52 DPP/ P 17
2 æ K2 ö
ML2 æLö 1 1 K2
20. (d) I = Icm + Mx 2 = +M ç ÷ 24. (a) KT = KR Þ mv2 = mv2 ç 2 ÷ Þ \ 2 = 1
12 è4ø 2 2 èR ø R
I I cm
This value of K 2 / R 2 match with hollow cylinder..
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d)
(i) Let acceleration of centre of mass of cylinder be a then
acceleration of block will be 2a.
For linear motion of cylinder T + f – 2mgsinq = 2m(a)
For rolling motion of cylinder
L/4 L/4 æ 2mR 2 ö æ a ö
ML2
ML 7ML2 2 (T – f) R = Ia = ç 2 ÷ çè R ÷ø Þ T – f = ma
= + = è ø
12 16 48
For linear motion of block
21. (c) w 2 = w 20 - 2aq Þ 0 = 4p 2 n2 - 2aq 2
mg – T = m (2a) Þ a = (1 - sin q) g
2 7
æ 1200 ö
4p2 ç ÷
q= è 60 ø = 200p2 rad T
2´ 4
2m T
\ 2pn - 200p 2 Þ n = 100 p = 314 revolution R f
1 2 m 2a
22. (b) Rotational K.E. = Iw & 2mgsinq
2 mg
q
1 2 1 ///////////////////////////////////////////
T.E. = Iw + MV 2
2 2
æ2 ö æ 3 + 4sin q ö mg
1 1 1 (ii) T = mg - 2m ç g (1 - sin q)÷ = ç ÷ø
= Iw2 + MR 2 w2 = w2 (I + MR 2 ) è7 ø è 7
2 2 2
For ring I = MR2 æ 1 + 6sin q ö
(iii) F = T – ma = ç
è 7 ÷ø mg
1 2 1
\ T.E. = w (MR 2 + MR 2 ) = w2 ´ 2MR 2 28. (c) The acceleration of a body rolling down an inclined
2 2
g sin q
1 plane is given by a =
Rotational K.E. = MR 2 w2 I
2 1+
MR 2
1
MR 2 w2 I MR 2
2 1 For hollow cylinder
\a = = = =1
1 2
w ´ 2MR 2
2 MR 2 MR 2
2
1
MR 2
2 2I 1
For a solid sphere I = MR 2 For solid cylinder = =
2 2 2
5 MR MR
1 æ2 Þ Acceleration of solid cylinder is more than hollow
ö 1 7
\ T.E. = w2 ç MR 2 + MR 2 ÷ = w2 MR 2 ´ cylinder and therefore solid cylinder will reach the
2 è5 ø 2 5 bottom of the inclined plane first.
\ Statement -1 is false
Rotational K.E. = 1 ´ 2 MR 2 w2 • Statement - 2
2 5
In the case of rolling there will be no heat losses.
1 2 Therefore total mechanical energy remains conserved.
´ MR 2 w2 The potential energy therefore gets converted into
2 5 2
b= = kinetic energy. In both the cases since the initial
1 2 7 7
w MR 2 ´ potential energy is same, the final kinetic energy will
2 5
also be same. Therefore statement -2 is correct.
K2 29. (b) Frictional force on an inclined plane
23. (a) Time of descent µ . Time of descent depends upon
R2 1
= g sin a ( for a disc ) .
the value of radius of gyration (K) or moment of inertia 3
(I). Actually radius of gyration is a measure of moment 30. (c) The moment of inertia about both the given axes shall
of inertia of the body. be same if they are parallel. Hence statement–1 is false.
DPP/ P 18 53
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 18
(1) (c) If r is the distance between m and (M – m), the gravita- (7) (c) The P.E. of the object on the surface of earth is
tional force will be -
GMm
m(M - m) G U1 = –
R
F=G = 2 (mM – m2)
r2 r GMm
The P.E. of object at a height R, U2 = –
dF (R + R)
The force will be maximum if, =0
dm
GMm 1
d éG ù The gain in P E is U2 – U1 = = mgR
i.e, (mM - m 2 ) ú = 0 2R 2
dm êë r 2 û
é GM ù
m 1 êQ g = 2 on surface of earth ú
or = (as M and r are constants) ë R û
M 2 (8) (c) Resultant force on particle '1'
c Fr = 2 F + F'
(2) (c) mg = 3 kg , v = 2
Gm2 Gm2 mv2
m0 3 3 or Fr = 2 2 + 2 =
m= = = kg 2r 4r r
1 - (v 2 / c 2 ) c 2 3
1- 2 Gm æ 2 2 + 1ö
4xc 2
r çè 4 ÷ø
or v =
(3) (a) g' = g – Rew2 (at equator l = 0)
If a body is weightless, (9) (b) The resultant gravitational force on each particle pro-
g' = 0 , g – Rew2 = 0 vides it the necessary centripetal force
g 10 mv2
Þ w= = = 1.25 × 10-3 rad/sec. \ = F2 + F2 + 2F2 cos 60o = 3F ,
R 6400 ´ 103 r
(4) (b) The apparent weight of person on the equator 3 2 l
(latitude l = 0) is given by But r = l´ =
W' = W – m Rew2, 2 3 3
3 3 GM
W' = W = mg \ v=
5 5 l
3 3 (10) (b) The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the
mg = mg – mRw2 or mRw2 = mg – mg earth, in terms of mass Me and radius Re of earth, is
5 5
GM e
2g 2 9.8 given by g =
w= = 5´ rad/ sec R e2
5R 6400 ´ 103
if Mm be the mass of the moon, Rm its radius, then the
= 7.826 × 10–4 rad/sec
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon
(5) (c) According to question,
GM m
G ´ 4M p G Me will be given by g' =
g' = on the planet and g = on the earth R m2
R 2p R 2e
Dividing eq. (ii) by eq. (i), we get
Q Rp = Re and Mp = Me
2 2
g' g' Mm æ Re ö 1 æ 4ö 1
Now, = 4 Þ g' = 4g = 40 m/sec2 = M ç ÷ = ´ ç ÷ =
g g e è Rm ø 80 è 1 ø 5
Energy needed to lift 2 kg mass through 2m distance \ g' = g/5.
= mg'h = 2 × 40 × 2 = 160 J (11) (b) The value of g at the height h from the surface of earth
Gm1 Gm 2 æ 2h ö
(6) (d) Vg = Vg1 + Vg2 = - - g ' = g ç1 - ÷
r1 r2 è Rø
The value of g at depth x below the surface of earth
é102 103 ù
= – 6.67 × 10–11 ê + ú –7 æ xö
ëê 0.5 0.5 ûú = – 1.47 × 10 Joule/kg g ' = g ç1 - ÷
è Rø
EBD_7156
54 DPP/ P 18
(16) (d) In the position of solar eclipse, net force on earth
æ 2h ö æ xö
These two are given equal, hence çè1 - ÷ø = çè 1 - ÷ø FE = FM + FS
R R In the position of lunar eclipse, net force on earth
On solving, we get x = 2h F'E = FS – FM
(12) (a) If g be the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of
the earth, then its value at a height h above the earth's
surface will be -
g g' 1
g¢ = Here =
2 g 9
æ h ö
çè1 + R ÷ø
e
1 1 h
\ =
2
or 1 + =3
9 æ h ö R e
çè 1 + R ÷ø
e
\ Change in acceleration of earth,
or h = 2 Re = 2 × 6400 = 12800 km.
(13) (c) Consider the case of a body of mass m placed on the 2GM 2 ´ 6.67 ´ 10 -11 ´ 7.36 ´ 10 22
Df = =
earth's surface (mass of the earth M and radius R). If g R2 3.822 ´ 1016
is acceleration due to gravity, then = 6.73 × 10-5 m/s2
Me m GM e (17) (c) Let Me be the mass of the earth. The work required
mg = G 2 or g =
R R2 é 1 1 ù
where G is universal constant of gravitation. W = GMe m ê R - R + h ú
ë e e û
Now when the radius is reduced by 1%, i.e., radius
becomes 0.99 R, let acceleration due to gravity be g', GM e mh gR e2 mh
= = [\ GMe = gRe2]
GM e R e (R e + h) R e (R e + h)
then g' =
(0.99R) 2 mgh
From equation (A) and (B), we get =
æ h ö
çè1 + R ÷ø
g' R2 1 e
= =
g (0.99R) 2 (0.99) 2 (18) (a) The P.E of the mass at d/2 due to the earth and moon is
2 Earth
æ 1 ö Moon
\ g' = g × ç P
è 0.99 ÷ø
or g' > g R1 O2
O1 R2
m M 2
Thus , the value of g is increased. M 1
(14) (a) Force of gravity at surface of earth, d
F1 = Gm M/R2 .......... (1) GM1m GM 2 m
Force of gravity at height H is U=– 2 –2
d d
F2 = Gm M (R + H)2 .......... (2)
Dividing (A) by (B) and Rearranging 2Gm
or U = – (M1 + M2) (Numerically)
d
æ F1 ö
H = R ç F - 1÷ = 350 km where (F2 = .9F1) 1 G
è 2 ø m Ve2 = U ÞVe = 2 (M1 + M 2 )
2 d
(15) (a) The extension in the length of spring is
(19) (d) Let m be the mass of the body. The gravitational poten-
mg GMm tial energy of the body at the surface of the earth is
x= = ,
k r2 k GM e m
U=–
Re
x2 R2
\ xµ 1 , \ = The potential energy at a height 10 Re above the sur-
x1 (R + h) 2
r2 face of the earth will be
2 GM e m
æ 6400 ö U' = –
or x2 = 1 × ç
è 7200 ÷ø
= 0.79 cm . (R e +10R e )
DPP/ P 18 55
\ Increase in potential energy (23) (a) All statements except (4) are wrong.
(24) (a) Value of g decreases when we go from poles to equator.
GM e m æ GM e m ö 10 GMe m
U' – U = – + ç R ÷ = 11 R
11R e è e ø e
This increase will be obtained from the initial kinetic
energy given to the body. Hence if the body be thrown (25) (b) r2 r1
with a v velocity then
10 GMe m 20Gme
1
mv2 = 11 R Þ v = 11R Gravitational PE at perihelion < ,GMm / r1 as r1 is
2 e e minimum Therefore, PE is minimum.
Substituting the given values, we get (26) (c) Total energy = constant.
(27) (c) As Pluto moves away, displacement has component
æ 20 ´ (6.67 ´ 10 -11 ) ´ (6 ´ 10 24 ) ö opposite to air force, hence work done is –negative.
v= ç ÷
è 11 ´ (6.4 ´ 106 ) ø Fg
(28) (b) For two electron = 10 -43 i.e. gravitational force is
= 1.07 × 104 m/s. Fe
Gm ∋ M , m( negligible in comparison to electrostatic force of
(20) (b) F< attraction.
r2 (29) (c) The universal gravitational constant G is totally
dF different from g.
For maximum force <0
dm FR 2
G=
d æç GmM Gm2 ö÷÷ Mm
Þ ç , ÷< 0
dm èçç r 2 r 2 ø÷÷
The constant G is scalar and posses the dimensions
é M -1L3T -2 ù .
m 1 ë û
Þ M , 2m < 0 Þ <
M 2 GM
g=
(21) (b) 2 2
g ' = g - w R cos l R2
-2
For weightlessness at equator l = 0 and g ' = 0 g is a vector and has got the dimensions éë M LT ùû .
0
g 1 rad It is not a universal constant.

\ 0 = g - w2R Þ w = =
R 800 s (30) (a) As the rotation of earth takes place about polar axis
therefore body placed at poles will not feel any cen-
(22) (a) k represents gravitational constant which depends only
trifugal force and its weight or acceleration due to grav-
on the system of units.
ity remains unaffected.
EBD_7156
56 DPP/ P 19
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 19
(1) (a) A body projected up with the escape velocity vewill go (4) (a) When S2 is closest to S1, the speed of S2 relative to S1
to infinity. Therefore, the velocity of the body falling is v2 – v1 = p × 104 km/hr. The angular speed of S2 as
on the earth from infinity will be ve. Now, the escape observed from S1 (when closest distance between them
velocity on the earth is is r2 – r1 = 3 × 104 km)
ve = gR e = 2 ´ (9.8m/s 2 ) ´ (6400 ´ 10 3 m) v2 - v1 p ´ 10 4 p
w= =– 4 = – 3 rad/hr ,
r2 - r1 3 ´ 10
= 1.2 × 10 104 m/s = 11.2 km/s.
The kinetic energy acquired by the body is p
| w|= rad/hr
1 1 3
K= m ve2 = × 100 kg × (11.2 × 103 m/s)2 (5) (c) Period of revolution of earth around sun
2 2
9
= 6.27 × 10 J. 4p 2 R e2
Te2 =
GMm GM GMs
(2) (d) We know that 2 = m w2r or = w2 r..
r r2 Period of revolutions of moon around earth
GM 4p2 R m
2
Tn2 =
\ r3 = GM e
w2
where w is the angular velocity of the satellite 2 3
æ Te ö æ Me ö æ R e ö
In the present case, w = 2w0, \ ç = çM ÷ ç
÷
è Tm ø è s ø è R m ÷ø
where w0 is the angular velocity of the earth.
\ w = 2 × 7.3 × 10–5 rad/ sec. 2 3
G = 6.673 × 10–11 n-m2/kg2 Ms æ Tm ö æ R e ö (393)3
and M = 6.00 × 1024kg. \ M =ç ÷ ç ÷ = = 3.56 × 105
e è Te ø è R m ø 132
Substituting these values in equation (A), we get
(6) (a) According to law of conservation of angular momen-
(6.673 ´ 10 -11
) (6.00 ´ 10 ) 24 tum, mvr = constant
r3 = Þ vr = constant
(2 ´ 7.3 ´ 10 -5 ) 2 vmax .rmin = vmin. rmax
Solving we get r = 2.66 × 107m. VB vmax rmax
(3) (a) Þ = = =x
VA v min rmin
v2 (7) (a) Angular momentum of satellite, J = mvr. But,
v1 GMm mv2 GM
S2 2 = Þv=
r
r r
R 1 S1
\ J= m GMr
¬ R2 ®
GM
(8) (a) The orbital velocity of space ship, v0 =
r
From Kepler's Law, T2 µ r3
If space, ship is very near to earth's surface,
2 3 2 æ 104 ö
æ T1 ö æ r1 ö æ 1ö GM
\ ç ÷ =ç ÷ Þç ÷ =ç r ÷ r = Radius of earth = R \ v0 =
è T2 ø è r2 ø è 8ø è 2 ø R
Þ r2 = 4x 104 km = Rg = 6.4 ´ 106 ´ 9.8
2 pr = 7.9195 × 103 m/sec = 7.195 km/sec
v = wr = The escape velocity of space-ship
T
ve = 2Rg = 7.9195 2 = 11.2 km/sec
æ r1 r2 ö
\ | v2 – v1| = 2p ç T - T ÷ = p × 104 km/hr Additional velocity required = 11.2– 7.9195=3.2805 km/
è 1 2ø sec.
DPP/ P 19 57
(15) (c) Total energy of the particle at P
(9) (b) The escape velocity ve = 2gR
1 GM1m GM 2 m
Now, (Ve)moon = 2gR E = EkP + U = mv 2e – -
2 d/2 d/2
(Ve)earth = 2 ´ 6g ´ 10R , 1 2Gm
= mv 2e – (M1 + M2)
(Ve )earth 2 d
So (V ) =8 At infinite distance from M1 and M2, the total energy
e moon
of the particle is zero.
2GM 1 2Gm
(10) (b) Escape velocity = = 2gR \ mv 2e = (M1 + M2),
R 2 d
Vp gp Re 4G
´ \ ve = (M1 + M 2 )
\ = ge R p = 10 ´ 1 = 10 d
Ve
Vp = 10 Ve GM gR 2 9.8 ´ 6.42 ´ 1012

(11) (a) We know that T2 µ a3 (16) (d) v = = =
r r 8 ´ 106
Given that (12 T)2 µ a13 and T2 µ a23
= 7.08 km/sec.
a13 (12T)2 (17) (b) From conservation of energy,
\ = = 144 The energy at height h = Total energy at earth's sur-
a 23 T2
face
a1 GMm 1 GMm
or = (144)1/3 = 5.242 0– = mv2 – ,
a2 R+h 2 R
Hence the jupiter's distance is 5.242 times that of the
1 GMm GMm GMm GMm
earth from the sun. mv2 = – = –
2 R R+h R 2R
(12) (b) We know that T2 µ a3 Þ T µ (a)3/2
3 GM R 2g
T æa ö2 Þ v = = = Rg
\ mars = ç mars ÷ = (1.524)3/2 = 1.88 R R
Tearth è a earth ø
As the earth revolves round the sun in one year and = 6400 ´ 103 ´ 9.8 = 7.919 × 103 m/s
hence, Tearth = 1 year. = 7.919 km/sec
\ Tmars = Tearth × 1.88 = 1 × 1.88 = 1.88 earth-year. (18) (a) If a body is projected from the surface of earth with a
3/ 2 3/2
velocity v and reaches a height h, then using law of
Tmercury æ a mercury ö æ 0.387 ö
(13) (d) =ç ÷ = ç 1 mgh
Tmars è a mars ø è 1.5 24 ÷ø conservation of energy, mv2 = .
2 1+ h / R
3/2
æ 1.524 ö Given v = Kve = K 2gR and h = r – R
\ Tmars = Tmercury × ç
è 0.387 ÷ø
1 mg(r - R) R
= (0.241years) × (7.8) = 1.9 years. Hence, mK2 2gR = or r =
2 r-R 1 - K2
1+
2 R
æ 2 pr ö
T2 çè v ÷ø (2pr) 2 1 4p 2
(19) (a) Orbital speed,
0
(14) (a) = 3 = r =
r3 r r3 GM GM v0 = g R e = 9.8 ´ (6.4 ´ 10 6 )
= 7.2 × 103 m/s = 7.2 km/s.
mv02 GMm 2 GM Period of revolution,
[\ = 2 , v0 = ]
r r r
T = 2p R/g
2 2
T 4p
Slope of T2 – r3 curve = tan q = 3 = = 2 × 3.14 (6.4 ´ 10 6 )/9.8 = 5075 s = 84.6 minutes.
r GM
EBD_7156
58 DPP/ P 19
(20) (d) If the period of revolution of a satellite about the earth
be T, then GM
(24) (a) v0 =
r
4p 2 (R e + h)3
T2 = (25) (d) T 2 µ R3
GMe
where h is the height of the satellite from earth's sur- Te2 = KRe3 ; Tm2 = kRm
3
; T 2 = kR3
face.
Re + Rm
4p 2 (R e + h)3 R=
\ Me = 2
GT2
3
The satellite is revolving just above the earth, hence h 2
éT 2 / 3 T 2 / 3 1 ù
is negligible compared to Re. Þ T = k ê e1/ 3 + m1/ 3 ´ ú
êë k k 2 úû
4p 2 R e3
\ Me = 3/ 2
GT2 é T 2 / 3 + Tm2 / 3 ù
ÞT =ê e ú
4 ëê 2 ûú
But Me = p Re3 r where r is the density of the earth.
3
GM s M e GM s M
4 4p 2 R e3 (26) (a) Ee = - =–
Thus p Re3 r = 2 Re 2R
3 GT2
2 Re Ee M
= ´
3p Me æ Re + Rm ö
\ r T2 = . 2ç ÷ø
G è 2
which is universal constant. To determine its value,
2M æ Re ö
3p 3 ´ 3.14 = Ee
r T2 = = M e çè Re + Rm ÷ø
G 6.67 ´ 10 –11 m3 / kg-s2
(27) (c) Areal velocity of the artificial planet around the sun
E KQ 2
vQ will be more than that of earth.
(21) (a) = .
E KP v2P g
(28) (a) v0 = R e
Linear velocity of earth, Re + h
2pR e 6.28 ´ 6.4 ´ 10 6 For satellite revolving very near to earth R e + h = R e

Ve= = = 463 m/s
Te 24 ´ 3600
As ( h << R )
Orbital velocity, V0 = R e g = 7.9 × 103 m/s
v 0 = R e g ; 64 ´ 105 ´ 10 = 8 ´ 103 m / s = 8 kms -1
According to question,
VP = V0 + Ve = 7900 – 463 = 7437 m/s Which is independent of height of a satellite.
VQ = V0 + Ve = 7900 + 463 = 8363 m/s (29) (d) Due to resistance force of atmosphere, the satellite
2 revolving around the earth losses kinetic energy.
E KQ æ 8363 ö
\ =ç Therefore in a particular orbit the gravitational
E KP è 7437 ÷ø attraction of earth on satellite becomes greater than
that required for circular orbit there. Therefore satellite
2GM
(22) (b) ve = i.e. escape velocity depends upon the moves down to a lower orbit. In the lower orbit as the
R
potential energy ( U = -GMm / r ) becomes more
mass and radius of the planet.
negative, Hence kinetic energy ( Ek = GMm / 2r )
2GM 8
(23) (a) ve = = R pGr
R 3 increases, and hence speed of satellite increases.
(30) (a) Because gravitational force is always attractive in nature
If mean density is constant then ve µ R
and every body is bound by this gravitational force of
ve R e 1 vp attraction of earth.
= = Þ ve =
vp R p 2 2
DPP/ P 20 59
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 20
8. (a). Limiting stress = 4.0 × 108 N/m2
MgL
1. (a). Y = F 400
pr 2 Dl = = 4.0 × 108
but Mg/pr2 = 20 × 108 & Dl = L then A A
Y = 20 × 108 N/m2 or A = 10–6 m2
2. (b). F = Y a DtA 1/2
A = 2 × 10–6 m2, Y = 2 × 11 N/m2 æ 4Aö
1/2 æ 4 ´ 10-6 ö
\ D = çè ÷ =ç ÷
a = 1.1 × 10–5, t = 50 – 30 = 20°C p ø è p ø
F = 2 × 1011 × 1.1 × 10–5 × 20 × 2 × 10–6 = 88N.
3. (d). Work done on the wire = 1.13 × 10–3 m = 1.13 mm
1 1 F 4.8 ´ 103 N
W= F × l = × stress x volume x strain 9. (c). Stress = = = 4.0 × 107 N/m2
2 2 A 1.2 ´ 10-4 m 2
1
W= × Y × strain2 × volume Dl 1 ´10-3
2 10. (c). Strain = = = 5 × 10–4, longitudinal
l 2
1 Dl 2 YADL2 11. (c). F = Y A a Dt
W = × Y × 2 × AL =
2 L 2L = 2 × 1011 × 3 × 10–6 × 10-5 × 20
F = 120 N.
2 ´ 1011 ´ 10-6 ´ 10-6 12. (c). Compressibility
W= = 0.1 J
2 ´1 1 DV
c= =- = 5 × 10–10
1 K VDp
4. (d). W = × load × elongation
2 \ Fractional decrease in volume
1 DV
W= × 5.4 × 106 × 3 =– = c D p = 5 × 10–10 × 15 × 106
2 V
W = 8.1 × 106 ergs = 7.5 × 10–3
5. (d). By Hook's law 13. (c). Increase in length on heating Dl = a L DT
F / A FL To annul this increase if pressure applied is p then
Y= =
l / L Al Dl
p=Y = Ya DT
L
16 ´ 1
Y= = 2 × 1011 N/m2 = 2 × 1011 × 1.1 × 10–5 × 100 = 2.2 × 108 N/m2
(4 ´ 10 ) (0.2 ´10 -2 )
-8
14. (c). y = 2h (1 + s)
DPV y = 2.4 × h
6. (a). B = – 2.4 h = 2h (1 + s)
DV
(1 + s) = 1.2
Given, DP = hdg = 200 x 103 x 10
DP = 2 × 105 N/m2 s = 0.2
15. (c). Stress = F/A = 10/(2 × 10-6) = 5 × 106 N/m2
DV 0.1
= = 10–3
V 100 Stress 5 ´ 106
Strain = = = 2.5 × 10–5
Y 2 ´ 1011
2 ´ 106
\B= = 2 × 109 N/m2 l = L × strain = 1 × 2.5 × 10–5
10-3 l = 2.5 × 10–5 m
stress F / A F L Dl Mg 1000 ´ 980 ´ 100
7. (b). Y = = =
strain l / L Al 16. (b). L = AY =
1012 ´ 0.01
FL 20 ´ 9.8 ´ 4 Dl = 0.0098 cm.
\l= =
A Y p ´ (10 -3 )2 ´ 1.96 ´ 1011 17. (a). Volume = Mass/density
= 1.27 × 10–3 m = 1.27 mm Area of cross-section = volume/length
EBD_7156
60 DPP/ P 20
21. (c) F = YAaDq \ F µ A
mass 15.6 ´ 10-3
= = = 8 × 10–7 m2 1
density ´ length 7800 ´ 2.5 22. (a) For twisting, angle of shear f µ
L
Fl 8 ´ 9.8 ´ 2.5 i.e. if L is more then f will be small.
Y= =
ADL (8 ´ 10 -7 ) ´ 1.25 ´ 10-3 23. (a) Y = 2h (1 + s )
Y = 1.96 × 1011 N/m2
0.5Y - h
18. (c). Potential energy per unit volume = u 24. (a) Y = 2h (1 + s ) Þ s =
h
1
= × stress × strain
2 Fcos q Fcos2 q
25. (a) Tensile stress = =
stress a / cos q a
But Y =
strain 26. (a) Tensile stress is maximum when cos 2 q is maximum,
\ stress = Y x strain = Y x S
i.e., q = 0°
\ Potential energy per unit volume = u
Fsin q Fsin q cos q
1 1 27. (b) Shearing stress = =
= × (YS)S = YS2 a / cos q a
2 2
Fsin 2q
l1 L1 r22 =
2a
19. (d). l =
2 L 2 r12 28. (a) Elasticity is a measure of tendency of the body to regain
L1 = L, L2 = 2L, r1 = 2R., r2 = R its original configuration. As steel is deformed less than
rubber therefore steel is more elastic than rubber.
l1 L R2 1 29. (a) Bulk modulus of elasticity measures how good the body
\ = . 2 =
l 2 2L 4R 8 is to regain its original volume on being compressed.
Therefore, it represents incompressibility of the material.
Force F - PV
20. (c). stress = = 2 K=
Area pr where P is increase in pressure, DV is change
DV
1 in volume.
\ stress S µ 2 30. (a) A bridge during its use undergoes alternating strains
r for a large number of times each day, depending upon the
2 movement of vehicles on it when a bridge is used for long
æ S1 ö æ r2 ö time, it losses its elastic strength. Due to which the amount
\ ç ÷ =ç ÷
è S2 ø è r1 ø of strain in the bridge for a given stress will become large
and ultimately, the bridge may collapse. This may not
r1 2 S1 1 happen, if the bridges are declared unsafe after long use.
Given r = 1 \ =
S2 4
2
DPP/ P 21 61
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 21
1. (a) Force required to separate the plates Let the width of each plate is b and due to surface
tension liquid will rise upto height h then upward force
2TA 2 ´ 70 ´ 10-3 ´ 10 -2
F= = = 28 N due to Surface tension
t 0.05 ´ 10 -3 .......(i)
= 2Tb cos q
2. (c) T T Weight of the liquid rises in between the plates
q q = Vdg = (bxh)dg ........(ii)
Equating (i) and (ii) we get, 2T cos q = bxhdg
2T cos q
\h =
xdg
10. (b) Mass of liquid in capillary tube
æ 1ö
Weight of metal disc = total upward force M = pR 2 H ´ r\ M µ R 2 ´ ç ÷ (As H µ1/ R)
è Rø
= upthrust force + force due to surface tension
= weight of displaced water + T cos q (2pr ) \ M µ R . If radius becomes double then mass will
becomes twice.
= W + 2prT cos q
11. (d) In the satellite, the weight of the liquid column is zero.
æ D2 d 2 ö So the liquid will rise up to the top of the tube.
3. (d) W = T ´ 8p(r22 - r12 ) = T ´ 8p ç - ÷
ç 4 4 ÷ø 12. (b) Tc = T0 (1- µ t )
è
i.e. surface tension decreases with increase in
= 2p( D 2 - d 2 )T temperature.
4. (b) Increment in area of soap film = A2 - A1 13. (a)
14. (d) Tension in spring T = upthrust - weight of sphere
= 2 ´ [(10 ´ 0.6) - (10 ´ 0.5)] ´10 -4 = 2 ´10 -4 m 2 = V sg - V rg = V hrg - V rg (As s = hr)
Work done = T ´ DA
= (h - 1)V rg = (h - 1) mg.
= 7.2 ´ 10-2 ´ 2 ´ 10-4 = 1.44 ´10 -5 J 15. (b)
5. (a) 16. (c)
6. (c) Excess pressure inside soap bubble is inversely proportional 17. (c) A stream lined body has less resistance due to air.
1 18. (a) Weight of cylinder = upthrust due to both liquids
to the radius of bubble i.e. DP µ
r æA 3 ö æ A Lö
This means that bubbles A and C posses greater V ´ D ´ g = ç ´ L÷ ´ d ´ g + ç ´ ÷ ´ 2d ´ g
è5 4 ø è 5 4ø
pressure inside it than B. So the air will move from A
and C towards B. æA ö A´ L´d ´ g
Þ ç ´ L÷ ´ D ´ g =
rr 5´ 4 è5 ø 4
7. (b) r = 1 2 = = 20 cm
r1 - r2 5 - 4
D d 5
Þ = \D = d
8. (c) The radius of resultant bubble is given by R 2 = r12 + r2 2 . 5 4 4
9. (b) x 19. (b) Velocity of efflux when the hole is at depth h, v = 2 gh

b
Rate of flow of water from square hole
Q1 = a1v1 = L2 2 gy
Rate of flow of water from circular hole
h
Q2 = a2 v2 = pR 2 2 g (4 y )
According to problem Q1 = Q2
L
Þ L2 2 gy = pR 2 2 g (4 y) Þ R =
2p
EBD_7156
62 DPP/ P 21
( )
20. (a) Let A = cross-section of tank o
23. (d) At critical temperature Tc = 370 C = 643 K , the
A surface tension of water is zero.
24. (d)
25. (b)
PBottom > PSurface . So bubble rises upward.
3m B
v At constant temperature V µ 1 ( Boyle 's law )
52.5 cm
P
Since as the bubble rises upward, pressure decreases, then
from above law volume of bubble will increase i.e. its size
increases.
26. (a)
a = cross-section hole
27. (d).
V = velocity with which level decreases
F = Patm × Area = 105 × 1 × 10–6 = 0.1 N
v = velocity of efflux
av æ 2T ö
F = ç Patm + ´ A = 0.10023 N
From equation of continuity av = AV Þ V =
A è r ÷ø
By using Bernoulli’s theorem for energy per unit volume 28. (a) Since the excess pressure due to surface tension is
Energy per unit volume at point A inversely proportional to its radius, it follows that
= Energy per unit volume at point B smaller the bubble, greater is the excess pressure. Thus
when the larger and the smaller bubbles are put in
1 1
P + rgh + rV 2 = P + 0 + rv 2 communication, air starts passing from the smaller into
2 2 the large bubble because excess pressure inside the
former is greater than inside the latter. As a result, the
2 gh 2 ´ 10 ´ (3 - 0.525)
Þ v2 = = = 50( m / sec) 2 smaller bubble shrinks and the larger one swells.
2 2
æaö 1 - (0.1) 29. (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2
1- ç ÷
è Aø is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
30. (a) In a stream line flow of a liquid, according to equation
21. (c) If the liquid is incompressible then mass of liquid
of continuity,
entering through left end, should be equal to mass of liquid
av = constant
coming out from the right end.
Where a is the area of cross-section and v is the velocity
\ M = m1 + m 2 Þ Av1 = Av2 + 1.5A.v of liquid flow. When water flowing in a broader pipe
Þ A ´ 3 = A ´ 1.5 + 1.5A.v Þ v = 1 m / s enters a narrow pipe, the area of cross-section of water
decreases therefore the velocity of water increases.
F 6.28 ´ 10 -4
22. (b) T= = = 5 ´ 10 -2 N / m
2 pr 2 ´ 3.14 ´ 2 ´ 10 -3
DPP/ P 22 63
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 22
1. (c) Due to volume expansion of both mercury and flask, é 75 45 ù
-6 -6
the change in volume of mercury relative to flask is = x ê ´ 10 ´ 100 + (20 - x) ´ ´ 10 ´ 100 ú
ë2 2 û
given by DV = V0 [ g L - g g ]Dq = V [ g m - 3a g ]Dq
On solving we get x = 10 cm.
= 50[180 × 10–6 – 3 × 9 × 10–6] (38 – 18) 5. (b) Due to volume expansion of both liquid and vessel,
= 0.153 cc the change in volume of liquid relative to container is
2. (a) greal = gapp. + gvessel given by DV = V0 [ g L - g g ]Dq
So (gapp. + gvessel)glass= (gapp. + gvessel)steel
Given V0 = 1000 cc, ag = 0.1× 10–4/°C
Þ 153 × 10–6 + (gvessel)glass= (144 × 10–6 + gvessel)steel
Further, (gvessel)steel = 3a = 3 × (12 × 10–6) = 36 × 10–6/°C \ g g = 3a g = 3 ´ 0.1 ´ 10-4 / °C = 0.3 ´ 10-4 / °C
Þ 153 × 10–6 + (gvessel)glass = 144 × 10–6 + 36 × 10–6 \ DV = 1000[1.82 ´ 10-4 - 0.3 ´ 10-4 ] ´ 100 = 15.2cc
Þ (gvessel)glass = 3a = 27 × 10–6/°C 6. (b) g r = g a + g v ; where g r = coefficient of real expansion,
Þ a = 9 × 10–6/°C g a = coefficient of apparent expansion and
3. (c) Initial diameter of tyre = (100 – 6) mm = 994 mm, g v = coefficient of expansion of vessel.
994 For copper g r = C + 3a Cu = C + 3A
= 497mm
So, initial radius of tyre R =
2 For silver g r = S + 3a Ag
and chan ge in diameter DD = 6 mm, so
C - S + 3A
6 Þ C + 3A = S + 3a Ag Þ a Ag =
DR = = 3 mm 3
2
After increasing temperature by Dq, tyre will fit onto 7. (d) V = V0 (1 + gDq) Þ Change in volume
wheel V – V0 = DV = A.Dl = V0gDq
Increment in the length (circumference) of the iron tyre
V0 .Dq 10-6 ´ 18 ´ 10-5 ´ (100 - 0)
g g Þ Dl = =
DL = L ´ a ´ Dq = L ´ ´ Dq [As a ´ ] A 0.004 ´ 10-4
3 3
= 45 × 10–3m = 4.5 cm
ægö 8. (b) Loss of weight at 27°C is
2pDR = 2pR ç ÷ Dq = 46 – 30 = 16 = V1 × 1.24 r1 × g ...(i)
è3ø
Loss of weight at 42°C is
3 DR 3´ 3 = 46 – 30.5 = 15.5 = V2 × 1.2 r1 × g ...(ii)
Dq Þ =
g R 3.6 ´ 10-5 ´ 497 Now dividing (i) by (ii), we get
Þ Dq = 500°C 16 V 1.24
= 1´
4. (b) DL = L0 aDq 15.5 V2 1.2
Rod A : 0.075 = 20 × aA × 100 V2 15.5 ´ 1.24
But = 1 + 3a(t2 - t1 ) = = 1.001042
75 V1 16 ´ 1.2
Þ aA = ´ 10-6 / °C
2 Þ 3a (42° – 27°) = 0.001042
Rod B : 0.045 = 20 × aB × 100 Þ a = 2.316 × 10–5/°C
45 mL
Þ aB = ´ 10-6 / °C 9. (b) Heat lost in t sec = mL or heat lost per sec = . This
2 t
For composite rod: x cm of A and (20 – x) cm of B we must be the heat supplied for keeping the substance in
have molten state per sec.
x (20 – x) mL Pt
\ = P or L =
t m
10. (b) Initially ice will absorb heat to raise it's temperature to
aA A B aB 0°C then it's melting takes place
20 cm If m1 = Initial mass of ice, m1' = Mass of ice that melts
0.060 = x aA × 100 + (20 – x) aB × 100 and mW = Initial mass of water
EBD_7156
64 DPP/ P 22
By Law of mixture 17. (b) Suppose m kg of ice melts then by using
Heat gained by ice = Heat lost by water Þ m1 × (20) + W = H
m1' × L = mWcW [20] ( Joules ) ( Joules )
Þ 2 × 0.5 (20) + m1' × 80 = 5 × 1 × 20 Þ Mgh = mL
Þ m1' = 1 kg Þ 3.5 × 10 × 2000 = m × 3.5 × 105
So final mass of water = Initial mass of water + Mass Þ m = 0.2 kg = 200 gm
of ice that melts = 5 + 1 = 6 kg. 18. (d) Coefficient of volume expansion
11. (a) If mass of the bullet is m gm,
Dr (r - r ) (10 - 9.7)
then total heat required for bullet to just melt down g= = 1 2 = = 3 ´ 10-4
Q1 = mcDq + mL = m × 0.03 (327 – 27) + m ×6 r.DT r.( Dq) 10 ´ (100 - 0)
= 15m cal = (15m × 4.2)J Hence, coefficient of linear expansion
Now when bullet is stopped by the obstacle, the loss in
g
1 a= = 10-4 / °C
-3 2 3
its mechanical energy = (m ´ 10 )v J
2 19. (b) As we know
(As m gm = m × 10–3kg) g real = g app. + g vessel
As 25% of this energy is absorbed by the obstacle,
Þ g app. = g glycerine – g glass
75 1 2 3
Q2 = ´ mv ´ 10-3 = mv 2 ´ 10-3 J = 0.000597 – 0.000027
100 2 8
= 0.00057/°C
Now the bullet will melt if Q2 ³ Q1
( Pt - P0 )
3 2 20. (a) t= ´ 100°C
i.e. mv ´ 10-3 ³ 15m ´ 4.2 Þ vmin = 410 m/s ( P100 - P0 )
8
12. (c) Heat gain = heat lost (60 - 50)
= ´ 100 = 25°C
CA 3 (90 - 50)
C A (16 - 12) = CB (19 - 16) Þ = 21. (c) Since specific heat = 0.6 kcal/gm × °C
CB 4
= 0.6 cal/gm × °C
CB 5 From graph it is clear that in a minute, the temperature
and CB (23 - 19) = CC (28 - 23) Þ = is raised from 0°C to 50°C.
CC 4
Þ Heat required for a minute
C A 15 = 50 × 0.6 × 50 = 1500 cal.
Þ = ....(i) Also from graph, boiling point of wax is 200°C.
CC 16
22. (b) The horizontal parts of the curve, where the system
If q is the temperature when A and C are mixed then, absorbs heat at constant temperature must depict
C A 28 - q changes of state. Here the latent heats are proportional
C A (q - 12) = CC (28 - q) Þ = ...(ii) to lengths of the horizontal parts. In the sloping parts,
CC q - 12
specific heat capacity is inversely proportional to the
On solving equation (i) and (ii) q = 20.2°C slopes.
13. (a) Same amount of heat is supplied to copper and water 23. (d) Let L0 be the initial length of each strip before heating.
so mcccDqc = mWcWDqW Length after heating will be
mc cc (Dq)c 50 ´ 10-3 ´ 420 ´ 10
Þ DqW = = = 5°C Brass Strip
mW cW 10 ´ 10 -3 ´ 4200
14. (b) Heat lost by hot water = Heat gained by cold water in
beaker + Heat absorbed by beaker
Þ 440 (92 – q) = 200 × (q – 20) + 20 × (q – 20)
d
Þ q = 68°C Copper Strip
15. (a)
16. (b) Firstly the temperature of bullet rises up to melting
point, then it melts. Hence according to W = JQ.
R q
1 2
Þ mv = J .[m.c.Dq + mL] = J [mS (475 - 25) + mL]
2
mv 2
Þ mS (475 - 25) + mL =
2J
LB = L0 (1 + α BΔT ) = ( R + d ) θ
DPP/ P 22 65
LC = L0 (1 + αC ΔT ) = Rθ r1 1500
r2 = = = 1350 kg/m3
(1 + gDT ) æ -3 1000 ö
R + d 1 + αB ΔT çè1 + 1 ´ 10 ´ ÷
Þ = 9 ø
R 1 + αC ΔT
d r 2 v 2 A2 = r1v1 A1
Þ 1+ = 1 + ( α B - α C ) ΔT
R Þ 1350 × v2 = 1500 × 0.1
v2 = 1/9 m/s
d
Þ R= \ Volume rate of flow at the end of tube
( α B - αC ) ΔT
1
= A2v2 = 4 × 10–4 ´
1 1 9
ÞRµ and R µ
ΔT ( B αC )
α -
4 40
24. (a) A bimetallic strip on being heated bends in the form of = ´ 10-4 m3 = ´ 10-5 m3
9 9
an arc with more expandable metal (A) outside (as
shown) correct. Volume rate of flow at the entrance = A1v1
= 0.1 × 4 × 10–4 = 4 × 10–5m3
Hence, difference of volume rate of flow at the two
ends
aA > aB æ 40 ö -5 4
B = ç - 4÷ ´ 10 = ´ 10-5 m3
B è 9 ø 9
A A aB
28. (d) Celsius scale was the first temperature scale and
Fahrenheit is the smallest unit measuring temperature.
aA aB aA 29. (a) Linear expansion for brass (19 × 10–4) > linear expansion
for steel (11 × 10–4). On cooling the disk shrinks to a
greater extent than the hole and hence it will get loose.
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 30. (b) The latent heat of fusion of ice is amount of heat
r1v1A1 = r2v2A2 required to convert unit mass of ice at 0°C into water
m = 1500 kg/m3 × 0.1 m/s × 4 (cm)2 at 0°C. For fusion of ice
msDT = 10000 L = 80 cal/gm = 80000 cal/gm = 8000 × 4.2 j/kg
1500 × 0.1 × 4 × 10–4 × 1500 × DT = 10000 = 336000 J/kg.
10000 1000
DT = = °C
90 9
EBD_7156
66 DPP/ P 23
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 23
dQ KADq 0.2 ´ 1 ´ (20 - q)t
1. (a) = H=
dt l 0.002
For both rods K, A and Dq are same
(200)2 ´ t 0.2 ´ (20 - q)t
dQ 1 Hence =
Þ µ 20 ´ 4.2 0.002
dt l q = 15.24° C
Þ
( dQ / dt ) semi circular 4. (b) If suppose KNi = K Þ KAl = 3K and KCu = 6K
So, Since all metal bars are connected in series.
( dQ / dt ) straight
æQ ö æQ ö æQ ö æQö
So, ç ÷ =ç ÷ =ç ÷ =ç ÷
l straight è t øCombination è t øCu è t ø Al è t ø Ni
=
l semi circular
3 1 1 1
and = + +
2r 2 K eq KCu K Al K Ni
=
= .
pr p
1 1 1 9
2. (b) Suppose thickness of each wall is x then = + + =
6 K 3K K 6K
æQö æQ ö
çè ÷ø =ç ÷ Þ Keq = 2K
t combination è t ø A
25 cm 10 cm 15 cm
K s A(q1 - q2 ) 2KA(q1 - q) Q Cu Ni Al Q
Þ =
2x x 100° C q1 q2 0° C
2 ´ 2K ´ K 4 æQ ö æQö
Q Ks = = K Hence, if ç ÷ =
(2K + K ) 3 è t øCombination çè t ÷øCu
and (q1 - q2 ) = 36°
K eq A(100 - 0) KCu A(100 - q1 )
Þ =
l Combination l Cu
2 KA(100 - 0) 6KA(100 - q1 )
Þ =
(25 + 10 + 15) 25
A B Þ q1 = 83.33° C
æQö æQ ö
Similar if ç ÷ =
è t ø Combination çè t ÷ø Al
2K K
2 KA(100 - 0) 3KA(q2 - 0)
Þ =
q1 x q x q2 50 15
Þ q2 = 20° C
4 5. (b) Let the temperature of junction be q then according to
KA ´ 36 2KA(q - q) following figure.
Þ 3 = 1
2x x 50°C
Hence temperature difference across wall A is
2K
(q1 - q) = 12° C H1
100°C H
3. (a) Heat developed by the heater
3K q H2
V 2 t (200)2 ´ t
H= . = K
R J 20 ´ 4.2
Heat conducted by the glass 20°C
DPP/ P 23 67
H = H1 + H 2 1
On solving equation (i) and (ii) we get K = and q0
Þ 15
3K ´ A ´ (100 - q) 2 KA(q - 50) KA(q - 20) = 24° C. Putting these values in equation (iii) we get q
= + = 42.7° C.
l l l
Þ 300 – 3q = 3q – 120 Ql
8. (c) t=
Þ q = 70° C KA(q1 - q2 )
6. (d) Wein's displacement law is
mLl V rLl
l mT = b = =
KA(q1 - q 2 ) KA(q1 - q 2 )
b
Þ lm = 5 + 10
T 5 ´ A ´ 0.92 ´ 80 ´
= 2
2.88 ´ 106 0.004 ´ A ´ 10 ´ 3600
= = 1000 nm
2880 = 19.1 hours.
Energy distribution with wavelength will be as follows Q KADq
9. (c) =
t l
El mL K (pr 2 )Dq
Þ =
t l
2
U2 æ m ö Kr
Þ Rate of melting of ice ç ÷ µ
èt ø l
U1
U3 1
Since for second rod K becomes th, r becomes
4
500
499
900
1000
1499
1500
l(nm) double and length becomes half, so rate of melting will
be twice i.e. æç ö÷ = 2 æç ö÷ = 2 ´ 0.1 = 0.2 gm/sec.

m m
From the graph it is clear that è t ø2 è t ø1
U2 > U1
7. (a) According to Newton law of cooling dQ KA
10. (d) = dq
q1 - q2 éq + q ù dt l
= K ê 1 2 - q0 ú
t ë 2 û 0.01 ´ 1
= ´ 30 = 6 J/sec
0.05
5 min Heat transferred in one day (86400 sec)
80° C 64°C
1 Q = 6 × 86400 = 518400 J
10 min Now Q = mL
52°C
2 Q 518400
15 min Þ m= = = 1.552 kg = 1552 g.
L 334 ´ 103
q=?
3 dT sA 4
11. (b) = (T - T04 )
For first process : dt mcJ
(80 - 64) é 80 + 64 ù [In the given problem fall in temperature of body dT =
=Kê - q0 ú ....... (i) (200 – 100) = 100 K, temp. of surrounding T0 = 0 K,
5 ë 2 û
Initial temperature of body T = 200 K].
For second process :
(80 - 52) 100 s 4 pr 2
é 80 + 52 ù = (2004 - 0 4 )
=Kê - q0 ú ....... (ii) dt 4 3
10 ë 2 û pr rcJ
3
For third process :
rrcJ
(80 - q) é 80 + q ù Þ dt = ´ 10-6 s
=Kê - q0 ú ....... (iii) 48s
15 ë 2 û
EBD_7156
68 DPP/ P 23
rrc 4.2 50 - q æ 50 + q ö
= ´ ´ 10-6 =Kç - 25 ÷ .......... (ii)
s 48 10 è 2 ø
7 r rc 7 rrc On dividing, we get
= µs ; µs [As J = 4.2]
80 s 72 s 10 60
=
12. (c) Suppose temperature difference between A and B is 50 - q q
100° C and q A > qB Þ q = 42.85° C
d q sA 4
C
15. (d) = (T - T04 ). If the liquids put in exactly similar
dt mc
calorimeters and identical surrounding then we can
H/2 H/2 consider T0 and A constant then
A B d q (T 4 - T04 )
µ
H H dt mc
If we consider that equal masses of liquid (m) are taken
H/2 H/2 at the same temperature then
dq 1
D
µ
dt c
So for same rate of cooling c should be equal which is
Heat current will flow from A to B via path ACB and
not possible because liquids are of different nature.
ADB. Since all the rod are identical so
Again from equation (i),
(Dq) AC = (Dq) AD
d q (T 4 - T04 )
Dq µ
(Because heat current H = ; here R = same for all) dt mc
R
d q (T 4 - T04 )
Þ q A - qC = q A - q D Þ µ
dt V rc
Þ qC = q D Now if we consider that equal volume of liquid (V) are
i.e. temperature difference between C and D is zero. taken at the same temperature then
dq 1
C µ .
dt rc
So for same rate of cooling multiplication of r × c for
R R two liquids of different nature can be possible. So,
option (d) may be correct.
A B 16. (d) For cooking utensils, low specific heat is preferred for
2T T it's material as it should need less heat to raise it's
temperature and it should have high conductivity,
because, it should transfer heat quickly.
R R
æQö K1 A1 (q1 - q2 )
17. (b) çè ÷ø =
t 1 l
D
K A (q - q )
and æç ö÷ = 2 2 1 2
Q
13. (a) Initially at t = 0 è t ø2 l
Rateof cooling (R) µ Fall in temperature of body (q – q0)
æQö æQö
R1 q1 - q0 Given, ç ÷ = ç ÷
Þ è t ø1 è t ø 2
=
R2 q 2 - q0
Þ K1 A1 = K 2 A2
100 - 40 3 18. (a) Convection may be stopped
= =
80 - 40 2 19. (d) Heated fluid becomes less dense than the cold fluid
above it
60 - 50 æ 60 + 50 ö 20. (c) According to Kirchoff's law, the ratio of emissive power
14. (c) = Kç - 25 ÷ ........... (i)
10 è 2 ø to absorptive power is same for all bodies is equal to
DPP/ P 23 69
the emissive power of a perfectly black body i.e., Initial temperature of calorimeter, T1 = 15°C
æeö Temperature of ball, T2 = 100°C
çè ÷ø = EBlack body for a particular wave length
a body Final temperature of the liquid, T = 23°C
Specific heat of solid, c2 = 0.092 cal/g°C
æ el ö
çè a ÷ø = ( El ) Black body Heat gained by turpentine and calorimeter is
l body
mc (T – T1) + W (T – T1) = 200c (23 – 15) + 4 (23 – 15)
Þ el = al El = (200c + 4) 8
21. (a) As for a black body rate of absorption of heat is more.
Heat lost by the ball is
Hence thermometer A shows faster rise in temperature
but finally both will acquire the atmospheric Mc2 (T2 – T) = 100 (0.092) (100 – 23)
temperature. = 708.4 cal.
22. (b) According to the principle of calorimetry
According to Stefan's law Heat gained = Heat lost
\ (200c + 4) 8 = 708.4
E = eAσT 4 Þ E1 = e1AσT14 and E 2 = e 2 AσT24
1600c + 32 = 708.4
Q E1 = E 2 \ e1T14 = e 2 T2 4
708.4 - 32
or c = = 0.42 cal/g°C
1600
1 1
æe ö4 æ 1 4 ö4 28. (d) Equivalent thermal conductivity of two equally thick
Þ T2 = ç 1 T14 ÷ = ç ´ ( 5802 ) ÷ plates in series combination is given by
è e2 ø è 81 ø
Þ TB = 1934 K
And, from Wein's law λ A ´ TA = λ B ´ TB

K1 K2
λ T λ - λ A TA - TB
Þ A = B Þ B =
λ B TA λB TA
1 5802 - 1934 3968 2 1 1

Þ = = Þ λ B = 1.5 μm = +
λB 5802 5802 K K1 K 2
23. (a) According to Newton's law of cooling. If K1 < K2
24. (a) In forced convection rate of loss of heat then K1 < K < K 2
29. (b) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are true but
Q statement-2 is not correctly explaining the statement-2.
µ A(T , T0 )
T 30. (d) According to Wein's displacement law the
25(a), 26(c), 27(c) 1
lm µ
T
Let c be the specific heat of turpentine
Hence statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false.
Mass of the solid, M = 100g
Mass of turpentine m = 200g
Water equivalent of calorimeter, W = 4g
EBD_7156
70 DPP/ P 24
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 24
1. (b) Differentiate PV = constant w.r.t. V
R (Ti - T f ) R(T - T f )
DP DV 10. (d) W= Þ 6R = Þ T f = (T - 4) K
Þ P DV + V DP = 0 Þ = g -1 æ5 ö
P V çè - 1÷ø
3
2. (a) In isothermal compression, there is always an increase
of heat which must flow out the gas. 11. (c) PV g constant : Differentiating both sides
DQ = DU + DW Þ DQ = DW (\DU = 0)
dP dV
P gV g -1dV + V g dP = 0 Þ = -g
1.5 ´ 104 P V
Þ DQ = -1.5 ´ 104 J = cal = -3.6 ´ 103 cal
4.18 12. (c) V µ T at constant pressure
3. (c) DQ = DU + DW V1 T1 VT 300 ´ 280
Þ = Þ V2 = 1 2 = = 280 ml
Þ DU = DQ - DW = 2240 - 168 = 2072 J . V2 T2 T1 300
V 20 13. (b) In thermodynamic process, work done is equal to the
4. (b) Wiso = mRT loge 2 = 1´ 8.31´ 300log e = 1728 J
V1 10 area covered by the PV curve with volume axis.
Hence, according to graph shown
Tg Wadiabatic < Wisothermal < Wisobaric
5. (d) For adiabatic process = constant
Pg - 1
1-g (1-1.4) P
T æPö g T
Þ 2 = æç ö÷
4 1.4
Þ 2 =ç 1÷ Isobaric
T1 è P2 ø 300 è 1 ø
0.4
Þ T2 = 300(4) 1.4 Isothermal
6. (d) PV g = constant Adiabatic

g
P2 æ V1 ö V1 V2 V
Þ = Þ P2 = (8)5 / 3 P1 = 32 P1
P1 çè V2 ÷ø
g -1 14. (d) W = PDV = 2.4 × 104 × 1 × 105 = 24J

T2 æ V1 ö
7. (b) =
T1 çè V2 ÷ø V2 T2 274
15. (c) For isobaric process V = T Þ V2 = V ´ 273
1 1
5 2
-1
æ 27 ö 3 æ 27 ö 3 274V V
Þ T2 = 300 ç ÷ = 300 ç ÷ Increase = -V =
è 8 ø è 8 ø 273 273
2 16. (c) W = PDV = nRDT = 0.1 × 2 × 300 = 60 cal
ìïæ 27 ö1/ 3 üï æ3ö
2
17. (d) Fraction of supplied energy which increases the
= 300 íç ÷ ý = 800 ç ÷ = 675 K
internal energy is given by
îïè 8 ø þï è2ø
Þ DT = 675 - 300 = 375 K DU (DQ)V mCV DT 1

f = = = =
(DQ ) P (DQ) P mC P DT g
8. (b) In adiabatic change Q = constant Þ DQ = 0
So DW = -DU (\ DQ = DU + DW ) 7 5
For diatomic gas, g = Þ f =
5 7
9. (d) TV g -1 = constant
18. (a) In isothermal change, temperature remains constant,
g -1
æV ö Hence DU = 0.
Þ T2 = T1 ç 1 ÷ = 927o C
èV ø 2 Also from DQ = DU + DW Þ DQ = DW
DPP/ P 24 71
19. (c) From graph it is clear that P3 > P1 .

C
P3
P1
C A
P3 P2 B
P1
A V
E(V1) D(V2)
B
P2 24. (d) Work done = Area of ABC with V-axis
= P0(2V0 –V0) + 0 = P0V0 = nRT0 = RT0
Change in internal energy = nCVDT
E (V1 ) D (V2 ) V 3 9
= 1× R × (4T0 – T0) = RT
T0
2 2
Since area under adiabatic process (BCED) is greater
than that of isothermal process (ABDE).Therefore net 9 11
Heat absorbed = RT
T0 + RT0 = RT
T0
work done 2 2
W = Wi + (-WA ) \WA > Wi Þ W < 0
25. (b) AB is an isothermal process then
20. (b) PV 2 = constant represents adiabatic equation. So P
during the expansion of ideal gas internal energy of P × 2V = PB × 6V Þ PB =
3
gas decreases and temperature falls.
21. (a) For adiabatic process P
T1Vbg-1 = Constant A C
For bc curve P
T1Vbg-1 = T2Vcg-1
g-1
T2 æ Vb ö
or =ç ÷ ....(i)
T1 è Vc ø
B
For ad curve
V
g -1 2V 6V
T1Vag -1 = T2Vd
Now BC is an isochoric process then
g -1
T2 æ Va ö PB PC P P
or = .....(ii) = ; =
T1 çè Vd ÷ø TB TC 3T0 TC ; TC = 3T0
From equation (i) and (ii) 26. (a) Heat absorbed during BC is given by
Vb Va 3R
= Q = nCv DT = n ´ (TC - TB )
Vc Vd 2
22. (d) There is a decrease in volume during melting on an ice 3R
= n´ (2T0 ) = 3nRT0.
slab at 273K. Therefore, negative work is done by 2
ice-water system on the atmosphere or positive work 27. (b) Heat capacity is given by
is done on the ice-water system by the atmosphere. 1 dQ 1 Q
Hence option (b) is correct. Secondly heat is absorbed C= ; C=
n dT n 2T0
during melting (i.e. DQ is positive) and as we have
seen, work done by ice-water system is negative (DW 28. (c) As isothermal processes are very slow and so the
is negative). Therefore, from first law of different isothermal curves have different slopes so
they cannot intersect each other.
thermodynamics ΔU = ΔQ - ΔW 29. (d) Adiabatic compression is a rapid action and both the
Change in internal energy of ice-water system, DU will internal energy and the temperature increases.
be positive or internal energy will increase.
Q
23. (a) From graph it is clear that P3 > P1. 30. (a) c= ; a gas may be heated by putting pressure,
m.Dq
Since area under adiabatic process (BCED) is greater so it can have values for 0 to ¥ .
than that of isothermal process (ABDE). Therefore net CP and CV are it’s two principle specific heats, out of
work done infinite possible values.
W = Wi + ( - WA ) Q WA > Wi Þ W < 0 In adiabatic process C = 0 and in isothermal process
C= ¥.
EBD_7156
72 DPP/ P 25
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 25
1. (c) Processes A to B and C to D are parts of straight line 4. (d) In all given cases, process is cyclic and in cyclic process
graphs of the form y = mx DU = 0 .
5 2
P g-1
æ L A ö3
-1
æ L ö3
TC = 2200 K T æV ö
P2 TB = 800 K 5. (d) T1V1g-1 = T2V2g-1 Þ 1 =ç 2 ÷ =ç 2 ÷ =ç 2 ÷
P2 B C T2 è V1 ø è L1 A ø è L1 ø
VB VC 6. (d) Oxygen is diatomic gas, hence its energy of two moles
TA = 600K 5
P1
A VA D TD = 1200 K = 2 ´ RT = 5RT
2
VD
Argon is a monoatomic gas, hence its internal energy
3
of 4 moles = 4 ´ RT = 6 RT
2
T
Total internal energy = (6 + 5) RT = 11RT
mR T1 - T2 WA T -T W
Also P = T (m = 6) 7. (c) hA = = Þ hB = 2 3 = B
V T1 Q1 T2 Q2
Þ P µ T . So volume remains constant for the graphs
AB and CD. Q1 T1 T2 - T3 T1
\ = ´ = \W A = WB
So no work is done during processes for A to B and C Q2 T2 T1 - T2 T2
to D i.e., WAB = WCD = 0 and
T1 + T3 800 + 300
WBC = P2 (VC - VB ) = mR (TC - TB ) \ T2 = = = 550 K
2 2
= 6 R (2200 - 800) = 6 R ´1400 J T1 - T2 T - (273 + 7)
8. (d) Initially h = Þ 0.5 = 1
Also WDA = P1 (V A - VD ) = mR(TA - TB ) T1 T1
= 6 R (600 - 1200) = -6 R ´ 600 J 1 T1 - 280
Hence work done in complete cycle Þ = Þ T1 = 560 K
2 T1
W = WAB + WBC + WCD + WDA
= 0 + 6 R ´1400 + 0 - 6 R ´ 600 , T1¢ - T2
Finally h1 =
= 6 R ´ 900 = 6 ´ 8.3 ´ 800 = 40 kJ T1¢
2. (d) W = Area bonded by the indicator diagram with V-axis)
T ¢ - (273 + 7)
1 Þ 0.7 = 1 Þ T1¢ = 933K
= ( PA + PB )(VB - VA ) T1¢
2
3. (d) For path ab : (DU ) ab = 7000 J \ increase in temperature = 933 - 560 = 373K » 380 K
9. (d) In both cylinders A and B the gases are diatomic
By using DU = mCV DT
( g = 1.4) . Piston A is free to move i.e. it is isobaric
5
7000 = m ´ R ´ 700 Þ m = 0.48 process. Piston B is fixed i.e. it is isochoric process. If
2
same amount of heat DQ is given to both then
For path ca :
(DQ )ca = (DU )ca + (DW )ca .......(i) (DQ)isobaric = (DQ)isochoric
\ (DU ) ab + (DU )bc + (DU )ca = 0 Þ m CP (DT ) A = m Cu (DT ) B
\ 7000 + 0 + (DU )ca = 0 Þ (DU )ca = -7000 J .... (ii) CP

Þ ( DT ) B = (DT ) A = g (DT ) A = 1.4 ´ 30 = 42 K
Cu
Also (DW )ca = P1 (V1 - V2 ) = mR (T1 - T2 ) T1 - T2
10. (b) In first case, h1 =
= 0.48 ´ 8.31´ (300 - 1000) = -2792.16 J ......(iii) T1
on solving equations (i), (ii) and (iii) 2T1 - 2T2 T1 - T2
(DQ )ca = -7000 - 2792.16 = -9792.16 J = -9800 J In second case, h2 = = =h
2T1 T1
DPP/ P 25 P
73
T2 1 500 500 1 C
11. (b) h = 1- Þ = 1- Þ = ...(i)
T1 2 T1 T1 2
2T0
60 T2' T2' 2 B
= 1- Þ = ...(ii) D
100 T1 T1 5
T0
Dividing equation (i) by (ii), A
500 5
= Þ T2, = 400 K V0 2V0
V
T2, 4
æ V0 ö
T2 300 1 Here W < 0 Þ Q < 0 and | W | = RT0 ln ç 2V ÷ + 2RT
T0
è 0ø
12. (a) hmax = 1 - =1- = = 25%
T1 400 4
æ 2V0 ö
So 26% efficiency is impossible.
ln ç V ÷ = RT
T0 ln 2
T2 (273 + 123) 150 1 è 0 ø
13. (a) h =1- =1- =1- = = 50% (25) (c) (26) (b) (27) (b)
T1 (273 + 27) 300 2
T2 25 300 1 300 P
14. (c) h =1- Þ =1- Þ = 1-
T1 100 T1 4 T1
c
o
T1 = 400 K = 127 C
15. (b) DQ = DU + DW
b
Þ DU = DQ - DW = Q - W (using proper sign) d
16. (b) (i)
17. (a) J DQ = DU + DW , DU = J DQ - DW a
DU = 4.18 ´ 300 - 600 = 654 Joule
V
18. (b) DQ = DU + DW
Þ DW = DQ - DU = 110 - 40 = 70 J Anticlockwise cycle Þ W < 0
19. (a) (ii) Process ab : Wab = 0, DUab > 0 Þ Qab > 0
20. (a) From FLOT Process bc : Wbc < 0, DUbc = 0 Þ Qbc < 0
Process cd : Wcd = 0, DUcd < 0 Þ Qcd < 0
Þ dU = dQ - dW Þ dU = dQ(< 0) (\ dW = 0) Process da : Wda > 0, DUda = 0 Þ Qda > 0
Þ dU < 0 So, temperature will decrease. (iii) da and bc are isothermal process.
21. (b) From FLOT DQ = DU + DW 28. (a) Second law of thermodynamics can be explained with
Work done at constant pressure the help of example of refrigerator, as we know that
refrigerator, the working substance extracts heat from
(DW ) P = (DQ) P - DU
colder body and rejcts a large amount of heat to a hotter
(DQ ) P - (DQ)V (As we know (DQ )V = DU ) body with the help of an external agency i.e., the electric
Also (DQ ) P =
mcP DT and (DQ )V =
mcV DT supply of the refrigerator. No refrigerator can ever work
without external supply of electric energy to it.
Þ ( DW ) p =
m(cP - cV )DT 29. (d) When the door of refrigerator is kept open, heat rejected
by the refrigerator to the room will be more than the
Þ (DW )P = 1´ (3.4 ´103 - 2.4 ´103)10 =
104 Cal. heat taken by the refrigerator from the room (by an
22. (a) Slow isothermal expansion or compression of an ideal amount equal to work done by the compressor).
gas is reversible process, while the other given pro- Therefore, temperature of room will increase and so it
cess are irreversible in nature. will be warmed gradually. As according to second law
dQ of thermodynamics, heat cannot be transferred on its
23. (a) For a reversible process ò T
=0 own, from a body at lower temperature to another at
24. (d) higher temperature.
30. (c) As there is no change in internal energy of the system
during an isothermal change. Hence, the energy taken
by the gas is utilised by doing work against external
pressure. According to FLOT
DQ = DU + pDV
Hence, DQ = DU = pDV
Therefore, statement-2 is true and statement-1 is false.
EBD_7156
74 DPP/ P 26
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 26
1. (a) Closed vessel i.e., volume is constant Þ< CH >
P T P T = 2 < CHe >
Þ 1 = 1Þ = Þ T = 250 K
P2 T2 æ 0.4 ö T +1
P+ç ÷ P 12. (b) vrms > vau > vmp
è 100 ø
V1 T1 V (273 + 27) 300 5 7

2. (c) V µT Þ = Þ = = 1´ 1´
V2 T2 2V T2 T2 3 + 5
m1g1 m2 g 2 æ 5 ö æ7 ö
+ -1 -1
Þ T2 = 600 K = 327o C g1 - 1 g 2 - 1 çè 3 ÷ø çè 5 ÷ø 3
13. (a) g mix = = = = 1.5
3. (c) At low pressure and high temperature real gases m1 m 1 1 2
+ 2 +
behaves like ideal gases. g1 - 1 g 2 - 1 æ 5 ö æ 7 ö
ç - 1÷ ç - 1 ÷
N A PAVA TB è3 ø è5 ø
4. (d) PV = NkT Þ = ´
N B PBVB TA 14. (c) We know that
N A P ´ V ´ (2T ) 4 R R
Þ = = CP - CV = ÞJ=
NB V 1 J C P - CV
2P ´ ´ T
4
cal
5. (d) PV = mrT CP - CV = 1.98 ,
gm - mol - K
Since P, V , r ® remains same
Hence J
R = 8.32
1 m T 13 (273 + 52) 325 gm - mol - K
m¥ Þ 1 = 2 Þ = =
T m2 T1 m2 (273 + 27) 300 8.32
\J = = 4.20 J / cal
Þ m2 = 12 gm 1.98
i.e., mass released =13gm - 12gm = 1gm 3P 3PV P
15. (b) vrms = = Þ vrms µ
PV PV r m m
6. (c) m1 = , m2 =
RT RT
v1 P1 m2
(m + m 2 ) RT 2 PV RT Þ = ´
P' = 1 = ´ = 2P v2 P2 m1
V RT V
3kT 1 v P0 m / 2
7. (d) vrms = = vrms µ Þ = ´ Þ P2 = 2 P0
m m 2v P2 m
8. (a) 2
16. (d) P= E
3RT 3RT 3 ´ 8.3 ´ 300 3
9. (a) vrms = Þ M = 2 \M =
M vrms (1920)2 3
17. (a) For one gm mole; average kinetic energy = RT
2
= 2 ´ 10-3 kg = 2 gm Þ Gas is hydrogen.
18. (c) Average kinetic energy µ Temperature
10. (d) r.m.s velocity does not depend upon pressure.
11. (c) Average velocity of gas molecule is E1 T1 E T
Þ = Þ = 1 Þ T2 = 2T1
E2 T2 2 E T2
8 RT 1
v au = Þ va u µ
pM M T2 = 2(273 + 20) = 586 K = 313o C
< CH > M He 4 f
Þ = = =2 19. (d) Kinetic energy per gm mole E = RT
< CHe > MH 1 2
If nothing is said about gas then we should calculate
DPP/ P 26 75
the translational kinetic energy i.e.,
VA μ A
= ¹ 1 i.e. VA ¹ VB
3 3 VB μ B
ETrans = RT = ´ 8.31´ (273 + 0) = 3.4 ´103 J
2 2
PA μ A
20. (b) ( D Q ) P = m CP D T Similarly if VA = VB then = ¹ 1 i.e. PA ¹ PB .
PB μ B
cal 25. (b) n1Cv (T – T0) + n2 Cv (T – 2T0) = 0
Þ 2 ´ CP ´ (35 - 30) Þ C P = 7
mole - K
3
Q CP - CV = R T = T0
2
cal PT 3
Þ CV = C P - R = 7 - 2 = 5 Pf =
i f
= P0
mole - kelvin Ti 2
\ (DQ)V = mCV DT
26. (c) DQ = n1Cv (T f – T0 )
= 2 ´ 5 ´ (35 - 30) = 50 cal
21. (a) Average kinetic energy per molecule per degree of P0V0 3 æ3 ö 3
= ´ R ´ ç T0 – T0 ÷ = P0V0
2 RT0 2 è 2 ø 8
freedom = 1 kT . Since both the gases are diatomic
2 27. (c) Let DV is change in volume in any compartment then
and at same temperature (300 K), both will have the
æV ö
same number of rotational degree of freedom i.e. two. Pf ç 0 – DV ÷
Therefore, both the gases will have the same average P0V0 è 2 ø and
n1 = =
rotational kinetic energy per molecule 2 RT0 RT f
æ 1 ö
ç = 2 ´ kT = kT ÷ . æV ö
Pf ç 0 + DV ÷
è 2 ø
2 P0V0 è 2 ø
n2 = = Þ DV = 0
E1 1 2 RT0 RT f
Thus =
E2 1
28. (b) Internal energy of an ideal gas does not depend upon
22. (a) volume of the gas, because there are no forces of
Coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure is attration/repulsion amongest the molecular of an ideal
1 gas.
for all gases. The average transnational K.E. is same Also internal energy of an ideal gas depends on
273
temperature.
3 29. (b) Helium is a monoatomic gas, while oxygen is diatomic.
for molecule of all gases and for each molecules it is kT
2 Therefore, the heat given to helium will be totally used
up in increasing the translational kinetic energy of its
kT molecules; whereas the heat given to oxygen will be
Mean free path λ = (as P decreases, l increases)
2πd 2 P used up in increasing the translational kinetic energy
of the molecule and also in increasing the kinetic energy
3RT 2RT of rotation and vibration. Hence there will be a greater
23. (b) v rms = , vP = = 0.816 vrms
M M rise in the temperature of helium.
30. (d) Maxwell speed distribution graph is asymmetric graph,
8RT because it has a long “tail” that extends to infinity.
v= = 0.92 v rms Þ v P < v < v rms
πM Also vrms depends upon nature of the gas and it’s
temperature.
1 1 3 3
mv 2rms = m v 2P = mv2P
Further E av =
2 2 2 4 dN
24. (d) According to problem mass of gases are equal so dv
number of moles will not be equal i.e. μ A ¹ μ B
PA VA PB VB
From ideal gas equation PV = μRT Þ =
μA μB
[As temperature of the container are equal]
From this relation it is clear that if PA = PB then vmp vav vrms v
EBD_7156
76 DPP/ P 27
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 27
1. (c) a = 10 2
1 æaö
mw2 y 2
2. (d) y = A sin wt =
A sin 2p A
t Þ = A sin
2pt
Þt =
T U 2 y 2 çè 2 ÷ø 1
T 2 T 12 13. (b) = = = =
E 1 2 a 4
mw2 a 2 a
2p a 2 pt 1 2 pt 2
3. (c) y = a sin t Þ = a sin Þ = sin
T 2 3 2 3 14. (c) In S.H.M., frequency of K.E. and P.E.
= 2 × (Frequency of oscillating particle)
2pt p 2p t p 1
Þ sin = sin Þ = Þ t = sec 1 2 1 2 2
3 6 3 6 4 15. (c) Kinetic energy K = mv = ma w cos 2 wt
2 2
æ pö æ pö
4. (a) x = a sin ç wt + ÷ and x ' = a cos wt = a sin ç wt + ÷ 1
è 6ø è 2ø = mw2 a 2 (1 + cos 2wt )
2
æ pö æ pö p hence kinetic energy varies periodically with double
\Df = ç wt + ÷ - ç wt + ÷ = the frequency of S.H.M. i.e. 2 w .
è 6ø è 6ø 3
16. (a) At mean position, the kinetic energy is maximum.
5. (c) v = w a 2 - y 2 Þ 10 = w a 2 - (4)2 and 1 2 2
ma w = 16
Hence
2
8 = w a2 - (5)2 On putting the values we get
2p 2p p
w = 10 Þ T = = sec
On solving, w = 2 Þ w = = 2 Þ T = p sec w 5
T
17. (d) From the given equation, w = 2pn = 4p Þ n = 2 Hz
2p 2p
6. (b) vmax = aw = a ´ = (50 ´ 10 -3 ) ´ = 0.15 m / s 18. (a) Using x = A sin wt
T 2
p
7. (d) vmax = aw and Amax = aw 2 For x = A / 2, sin wT1 = 1/ 2 Þ T1 =
6w
A 4 p
Þ w = max = = 2 rad/sec For x = A, sin w (T1 + T2 ) = 1 Þ T1 + T2 =
vmax 2 2w
8. (d) At mean position velocity is maximum p p p p
Þ T2 = - T1 = - = i.e., T1 < T2
vmax 16 2w 2w 6w 3w
i.e., vmax = wa Þ w = = =4 19. (a) Let the piston be displaced through distance x towards
a 4
left, then volume decreases, pressure increases. If DP is
\ u = w a 2 - y 2 Þ 8 3 = 4 42 - y 2 increased in pressure and DV is decreased in volume,
then considering the process to take place gradually
Þ 192 = 16(16 - y 2 ) Þ 12 = 16 - y 2 Þ y = 2cm (i.e isothermal)
h
9. (a) Maximum acceleration = aw2 = a ´ 4p 2 n 2
= 0.01´ 4 ´ (p) 2 ´ (60) 2 = 144 p2 m / sec
M
2 Amax 7.5 Gas
10. (d) Amax = a w Þ a = = = 0.61 m
w2 (3.5) 2
11. (b) Comparing given equation with standard equation, P A
p
y = a sin(wt + f), we get, a = 2cm, w = x
2
1 1 = P2V2 Þ PV = ( P + DP )(V - DV )
PV
2
æpö p2 Þ PV = PV + DPV - PDV - DPDV
\ Amax = w2 A = ç ÷ ´ 2 = cm / s 2
è2ø 2 Þ DP.V - P.DV = 0 (neglecting DP.DV )
1 P.x
12. (d) E= mw2 a 2 Þ E µ a 2 DP ( Ah ) = P ( Ax ) Þ DP =
2 h
DPP/ P 27 77
This excess pressure is responsible for providing the
æ pö
restoring force (F) to the piston of mass M. and y3 = a sin ç wt + ÷
è 4ø
PAx
Hence F = DP. A = On superimposing, resultant SHM will be
h
é æ pö æ pöù
PA y = a êsin ç wt - ÷ + sin wt + sin ç wt +
Comparing it with F = kx Þ k = M w = 2
ë è 4 ø è 4 ÷ø úû
h
é p ù
Þw=
PA
Þ T = 2p
Mh = a ê2 sin wt cos + sin wt ú = a [ 2 sin wt + sin wt]
ë 4 û
Mh PA
20. (b) Time taken by particle to move from x = 0 (mean = a (1 + 2) sin wt
position) to x = 4 (extreme position) Resultant amplitude = (1 + 2)a
T 1.2 Energy in SHM µ (Amplitude)2
= = = 0.3 s
4 4 E Resultant æ A ö
2
Let t be the time taken by the particle to move from \ E = ç ÷ = ( 2 + 1)2 = (3 + 2 2)
Single è aø
x = 0 to x = 2 cm
2p 1 2p Þ Eresultant = (3 + 2 2) Esingle
y = a sin wt Þ 2 = 4sin t Þ = sin t
T 2 1.2
a
p 2p
Þ = t Þ t = 0.1s . 45°
6 1.2 OR a a+a 2
º ¾¾¾¾
®
Hence time to move from x = 2 to x = 4 will be equal 45°
a
to 0.3 - 0.1 = 0.2 s
Hence total time to move from x = 2 to x = 4 and
25. (a) Acceleration µ - displacement, and direction of
back again = 2 ´ 0.2 = 0.4sec
21. (b) acceleration is always directed towards the equilibrium
position.
26. (d) 27. (b)
d2 x b
Compare given equation with 2
+ w2 x = 0 ; w2 =
dt a
a max w 2 A b
= =w =
vmax wA a
At t = 0, f = p/2
1
Force constant (k) µ b
Length of spring
x = A sin (wt + f) = A cos t
a
2 28. (b)
l
K l1 3 3
Þ = = Þ K1 = K . dx
K1 l l 2 29. (b) x = a sin ωt and v = = aω cos ωt
dt
d2 y p
22. (c) y = Kt 2 Þ 2
= a y = 2K = 2 ´ 1 = 2 m/s 2 (Q K = 1m/s 2 ) It is clear that phase difference between ‘x’ and ‘a’ is
.
dt 2
30. (a) The total energy of S.H.M. = Kinetic energy of particle
l l + potential energy of particle.
Now, T1 = 2p and T2 = 2p
g ( ay )
g + The variation of total energy of the particle in SHM
with time is shown in a graph.
T1 g + ay 6 T2 6 Energy Zero slope
Dividing, = Þ Þ 12 =
T2 g 5 T2 5 Total energy
A
23. (a) At x = 0, v = 0 and potential energy is minimum so Kinetic energy
particle will remain at rest.
24. (d) Let simple harmonic motions be represented by
Potential energy
æ pö
y1 = a sin ç wt - ÷ , y2 = a sin wt
è 4ø
T/4 2T/4 3T/4
EBD_7156
78 DPP/ P 28
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 28
1. (b) When the particle of mass m at O is pushed by y in 2 p 2p
the direction of A . The spring A will compressed by Putting v = 2 gh and w = = =p
T 2
y while spring B and C will be stretched by
we get T = m( g + p 2 gh)
y ' = y cos 45o . So that the total restoring force on the
mass m along OA.
FC FB k
C B 5. (b)
O m
1
Force constant (k ) µ
FA Length of spring
2
l
k l1 3 3
Þ = = Þ k1 = k
A k1 l l 2
6. (b) Initially time period was
Fnet = FA + FB cos 45o + FC cos 45o
l
T = 2p
= ky + 2ky ' 45o = ky + 2k ( y cos 45o ) cos 45o = 2ky g
Also
When train accelerates, the effective value of g becomes
Fnet = k ' y Þ k ' y = 2ky Þ k ' = 2k
( g 2 + a 2 ) which is greater than g.
m m
T = 2p = 2p Hence, new time period, becomes less than the initial time
k' 2k period.
2. (b) When mass 700 gm is removed, the left out mass (500
+ 400) gm oscillates with a period of 3 sec
(500 + 400
\ 3 = t = 2p
k
......(i)
When 500 gm mass is also removed, the left out mass
is 400 gm.
400
\ t ' = 2p ...(ii)
k
a
3 900
Þ = Þ t ' = 2sec
t' 400
3. (a) Slope is irrelevant hence
geff g
1/ 2
æM ö
T = 2p ç ÷
è 2k ø
7. (b) In accelerated frame of reference, a fictitious force
4. (a) Tension in the string when bob passes through lowest
(pseudo force) ma acts on the bob of pendulum as
mv 2 shown in figure.
point T = mg + = mg + mvw (\ v = r w)
r
DPP/ P 28 79
13. (a) No momentum will be transferred because, at extreme
position the velocity of bob is zero.
14. (c) The effective acceleration in a lift descending with
g
acceleration is
3
g 2g
g eff = g - =
3 3
æ L ö æ L ö æ 3L ö
\ T = 2p ç ÷ = 2p ç ÷ = 2p ç ÷
ma a ç geff ÷ è 2g / 3 ø è 2g ø
Hence tan q = = è ø
mg g
k1k2
-1 æ
aö 15. (c) In series keq = k + k so time period
Þ q = tan ç ÷ in the backward direction. 1 2
ègø
m(k1 + k2 )
l T = 2p
8. (c) T = 2p (Independent of mass) k1k2
g
1
DT 1 Dl 1 16. (c) Spring constant (k ) µ
9. (b) T µ l Þ = = ´ 1% = 0.5% Length of the spring (l )
T 2 l 2
10. (c) If suppose bob rises up to a height h as shown then as length becomes half, k becomes twice i.e. 2k
after releasing potential energy at extreme position 17. (b) Standard equation for given condition
becomes kinetic energy of mean position 2p
x = a cos t Þ x = -0.16 cos(pt )
T
[As a = -0.16 meter, T = 2sec]
q h = l (1 – cos q )
m m
18. (d) t1 = 2p k and t2 = 2p k
l l 1 2
Equivalent spring constant for shown combination is
k1 + k 2 . So time period t is given by
m
t = 2p
k1 + k 2
1 2 By solving these equations we get
Þ mgh = mvmax Þ vmax = 2 gh
2 t -2 = t1-2 + t2-2
l -h
Also, from figure cos q = 19. (a) With mass m2 alone, the extension of the spring l is
l given as
Þ h = l (1 - cos q) m2 g = kl ........(i)
So, vmax = 2 gl (1 - cos q) With mass (m1 + m2 ) , the extension l ' is given by
11. (a) If initial length l1 = 100 then l2 = 121 (m1 + m2 ) g = k (l + Dl ) .......(ii)
l T l The increase in extension is Dl which is the amplitude

By using T = 2p Þ 1 = 1 of vibration. Subtracting (i) from (ii), we get
g T2 l2
m1 g = k Dl
T1 100 m1 g
Hence, = Þ T2 = 1.1T1 Dl =
T2 121 or
k
T2 - T1 20. (a) If y1 = a1 sin wt and a2 sin(wt + p)
% increase = ´100 = 10%
T1 y1 y1 a
12. (d) After standing centre of mass of the oscillating body Þ + Þ y2 = 2 y1
a1 a2 a1
will shift upward therefore effective length will
This is the equation of straight line.
decrease and by T µ l , time period will decrease.
EBD_7156
80 DPP/ P 28
21. (c) Energy of particle is maximum at resonant frequency T - Mg cos θ = Centripetal force
i.e., w2 = w0 . For amplitude resonance (amplitude
maximum) frequency of driver force Mv 2
Þ T - Mg cosθ =
L
w = w02 - b 2 2 m2 Þ w1 ¹ w0
Also tangential acceleration a T = g sin θ.
c 25. (a) Except (4) all statements are wrong.
22. (b) A = ; when b = 0, a = c, amplitude
a+b-c 26. (b) 27. (b).
A ® ¥. This corresponds to resonance. For minimum time period w2A = mg
23. (b) Let the velocity acquired by A and B be V, then
4p 2
v A = mg , T = 0.2 sec,
mv = mV + mV Þ V = T2
2 At t = 0.05 sec.
1 1 1 1 2p
Also mv 2 = mV 2 + mV 2 + kx 2 y = A sin wt = 1 sn × 0.05cm. = 1cm.
2 2 2 2 0.2
Where x is the maximum compression of the spring.
1
1/ 2 PE = mgy = 1 × 10 × = 0.1 Joule
æ mö 100
On solving the above equations, we get x = v ç ÷
è 2k ø 28. (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
At maximum compression, kinetic energy of the 29. (a) The time period of a oscillating spring is given by,
1 1 mv2 m 1
A – B system = mV 2 + mV 2 = mV 2 = T = 2p
ÞT µ
2 2 4 k k
24. (d) Since the spring constant is large for hard spring,
therefore hard spring has a less periodic time as
compared to soft spring.
30. (d) Time period of simple pendulum of length l is,
L –f +f L
l
q T = 2p ÞT µ l
g
DT 1 Dl
mg sinq Þ =
T 2 l
mg mg cosq
DT 1
\ = ´ 3 = 1.5%
From following figure it is clear that T 2
DPP/ P 29 81
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 29
v 330 w 2pf
1. (d) v = nl Þ l = = = 1.29 m (v ) wave = = = fl
n 256 k 2p / l
2. (a) Time required for a point to move from maximum pY0
displacement to zero displacement is \ (vmax ) particle = 4vwave = Y0 ´ 2pf = 4 f l Þ l =
2
T 1
t= = 9. (d) y = f ( x 2 - vt 2 ) doesn’t follows the standard wave
4 4n
equation.
1 1
Þn= = = 1.47 Hz æ 2px ö
4t 4 ´ 0.170 10. (a) y1 = a1 sin ç wt - ÷ and
è l ø
3. (b)
æ 2px ö æ 2px pö
y2 = a2 cos ç wt - + f ÷ = a2 sin ç wt - +f+ ÷
è l ø è l 2ø
p l æ pö
and D =
So phase difference = f + çf+ ÷
2 2 p è 2ø
11. (d) On comparing the given equation with standard
2p
2d1 + 2d 2 = v ´ t1 + v ´ t2 Þ 2(d1 + d2 ) = v (t1 + t2 ) equation y = a sin (vt - x ) . It is clear that wave
l
v (t1 + t2 ) 340 ´ (1.5 + 3.5) speed (v )wave = v and maximum particle velocity
d1 + d2 = = = 850 m
2 2
(vmax ) particle = aw = y0 ´ co-efficient of t = y0 ´ 2pv
4. (c) At given temperature and pressure l
1 v1 r2 4 a ´ 2 pv
vµ Þ = = = 2 :1 \ (vmax ) particle = 2(w ) wave Þ = 2v Þ l = py0
r v2 r1 1 l
5. (b) The distance between two points i.e. path difference 12. (a) Compare the given equation with y = a sin(wt + kx)
between them
50
l l p l v We get w = 2 pn = 100 Þ n = Hz
D= ´f= ´ = = (\ v = nl ) p
2p 2p 3 6 6n 13. (c) A wave travelling in positive x-direction may be
360 2p
ÞD= = 0.12m = 12cm represented as y = A sin (vt - x) . On putting values
6 ´ 500 l
6. (d) y1 = a sin(wt - kx ) and 2p æ x ö
y = 0.2 sin (360t - x) Þ y = 0.2 sin 2p ç 6t - ÷
æ pö 60 è 60 ø
y2 = a cos( wt - kx ) = a sin ç wt - kx + ÷
è 2ø 14. (a) Comparing the given equation with y = a sin(wt - kx)
p w
Hence phase difference between these two is . We get w = 3000p Þ n = = 1500 Hz
2 2p
I1 a12 æ 0.06 ö 4
2 2p 1
7. (c) = 2 =ç ÷ = and k = = 12p Þ l = m
I 2 a2 è 0.03 ø 1 l 6
1
8. (d) Comparing the given equation with y = a sin(wt - kx) , So, v = nl Þ v = 1500 ´ = 250 m / s
6
2p 15. (b) Given, y = 0.5sin(20 x - 400t )
We get a = Y0, w = 2pf , k = . Hence maximum
l
Comparing with y = a sin(wt - kx)
particle velocity (vmax ) particle = aw = Y0 ´ 2p f and
w 400
wave velocity Gives velocity of wave v = = = 20 m / s.
k 20
EBD_7156
82 DPP/ P 29
l 2π
16. (b) With path difference , waves are out of phase at the For the given wave ω = 2πn = 15π, k = = 10π
2 λ
point of observation. Coefficient of t ω 15π
Now v = = = = 1.5m / sec
2 2 2 2 1 2 2p Coefficient of x k 10π
17. (b) A = a = a + a + 2a cos q Þ cos q = - Þ q =
2 3
2π 2π
18. (c) For interference, two waves must have a constant phase and λ = = = 0.2 m.
relationship. Equation ‘1’ and ‘3’ and ‘2’ and ‘4’ have k 10π
p wBA 1 p2 v
a constant phase relationship of out of two choices. 24. (a) pm = , I = wp m A Þ I = m
2 v 2 2B
Only one S2 emitting ‘2’ and S4 emitting ‘4’ is given 25. (d), 26. (c), 27. (a).
so only (c) option is correct. 1
(i) I µ , dinitial = R, dfinal = 3R,
19. (a) The resultant amplitude is given by d2
Iinitial 9 I
AR = A2 + A2 + 2 AA cos q = 2 A2 (1 + cos q ) = Þ Ifinal = initial
Ifinal 1 9
= 2 A cos q / 2 (\1 + cos q = 2 cos 2 q / 2) (ii) During the first half time, wavelength first increases as
the component of velocity of source increases till it be-
1 1 æ pö comes equal to the velocity of source itself, then it de-
20. (d) y= sin wt ± sin ç wt + ÷
a b è 2ø creases till it becomes zeros.
p / 3 2p + p / 3 5p / 3 2p + 5p / 3
p (iii) t1 = , ....... , t 2 = ,
Here phase difference = w w w w
2
\ The resultant amplitude t2
2 2
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö 1 1 a+b
= ç ÷ +ç ÷ = + =
è aø è bø a b ab
30° t=0 60°
21. (a) In a wave equation, x and t must be related in the form
30° 60°
( x - vt )
1
We rewrite the given equations y = t1
1 + ( x - vt ) 2
1
For t = 0 , this becomes y = , as given
(1 + x 2 ) p
when w = rad / s , t1 = 1, 7, 13, ....... t2 = 5, 11, 17,
For t = 2 , this becomes 3
28. (c) The velocity of every oscillating particle of the medium
1 1 is different of its different positions in one oscillation
y= =
[1 + ( x - 2v ) 2 ] [1 + ( x - 1) 2 ] but the velocity of wave motion is always constant i.e.,
particle velocity vary with respect to time, while the
2v = 1or v = 0 m/s
wave velocity is independent of time.
22. (c)
Also for wave propagation medium must have the
y properties of elasticity and inertia.
l Distance travelled by wave (l)
29. (b) Velocity of wave =
P R Time period (T )
x Wavelength is also defined as the distance between two
Q nearest points in phase.
l/2 30. (b) Transverse waves travel in the form of crests and
through involving change in shape of the medium. As
liquids and gases do not possess the elasticity of shape,
23. (b) therefore, transverse waves cannot be produced in
Standard wave equation which travel in negative x-direc- liquid and gases. Also light wave is one example of
tion is y = A sin ( ωt + kx + f0 ) transverse wave.
DPP/ P 30 83
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 30
1. (b) n1 = Frequency of the police car horn observer heard v n1 æ V ö
by motorcyclist 9. (d) By using n ' = n v - v Þ n = çè V - S ÷ø
s
n1 = Frequency of the siren heard by motorcyclist.
v - v0 æ 330 - 33 ö
n' = n =ç ´ 100 = 90 Hz
v2= Speed of motor cyclist 10. (a)
v è 330 ÷ø
330 - v 330 + v 11. (d) The apparent frequency heard by the observer is given
n1 = ´ 176; n2 = ´ 165
330 - 22 330 by
\ n1 - n2 = 0 Þ v = 22 m / s v 330 330
n' = x= ´ 450 = ´ 450 = 500 Hz
2. (c) Frequency of first over tone of closed pipe = Frequency v - vs 330 - 33 297
of first over tone of open pipe 12. (b) Observer is moving ayay form siren 1 and towards the
siren 2.
3v v 3 gP 1 gP é gP ù
Þ = Þ = ê\ v = ú v
4 L1 L2 4 L1 r1 L2 r2 ë r û
4L1 r1 4 L r1
Þ L2 = =
3 r2 3 r2
3. (b) For observer note of B will not change due to zero
relative motion.
Observed frequency of sound produced by A Stationay Moving Stationay
siren 1 observer siren 2
(330 - 30) Hearing frequency of sound emitted by siren 1
= 660 = 600 Hz
330
æ v - v0 ö æ 330 - 2 ö
\ No of beats = 600 - 596 = 4 n1 = n ç = 330 ç = 328Hz
è v ÷ø è 330 ÷ø
2v
4. (c) Open pipe resonanace frequency f1 = Hearing frequency of sound emitted by siren 2
2L
æ v - v0 ö æ 330 + 2 ö
n2 = n ç = 330 ç = 332 Hz
Closed pipe resonance frequency f 2 =
nv è v ø ÷ è 330 ÷ø
4L
Hence, beat frequency = n2 - n1 = 332 - 328 = 4
n
f 2 = f1 (where n is odd and f 2 > f1 ) \ n = 5 13. (b) At point A , source is moving away from observer so
4
apparent frequency n1 < n (actual frequency). At point
n(v - v0 )
5. (b) B source is coming towards observer so apparent
v - vs frequency n2 > n and point C source is moving
1 1 1æ v ö perpendicular to observer so n3 = n
6. (a) Wave number = but = l ' == l ç v - v ÷ and
l è sø Hence n2 > n3 > n1
14. (c) According the concept of sound image
v
vs = v + v person 345 + 5
3 n' = .272 = ´ 272 = 280 Hz
v - v person 345 - 5
, æ v ö v
\ (W .N .) = (W .N .) çè v - v / 3÷ø = 256 ´ 2u / 3 Dn = Number of beats = 280 – 272 = 8 Hz
15. (a) The observer will hear two sound, one directly from
3 source and other from reflected image of sound
= ´ 256 = 384
2
7. (d) Since there is no relative motion between observer and
source, therefore there is no apparent change in
frequency.
æ v ö æ 350 ö
n' = nç = 1200 ´ ç = 1400 cps
8. (c)
è v - vs ÷ø è 350 - 50 ÷ø
EBD_7156
84 DPP/ P 30
Hence number of beats heard per second OA i.e y = 0, 0 £ x £ L
æ v ö æ v ö AB i.e. y = L, 0 £ y £ L
=ç n-ç n
è v - vs ÷ø è v + vs ÷ø BC i.e. y = L, 0 £ x £ L
2nuus 2 ´ 256 ´ 330 ´ 5 OC i.e. x = 0, 0 £ y £ L

= = = 7.8 Hz The above conditions are satisfied only in alternatives
u2 - u2s 335 ´ 325
(b) and (c).
16. (a) In closed pipe only odd harmonics are present. Note that u ( x, y) = 0 for all four values e.g. in
17. (a) Maximum pressure at closed end will be atmospheric
pressure adding with acoustic wave pressure alternative (d ), u ( x, y) = 0 for y = 0, y = L But it is not
So Pmax = PA + P0 and Pmin = PA - P0 zero for x = 0 or x = L . Similarly in option (a)
u ( x, y) = 0 at x = L, y = L but it is not zero for
Pmax PA + P0
Thus P =
min PA - P0 x = 0 or y = 0 , while in options (b) and (c),
u ( x, y) = 0 for x = 0, y = 0, x = L and y = L
1 1
18. (b) nclosed = (nopen ) = ´ 320 = 160 Hz 26. (b), 27. (d).
2 2
l
19. (a) l = 1.21Å For fundamental force, = s Þ l = 2s
2
A A Y
N N Velocity of waves is, v =
N r where Y is Young's modu-
1.21 Å lus of quartz and r is its density.
1 l n æn ö 270 v 2.87 ´ 104 Y 1 2.87 ´ 10 4

20. (a) n µ Þ 2 = 1 Þ l2 = l1 ç 1 ÷ = 50 ´ = 13.5cm From f0 = = Þ ´ =
l l1 n2 è n2 ø 1000 l s r 2s s
21. (c) Loudness depends upon intensity while pitch depends Þ Y = 8.76 × 1012 N/m2
upon frequency.
3 ´ 2.87 ´ 104
22. (d) Using l = 2 ( l2 - l1 ) Þ v = 2n ( l2 - l1 ) For 3rd harmonic, f = 3f0 = 1.2 × 106 Hz Þ
s
Þ 2 ´ 215(63.2 - 30.7) = 33280cm / s = 1.2 × 106 Þ s = 0.07175 cm.
Actual speed of sound v0 = 332m / s = 33200cm / s
Hence error = 33280 – 33200 = 80cm / s 28. (d) As emission of light from atom is a random and rapid
23. (c) phenomenon. The phase at a point due to two
3 7 7 3 independent light source will change rapidly and
1 2 5 5 2 1 randomly. Therefore, instead of beats, we shall get
300 301 308 300 305 308 uniform intensity. However, if light sources are LASER
303 307
beams of nearly equal frequencies, it may possible to
8 8 observe the phenomenon of beats in light.
24. (a) Doppler shift doesn't depend upon the distance of listner 29. (d) The person will hear the loud sound at nodes than at
from the source. antinodes. We know that at anti-nodes the displacement
25. (b) Since the edges are clamped, displacement of the edges is maximum and pressure change is minimum while at
nodes the displacement is zero and pressure change is
u ( x, y) = 0 for line -
maximum. The sound is heared due to variation of
pressure.
y
Also in stationary waves particles in two different
C B segment vibrates in opposite phase.
(0,L) (L,L)
30. (a) Stationary wave
A
N N
N
O A A
x A node is a place of zero amplitude and an antinode is
(0, 0) a place of maximum amplitude.
DPP/ P 31 85
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 31
1. (b)
20 division of vernier scale = 8 div. of main scale
A
æ 8ö æ 2ö
Þ 1 V.S.D. = çè ÷ø M.S.D. = çè ÷ø M.S.D.
c=
a+ b+ c b d
20 5 3
Least count B a C
æ 2ö If h is the depression or elevation then the radius of
= 1 M.S.D – 1 V.S.D. = 1 M.S.D. – çè ÷ø M.S.D
5 c2 h
curvature is given by r = +
6h 2
æ 2ö æ 3ö 3
= çè1 - ÷ø M.S.D. = çè ÷ø M.S.D. = ´ 0.1 cm. = 0.06 cm. Pitch
5 5 5 8. (b) L.C. =
No. of circular divisions
1 9. (b) The specific heat of a solid is determined by the method
(Q 1 M.S.D. = cm. = 0.1 cm.)
10 of mixture.
10. (a)
Directly we can use
0.5
æ b -aö 11. (d) Least count of screw gauge = mm = 0.01mm
L.C. = M - V = ç M 50
è b ÷ø
\ Reading = [Main scale reading + circular scale
æ 20 - 8 ö æ 1 ö 3 reading × L.C] – (zero error)
= çè ÷ø çè ÷ø cm. = cm. = 0.06 cm.
20 10 50 = [3 + 35 × 0.01] – (–0.03) = 3.38 mm
2. (c) Within elastic limit it obeys Hooke's Law i.e., stress µ 12. (d) 30 Divisions of vernier scale coincide with 29 divisions
strain. of main scales
29
Therefore 1 V.S.D = MSD
3. (c) Least count = 1 ´ 1 cm = 1 30
N 10 10N Least count = 1 MSD – 1VSD
4. (b) 5th division of vernier scale coincides with a main scale 29
= 1 MSD - MSD
1 30
division. L.C. = = 0.1mm
10 1
= MSD
\ Zero error = – 5 × 0.1 = – 0.5 mm 30
This error is to be subtracted from the reading taken for 1
= ´ 0.5° = 1 minute.
measurement. Also, zero correction = + 0.5 mm. 30
5. (b) If Y = Young's modulus of wire, M = mass of wire,
0.5
g = acceleration due to gravity, x = extension in the wire, 13. (c) Least count = = 0.01mm
50
A= Area of cross-section of the wire,
l = length of the wire. Zero error = 5 × L.C
= 5 × 0.01 mm
Mgx DY DM Dx DA Dl = 0.05 mm
Y= Þ = + + +
Al Y M x A l Diameter of ball = [Reading on main scale] + [Reading
on circular scale × L . C] – Zero error
DY 0.01 0.01 2 ´ 0.001 0.001
Þ = + + + = 0.065 = 0.5 × 2 + 25 × 0.01 – 0.05
Y 3.00 0.87 0.041 2.820
= 1.20 mm
DY Dg Dl DT
or ´ 100 = ± 6.5% 14. (d) = +2
Y g l T
6. (b) The instrument has negative zero error.
7. (c) If A, B and C be the points corresponding to the Dl and DT are least and number of readings are
maximum in option (d), therefore the measurement of
impressions made by the legs of a spherometer then
g is most accurate with data used in this option.
EBD_7156
86 DPP/ P 31
mg L 2 2
15. (b) We know that Y = ´ d y æ dy ö dy
Þ xy + xç ÷ - y =0
D 2 l dx 2 è dx ø dx
p
4 18. (a) The condition for terminal speed (vt) is
Weight = Buoyant force + Viscous force
4mgL 4 ´ 1 ´ 9.8 ´ 2
Þ Y= =
( ) ´ (0.8 ´ 10 )
2 2
pD l p 0.4 ´ 10 -3 -3
Fv B=Vr2 g
= 2.0 ´ 1011 N/m 2
Now DY = 2DD + Dl
Y D l
[Q the value of m, g and L are exact]
0.01 0.05 W=V r 1g
= 2´ + = 2 × 0.025 + 0.0625
0.4 0.8
= 0.05 + 0.0625 = 0.1125
Þ DY = 2 × 1011 × 0.1125 = 0.225 × 1011 Vg (r1 - r1 )
\ V r1 g = V r2 g + kvt2 \ vt =
k
= 0.2 ´ 1011 N/m 2
16. (b) The time period of a simple pendulum is given by 19. (d) From the figure it is clear that liquid 1 floats on liquid
2. The lighter liquid floats over heavier liquid.
l l l Therefore we can conclude that r1 < r2
T = 2p \ T 2 = 4p 2 Þ g = 4p 2 2
g g T Also r3 < r2 otherwise the ball would have sink to the
bottom of the jar.
Dg Dl DT Also r3 > r1 otherwise the ball would have floated in
Þ ´ 100 = ´ 100 + 2 ´ 100
g l T liquid 1. From the above discussion we conclude that
Case (i) r1 < r3 < r2.
Dl = 0.1 cm, l = 64cm, DT = 0.1s, T = 128s 20. (c) In case of water, the meniscus shape is concave
upwards. Also according to ascent formula
Dg
\ ´ 100 = 0.3125 2T cos q
g h=
rrg
Case (ii)
Dl = 0.1 cm, l = 64cm, DT = 0.1s, T = 64s The surface tension (T) of soap solution is less than
water. Therefore rise of soap solution in the capillary
Dg tube is less as compared to water. As in the case of
\ ´ 100 = 0.46875
g water, the meniscus shape of soap solution is also
Case (iii) concave upwards.
Dl = 0.1 cm, l = 20cm, DT = 0.1s, T = 36s
l
Dg 21. (c)
\ ´ 100 = 1.055 A
g Y
Dg Wire (1)
Clearly, the value of ´ 100 will be least in case (i)
g
2
2r ( d1 - d 2 ) g 3A
17. (c) Terminal velocity, vT = Y
9h
vT
2 (10.5 - 1.5) 9 l/3
= Þ vT = 0.2 ´ Wire (2)
0.2 (19.5 - 1.5) 2 18
\ vT = 0.1 m / s As shown in the figure, the wires will have the same
2
Young’s modulus (same material) and the length of the
ìï d2y æ dy ö üï
2
dy wire of area of cross-section 3A will be l/3 (same
x í - By 2 - B ç ÷ ý + By =0
ïî dx è ø
dx ïþ dx volume as wire 1).
DPP/ P 31 87
For wire 1, 25. (a) Screw gauge is used to measure the diameter (d) of the
F/A
wire so that the area of cross-section is calculated by the
Y= ...(i) formula
D x/l
For wire 2 , pd 2
A=
F '/ 3 A 4
Y= ...(ii) 26. (b) Both the statements (1) & (2)are precautions to be taken
Dx /( l / 3)
during the experiment.
F l F' l 27. (a) The liquid cools faster first and slowly later on when its
From (i) and (ii) , ´ = ´ Þ F ' = 9F
A Dx 3 A 3Dx temperature gets close to surrounding temperature.
22. (b) Lower the vernier constant, more accurate measurement 28. (a) Maximum percentage error in measurement of e, as given
is possible by it. by Reyleigh’s formula.
(Given error is measurement of radius is 0.1 cm)
d
23. (b) Effective length = MC = MN + NC = l + De = 0.6 DR = 0.6 × 0.1 = 0.06 cm.
2 Percentage error is
M De
´ 100 =
0.06
´ 100 = 3.33%
e 0.6 ´ 3
29. (b) Speed of sound at the room temperature.
l l1 = 4.6 cm, l2 = 14.0 cm.,
N l = 2 (l2 – l1) = 2 (14.0 – 4.6) = 18.8 cm.
d/2 18.8
C v = f l = 2000 ´
100
= 376 m / s
30. (c) End correction obtained in the experiment.

l 2 - 3l1 14.0 - 3 ´ 4.6
e= = = 0.1 cm.
24. (c) Here, original length (L) = y, 2 2
Extension (l) = x, Force applied (F) = p
Area of cross-section (A) = q
FL
Now, Young's modulus (Y) =
AL
yp
ÞY=
xq
EBD_7156
88 DPP/ P 32
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 32
r
ur e2 $ e2 r æ\ r$ = r ö
1. (d) Q1 + Q2 = Q .....(i) 4. (c) F = - k 2 r = - k . 3 r çç ÷
r ÷ø
r r è
Q1Q2 5. (c) After following the guidelines mentioned above
and F =k ..... (ii)
r2
From (i) and (ii)
FC FD
kQ1 (Q - Q1 )
F=
r2 +Q +Q FAC
For F to be maximum A FA
B
dF Q
= 0 Þ Q1 = Q2 =
dQ1 2
2. (a) The position of the balls in the satellite will become as
shown below
180°
L L
+Q +Q C
D
+Q
Thus angle q = 180o
1 Q2
and force = . Fnet = FAC + FD = FA2 + FC2 + FD
4p Î0 (2 L )2
3. (b) FA = Force on C due to charge placed at A kq 2 kq 2

Since FA = FC = and FD =
a2 ( a 2)2
FA
2kq2 kq 2 kq 2 æ 1ö q2 æ1+ 2 2 ö
+2µC Fnet = + = 2 + =
2 èç ÷ø ç ÷
a2 2a 2
a 2 2
4p Î0 a è 2 ø
C 120°
6. (a)
FB
1 (+7 ´10-6 (-5 ´10-6 ) 1 35 ´10 -12
F= =- N
4pe 0 r 2 4pe0 r2
+ 1µC 1 (+5 ´ 10-6 ( -7 ´ 10 -6 ) 1 35 ´ 10 -12

- 1µC F¢ = = - N
4 pe 0 r2 4pe0 r2
A 10 cm B kQ
7. (c) Electric field outside of the sphere E out = ...(i)
r2
10-6 ´ 2 ´10-6 kQx
= 9 ´109 ´ = 1.8 N Electric field inside the dielectric shphere Ein = ...(ii)
(10 ´10-2 )2 R3
r2 x
FB = force on C due to charge placed at B From (i) and (ii), Ein = Eout ´
R
10-6 ´ 2 ´10-6 3 ( 20 )
2
= 9 ´109 ´ = 1.8 N Þ At 3 cm, E = 100 ´ = 120 V/m
(0.1) 2 103
Net force on C
Fnet = ( FA ) 2 + ( FB ) 2 + 2 FA FB cos120o = 1.8 N

DPP/ P 32 89
8. (c) Electric lines force due to negative charge are radially
inward. 2q 2q
2E
2E
E
q q Þ Enet = 0
2E E
2E
2q 2q
–
2q q
E
2E
q 2E E E
2q Þ
9. (a) In non-uniform electric field, intensity is more, where E 2E 2E
the lines are more denser. E
2E
10. (b) According to the question,
2q q
mg Enet = 0
eE = mg Þ E =
e
11. (b) Because E points along the tangent to the lines of force. 15. (b) D C
If initial velocity is zero, then due to the force, it always EA
moves in the direction of E. Hence will always move
on some lines of force. EB ED
O
12. (b) The field produced by charge - 3Q at A , this is E as EC
mentioned in the example.
A B
3Q
\ E = 2 (along AB directed towards negative
x
Þ D C
A B
charge) Q –3Q
x
Now field at location of -3Q i.e. field at B due to 2E 2E
Q E Enet
charge Q will be E ' = 2 = (along AB directed B
x 3 A
away from positive charge)
13. (c) The electric field is due to all charges present whether E A = E, E B = 2 E , EC = 3E, ED = 4 E
inside or outside the given surface.
14. (b) ur s $ 2s $ s $ 2s $
q 16. (b) E =- k- k- k =- k
q 2e 0 2e 0 2e0 e0
E 17. (b)
E
E
q q Þ Enet = 0
E E
E q1
q q
18. (c) According to Gauss law Ñò E.ds =
e0
q –q Ñò ds = 2prl; (E is constant)
E 2E q1 q 1
E 120° \ E. 2prl = ÞE= i.e. E µ
q q Þ e0 2pe0 r r
E E E 2E
E 2E
q –q æ 3Q ö
Enet = 2 E 19. (c) Let sphere has uniform chare density r ç ÷ and E
è 4pR 3 ø
is the electric field at distance x from the centre of the
sphere.
EBD_7156
90 DPP/ P 32
Applying Gauss law, 26. (a) According to Gauss law
uur uur
E.4p x2 =
q
e0
=
rV¢
e0
=
r 4 3
´ px
e0 3
Ñò s
E.dS = 4pr 2 E (r )
x
r
(V = Volume of dotted sphere)
ò 4pr r (r) dr
2
R
r = 0
\ E = 3e x Þ E = µ x Î0
0
r
20. (b) T sin q = qE
ò0 r
2
4pA ( R - r )dr
and T cos q = mg + Þ 2
4 p r E (r ) =
+ Î0
qE + q
Þ tan q = +
mg + T T cos q
+ 4pA æ r 3 R r 4 ö
= ç - ÷
q æ s ö +
T sin q
qE Î0 çè 3 4 ÷ø
= ç ÷
mg è 2e0 ø mg
Þ s µ tan q. A æ rR r 2 ö
Hence, E (r ) = ç - ÷ , for 0 < r < R
Î0 çè 3 4 ÷ø
Q
21. (d) Next flux through the cube fnet = ; so flux through
e0 3Q
But A =
q pR 4
one face fface =
6e 0
3Q é 1 æ r ö 1 æ r ö ù
2
22. (d). For A : Power consumed P = I2R \ We get, E (r ) = ê ç ÷ - ç ÷ ú
Î0 R 2 êë 3 è R ø 4 è R ø úû
q
But e = f , 27. (b) The electric field outside the sphere is given by :
0
dq kQ
q = a e0 t 2 Þ I = = 2a e 0 t Þ P = 4a 2 e 02 Rt 2 E (r ) = , for r ³ R
so r2
dt
For B : Assuming initial charge in reservoir be q0 then 28. (c) If electric lines of forces cross each other, then the
electric flux through a closed electric field at the point of intersection will have two
direction simultaneously which is not possible
q 0 - ae 0 t 2
Spherical surface around S2 will be fS2 = physically.
e0 29. (c) Electric field at the nearby point will be resultant of
dfS2 existing field and field due to the charge brought. It
For C : = -2at may increase or decrease if the charge is positive or
dt
negative depending on the position of the point with
23. (c). The time period will change only when the additional
respect to the charge brought.
electrostatic force has a component along the direction
of the displacement, which is always perpendicular 30. ()
to the string.
24. ()
25. (b) Net charge inside the sphere = òsphere r dV

Due to spherical symmetry, we get
R R
ò0 4pr r(r )dr ò0 r
2 2
Q= = 4pA ( R - r ) dr
æ R4 R4 ö
= 4pA ç - ÷
ç 3 4 ÷ø
è
3Q
\ A=
pR 4
DPP/ P 33 91
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 33
1. (c) ABCDE is an equipotential surface, on equipotential 9. (b) Potential at A= Potential due to (+q) charge
surface no work is done in shifting a charge from one + Potential due to (– q) charge
place to another.
1 q 1 (-q)
2. (c) Potential at centre O of the square = . + =0
4pe0 a2 + b 2 4pe0 a 2 + b2
Q Q
10. (c) Point P will lie near the charge which is smaller in
a magnitude i.e. -6mC . Hence potential at P
a 2
O
P -6mC 12mC
Q Q
x 20 cm
æ Q ö 1 (-6 ´ 10-6 ) 1 (12 ´ 10-6 )

V0 = ç
ç 4pe (a / 2) ÷÷ V= + = 0 Þ x = 0.2 m
è 0 ø 4pe0 x 4pe0 (0.2 + x)
Work done in shifting (– Q ) charge from centre to
infinity
11. (a) Work done W = q -6 (V A - VB ); where
W = -Q(V¥ - V0 ) = QV0
q = 3 ´10-6 coulomb where
4 2Q 2Q 2
= Q. =
4pe0a pe 0a é (-5 ´10-6 ) 2 ´10-6 ù 1
3. (b) Using VA = 1010 ê + 6
ú = ´10 volt
-2 -2
êë 15 ´ 10 5 ´ 10 úû 15
2QV v QA q 1
v= Þvµ Q Þ A = = = -6 -6
é ù
M vB QB 4q 2 and V B = 1 0 1 0 ê ( 2 ´ 1 0 ) - 5 ´ 1 0 ú
-2
4. (a) Work done in moving a charge from P to L , P to M êë 1 5 ´ 1 0 5 ´ 10 -2 úû
and P to N is zero while it is q (VP – Vk) > 0 for motion
13
from P to k. =– ´ 106 volt
15
5. (a) KE = q(V1 - V2 ) = 2 ´ (70 - 50) W = 40 eV
é1 æ 13 öù
6. (a) The electric potential V ( x, y , z ) = 4 x 2 volt \ W = 3 ´ 10-6 ê ´ 106 - ç ´ 106 ÷ ú
ë15 è 15 øû
ur æ ¶V $ ¶V $ ¶V ö
Now E = - ç $i +j +k ÷ = 2.8 J
è ¶x ¶y ¶z ø
12. (c)
¶V ¶V A p
¶V
Now ¶x = 8 x, ¶y = 0 and =0 +q
¶z
ur
Hence E = -8$i, so at point (1m, 0, 2m) l l
p net
ur
E = -8 xi$ volt/meter or 8 along negative X - axis.
7. (b) Electric fields due to electrons on same line passing 60°
B C
through centre cancel each other while electric potential +q l – 2q
due to each electron is negative at centre C. Therefore, p
ur
at centre E = 0,V ± 0
ur r Pnet = p 2 + p 2 + 2 pp cos 60o = 3 p = 3 ql (\ p = ql )
8. (a) By using W = Q( E.Dr )
Þ W = Q[(e1$i + e2 $j + e3 k$ ).(ai$ + b $j )] = Q( e1a + e2b )

EBD_7156
92 DPP/ P 33
13. (d) According to figure, potential at A and C are both 18. (b) W = q(V02 - V01 )
equal to kQ. Hence work done in moving -q charge
Q1 Q2
from A to C = - q (VA - VC ) = 0 where V01 = +
4pe 0 R 4pe0 R 2
A Q2 Q1
and V02 = +
–q 4pe 0 R 4pe0 R 2
l l q(Q2 - Q1 ) ( 2 - 1)
Þ W = q(V02 - V01 ) =
4pe0 R 2
B C 19. (d) V = q é 1 1 ù q é1 1 1 ù
+Q l 4pe0 x0 ê1 + 3 + 5 + ...ú - 4pe x ê 2 + 4 + 6 + ...ú
ë û 0 0 ë û
q é 1 1 1 ù q
(+1.6 ´ 10-19 ) = 1 - + - + ...ú = loge 2
14. (c) Q
V = k ´ = 9 ´ 109 ´ = 27.2V 4pe0 x0 êë 2 3 4 û 4pe 0 x0
r 0.53 ´ 10-10
20. (b) Potential decreases in the direction of electric field.
15. (c) Potential will be zero at two points Dotted lines are equipotential surfaces
\V A = VC and VA > VB
q1 = 2mC q 2 = -1mC
M N y
O C
x=0 x=4 x=6 x = 12
l l' A B
6
At internal point (M) :
E
1 é 2 ´ 10-6 (-1´10-6 ) ù
´ê + ú =0
4pe 0 êë (6 - l ) l úû kp -3
21. (d) Eequatorial =
3
i.e.E µ p and E µ r
r
Þl =2
22. (a) Suppose neutral point N lies at a distance x from dipole
So distance of M from origin;
of moment p or at a distance x2 from dipole of 64 p.
x =6-2 = 4
At exterior point (N): ® ®
p 64 p
N
é 2 ´10-6 (-1´10-6 ) ù 1 2
1
´ê + ú =0 x1
4pe0 ëê (6 - l ') l¢ ûú p
25 cm
Þl'=6 At N |E.F. due to dipole 1 | = |E.F. due to dipole 2 |
So distance of N from origin, x = 6 + 6 = 12
1 2p 1 2 ( 64 p )
16. (a) V = VAB + VBC + VCD . .
Þ = 4 pe0 ( 25 - x )3
4pe0 x 3
k .5Q0 k .(-2Q0 ) k .(3Q0 )
= + +
R R R 1 64
Þ = Þ x = 5 cm.
=
6 kQ0 x 3 ( 25 - x )3
R
æ 120 ö
(a). BC = 2R sin ç = 3R
è 2 ÷ø
3Q0 23.
=
2p Î0 R
1 æ 2q / 3 ö q
Electric field at O = ç ÷ =
9 p 4pe 0 R è R ø 6pe 0 R 2
2
17. (a) V = 9 ´10 . 2
r along negative X-axis.
(1.6 ´10-19 ) ´1.28 ´ 10 -10
= 9 ´109 ´ = 0.13V
(12 ´ 10-10 )2
DPP/ P 33 93
B
q/3 F–
30° F
Net force F :
C 120° 60° x
–2q/3 O F+
60° 60°
60° 30°
Net torque immediately after it is released Þ clockwise
A A body cannot exert force on itself.
q/3 28. (d) When the bird perches on a single high power line, no
current passes through its body because its body is at
equipotential surface i.e., there is no potential
The potential energy of the system is non zero
difference. While when man touches the same line,
Force between B & C
standing bare foot on ground the electrical circuit is
1 (q / 3) ( -2q / 3) q2 completed through the ground. The hands of man are
= =
4 pe0 ( 3R) 2 54pe 0 R 2 at high potential and his feet’s are at low potential.
Hence large amount of current flows through the body
1 æ q q 2q ö of the man and person therefore gets a fatal shock.
+ - =0
4pe 0 çè 3 3 3 ÷ø
Potential at O = 29. (a) Electron has negative charge, in electric field negative
charge moves from lower potential to higher potential.
24. (d) The given graph is of charged conducting sphere of 30. (b) Potential is constant on the surface of a sphere so it
radius R0. The whole charge q distributes on the sur- behaves as an equipotential surface. Free charges
face of sphere (electrons) are available in conductor. The two
25 (b), 26 (b), 27 c statements are independent.
F+
+
–
F–
(F+ > F– as E+ > E–)

EBD_7156
94 DPP/ P 34
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 34
1. (b) Net electrostatic energy
10 ´10-6 ´10 ´10-6 10 ´10-6 ´10 ´10-6 ù
kQq kq 2
kQq + + ú
U= + + =0 10/100 10/100 úû
a a a 2
100 ´10-12 ´100
kq æ Q ö 2q = 3 ´ 9 ´109 ´ = 27 J
Þ çQ + q + ÷=0ÞQ=- 10
a è 2ø 2+ 2
1 ( q )( -2q ) 1 (-2q )( q ) 1 ( q )( q )
2. (c) Electric field is perpendicular to the equipotential 7. (c) U System = 4 pe a
+
4pe0 a
+
4 pe0 2a
surface and is zero every where inside the metal. 0
kq q 7q2
3. (c) Þ ( Q + q + Q ) = 0 Þ Q = - net potential energy U System = -
8pe0a
l 2
ur ur
1 q2 8. (c) In the given condition angle between p and E is zero.
U net = 3´ .
4pe0 l Hence potential energy U = - pE cos 0 = - pE = min.
4. (d) Length of the diagonal of a cube having each side b is Also in uniform electric field Fnet = 0
3b. So distance of centre of cube from each vertex is 1 (-e)(-e)
9. (b) U = As r decreases then U
4p Î0 r2
3b
. increases and sign of U is '+ve' so, U increases.
2
é 1 1 1 1 ù
Hence potential energy of the given system of charge is 10. (c) U = 2kq 2 ê - + - + + .....ú
ë a 2a 3a 4a û
ì 1 ( -q )( q ) ü -4q2
U = 8´ í . ý= 2q 2 é 1 1 1 .....ù
î 4pe0 3b / 2 þ 3pe0b =- 1- + - + ú
4pe0a êë 2 3 4 û
5. (a) Change in potential energy ( D U ) = U f - U i
2q 2 loge 2
q3 =-
4pe0 a
11. (b) The initial energy of the system
q
40 cm
50 cm
q2
q1
D
q q
30 cm 10 cm a
40 cm 1 q2
Ui= =U
1 éæ q1q3 q2 q3 ö æ q1q3 q2 q3 ö ù 4pe 0 a
ÞVU = ê + - + ú The final energy of the system
4 pe0 ëçè 0.4 0.1 ÷ø çè 0.4 0.5 ÷ø û
1 é q2 q2 q2 ù
1 q Uf = ê + + ú = 3U
ÞVU = [8q2 q3 ] = 3 (8q2 ) 4pe0 êë a a a úû
4pe 0 4pe0 Thus work done, W = Uf– Ui = 3U – U = 2U
\ k = 8q2 kq1q2
12. (d) U =
1 q1q2 r
6. (c) For pair of charge U = . kQ
4pe0 r 13. (c) As potential at A and B is same, VA = VB = . So,
d
1 é 10 ´ 10-610 ´ 10-6 work done in both cases will be same.
U System = ê
4 pe0 êë 10 /100 kq q
14. (b) U = e 1 2 . There will be 6 pairs, 4 on a side of square
r
and 2 as diagonal.
DPP/ P 34 95
15. (c) Apply conservation of mechanical energy between 23. (b) Force = eE
point a and b : (K.E. + P.E.)a = (K.E. + P.E.)a Work done = force × distance
Force and distance are in opposite direction, so work
k (3 ´ 10 -9 )q0 k (3 ´ 10 -9 ) q0 is negative.
Þ 0+ -
0.01 0.02 W = – eE × d
Here, distance increases so, potential energy increases.
1 2 k (3 ´ 10-9 )q0 k (3 ´ 10-9 )q0 24. (d) Under electrostatic condition, all points lying on the
= mv + -
2 0.02 0.01 conductor are in same potential. Therefore, potential
at A = potential at B.
Put the values we get : v = 12 15 = 46 m/s
From Gauss's theorem, total flux through the surface
kqQ kqQ kq 2 of the cavity will be q / ε 0 .
16. (b) U = - - + = 0 Þ Q / q = 1/ 4
r r 2r Note : Instead of an elliptical cavity, if it would and
17. (b) Find potential at A and C due to charge at B, then been a spherical cavity then options (a) and (b) were
required work done is W = q (VA – VC)
also correct.
18. (d) It depends whether both charges are of same or opposite
25. (b) q1 + q2 = 0
sign. q2
19. (a) Because work is to be done by an external agent in
moving a positive charge from low potential to high Q
C
potential and this work gets stored in the form of q1
potential energy of the system. Hence, it increases. B
æ 3 3 1 ö A
20. (a) U = kq 2 ç - + - ÷
è d 2d 3d ø
æ 2 3 1 ö æ 2 2 1 ö
+ kq 2 ç - + - ÷ + kq 2 ç - + - ÷
è d 2d 3d ø è d 2d 3d ø
æ 1 2 1 ö æ 2 1 ö kq1 kQ kq2
+ kq 2 ç - + - + kq 2 ç - + VA = + +
÷ ÷ R 2 R 4R
è d 2d 3d ø è d 2d ø
kq kQ kq2
æ 1 2 ö 2æ 1 ö VC = 1 + +
+ kq 2 ç - + ÷ + kq ç - d ÷ 4 R 4 R 4R
è d 2 d ø è ø VA = VC
æ 12 12 4 ö \ q1 = – Q/3 and q2 = Q/3
U = kq 2 ç - + - ÷
26. (b) VA = k éê
d –Q Q Q ù Q
è 2 d 3d ø + + ú =
ë 3R 2R 12R û 16 pe0 R
12kq 2 æ 1 1 ö
=- ç 1- + ÷ é –Q Q Q ù 5Q
d è 2 3 3ø 27. (c) VB = k ê + + ú =
ë 6 R 2 R 12 R û 48pe0 R
kQ 1 1 e0 k 2Q 2 28. (a) Inside electric field is zero but not outside.
21. (c) V = Þ u = e0 E 2 = 29. (c) Earth also has some surface charge density due to which
r 2 2 r4
it produces electric field in the surrounding space.
V4 µu 30. (d) Net potential at centre
22. q 4 B kq kq kq kq
+ - + - =0
A a/ 2 a/ 2 a/ 2 a/ 2
and field is zero due to symmetry.
C +q –q
a
kq 9 ´ 109 ´ 1 ´ 10 -6
AC = 5m, V = = a a
AC 5
= 1.8 × 103 = 1.8 kV
VB = (VB)due to q + (VB)i, where (VB)i = Potential at B a
due to induced charge –q +q
If electric potential at a point is zero then the magnitude
kq of electric field at that point is not necessarily to be
\ 1.8 × 103 = + (VB )i
AB zero.
Þ 1.8 × 103 = 2.25 × 103 + (VB)i
Þ (VB)i = – 0.45 kV
EBD_7156
96 DPP/ P 35
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 35
1. (a) By using
V
across A is V and potential difference across B is
V = V0 e -t / CR Þ 40 = 50e -1/ CR Þ e -1/ CR = 4 / 5 3
Potential difference after 2 sec hence energy of the system now is
2 2
æ4ö 1 1 æV ö 10
V ' = V0 e-2 / CR = 50(e-1/ CR )2 = 50 ç ÷ = 32V U 2 = (3C )V 2 + (3C ) ç ÷ = CV 2 ......(ii)
è5ø 2 2 è3ø 6
Fraction of energy after 1 sec
U1 3
So, =
1 U2 5
C (V f ) 2 2
æ 40 ö 16
= 2 =ç ÷ = 4. (c) Plane conducting surfaces facing each other must have
1 è 50 ø 25
C (Vi ) 2 equal and opposite charge densities. Here as the plate
2
areas are equal, Q2 = -Q3 .
2. (c) The given circuit can be redrawn as follows. All
The charge on a capacitor means the charge on the
capacitors are identical and each having capacitance
inner surface of the positive plate (here it is Q2 )
e A
C= 0 Potential difference between the plates
d
charge Q 2Q
= = 2 = 2
1 2 capacitance C 2C
3 2 Q - ( -Q2 ) Q2 - Q3
= 2 =
2C 2C
4
5. (b) While drawing the dielectric plate outside, the
5 4 capacitance decreases till the entire plate comes out
and then becomes constant. So, V increases and then
becomes constant.
6. (b) Given circuit can be reduced as follows
+ – 3C 3C
V
A B
| Charge on each capacitor | = | Charge on each plate | ( C = capacitance of each capacitor)
e A The capacitor 3C ,3C shown in figure can with stand
= 0 V
d maximum 200 V .
Plate 1 is connected with positive terminal of battery \ So maximum voltage that can be applied across
e0 A A and B equally shared. Hence maximum voltage applied
so charge on it will be + .V cross A and B be equally shared. Hence Maz. voltage
d
applied across A and B will be (200 + 200) = 400 volt.
Plate 4 comes twice and it is connected with negative 7. (c) Common potential
terminal of battery, so charge on plate 4 will be
C V + C2 ´ 0 C1
2e 0 A V'= 1 = .V
- V C1 + C2 C1 + C2
d
3. (c) Initially potential difference across both the capacitor C1V1 - C2V2 6 ´ 12 - 3 ´ 12
is same hence energy of the system is 8. (b) V = = = 4 volt
C1 + C2 3+ 6
1 1
U1 = CV 2 + CV 2 = CV 2 .....(i) A
2 2 K1e0
2 = K1e0 A
In the second case when key K is opened and dielectric 9. (d) C1 =
medium is filled between the plates, capacitance of both æd ö d
ç ÷
the capacitors becomes 3C, while potential difference è2ø
DPP/ P 35 97
13. (d) In the given system, no current will flow through the
A
K 2 e0 branch CD so it can be removed
C2 = 2 = K 2e0 A
æd ö d C
ç ÷ 5µF
è2ø
10µF 10µF
K 3e 0 A K 3 e 0 A
and C3 = =
2d 2d
A B
C1C2 æK KK ö e A
Now, Ceq = C3 + = ç 3 + 1 2 ÷. 0
C1 + C2 è 2 K1 + K 2 ø d 10µF 10µF
5µF
10. (b) Given circuit is a balanced Wheatstone bridge.
D
11. (a) P
Effective capacitance of the system = 5 + 5 = 10mF
2C 2C 14. (c) Volume of 8 small drops = Volume of big drop
4 4
2C 8 ´ pr 3 = pR 3 Þ R = 2r
3 3
C
C C As capacity is proportional to r , hence capacity
becomes 2 times.
Q 15. (c) Potential difference between the plates
C + C = 2C
V = Vair + Vmedium
P s s
= ´ (d - t ) + ´t
e0 K e0 + –
2C 2C + –
s t + –
ÞV = (d - t + ) + –
2C e0 K A K
Þ + –
C + –
2C Q t + –
= (d - t + )
Ae 0 K
Q
Hence capacitance t
2C/ 2 = C
Q Q
C= =
P V Q t
(d - t + )
Ae0 K
2C 2C
e0 A e0 A
Þ = =
t æ 1ö
C C (d - t + ) d - t ç1 - ÷
K è Kø
Q e0 A K e0 A
16. (b) C = = 1 pF and C ' = = 2 pF \ K = 4
C + C = 2C d 2d
17. (a) Potential difference across the condenser
P
s s
V = V1 + V2 = E1t1 + E2 t2 = t1 + t2
2C
K1e0 K 2e0
2C s æ t1 t ö Q æ t1 t ö
Þ Þ CPQ = 3C ÞV = ç + 2 ÷= ç + 2 ÷
2C
e0 è K1 K 2 ø Ae 0 è K1 K 2 ø
18. (d) When the battery is disconnected, the charge will
remain same in any case.
Q
Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by
12. (d) The two capacitors formed by the slabs may assumed e0 A
to be in series combination. C=
d
EBD_7156
98 DPP/ P 35
When d is increased, capacitance will decreases and 23. (a) Electric field between the plates of a parallel plate
because the charge remains the same, so according to s Q
capacitor E = = i.e E µ d 0
q = CV , the voltage will increase. Hence the e Ae0
electrostatics energy stored in the capacitor will
increase. e0 A
19. (c) 24. (a) Capacitance of parallel plate condenser =
s –s d
25. (a)
A. .B .C C1 C2+C3
s s V
EA = - =0
2e0 2e0
EC = 0,
s s s V (C2 + C3 )
EB = + = . VC1 =
2e0 2e0 e0 C1 + (C2 + C3 )
V V0 / k V0 Initially C3 = 0
20. (b) E = = =
d d kd VC2
So VC1 = =6 ........... (1)
( 3 + 3) ´ (1 + 1) C1 + C2
6´ 2 ö
21. (c) Ceq = + 1 = æç ÷ +1 =
5
mF
( ) ( )
3 + 3 + 1 + 1 è 6+ 2ø 2 Now, at VC1 = 10, C3 = ¥
5 V (C2 + C3 )
\ Q = C ´ V= ´ 100 = 250 mC Þ 10 =
2 C1 + (C2 + C3 )
æ 6´ 2 ö
Change in 6 mF branch – VC = ç ÷100 = 150 mC Þ 10 =
V
Þ 10 = V .......... (2)
è 6+ 2ø
æ C1 ö
B çè C + C + 1÷ø
2 3
Eq. (1) and (2),

6mF 2mF
10 æC ö
= 6 Þ 5 = 3 ç 1 + 1÷
æ C1 ö è C2 ø
1mF
çè C + 1÷ø
2
C1 5 2
Þ = -1 =
C2 3 3
A C
100 V 10 (C2 + C3 )
26. (b) Now, VC1 = =8
150 (C1 + C2 + C3 )
VAB = = 25 V and VBC = 100 – VAB = 75 V
6
æC C ö
22. (c) Capacitance will be increased when a dielectric is 10 ç 2 + 3 ÷
è C1 C1 ø
introduced in the capacitor but potential difference will Þ = 8 Þ C = 2.5C
remain the same because battery is still connected. So æ C2 C3 ö 3 1
çè1 + C + C ÷ø
according to q = CV, charge will increase i.e. Q > Q0 1 1
and 1 1 1
27. (c) + » (where C3 ® ¥ )
C3 + C2 C1 C1
1 1
U= QV0 , U0 = Q0 V0 Þ Q > Q0 so U > U 0
2 2 \ Total energy = energy in C1
\ Required ratio = 1
DPP/ P 35 99
28. (b) The electric field due to one charged plate at the 30. (b) By the formula capacitance of a capacitor
s KA K
location of the other is E = and the force per unit C1 = e0 ´ µ
2e 0 d d
C1 K1 d 2 K d /2 1
s2 Hence, = ´ = 1´ =
area is F = sE = . C2 d1 K 2 K 2 3K 6
2e0
or C2 = 6C1
29. (d) A charged capacitor, after removing the battery, does
not discharge itself. If this capacitor is touched by Q
Again for capacity of a capacitor C =
someone, he may feel shock due to large charge still V
present on the capacitor. Hence it should be handled Therefore, capacity of a capacitor does not depend
cautiously otherwise this may cause a severe shock. upon the nature of the material of the capacitor.
EBD_7156
100 DPP/ P 36
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 36
6. (a). The circuit is equivalent to Fig. It is a balanced
1. (b). The current in 1W resistance is 3A. The current in 3W wheatstone bridge between abcd, and then in parallel (2R)
resistance is resistances. Thus ignoring resistance between bd arm. The
R2 6 circuit is equivalent to three (2R) resistances in parallel
I1 = I = × 3 = 2A. (abc, adc, aRRc).
R1 + R 2 3+ 6
b
2
Therefore the ratio is .
3 R
a c
(R1 + R 2 ) 1 · ·
2. (d). R = + [(R1 + R2)2 + 4 R3
2 2 R
(R1 + R2)]1/2 .....(a)
R1 = 1W, R2 = 0. R3 = 2W. ......(b) d
From eqs. (a) and (b)
1 1 R R
1
R= + [1 + 4 × 2 × 1]1/2 = [1 + 3] = 2W.
2 2 2
1 1 1 1 3
3. (b). Since Q is connected in parallel the net resistance i.e. = + + =
becomes R/2, so the current I = 2V/R, double the value. R eq 2R 2R 2R 2R
4. (b). Since there is no current in edcb part, the p.d. across
be should be 2V. Let current in 500 W is I, then same current 2
Þ Req = R
flows through X (think). Therefore, for loop abefa, 3
12 = I (500) + IX 7. (c).
or 12 = I (500) + 2 (\ IX = 2 volt) b
Thus I = (1/50) A or from IX = 2,
X = 2 × 50 = 100 W. r r
5. (b). Let l1 be the initial length of the wire. Then the new a c
length will be A · r · B
110 11 r r
l2 = l = l
100 1 10 1
Since, the volume remains constant d
11 Imagine, A being pulled on the left side, then abcd becomes

A1l1 = A2l2 or A1 /A2 = l2/l1 = a balanced wheatstone bridge Fig. The arm bd can be
10
(where A1 and A2 are initial and final area of cross–section ignored. Then resistance between A, B becomes = r.
of the wire). 1 1 1 1
If R1 and R2 are the initial and final resistances, then
i.e. = + = Þ Req = r
R eq 2r 2r r
2
R1 l1 A 2 10 10 æ 10 ö 8. (d) R = 91´ 102 » 9.1 kW.
= = ´ =ç ÷
R 2 l 2 A1 11 11 è 11 ø
9. (d) Spacific resistance doesn't depend upon length and area.
2
R 2 æ 11ö
or =ç ÷ 10. (b). The diagram can be redrawn as shown in fig.
R1 è 10 ø
Now, percentage change in resistance is
DR æ R 2 - R1 ö
R1 × 100 = çè R ÷ø × 100
1
éæ 11 ö 2 ù
= êçè 10 ÷ø - 1ú × 100 = 21%
êë úû
DPP/ P 36 101
3W
2´ R
12. (c). R= 2+2 + Þ 2R + R2 = 8 + 4R + 2R
2+R
2W 4W
X A C B Y 4 ± 16 + 32 2 ± 2 3
Þ R2 – 4R – 8 = 0 Þ R = =
2
4W 8W R cannot be negative, hence R = 2 ± 2 3 = 5.46 W
6W
V2
13. (c). P = . If resistance of heater coil is R, then resistance
+ – R
2V
3W R
The effective resistance RAC between A and C of parallel combination of two halves will be
4
1 1 1 3 3
= + = P1 P2
R AC 2 4 4 \RAC = 4 ohm So = =
R/4 1
=
P2 P1 R 4
The effective resistance RCB between C and B
1 1 3 8 60 ´ 8 ´ 301
RCB = + = \RCB = ohm. 14. (c). Total kWh consumed = = 14.4
4 8 8 3 1000
Hence cost = 14.4 ´ 1.25 = ` 18
4 8
Now, RACB = RAC + RCB = + = 4ohm.
3 3 15. (d). Since all bulbs are identical they have the same
Corresponding to points X and Y, the resistances 3 ohm, 4 resistances. The current I flowing through 1 branches at
ohm and 6 ohm are in parallel, hence effective resistance A. So current in 2 and 3, as well as in 4 will be less than I.
RXY is The current through 5 is also I. Thus 1 and 5 glow equally
brightly and more than 2, 3 or 4.
1 1 1 1 4+3+ 2 9
= + + = = 16. (b). Let R1 and R2 be the resistances of the coils, V the
R XY 3 4 6 12 12 supply voltage, Q the heat required to boil the water.
12 4 Heat produced by first coil of resistance R1 in time t1
\ RXY = = ohm.
9 3 V 2 t1 V 2 ´ 6 ´ 60
(= 6 min) = Q = = cal ......(a)
4 2 JR1 4.2R1
Total resistance R of the circuit = + = 2W.
3 3 Heat produced in second coil of resistance R2 in time
t2 (= 8 min)
2
Current in the circuit = =1A
2 V 2 t1 V 2 ´ 6 ´ 60
=Q= = .....(b)
Power dissipated in the circuit = i2 R = 1 × 2 = 2 watts JR 2 4.2R 2
Potential difference between X and
Equating (a) and (b), we get
4 4
Y = i × RXY = 1 × = V.. 6 8 R
3 3 = i.e. 2 = 8 = 4
R2 R2 R1 6 3
4
\ Potential difference across 3 ohm resistor = V.. 4
3 or R2 = R .....(c)
3 1
4/3 4 (i) When the two heating coils are in series, the effective
Current in 3 ohm resistor = = = 0.44 amp.
3 9 resistance is
( 30 + 30 ) 30 60 ´ 30 4 7
11. (c). Requivalent = 30 + 30 + 30 = = 20 W R' = R1 + R2 = R1 + .R = R .
( ) 90 3 1 3 1
with two coils in series, let the kettle take t' time to boil.
V 2 1
\ i= = = ampere V2 t ' V2 t '
R 20 10 Q= = .....(d)
JR ' æ7 ö
4.2 ´ ç R1 ÷
è3 ø
EBD_7156
102 DPP/ P 36
t'
Comparing (a) and (d), we get = 6 × 60
(7 / 3)
24V
7 21V
or t' = × 6 × 60 sec = 14 min.
3
(ii) When the two heating coils are in parallel, the effective
resistance is,
3V
æ4 ö
R1 ç R1 ÷
R1 R 2 è3 ø 4
R ¢¢ = = = R1
R1 + R 2 æ4 ö 7
R1 + ç R1 ÷
è3 ø 22
P1 v2 R L æv ö æ 9ö
= 1 Þç 1÷ =ç ÷ =9
In parallel arrangement of heating coils, let t" be the time P2 R L v 22 è v2 ø è 3ø
taken by kettle to boil, so
Sol. (18-20).
V2t " V 2 t '' 12V
Q= = .....(5) I= = 2A
JR " æ4 ö (1 + 5) W
4.2 ´ ç R1 ÷
è7 ø
1W 12 V
Comparing (a) and (5), we get
t" 4
= 6 × 60 or t" = × 6 × 60 sec = 3.43 min.
(4 / 7) 7
17. (c).
7.5amp
24V 5W
v 15V 2kW é 1.5 ´ 6 ù
I= R ê R p = 7.5 ú Þ Rate of chemical energy conversion = EI = 12 × 2 = 24 W
eq ë û and P (in battery) = I 2 r = 4 W
Also, P (in resistor) = I 2 r = 20 W
18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
9V 1.2kW
21. (d) Resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with the
temperature. The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with
larger amplitudes at higher temperatures thereby
increasing it's conductivity not resistivity.
240 60 22. (d) It is quite clear that in a battery circuit, the point of
I= Þ = 7.5mA lowest potential is the negative terminal of the battery
32 8
and the current flows from higher potential to lower
(1) Currrent I is 7.5mA potential.
(2) Voltage drop across RL is 9 volt 23. (b) The temperature co-efficient of resistance for metal is
positive and that for semiconductor is negative.
P1 v12 R 2 225 ´ 6 In metals free electrons (negative charge) are charge
(3) P = R 2
Þ
2 ´ 81
= 16.66
carriers while in p-type semiconductors, holes (positive
2 1 v2
charge) are majority charge carriers.
(4) After intercharging the two resistor R1 and R2
v 24
I= = ´ 7 = 3.5mA
R eq (48)
DPP/ P 37 105
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 37
(1) (d). Let R is resistance of the voltmeter. The effective
V 25
resistance across points A, B is (7) (a). \ i = = A
R 1000
60 ´ R Let R' be the required resistance to be connected in
r= ..............(1)
60 + R series with voltmeter.
The current in the circuit is I = 12/(50 + r)
V'
The p.d. across AB points is V = Ir So i =
R+R'
12
or 6 = ×r or 50 + r = 2r 25
50 + r Here V' = 250, R = 1000 W and i = A
or r = 50 W ..............(2) 1000
using it in (1), 25 250
\ = Þ R' = 9000 W.
60 1000 1000 + R '
we get 50 =
60 + R (8) (d). The potential difference between A and B in the absence
300 + 5R = 6R of voltmeter = 2 volt.
K
or R = 300 W + – ()
VAB
G G G 4V
R1 R2
(2) (c). S = = = W B
n - 1 100 - 1 99 A 4kW
4kW
ig 10
(3) (b). S = G= × 99 = 111W
i - ig 100 - 10
4kW
80 ´ 80 V
(4) (c). R = 20 + = 60W RV
80 + 80
V 2 1
i= = = amp. Current flowing in the circuit
R 60 30
E E
1 I= =
\ V = iR' = × 40 = 1.33 volt. RR R2 + R '
30 R2 + 1 V
R1 + R V
(5) (a). According to Kirchhoff's first law
At junection A, iAB = 2 + 2 = 4A
At junection B, iAB = iBC – 1 = 3A 4 2
I= = ampere
4´4 3
2A 4+
1A 4+4
1.3 A Potential difference measured by voltmeter
A B
C 2 4
2A V'AB = IR' = ×2=
i 3 3
At junection C, i = iBC – 1.3 = 3 – 1.3 = 17 amp Error in the reading of voltmeter
(6) (b). The current required for a full-scale deflection of the
4 2
galvanometer is = VAB – V'AB = 2 – = volt
i = 4.0 x 10-4 x 25 = 10-2 A 3 3
Let a resistance R W is to be connected in series 2
The error in voltmeter reading for 2 volt p.d. = volt
V 3
Then by the ohm's law, we have i =
G+R The error in voltmeter reading for 1 volt p.d.
Here G = 50 W, V = 2.5 V and i = 10-2 A 2 1 1
´ = volt
=
V 2.5 3 2 3
\ G+R= = -2 = 250
i 10 the error in voltmeter reading for 100 volt p.d.
Þ R = 250 – G = 250 – 50 = 200W. 100
= = 33.3% volt
3
EBD_7156
106 DPP/ P 37
(9) (d). E = V + I r = I R + I r 13. (b) Cells area joined in parallel when internal resistance is
Þ E = 0.25 x 10 + 0.25 × r higher then a external resistance. (R << r)
In second stage
E
Þ E = 0.5 × 4 + 0.5 r i=
r
Subtracting eq. (b) from eq. (a) R+
n
2.5 + 0.25 r – 2.0 – 0.5 r = 0
0.5 = 0.25 r E
14. (b). Current in the ammeter I =
0.5 é R 'ù
R '+ r ê1 + ú
r= = 2W. ë Rû
0.25
(10) (d) Suppose current through different paths of the circuit On increasing the value of R, the denominator will
is as follows. decrease and consequently the value of I will increase.
15. (a)
28 W 54 W I/6
I/3
I I/6
1 6V 2 I/3
I3 I/6 I/3
I/3 I/3
I/3
8V 12 V
I/6 I/3
After applying KVL for loop (1) and loop (2) I
I/6
1
We get 28i1 = – 6 – 8 Þ i1 = - A E
2
Let ABCDEFGH be skeleton cube formed of twelve
1 equal wires each of resistance R. Let a battery of e.m.f.
and 54i2 = – 6 – 12 Þ i2 = - A
3 E be connected across A and G. Let the total current
entering at the corner A and leaving the diagonally
5
Hence i3 = i1 + i2 = - A opposite corner G be I. By symmetry the distribution
6 of currents in wires of cube, according to Kirchoff's I st
law is shown in fig. ApplyingKirchoff's IInd law to mesh
5X + 2 × 10
(11) (d) VAB = 4 = Þ = 20 W ADCGEA, we get
X + 10
1 1 1
12. (b) The circuit can be simplified as follows – R– R– R+E=0
3 6 3
B C
30 W 5
i1 or E = IR ......(a)
i3 i3 6
A D If RAB is equivalent resistance between comers A and B,
40 W 40 V then from Ohm’s law comparing (a) and (b), we get
i2
F E 5
IRAB = IR
40 W 80 V 6
16. (d).
Applying KCL at junction A (y – z)
H
i3 = i1 + i2 ...(i) G
Applying Kirchoff's voltage law for the loop ABCDA y
I = x + 2y z (y – z)
– 30i1 – 40i3 + 40 = 0 A 2 (y–z)
Þ – 30i1 – 40(i1 + i2) + 40 = 0 y D
Þ 7i + 4i2 = 0 ...(ii) x z
Applying Kirchoff's voltage law for the loop ADEFA. E
(y – z)
– 40i2 – 40i3 + 80 + 4 = 0 y E F
Þ – 40i2 – 40(i1 + i2) = – 120
Þ i2 + 2i2 = 3 ...(iii) (y – z)
On solving equation (ii) and (iii) i1 = – 0.4 A. x + 2y B y C
DPP/ P 37 107
Let I = x + 2y current enter at point A, when a battery of The distribution of currents, keeping in mind symmetry
e.m.f. E and no internal resistance is connected across edge condition, is shown in fig.
AB. The edges AD and AH are symmetrically connected Let R (= 2W) be the resistance of each wire.
to A, therefore they will carry equal currents. The Applying Kirchoff's II law to mesh DGFC, we get
distribution of currents according to Kirchoff's Ist law is æ1 ö
shown in fig. çè - I1÷ø R + (I – 2I1)
2
If RAB is equivalent resistance, then from Ohm's law,
E = RAB I = RAB (x + 2y) ....(a) æ1 ö
and from Kirchoff's law applied to mesh containing AB R + çè - I1÷ø R – I1 R = 0
2
and cell E is
Rx=E .....(b) æ1 ö
(since R is resistance of each wire) or 2 çè - I1÷ø + (I – 2I1) – I1 = 0
2
Applying Kirchoff's II law to mesh AHEB
yR + zR + yR – xR = 0 or x – 2y – z = 0 .....(c) 2
or 2I – 5I1 = 0 or I1 = I ...... (b)
Applying Kirchoff's II law to mesh DGFC 5
nd
Applying Kirchoff's II law to external circuit AHEBE',
(y – z) R + 2 (y – z) R – zR = 0
or 4(y – z) –z = 0 or 4y = 5 z .....(d) we get
i.e. z = (4/5) y 1 1
.....(E) R + I1 R + R = E
2 2
Substituting this value in (c), we get
2
4 IR + IR = E' [Using (b)]
x – 2y – y = 0 5
5
7
14 5 or IR = E ......(c)
or y = x i.e. y = x 5
5 14 Comparing (a) and (c), wet get
Substituting value of y in (a), we get
7 7 7
æ 10 ö RAB I = IR i.e. RAB = R = × 2 = 2.8 W
E = RAB çè x + x÷ø 5 5 5
14 18. (c). In the first case I = E/(r + R) and in the second case
24 I' = E/(r + R/2) = 2E/(2r + R)
E = RAB x= R. x Using E = I(r + R), we get
14
æ 2r + 2R ö æ R ö
24 7 I' = I çè ÷ø = I çè 1 + ÷
RAB = R \ RAB = R. 2r + R 2r + R ø
14 12
17. (a). Thus the term in bracket is greater than 1 but less than
H (I/2-I1) 2. Thus 2I > I' > I
G 19. (b). Let R be the combined resistance of galvanometer and
I/2 an unknown resistance and r the internal resistance of
I I1 I/2-I1 I-2I1
A
each battery. When the batteries, each of e.m.f. E are
y D connected in series, the net e.m.f. = 2E and net internal
I1
resistance = 2r
E
E
I/2-I1 2E 2 ´ 15
F \ Current i1 = or 1.0 =
R + 2r R + 2r
I/2 I/2-I1 \ R + 2r = 3.0. ...(i)
· When the batteries are connected in parallel, the e.m.f.
I B I/2 C
remains E and net internal resistance becomes r/2. therefore
Let a battery of e.m.f. E is applied between points A and B. E 2E
Current i2 = =
Let a current I, enter through point A. r 2R + r
R+
If RAB is equivalent resistance between points A and B, 2
then from Ohm's law
RAB I = E 2E 2 ´ 15
\ 2R + r = = = 5.0 ...(i)
i2 0.6
Solving (i) and (ii), we get r = 1/3 W.
EBD_7156
108 DPP/ P 37
20. (a). The circuit with current distribution is shown in fig. 21. (a). After full charging, the steady current in the condenser
is zero, hence no current will flow in 4W resistance.
C
E 6 6
I= = = =1.5 A
i R+R' æ 2 ´ 3 ö 28 + 12
28 + ç
F è 2 + 3 ÷ø
G
100W Let current flowing in 2W resistance is I1
H
E i1 300W \ 2W and 3W resistance are connected in parallel
200W \ 2I1 = (1.5 – I1) x 3
D 5I1 = 4.5
i - i1
i I1 = 0.9 amp.
D
A B 24. (d). Ig
i G
110V
Applying Kirchoff's second law to the loop DEFGHID,
R
we have i1 × 100 – (i – i1) × 200 = 0
I–Ig
300 i1 – 200 i = 0 ......(1)
Now applying Kirchoff's second law to loop ADIHGCBA, For Ammeter IgG = (I – Ig) R
50 × 10–6 × 100 = 5 × 10–3 × (R) Þ R » 1W
we have. (i – i1) 200 + i × 300 = 110 For voltmeter Ig (R + G) = V
500i – 200 i1 = 110 .....(2) 50 mA (R + G) = 10V Þ R + G = 200 kW Þ R » 200kW
Solving eqs. (1) and (2), we get 25. (a) Potential at A = 6V
VA – VC = 4
3 1 Þ VC = 2V
i= amp and i1 = amp.
10 5 VAD VAC AD 4 2
26. (d) = = = = ;
VAB VAB AB 6 3
1
Current in 100 ohm resistance i1 = amp.
5 200
AD = cm.
3
1 27. (a) D is balance point, hence no current
Current in 200 ohm resistance i – i1 =
10 28. (a) Voltameter measures current indirectly in terms of mass
of ions deposited and electrochemical equivalent of
3
Current in 300 ohm resistance i = amp. æ mö
10 the substance çè I = ÷ø . Since value of m and Z are
Zt
Potential difference between A and C
measured to 3rd decimal place and 5th decimal place
= Potential difference across 100 ohm respectively. The relative error in the emasurement of
resistance current by voltmeter will be very small as compared to
or potential difference across 200 ohm resistance that when measured by ammeter directly.
29. (c) The e.m.f. of a dry cell is dependent upon the electrode
\ VA – VC = current × resistance
potential of cathode and anode which in turn is
1 dependent upon the reaction involved as well as
= i1 × 100 = × 100 = 20 volt. concentration of the electrolyte. It has nothing to do
5
with size of the cell.
Potential difference between C and B is given by So, statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true.
30. (d) V = E – ir = 4 – 2 × 2 = 0, During charging V > E.
3
VC – VB = i × 300 = × 300 = 90 volt.
10
108 DPP/ P 38
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 38
e R 9 ´ 18
1. (a) Potential gradient x = . RAB = = 6W
( R + Rh + r ) L 27
0.2 ´10-3 ir 0.1 ´ 10-7

(c) Potential gradient ( x) =
2 R = = 10-2 V / m
Þ = ´ Þ R = 4.9W. 10. -6
10-2 ( R + 490 + 0 ) 1 A 10
2. (c) Let S be larger and R be smaller resistance connected æ 100 - l ö
in two gaps of meter bridge. 11. (d) S = ç ÷ .R
è l ø
æ 100 - l ö 100 - 20
\S = ç ÷R = R = 4R ......(i) æ 100 - l ö
è l ø 20 Initially, 30 = ç ÷ ´10 Þ l = 25cm
è l ø
When 15W resistance is added to resistance R, then
æ 100 - l ö
æ 100 - 40 ö 6 Finally, 10 = ç ÷ ´ 30 Þ l = 75cm
S=ç ÷ ( R + 15) = ( R + 15 ) .......(ii) è l ø
è 40 ø 4
So, shift =50cm.
From equations (i) and (ii) R = 9W
E1 l1 + l2 (6 + 2) 2
æ l1 ö æ 240 ö 12. (d) = = =
E2 l1 - l2 (6 - 2) 1
3. (b) r = R ç l - 1÷ = 2 ç 120 - 1÷ = 2W
è 2 ø è ø
E1 l1 + l2 58 + 29 3
4. (a) Potential difference per unit length 13. (c) = = =
E2 l1 - l2 58 - 29 1
V 2
= = = 0.5V / m 14. (d)
L 4
e R 2 10
e R 5 5 E= ´l = ´ ´ 0.4 = 0.16 V
5. (d) E = . ´ l Þ 0.4 = ´ ´l ( R + Rh + r ) L (10 + 40 + 0) 1
( R + Rh + r ) L ( 5 + 45 + 0 ) 10
Þ l = 8m
ïì ( 25 + 5) ïü
6. (d) Current through 2W = 1.4 í 10 + 2 + 25 + 5 ý = 1A
ïî ( ) ( ) ïþ
15. (c)
7. (c) Post office box is based on the principle of
Wheatstone’s bridge.
æl ö æ 150 ö
8. (b) Using r = R ç 1 - 1÷ = 2 ç - 1 ÷ = 1W
è l2 ø è 100 ø
9. (a) Since the given bridge is balanced, hence there will be Resistance of the part AC
no current through 9W resistance. This resistance has
R AC = 0.1´ 40 = 4W and RCB = 0.1´ 60 = 6W
no effect and must be ignored in the calculations.
X 4
9W In balanced condition = Þ X = 4W
6 6
5W 4W Equivalent resistance Req = 5W
1.4 A 5
so current drawn from battery i = = 1A .
5
æ l1 - l2 ö æ 55 - 50 ö
10 W 8W 16. (a) r = ç l ÷ ´ R ¢ Þ r = çè 50 ÷ø ´ 10 = 1W
è 2 ø
14 W
EBD_7156
DPP/ P 38 109
17. (c) Potential gradient If P is slightly icnreased, potential of C will decrease.
V e R Hence current will from A to C.
x= =
L ( R + Rh + r ) L If Q is slightly increased, potential of C will increase.
Hence current will flow from C to A.
2.2
Þ 2.2 ´ 10-3 = ´1 Þ R ' = 990W 25-27
(10 + Rh )
We have
E 2.4 ´ 10-3 V 10.0V

18. (a) E = xl = irl Þ i = = = 4 ´ 10-4 A Rs = - Rc = - 20.0W = 9980W
rl 1.2 ´ 5 Ifs 0.00100A
19. ( b) Give circuit is a balanced Wheaststone bridge circuit, At full-scale deflection, Vab = 10.0V, voltage across the
hence it can be redrawn as follows meter is 0.0200 V, voltage across Rs is 9.98 V, and current
through the voltmeter is 0.00100 A. In this case most of the
voltage appears across the series resistor.
The equivalent meter resistance is Req = 20.0 W + 9980 W
= 10,000W . Such a meter is described as a "1,000 ohms-
per-volt meter" referring to the ratio of resistance to full-
scale deflection. In normal operation the current through
the circuit element being measured is much greater than
0.00100 A, and the resistance between points a and b in
the circuit is much less than 10,000W. So the voltmeter
draws off only a small fraction of the current and disturbs,
only slightly the circuit being measured.
12 ´ 6 25. (d), 26. (c), 27. (b)
RAB = (12 + 6 ) = 4 W.
28. (d) The resistance of the galvanometer is fixed. In meter
20. (a) Balancing length is independent of the cross sectional bridge experiments, to protect the galvanometer from
area of the wire. a high current, high resistance is connected to the
21. (a) In meter bridge experiment, it is assumed that the galvanometer in order to protect it from damage.
resistance of the L shaped plate is negligible, but 1
actually it is not so. The error created due to this is 29. (a) Sensitivity µ µ (Length of wire)
Potential gradiant
called, end error. To remove this the resistance box and
the unknown resisance must be interchanged and then 30. (a) If either the e.m.f. of the driver cell or potential
the mean reading must be taken. difference across the whole potentiometer wire is lesser
22. (a) Ammeter is always connected in series with circuit. than the e.m.f. of the experimental cell, then balance
point will not obtained.
23. (a) In balanced Wheastone bridge, the arms of
galvanometer and cell can be interchanged without
affecting the balance of the bridge.
24. (d)
W W
W W
110 DPP/ P 39
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 39
(1) (a) We know magnetic field due to a long straight current Let T be the period of rotation of the rod. Then
carrying wire
q qw 1 colulomb ´ 104 p / sec
µ0 i 4p ´ 10 ´ 3 -7 i= = =
B= = T 2p 2p
2pr 2p ´ 50 ´ 10-3 3
= 5 × 10 amp.
(Note that m0 = 4p × 10–7 in SI system) Now, a = 0.6 m, x = 0.8 m and m0 = 4p x 10–7 V-s/A-m.
= 1.20 × 10–5 Tesla = 0.12 G. Substituting these values in eq. (i) we get
[As 1 Gauss = 10–4 Tesla]
(2) (c) The magnetic induction produced due to a current (4p ´ 10 -7 V - s / A - m)(5 ´ 103 A)(0.6m) 2
B=
carrying arc at its centre of curvature is 2(0.36 + 0.64)3/2 m3
m 0 ia = 0.36p × 10–3 = 1.13 × 10–3 tesla
B = 4p r .......... (a) In the second case the current remains the same because
the rotating charge and the angular frequency are the
(subtending angle a at the centre of curvature) same. However, the radius of the loop becomes half (a
µ0ip p m0 i = 0.3 m) and the distance x is now 0.4 m.
Þ B= ´ =
4pr 4 16r µ0 ia 2
\ B=
2(a 2 + x 2 )3/2
O Q i P
R y
(3) (a) r (4 p ´ 10-7 V - s / A - m)(5 ´ 103 A)(0.3m) 2
90° x =
2(0.09 + 0.16)3/2 m3
S i T z
ur ur ur 4p ´ 10-7 ´ 5 ´ 103 ´ 0.09
BO = BQRS + BST . = tesla
2 ´ 0.25 ´ 0.5
ur ur 3 µ i ˆ ur µ i = 0.72 × 10–3 p = 2.26 × 10–3 tesla.
BPQ = zero, BQRS = ´ 0 k, BST = 0 kˆ
4 2r 4pr (6) (a) The magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying
coil having n turns is given by
ur µ i 3 3µ0i ˆ µ0i é 3p ù ˆ
Þ BO = 0 kˆ + k= + 1ú k m 0 ni
4 pr 4 2r 4 pr ëê 2 û B= N/A.m
ur ur ur 2r
(4) (a). BO = BPSR + BPQR .... (a) where i, is the current in the coil and r is the radius of
ur the coil.
m i é 2p - 2f ù m 0 i
B PSR = 0 ê = ˆ
[p - f] (-k) .... (b) Here i = 0.1 A, n = 1000 and r = 0.1 m.
4p ë r úû 2p r
(4p ´ 10-7 ) ´ 1000 ´ 0.1
ur m i 2sin f ˆ m i 2sin f m0 i \ B= = 6.28 × 10-4 N/A.m
BPQR = 0 . (-k) = 0 . = tan f (-k)ˆ 2 ´ 0.1
4p OQ 4p r cos f 2pr
(7) (a). The two coils are perpendicular to each other. Coil 1
.... (c) produces field along X axis and coil 2 produces field
From eqs. (a), (b) and (c)
along Y axis. Thus the resultant field will be-
ur m0 i m i
B= ˆ + 0 tan f (-k)
[p - f] (-k) ˆ B= B12 + B22 making an angle
2p r 2p r
æB ö
m0 i
ˆ q = tan -1 ç 2 ÷ with x axis
= [p – f + tan f] (-k) è B1 ø
2p r
(5) (a). The rotating rod is a current-loop whose radius a = 0.6m. µ0 NI
As B1 = B2 =
The magnetic field due to this current-loop at a point 2a
on its axis at a distance x from its centre is given by
æ µ0 NI ö µ0 NI
µ0 ia 2 Þ B= 2 = çè ÷= and q = 45º.
B= ...(i) 2a ø 2a
2(a 2 + x 2 )3/2
EBD_7156
DPP/ P 39 111
(8) (d) Applying ampere's law at P, Q and R respectively, we (12) (a). The magnetic field inside (near centre) a current carrying
find that there is no current enclosed by the circle of P. solenoid having n turns per unit length is given by
So magnetic induction at P is zero while that at Q and B = m0 ni newton/(ampere-meter),
R is non- zero. where i (ampere) is the current in the solenoid and
(9) (a). For a current carrying coil m0 = 4p × 10–7 newton/ampere2.
µ0 i Here n = 500/0.40 = 1250 per meter, i = 1.0 amp.
B= at centre and force on a current carrying \ B = (4 × 3.14 × 10-7) × 1250 × 1.0
2R
= 15.7 × 10-4 newton/(ampere-meter) = 15.7 gauss.
conductor ie
m 0 ni
µ i2 l (13) (b) We know, Bend =
F=ilBÞF= 0 2
2R
500
[µ0 ][A 2 ][L] Here n = = 2500/metre,
0.2
Þ [MLT–2] =
[L]
Þ [m0] = [MLT–2 A–2] 2Bend 2 ´ 8.71 ´ 10-6
\ i= =
(10) (c) By Biat Savart Law, µ0 n 4p ´ 10-7 ´ 2500
m 0 idl sin q
dB = 17.42 ´10-3 0.01742
4p r 2 = = amp amp.
p p
When q = 90º, then sin 90º = 1 = maximum
3/ 2
m 0i dl Bcentre æ x2 ö 1
\ dB = = maximum (14) (b) = ç 1´ 2 ÷ , also Baxis = Bcentre
4pr 2 Baxis ç R ÷ 8
è ø
(11) (a) The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centroid O
of the triangle due to a side PQ (say) is æ x2 ö
3/ 2
æ x2 ö
1/ 2
8
µ0 i Þ = ç 1´ 2 ÷ Þ 2 = çç 1´ 2 ÷÷
(sin f1 + sin f2 ) 1 ç R ÷
è ø è R ø
4p r
Where r is the perpendicular distance of PQ from O, x2 x2
and f1 , f2 th e angles as shown. The field is Þ 4=1+ Þ3= Þ x2 = 3R2 Þ 3R2
perpendicular to the plane of paper and is directed into R2 R2
plane of paper. Since the magnetic field due to each of
Þx= 3R
the three sides is the same in magnitude and direction,
the magnitude of the resultant field at O is Ni
Q
(15) (a) B0 = m0
2 pR
4p ´ 10-7 ´ 500 ´ 0.5

i = = 5 × 10–4 tesla
f2 2p ´ 0.1
(
f1 ( O
(16) (c) At P : Bnet = B12 + B22
P R 2 2
µ0 i æ μ 0 2i1 ö æ μ 0 2i2 ö
B= 3 (sin f1 + sin f2 ) = ç ÷ +ç ÷
4p r è 4π a ø è 4π a ø
Here i = 1 ampere, f1 = f2 = 60º B1
l l 1 P B2
and r = cot 60º = ´
2 2 3
a
and l is the side of the triangle (= 4.5 × 10–2 meter). A
i2
3 ´10 -7 ´ 1.0 æ 3 3ö
çç + ÷ i1
\B= 2 ÷ø C
æ1 -2 ö æ 1 ö è 2 D
ç ´ 4.5 ´10 ÷ ´ ç ÷ B O
è 2 ø è 3ø
3 ´ 10-7 ´ 2 ´ 3
(
μ0 2 2
)
1/ 2
= -2 = 4.0 × 10–5 weber/m2. = i1 + i2
4.5 ´ 10 2πa
112 DPP/ P 39
(17) (d) (22) (b). The arrangement is shown in fig.
(18) (b) Current distribution in the network is as shown.
I1 I2
Now, consider the pair of wires AB and GH. As current
in these wires produce equal but opposite magnetic
fields at centre O of the cube, resultant field due to the X Y
pair is zero. I P A
–
B 6 C
–I R
–I 6
–I F 6 G
–I 6
3
–I
O –I I
3
A 3 D –I
3
I –I –I
–I 6 6 The magnetic field at a point P in between the two
3
E –I H wires is
We can see five such more pairs namely :
6 r r r
B = B1 + B2 . The field B1 (due to current I1) points
(i) AE, CG
(ii) AD, FI down ward while B2 (due to current I2) points upwards.
Thus field at point P is-
(iiii) BC, EH
(iv) EF, DC m 0 é I1 I ù
B= ê - 2 ú in to the plane of paper..
(v) BF, OH 2p ë x R - x û
Magnetic field due to each of these pairs is zero. At x = R/2,
Therefore, resultant magnetic field at centre O is zero.
(19) (a) Magnetic field inside a solid cylinder of current is m 0 (I1 - I2 )
B= into the plane of paper, (if I1 > I2)
pR
µ0ir
Binside = m 0 (I 2 - I1 )
2pR 2 or B= out of the plane of paper (if I2 > I1)
pR
R (23) (d) (i) Fields due to both coils are in the same direction
µ0 i
Þ B0 = 2 (as per given µ0 N1I1 µ0 N 2 I2
2 pR 2 Þ B= +
2R1 2R 2
information)
If I1 = I2 = I, N1 = N2 = N,
4B0 pR
Þ i= µ0 NI(R1 + R 2 )
µ0 B=
2R1R 2
Magnetic field outside a solid cylinder of current is
(ii) Fields due to the two coils are in opposite direction,
µ i
Boutside = 0 µ0 N1I1 µ0 N 2 I2
2 pr Þ B= -
2R1 2R 2
æ 4B pR ö
µ0 ç 0 ÷ If I1 = I2 = I, N1 = N2 = N,
è µ0 ø
Þ Boutside at a distance 2R = = B0 µ0 NI(R 2 - R1 )
2p(2R) B=
(20) (d) As per sense of transversal, 2R1R 2
icrossing = I1 – I2 – I3 m0 I
r r (24) (a). For circular coil B1 =
2r
By Ampere's law, Ñ ò B.de = µ0 icrossing Circumference of the coil = 2pr = L.
r r Thus B1 = pm0 I/L = 3.14 m0 I/L
Þ Ñò B.de = µ0 (I2 – I1 – I3)
For square loop B2 = 2 2 m0 I/L = 3.60 m0 I/L
l Thus B1 < B2.
(21) (a) l = (2pr) n or n= r r uur ur
2p r
25. (d) Since M P B \ Torque = M ´ B is zero.
m 0 ni m 0 il 26. (d) The field must be in + k$ direction.
B= =
2r 4p r 2 27. (a)
28. (b) The statements are independently correct.
4p´10-7 ´ 6.28 ´1 r uur ur r
or B= = 6.28 × 10-5 Tesla. 29. (d) t = m ´ B Þ t = 0 for q = 0°, 180°.
2 ´ 2 ´ p´ (0.10)2 30. (b)
EBD_7156
DPP/ P 40 113
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 40
(1) (b) Ekp = eV, \ Ek = qV, region between PQ and RS. The particle moves in a
\ Ek µ q, \ V = constant circular path of radius r in the magnetic field. It can just
Ekp : Ekd : Eka : : 1 : 1 : 2. enter the region x > b for r ³ (b – a)
q 2 r 2 B2
(2) (c) EK = mv
2m Now r = ³ (b - a )
qB
q 2 qa2 mp
\ Ek µ =
2
´ q (b - a) B q (b - a) B
m mp E kp or v³ Þ vmin =
m m
4 1 (11) (a) From figure it is clear that
= ´ = E Ka = 8eV..
1 4
r b
KVe 10-7 ´ 3 ´1.66 ´10-19 q
(3) (a) B = = = 1.2 Tesla. q
r2 (2 ´10-10 )2
(4) (a) F = qvB sinq
q
æ 1ö
= 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 105 × 0.8 × çè ÷ø
2
d
= 1.28 × 10–14 N [Q charge on a particle = 2e]
r r r
(5) (b) The direction of F is along (V ´ B) which is towards
d p
the right. Thus the beam deflects to your right side. sin q = also r = qB
(6) (b) The particle is moving clockwise which shows that r
force on the particle is opposite to given by right hand Bqd
palm rule of fleming left hand rule. These two laws are \ sin q = p
used for positive charge. Here since laws are disobeyed,
we can say that charge is negative. (12) (a) For on wire Q due to wire P is
(7) (b) The point lies at the circumference hence it will come 2 ´ 30 ´ 10
-7
back after a time period T FP = 10 ´ ´ 0.1 = 6 ´ 10– 5 N (Towards left)
0.1
2p m Force on wire Q due to wire R is
T=
qB 2 ´ 20 ´ 10
-7
FR = 10 ´ ´ 0.1 = 20 ´ 10–5 (Towards right)
(8) (a) The magnetic force on a current carrying wire of length 0.02
L, placed in a magnetic field B at an angleq with the Hence Fnet = FR – FP = 14 ´ 10–5N = 14 ´ 10–4 N
field is given by (Towards right)
F = i l Bsinq. r r r
Here B = 5.0 × 10–4 N/A.m. i = 2.0 A, (13) (d) F = q (v ´ B)
l = 50 cm = 0.50 m,
q = 60º î ˆj kˆ
F = 2.0 × 0.50 × (5.0 × 10–4) × sin 60º r r 3 2 0 = k̂ (–10 × 105) = (– k̂ 106)
v´B =
= 4.33 × 10–4 N 5
According to the flemings left - hand rule, this force 5 ´10 0 0
will act perpendicular to both the wire and the magnetic q = 2e = 2 × 1.6 x 10-19 = 3.2 × 10-19 Coulomb
field. r
F = 3.2 × 10–19 (– k̂ × 106)
m r
1 4 16 Þ F = – 3.2 × 10–13 k̂ .
(9) (a, c) rµÞ rH : rHe : ro = : : =1:2:2
q 1 1 2 \ |F| = 3.2 × 10–13 Coulomb.
Radius is smallest for H+, so it is deflected most. (14) (b)
r
(10) (b) In the figure, the z-axis points out of the paper, and the \ F = q ( vr × B ) = 2evB sin 90º
magnetic field is directed into the paper, existing in the or F = 2evB
114 DPP/ P 40
(15) (a) Force on side BC AND AD are equal but opposite so
their net will be zero. 14 ´ 106
\ V= = 7 × 106 Volt.
2
10 cm (18) (a) If electron beam passes undeflected in simultaneous
B C r r
15 cm electric and magnetic fields E and B velocity of beam
2A r
v much be mutually perpendicular and the required
FAB FCD speed v is given by-
A D E 1 ´ 104
2 cm v= = = 5 × 106 m/s.
B 2 ´ 10-3
-7 2 ´ 2 ´1 If electric field is removed, the electron traverses a
But FAB = 10 ´ -2
´ 15 ´10-2 = 3 ´ 10–6 N
2 ´10 mv2 mv
circular path of radius r given by = evB or r = .
2 ´ 2 ´1 r eB
and FCD = 10-7 ´ ´ 15 ´10 -2 = 0.5 ´ 10–6 N
( 2 ´10 )
-2 Here m = 9.1 × 10–31 kg, v = 5 × 106 m/s.
e = 1.6 × 10–19 coul and B = 2 × 10–3 weber/m2
Þ Fnet = FAB – FCD = 2.5 ´ 10–6 N
(9.1 ´ 10 -31 ) (5 ´ 106 )
= 25 ´ 10–7 N, towards the wire. \ r=
(16) (b) In order to make a proton circulate the earth along the (1.6 ´ 10-19 ) (2 ´10 -3 )
r = 1.43 × 10-2 m = 1.43 cm.
equator, the minimum magnetic field induction B
should be horizontal nad perpendicular to equator. (19) (a) For L length or wire, to balance,
The magnetic force provides the necessary centripetal Fmagnetic = mg Þ ILB = mg,
force. Therefore B = mg/IL = (m/L)g/I
mv2 mv 45 ´10-3 ´ 9.8

i.e. qv B = or B = = = 1.47 × 10-2 tesla.
r qr 30
Here m = 1.7 × 10 kg, v = 1.0 × 107 m/s
–27 = 147 Gauss.
q = e = 1.6 × 10-19 coulomb, r = 6.37 × 106 m (20) (b) According to Fleming's left hand rule, magnetic force
on electrons will be downward.
1.7 ´ 10-27 ´ 1.0 ´ 107
B= = 1.67 × 10–8 weber/m2. e– e – e – e – e– e – e – ×
1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 6.37 ´ 106
e – e – e – e – e– e– e – ×
mv2 qBr
(21) (b) \ F = mg = Bil
(17) (c) We have F = qvB = or v =
r m or 1 × 9.8 = 0.98 × i × 1, Þ i = 10A.
(22) (b) When currents flow in two long, parallel wires in the
3.2 ´ 10-19 ´ 1.2 ´ 0.45
= = 2.6 × 107 m/s. same direction, the wires exert a force of attraction on
6.8 ´ 10-27 each other. The magnitude of this force acting per meter
length of the wires is given by
v
The frequency of rotation n = µ0 i1i 2 i1i 2
2 pr
F= = 2 × 10–7 N/m.
2p R R
2.6 ´ 107 Here i1 = 10 A, i2 = 15 A, R = 30 cm = 0.3 m
= = 9.2 × 106 sec–1.
2 ´ 3.14 ´ 0.45
10 ´ 15
Kinetic energy of a-particle, \ F = 2 × 10–7 = 1 × 10–4 N/m.
0.3
1
EK = × 6.8 × 10–27 × (2.6 × 107)2 \ Force on 5m length of the wire
2 = 5 × (1 × 10–4) = (5 × 10-4) = 5 × 10-4 N (attraction).
= 2.3 × 10–12 joule. (23) (d) The electron will pass undeviated if the electric force
and magnetic force are equal and opposite. Thus
2.3 ´ 10-12
= eVolt = 14 × 106 eV = 14 MeVolt. E.e. = Bev or B = E/v but E = V/d
1.6 ´ 10-19
If V is accelerating potential of a-particle, then Kinetic Therefore, B = V = 600
energy = qV v.d. 3 ´ 10-3 ´ 2 ´ 106
14 × 106 eVolt = 2eV (since charge on a-particle = 2e) \ B = 0.1 Wb/m2.
The direction of field is perpendicular to the plane of
paper vertically downward.
EBD_7156
DPP/ P 40 115
(24) (b) The component of velocity of the beam of protons, (25) (a), (26) (a), (27) (c).
parallel to the field direction r r r
F = q (v ´ B) = q (x 2 - y2 ) kˆ
= v cosq = 4 × 105 × cos 60º = 2 × 105 m/sec.
and the component of velocity of the proton beam at (28) (c) When two long parallel wires, are connected to a bat-
right angle to the direction of field tery in series. They carry currents in opposite direc-
tions, hence they repel each other.
= v sinq = 4 × 105 × sin 60º = 2 3 × 105 m/sec.
(29) (c) No net force will act on charged particle if
therefore,the radius of circular path = (mv sinq /Be) r r r r
F = q [ E + v ´ B] = 0
1.7 ´ 10-27 ´ 2 3 ´ 105 r r r
or r = = 12.26 × 10–3 metre Þ E = -v ´ B Þ v need not to be perpendicular to B
0.3 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19
(30) (c) In this case we can not be sure about the absence of the
or r = 1.226 × 10–2 metre. magnetic field because if the electron moving parallel
Pitch of the Helix = v cosq x (2pm/Be) to the direction of magnetic field, the angle between
2 ´ 105 ´ 2 ´ 3.14 ´ 1.7 ´ 10-27 velocity and applied magnetic field is zero
\ Pitch = (F = 0). Then also electron passes without deflection.
0.3 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19
Also F = evBsin q Þ F µ B .
= 44.5 × 10–3 m = 4.45 × 10–2 m.
DPP/ P 41 115
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 41
22 t = BiNA = (4p × 10-7) × (500/0.4) × 3 × 0.4 × 10
1. (b) M = NiA = 20 ´ (4 ´ 10-2 ) 2 ´ 3 = 0.3 A - m2 × p (0.01)2
7
= 6p2 × 10-7 = 5.92 × 10-6 N.m.
2. (a) The magnetic moment of current carrying loop
14. (d) The equivalent magnetic moment is
M = niA = ni (pr2)
M = iA = ef (pr2)
Hence the work done in rotating it through 180°
W = MB(1 – cosq) = 2MB = 2(nipr2)B v
As f =
= 2 × (50 × 2 × 3.14 ×16 × 10–4) × 0.1 = 0.1J 2 pr
3. (b) NiAB ev 2 evr

q= Þ q µ N (Number of turns) \ M= pr =
C 2 pr 2
4. (d) t = MB sin q Þ t max = NiAB , (q = 90°) Cq
uur ur 15. (b) i = Þi µq
5. (c) In equilibrium angle between M and B is zero. It NAB
ur 16. (d) Initially for circular coil L = 2pr and M = i × pr2
happens, when plane of the coil is perpendicular to B
2
æ Lö iL2
B = i ´ pç ÷ = ...(i)
è 2p ø 4p
Finally for square coil
2
æ Lö iL2 ...(ii)
M '=i´ç ÷ =
è4ø 16
i L/4
6. (a) t = NBiA = 100 × 0.2 × 2 × (0.08 × 0.1) = 0.32 N × m pM

7. (c) t = NBiA = 100 × 0.5 × 1 × 400 × 10–4 = 2 N–m Solving equation (i) and (ii) M ¢ =
4
8. (a) t = NiAB sinq = 0 (Q q = 0°) 17. (b) M = iA = i ´ pR 2
9. (c) M = NiA Þ M µ A Þ M µ r2 (As l = 2pr Þ lµ r)
Þ M µ l2 Qw 1
also i = Þ M = QwR 2
10. (a) 2p 2
18. (a) t = NBiA sinq so the graph between t and q is a
11. (c) t max = NiAB = 1 ´ i ´ (pr 2 ) ´ B sinusoidal graph.
æ Lö 19. (d) Initial magnetic moment = m1 = iL2
çè 2pr = L, Þ r = ÷
2p ø I
i L M
2
æ L ö L2iB m2 = M 2
t max = pi ç ÷ B=
è 2p ø 4p
L/2
12. (b) L
13. (b) The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is M
m1 L L/2 L
B = m0 ni = (4p × 10-7) × (500/0.4) × 3 N/A.m. m1 = iL2
The torque acting on a current-carrying coil having N
After folding the loop, M = magnetic moment due to
turns (say), placed perpendicular to the axis at the centre
of the solenoid is- æLö iL2 μ1
each part = i i ç ÷ ´ L = =
è 2ø 2 2
EBD_7156
116 DPP/ P 41
μ μ1 r æ1 ö
Þ m2 = M 2 = 1 ´ 2 = A3 = ç ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ 10-4 ÷ iˆ m 2
2 2 è2 ø
20. (a) Magnetic moment vector,
21. (d) r r
m = iA = 10(0.01iˆ + 0.005jˆ + 0.005k)Am
ˆ 2
22. (a) Couple of force on loop S will be maximum because
for same perimeter the area of loop will be maximum = (0.1iˆ + 0.05ˆj + 0.05k)Am
ˆ 2
and magnetic moment of loop = i ×A. So, it will also
be maximum for loop S. c. Torque,
r
q nBA t = (0.1iˆ + 0.05jˆ + 0.05k)
ˆ ´ (2iˆ - 3jˆ + k)
ˆ
23. (b) Sensitivity S = =
i C î ˆj kˆ
24. (b) t = mBsin q is zero for q = 0°, 180°.
= 0.1 0.05 0.05 = -0.1iˆ - 0.4kˆ Nm
25-27 =
2 -3 1
28. (a) Due to metallic frame the deflection is only due to

current in a coil and magnetic field, not due to vibration
in the strings. If string start oscillating, presence of
metallic frame in the field make these oscillations
damped.
29. (b) The torque on the coil in a magnetic field is given by t
= nIBA cos q
For radial field, the coil is set with its plane parallel to
the direction of the magnetic field B, then q = 0° and
cos q = 1 Þ Torque = nIBA (1) = nIBA (maximum).
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (b) 30. (c) Loop will not oscillate if in unstable equilibrium
(a) The net force on a current carrying loop of any position.
arbitrary shape in a uniform magnetic field is zero.
r
Fnet = 0
(b) The given loop can be con sidered to be a
superposition of three loops as shown in figure. The
area vector of the three loops (1), (2) and (3) are
r æ1 ö
A1 = ç ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ 10-4 ÷ ˆjm 2
è2 ø
r æ1 ö
A 2 = ç ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ 10-4 ÷ kˆ m 2
è2 ø
DPP/ P 42 117
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 42
1. (a). Force between magnetic poles in air is given by 8. (c)
m 0 m1 m 2 9. (d) Here, d = 10 cm = 0.1 m ,
F= ´ H = 0.4 gauss = 0.4 x 10-4 T, M = ?
4p r2
Neutral points in this case, lie on axial line of magnet,
Given that m1 = 50 Am, m2 = 100Am, such that
r = 10 cm = 0.1 m and
µ0 = permeability of air = 4 p × 10–7 Hm–1. m 0 2M
=H
4p d3
4 p ´ 10-7 50 ´ 100
\F= . = 50 × 10–3 N
4p 0.1 ´ 0.1 2M
\ 10-7 × = 0.4 × 10-4
2. (a) Strength of a magnetic field due to a pole of strength m (0.1)3
is given by
M = 0.2 A m2
1 m 10. (d). t = F × r = MB sin 30
H= .
4 p r2
l ´ mBsin 30
Given that m = 40 Am, r = 20 cm = 20 × 10–2 m. F=
r
1 40
\ H= ´ = 79.57 Am–1 25 ´ 10-2 ´ 24 ´ 0.25 1
4 p (20 ´ 10 -2 ) 2 = ´ = 6.25 N
-2 2
Now, magnetic induction at the same point : 12 ´ 10
B = µ0 H = 4p × 10–7 × 79.57 = 10–4 wb/m2 m 0 2M
3. (c) Couple acting on a bar magnet of dipole moment M 11. (b). B = ´ = constant
4p x3
when placed in a magnetic field, is given by
t = MB sin q 1/3 1/3
where q is the angle made by the axis of magnet with æ M2 ö æ 1 ö
\ x2 = x1 ç = 20 × ç = 10 cm
the direction of field. è M ÷ø 1 è 2 ´ 4 ÷ø
Given that m = 5 Am, 2l = 0.2 m, q = 30°
and B = 15 Wbm–2 m0 2M m 2M
12. (d). B = = = 0
\ t = MB sin q = (m × 2l) B sin q 4 p ( l2 + x 2 )3/2 4p x 3
1
= 5 × 0.2 × 15 × = 7.5 Nm. 3
2 B1 æ x 2 ö
\ = = 8 : 1 approximately..
m 0 2m ' l B2 çè x1 ÷ø
4. (a) F = mB = m
4p x 3 13. (c). According to tangent law
BA = BB tan q
10 -7 ´ 2 ´ 200 ´ 0.05 ´ 100
= m 0 2M m0 M
8 ´ 10 -3 or = tanq
4p d13 4p d13
= 2.5 × 10-2 N
5. (d). W = MB (cosq1 - cosq2)
d1
MB \ d = (2 cot q)1/3
\ W1 = MB (cos 0º – cos 60º) = 2
2
3 MB I m l2
W2 = MB (cos 30º – cos 90º) = 14. (a). T = 2p = 2p 12 ´ m p lB
= 4 sec
2 MB
\ W2 = 3 W1.
m 2
6. (b). Loss in P.E. = gain in K.E. l
\ Ek = Ui – Uj = – MB cos 90º – (– MB cos 0º) 2
T' = 2p = 4 sec
= 4 × 25 × 10-6 = 10-4 J mp
12 ´ lB
7. (a). t = MB sin q = ml B sin q 2
= 10-3 × 0.1 × 4p × 10-3 × 0.5
= 2p × 10-7 N-m
EBD_7156
118 DPP/ P 42
Given that µ0 = 4p × 10–1 T mA–1,
I 1
15. (c). T = 2p or T µ M = 13.4 Am2,
MB M r = 15 cm = 0.15 m and l = 5.0 cm = 0.05 m
T1 3M - 2M 1.34
= \ BH = 10–7 ×
or T2 = 5 5 s [(0.15) + (0.5) 2 ]3/2
2
T2 3M + 2M
1.34
I = 10–7 × = 0.34 × 10–4 T
16. (b). T = 2p 0.025 0.025
MB
20. (a). As the magnet is placed with its north pole pointing
2
m l / 12 south, the neutral points are obtained on the axial line.
= 2p m p lB
or T µ ml At the neutral points the magnetic field B due to the
magnet becomes equal and opposite to the horizontal
component of earth’s magnetic field i.e., BH.
1/2
æ m lö Hence, if M be the magnetic dipole moment of the
T' ç ÷ T magnet of length 2l and r the distance of neutral point
= n n or T' =
T ç ml ÷ n from the centre of the magnet, then we have
ç ÷
è ø µ0 2Mr
B= . = BH
17. (a). The volume of the bar magnet is 4p (r 2 - l 2 ) 2
mass Given that µ0 = 4p × 10–7 TmA–1 ,

V = r = 40 cm = 0.40 m, l = 15 cm = 0.15 m and
density
HH = 0.34 Gauss = 0.34 × 10–4 T
6.6 ´ 10 -3 kg 4p BH (r 2 - l 2 ) 2
= = 8.3 × 10-7 m3. \M= .
7.9 ´ 103 kg / m3 µ0 2r
The intensity of magnetization is
(0.34 ´ 10-4 ) - [(0.40)2 - (0.15)2 ]2
2 = 10–7×
M 2.5 A - m 2 ´ 0.40
I= =
V 8.3 ´ 10-7 m 2 = 8.0 Am2
The pole strength of the magnet is,
= 3.0 × 106 A/m
18. (d). The compass box will be on the axial line of the magnet, M 8.0
m= = = 26.7 Am
1 2M 1 2 ´ 2lm 2l 0.30
Hence, . = . = H tan q 21. (a). The situation is shown in figure. The horizontal
4p r 3 4p r3 component of earth’s magnetic field at the location of
Given that H = horizontal component of the earth’s the cable (angle of dip q = 0 is)
magnetic field = 30 Am–1, q = 45°,
r = 20 cm = 0.02 m,
M = 2 l m = 4 × 10–2 m Magnetic North
North
10° Geographic
-2
2 ´ 4 ´ 10 m
Hence, 3
= 30 × tan 45°=30 × 1; Magnetic Meridian
4 p (0.2)
Meridian I Cable
3 Geographic 10° Geographic
30 ´ 4p ´ (0.2) West
\m= = 37.7 Am East
2 ´ 4 ´ 10-2 Current
19. (c). As the magnet is placed with its south pole pointing
south, hence the neutral point lies on the equatorial
line. At the neutral point, the magnetic field B due to South Magnetic
the magnet becomes equal and opposite to horizontal South
component of earth’s magnetic field i.e., BH.
Hence, if M be magnetic dipole moment of the magnet
of length 2l and r the distance of the neutral point from BH = B cos q = B cos 0 = B = 0.33 Gauss
its centre, then = 0.33 × 10–4 Tesla
BH is directed horizontally in the magnetic meridian.
µ0 M The magnetic field produced by the cable at a distance
B= = BH
4p (r 2 + l 2 )3/2 of R meter is given by
DPP/ P 42 119
µ0 I Figure shows a point Q on the axis of a short bar magnet

B= lying at a distance r from the centre of the magnet. It is
2 pR given that resultant magnetic field at Q is inclined at
2.5 5.0 ´ 10 -7 an angle of 45° w.r.t. earth’s field B.
= 2 × 10–7 × = T From the figure, it is clear that
R R
Ba = B tan 45° = B
According to right-hand-palm rule no, 1, the field B is
Now for a short bar magnet in this position,
directed horizontally along BH at a point below the
cable, and opposite to BH at a point above the cable. m 0 2M
Therefore, neutral points will be obtained above the Ba = B = .
4p r 3
cable. At these points, will be equal and opposite to
BH. Thus m 0 2M
or r3 = . = 2 × 125 × 10–6
4p B
5.0 ´ 10-7
= BH = 0.33 × 10–4 . \ r = (2 × 125 × 10–6)1/3 = 6.3 cm
R 25-27
5.0 ´ 10-7 Given that earth’s magnetic field, B = 0.39 G and angle
or R = = 15 × 10–3 m = 1.5 cm of dip, q = 35°
0.33 ´ 10-4 Horizontal and vertical components of earth’s magnetic
Thus, the line of neutral points lies above and parallel field B at the location of the cable are
to the cable at a distance of 1.5 cm from it. BH = B cos q = 0.39 cos 35°
22. (a) The magnetic lines of force are in the form of closed = 0.39 × 0.82 = 0.32 Gauss and
curves whereas electric lines of force are open curves. BV = B sin q = 0.39 sin 35°
23. (a) Inside a magnet, magnetic lines of force move from
= 0.39 × 0.57 = 0.22 Gauss
south pole to north pole.
The magnetic field produced by four current carrying
24. (b) Given that pole strength, m = 5.25 × 10–2 JT–1, q =
straight cable wires at a distance R is
45°
and B = 0.42 G = 0.42 × 10–4 T. µ0 I 1.0
B¢ = × 4 = 2× 10–7 × ×4
B 2pR 0.04
45° = 0.2 × 10–4 T = 0.2 Gauss
Beq. P Resultant magnetic field below the cable
According to right - hand, palm rule no. 1, the direction
r of B¢ below the cable will be opposite to that of
BH.Therefore, at a point 4 cm below the cable, resultant
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
N S
RH = BH – B¢ = 0.32 – 0.2 = 0.12 Gauss.
Figure shows a point P on the normal bisector of a Resultant vertical component of earth’s magnetic field
short bar magnet lying at a distance r from the RV = BV = 0.22 Gauss (unchanged)
centre O of the magnet. It is given that resultant \ Resultant magnetic field below the cable is
magnetic field at P makes an angle of 45° w.r.t. earth’s
field B. R= [R 2 H + R 2 V ]
From the figure, it is clear that
Beq = B tan 45° = B. = [(0.12)2 + (0.22)2 ]
Now, for a short bar magnet in this position
= 0.25 Gauss
µ0 M The angle that R makes with the horizontal is given by
Beq = B = .
4p r3
RV
q = tan–1
µ0 M RH
or r3 = .
4p B
0.22
5.25 ´ 10-2 = tan–1 = tan–1(1.8) @ 62°
0.12
= 10–7 × = 125 × 10–7.
0.42 ´ 10-4 Resultant magnetic field above the cable
–2
\ r = 5 × 10 m = 5 cm. Again, according to right - hand - palm no. 1, the
direction of B¢ at a point above the cable is the same as
B
that of BH.
Therefore, at a point 4 cm below the cable, the
45°
horizontal component of resultant magnetic field will
O S Q be
N
r Ba RH = BH + B¢ = 0.32 + 0.20 = 0.52 Gauss
EBD_7156
120 DPP/ P 42
Vertical component of resultant magnetic field will be 28. (a)
RV = BV – 0.22 Gauss ( unchanged) 29. (d) The earth has only vertical component of its magnetic
Hence, magnitude of resultant magnetic field below field at the magnetic poles. Since compass needle is
the cable only free to rotate in horizontal plane. At north pole
the vertical component of earth's field will exert torque
R = [R 2 H + R 2 V ] on the magnetic needle so as to aligh it along its direc-
tion. As the compass needle can not rotate in vertical
= [(0.52)2 + (0.52)2 ] plane, it will rest horizontally, when placed ont he mag-
= 0.56 Gauss netic pole of the earth.
The angle that R makes with the horizontal is given by 30. (c) It is quite clear that magnetic poles always exists in
pairs. Since, one can imagine magnetic field configu-
æ RV ö æ 0.22 ö ration with three poles. When north poles or south poles
q = tan–1 ç R ÷ = tan–1 çè ÷
è Hø 0.52 ø of two magnets are glued together. They provide a three
pole field configuration. It is also known that a bar
= tan–1 (0.43) @ 23°
magnet does not exert a torque on itself due to own its
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b)
field.
DPP/ P 43 121
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 43
1. (a) Susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance is greater 24. (c)
than 1. 25. (b) Given that : H = 1600 Am–1 , f =2.4 ×10–5 Wb,
2. (c) Susceptibility of diamagnetic substance is negative and A = 0.2 cm2 = 0.2 × 10–4 m2.
it does not change with temperature. B = magnetic flux per unit cross - sectional are
3. (c) m d = 0 and m p ¹ 0
f 2.4 ´ 10 -5
= = = 1.2 Wbm–2
B A 0.2 ´ 10 -4
4. (d) m r = =4
B0 Magnetic permeability :
5. (b) Dimagnetic B 1.2 Wbm -2 or T
6. (b) Paramagnetic m= = = 7.5 × 10–4 T A–1 m
H 1600 Am -1
7. (d) A super conductor exhibits perfect diamagnetism.
8. (a) Soft iron is highly ferromagnetic. As µ = µ0 (1 + xm)
9. (a) Diamagnetism is the universal property of all
µ 7.5 ´ 10-4
substances. \ xm = -1 =
10. (c) Diamagnetic substances are repelled by magnetic field. µ0 4 ´ 3.14 ´ 10 -7
11. (b) Coercive force = 597.1 – 1 = 596.1.
12. (b) Because, diamagnetic substance, moves from stronger 26. (a) The energy lost per unit volume of a substance in a
magnetic field to weaker field. complete cycle of magnetisation is equal to the area of
13. (d) m r > 1, c > 0 the hysteresis loop.
14. (b) Hysteresis curve for a given material estimates 27. (a) Statement (4) is the only true statement among the given
hysteresis loss. choices.
15. (a) Neon atom is diamagnetic, hence it’s net magnetic 28. (b) The susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance decreases
moment is zero. with the rise of temperature in a complicated manner.
16. (b) On heating, different domains have net magnetisation After Curie's point the susceptibility of ferromagnetic
in them which are randomly distributes. Thus the net substance varies inversely with its absolute
magnetisation of the substance due to various domains temperature. Ferromagnetic substance obey’s Curies
decreases to minimum. law only above its Curie point.
17. (b) Repelled due to induction of similar poles. 29. (d) A paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation
when cooled, this is because at lower temperature, the
18. (d) From the characteristic of B - H curve.
tendency to disrupt the alignment of dipoles (due to
19. (c) Diamagnetic substances are feebly repelled by magnets. magnetising field) decreases on account of reduced
20. (d) Net magnetic induction B = B0 + Bm = µ0H + µ0M random thermal motion.
21. (d) c m = (mr - 1) Þ c m = (5500 - 1) = 5499 30. (d) The permeability of a ferromagnetic material dependent
ur ur
m B on magnetic field, B = K m B0 , where B0 is applied
22. (c) Q mr = =
m 0 Hm 0 ur
field. The total magnetic field B inside a ferromagnet
8p may be 103 or 104 times the applied field B0 The
or mr = = 104
2 ´ 10 ´ 4 p ´ 10-7
3 permeability Km of a ferromagnetic material is not
ur uur
m constant, neither the field B nor the magnetization M
23. (a) WH = VAft =
d
Aft ur
increases linearly with B even at small value of B0.
0.6 From the hysteresis curve, magnetic permeability is
or WH = × 0.722 × 50
7.8 ´ 103 greater for lower field.
= 277.7 × 10-5 Joule
EBD_7156
122 DPP/ P 4 4
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 44
r r e = 4 × 10–5 × 3.14 × (.5)2 × 2 = 6.28 × 10–5 volt
(1) (a) f = B.A
(9) (d) Rate of decrease of area of the semicircular ring
= ( 0.02iˆ ) . ( 30iˆ + 16ˆj + 23kˆ ) × 10–4 dA
– = (2R) V
= 0.6 × 10-4 Wb = 60m Wb dt
(2) (c) The induced emf According to Faraday’s law of induction, induced emf
d df dA
E = – df/dt = – (3t2 + 2t + 3) × 10-3 e= - = –B = – B(2RV)
V)
dt dt dt
(because given flux is in mWb).
Thus E = ( – 6t – 2) × 10–3 × × × × ×
N ×
At t = 2 sec, × × ×
E = ( – 6 × 2 – 2) × 10–3 = –14 mV. × × × × ×
(3) (a) The direction of current in the solenoid is clockwise. × × × × ×
On displacing it towards the loop a current in the loop M Q vt
will be induced in opposite sense so as to oppose its 2R
approach. Therefore the direction of induced current The induced current in the ring must generate magnetic
as observed by the observer will be anticlockwise. field in the upward direction. Thus Q is at higher
(4) (b) When north pole of the magnet is moved away, then potential.
south pole is induced on the face of the loop in front of (10) (b) E = Blv
the magnet i.e. as seen from the magnet side, a clockwise
induced current flows in the loop. This makes free 360 ´ 1000
= 4 × 10–4 × 50 × =2V
electrons to move in opposite direction, to plate a. Thus 60 ´ 60
excess positive charge appear on plate b. (11) (c) The flux through the area is
(5) (d) If electron is moving from left to right, the flux linked f = BA cos 57º = 42 × 10-6 × 2.5 × 0.545
with the loop (which is into the page) will first increase = 57 × 10-6 Wb.
and then decrease as the eletron passes by. So the (12) (a) The magnetic flux linked with the loop at any instant of
induced current in the loop will be first anticlockwise time t is given by
and will change direction as the electron passes by.
f = BAN cos wt
df or f = 10Ba2 cos wt
(6) (c) E = – Here N = 10, A = a2
dt
or df = – Edt = (0 - f) (13) (b) According to Lenz’s Law
or f = 4 × 10–3 × 0.1 300 ´ 103
= 4 × 10–4 weber (14) (c) e = Bvl = 0.4 × 10–4 × ´ 3 = 10–2 V
60 ´ 60
df d (15) (b) Magnetic flux passing through the disc is f = BA
(7) (d) e = =– [10t2 + 5t + 1] × 10–3
dt dt weber
= – [10 × 10–3 (2t) + 5 × 10–3] = 0.01 × 3.14 × (15 × 10–2 meter)2
meter 2
at t = 5 second = 7.065 × 10–4 weber.
e = –[10 × 10–2 + 5 × 10–3] = [0.1 + 0.005] The line joining the centre and the circumference of the
|e| = 0.105V disc cuts 7.065 x 10-4 weber flux in one round. So, the
(8) (a) For each spoke, the induced emf between the centre O rate of cutting flux (i.e. induced emf)
and the rim will be the same = flux × number of revolutions per second
1 100
e= BwL2 = BpL2 f (Q w = 2pf) = 7.065 × 10–4 × = 3.9 × 10–4 volt.
2 60 ´ 3
Further for all spokes, centre O will be positive while (16) (c) The magnetic flux passing through each turn of a coil of area
rim will be negative. Thus all emf's are in parallel giving A, perpendicular to a magnetic field B is given by
total emf e = BpL2 f f1 = BA.
independent of the number of the spokes. The magnetic flux through it on rotating it through 180º
Substituting the values will be
f2 = – BA.(- sign is put because now the flux lines
enters the coils through the outer face)
DPP/ P 4 4 123
\ change in magnetic flux
d ( Nf )
D f = f1 – f2 = – BA – (BA) = – 2BA. Qe=–
Suppose this change takes in time Dt. According to dt
Faraday's law, the emf induced in the coil is given by d
= –N (BA cos wt)
Df 2NBA dt
e=–N = , = NBAw sin wt
Dt Dt
where N is number of turns in the coil. The current in \ emax = NABw
the coil will be = 60 × 2 × 10–2 × 0.5 × 2p × 1800/60 = 113 volt.
Hence, induced emf can be 111 V, 112 V and 113.04 V
e 1 2NBA (23) (b) The change is flux linked with the coil on rotating it
i= =
R R Dt through 180º is
where R is the resistance of the circuit. The current = nAB – (–nAB) = 2nAB
persists only during the change of flux i.e. for the time
df
interval Dt second. So, the charge passed through the \ induced e.m.f. = –
circuit is dt
2NBA 2 ´ 1 ´ 0.1
q = i × Dt = . = 2nAB/dt (numerically) = = 20 V
R 0.01
Here N = 500, B = 0.2 weber/meter2, The coil is closed and has a resistance of 2.0 W.
A = 4.0 cm2 = 4.0 × 10–4 meter2 and R = 50 ohm. Therefore i = 20/2 = 10A.
(24) (d) Initial magnetic flux f1 = 5.5 × 10–4 weber.
2 ´ 500 ´ 0.2 ´ 4.0 ´ 10-4 Final magnetic flux f2 = 5 × 10–5 weber.
\ q=
50 \ change in flux
= 1.6 × 10–3 coulomb. Df = f2 - f1 = (5 × 10-5) – (5.5 × 10-4) = – 50 × 10–5
(17) (a) T weber.
(18) (c) The induced emf between centre and rim of the rotating Time interval for this change, Dt = 0.1 sec.
disc is \ induced emf in the coil
1 1 Df (-50 ´ 10-5 )
E= BwR2 = × 0.1 × 2p × 10 × (0.1)2 e=–N = – 1000 × = 5 volt.
2 2 Dt 0.1
= 10p × 10–3 volt, Resistance of the coil, R = 10 ohm. Hence induced
(19) (a) The induced emf current in the coil is
E = Blv = 0.2 × 10–4 × 1 × 180 × 1000/3600
= 0.2 × 18/3600 = 1 × 10–3. V = 1mV e 5 volt
i= = = 0.5 ampere.
(20) (d) The induced emf is obtained by considering a strip on R 10ohm
the disc fig. Then, the linear speed of a small element dr (25) (a), (26) (c), (27) (b)
at a distance r from the centre is = wr. The induced emf (a) The current of the battery at any instant, I = E/R.
across the ends of the small element is- The magnetic force due to this current
de = B(dr)v = B wr dr
Thus the induced emf across the inner and outer sides EBl
FB = IBL =
of the disc is R
This magnetic force will accelerate the rod from its
b 1
e= ò a Bwr dr 2
= Bw (b2 – a2) position of rest. The motional e.m.f. developed in the
rod id B/v.
r r r The induced current,
(21) (c) The induced emf e = – (v ´ B).l
r r r r Blv
For the part PX, v ^ B , and the angle between (v ´ B) Iinduced =
R
r
direction (the dotted line in figure and l is (90 – q). The magnetic force due to the induced current,
Thus
B2l 2 v
eP –ex = vBl cos (90 – q/2) = vBl sin (q/2) Finduced = Iinduced =
Similarly ey – ep = vBl sin (q/2) R
Therefore induced emf From Fleming’s left hand rule, foce FB is to the right
between X and Y is eyx = 2 B v l sin (q/2) and Finduced is to the left.
(22) (a) Given, area = 10 × 20 cm2 = 200 × 10-4 m2 Net force on the rod = FB – Finduced.
B = 0.5 T, N = 60, w = 2p × 1800/60
EBD_7156
124 DPP/ P 4 4
From Newton’s law, (b) The rod will attain a terminal velocity at t ® ¥, i.e.,
dv when e–t/t = 0, the velocity is independent of time.
FB - Finduced = m
dt E
vT =
Bl
EBl B2l 2 v dv
- =m (d) The induced current Iinduced = Blv/R. When the rod
R R dt has attained terminal speed.
On separating variables and integrating speed from v0
to v and time from 0 to t, we have Bl æ E ö
Iinduced = ´ = E/ R
dv Bl
R çè Bl ÷ø
= dt The current of battery and the induced current are of
E - Bvl mR
same magnitude, hence net current through the circuit
v dv Bl t is zero.
ò0 E - Bvl = mR ò0 dt (28) (c) Since both the loops are identical (same area and number
of turns) and moving with a same speed in same
æ E - Bvl ö B l
2 2
- ln ç magnetic field. Therefore same emf is induced in both
÷= t
the coils. But the induced current will be more in the
è E ø mR
copper loop as its resistance will be lesser as compared
B2 l2 to that of the aluminium loop.
E - Bvl - t
=e mR (29) (c) As the aircraft flies, magnetic flux changes through its
E wings due to the vertical component of the earth’s
E magnetic field. Due to this, induced emf is produced
v= (1 - e- t / r ) across the wings of the aircraft. Therefore, the wings
Bl
of the aircraft will not be at the same potential.
mR (30) (c) Lenz’s Law is based on conservation of energy and
where t=
(Bl) 2 induced emf opposes the cause of it i.e., change in
magnetic flux.
DPP/ P 45 125
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 45
dI 1.0 22 I
1. (a). e = – L = – 10 × 10–3 = –1Volt. = P Þ IP = 0.01 A.
dt 0.01 220 0.1
\ | e | = 1 volt. 9. (c). Vp = 220V, Ip = 5S, Vs = 2200V
dI d Pp
2. (a). e = – L =–L [3t2 + 2t] Ps = , Is = ?
dt dt 2
= – L [6t + 2] = –10 × 10–3 [6t + 2]
(e)at t = 2 = – 10 × 10–3 (6 × 2 + 2) Vp Ip
Q VsIs =
= – 10 × 10–3 (14) = – 0.14 Volt 2
|e| = 0.14 volt. After putting the given value you will find
3. (a). The mutual inductance between two coils depends on Is = 0.25 A.
their degree of flux linkage, i.e., the fraction of flux linked 10. (d). During decary of current
with one coil which is also linked to the other coil. Here,
the two coils in arrangement (a) are placed with their planes Rt Rt 100´10-3
- E 100 100´10-3 1
parallel. This will allow maximum flux linkage. i = i0 e L
= eL = e = A.
R 100 e
dI1 0 - 10
4. (b). e2 = – M =- = 3 × 104 volt = 30 kV.. 11. (c). In a generator e.m.f. is induced according as Lenz’s
dt 3 ´10-3 rule.
5. (d). L2 and L3 are in parallel. Thus their combination gives The minus sign indicates that the direction of the induced
L 2 L3 e.m.f. is such as to oppose the change in current.
L' = = 0.25 H 12. (a). 'Immediately' after pressing the switch S, the current in
L 2 + L3
the coil L, due to its self-induction will be zero, that is
The L' and L1 are in series, thus the equivalent inductance i2 = 0.
is L = L1 + L' = 0.75 + 0.25 = 1H The current will only be found in the resistance R1 and this
6. (a). We use e = – L DI/Dt to determine the value of induced will be the total current in the circuit.
emf. (i) DI = (7 – 0) = 7A,
E 10 volt
Dt = (2 – 0) ms = 2ms \ i = i1 = = = 2.0 ampere.
R 2 5.0 volt
7
Thus e = – 4.6 × = – 16.1 × 103 volt 13. (a). (i) In series the same current i will be induced in both
2 ´ 10-3 the inductors and the total magnetic-flux linked with them
(ii) DI = 5 – 7 = – 2A, will be equal to the sum of the fluxes linked with them
dt = (5 – 2) ms = 3 ms individualy, that is,
(-2) F = L1i + L2i.
Thus e = – 4.6 × = 3.07 × 103 V If the equivalent inductance be L, then F = Li.
3 ´ 10-3 \ Li = L1i + L2i or L = L1 + L2.
7. (b). I = I0 (1 – e– t/t) (ii) In parallel, let the induced currents in the two coils be i1
1 and i2. Then the total induced current is
Where I = I and t = L/R
2 0 di di1 di 2
i = i1 + i2 \ = +
1 dt dt dt
Thus I = I (1 – e – t/t ) In parallel, the induced e.m.f. across each coil will be the
2 0 0
same.
1 di1 di 2
or = e – t/t or 2 = e+ t/t or log 2 = t/t Hence e = – L1
2 = –L2 .
dt dt
50 ´10-3 di
Thus t = t loge 2 = × 0.693 = 1.385 If the equivalent inductance be L, then e = – L .
0.025 dt
8. (a). VS = IS ZS Þ 22 = IS × 220
e di æ di1 di 2 ö e e
\ IS = 0.1A \ =- = – çè + +
dt ÷ø
=
L dt dt L1 L2
VS IP
=
VP IS
EBD_7156
126 DPP/ P 45
1 1 1 L1L 2
or = + or L= .
L L1 L 2 L1 + L2 dx
14. (d). If we try to find field of the small coil and then calculate A B
flux through long solenoid, the problem becomes very
difficult. So we use the following fact about mutual I
inductance. x
f 2 f1 C
M21 = M12, = F
I1 I2
Thus if I current flows in long solenoid, then flux f through
small coil is the same as the flux f2 that is obtained when I l
current flows through the small coil. Therefore, E D
f2 = f1 = (Field at small coil) × (area) × (turns)
æ N2 ö m N N AI
= ç m0 l I÷ (AN ) = 0 1 2
è 2 ø 1 l2
15. (a). The induced e.m.f. is a +l 2a + l
m 0 Ia é dx dx ù m 0 Ia æ 2a + l ö
Di f= ê ò + ò ú= 1n ç
e= –M or M =–
e
2p ê x x ú 2p è l ÷ø
Dt Di / D t ë l a +l û
Here e = 1500 volt. f m0 a æ 2a + l ö
M= ÞM= 1n ç ÷
1500 1500 ´ 0.001 I(primary) 2p è l ø
\M=– = = 0.5 henry..
(0 - 3.0) / 0.001 3.0
dI
dI p d ( I0 sin wt ) e = -M
16. (c). ES = M =M dt
dt dt
= MI0w |cos wt| m 0I0a æ 2a + l ö
e = -MI0 = - 1n ç
Þ Crest value = MI0w 2p è l ÷ø
= 1.5 ´ 1 × 2p × 50
= 471 V 2
e
é m0 1n 2a +l I ù at
ê 2p 2 0ú ( )
t=ë û
1 1 l
2 Heat produced =
17. (a) U = Li2 = ´100 ´10 -3 ´ (10 ) = 5J
2 2 R 8l
Vs 5 Vs 28. (a) Hysteresis loss in the core of transformer is directly
18. (c) Transformation ratio k = V Þ 3 = 60 Þ Vs = 100 V proportional to the hysteresis loop area of the core
p
material. Since soft iron has narrow hysteresis loop
ip Ns ip 1 area, that is why soft iron core is used in the transformer.
19. (b) = Þ = Þ i p = 0.04 A 29. (d) Efficiency of electric motor is maximum when the back
is Np 4 100
emf set up in the armature is half the value of the applied
Output 80 20 ´ 120 battery emf.
20. (a) h= Þ = 30. (a) Transformer works on ac only, ac changes in magnitude
Input 100 1000 ´ il
as well as in direction.
20 ´ 120 ´ 100
Þ il = = 3A.
1000 ´ 80
21. ()
22. (b)
23. (a)
24. (b)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b)
Consider a strip at a distance x from the wire of thickness dx.
Magnetic flux associated with this strip
m 0 Ia
D f = B ad x = dx
2px
DPP/ P 46 127
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 46
1. (b) The coil has inductance L besides the resistance R . 12. (b)
V 120
Hence for ac it’s impedance resistance R 2 + X L2 will i= = = 0.016 A
2 2 2
R +w L 100 + 4p2 ´ 602 ´ 202
be larger than it’s impedance R for dc.
13. (a) The voltage across a L-R combination is given by
i 4
2. (b) ir.m.s. = 0 = = 2 2 amperee V 2 = VR2 + VL2
2 2
T VL = V 2 - VR2 = 400 - 144 = 256 = 16 volt.
3. (d) The current takes sec to reach the peak value.
4 14. (b) Reading of ammeter,
2p 1 Vrms Vo wC
In the given question = 200p Þ T = sec i rms = =
T 100 Xc 2
1 200 2 ´ 100 ´ (1 ´ 10-6 )

\ Time to reach the peak value = 400 sec =
2
4. (b) 50 c/s or Hz
= 2 × 10–2 A = 20 m A
2pt
5. (b) E = E0 cos wt = E0 cos R C
T
15. (a)
2 p ´ 50 ´ 1 p
= 10 cos = 10 cos = 5 3 volt. VR VR
600 6
~
i12 + i22 1 Let the applied voltage be V, volt.
6. (c) irms = = (i12 + i22 )1/ 2
22 Here, VR = 12 V, VC = 5V
7. (c) Hot wire ammeter reads rms value of current. Hence
V= VR2 + VC2 = (12 )2 + ( 5)2 = 13 V.
its peak value = irms ´ 2 = 14.14 amp
16. (c) Z = X L = 2p´ 60 ´ 0.7
V0 120
8. (b) Vrms = = = 84.8 V 120 120
2 1.414 \i = = = 0.455 amperee
Z 2p ´ 60 ´ 0.7
9. (d) Peak value to r. m. s. value means, current becomes
17. (d) Current will be max at first time when
1 100 pt + p/3 = p/2 Þ 100 pt = p/6 Þ t = 1/600 s.
times.
2 18. (d) Z = R 2 + X 2 = R 2 + (2p fL)2
If peak is at t = 0, current is of the form
2
1 æ 0.4 ö
i = i0 cos100pt Þ ´ i0 = i0 cos100pt = (30) 2 + ç 2 p ´ 50 ´ ÷ = 900 + 1600 = 50W
2 è p ø
p 1 V 200
Þ cos = cos100 pt Þ t = sec = 2.5 ´10 -3 sec. i= = = 4 ampere
4 400 Z 50
19. (d) In purely inductive circuit voltage leads the current by 90o .
10. (b) Z = R 2 + X L2 , X L = wL and w = 2pf
P 60
20. (a) Current through the bulb i = = = 6A
2 2 2 2 V 10
\ Z = R + 4p f L
60 W, 10 W
11. (b) The applied voltage is given by V = VR2 + VL2 i L
V = (200)2 + (150)2 = 250 volt 10 V VL

i
100 V, 50 Hz
EBD_7156
128 DPP/ P 46
V= VR2 + VL2 V = V0 sin ( wt - f)
(100)2 = (10)2 + VL2 Þ VL = 99.5 Volt

The peak value V0 = 220 2 = 311V
Also VL = iXL = i ´ (2pvL)
Þ 99.5 = 6 ´ 2 ´ 3.14 ´ 50 ´ L = Þ L = 0.052 H. and as in case of ac,
wL 2p ´ 200 1 4
21. (a) Phase angle tan f = = ´ = V0
R 300 p 3 Vrms = ;Vrms = 220 V
2
4
\ f = tan -1 26. (b) In case of ac,
3
22. (a) The root mean square voltage is effective voltage.
2 2 622
23. (c) E = 141 sin (628t), Vav = V0 = ´ 311 = V
p p p
E0 141
Erms = = = 100V and 2pf = 628 314
2 1.41 27. (a) As w = 2pf ,2pf = 314i.e., f = = 50Hz
2´ p
Þ f = 100 Hz 28. (d) When ac flows through an inductor current lags behind
the emf., by phase of p/2, inductive reactance,
24. (d) Time taken by the current to reach the maximum value X L = wL = p.2 f .L, so when frequency increases
T 1 1 correspondingly inductive reactance also increases.
t= = = = 5 ´ 10-3 sec 29. (c) Like direct current, an alternating current also produces
4 4v 4 ´ 50
magnetic field. But the magnitude and direction of the
and i0 = irms 2 = 10 2 = 14.14 amp field goes on changing continuously with time.
30. (b) We can use a capacitor of suitable capacitance as a
25. (a) As in case of ac, choke coil, because average power consumed per cycle
in an ideal capacitor is zero. Therefore, like a choke
coil, a condenser can reduce ac without power
dissipation.
DPP/ P 47 129
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 47
13. (b) Resonance frequency
1. (a) For resonant frequency to remain same
LC should be const. LC = const 1 1
w= = = 2500 rad/sec
-3
L LC 8 ´10 ´ 20 ´10-6
Þ LC = L' × 2C Þ L ' =
2
V 220
2. (b) At resonance, LCR circuit behaves as purely resistive Resonance current = = = 5A
R 44
circuit, for purely resistive circuit power factor = 1
3. (a) If the current is wattless than power is zero. Hence 100 10 -3 p
14. (c) P = Vr.m.s. ´ ir.m.s. ´ cos f = ´ ´ cos
phase difference f = 90° 2 2 3
4. (c) VL = 46 volts, VC = 40 volts, VR = 8 volts
102 ´ 10-3 1 10-1
= ´ = = 0.025 watt
E.M.F. of source V = 82 + (46 - 40)2 = 10 volts 2 2 4
15. (b) R = XL = 2XC
1
5. (c) Resonant frequency = does not depend on Z = R 2 + (X L - X C ) 2 XL–XC
2p LC
resistance. = (2X C )2 + (2X C - X C ) 2 Z
6. (a) At resonance LCR series circuit behaves as pure
= 4X 2C + X 2C
resistive circuit. For resistive circuit f = 0o
f
5R R
R R = 5X C =
7. (b) cos f = Z = 2
R2 + w2 L2 X L - XC 2XC - XC
tan f = =
12 R 2XC
= Þ cos f = 0.30
(12) + 4 ´ p ´ (60) 2 ´ (0.1) 2 -1 æ 1 ö
2 2 1
tan f = ; f = tan çè ÷ø
2 2
1 1
8. (a) f = Þ f µ 16. (d) Phase angle f = 90o , so power P = Vrms I rms cos f = 0
2p LC C
2
9. (b) In non resonant circuits Vrms (30)2
17. (b) P = = = 90 W
R 10
1
impedance Z = , with rise in 18. (c) At A : X C > X L
2
1 æ 1 ö
+ wC -
2 ç ÷ At B : X C = X L
R è wL ø
At C : X C < X L
frequency Z decreases i.e. current increases so circuit
19. (d) The instantaneous values of emf and current in
behaves as capacitive circuit.
inductive circuit are given by E = E0 sin at and
R 10 1
10. (c) cos f = = = Þ f = 60o pö
Z 20 2 æ
i = i0 sin ç w - ÷ respectively..
11. (d) è 2ø
1 æ pö
- 2pfL So, Pinst = Ei = E0 sin wt ´ i0 sin ç wt - ÷
XC - X L 2pfC è 2ø
12. (a) tan f = Þ tan 45o =
R R = E0i0 sin wt cos wt
1 1
ÞC= = E0i0 sin 2wt (sin 2wt = 2sin wt cos wt )
2pf (2pfL + R) 2
Hence, angular frequency of instantaneous power is
2w .
EBD_7156
130 DPP/ P 47
20. (d) The voltage VL and VC are equal and opposite so (DVL + DVC )max = DVC - DVL = 7.4 - 2.6 = 4.8 volt
voltmeter reading will be zero. 2 2
26. (c) E m = (DVR )max + ( DVC - DVL )max
Also R = 30W, X L = X C = 25W
= (8.8)2 + (4.8) 2 = 10 volt
V V 240
So i = = = = 8A 27. (a) If f then (DVL)max
R 2 + ( X L - X C )2 R 30
1
28. (a) Capacitive reactance XC = . When capacitance
1 L wC
21. (d) Since quality factor, Q = (C) increase, the capacitive reactance decreases. Due
R C
22. (d) to decrease in its values, the current in the circuit will
23. (a) æ ö
ç I= E ÷
24. (c) Reactance Z = ( X L - X C )2 + R 2 increase ç
è R 2
+ X 2 ÷ and hence brightness of
C ø
source (or electric lamp) will also increase.
= (80 - 50 )2 + 402 29. (b) The phase angle for the LCR circuit is given by
= 50 W
1
R 40 X L - X C wL - wC
Power factor = cos f = = = 0.8 tan f = =
Z 50 R R
Vrms 200V where XL, XC are inductive reactance and capacitive
Irms = = =4A reactance respectively when XL > XC then tan f is
Z 50W
Power current = Irms.cos f = 4 × 0.8 positive i.e. f is positive (between 0 and p/2). Hence
= 3.2 A emf leads the current.
Wattless current = Irms.sin f = 4 × 0.6 30. (a) If resistor is used in controlling ac supply, electrical
= 2.4 A energy will be wasted in the form of heat energy across
Sol. 25-27 the resistance wire. However, ac supply can be
DVL controlled with choke without any wastage of energy.
This is because, power factor (cos f) for resistance is
unity and is zero for an inductance. [P = EI cos f].
DVR
25. (d)
DVC
DPP/ P 48 131
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 48
N – m2 E0 = 2 3 × 102 N/C
1. (d) m0 = 4p × 10–7, e0 = 8.85 × 10–12
C2 P 2 1
10. (b) I = or = W/m2
1 meter A 4 p ´ 4 8p
so c = 3 ´ 108
m 0 e0 = sec
.
1 2
2. (b) Wavelength of visible spectrum is 3900 Å – 7800 Å. I= Î0 E0 c
2
3. (a) lg–rays < lx-rays < la–rays < lb–rays.
4. (c) Electric field between the plates of the capacitor is given 2I 2 ´ 1´ 36p´109
E0 = Î c or = 30 N/C
by 0 8p´ 3 ´108
s q
E= or B02
Î0 A Î0
11. (a) UB =
4µ0
Flux through the area considered
q A q E0 E
f= AÎ ´ 4 = 4Î Also =c \B = 0
0 0 B0 0 c
df E E0
Displacement corrent id = Î0 Hence B0 =
dt 1
µ0 Î0
dæ q ö i
= Î0 × dt ç 4 Î ÷ = 4
è 0ø
E 20µ0 Î0 100 ´ 8.84 ´ 10-12
5. (a) Electric field between the plates is \ UB = or
4µ0 4
Q
E= \ UB = 2.21 × 10–10 J/m3
Î0 A 12. (a) The speed of electromagnetic waves and in a medium
is given by
Q
\ fE = E. A or ×A 1
Î0 A
n=
(µe )
df E d æ Qö
\ id = Î0 or Î0 dt ç Î ÷ Where µ and e are absolute permeability and absolute
dt è 0ø permittivity of the medium.
We know that, µ = µ0µr and e = e0er. Hence
dQ
\ id = = i (charging current) 1 1 1
dt v= = ´
Hence id = 1A ( µ0µr .e0 e r ) (µ0 e 0 ) ( µr e r )
6. (c) E × B
7. (b) Since the direction of propogation of EM wave is given
c2
)
c
by E × B ( ^ ^
\ j ´ i = -k ^ or v =
( µr e r )
or er =
n2 (µr )
1
8. (d) Speed of E.M. wave = in medium hence (3 ´ 108 )2
µ0 Î0 µr Îr \ er = = 2.25
(2 ´ 108 )2 ´ 1
it will travel with different speed in different medium.
13. (a) Given By = 2 × 10–7 sin (0.5 × 103x + 1.5 × 1011t)
1 2 Comparing it with a standard equation for a progresive
9. (b) I = Î cE
2 0 0 wave travelling along the negative direction of x-axis
is
2I 2 ´ 500 ´109 ´ 36 p 2p æ 2px 2pvt ö
E0 = Î0 c or y = r sin (x + vt) = r sin çè + ÷
p´ 3 ´ 108 l l l ø
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132 DPP/ P 48
\ Speed and wavelength of wave becomes half and
æ 2px ö
= r sin ç + 2pnt ÷ frequency remain unchanged.
è l ø
11 For 25 - 27
2pn = 1.5 × 10
h = 150 km = 150 × 103 m
1.5 ´ 1011 Nm = 9 × 1010 per m3
n= = 23.9 × 109 Hz = 23.9 Hz D = 250 km = 250 × 103 m
2p
25. (a) Critical frequency of layer
14. (c) The given equation
Ey = 0.5 cos[2p × 108 (t – x/c)] ..... (1) fc = 9 N m = 9 ´ 9 ´ 1010 = 2.7 ´ 106 Hz.
indicates that the electromagnetic waves are 26. (b) Maximum usuable frequency
propagating along the positive direction of X-axis.
The standard equation of electromagnetic wave is given 2
D2 6
æ 250 ´ 103 ö
by Ey = E0 cosw(t – x/c) ..... (2) f = fc 1 + = 2.7 ´ 10 ´ 1 + ç
3÷
Comparing the given eq. (1) with the standard eq. (2), 4h 2 è 4 ´ 150 ´ 10 ø
we get w = 2p × 108 = 3.17 × 106 Hz.
or 2pn = 2p × 108 27. (c) If angle of incidence at this layer
\ n = 108 per second is fi , from second law of f = f c sec
f i.
c 3 ´ 108
Now, l = = =3m
n 108 f 3.17 ´ 106
sec fi = = = 1.174
15. (a) The maximum value of magnetic field (B0) is given by fc 2.7 ´ 106
E0 E0 fi = sec -1 (1.174) = 31.6°
B0 = = = 10–6 tesla
c c 28. (d) The electromagnetic waves of shorter wavelength do
The magnetic field will be along Z-axis not suffer much diffraction from the obstacles of earth's
The maximum magnetic force on the electron is
atmosphere so they can travel long distance.
Fb = |q (v × B)| = q n B0
= (1.6 × 10–19) × (2.0 × 107) × (10–6) 29. (b) The wavelength of these waves ranges between 300 Å
= 3.2 × 10–18 N and 4000 Å that is smaller wavelength and higher
16. (c) b-rays are beams of fast electrons. frequency. They are absorbed by atmosphere and
17. (b) convert oxygen into ozone. They cause skin diseases
and they are harmful to eye and cause permanent
c 3 ´ 108
18. (d) v = = 1.8 ×108m/sec blindness.
mr er = 1.3 ´ 2.14 30. (b) Radio waves can be polarised because they are
19. (c) lm > lv > lx transverse in nature. Sound waves in air are longitudinal
r r in nature.
20. (d) Direction of wave propagation is given by E×B .
mr m
21 . (c) Wave impedance Z = ´ 0
er e0
50
= ×376.6=1883W
2
22. (a)
23. (a) b- rays are beams of fast electrons.
me
24. (a) Refractive index = m 0e 0
e
Þ Then refractive index = =2
e0
134 DPP/ P 49
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 49
360 360 (5) (c) Small and erect image is formed only by convex mirror.
(1) (a) Here, n = = =4 Plane mirror from images equal to object and concave
q 90
mirror form images bigger than object.
\ n is an even number. (6) (b) The image will be formed by the plane mirror at a 30
M2 cm behind it, while the image by convex mirror will be
formed at 10 cm behind the convex mirror.
Since for convex mirror u = – 50 cm
I2 O v = 10 cm
1 1 1 -1 + 5 4
= + = =
f -50 10 50 50
c• M1
50
f= = 12.5 cm
I3 4
I1 Therefore the radius of curvature of convex mirror is
r = 2 f = 25 cm
Thus, number of images formed = n – 1 = 3. All these (7) (a) The image of object O from mirrror M1 is I1 and the
three images lie on a circle with centre at C (The point image of I1 (the vitual object) from mirror M2 is I3.
of intersection of mirrors M1 and M2 ) and whose radius The image of object O from mirror M2 is I2 and the
is equal to the distance between C and object. image of I2 (the virtual object) from mirror M1 is I4.
(2) (c) Here, [n] = 5 Þ n – 1 £ 5 £ n Notice that this interpretation, according to ray diagram
rules, is valid only for Fig. (A). All others are
360 360 inconsistent.
\ –1£5£
q q (8) (a) Angle betwen incident ray and mirror = 90º - 30º = 60º
360 360
or, q ³ or q £
6 5
\ 60º £ q £ 72º 60º 30° 30° X
(3) (d) For the given q = 50º, 30º
60º
360 360
n= = = 7.2
q 50
The integer value of (7.2) is 7.
Thus number of images formed is 7. By law of reflection Ð i = Ð r
(4) (a) The situation is illustrated in figure. So angle of reflection Ð r = 30º.
Hence angle between mirror and reflected ray = 60º
M2 (9) (b) As shown in figure, ray AB goes to mirror M1, gets
q reflected and travels along BC and then gets reflected
B
a C
by M2 and goes in CD direction. If the angle between
b a N2 M1 and M2 be a, then
N1 X
i M1
q 90º-i i
O A M1 E
a
B A
XA is the incident ray. BC is the final reflected ray. It a D
is given that BC is parallel to mirror M1. Look at the
a a a
assignment of the angles carefully. Now N2 is normal M2
O C
to mirror M2. Therefore b = q
Then from D OAB In D OBC , ÐOBC and ÐOCB are equal to a
q + b + 90º – i = 180º \ 3a = 180º
or q + q + 90º – i = 180º or i = 2q – 90º a = 60º
Thus if the angle of incidence is i = 2q - 90º, then the
final reflected ray will be parallel to the first mirror.
EBD_7156
DPP/ P 49 135
(10) (a) Here, Object distance , u = – 15cm (12) (d) u = –50 cm , f = 25cm
focal length , f = – 5 cm 1 1 1
Object height, h0 = 0.2 cm =- + ;
25 50 v
O 1 1 1 2 +1 3
= + = =
v 25 50 50 50
I 50
v= = 16.6 cm.
3
We know, mirror formula, 1 1 2
(13) (a) We know, + =
1 1 1
v u R
+ = uR
v u f Þv=
2u - R
uf dv (2u - R).R - uR.2 du
ÞV = = .
u-f dt (2u - R)2 dt
(-15)( -5) æ R ö du
2
= = – 7.5 cm = –ç .
-15 + 5 è 2u - R ÷ø dt
Again, magnification, 2
dv æ R ö
-7.5 \ Speed of image =ç
è 2u - R ÷ø
v 1 .
m =- =- =- dt
u -15 2
du æ R ö2
= V
Now, | m | =
hi dt çè 2u – R ÷ø 0
ho (14) (a) For shrot linear object du and dv represent size of
object and image respectively.
0.2
Þ hi = | m | h o = cm = 0.1 cm
2 \
\
Thus, the image is formed at 7.5 cm from the pole of

\
2
\ \
the mirror and its size is 0.1 cm. 1

(11) (a)
\ \ \ \ \
u b
P O u+ du
\ \
\\
C F I
1 1 1
We know, + =
v u f
v2
Þ dv = – .du
u2
Here, Object distance, u = – 30 cm
Focal length, f = + 20 cm v2
Þ |db| = |du|
1 1 1 u2
We know, mirror formula, + =
v u f 2
æ f ö
uf -30 ´ 20 =ç ÷ .b
Þv= = = + 12 cm èf–uø
u - f -30 - 20
Again, magnification , v 1 1 1 u u
15. (b) \ m = - .Also = + Þ = + 1
-v -12cm 2 u f v u f v
m= = =
u 30cm 5
u u -v f
Now, Image height = m × object height Þ- = 1- Þ =
v f u f -u
2
= ´ 0.5 cm = 0.2 cm f
5 so m =
Thus the image is formed behind the mirror at a distance f -u
of 12 cm from the pole. Image height is 0.2 cm.
136 DPP/ P 49
16. (b) Given u = – 15 cm, f = – 10 cm, O = 1 cm
-f
–n = Þ nf + nu = –f
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 -f - u
+ = , = - = -
v u f v f u -10 -15
-(n + 1)
\ v = – 30 cm nu = –f –nf Þu= f
n
I v -30 22. (d) Here image can be real or virtual. If the image is real
=- =- =–2
O u -15 f = –30, u = ?, m = –3
I = – 2 × 1 = – 2 cm f -30
Image is inverted and on the same side (real) of size 2 m= Þ –3 = ; u = – 40 cm.
f -u -30 - u
cm. If the image is virtual
17. (b) As shown in the figure, when the object (O) is placed
between F and C, the image (I) is formed beyond C. It f -30
m= Þ 3= Þ u = –20 cm.
is in this condition that when the student shifts his eyes f -u -30 - u
towards left, the image appears to the right of the object 23. (b) By keeping the incident ray is fixed, if plane mirror
pin. rotates through an angle q reflected ray rotates through
an angle 2q
Movement towards left
F
q
I C O
q
q
A
18. (a)
I
30
60º º P
30º
30º N
B
O Q 24. (d) Real image
O
Ð i = Ð r = 30º I Virtual object
\ Ð OIQ = 60º
\ IOQ = 90º – 60º = 30º
19. (d) The image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual.
20. (d) From the ray diagram.
M 25. (b,c) Convex mirror and concave lens form, virtual image
A 2L X N for all positions of object.
d/2 (26) (a); (27) (d)
D L B
d/2
X
O
In DANM and DADB
I
ÐADB = ÐANM = 90° 70 cm
ÐMAN = ÐBAN (laws of reflection)
Also ÐBAN = ÐABD
Þ ÐMAN = ÐABD 700 cm 100 cm 700 cm
\ DANM is similar to DADB
µ2 µ1 µ2 – µ1
– = , when x = 70 cm
x d /2 v u R
\ = or x = d
2L L
1.5 1.2 1.5 – 1.2
So, required distance = d + d + d = 3d. – =
v –70 20
f
21. (a) m = –n ; m = 20 ´ 70 ´ 1.5
f -u Þv=
–1.2 ´ 20 + 0.3 ´ 70
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DPP/ P 49 137
Þ v = – 700 cm Similarly, for x = 80 cm
µ2 µ1 µ2 – µ1
v = 80 cm
– = and for x = 90 cm
v u R
v = 70 cm
1.2 1.5 1.2 –1.5 28. (d)
– =
v 900 –20 29. (d) When an object is placed between two plane parallel
mirrors, then infinite number of images are formed.
900 ´ 200 ´ 1.2 Images are formed due to multiple reflections. At each
Þv=
1.5 ´ 200 – 900 ´ 3 reflection, a part of light energy is absorbed. Therefore,
Þ v = – 90 cm distant images get fainter.
30. (d) The size of the mirror does not affect the nature of the
image except that a bigger mirror forms a brighter
image.
138 DPP/ P 50
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 50
(a) We know that d = A (m – 1)
( )
(1) 2 2
Þ sin2 a < m1 - m 2 sin a < m12 - m22
d
or m = 1 +
A amax = sin–1 m12 - m22
Here A = 6 °, d = 3° , therefore
3 B
m=1+ = 1.5
6
i
(2) (c) According to given problem
A = 30°, i1 = 60° and d = 30° and as in a prism
r
d = (i1 + i2) – A, 30° = (60 + i2) – 30 i.e., i2 = 0 a O A
So the emergent ray is perpendicular to the face from
which it emerges.
Now as i2 = 0, r2 = 0 (6) (b) From the information given, it is clear that the apparent
But as r1 + r2 = A , r1 = A = 30° depth is 2.58 mm and the real depth is 4mm. Therefore,
So at first face the refractive index will be
1× sin 60° = m sin 30° i.e., m = 3 R 4
m= = = 1.55
c c 3 A 2.58
(3) (a) As are know, m = Þ v = = × 3 × 108 (7) (d) The apparent shift of the bottom point upwards will be
v m 4
x = x1 + x2
= 2.25 × 108 m/s
As, c = n l0 and v = n l æ 1ö æ 1 ö
= t1 ç 1 - m ÷ + t2 çè 1 - m ÷ø
v 1 è 1ø 2
Þ l / l0 = =
c m
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
3 = 4 çè 1 - (4 / 3) ÷ø + 2 çè 1 - (3 / 2) ÷ø
i.e., l = l0/m = × 6000Å = 4500Å
4
(4) (d) Herer + 90º + r’ = 180º æ 3ö æ 2ö
= 4 çè 1 - ÷ø + 2 çè 1 - ÷ø = 1.67 cm.
Þ r’ = 90º – r 4 3
or, r’ = (90º – i) as Ð i = Ðr
C
Now, according to Snell’s law : (8) (d) Since v =
sin i = m sin r’ = m sin (90º – i) n
or, tan i = m The time taken are
or, i = tan–1 m = tan–1 (1.5) 20 (1.63) 20 (1.47)
(5) (b) Here the requirement is that i > c t2 = , t1 =
C C
m2 Therefore , the difference is
Þ sin i > sin c Þ sin i > m
1 20(1.63 - 1.47) 20 ´ 0.16
t2 - t1 = = = 1.07 × 10–8 sec.
sin a C 3 ´ 108
From Snell's law m1 = (9) (b) As the beam just suffers TIR at interface of region III
sin r
Also in DOBA and IV
r + i = 90° Þ r = (90 – i) Region I Region II Region III
Hence from equation (ii)
sin a = m1 sin(90 – i)
q n0 n0 n0
sin a
Þ cos i = m n0 2 6 8
1
2 q 0.2 m 0.6 m
æ sin a ö
sin i = 1 - cos 2 i = 1 - ç ÷ ...(iii) n n
è m1 ø nosin q
n0
sin q1 = 0 sin q2 = 0 sin 90°,
From equation (i) and (ii) 2 6 8
EBD_7156
DPP/ P 50 139
If the net deviation for the mean ray is zero,
1 -1 1
sin q Þ q = sin (m – 1) A = (m' – 1) A'
8 8
(10) (b) The ray of light returns back from the polished face (m - 1) 1.517 - 1
or, A' = A= ´ 5° = 4.2°.
AC. (m '- 1) 1.620 - 1
The angular dispersion produced by the crown prism
A is
dv – dr = (mv – mr) A
E 30º and that by the flint prism is
i 60º d 'v – d 'r = (m'v – m'r) A'
D
30º The net angular dispersion is ,
F d = (mv – mr) A – (m'v – m'r) A'
= (1.523 –1.514) × 5° – (1.632–1.613) × 4.2°
B C = – 0.0348°.
The angular dispersion has magnitude 0.0348°.
\ ÐADE = 90º. From the figure it is clear that the angle (14) (a) mv = 1.5230, mr = 1.5145, w = ?
of refraction at face AB is 30º. Hence from Snell’s law Mean refractive index,
sin i m v + m r 1.5230 + 1.5145
m= =
sin r m=
2 2
sin i m = 1.5187
As m = 2 and r = 30º \ 2 = sin 30º m v - mr
w=
m -1
2 1
or sin i = = = sin 45º 1.5230 - 1.5145 0.0085
2 2 = = = 0.0163
1.5187 - 1 0.5187
\ i = 45º
(11) (a) A = r1 + r2 = 60 .......(1) (15) (c) Here, w = 0.021; m = 1.53; w ' = 0.045;
In minimum deviation position m' = 1.65; A' = 4.2°
r1 = r2 .......(2) For no dispersion, wd+w'd'=0
From eqs. (1) and (2) or w A (m – 1) + w ' A ' (m – 1) = 0
A = 2r1 = 60º w ' A ' ( m '- 1)
\ r1 = 30º or A = –
w ( m - 1)
sin i sin 50º 0.045 ´ 4.2 ´ (1.65 - 1)
\n= = = 1.532 =– = – 11.04°
sin r sin 30º 0.021 ´ (1.53 - 1)
A + dm 60 + d m Net deviation,
sin sin d + d ' = A (m – 1) + A' (m ' – 1)
n= 2 or 1.532 = 2
= – 11.04 (1.53 –1) + 4.2 (1.65 –1)
A sin 30 °
sin = – 11.04 × 0.53 + 4.2 × 0.65
2
= – 5.85 + 2.73 = 3.12°
60 + d m 1.532 (16) (d) At first face of the prism as i1 = 0,
sin = = 0.766 sin 0 = 1.5 sin r 1 i.e., , r1 = 0
2 2
And as for a prism
\ dm = 40º r1 + r2 = A so r2 = A ......(1)
(12) (b) d1 = d2 But at second face, as the ray just fails to emerge
(m1 – 1) A1 = (m2 – 1) A2
i.e., r2 = qC ......(2)
(1.5 – 1) 6 = (1.6 – 1) A2
So from Eqn,.(1) and (2)
A2 = 5º
A = r2 = q C
(13) (a) The deviation produced by the crown prism is
d = (m – 1) A é1ù é2ù
and by the flint prism is But as qC = sin –1 ê ú = sin –1 ê ú = 42°
ë ûm ë3û
d ' = (m' – 1) A' So A = 42°
The prisms are placed with their angles inverted with (17) (a) Here, mb= 1.532 and mr = 1.514 A = 8° .
respect to each other . The deviations are also in Angular dispersion
opposite directions. Thus, the net deviation is = (mb – mr) A = (1.532 – 1.514) × 8
D = d – d ' = (m – 1) A – (m' – 1) A' ...........(1) = 0.018 × 8 = 0.144° .
140 DPP/ P 50
(18) (c) Velocity of the ball when it reaches at the height of 12.8 (21) (c) dPrism = (µ - 1)A = (1.5 - 1)4° = 2°
m. above the surface is v = 2 ´10 ´ 7.2 = 12 m/s
\ dTotal = dPrism + dMirror
Height of the ball from surface as seen by fish
= (µ – 1)A + (180 – 2i) = 2° + (180 – 2 × 2) = 178°
dh ¢ dh (22) (a) From the following figure
h¢ = mh Þ =m
dt dt
u=0
r i
20 u = 12 m/s a
12.8 m n
r + i = 90° Þ i = 90° – r
For ray not to emerge from curved surface i > C
Þ sin i > sin C Þ sin (90° – r) > sin C Þ cos r > sin C
1 ì 1ü
4 Þ 1 - sin 2 r > í\ sin C = ý
Þ v¢ = mv = ´ 12 = 16 m/s. n î nþ
3
(19) (a) Suppose, the angle of the crown prism needed is A and
that of the flint prism is A’. We have
Þ 1-
n
sin 2 a
2
n
>
1
2 n
Þ 1>
1
2 (1 + sin 2 a )
m - mr Þ n2 > 1 + sin2 a Þ n > 2 {sin i ® 1}
w= v or,, mv – mr = (m – 1) w
m -1 Þ Least value = 2
The angular dispersion produced by the crown prism
is (23) (a) w depends only on nature of material.
(mv – mr) A = (m –1) w A (24) (a)
Similarly , the angular dispersion produced by the flint (25) (c);
prism is (m´ – 1) w´ A´ 26. (b), 27 (a)
For achromatic combination , the net dispersion should The normal shift produced by a glass slab is,
be zero. Thus ,
(m – 1) w A = (m´ – 1) w´ A´ æ 1ö æ 2ö
Dx = ç1 - ÷ t = ç1 - ÷ (6) = 2cm
è mø è 3ø
A ' (m - 1) w 0.517 ´ 0.03
or , = = = 0.50 ......(1)
A (m '- 1) w ' 0.621 ´ 0.05 i.e., for the mirror, the object is placed at a distance
(32 – Dx) = 30 cm from it.
The deviation in the yellow ray produced by the crown
Applying mirror formula,
prism is d = (m – 1) A and by the flint prism is d´ = (m´
– 1) A´. The net deviation produced by the combination 1 1 1
+ =
is v u f
d – d´ = (m – 1) A – (m´ – 1) A´
or 1° = 0.517 A – 0.621 A´ ......(2) 1 1 1
+ =-
Solving (1) and (2 ), A = 4.8° and A´ = 2.4°. Thus, the v 30 10
crown prism should have its refracting angle 4.8° and or, v = – 15 cm
that of the flint prism should be 2.4°. (a) When x = 5 cm: The light falls on the slab on its return
(20) (a) For TIR at AC journey as shown. But the slab will again shift it by a
q>C distance.
B A
Þ sin q ³ sin C q
6 cm
1 q
Þ sin q ³
w µg I
µw C Dx
Þ sin q ³
µg
8 15 cm
Þ sin q ³
9
Dx = 2 cm. Hence, the final real image is formed at a
distance (15 + 2) = 17 cm from the mirror.
EBD_7156
DPP/ P 50 141
(b) When x = 20 cm: This time also the final image is at a (29) (b) The velocity of light in a material medium depends upon
distance of 17 cm from the mirror but it is virtual as its colour (wavelength). If a ray of white light is incident
shown. on a prism, then on emerging the different colours are
deviated through different angles.
Also dispersive power w =

( mV - m R )
( mY - 1)
i.e. w depends upon only m
I
(30) (c) Apparent shift for different coloured letter is
Dx
æ 1ö
d = h ç1 - ÷
è mø
(28) (b) As rays of all colours emerge in the same direction (of Þ lR > lV so mR < mV
incidence of white light), hence there is no dispersion, Hence dR < dV i. e. red coloured letter raised least.
but only lateral displacement in a glass slab.
DPP/ P 51 141
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 51
1. (a). According to sign convention, it is given that
2 - 60 40
u = – 0.6 m, R = 0.25 m, µ1 = 1 (air), µ2 = 1.5 v= ´ =- = – 3.63 cm
3 11 11
\ AI = 3.63 cm
3. (c).
u v
Therefore, using x1 f f x2
µ1 µ2 µ2 - µ1 , we get
- + = • • • • •
u v R O F1 F2 I
1.5 1 1.5 - 1 1 0.5
= + =– +
v (- 0.6) 0.25 0.6 0.25
5 1
=– +2= As in case of thin lens the distance of either foci from the
3 3
optical centre is f ,
Þ v = 4.5 m
| u | = ( f + x1 ) and | v | = ( f + x2 )
The image is formed on the other side of the object (i.e.
inside the refracting surface). Substituting thses values of u and v in lens formula with
2. (a). On viewing from the closer surface A (near to object) proper sign
: 1 1 1
- =
The final image is formed at I. ( f + x 2 ) - ( f + x1 ) f
x1 + x 2 + 2f 1
=
or ( f + x1 )( f + x 2 ) f
i.e., fx1 + fx2 + 2f 2 = f 2 + fx1+ fx2 + x1 x2
O C or, x1 x2 = f 2
A
A
1cm
· B
I O C Far 4. (b). According to Lens-maker’s formula :
Nearing surface
surface 1 é 1 1 ù mL
= (m – 1) ê - ú with m =
f R
ë 1 R 2û m M
From sign convention Here f = 30 cm and R1 =10 cm and R2 = ¥

u = OA = – 4 cm, v = ?
1 é1 1ù
R = AC = – 5cm So, =(m–1) ê - ú
30 ë10 ¥ û
µ2 2
µ= µ = 3 3m – 3 = 1 or, m = ( 4 / 3 )
1 5. (a). For combination of lenses
m 1 µ -1 2/3 1 2/3 -1 1 1 1 1 1 25 1
- = Þ v +4 = -5 = + = + = =
v u R f f1 f 2 10 15 150 6
Therefore, f = 6 cm.
2 1 1 4 - 15 - 11
Þ = - = =
3v 15 4 60 60
EBD_7156
142 DPP/ P 51
6. (c). Let f2 is the focal length of the diverging lens. Then , 9. (b). The focal length of lens in water is given by
1 1 1
= + a mg -1 1.2 - 1
f f1 f2 fl = fa = 1.2 fa
a mg -1
-1 1.33
It is given that f1 = +20 cm, f = 30 cm a ml
1 1 1
= + 0.2 ´ 1.33
30 20 f 2 fl = - fa
0.13
1 1 1 2-3 1 Hence f is negative and as such it behaves as a divergent
or f = 30 - 20 = 60 = - 60 lens.
2
10. (a). The focal length of an equiconvex lens is given by
Thus f2 = – 60 cm
7. (a). As radius of curvature of silvered surface is 22 cm, so, 1 2 (m - 1)
=
f R
1
It is given that = + 5 and m = 1.5
f
2 (1.5 - 1)
Therefore, 5 =
R
1
or R = metre = 20 cm
5
11. (b). The question is based on the conventional method of
R -22 measurement of focal length by displacement method.
fM = = = –11 cm = – 0.11 m According to this method where D is the distance between
2 2
object and the image, and x is the displacement given to
1 1 1 the object.
and hence, PM = – = = D
f M -0.11 0.11 From the data x = 25 cm and D = 75 cm .
Further as the focal length of lens is 20 cm, i.e. 0.20 m, its Thus
power will be given by : (75)2 - (25) 2 (75 - 25) (75 + 25)
f= =
1 1 4 ´ 75 4 ´ 75
PL = = D
f L 0.20
50 ´ 100 50
Now as in image formation, light after passing through the = = = 16.7 cm
4 ´ 75 3
lens will be reflected back by the curved mirror the lens
again P = PL + PM + PL = 2PL + PM A1 A2
12. (c). m1 = and m2
2 1 210 O O
i.e. P = + = D A1A 2
0.20 0.11 11 Þ m1m2 =
So the focal length of equivalent mirror O2
Also it can be proved that m1m2 = 1
1 11 110
F=– =- m=- cm So O = A1A 2
P 210 21
i.e. the silvered lens behaves as a concave mirror of focal 13. (c). Effective power P = P1 + P2 = 4 – 3 = 1D
length (110/21) cm. So for object at a distance 10 cm in 14. (d). One part of combination will behave as converging
front of it, lens and the other as diverging lens of same focal length.
As such total power will be zero.
1 1 21 15. (c). Let the image of an object at O is formed at the same
+ =- i.e. v = –11 cm
v -10 110 point as shown in figure. The distance of O from the plane
i.e. image will be 11 cm in front of the silvered lens surface is x. The rays suffer refraction at first surface
8. (b). On covering the lens half by a black paper will reduce (curved) as they reach lens. After wards become parallel
the intensity of image and not the part of image. So full and gets reflected form plane surface and so retrace the
image is formed. path and image is formed at O itself.
DPP/ P 51 143
20 ´ 100 cm 40 ´ 100
So – =
3.5 cm u
x i.e., u = – 7 cm
· i.e., film is at a distance of 7 cm in front of projection lens.
O
And from lens formula 1 - 1 = 1 , here we have
v u f
1 1 1
m 1 m -1 - = or f @ 7 cm = 70 mm
- = 4000 -7 f
v u R
[as ( 1/4000) << (1/7) ]
u = – x, v = ¥ i.e., focal length of projection lens is 70 mm.
m 1 m -1 20. (a). As final image is at 25 cm in front of eye piece
+ =
¥ x R 25
1 1 1
- = i.e., ue = –
R -25 u e 5 6
x=
m -1
ve -25
As such O behaves as equivalent to centre of curvature of And so, me = = =6 ...(1)
u e (-25 / 6)
equivalent concave mirror.
Now for objective,
R v = L – ue = 20 – (25/6) = (95/6)
\ Radius = x =
m -1 So if object is at a distance u from the objective,
16. (a). As here f = 10 cm and v = 5m = 500 cm
6 1 1 95
- = i.e., u = – cm
1 1 1 95 u 0.95 94
So from lens formula - = , we have
v u f i.e. object is at a distance (95/94) cm in front of field lens.
1 1 1 é 500 ù v (95 / 6) é 94 ù
- = i.e., u=– ê cm = = -ê ú
ë 49 úû
Also, m = ...(2)
500 u 10 u (-95 / 94) ë6û
v 500 So total magnification,

So that m= = = – 49
u -500 / 49 é 94 ù
M = m xme = – ê ú × (6) = – 94
Here negative sign means the image is inverted with respect ë6û
to object. Now as here object is (2 cm × 2cm ) so the size
i.e., final image is inverted, virtual and 94 times that of
of picture on the screen
object.
Ai = ( 2 × 49 cm) × ( 2 × 49cm) = ( 98 × 98) cm2
21. (a). As object is distant, i.e., u = – ¥ , so
17. (a). As power of a lens is reciprocal of focal length in m,
1 1 1
1 1 - = i.e. v = f0 = 12 cm
P= = diopter = 20 D v -¥ f 0
-2 0.05
5 ´ 10 m
i.e. objective will form the image IM at its focus which is
18. (b). For relaxed eye, MP is minimum and will be
at a distance of 12 cm from O. Now as eyepiece of focal
D 25 length – 4 cm forms image I at a distance of 24 cm from it,
MP = = = 5×
f 5 24
1 1 1
While for strained eye, MP is maximum and will be - = Þ ue = = 4.8 cm.
-24 u e -4 5
D i.e, the distance of IM from eye lens EA is 4.8 cm. So the
MP = 1 + = 1 + 5 = 6×
f length of tube L = OA – EA = 12 – 4.8 = 7.2 cm.
I v
19. (a). As in case of projector, m = =
O u
EBD_7156
144 DPP/ P 51
26. (a) For lens L2, image must form at centre of curvature of
the curved surface after refraction through plane part
I f0=12 cm
µ2 µ
+ w =0
> f0 fe – R2 x '
4.8 cm
q0
> q
ue Þ x¢ = 8 cm
>> O E A
(
)
>>
(
)q IM
27. (b) Length of tube = x + x¢ = 18 cm
q0
B 28. (a) Focal length of lens immersed in water is four times
L= 7.2 cm >> >
the focal length of lens in air. It means
24 cm
fw = 4fa = 4×10 =40 cm
29. (d) Focal length of the lens depends upon its refractive
22. (d) In case of astronomical telescope if object and final
image both are at infinity. 1
index as µ ( m - 1) .
MP = – (f0/fe) and L = f0 + fe f
So here –(f0/fe) = – 5 and f0 + fe = 36
Since mb > mr so fb < fr
Solving these for f0 and fe, we get
Therefore, the focal length of a lens decreases when red
f0 = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm
light is replaced by blue light.
1 30. (b) The light gathering power (or brightness) of a telescope
23. (a) Resolving power of microscope µ
l µ (diameter)2. So by increasing the objective diameter even
far off stars may produce images of optimum brightness.
24. (a) Light gathering power µ Area of lens aperture or d2
25. (b) For lens L1, ray must move parallel to the axis after
refraction
µ1 µw µ1 – µw
+ = Þ x = 10cm
¥ x R1
DPP/ P 52 145
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 52
From eqs. (1) and (2)
I1 9
1. (d) =
I2 1 2 ´ 51 ´ 10-8
d= = 5.1 × 10-4 m
2 ´ 10-3
2
é I1 ù
ê + 1ú 2 Imax
-1
Imax
=ê
I2 ú = é 9 + 1ù Imax - I min I
ê ú ê ú 7. (b) V = = min .... (1)
Imin I1 ë 9 - 1û Imax + Imin Imax
ê - 1ú +1
ëê I2 ûú Imin
Imax 42 4 æ I1 ö
2
= =
Imin 22 1 ç +1 ÷
Imax ç I2 ÷
2. (a) a1 = 6 units, a2 = 8 units =
Imin ç I1 ÷ .... (2)
ç -1 ÷
2 ç I ÷
é a1 ù 2 è 2 ø
é6 ù
ê + 1ú +1
Imax ë a 2 û
= = ëê 8 ûú According to question
Imin é a 2 2
ù é6 ù I1 1
1
ê a - 1ú êë 8 - 1úû = .... (3)
ë 2 û I2 4
From eqs. (2) and (3)
Imax 49
= 2
Imin 1 æ 1 ö 9
ç +1÷
3. (b) The separation between the sucessive bright fringes Imax 4 ÷ = 4 =9 .... (4)
=ç
is- Imin ç 1 ÷ 1
ç -1 ÷
Dl 1´ 600 ´10 -9 è 4 ø 4
b= =
d 0.1 ´ 10 -3 From eqs. (1) and (4)
b = 6.0 mm.
4. (b) wa = l/d [9 - 1] 8
V= = = 0.8
[9 + 1] 10
(w a ) water l water
\ wa µ l Þ =
wa l (m - 1)t (1.6 - 1) ´ 7 ´ 10 -6
8. (c) l = =
n 7
(w a ) water l
Þ = l = 6 × 10–7 meter Þ l = 6000 Å
wa m water l
1
Þ (wa)water = 0.15° 9. (d) b µ \ d On increasing d three times
d
5. (b) I' = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I2 cos f b will become 1/3 times.
10. (b) \ PR = d Þ PO = d secq and CO = PO cos 2q
I1 = I, I2 = 9I, f = p
= d sec q cos 2q is
I' = I + 9I + 2 9I2 cos p = 10I – 6I = 4I O
Q R
Dl qq
6. (a) d = .... (1)
b
C
According to quesion.
l = 5100 × 10-10m
q
2
b= × 10–2 m .... (2) A
10 P
D = 2m, d = ?. B
EBD_7156
146 DPP/ P 52
Path difference between the two rays
D = CO + PO = (d sec q + d secq cos 2q) P
Phase difference between the two rays is
f = p (One is reflected, while another is direct)
Therefore condition for constructive interference Y
S1
should be
q q
l 3l d
D = , .......
2 2
l S2
or d sec q(1 + cos 2q) = Dx
2
D
or
d
cos q
(2 cos 2 q =
l
2
)Þ cos q =
l
4d As Dx = d sin q
11. (b) n1l1 = n2l2
10 × 7000 = n2 × 5000 2p
Phase difference f = (Path difference)
n2 = 14 l
12. (a, c) Path difference between the rays reaching infront of
2p 2p
slit S1 is. = ( d sin q ) = (150 sin q) = p sin q
S1P – S2P = (b2 + d2)1/2 – d l 300
For distructive interference at P IR = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 cos q
S1 P Here I1 = I2 and f = p sin q
æ p sin q ö
\ IR = 2I1 [(p sin q)] = 4I1 cos2 ç ÷
è 2 ø
b
æ p sin q ö
S2 IR will be maximum when cos2 ç ÷ =1
d è 2 ø
\ (IR)max = 4I1 = Io
( 2n - 1) l
S1P – S2P = æ p sin q ö
2 Hence I = Io cos2 ç ÷
è 2 ø
( 2n - 1) l If q = 0, then I = Io cosq = Io
i.e., (b2 + d2)1/2 – d =
2 If q = 30°, then I = Io cos2 (p/4) = Io/2
1/ 2 If q = 90°, then I = Io cos2(p/2) = 0
æ b2 ö ( 2n - 1) l
Þ d ç1 + ÷ -d = 15. (b) I = R2 = a12 + a22 + 2a1 a2 cos d
ç d2 ÷ 2
è ø
p
= I + 4I + 4I cos = 5I
æ b2 ö ( 2n - 1) l 2
Þ d ç1 + + ...... ÷ - d = 16. (b) Suppose the amplitude of the light wave coming from
ç 2d 2 ÷ 2
è ø the narrower slit is A and that coming from the wider
(Binomial Expansion) slit is 2A. The maximum intensity occurs at a place
where constructive interference takes place. Then the
b ( 2n - 1) l b2 resultant amplitude is the sum of the individual
Þ = Þ = 2n - 1 d
2d 2 ( ) amplitudes.
Thus,
b2 b 2 Amax = 2A + A = 3A
For n = 1,2 ............, l =
,
d 3d The minimum intensity occurs at a place where
13. (b) Distance of mth bright fringe from central fringes is destructive interference takes place. The resultant
mDl amplitude is then difference of the individual
Xm = amplitudes.
d
Thus, Amin = 2A – A = A.
c 3×108 Imax (Amax )2 (3A)2
14. (a, b) For microwave l = = = 300 m \ = = =9
f 106 Imin (Amin )2 (A)2
DPP/ P 52 147
I1 2 lD
17. (b) = 23. (a) Fringe width b =
I2 1 d
a1 I 2 According to de Broglie,
= 1 =
a2 I2 1 h h
Wavelength l = =
At the point of constructive interference, the resultant p 2meV
amplitude becomes (a1 + a2) = 2 + 1 at the point of As V increases, l decreases, b decreases.
destructive interference, the resultant amplitude is 1
Also b µ and b µ D .
(a1 – a2) = 2 –1 d
Imax (a1 + a 2 ) 2 ( 2 + 1) 2 (m - 1)tD
\ I = = = 34 24. (a) n =
min (a1 - a 2 ) 2 ( 2 - 1) 2 d
18. (d) For destructive interference : lD D b
Path difference= S1 P – S2 P = (2n –1) l/2. but b = Þ =
d d l
For n = 1, S1 P – S2 P= (2 × 1 – 1) l/2 = l/2.
n = (m – 1) t b/l
n =2, S1 P– S2 P = (2 × 2 – 1) l/2 = 3l/2.
20b = (m – 1) 2.5 × 10–3 { b/5000 × 10–8}
n = 3, S1 P – S2 P = (2× 3–1) l/2 = 5l/2.
n = 4, S1P – S2 P = (2 × 4 – 1) l/2 = 7l/2. 20 ´ 5000 ´ 10-8
n = 5,S1 P – S2 P = (2 × 5 – 1) l/2= 9l/2. m–1= = 0.4
n =6,S1 P – S2 P = (2× 6– 1) l/2 = 11l/2. 2.5 ´ 10-3
So, destructive pattern is possible only for path m = 1.4.
difference = 11l/2. dy
19. (b) The distance of a bright fringe from zero order fringe is 25. (a) S1P – S2P =
D
given by-
For central maxima,
nlD
Xn = dy
d – d sin f = 0
Dx = (n 0 + kt)
D & d is constant D
n1 l1 = n2 l2
n1 = 16, l1 = 6000 Aº, l2 = 4800 Å P
n1l1 16 ´ 6000
n2 = = = 20
l2 4800 y
20. (c) n1 l1 = n2 l2 for bright fringe 2
n = (n0 + kt)
n (7.5 × 10–5) = (n + 1) (5 × 10–5)
d f O
5.0 ´ 10-5 l
n= = 2.
2.5 ´ 10-5 S1
nlD 3lD
21. (b) Xn = or X3 = D
d d
3 ´ (5000 ´10-8 cm) ´ 200cm

X3 = = 1.5 cm. D sin f
0.02cm \y = ( y -coordinates of central maximum).
n0 + kt
2 dy – kD sin f
Imax æa +a ö a +a 26. (b) = = velocity of central maximum.
22. (b, d) =9 Þ ç 1 2 ÷ =9 Þ 1 2 =3 dt (n0 + kt )2
Imax è a1 – a 2 ø a1 – a 2
27. (d) For central maxima to be formed at O
a1 3 + 1 a1 æn ö
Þ = Þ a = 5 There I1 : I2 = 4 : 1 n ' ç –1÷ b = d sin f
a2 3 – 1 2 è n' ø
EBD_7156
148 DPP/ P 52
Here n' = n0 + kt, n = refractive index of plate. when a white light as a source is used, the central fringe
d sin f is white around which few coloured fringes are
n = n0 + kt + observed on either side.
b
28. (d) When d is negligibly small, fringe width b which is 30. (d) When one of slits is covered with cellophane paper,
proportional to 1/d may become too large. Even a single the intensity of light emerging from the slit is decreased
fringe may occupy the whole screen. Hence the pattern (because this medium is translucent). Now the two
cannot be detected. interfering beam have different intensities or
29. (d) In Young's experiments fringe width for dark and white amplitudes. Hence intensity at minima will not be zero
fringes are same while in Young's double slit experiment and fringes will become indistinct.
148 DPP/ P 53
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 53
1. (b). The distance of first diffraction minimum from the
central principal maximum x = lD/d 12.5 ´ 10-3
q = l/a =
2
x l l
\ sin q = = Þd=
D d sin q 12.5 ´ 10-3 12.5 ´ 10-3 ´ 10-3
l= ×a=
2 2
5000 ´ 10-8 l = 6.25 × 10–6 m = 6250 mm
Þd= = 2 × 5 × 10–5
sin 30º 6. (a). Slit width = a = 0.2mm,
Þ d = 1.0 × 10–4 cm.
2ld
2. (b). Here, l1 = 5890Å = 5890 × 10–10 m b=
l2 = 5896 Å = 5896 × 10–10 m a
a =2mm = 2 × 10–6 m, D = 2m b 2l
Angular width Wq = =
3l1 x1 D a
For first maxima, sin q = =
2a D 2 ´ 6328
q= = 0.36°
3l1D 3l 2 D 0.2
Þ x1 = and x2 = 7. (a). Here distance of the screen from the slit,
2a 2a
D = 2m, a = ?, x = 5 mm
\ spacing between the first maxima of two sodium lines
= 5 × 10–3 m,l = 5000Å
3D = 5000 × 10–10 m
= x2 – x1 = (l – l1) For the first minima, sin q = l/a = x/D,
2a 2
3 ´ 2(5896 - 5890) ´ 10-10 Dl 2 ´ 5000 ´ 10-10

a= = = 2 × 10–4 m
= =9× 10–4 m. x 5 ´ 10-3
2 ´ 2 ´ 10-6
8. (d). Here, l = 6500Å = 6.5 × 10–7 m, a = 0.5 mm =
ax 5 × 10–4 m,
3. (d). = nl
f D = 1.8 m
Angular separation of two dark bands on each side of central
ax 0.3 ´ 10-3 ´ 5 ´ 10-3 bright band 2q = 2l/a
l= =
n.f 3 ´1 Actual distance between them,
–7
l = 5 × 10 m 2x = 2l/a x D
l = 5000Å 2 ´ 6.5 ´ 10-7 ´ 18
2x =
æ lö 5 ´ 10-4
4. (b). q = sin–1 çè ÷ø .....(1)
a 2x = 4.68 × 10–3 m
According to question 2fl
l = 2 × 10–3 m 9. (c). Width of central maxima =
a
a = 4 × 10–3 m .....(2)
From equation (1) and (2) 2 ´ 2 ´ 6000 ´ 10-10
= = 12 mm
æ 1ö 0.2 ´ 10-3
q = sin–1 çè ÷ø
2 l
q = 30° 10. (a). q = .....(a)
a
5. (a). Here the width of principal maxima is 2.5 mm, therefore
its half width is x
q= .....(b)
f
b 2.5
= = 1.25 × 10–3m From eqs. (a) and (b)
2 2
l x
=
b / 2 12.5 ´ 10 -3 a f
Diffraction angle q = =
D 2 fl
\aq=l x= .....(c)
a
EBD_7156
DPP/ P 53 149
According to question x = ?, f = 40 cm Now, if I0 is the intensity of unpolarised light incident
l = 5896 × 10–8 cm on polaroid P1, the intensity of light transmitted through
a = 0.5 × 10–1 cm .....(d) it,
From eqs. (c) and (d)
1 1 W
-8 I1 = I0 = I0 = (32) = 16 2 ....(2)
40 ´ 5896 ´ 10 2 2 m
x= 96 = 0.047cm
5 ´ 10-2 Now as angle between transmission axes of polaroids
P1 and P2 is q, in accordance with Malus law, intensity
1.22l 1.22l of light transmitted through P2 will be
11. (a). dq = or a =
a dq I2 = I1 cos2q = 16 cos2q [from Eq. (2)] ....(3)
According to question And as angle between transmission axes of P2 and P3
is f, light transmitted through P3 will be
10-3 ´ p
dq = 10–3 degree = Radian, I3 = I2cos2f = 16 cos2q cos2f [from Eq.(3)]
180 Above equation in the light of (1) becomes,
l = 5 × 10–5 I3 = 16 cos2q cos2 (90º – q) = 4(sin2q)2 ....(4)
1.22 ´ 5 ´ 10-5 ´ 180 According to given problem, I3 = 3 W/m2
a=
10-3 ´ 3.14 So, 4(sin 2q)2 = 3 i.e., sin2q = ( 3 /2)
a = 3.5 cm or 2q = 60º i.e. q = 30º
12. (a). Since the reflected light is very highly polarised, it Further in accordance with Eq. (4), I3 will be max. when
implies that incident light falls at polarising angle of sin 2q = max., i.e.,
incidence qP. From Brewster's law, sin 2q = 1 or 2q = 90º, i.e., q = 45º
m = tanqp 16. (c) In double refraction light rays always splits into two
\ qP = tan–1 (m) = tan–1 (4/3) = 53.1º rays (O–ray & E–ray). O–ray has same velocity in all
Since qP is the angle which the rays from sun make direction but E– ray has different velocity in different
with the normal to the interface, angle with the interface direction.
will be 90º – 53.1º = 36.9º.
For calcite me < m0 Þ ve > v0
13. (a). Angle of incident light with the surface is 30º. Hence
angle of incidence = 90º – 30º = 60º. Since reflected For quartz me > m0 Þ v0 > ve
light is completely polarised, therefore, incidence takes 17. (c) At polarizing angle, the reflected and refracted rays
place at polarising angle of incidence qp. are mutually perpendicular to each other.
\ qp = 60º 18. (d) The amplitude will be A cos60° = A/2
Using Brewster's law
m = tan qp = tan 60º 2lD
19. (c) Width of central maxima =
\ m= 3 d
14. (d). If unpolarised light is passed through a polariod P1, its
2 ´ 2.1 ´ 5 ´10 -7
intensity will become half. = =1.4×10–3 m = 1.4 mm
0.15 ´ 10 -2
1
So I1 = I with vibrations parallel to the axis of P1. 20. (a) Using d sinq = nl, for n = 1
2 0
Now this light will pass through second polaroid P2
l 550 ´ 10-9
whose axis is inclined at ana angle of 30º to the axis of sin q = = =10–3 = 0.001 rad
P1 and hence, vibrations of I1. So in accordance with d 0.55 ´ 10 -3
Malus law, the intensity of light emerging from P2 will
be A 1
21. (b) A = np dl Þ nd = = constant Þ n µ
pl d
2
æ 1 ö æ 3ö 3 (n = number of blocked HPZ) on decreasing d, n
I2 = I1 cos2 30º = çè I0 ÷ø ç ÷ = I0
2 2
è ø 8 increases, hence intensity decreases.
I2 3 I0
= 22. (b) Intensity of polarized light =
I0 8 = 37.5 % 2
15. (a). If q is the angle between the transmission axes of first I0 I 0
polaroid P1 and second P2 while f between the Þ Intensity of untransmitted light = I 0 - =
2 2
transmission axes of second polaroids P2 and P3, then
23. (a)
according to given problem,
q + f = 90º or f = (90º – q) ....(1)
150 DPP/ P 53
24. (a) It magnitude of light vector varies periodically during 28. (a) When a polaroid is rotated in the path of unpolarised
it's rotation, the tip of vector traces an ellipse and light light, the intensity of light transmitted from polaroid
is said to be elliptically polarised. This is not in nicol remains undiminished (because unpolarised light
prism. contains waves vibrating in all possible planes with
rotated in path of plane polarised light, its intensity
rn2 will vary from maximum (when the vibrations of the
25. (a) Multiple focii of zone plate given by f p =
( 2 p - 1) l , plane polarised light are parallel to the axis of the
polaroid) to minimum (when the direction of the
where p = 1, 2, 3 ........ vibrations becomes perpendicular to the axis of the
26. (a) Angular width is the angle subtended by the distance crystal). Thus using polaroid we can easily verify that
between first minima on either side at the centre of the whether the light is polarised or not.
slit. It is given by f = 2 q , where q is the angle of 29. (d) The nicol prism is made of calcite crystal. When light
diffraction. is passed through calcite crystal, it breaks up into two
For first diffraction minimum, a sin q = 1 l rays
l (i) the ordinary ray which has its electric vector
or sin q = l/a or q=
a perpendicular to the principal section of the crystal and
(ii) the extra ordinary ray which has its electric vector
2l
\ Angular width f = 2 q = i.e. f µl parallel to the principal section. The nicol prism is made
a
in such a way that it eliminates one of the two rays by
f1 l1 f 70 total internal reflection, thus produces plane polarised
= ; \ l 2 = l1 2 = 6000 ´ = 4200 Å
f2 l 2 f1 100 light. It is generally found that the ordinary ray is
27. (b) On immersing in liquid, a wavelength l = 6000 Å must eliminated and only the extra ordinary ray is transmitted
be behaving as l' = 4200 Å to get the same decrease in through the prism. The nicol prism consists of two
angular width. Therefore, refractive index of medium calcite crystal cut at - 68° with its principal axis joined
l 6000 by a glue called Canada balsam.
m= = = 1.43.
l¢ 4200 30. (d) The clouds consists of dust particles and water droplets.
Their size is very large as compared to the wavelength
of the incident light from the sun. So there is very little
scattering of light. Hence the light which we receive
through the clouds has all the colours of light. As a
result of this, we receive almost white light. Therefore,
the cloud are generally white.
EBD_7156
DPP/ P 54 151
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 54
0.101 8. (b).
0.101
1. (a). la = Å, V =
V 0.004 6.62 ´ 10-34
l=
V = 25.25 V , V = 637.5 V 2 ´ 9.1 ´ 10-31 ´ 13.6 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19
Ea =qa × Va » 1275 eV Þ l = 3.3 × 10–10 m = 3.3 Å
h 12.27
2. (d). l = 9. (c). l = Å
mv V
c 3 ´ 108 Þ V = 40–20 = 20 Volt
Q v= = = 1.5 × 107 m/sec
20 20 12.27
h = 6.626 × 10–34 J-s, m = 1.67 × 10–27 kg Þ l= Å = 2.75 Å
20
6.626 ´10 -34 150
\ l= 10. (d). Wavelength of electrons is l = Å
1.67 ´10-27 ´ 1.5 ´ 107 V
Þ l = 2.64 × 10–14 m Now, electrons have energy of 40 KeV, therefore they
1 1 1 are accelerated through a potential difference of 40 ×
3. (a). Q l µ Þ le µ , lp µ 103 volt.
m me mp
150
mp l= = 0.061 Å
le 40 ´ 103
\ l = me
p \ Resolving limit of electron microscope = 0.061 Å
11. (d). The linear momentum of the photon
h h
4. (c). l = Þv= , h 6.63 ´ 10-34 kg - m
mv ml = = = 5.43 × 10–27
l 122 ´ 10 -9 s
6.6 ´ 10-34
v= = 7.2 × 105 m/s p
9.1 ´ 10-31 ´ 10 ´ 10-10 Q p = mv Þ v =
m
1
5. (b). l µ
m
, 5.43 ´ 10-27
Þv= = 3.25 m/s
1.67 ´ 10-27
le mp 1836
= = 150
lp me 1 12. (b). V = volt, to determine the p.d. through which it was
le2
h accelerated to achieve the given de-broglie wavelength.
6. (a). lp = Then the same p.d. will retard it to rest. Thus,
2m p ep V
150
h V= volt, V = 3765 Volt = 3.76 kV
Þ ld = 0.2 ´ 0.2
2md ed V
hc h
13. (b). lphoton = and lproton =
ld m p ep E 2me
\ = Q md = 2mp,
lp m d ed λ photon λ photon 1
2m
Þ =c Þ µ
λ electron E λ electron E
l mp ep 1
ed = ep Þ d = =
lp 2m p e p 2
7. (d). Kmax of photoelectrons doesn't depends upon intensity
of incident light.
152 DPP/ P 54
18. (b). P = 10 × 103 watt, n = ?, l = 300 m
1 2 hc hc 1 2
14. (d). hv – W0 = mvmax Þ l - l = 2 mvmax nhc
2 0 P=
lt
æ l0 - l ö 1 2 2hv æ l0 - l ö
Þ hc ç ll ÷ = 2 mvmax Þ vmax = ç ÷ 6.62 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108 ´ n
è 0 ø m è ll 0 ø 104 =
300 ´ 1
When wavelength is l and velocity is v, then
300 ´ 104
n= = 1.5 × 1031
2hv æ l 0 - l ö 6.62 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
v= ç ÷ ....(i)
m è ll 0 ø
hc f0
19. (b). V0 = – = 3.74 – 1.07 = 2.67 V
3l el e
When wavelength is and velocity is 'v' then 20. (a). The stopping potential for curves a and b is same.
4
\ fa = fb
2hc é l 0 - ( 3l / 4 ) ù Also saturation current is proportional to intensity
v¢ = ê ú ...(ii) \ Ia < I b
m êë ( 3l / 4 ) ´ l 0 úû
21. (c). hn = hn0 + Ek
Divide equation (ii) by (i), we get 6.6 × 10-34 × 3 × 1015 = 4 × 1.6 × 10–19 + Ek
19.8 × 10-19 – 6.4 × 10-19 = Ek
v¢ él0 - ( 3l / 4 ) ùû ll 0 Ek = 13.4 × 10–19 J
= ë ´
v 3 l0 - l 1
ll0 Þ mv2max = 13.4 × 10–19
4 2
æ4ö
1/ 2 éël0 - ( 3l - 4 ) ùû 2 ´ 13.4 ´ 10-19
v¢ = v ç ÷ vmax =
è3ø l 0l m
æ4ö
1/ 2 2 ´ 13.4 ´ 10-19
i.e v¢ > v ç ÷ = = 1.73 × 106 m/s
è3ø 9 ´ 10-31
22. (b). The maximum kinetic energy is
h
15. (d). De-Broglie wavelength l = p hc 1242 eV - nm
Kmax = –f= – 2.5 eV
l 280 nm
1 = 4.4 eV – 2.5 eV = 1.9 eV
Þ lµ
p Stopping potential V is given by eV = Kmax
i.e. graph will be a rectangular hyperbola. K max 1.9
V= = eV = 1.9 V
16. (d). If the incident light be of threshold wavelength (l0), e e
then the stopping potential shall be zero. Thus 23. (a). Q 2 d sin f = nl
hc 6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108 (2d sin f)max 2d sin 90º

=
l0 = , l0 = lmax = n min 1 = 2 × 10 Å
f 4.2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19
l0 = 2.946 × 10–7 m = 2946 Å lmax = 20Å
\ Possible wavelengths are 5Å, 10Å and 20Å.
hn hn 0
17. (b). Relation between V0 – n., V0 = - 12400
e e 24. (c). lmin = Å = 1.24 Å
Put it in the form of y = mx – c, 10000
hn0 c 3 ´ 108
here V0 = y, n = x, =c nmax = = = 2.4×1018 Hz.
e l min 1.24 ´ 10-10
æ hö 12400
\ y = çè ÷ø x – c 25. (b) DE =
e 4500Å
h D = 2.75 eV
\m= For photoelectric effect, DE > W0 (work function).
e
EBD_7156
DPP/ P 54 153
26. (a) DE = W0 + E ; (Ek) = DE – W0
hv h
For maximum value of (Ek), W0 should be minimum 28. (c) Mass of moving photon m = 2 = and E = mc2
c cl
W0 for lithium = 2.3 eV
\ (Ek) = 2.75 – 2.3 = 0.45 eV 29. (c) Less work function means less energy is required for
ejecting out the electrons.
27. (c) The maximum magnitude of stopping potential will be
30. (a) de-Broglie wavelength associated with gas molecules
for metal of least work function.
\ required stopping potential is 1
varies as l µ
hv – f0 T
Vs = = 0.45 volt.
e
DPP/ P 55 153
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 55
2 8. (a) K.E. = - (T.E.)
1. (a) For n = 1 , maximum number of states = 2n = 2 and
9. (a) For Lyman series
for n = 2, 3, 4 maximum number of states would be 8,
18, 32 respectively, Hence number of possible elements c é 1 1 ù 3RC
vLyman = = Rc ê - ú=
= 2 + 8 + 18 + 32 = 60 l max ëê (1)
2
(2)2 úû 4
1 æ1 1 ö For Balmer series

2. (d) = RZ 2 ç 2 - ÷
l ç1 2 2 ÷ø é 1
è c 1 ù 5RC
vBalmer = = Rc ê - ú=
For di-ionised lithium the value of Z is maximum l max ëê (2)
2
(3)2 úû 36
3. (c) Lyman series lies in the UV region.
vLyman 27
4. (c) Transition A (n = ¥ to 1): Series limit of Lyman series \ =
vBalmer 5
Transition B (n = 5 to n = 2) Third spectral line of
Balmer series 1 æ 1 1 ö
10 (c) = Rç - ÷
Transition C (n = 5 to n = 3 ) : Second spectral line of l ç n2 n 2 ÷
è 1 2 ø
Paschen series
5. (b) Let the energy in A, B and C state be EA, EB and EC For first line of Lymen series n1 = 1 and n2 = 2
then from the figure For first line of Balmer series n2 = 2 and n2 = 3
l Lymen 5
l1 So, =
l Balmer 27
l3
l2 æ h ö
11. (d) Angular momentum L = n ç ÷
è 2p ø
h h
For this case n = 2 , hence L = 2 ´ =
( EC - EB ) + ( E B - E A ) = ( EC - E A ) 2p p
hc hc hc mv 2 1 e2 e
or + = 12. (c) = Þv=
l1 l 2 l3 a0 4 pe0 a02 4 pe0 a0 m
l1l 2 13. (d) We have to find the frequency of emitted photons. For
Þ l3 = emission of photons the transition must take place from
l1 + l2
a higher energy level to a lower energy level which are
6. (a) In the revolution of electron, coulomb force provides given only in options (c) and (d).
the necessary centripetal force Frequency is given by
Ze2 mv 2 Ze2 æ 1 1ö
Þ 2
= Þ mv 2 = hn = -13.6 ç - ÷
r r r çè n 2 n 2 ÷ø
2 1
1 2 Ze2 For transition from n = 6 to n = 2,

\ K.E. = mv =
2 2r -13.6 æ 1 1 ö 2 æ 13.6 ö
n1 = ç - 2÷ = ´ç ÷
e h è6 2
2 ø 9 è h ø
+r For transition from n = 2 to n = 1,
-13.6 æ 1 1 ö 3 æ 13.6 ö
1 1 n2 = - = ´ç ÷.
7. (a) P.E. µ - and K.E. µ h çè 22 12 ÷ø 4 è h ø
r r
As r increases so K.E. decreases but P.E. increases. \ n2 > n1
EBD_7156
154 DPP/ P 55
14. (d) E = - Z 2 ´13.6 eV = -9 ´13.6 eV = -122.4 eV 21. (a) Here radius of electron orbit r µ 1/ m and energy
E µ m , where m is the mass of the electron.
So ionisation energy = +122.4 eV
Hence energy of hypothetical atom
15. (c) For third line of Balmer series n1 = 2, n2 = 5
a0
E0 = 2 ´ (-13.6 eV ) = -27.2 eV and radius r0 =
1 é1 1 ù n12 n22 2
\ = RZ 2 ê - ú gives Z 2 =
l 2 2
êë n1 n2 úû (n22 - n12 )lR 2prn
22. (a) Time period, Tn = (in nth state)
On putting values Z = 2 vn
13.6 Z 2 -13.6(2) 2 i.e. Tn µ

rn
But rn µ n 2 and vn µ
1
From E = - = = -54.4 eV
n 2
(1) 2 vn n
é1 Therefore, Tn µ n 3 .
1 1 ù 1 é 1 1 ù 5R
16. (b) l = R ê 2 - 2 ú Þ l = Rê
2
- ú= Given Tn = 8Tn , Hence n1 = 2n 2. Þ n1 is even
ëê n1 n2 úû 3® 2 ëê (2) (3)2 úû 36 1 1
23. (d) 2.55eV = E4 – E2.
1 é 1 1 ù 3R Therefore other photon will have energy
and = Rê - ú=
l 4® 2 êë (2) 2
(4)2 úû 16 = E2– E1 = 10.2 eV.
Energy given to H-atom excitation = E2 – E1 = 12.75 eV.
l 20 20 Consider perfectly inelastic collision for other answer.
\ 4® 2 = Þ l 4® 2 = l0
l3®2 27 27
24. (a) Balmer series lies in the visible region.
1 é 1 1 ù 4
17. (a) = Rê - ú Þ l max = » 1213 Å 25. (b), 26. (d), 27. (a)
l max êë (1) 2 2
(2) úû 3R
Since 6 different types of photons are emitted implies 4C2
i.e. highest excitation state is n = 4
1 é 1 1ù 1
= Rê - ú Þ l min = » 910 Å Since emission energies are equal, lesser and greater so initial
and l 2 ¥ R
min ëê (1) úû state
18. (a) Maximum energy is liberated for transition En ® 1 and 12420 é1 1 ù
e= = 13.6Z2 ê - ú
minimum energy for En ® En-1 l ë 4 16 û
Þ Z2 = 16 Þ Z = 4
E1
Hence - E1 = 52.224 eV .....(i) 1 1
n2 E 4®1 = 13.6 (16) - = 20.4eV
1 16
E1 E1
and - = 1.224 eV ......(ii)
n 2
( n - 1) 2 1 1
E 4®3 = 13.6 (16) - = 10.6 eV
Solving equations (i) and (ii) we get 9 16
E1 = -54.4 eV and n = 5
28. (b) Bohr postulated that electrons in stationary orbits
13.6 Z 2 around the nucleus do not radiate.
Now E1 = - = -54.4 eV . Hence Z = 2 This is the one of Bohr’s postulate. According to this
12
the moving electrons radiate only when they go from
e0 n 2 h 2 one orbit to the next lower orbit.
19. (d) Radius R = 29. (b) Rutherford confirmed the repulsive force on a-particle
pnZe2
due to nucleus varies with distance according to inverse
Ze 2 mZ 2 e4 square law and that the positive charges are
Velocity v = and energy E = - 2 2 2 concentrated at the centre and not distributed
2e0nh 8e0 n h throughout the atom.
Now, it is clear from above expressions R.v µ n 30. (b) When the atom gets appropriate energy from outside,
20. (c) At closest distance of approach then this electron rises to some higher energy level.
Kinetic energy = Potential energy Now it can return either directly to the lower energy
level or come to the lowest energy level after passing
1 ( Ze)(2e)
Þ 5 ´ 106 ´1.6 ´10-19 = ´ through other lower energy lends, hence all possible
4pe0 r transitions take place in the source and many lines are
seen in the spectrum.
For uranium Z = 92, so r = 5.3 ´ 10 -12 cm
DPP/ P 56 155
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 56
1. (c). The energy produced per second is 9. (b). By the forumula N = N0e–lt
0.631×t
106 N 1 0.6931
= 1000 × 103 J= eV 6.25 × 1024 eV Given N = and l = Þ 20 = e 3.8
1.6 ´ 10-19 0 20 3.8
The number of fissions should be, thus Taking log of both sides
0.6931 ×t
6.25 ´ 1024 or log 20 = log10 e
number = = 3.125 × 1016 3.8
200 ´ 106
0.6931 ×t ´ 0.4343
2 or 1.3010 = Þ t = 16.5 days
2. (b). No. of atoms in 2kg 92 U235 = × NA 3.8
235
10. (b). A = 238 - 4 = 234, Z = 92 - 2 = 90
2 11. (a). Dm = 0.03 a.m.u., A = 4
= × (6.02 × 1026) = 5.12 × 1024
235 Dm ´ 931
Þ DE =
5.12 ´ 10 24 A
Fission rate = = 1.975 × 1018 per sec
30 ´ 24 ´ 60 ´ 60 0.03 ´ 931
Usable energy per fission = 185 MeV Þ DE = = 7 MeV
4
\ Power output 12. (a). Q DE = Dm × 931 MeV
= (185 × 106)(1.975 × 1018)(1.6 × 10–19) watt
= 58.4 × 106 watt = 58.46 MW DE 2.23
Þ Dm = = = 0.0024 a.m.u.
931 931
6 ´1023
3. (d). \ 6 gm of 6C12 contains atoms = and each
2 R Al (27)1/3 3 6
13. (a). R = = =
atom of 6C12 contains electron, protons and neutrons Te (125)1/3 5 10
= 6, 6, 6
14. (d). R = R0 A1/3 = 1.2 × 10-15 × (64)1/3
\ No. of electron, protons and neutron in 6 gm of
12 23 23 23 = 1.2 × 10–15 × 4 = 4.8 fm
6C = 18 × 10 , 18 × 10 , 18 × 10 15. (b). Number of protrons in nucleus = atomic number = 11
4. (c). Use r = Mass/volume
Number of electrons = number of protons = 11.
1.66 ´ 10-27 ´ 16 Number of neutrons = mass number A – atomic number Z
= = 2.35 × 1017 kg m-3 N = 24 – 11 = 13
(4 / 3)p(3 ´ 10 -15 )
16. (d). Q equivalent mass of each photon = 1/2000 amu
5. (a). Mass defect Dm = M (Ra 226) – M(Rn 222) – M (a) Q 1 amu = 931 MeV
= 226.0256 – 222.0175 – 4.00026 = 0.0053 u.
6. (a). E = mc2 = (1.66 × 10–27) (3 × 108)2 J 931
\ Energy of each photon = = 0.465 MeV
= 1.49 × 10–10 J 2000
17. (c). Deuterium, the isotope of hydrogen consits of one proton
1.49 ´ 10-10 and neutron. Therefore mass of nuclear constituents of
= MeV = 931.49 MeV
1.6 ´ 10-13 deuterium = mass of proton + mass of neutron
7. (b). E = mc2 = 1.00759 + 1.00898 = 2.01657 amu.
= (9.1 × 10–31) (3 × 108)2 J = 0.51 MeV mass of nucleus of deuterium = 2.01470 amu.
8. (c). DE = D mc2 Mass defect = 2.01657 – 2.01470 = 0.00187 amu.
Binding energy = DE = 0.00187 × 931 MeV = 1.741 MeV.
0.5
Dm = kg = 0.005 kg
100
c = 3 × 108 m/s DE Dm ´ 931
18. (a). E = = MeV
DE = 0.005 × (3 × 108)2 A A
DE = 4.5 × 1014 J or watt-sec Dm = (3mp + 4mn) – mass of Li7
Dm = (3 × 1.00759 + 4 × 1.00898) – 7.01653
4.5 ´ 1014 Dm = 0.04216 a.m.u.
DE = = 1.25 × 10111 watt hour
60 ´ 60
0.04216 ´ 931 39.25
DE = 1.25 × 108 kWH DE = = = 5.6 MeV
7 7
EBD_7156
156 DPP/ P 56
19. (d). The sun radiates energy in all directions in a sphere. At 25. (c) The number of 12C atoms in 1g of carbon,
a distance R, the energy received per unit area per
second is 1.4 KJ (given). Therefore the energy released NA 6.022 ´ 1023
N= ´mÞ N = ´1
in area 4pR2 per sec is = 1400 × 4pR2 Joule the energy 12 12
released per day = 1400 × 4pR2 × 86400J = 5.02 × 1022 atoms.
where R = 1.5 × 1011 m, Thus The ratio of 14C/12C atoms = 1.3 × 10–12 (Given)
DE = 1400×4 × 3.14 × (1.5 × 1011)2 × 86400
\ Number of 14C atoms = 5.02 × 1022 × 1.3 × 10–
The equivalent mass is 12
Dm = DE/c2
= 6.5 × 1010
11 2
1400 ´ 4 ´ 3.14 ´ (1.5 ´ 10 ) ´ 86400
Dm = 0.693
9 ´ 1016 \ Rate of decay R0 = lN0 = T N0
1/ 2
Dm = 3.8 × 1014 kg
0.693 ´ 6.5 ´ 1010
B.E. \ R0 =
20. (b) 5730 ´ 365 ´ 24 ´ 3600
A
+ = 0.25 Bq = 0.25 (decays/s)
Fusion Fission
+ 26. (c) For 10g sample, number of decays = 0.5 per second.
i.e. R = 0.05 and R0 = 0.25 for each gram of 14C
A R 1 ln ( R0 / R ) ln ( R0 / R )
t /T 10 / 5
= e -lt Þ t = =
æ1ö æ1ö R0 l 1 (0.693 / T1/ 2 )
21. (c) Nt = N0 ç ÷ = 50000 ç ÷ = 12500
è2ø è2ø
5730 years æ 0.25 ö
Þt= ´ ln ç = 13310 years
22. (d). Power received from the reactor, 0.693 è 0.05 ÷ø
P = 1000 KW = 1000 × 1000 W = 106 J/s 27. (d) If there are no other radioactive ingredients, the sample
is very recent. But the error of measurement must be
106 high unless the statistical error itself is large. In any
P= eV/sec.
1.6 ´ 10-19 case, for an old sample, the activity will not be higher
P = 6.25 × 1018 MeV/sec than that of a recent one.
\ number of atoms disintegrated per sec 28. (d) The penetrating power is maximum in case of gamma
rays because gamma rays are an electromagnetic
6.25 ´ 1018 radiation of very small wavelength.
= = 3.125 × 1016 29. (b) b-particles, being emitted with very high velocity (up
200
to 0.99 c). So, according to Einstein's theory of
Energy released per hour = 106 × 60 × 60 Joule relatively, the mass of a b-particle is much higher
DE compared to is its rest mass (m0). The velocity of
Mass decay per hour = Dm = electrons obtained by other means is very small
c2 compared to c (Velocity of light). So its mass remains
nearly m0. But b-particle and electron both are similar
106 ´ 60 ´ 60 particles.
Þ Dm =
(3 ´ 108 )2 30. (b) Electron capture occurs more often than positron
emission in heavy elements. This is because if positron
Þ Dm = 4 × 10–8 kg emission is energetically allowed, electron capture is
23. (a) necessarily allowed, but the reverse is not true i.e. when
24. (a) In fusion two lighter nuclei combines, it is not the electron caputre is energetically allowed, positron
radioactive decay. emission is not necessarily allowed.
DPP/ P 57 157
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 57
1. (a) With temperature rise conductivity of semiconductors 19. (b) In forward biasing the diffusion current increases and
increases. drift current remains constant so not current is due to
2. (b) the diffusion.
3. (b) In insulators, the forbidden energy gap is very large, in In reverse biasing diffusion becomes more difficult so
case of semiconductor it is moderate and in conductors net current (very small) is due to the drift.
the energy gap is zero. 20. (a) In a triclinic crystal a ¹ b ¹ c and a ¹ b ¹ g ¹ 90º
4. (c) In intrinsic semiconductors, the creation or liberation 21. (a)
of one free electron by the thermal energy creates one 22. (a) In figure (1), (2) and (3). P-crystals are more positive
hole. Thus in intrinsic semiconductors ne = nh as compared to N-crystals.
23. (a) Wood is non-crystalline and others are crystalleine.
5. (b) Both P-type and N-type semiconductors are neutral 24. (a) Resistance of conductors (Cu) decreases with decrease
because neutral atoms are added during doping. in temperature while that of semi-conductors (Ge)
6. (d) Conductor has positive temperature coefficient of increases with decrease in temperature.
resistance but semiconductor has negative temperature
coefficient of resistance. DV p (180 - 120)
25. (b) rp = = = 1.2 ´ 104 ohm
7. (d) DI p -3
(15 - 10) ´10
8. (c) At zero Kelvin, there is no thermal agitation and
therefore no electrons from valence band are able to
DI p (15 - 7 ) ´ 10 -3
shift to conduction band. 26. (a) gm = = = 5.33 ´ 10 -3 ohm -1
9. (c) Antimony is a fifth group impurity and is therefore a DVg ( - 2 .0 ) - ( - 3 .5 )
donor of electrons.
10. (d) At 0K temperature semiconductor behaves as an 27. (a) m = rp ´ g m = (1.2 ´ 10 4 ) ´ ( 5.33 ´ 10 -3 ) = 64
insulator, because at very low temperature electrons
cannot jump from the valence band to conduction band.
11. (b) Formation of energy bands in solids are due to Pauli’s 28. (a) According to law of mass action, ni2 = ne nh . In
exclusion principle. intrinsic semiconductors ni = ne = nh and for P-type
12. () semiconductor ne would be less than ni, since nh is
13. (a) In conductors valence band and conduction band may necessarily more than ni.
overlaps. 29. (d) Resistivity of semiconductors decreases with
14. (b) With rise in temperature, conductivity of semiconductor temperature. The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with
increases while resistance decreases. larger amplitudes at higher temperatures there by
i increasing its conductivity not resistivity.
15. (a) Because vd = 30. (c) We cannot measure the potential barrier of a PN-
(ne )eA
junction by connecting a sensitive voltmeter across its
16. (b) In reverse biasing, width of depletion layer increases. terminals because in the depletion region, there are no
17. (b) Because in case (1) N is connected with N. This is not free electrons and holes and in the absence of forward
a series combination of transistor. biasing, PN- junction offers infinite resistance.
18. (d) Resistance in forward biasing R fr » 10W and
resistance in reverse biasing
R fr 1
RRw » 105 W Þ =
RRw 104
EBD_7156
158 DPP/ P 58
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 58
12. (a)
1. (b) N N
Forward reverse
biased P biased
2. (d) a is the ratio of collector current and emitter current

C = A.B = A + B = A + B (De morgan’s theorem)
while b is the ratio of collector current and base current.
Hence output C is equivalent to OR gate.
10 -19
Ne 10 ´1.6 ´10
3. (a) Emitter current Ie = = = 1.6 mA
t 10-6
2
Base current Ib =
100
× 1.6 = 0.032 mA C = AB. AB = A.B + A.B = AB + AB = AB
In this case output C is equivalent to AND gate.
But, Ie = Ic + Ib
\ Ic = Ie – Ib = 1.6 – 0.032 = 1.568 mA 13. (c) For ‘XNOR’ gate Y = A B + AB
Ic 1.568 Ic 1.568 i.e. 0.0 + 0.0 = 1.1 + 0.0 = 1 + 0 = 1
\ a= = = 0.98 and b = I = = 49
Ie 1.6 0.032
b 0.1 + 0.1 = 1.0 + 0.1 = 0 + 0 = 0
4. (d)
1.0 + 1.0 = 0.1 + 1.0 = 0 + 0 = 0
90
5. (d) iC = ´ iE Þ 10 = 0.9 ´ iE Þ I E = 11mA 1.1 + 1.1 = 0.0 + 1.1 = 0 + 1 = 1
100
14. (d) The output D for the given combination
Also i E = i B + i C Þ i B = 11 - 10 = 1mA D = ( A + B).C = ( A + B) + C
6. (d) b = 50, R = 1000W, Vi = 0.01V If A = B = C = 0 then
i V 0.01 D = (0 + 0) + 0 = 0 + 0 = 1 + 1 = 1
b = c and ib = i = = 10-5 A
ib Ri 103 If A = B = 1, C = 0 then
Hence ic = 50 ´ 10-5 A = 500 mA D = (1 + 1) + 0 = 1 + 0 = 0 + 1 = 1
0.8 15. (a) The Boolean expression for ‘NOR’ gate is Y = A + B

7. (c) a = 0.8 Þ b = =4
(1 - 0.8) i.e. if A = B = 0 (Low), Y = 0 + 0 = 0 = 1 (High)
16. (d) The Boolean expression for ‘AND’ gate is R = P.Q
Di
Also b = c Þ Dic = b ´ Dib = 4 ´ 6 = 24mA Þ 1.1 = 1,1.0 = 0, 0.1 = 0, 0.0 = 0
Dib
17. (a) The given Boolean expression can be written as
8. (b) ie = ib + ic Þ ic = ie - ib
Y = ( A + B).( A.B) = ( A.B).( A + B) = ( A A).B + A( B.B)
9. (b)
= A.B + A B = A B
10. (d) For CE configuration voltage gain = b´ RL / Ri
Power gain A B Y
Power gain = b2 ´ RL / Ri Þ =b 0 0 1
Voltage gain
1 0 0
11. (b) For ‘OR’ gate X = A + B 0 1 0
i.e. 0 + 0 = 0, 0 + 1 = 1,1 + 0 = 1, 1 + 1 = 1 1 1 0
DPP/ P 58 159
18. (c) The Boolean expression for the given combination is But I e = I c + I b = 0.96 I e + I b
output Y = ( A + B ).C
Þ I b = 0.04 I e
The truth table is
A B C Y = (A + B).C I c 0.96 I e
\ Current gain, b = = = 24
0 0 0 0 I b 0.04I e
1 0 0 0
23. (a)
0 1 0 0
24. (b)
0 0 1 0
25. (a)
1 1 0 0
26. (b) The probability that a state with energy E is occupied
0 1 1 1
is given by
1 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
P(E) = (E -E ) / kT , where EF is the Fermi energy,,
Hence A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 e F +1
19. (d) For ‘NAND’ gate C = A.B T is the temperature on the Kelvin scale, and k is the
Boltzmann constant. If energies are measured from the
i.e. 0.0 = 0 = 1, 0.1 = 0 = 1 top of the valence band, then the energy associated with
a state at the bottom of the conduction band is E = 1.11
1.0 = 0 = 1,1.1 = 1 = 0
eV. Furthermore, kT = (8.62 × 10–5 eV/K) (300K) =
0.02586 eV. For pure silicon, EF = 0.555 eV and
20. (d)
(E – EF)/kT = (0.555eV) / (0.02586eV) = 21.46. Thus,
1
P(E) = = 4.79 ´ 10 -10
21.46
e +1
For the doped semi-conductor,
(E – EF) / kT = (0.11 eV) / (0.02586 eV) = 4.254
1
Hence option (d) is true. and P(E) = 4.254 = 1.40 ´ 10 -2 .
e +1
27. (a) The energy of the donor state, relative to the top of the
21. (c)
valence bond, is 1.11 eV – 0.15 eV = 0.96 eV. The
Fermi energy is 1.11 eV – 0.11 eV = 1.00 eV. Hence,
(E - E F ) / kT = (0.96eV - 1.00eV)
/(0.02586eV) = -1.547
1
and P(E) = = 0.824
-1.547
e +1
True Table 28. (d) In diode the output is in same phase with the input
X Y therefore it cannot be used to built NOT gate.
X Y P = X + Y Q = X.Y R = P+Q
29. (a) This is Boolean expression for ‘OR’ gate.
0 1 1 0 1 1 0
1 1 0 0 1 1 0
1 0 0 1 0 0 1
0 0 1 1 1 1 0 30. (d) Statement -1 is true but statement -2 is false.
Hence X = 1, Y = 0 gives output R = 1
Ic
22. (c) I = 0.96
e
Þ I c = 0.96 I e If A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 then Y = 0
EBD_7156
160 DPP/ P 59
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 59
20. (a) The critical frequency of a sky wave for relection from
1. (a) By using fc ; 9 ( N max )1/ 2 Þ f c = 2.84MHz
a layer of atmosphere is given by fc = 9( N max )11/ 2
2. (d) Carrier frequency > audio frequency
3. (a) A maximum frequency deviation of 75 kHz is permitted Þ 10 ´106 = 9( N max )11/ 2
for commercial FM broadcast stations in the 88 to 108
MHz VHF band. 2
æ 10 ´106 ö 12 -3
4. (c) Carrier + signal ® modulation. Þ N max = ç ÷ ; 1.2 ´10 m
ç 9 ÷
5. (c) 270W è ø
6. (a) m1 > m2
21. (b) Core of acceptance angle q = sin -1 n12 - n22
fc 60
7. (c) MUF = = = 175MHz 22 (a) Remote sensing is the technique to collect information
cos q cos 70o
about an object in respect of its size, colour, nature,
8. (d) coordinated waves of a particular wavelength location, temperature etc without physically touching
9. (d) Surgery needs sharply focused beam of light and laser it. There are some areas or location which are
can be sharply focused. inaccessible. So to explore sensing is used. Remote
10. (d) Laser beams are perfectly parallel. So that they are very sensing is done through a satellite.
narrow and can travel a long distance without 23. (b)
spreading. This is the feature of laser while they are 24. (a) Laser beams are perfectly parallel. They are
monochromatic and coherent, these are characteristics monochromatic and coherent. These are characteristics
only. only.
11. (b) The formula for modulating index is given by
25. (d) f c = 9 N m = 9 ´ 9 ´ 1010
d Frequency var iation 10 ´ 103
mf = = = =5 = 2.7 ´ 106 Hz = 2.7 MHz
vm Modulating frequency 2 ´ 103
12. (b) fa < f f ( 250 ´ 103 )2

D2
26. (b) f = f c 1 + = 2.7 ´ 10 6 ´ 1 +
13. (c) An antenna is a metallic structure used to radiate or 4h 2 4 ´ (150 ´ 103 )
2
receive EM waves.
14. (a) Varying the local oscillator frequency = 3.17 × 106Hz
15. (b) In the channel or in the transmission line 27. (c) f = fc = sec fi
Frequency deviation 50
16. (a) Carrier swing = = = 7.143
Modulating frequency 7 f 3.17×106
Secfi = = = 1.174
f c 2.7 ´106
17. (c) In optical fibre, light travels inside it, due to total
internal reflection.
fi = sec –1 (1.174) = 31.6° .
18. (b) The process of changing the frequency of a carrier wave
(modulated wave) in accordance with the audio 28. (d) TV signals (frequency greater than 30 MHz) cannot
frequency signal (modulating wave) is known as be propagated through sky wave propagation.
frequency modulation (FM). Above critical frequency, an electromagnetic wave
19. (d) Following are the problems which are faced while penetrates the ionosphere and is not reflected by it.
transmitting audio signals directly. 29. (d) The electromagnetic waves of shorter wavelength do
(i) These signals are relatively of short range. not suffer much diffraction from the obstacles of earth’s
(ii) If every body started transmitting these low frequency atmosphere so they can travel long distance.
signals directly, mutual interference will render all of Also, shorter the wavelength, shorter is the velocity of
them ineffective. wave propagation.
(iii) Size of antenna required for their efficient radiation 30. (b) A dish antenna is a directional antenna because it can
would be larger i.e. about 75 km. transmit or signals in all direction.
DPP/ P 60 161
DAILY PRACTICE
PROBLEMS
PHYSICS
SOLUTIONS 60
1. (b) Voltmeter measures voltage across two points so it is 15. (c) In reverse-bias mode, a reverse current flows.
connected in parallel and ammeter measures current Therefore, (c) represents the form.
so it is connected in series. 16. (c) Larger the length, lesser will be the potential gradient,
P R so more balancing length will be required.
2. (a) = so by changing the gap resistance of copper 17. (a) LED is a p-n junction diode which always operates on
Q S forward bias.
strip gets cancelled. 18. (b) Emitter current is the sum of base and collector current
3. (b) Potential gradient = Potential drop/unit length by Kirchhoff's 1st law.
rl Irl
V = IR = I 19. (b) V = IR = \ potential gradient = k
A A
when A is decreased, k will increase.
V Ir
\ = ] 20. (d) Positive terminal is at lower potential
l A (0V) and negative terminal is at higher potential + 5V.
4. (d) Refractive index is the property of the material, hence 21. (d)
it does not depend on angle of the prism.
V 30.0
5. (a) A meter-bridge is a device which is based on the 22. (d) V = 30.0, I = 0.020 A, R = = = 1.50 kW
principle of Wheatstone bridge. I 0.020
6. (a) A potentiometer is device which is used to compare V DR DV DI
e.m.f.'s of two cells as well as to determine the internal Error : As R = \ = +
I R V I
resistance of a cell. It is based on the principle that when
a current flows through a wire of uniform thickness and æ DV DI ö
Þ DR = R çè + ÷
material, potential difference between its two points is V Iø
directly proportional to the length of the wire between
the two points. æ 0.1 0.001ö
= 1.50 × 103 çè + ÷ = 0.080 kW
7. (c) When a p-n junction diode is connected in reverse 30.0 0.020 ø
biased mode, a reverse current flows. 23. (a) u = – 0.30 m, v = – 0.60m
8. (b) A Zener diode is a heavily doped p-n junction diode By mirror formula,
which operates on reverse bias beyond breakdown
voltage. 1 1 1
+ =
9. (c) In a transfer characteristics Vi is plotted along x-axis v u f
and V0 along y-axis. 1 -1 1 -3.0
Þ = - Þ f= Þ f = 0.20m
Χ IC f 0.30 0.60 0.60
10. (a) Current gain in CE configuration is b = .
ΧI B 1 1 1 -df -dv -du
Þ = + Þ 2 = 2 - 2
Ic >> IB, hence it is maximum. f v u f v u
rl V Ir é 0.01
11. (c) V = IR = I \ <k< , 0.01 ù
A l A Þ df = (0.20)2 ê 2
+ ú
increase in I, will increase k, so it will decrease ëê (0.60) (0.30)2 ûú
sensitivity. Þ df = 0.0055 » 0.01m
12. (c) Þ Focal length f = (0.20 ± 0.01) m
13. (c) According to the figure the voltmeter and the resistor 24. (d) As shown in the figure.
are connected in parallel.
14. (b) Here I = 4A P l l
= , Pµ
Q 100 - l 100 - l
c
æ 30 ´ p ö pc P(unknown)Q
q = 30° = ç ÷ =
è 180 ø 6
I 4 4´6´7 2´6´7
Now, k = = = =
q æpö 22 11 G
ç ÷
è6ø
B
84
= = 7.6 A / rad l 100l
11
EBD_7156
162 DPP/ P 60
27. (c) because balance point depends upon the value of
DP Dl D (100 - l)
= + unknown and known resistance only.
P l 100 - l 28. (c) Potentiometer is used to measure the potential
Dl Dl difference between the two points of a wire.
= + 29. (a) Let j be the current density.
l 100 - l
I
0.1 0.1 DP Then j ´ 2pr 2 = I Þ j =
= + Þ ´ 100 = 0.42% 2 pr 2
40.0 60.0 P
25. (b) As shown in the figure, when the object (O) is placed rI
\ E = rj =
between F and C, the image (I) is formed beyond C. It 2pr 2
is in this condition that movement towards left
a r uur a
rI
//// '
Now, DVBC =- ò E. dr = - ò 2
dr
a + b 2 pr
/ //
Movement towards left a+b

////
F
//////////////
a
| |||
rI é 1 ù rI rI
|||
|||
=- - = -
||||
I C O
2p ëê r ûú a + b 2pa 2p (a + b)
///
//
/// On applying superposition as mentioned we get
' rI rI
when the student shifts his eye towards left, the image DVBC = 2 ´ DVBC = -
pa p(a + b)
appears to the right of the object pin.
26. (c) For a spherical mirror, the graph plotted between (1/u) rI
30. (c) E=
and (1/v) will be a straight line with a negative slope 2 pr 2
of (– 1) and position intercept (1/f) on the (1/v) axis
1 1 1
=- +
v u f
1/ f
tan q = -1
q
(1/u)
O 1/ f
CHAPTER-WISE
DPP SHEETS
WITH SOLUTIONS
[a]
INDEX/CHAPTERS
Page No.
DPP-1 PHYSICAL WORLD, UNI TS & MEASUREMENTS P-1 – P-4
DPP-2 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE P-5 – P-8
DPP-3 MOTION IN A PLANE P-9 – P-12
DPP-4 LAWS OF MOTI ON P-13 – P-16
DPP-5 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER P-17 – P-20
DPP-6 SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION P-21 – P-24
DPP-7 GR AVIT AT IO N P-25 – P-28
DPP-8 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS P-29 – P-32
DPP-9 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS P-33 – P-36
DPP-10 TH ERMAL PROPERTI ES OF MATT ER P-37 – P-40
DPP-11 TH ER MODY NA MI CS P-41 – P-44
DPP-12 KINETIC THEORY P-45 – P-48
DPP-13 . OSCI LLATI ONS P-49 – P-52
DPP-14 WAVES P-53 – P-56
DPP-15 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS P-57 – P-60
DPP-16 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL & CAPACITANCE P-61 – P-64
DPP-17 CURRENT ELECTRICITY P-65 – P-68
DPP-18 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGN ETISM P-69 – P-72
DPP-19 MAGNETI SM AND MATTER P-73 – P-76
DPP-20 ELECTROMAGNETIC IN DUCTION P-77 – P-80
DPP-21 ALTERNATING CURRENT P-81 – P-84
[b]
EBD_7156
DPP-22 ELEC TROMAGN ETI C W AVES P-85 – P-88
DPP-23 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS P-89 – P-92
DPP-24 WAVE OPTICS P-93 – P-96
DPP-25 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER P-97 – P-100
DPP-26 ATOMS P-101 – P- 104
DPP-27 NU CL EI P-105 – P- 108
DPP-28 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS: MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS P-109 – P- 112
Solutions To Chapter-wise DPP Sheets (1-28) S -1 – S -115
[c]

Chapter-wise Sheets
Date : Start Time : End Time :
PHYSICS CP01
SYLLABUS : Physical World, Units & Measurements
Max. Marks : 180 Marking Scheme : (+4) for correct & (–1) for incorrect answer Time : 60 min.
INSTRUCTIONS : This Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 45 MCQs. For each question only one option is correct.
Darken the correct circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.
1. The density of material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. In 4. Young’s modulus of a material has the same unit as that of
a system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit of (a) pressure (b) strain
mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be (c) compressibility (d) force
(a) 0.4 unit (b) 40 unit 5. Of the following quantities, which one has dimensions
(c) 400 unit (d) 0.04 unit different from the remaining three?
2. The time period of a body under S.H.M. is represented by: (a) Energy per unit volume
T = Pa Db Sc where P is pressure, D is density and S is (b) Force per unit area
surface tension, then values of a, b and c are (c) Product of voltage and charge per unit volume
3 1 (d) Angular momentum
(a) - , , 1 (b) -1, - 2, 3 6. The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring
2 2
the force on the plate and length of the sides of the plate by
1 3 1 1
(c) ,- ,- (d) 1, 2, F
2 2 2 3 using the formula P = . If the maximum errors in the
3. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers l2
23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are measurement of force and length are 4% and 2%
(a) 5, 1, 2 (b) 5, 1, 5 (c) 5, 5, 2 (d) 4, 4, 2 respectively, then the maximum error in the measurement of
pressure is
(a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 8% (d) 10%
RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6.
EBD_7156
P-2 DPP/ CP01
7. The siemen is the SI unit of measurement of mass and length are 4% and 3%
(a) resistivity (b) resistance respectively, the maximum error in the measurement of
(c) conductivity (d) conductance density will be
8. An object is moving through the liquid. The viscous (a) 7% (b) 9% (c) 12% (d) 13%
damping force acting on it is proportional to the velocity. 16. Which is different from others by units ?
Then dimensions of constant of proportionality are (a) Phase difference (b) Mechanical equivalent
(a) [ML–1T–1] (b) [MLT–1] (c) Loudness of sound (d) Poisson’s ratio
(c) [M0LT–1] (d) [ML0T–1] DV
9. The least count of a stop watch is 0.2 second. The time of 20 17. A quantity X is given by e 0 L where Î0 is the
Dt
oscillations of a pendulum is measured to be 25 second. permittivity of the free space, L is a length, DV is a potential
The percentage error in the measurement of time will be difference and Dt is a time interval. The dimensional formula
(a) 8% (b) 1.8% (c) 0.8% (d) 0.1% for X is the same as that of
10. Weber is the unit of
(a) resistance (b) charge
(a) magnetic susceptibility
(b) intensity of magnetisation (c) voltage (d) current
(c) magnetic flux 18. If the error in the measurement of the volume of sphere is
(d) magnetic permeability 6%, then the error in the measurement of its surface area will
11. The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula be
[M1T–3] is (a) 2% (b) 3% (c) 4% (d) 7.5%
(a) surface tension (b) solar constant 19. If velocity (V), force (F) and energy (E) are taken as fundamental
(c) density (d) compressibility units, then dimensional formula for mass will be
12. The dimensions of Wien’s constant are –2 0 0 2 –2 0 –2 0
(a) V F E (b) V FE (c) VF E (d) V F E
(a) [ML0 T K] (b) [M0 LT0 K]
(c) [M0 L0 T K] (d) [MLTK] 20. Multiply 107.88 by 0.610 and express the result with correct
13. If the capacitance of a nanocapacitor is measured in terms number of significant figures.
of a unit ‘u’ made by combining the electric charge ‘e’, (a) 65.8068 (b) 65.807 (c) 65.81 (d) 65.8
Bohr radius ‘a0’, Planck’s constant ‘h’ and speed of light ‘c’ 21. Which of the following is a dimensional constant?
then (a) Refractive index (b) Poissons ratio
(c) Strain (d) Gravitational constant
e2 h hc
(a) u = (b) u = 2 22. If E, m, J and G represent energy, mass, angular momentum
a0 e a0 and gravitational constant respectively, then the
e2 c e2 a 0 dimensional formula of EJ2/m5G2 is same as that of the
(c) u= (d) u= (a) angle (b) length (c) mass (d) time
ha 0 hc
23. The refractive index of water measured by the relation
1 e2 real depth
14. The dimensions of are m= is found to have values of 1.34, 1.38,
Îo hc apparent depth
1.32 and 1.36; the mean value of refractive index with
(a) M–1 L–3 T4 A2 (b) ML3 T–4 A–2
percentage error is
(c) M0 L0 T0 A0 (d) M–1 L–3 T2 A
(a) 1.35 ± 1.48 % (b) 1.35 ± 0 %
15. The density of a cube is measured by measuring its mass (c) 1.36 ± 6 % (d) 1.36 ± 0 %
and length of its sides. If the maximum error in the
7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
RESPONSE 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
GRID 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.
22. 23.
DPP/ CP01 P-3

24. If e is the charge, V the potential difference, T the temperature, 32. The mass of the liquid flowing per second per unit area of
eV cross-section of the tube is proportional to (pressure
then the units of are the same as that of
T difference across the ends)n and (average velocity of the
(a) Planck’s constant (b) Stefan’s constant liquid)m. Which of the following relations between m and n
(c) Boltzmann's constant (d) gravitational constant is correct?
25. The dimensions of mobility are
(a) m = n (b) m = – n (c) m2 = n (d) m = – n2
(a) M–2T 2A (b) M–1T 2A
(c) M–2T 3A (d) M–1T 3A 33. The Richardson equation is given by I = AT2e–B/kT. The
26. Two quantities A and B have different dimensions which dimensional formula for AB2 is same as that for
mathematical operation given below is physically (a) I T2 (b) kT (c) I k2 (d) I k2/T
meaningful? 34. Turpentine oil is flowing through a capillary tube of length
(a) A/B (b) A + B (c) A – B (d) A = B l and radius r. The pressure difference between the two
27. The velocity of water waves (v) may depend on their
wavelength l, the density of water r and the acceleration ends of the tube is p. The viscosity of oil is given by :
due to gravity, g. The method of dimensions gives the
p(r 2 - x 2 )
relation between these quantities is h= . Here v is velocity of oil at a distance x from
(a) v (b) v2 µ gl 4vl
(c) v µ gl
2 2 (d) v2 µ g–1l2 the axis of the tube. From this relation, the dimensional
28. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are formula of h is
(a) torque and work
(b) momentum and Planck’s constant (a) [ML-1T -1 ] (b) [MLT -1 ]
(c) stress and Young’s modulus
(d) speed and (m0e0)–1/2 (c) [ML2 T -2 ] (d) [M 0 L0 T 0 ]
29. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be
e2 éæ 2 p öù
formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity of light, G is 35. Given that y = A sin êç (ct - x) ÷ú , where y and x are
4pe0 ëè l øû
universal constant of gravitation and e is charge] measured in metre. Which of the following statements is
1/ 2 1/ 2 true?
2
é e2 ù 1 é e2 ù
(a) c êG ú (b) ê ú (a) The unit of l is same as that of x and A
ëê 4pe 0 ûú c 2 ëê G4 pe0 ûú (b) The unit of l is same as that of x but not of A
1/ 2 2p
1 e2 1 é e2 ù (c) The unit of c is same as that of
(c) G (d) êG ú l
c 4pe0 c ëê 4pe 0 ûú
2
2p
30. The unit of impulse is the same as that of (d) The unit of (ct – x) is same as that of
(a) energy (b) power l
(c) momentum (d) velocity 36. If L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, then L + B =
31. If Q denote the charge on the plate of a capacitor of (a) 4.431 cm (b) 4.43 cm (c) 4.4 cm (d) 4 cm
Q2 37. In the relation x = cos (wt + kx), the dimension(s) of w is/are
capacitance C then the dimensional formula for is (a) [M0 LT] (b) [M0L–1T0]
C 0 0 –1
(c) [M L T ] (d) [M0LT–1]
(a) [L2M2T] (b) [LMT2]
(c) [L2MT–2] (d) [L2M2T2]
24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

RESPONSE 29. 30. 31. 32. 33.
GRID
34. 35. 36. 37.
EBD_7156
P-4 DPP/ CP01
38. In a vernier callipers, ten smallest divisions of the vernier 42. Which of the following do not have the same dimensional
scale are equal to nine smallest division on the main scale. If formula as the velocity?
the smallest division on the main scale is half millimeter, Given that m0 = permeability of free space, e0 = permittivity
then the vernier constant is of free space, n = frequency, l = wavelength, P = pressure, r
(a) 0.5 mm (b) 0.1 mm (c) 0.05 mm (d) 0.005 mm = density, w = angular frequency, k = wave number,
39. Which two of the following five physical parameters have
(a) 1 m 0 eo (b) n l (c) P/r (d) wk
the same dimensions?
(A) Energy density (B) Refractive index 43. Unit of magnetic moment is
(C) Dielectric constant (D) Young’s modulus (a) ampere–metre2 (b) ampere–metre
(E) Magnetic field (c) weber–metre2 (d) weber/metre
(a) (B) and (D) (b) (C) and (E) 44. An experiment is performed to obtain the value of
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (A) and (E) acceleration due to gravity g by using a simple pendulum of
length L. In this experiment time for 100 oscillations is
æ a ö measured by using a watch of 1 second least count and the
40. In the eqn. ç P + 2 ÷ (V - b) = constant, the unit of a is
è V ø value is 90.0 seconds. The length L is measured by using a
meter scale of least count 1 mm and the value is 20.0 cm. The
(a) dyne cm5 (b) dyne cm4
3
error in the determination of g would be:
(c) dyne/cm (d) dyne cm2
(a) 1.7% (b) 2.7% (c) 4.4% (d) 2.27%
41. The dimensions of Reynold’s constant are
45. The dimensional formula for magnetic flux is
(a) [M0L0T0] (b) [ML–1T–1] (a) [ML2T–2A–1] (b) [ML3T–2A–2]
–1
(c) [ML T ]–2 (d) [ML–2T–2] 0 –2 2 –2
(c) [M L T A ] (d) [ML2T–1A2]
RESPONSE 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

GRID 43. 44. 45.
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM DPP CHAPTERWISE CP01 - PHYSICS

Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP02
SYLLABUS : Motion in a Straight Line
1. A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time t = 0 such that (b) The magnitude of the average velocity in an interval is
its velocity v changes with time t according to the equation equal to its average speed in that interval.
v = t2 – t where t is in seconds and v is in m/s. Find the time (c) It is possible to have a situation in which the speed of
interval for which the particle retards. the particle is never zero but the average speed in an
1 1 interval is zero.
(a) <t <1 (b) >t >1 (d) It is possible to have a situation in which the speed of
2 2 particle is zero but the average speed is not zero.
1 1 3 5. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts moving along
(c) <t <1 (d) <t< with the positive x-direction with a velocity 'v' that varies as
4 2 4
2. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time ‘t’are given v = a x . The displacement of the particle varies with time as
by x = at3 and y = bt3. The speed of the particle at time ‘t’ (a) t 2 (b) t (c) t 1/2 (d) t 3
is given by 6. Figure here gives the speed-time graph for a body. The
2 2 2 2 2
displacement travelled between t = 1.0 second and t = 7.0
(a) 3t a + b (b) 3t a +b second is nearest to
4
(a) 1.5 m
(c) t 2 a 2 + b2 (d) a 2 + b2 8
v (in ms -1 )
(b) 2 m 0 6
3. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 2 4 t
(in sec .)
3/5th distance with v2 then average speed is (c) 3 m
-4
1 v +v 2v1v2 5v1v2 (d) 4 m
(a) v1v2 (b) 1 2 (c) (d) 3v + 2v 7. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity
2 2 v1 + v2 1 2 and uniform acceleration a. If the sum of the distance
4. Choose the correct statements from the following. travelled in tth and (t + 1)th seconds is 100 cm, then its
(a) The magnitude of instantaneous velocity of a particle velocity after t seconds, in cm/s, is
is equal to its instantaneous speed (a) 80 (b) 50 (c) 20 (d) 30
RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6. 7.
EBD_7156
P-6 DPP/ CP02
8. A thief is running away on a straight road on a jeep moving (x1 – x2) (x1 – x 2)
with a speed of 9 m/s. A police man chases him on a motor
cycle moving at a speed of 10 m/s. If the instantaneous
separation of jeep from the motor cycle is 100 m, how long
will it take for the police man to catch the thief? (a) t (b) t
O O
(a) 1 second (b) 19 second
(c) 90 second (d) 100 second (x1 – x2) (x1 – x 2)
9. The displacement x of a particle varies with time according
a
to the relation x = (1 - e - bt ). Then select the false
b
alternative. (c) t (d) t
O O
(a) At t = , the displacement of the particle is nearly 2 æç a ö÷
1
b 3èbø 15. From the top of a building 40 m tall, a boy projects a stone
(b) The velocity and acceleration of the particle at t = 0 are vertically upwards with an initial velocity 10 m/s such that it
a and –ab respectively eventually falls to the ground. After how long will the stone
a strike the ground ? Take g = 10 m/s2.
(c) The particle cannot go beyond x =
b (a) 1 s (b) 2 s (c) 3 s (d) 4 s
(d) The particle will not come back to its starting point at 16. Two bodies begin to fall freely from the same height but the
t®¥ second falls T second after the first. The time (after which
10. A metro train starts from rest and in five seconds achieves a the first body begins to fall) when the distance between the
speed 108 km/h. After that it moves with constant velocity bodies equals L is
and comes to rest after travelling 45m with uniform 1 T L L
retardation. If total distance travelled is 395 m, find total (a) T (b) + (c) (d) T + 2L
2 2 gT gT gT
time of travelling.
17. Let A, B, C, D be points on a vertical line such that
(a) 12.2 s (b) 15.3 s (c) 9 s (d) 17.2 s
AB = BC = CD. If a body is released from position A, the
11. The deceleration experienced by a moving motor boat after times of descent through AB, BC and CD are in the ratio.
its engine is cut off, is given by dv/dt = – kv3 where k is a
constant. If v0 is the magnitude of the velocity at cut-off, (a) 1 : 3 - 2 : 3 + 2 (b) 1 : 2 - 1 : 3 - 2
the magnitude of the velocity at a time t after the cut-off is
v0 (c) 1 : 2 - 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 2 : 3 - 1
(a) (b) v0 e –kt 18. The water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap 5 m above
2
(2 v 0 kt + 1) the ground. The third drop is leaving the tap at an instant
(c) v0 / 2 (d) v 0 when the first drop touches the ground. How far above the
12. The velocity of a particle is v = v0 + gt + ft2. If its position is ground is the second drop at that instant? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
x = 0 at t = 0, then its displacement after unit time (t = 1) is (a) 1.25 m (b) 2.50 m (c) 3.75 m (d) 5.00 m
(a) v0 + g /2 + f (b) v0 + 2g + 3f 19. The displacement ‘x’ (in meter) of a particle of mass ‘m’ (in
kg) moving in one dimension under the action of a force, is
(c) v0 + g /2 + f/3 (d) v0 + g + f
related to time ‘t’ (in sec) by t = x + 3 . The displacement
13. A man is 45 m behind the bus when the bus starts accelerating
from rest with acceleration 2.5 m/s2. With what minimum of the particle when its velocity is zero, will be
velocity should the man start running to catch the bus? (a) 2 m (b) 4 m (c) zero (d) 6 m
(a) 12 m/s (b) 14 m/s (c) 15 m/s (d) 16 m/s 20. A body moving with a uniform acceleration crosses a
distance of 65 m in the 5 th second and 105 m in 9th second.
14. A body is at rest at x = 0. At t = 0, it starts moving in the
How far will it go in 20 s?
positive x-direction with a constant acceleration. At the same
instant another body passes through x = 0 moving in the (a) 2040 m (b) 240 m (c) 2400 m (d) 2004 m
positive x-direction with a constant speed. The position of 21. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 km/h, can brake
the first body is given by x1(t) after time ‘t’; and that of the to stop within a distance of 20m. If the car is going twice as
second body by x2(t) after the same time interval. Which of fast i.e., 120 km/h, the stopping distance will be
the following graphs correctly describes (x1 – x 2) as a (a) 60 m (b) 40 m (c) 20 m (d) 80 m
function of time ‘t’?
8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
RESPONSE
13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
GRID 18. 19. 20. 21.
DPP/ CP02 P-7

22. A particle accelerates from rest at a constant rate for some
time and attains a velocity of 8 m/sec. Afterwards it
decelerates with the constant rate and comes to rest. If the a a
total time taken is 4 sec, the distance travelled is
(c) t (d) t
(a) 32 m (b) 16 m
(c) 4 m (d) None of the above
23. The equation represented by the graph below is :
30. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t,
1
(a) y = gt
given by f = f0 æç 1 - ö÷ , where f0 and T are constants. The
2 t
-1 t(s) è Tø
(b) y = gt O particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In the time interval between
2 t = 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity (vx) is
y
1 2 (m)
(c) y = gt 1 1
2 (a) f0T2 (b) f0T2 (c) f T (d) f0T
2 2 0
-1 2 31. A body is thrown vertically up with a velocity u. It passes
(d) y = gt
2 three points A, B and C in its upward journey with velocities
24. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation u u u
x = (t + 5)–1. The acceleration of particle is proportional to: , and respectively. The ratio of AB and BC is
2 3 4
(a) (velocity) 3/2 (b) (distance)2
(c) (distance) –2 (d) (velocity)2/3 (a) 20 : 7 (b) 2 (c) 10 : 7 (d) 1
25. A particle when thrown, moves such that it passes from 32. A boat takes 2 hours to travel 8 km and back in still water
same height at 2 and 10 seconds, then this height h is : lake. With water velocity of 4 km h–1, the time taken for
(a) 5g (b) g (c) 8g (d) 10g going upstream of 8 km and coming back is
26. The distance through which a body falls in the nth second (a) 160 minutes (b) 80 minutes
is h. The distance through which it falls in the next second is (c) 100 minutes (d) 120 minutes
g 33. A body starts from rest and travels a distance x with uniform
(a) h (b) h+ (c) h – g (d) h + g acceleration, then it travels a distance 2x with uniform speed,
2
27. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the top of the finally it travels a distance 3x with uniform retardation and
tower reaches the ground with a velocity 3u. The height of comes to rest. If the complete motion of the particle is along
the tower is a straight line, then the ratio of its average velocity to
(a) 3u2/g (b) 4u2/g (c) 6u2/g (d) 9u2/g maximum velocity is
28. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in (a) 2/5 (b) 3/5 (c) 4/5 (d) 6/7
seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle from O is 34. A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free space at a
given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. How long would the particle travel height of 10 m above the floor. He throws a stone of 0.5 kg
before coming to rest? mass downwards with a speed 2 m/s. When the stone
(a) 40 m (b) 56 m (c) 16 m (d) 24 m reaches the floor, the distance of the man above the floor
29. The graph shown in figure shows will be:
the velocity v versus time t for a (a) 9.9 m (b) 10.1 m (c) 10 m (d) 20 m
body.
35. A boy moving with a velocity of 20 km h–1 along a straight
Which of the graphs represents the line joining two stationary objects. According to him both
corresponding acceleration versus
objects
time graphs?
(a) move in the same direction with the same speed of
20 km h–1
(b) move in different direction with the same speed of
a a
20 km h–1
(a) t (b) t
(c) move towards him
(d) remain stationary
22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

RESPONSE 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.
GRID 32. 33. 34. 35.
EBD_7156
P-8 DPP/ CP02
36. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5 metre on a plane 42. A particle is moving with uniform acceleration along a
where the acceleration due to gravity is same as that onto straight line. The average velocity of the particle from P to Q
the surface of the earth. On bouncing, it rises to a height of is 8ms–1 and that Q to S is 12ms–1. If QS = PQ, then the
1.8 m. On bouncing, the ball loses its velocity by a factor of average velocity from P to S is
3 2 16
(a) (b) 9 (c) (d) (a) 9.6 ms–1 (b) 12.87 ms–1 O
5 25 5 25 P Q S
37. A stone falls freely from rest from a height h and it travels a (c) 64 ms–1 (d) 327 ms–1
9h
43. The variation of velocity of a particle with time moving along
distance in the last second. The value of h is a straight line is illustrated in the figure. The distance travelled
25 by the particle in four seconds is
(a) 145 m (b) 100 m (c) 122.5 m (d) 200 m
38. Which one of the following equations represents the motion (a) 60 m
of a body with finite constant acceleration ? In these 30
Velocity (m/s)
equations, y denotes the displacement of the body at time t (b) 55 m
and a, b and c are constants of motion. 20
(a) y = at (b) y = at + bt 2 (c) 25 m 10

a 0
(b) y = at + bt 2 + ct 3 (d) y = + bt (d) 30 m 1 2 3 4
Time in second
t
39. A particle travels half the distance with a velocity of 6 ms–1. 44. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h 1, h2
The remaining half distance is covered with a velocity of and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the
4 ms–1 for half the time and with a velocity of 8 ms–1 for the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h 1, h2
rest of the half time. What is the velocity of the particle and h3 is
averaged over the whole time of motion ?
(a) 9 ms–1 (b) 6 ms–1 (c) 5.35 ms–1 (d) 5 ms–1 h2 h
(a) h1 = = 3 (b) h2 = 3h 1 and h3 = 3h2
40. A bullet is fired with a speed of 1000 m/sec in order to 3 5
penetrate a target situated at 100 m away. If g = 10 m/s2, the
gun should be aimed (c) h1 = h2 = h3 (d) h1 = 2h 2 = 3h 3
(a) directly towards the target 45. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f through a
(b) 5 cm above the target distance S, then continues at constant speed for time t and
(c) 10 cm above the target
f
(d) 15 cm above the target then decelerates at the rate to come to rest. If the total
41. A body covers 26, 28, 30, 32 meters in 10th, 11th, 12th and 2
distance traversed is 15 S , then
13th seconds respectively. The body starts
(a) from rest and moves with uniform velocity 1
(a) S = ft 2 (b) S = f t
(b) from rest and moves with uniform acceleration 6
(c) with an initial velocity and moves with uniform 1 2 1 2
acceleration (c) S = ft (d) S = ft
4 72
(d) with an initial velocity and moves with uniform velocity
RESPONSE 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

GRID 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP03
SYLLABUS : Motion in a Plane
1. A projectile is given an initial velocity of (iˆ + 2 ˆj ) m/s, where 1 3

[ g = 10m/s2 , sin 30o = , cos 30o = ]
iˆ is along the ground and ĵ is along the vertical. If g = 10 2 2
(a) 5.20m (b) 4.33m (c) 2.60m (d) 8.66m
m/s2 , the equation of its trajectory is : 5. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of 500 m/s
(a) y = x – 5x2 (b) y = 2x – 5x2 and a bomb released from it, strikes the ground in 10 sec.
(c) 4y = 2x – 5x 2 (d) 4y = 2x – 25x2 Angle at which it strikes the ground wil be (g = 10 m/s2)
2. An aircraft moving with a speed of 250 m/s is at a height of -1 æ 1 ö æ 1ö
6000 m, just overhead of an anti aircraft–gun. If the muzzle (a) tan ç ÷
è 5ø
(b) tan çè ÷ø
5
velocity is 500 m/s, the firing angle q should be:
(c) tan–1 (1) (d) tan–1 (5)
(a) 30° 6. Two particles start simultaneously from the same point and
move along two straight lines, one with uniform velocity v
(b) 45° and other with a uniform acceleration a. If a is the angle
(c) 60° between the lines of motion of two particles then the least
value of relative velocity will be at time given by
(d) 75° v v v v
(a) sin a (b) cos a (c) tan a (d) cot a
a a a a
3. Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles 7. Initial velocity with which a body is projected is 10 m/sec
of radii r 1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds are such that and angle of projection is 60°. Find the range R
each makes a complete circle in the same duration of time t. y
The ratio of the angular speed of the first to the second car 15 3m
(a)
is 2
(a) m1 : m2 (b) r1 : r2 40
(b) m
(c) 1 : 1 (d) m1r1 : m2r2 3
4. A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high building throws a (c) 5 3m
ball with a speed of 10m/s at an angle of 30º with the R
20 30°
horizontal. How far from the throwing point will the ball be (d) m x
at the height of 10 m from the ground ? 3
RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6. 7.
EBD_7156
P-10
® ®
DPP/ CP03
8. The position vectors of points A, B, C and D are 16. The resultant of two vectors A and B is perpendicular to
Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù ®
A = 3 i + 4 j + 5 k] B = 4 i + 5 j + 6 k] C = 7 i + 9 j + 3 k the vector A and its magnitude is equal to half the
Ù Ù uuur ® ® ®
and D = 4 i + 6 j then the displacement vectors AB and magnitude of vector B . The angle between A and B is
uuur
CD are (a) 120° (b) 150° (c) 135° (d) 180°
(a) perpendicular (b) parallel 17. A man running along a straight road with uniform velocity
(c) antiparallel (d) inclined at an angle of 60° r
9. A person swims in a river aiming to reach exactly on the u = u î feels that the rain is falling vertically down along – ĵ .
opposite point on the bank of a river. His speed of swimming If he doubles his speed, he finds that the rain is coming at
is 0.5 m/s at an angle of 120º with the direction of flow of
water. The speed of water is an angle q with the vertical. The velocity of the rain with
(a) 1.0 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s (c) 0.25 m/s (d) 0.43 m/s respect to the ground is
10. A projectile thrown with velocity v making angle q with
vertical gains maximum height H in the time for which the u ˆ
(a) ui – uj (b) ui - j
projectile remains in air, the time period is tan q
(a) H cos q / g (b) 2H cos q / g (c) 2uiˆ + u cot qˆj (d) ui + u sin qˆj
(c) 4H / g (d) 8H / g 18. Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds in the ratio
11. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed ' v0 ' at an 1 : 2 acquired the same heights. If A is thrown at an angle
elevation angle of q. From the same point and at the same of 45° with the horizontal, the angle of projection of B will be
' v0 ' (a) 0° (b) 60° (c) 30° (d) 45°
instant, a person starts running with a constant speed 19. A projectile can have the same range ‘R’ for two angles of
2
to catch the ball. Will the person be able to catch the ball? If projection. If ‘T1’ and ‘T2’ be time of flights in the two
yes, what should be the angle of projection q ? cases, then the product of the two time of flights is directly
(a) No, 0° (b) Yes, 30° (c) Yes, 60° (d) Yes, 45° proportional to
r r wt wt 1 1
12. If vectors A = cos wtiˆ + sinwtjˆ and B = cos î + sin ˆj (a) R (b) (c) (d) R2
2 2 R R2
are functions of time, then the value of t at which they are
orthogonal to each other is : 20. A man standing on the roof of a house of height h throws
p p p
one particle vertically downwards and another particle
(a) t = (b) t = (c) t = 0 (d) t = horizontally with the same velocity u. The ratio of their
2w w 4w velocities when they reach the earth's surface will be
13. A bus is moving on a straight road towards north with a
uniform speed of 50 km/hour turns through 90°. If the speed (a) 2gh + u 2 : u (b) 1 : 2
remains unchanged after turning, the increase in the velocity
of bus in the turning process is (c) 1 : 1 (d) 2gh + u 2 : 2gh
(a) 70.7 km/hour along south-west direction
(b) 70.7 km/hour along north-west direction. 21. If a unit vector is represented by 0.5iˆ + 0.8 ˆj + ckˆ , the value
(c) 50 km/hour along west
of c is
(d) zero
14. The velocity of projection of oblique projectile is (a) 1 (b) 0.11 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.39
(6î + 8ˆj) m s -1 . The horizontal range of the projectile is 22. An aeroplane is flying at a constant horizontal velocity of
(a) 4.9 m (b) 9.6 m (c) 19.6 m (d) 14 m 600 km/hr at an elevation of 6 km towards a point directly
15. A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction on a circular above the target on the earth's surface. At an appropriate
path as shown in the figure. The y time, the pilot releases a ball so that it strikes the target at
movement of 'P' is such that it the earth. The ball will appear to be falling
B (a) on a parabolic path as seen by pilot in the plane
sweeps out a length s = t3 + 5,
where s is in metres and t is in P(x,y)
(b) vertically along a straight path as seen by an observer
seconds. The radius of the path m on the ground near the target
is 20 m. The acceleration of 'P' 20
(c) on a parabolic path as seen by an observer on the
when t = 2 s is nearly x ground near the target
O A
(a) 13 m/s2 (b) 12 m/s2 (c) 7.2 ms2 (d) 14 m/s2 (d) on a zig-zag path as seen by pilot in the plane
8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
RESPONSE
13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
GRID 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
DPP/ CP03 P-11

23. A particle is projected with a velocity v such that its range 30. A particle is moving such that its position coordinate (x, y)
on the horizontal plane is twice the greatest height attained are
by it. The range of the projectile is (where g is acceleration (2m, 3m) at time t = 0
due to gravity) (6m, 7m) at time t = 2 s and
(13m, 14m) at time t = 5s.
4v 2 4g v2 4v 2 r
(a) (b) (c) (d) Average velocity vector (Vav ) from t = 0 to t = 5s is :
5g 5v 2 g 5g
1 7 ˆ ˆ
24. Two stones are projected from the same point with same (a) (13iˆ + 14j)
ˆ (b) (i + j)
speed making angles (45° + q) and (45° – q) with the horizontal 5 3
11 ˆ ˆ
respectively. If q £ 45° , then the horizontal ranges of the (c) 2(iˆ + ˆj) (d) (i + j)
two stones are in the ratio of 5
31. A particle moves so that its position vector is given by
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4 r
25. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To r = cos wtxˆ + sin wtyˆ . Where w is a constant. Which of the
have the resultant force only along the y-direction, the following is true ?
r
magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is: (a) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r
y r
(a) 0.5 N (b) Velocity and acceleration both are r
parallel to r
4N (c) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is
(b) 1.5 N 1N directed towards the origin r
(d) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is
3 30° directed away from the origin
(c) N
4 60° 32. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground
x where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a direction
(d) 3N perpendicular to AB with velocity v1. The boy at A starts
2N
26. A particle moves in x-y plane under the action of force F running simultaneously with velocity v and catches the
other boy in a time t, where t is
and p at a given time t px = 2 cos q, py = 2sinq. Then the
angle q between F and p at a given time t is :
(a) a / v2 + v12 (b) a /(v + v1)
(a) q = 30° (b) q = 180° (c) q = 0° (d) q = 90° (c) a /(v–v1) (d) a 2 /(v 2 - v12 )
27. A person sitting in the rear end of the compartment throws 33. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizontal.
a ball towards the front end. The ball follows a parabolic Elevation angle of the projectile at its highest point as seen
path. The train is moving with velocity of 20 m/s. A person from the point of projection is
standing outside on the ground also observes the ball. How æ 3ö
-1 æ 1 ö
will the maximum heights (ym) attained and the ranges (R) (a) 60° (b) tan çè ÷ø (c) tan -1 ç (d) 45°
seen by the thrower and the outside observer compare with 2 è 2 ÷ø
r
each other? 34. The position vector of a particle R as a function of time is
(a) Same ym different R (b) Same ym and R r
given by R = 4 sin(2pt)iˆ + 4 cos(2 pt) ˆj
(c) Different ym same R (d) Different ym and R
28. A car moves on a circular road. It describes equal angles where R is in meter, t in seconds and î and ĵ denote unit
about the centre in equal intervals of time. Which of the vectors along x-and y-directions, respectively.
following statement about the velocity of the car is true ? Which one of the following statements is wrong for the
(a) Magnitude of velocity is not constant motion of particle?
(b) Both magnitude and direction of velocity change v2
(c) Velocity is directed towards the centre of the circle (a) Magnitude of acceleration vector is , where v is
(d) Magnitude of velocity is constant but direction R
the velocity of particle
changes (b) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/second
29. Three particles A, B and C are thrown from the top of a (c) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter.
tower with the same speed. A is thrown up, B is thrown r
down and C is horizontally. They hit the ground with speeds (d) Acceleration vector is along - R
uur uur uur uur uur uur
vA, vB and vC respectively then, 35. The vectors A and B are such that | A + B |=| A - B |
(a) vA = vB = vC (b) vA = vB > vC The angle between the two vectors is
(c) vB > vC > vA (d) vA > vB = vC (a) 60° (b) 75° (c) 45° (d) 90°
RESPONSE 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
GRID
33. 34. 35.
EBD_7156
P-12 DPP/ CP03
36. The velocity of projection of oblique projectile is 42. A particle crossing the origin of co-ordinates at time t = 0,
moves in the xy-plane with a constant acceleration a in the
(6î + 8ˆj) m s -1 . The horizontal range of the projectile is y-direction. If its equation of motion is y = bx2 (b is a
(a) 4.9 m (b) 9.6 m (c) 19.6 m (d) 14 m constant), its velocity component in the x-direction is
37. An artillary piece which consistently shoots its shells with
the same muzzle speed has a maximum range R. To hit a 2b a a b
target which is R/2 from the gun and on the same level, the (a) (b) (c) (d)
a 2b b a
elevation angle of the gun should be ur
(a) 15° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 60° 43. A vector A is rotated by a small angle Dq radian (Dq << 1)
ur ur ur
38. A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius to get a new vector B In that case B - A is :
100 m, taking 62.8 seconds in every circular loop. The average ur ur ur
velocity and average speed for each circular loop (a) A Dq (b) B Dq - A
respectively, is ur æ Dq2 ö
(a) 0, 10 m/s (b) 10 m/s, 10 m/s (c) A çç 1 - ÷ (d) 0
(c) 10 m/s, 0 (d) 0, 0 è 2 ÷ø
39. A vector of magnitude b is rotated through angle q. What is 44. If a body moving in circular path maintains constant speed
the change in magnitude of the vector? of 10 ms–1, then which of the following correctly describes
q q relation between acceleration and radius ?
(a) 2b sin (b) 2b cos (c) 2b sin q (d) 2b cos q
2 2
40. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle q with the a a
horizontal reaches maximum height H1. When it is projected (a) (b)
æp ö
with velocity u at an angle çè - q÷ø with the horizontal, it r
2 r
reaches maximum height H2. The relation between the
horizontal range R of the projectile, heights H1 and H2 is a
a
(a) R = 4 H1H 2 (b) R = 4(H1 – H2) (c) (d)
H12
(c) R = 4 (H1 + H2) (d) R= r r
H 22 45. The position of a projectile launched from the origin at t = 0
41. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector is given by rr = 40iˆ + 50 ˆj m at t = 2s. If the projectile was
( )
differences. In that case, the forces launched at an angle q from the horizontal, then q is
(a) cannot be predicted (take g = 10 ms–2)
(b) are equal to each other
-1 2 3 -1 7 -1 4
(c) are equal to each other in magnitude (a) tan (b) tan -1 (c) tan (d) tan
(d) are not equal to each other in magnitude 3 2 4 5
RESPONSE 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

GRID 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
DPP/ CP04 P-13

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP04
SYLLABUS : Laws of Motion
1. A player stops a football weighing 0.5 kg which comes flying 4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
towards him with a velocity of 10m/s. If the impact lasts for (a) If there were no friction, work need to be done to move
1/50th sec. and the ball bounces back with a velocity of 15 a body up an inclined plane is zero.
m/s, then the average force involved is (b) If there were no friction, moving vehicles could not be
(a) 250 N (b) 1250 N (c) 500 N (d) 625 N stopped even by locking the brakes.
2. For the given situation as shown in the figure, the value of (c) As the angle of inclination is increased, the normal
q to keep the system in equilibrium will be reaction on the body placed on it increases.
(d) A duster weighing 0.5 kg is pressed against a vertical
T1 board with force of 11 N. If the coefficient of friction is
q 0.5, the work done in rubbing it upward through a
distance of 10 cm is 0.55 J.
5. A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with
a certain momentum P. If the same stone is dropped from a
T2 height 100% more than the previous height, the momentum
when it hits the ground will change by :
W = 60N (a) 68% (b) 41% (c) 200% (d) 100%
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 0° (d) 90° 6. A 3 kg ball strikes a heavyrigid wall with a speed
of 10 m/s at an angle of 60º. It gets reflected with 60º
3. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed the same speed and angle as shown here. If the
is 800 m/s. To give an initial upward acceleration of 20 m/s2, ball is in contact with the wall for 0.20s, what is 60º
the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed the average force exerted on the ball bythe wall?
thrust will be (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 150N (b) zero
(a) 127.5 kg/s (b) 137.5 kg/s
(c) 155.5 kg/s (d) 187.5 kg/s (c) 150 3N (d) 300N
RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6.
EBD_7156
P-14 DPP/ CP04
7. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination q is per- cart. If v1 and v2 are the velocities of the toy carts and there is
fectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block starting no friction between the toy carts and the ground, then :
from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the (a) v1/v2 = m1/m2 (b) v1/v2 = m2/m1
bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and (c) v1/v2 = –m2/m1 (d) v1/v2 = –m1/m2
lower half of the plane is given by 14. A plate of mass M is placed on a horizontal frictionless
2 surface (see figure), and a body of mass m is placed on this
(a) m = (b) m = 2 tan q plate. The coefficient of dynamic friction between this body
tan q
and the plate is m. If a force 2m mg is applied to the body of
1
(c) m = tan q (d) m = mass m along the horizontal, the acceleration of the plate
tan q will be
8. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in m
the figure. 2m mg
M
mm 2mm
C m (a) g (b) mm g (c) 2mm g (d) g
M (M + m) M ( M + m)
15. The rate of mass of the gas emitted from rear of a rocket is
initially 0.1 kg/sec. If the speed of the gas relative to the
rocket is 50 m/sec and mass of the rocket is 2 kg, then the
The coefficient of static friction between the block and the acceleration of the rocket in m/sec2 is
cart is m. The acceleration a of the cart that will prevent the
(a) 5 (b) 5.2 (c) 2.5 (d) 25
block from falling satisfies:
16. A plank with a box on it at one end
mg g g g is gradually raised about the other
(a) a> (b) a > (c) a ³ (d) a <
m mm m m end. As the angle of inclination with
the horizontal reaches 30º the box mg
9. A bridge is in the from of a semi-circle of radius 40m. The q
greatest speed with which a motor cycle can cross the bridge starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down
without leaving the ground at the highest point is the plank in 4.0s. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction
(g = 10 m s–2) (frictional force is negligibly small) between the box and the plank will be, respectively :
(a) 40 m s–1 (b) 20 m s–1 (a) 0.6 and 0.5 (b) 0.5 and 0.6
(c) 30 m s–1 (d) 15 m s–1 (c) 0.4 and 0.3 (d) 0.6 and 0.6
10. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off 17. Four blocks of same mass connected by cords are pulled by
at right angles to each other. These two are, 1 kg first part a force F on a smooth horizontal surface, as shown in fig.
moving with a velocity of 12 ms–1 and 2 kg second part The tensions T1, T2 and T3 will be
moving with a velocity of 8 ms–1. If the third part flies off T1 T2 T3
with a velocity of 4 ms–1, its mass would be F
M M M M
(a) 5 kg (b) 7 kg (c) 17 kg (d) 3 kg
11. A monkey is decending from the branch of a tree with 1 3 1
constant acceleration. If the breaking strength is 75% of the (a) T1 = F , T2 = F , T3 = F
4 2 4
weight of the monkey, the minimum acceleration with which 1 1 1
monkey can slide down without breaking the branch is (b) T1 = F , T2 = F , T3 = F
4 2 2
3g g g 3 1 1
(a) g (b) (c) (d) (c) T1 = F , T2 = F , T3 = F
4 4 2 4 2 4
12. A car having a mass of 1000 kg is moving at a speed of 30 3 1 1
metres/sec. Brakes are applied to bring the car to rest. If the (d) T1 = F , T2 = F , T3 = F
4 2 2
frictional force between the tyres and the road surface is 18. A body of mass M is kept on a rough horizontal surface
5000 newtons, the car will come to rest in (friction coefficient µ). A person is trying to pull the body
(a) 5 seconds (b) 10 seconds by applying a horizontal force but the body is not moving.
(c) 12 seconds (d) 6 seconds The force by the surface on the body is F, then
13. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of mass m1 and (a) F = Mg (b) F = mMg
m2. When the toy carts are released, the springs exert equal
and opposite average forces for the same time on each toy (c) Mg £ F £ Mg 1 + µ 2 (d) Mg ³ F ³ Mg 1 + µ 2
RESPONSE 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.

GRID 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
17. 18.
DPP/ CP04 P-15
19. Which one of the following motions on a smooth plane 26. The minimum force required to start pushing a body up
surface does not involve force? rough (frictional coefficient m) inclined plane is F1 while the
(a) Accelerated motion in a straight line minimum force needed to prevent it from sliding down is F2.
(b) Retarded motion in a straight line If the inclined plane makes an angle q from the horizontal
(c) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line F1
(d) Motion along a straight line with varying velocity such that tan q = 2m then the ratio is
20. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light F2
string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
the edge of table and from its other end another block B of 27. Two blocks are connected over a
mass m2 is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction massless pulley as shown in fig.
between the block and the table is µk. When the block A is The mass of block A is 10 kg and A
sliding on the table, the tension in the string is the coefficient of kinetic friction is B
(m 2 – m k m1 ) g m1m 2 (1 + m k ) g 0.2. Block A slides down the incline
30º
(a) (b) (m1 + m 2 )
(m1 + m 2 ) at constant speed. The mass of
m1m2 (1 – mk )g (m 2 + m k m1 )g block B in kg is
(c) (m1 + m2 ) (d) (m1 + m 2 ) (a) 3.5 (b) 3.3 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.5
21. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination f is perfectly 28. Tension in the cable supporting an elevator, is equal to the
smooth while the lower half is rough. A body starting from rest weight of the elevator. From this, we can conclude that the
at the top will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient elevator is going up or down with a
of friction for the lower half is given by (a) uniform velocity (b) uniform acceleration
(a) 2 cos f (b) 2 sin f (c) tan f (d) 2 tan f
22. A particle describes a horizontal circle in a conical funnel (c) variable acceleration (d) either (b) or (c)
whose inner surface is smooth with speed of 0.5 m/s. What 29. A particle tied to a string describes a vertical circular motion
is the height of the plane of circle from vertex of the funnel? of radius r continually. If it has a velocity 3 gr at the
(a) 0.25 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 2.5 cm
highest point, then the ratio of the respective tensions in
23. You are on a frictionless horizontal plane. How can you get
off if no horizontal force is exerted by pushing against the the string holding it at the highest and lowest points is
surface? (a) 4 : 3 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 3 : 2
(a) By jumping 30. It is difficult to move a cycle with brakes on because
(b) By spitting or sneezing
(c) by rolling your body on the surface (a) rolling friction opposes motion on road
(d) By running on the plane (b) sliding friction opposes motion on road
24. The coefficient of static and dynamic friction between a (c) rolling friction is more than sliding friction
body and the surface are 0.75 and 0.5 respectively. A force is
applied to the body to make it just slide with a constant (d) sliding friction is more than rolling friction
acceleration which is 31. A plumb line is suspended from a celling of a car moving
g g 3g with horizontal acceleration of a. What will be the angle of
(a) (b) (c) (d) g inclination with vertical?
4 2 2
25. In the system shown in figure, the pulley is smooth and (a) tan–1 (a/g) (b) tan–1 (g/a)
massless, the string has a total mass 5g, and the two –1
(c) cos (a/g) (d) cos–1 (g/a)
suspended blocks have masses 25 g and 15 g. The system
is released from state l = 0 and is studied upto stage l¢ = 0. 32. A cart of mass M has a block of mass m
During the process, the acceleration of block A will be attached to it as shown in fig. The
g coefficient of friction between the block M m
(a) constant at and the cart is m. What is the minimum
9
acceleration of the cart so that the block
g l l'
(b) constant at m does not fall?
4 A
25 g (a) mg (b) g/m
(c) increasing by factor of 3 B
(d) increasing by factor of 2 15 g (c) m/g (d) M mg/m
19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

RESPONSE
24. 25. 26. 27. 28.
GRID
29. 30. 31. 32.
EBD_7156
P-16 DPP/ CP04
33. What is the maximum value of the force F such that the 40. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by
block shown in the arrangement, does not move? F = 600 – 2 × 105 t where, F is in newton and t in second. The
force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the
µ= 1 barrel. What is the average impulse imparted to the bullet?
2Ö 3
(a) 1.8 N-s (b) zero (c) 9 N-s (d) 0.9 N-s
60° m= Ö3 kg 41. Two stones of masses m and 2 m are whirled in horizontal
r
circles, the heavier one in radius and the lighter one in
(a) 20 N (b) 10 N (c) 12 N (d) 15 N 2
34. A block has been placed on an inclined plane with the slope radius r. The tangential speed of lighter stone is n times that
angle q, block slides down the plane at constant speed. The of the value of heavier stone when they experience same
coefficient of kinetic friction is equal to centripetal forces. The value of n is :
(a) sin q (b) cos q (c) g (d) tan q (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 2
35. A block of mass m is connected to another block of mass M 42. A 0.1 kg block suspended from a massless string is moved
by a spring (massless) of spring constant k. The block are first vertically up with an acceleration of 5ms–2 and then
kept on a smooth horizontal plane. Initially the blocks are at moved vertically down with an acceleration of 5ms–2. If T1
rest and the spring is unstretched. Then a constant force F and T2 are the respective tensions in the two cases, then
starts acting on the block of mass M to pull it. Find the force (a) T2 > T1
of the block of mass m. (b) T1 – T2 = 1 N, if g = 10ms–2
(c) T1 – T2 = 1kg f
MF mF mF
(a) (b) (c) ( M + m) F (d) (d) T1 – T2 = 9.8 N, if g = 9.8 ms–2
(m + M ) M m (m + M ) 43. Three forces start acting simultaneously C
36. A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a vertical r
on a particle moving with velocity, v .
x3 These forces are represented in magnitude
cross section given by y = . If the coefficient of friction and direction by the three sides of a
6 triangle ABC. The particle will now move
is 0.5, the maximum height above the ground at which the
with velocity
block can be placed without slipping is: r A B
(a) less than v
1 2 1 r
1 (b) greater than v
(a) m (b) m (c) m (d) m
6 3 3 2 (c) |v| in the direction of the largest force BC
37. A ball of mass 10 g moving perpendicular to the plane of the r
(d) v , remaining unchanged
wall strikes it and rebounds in the same line with the same 44. If in a stationary lift, a man is standing with a bucket full of
velocity. If the impulse experienced by the wall is 0.54 Ns, water, having a hole at its bottom. The rate of flow of water
the velocity of the ball is through this hole is R0. If the lift starts to move up and
(a) 27 ms–1 (b) 3.7 ms–1 (c) 54 ms–1 (d) 37 ms–1 down with same acceleration and then the rates of flow of
38. A block is kept on a inclined plane of inclination q of length l. water are Ru and Rd, then
The velocity of particle at the bottom of inclined is (the (a) R0 > Ru > Rd (b) Ru > R0 > Rd
coefficient of friction is m) (c) Rd > R0 > Ru (d) Ru > Rd > R0
(a) [2gl(m cos q - sin q)]1 / 2 (b) 2gl(sin q - m cos q) 45. A stationary body of mass 3 kg explodes into three equal
pieces. Two of the pieces fly off in two mutually
(c) 2gl(sin q + m cos q) (d) 2gl(cos q + m sin q) perpendicular directions, one with a velocity of 3iˆ ms -1
39. A 100 g iron ball having velocity 10 m/s collides with a wall and the other with a velocity of 4ˆj ms -1. If the explosion
at an angle 30° and rebounds with the same angle. If the occurs in 10–4 s, the average force acting on the third piece
period of contact between the ball and wall is 0.1 second, in newton is
then the force experienced by the wall is (a) (3iˆ + 4ˆj) ´ 10 - 4 (b) (3iˆ - 4ˆj) ´ 10 - 4
(a) 10 N (b) 100 N (c) 1.0 N (d) 0.1 N (c) (3iˆ - 4ˆj) ´ 10 4 (d) -(3iˆ + 4j)ˆ ´ 104
RESPONSE 33. 34. 35. 36.

37. 38. 39. 40. 41.
GRID
42. 43. 44. 45.
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
Cut-off Score 45 Space for Qualifying
Rough Work
Score 60

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP05
SYLLABUS : Work, Energy and Power
1. A spring of spring constant 5 × 103 N/m is stretched initially d d d

by 5cm from the unstretched position. Then the work (a) Mg (b) 3Mg (c) -3Mg (d) Mg d
required to stretch it further by another 5 cm is 4 4 4
(a) 12.50 Nm (b) 18.75 Nm 6. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5m on a plane,
(c) 25.00 Nm (d) 6.25 Nm where the acceleration due to gravity is not shown. On
2. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm bouncing it rises to 1.8 m. The ball loses its velocity on
with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the bouncing by a factor of
magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the 16 2 3 9
particle becomes equal to 8 × 10–4 J by the end of the second (a) (b) (c) (d)
25 5 5 25
revolution after the beginning of the motion ?
7. A ball of mass m moving with a constant velocity strikes
(a) 0.1 m/s2 (b) 0.15 m/s2 (c) 0.18 m/s2 (d) 0.2 m/s2
against a ball of same mass at rest. If e = coefficient of
3. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine
restitution, then what will be the ratio of velocity of two
delivering a constant power. The distance moved by the
balls after collision?
body in time ‘t’ is proportional to
(a) t 3/4 (b) t 3/2 (c) t 1/4 (d) t 1/2 1- e e -1 1+ e 2+e
4. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m (a) (b) (c) (d)
1+ e e +1 1- e e -1
with an initial velocity v0. It collides with the ground and 8. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a
loses 50% of its energy in collision and rebounds to the constant power of k watts. If the particle starts from rest the
same height. The initial velocity v0 is : (Take g = 10 ms–2) force on the particle at time t is
(a) 20 ms–1 (b) 28 ms–1
(c) 10 ms–1 (d) 14 ms–1 (a) mk t –1/2 (b) 2mk t –1/2
5. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M,
a distance d at a constant downward acceleration of g/4. 1 mk –1/2
(c) mk t –1/2 (d) t
The work done by the cord on the block is 2 2
RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6. 7. 8.
EBD_7156
P-18 DPP/ CP05
9. A body of mass 2 kg moving under a force has relation 15. The relationship between the force F and position x of a
body is as shown in figure. The work done in displacing the
t3
between displacement x and time t as x = where x is in body form x = 1 m to x = 5 m will be
3
F(N)
metre and t is in sec. The work done by the body in first two
10
second will be
(a) 1.6 joule (b) 16 joule 5
(c) 160 joule (d) 1600 joule
0 x(m)
10. A sphere of mass 8m collides elastically (in one dimension) l 2 3 4 5 6
with a block of mass 2m. If the initial energy of sphere is E. –5
What is the final energy of sphere?
(a) 0.8 E (b) 0.36 E –10
(c) 0.08 E (d) 0.64 E (a) 30 J (b) 15 J (c) 25 J (d) 20 J
11. Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants KP and 16. A body is allowed to fall freely under gravity from a height
KQ, such that KP > KQ. They are stretched, first by the same of 10m. If it looses 25% of its energy due to impact with the
amount (case a,) then by the same force (case b). The work ground, then the maximum height it rises after one impact is
done by the springs WP and WQ are related as, in case (a)
(a) 2.5m (b) 5.0m (c) 7.5m (d) 8.2m
and case (b), respectively
(a) WP = WQ ; WP = WQ (b) WP > WQ ; WQ > WP 17. A block C of mass m is moving with velocity v0 and collides
(c) WP < WQ ; WQ < WP (d) WP = WQ ; WP > WQ elastically with block A of mass m and connected to another
12. In the figure, the variation of potential energy of a particle block B of mass 2m through spring constant k. What is k if
of mass m = 2 kg is represented w.r.t. its x-coordinate. The x0 is compression of spring when velocity of A and B is
particle moves under the effect of this conservative force same?
along the x-axis. C v0 A B `
U (in J)
mv02 mv02
20
(a) (b)
15 x 02 2x 02
10
2 2
3 mv0 2 mv0
–5 5 (c) (d)
–10 2 10
X (in meter)
2 x 02 3 x 02
18. Two springs of force constants 300 N/m
–12 (Spring A) and 400 N/m (Spring B) are joined together in
–15
series. The combination is compressed by 8.75 cm. The ratio
E E
of energy stored in A and B is A . Then A is equal to :
If the particle is released at the origin then EB EB
(a) it will move towards positive x-axis 4 16 3 9
(b) it will move towards negative x-axis (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) it will remain stationary at the origin 3 9 4 16
(d) its subsequent motion cannot be decided due to lack 19. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a
r
of information time dependent force F=(2tiˆ+3t 2 ˆj) N, where î and ĵ are
13. The potential energy of a certain spring when stretched unit vectors alogn x and y axis. What power will be developed
through distance S is 10 joule. The amount of work done (in by the force at the time t?
joule) that must be done on this spring to stretch it through (a) (2t2 + 3t3)W (b) (2t2 + 4t4)W
an additional distance s, will be 3 4
(c) (2t + 3t ) W (d) (2t3 + 3t5)W
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 30 (d) 40
14. A force applied by an engine of a train of mass 2.05×106 kg 20. A bullet of mass 20 g and moving with 600 m/s collides with
changes its velocity from 5m/s to 25 m/s in 5 minutes. The a block of mass 4 kg hanging with the string. What is the
power of the engine is velocity of bullet when it comes out of block, if block rises
(a) 1.025 MW (b) 2.05 MW to height 0.2 m after collision?
(c) 5 MW (d) 6 MW (a) 200 m/s (b) 150 m/s (c) 400 m/s (d) 300 m/s
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

RESPONSE
14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
GRID
19. 20.
DPP/ CP05 P-19

21. A body of mass m kg is ascending on a smooth inclined m/2
m
æ 1ö
plane of inclination q ç sin q = ÷ with constant acceleration /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
è xø d
of a m/s2. The final velocity of the body is v m/s. The work (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
done by the body during this motion is 27. A force acts on a 30 gm particle in such a way that the
(Initial velocity of the body = 0) position of the particle as a function of time is given by x =
1 mv2 æ g ö 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The
(a) mv2 (g + xa) (b) ç + a÷ work done during the first 4 seconds is
2 2 è2 ø (a) 576mJ (b) 450mJ (c) 490mJ (d) 530mJ
2mv 2 x mv 2 28. A particle of mass m1 moving with velocity v strikes with a
(c) ( a + gx ) (d) ( g + xa ) mass m2 at rest, then the condition for maximum transfer of
a 2ax
kinetic energy is
22. A glass marble dropped from a certain height above the
(a) m1 >> m2 (b) m2 >> m2 (c) m1 = m2 (d) m1 = 2m2
horizontal surface reaches the surface in time t and then 29. A mass m is moving with velocity v collides inelastically
continues to bounce up and down. The time in which the with a bob of simple pendulum of mass m and gets embedded
marble finally comes to rest is into it. The total height to which the masses will rise after
é1+ e ù é1 - e ù collision is
(a) en t (b) e2 t tê
(c) ú (d) t ê ú
ë1 - e û ë1 + e û v2 v2 v2 2v 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
23. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move along 8g 4g 2g g
æ x4 x2 ö 30. A 10 H.P. motor pumps out water from a well of depth 20 m
the x-axis is given by V( x) = ç - ÷ J. and fills a water tank of volume 22380 litres at a height of
ç 4 2 ÷ 10 m from the ground. The running time of the motor to fill
è ø
The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J. Then, the the empty water tank is (g = 10ms–2)
maximum speed (in m/s) is (a) 5 minutes (b) 10 minutes
(c) 15 minutes (d) 20 minutes
3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2 31. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and
2 2 2 another particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity v2.
24. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to Both of them have the same momentum but their different
operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% kinetic energies are E1 and E2 respectively. If m1 > m2 then
of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine?( g E1 m1
= 10 m/s2) (a) E1 = E2 (b) E1 < E2 (c) E = m (d)E1 > E2
2 2
(a) 8.1 kW (b) 10.2 kW (c) 12.3 kW (d) 7.0 kW
32. A block of mass 10 kg, moving in x direction with a constant
24. A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the
speed of 10 ms–1, is subject to a retarding force F = 0.1 × J m
instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant
during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final KE will be :
magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is (a) 450 J (b) 275 J (c) 250 J (d) 475 J
proportional to : 33. Identify the false statement from the following
t (a) Work-energy theorem is not independent of Newton's
(a) t 2P 0 (b) t 1/2 (c) t –1/2 (d) second law.
m
(b) Work-energy theorem holds in all inertial frames.
25. When a 1.0kg mass hangs attached to a spring of length 50 (c) Work done by friction over a closed path is zero.
cm, the spring stretches by 2 cm. The mass is pulled down (d) No potential energy can be associated with friction.
until the length of the spring becomes 60 cm. What is the 34. A one-ton car moves with a constant velocity of
amount of elastic energy stored in the spring in this 15 ms–1 on a rough horizontal road. The total resistance to
condition. if g = 10 m/s2. the motion of the car is 12% of the weight of the car. The
(a) 1.5 joule (b) 2.0 joule(c) 2.5 joule (d) 3.0 joule power required to keep the car moving with the same constant
26. A block of mass m rests on a rough horizontal surface velocity of 15ms–1 is [Take g = 10 ms–2]
(Coefficient of friction is µ). When a bullet of mass m/2 (a) 9 kW (b) 18 kW (c) 24 kW (d) 36 kW
strikes horizontally, and get embedded in it, the block moves 35. A ball is released from the top of a tower. The ratio of work
a distance d before coming to rest. The initial velocity of the done by force of gravity in first, second and third second of
bullet is k 2mgd , then the value of k is the motion of the ball is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 4 : 9 (c) 1 : 3 : 5 (d) 1 : 5 : 3
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

RESPONSE 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
GRID 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
EBD_7156
P-20 DPP/ CP05
36. Two spheres A and B of masses m1 and m2 respectively 42. A block of mass M is kept on a platform which is accelerated
collide. A is at rest initially and B is moving with velocity v upward with a constant acceleration 'a' during the time
v interval T. The work done by normal reaction between the
along x-axis. After collision B has a velocity in a direction block and platform is
2
perpendicular to the original direction. The mass A moves
after collision in the direction. M a
(a) Same as that of B
(b) Opposite to that of B
(c) q = tan–1 (1/2) to the x-axis
(d) q = tan–1 (–1/2) to the x-axis MgaT 2 1
(a) - (b) M (g + a) aT 2
37. A 2 kg block slides on a horizontal floor with a speed of 4m/s. 2 2
It strikes a uncompressed spring, and compresses it till the 1
block is motionless. The kinetic friction force is 15N and spring (c) Ma 2 T (d) Zero
constant is 10,000 N/m. The spring compresses by 2
(a) 8.5 cm (b) 5.5 cm (c) 2.5 cm (d) 11.0 cm 43. A spring lies along an x axis attached to a wall at one end
38. An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes and a block at the other end. The block rests on a frictionless
through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 m/s. The surface at x = 0. A force of constant magnitude F is applied
mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What to the block that begins to compress the spring, until the
is the power of the engine? block comes to a maximum displacement xmax.
(a) 400 W (b) 200 W (c) 100 W (d) 800 W
39. A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a table such that a
length of 60 cm hangs freely from the edge of the table. The Energy 1
4
total mass of the chain is 4 kg. What is the work done in of work 2
pulling the entire chain on the table ?
(a) 12 J (b) 3.6 J (c) 7.2 J (d) 1200 J 3
40. A mass ‘m’ moves with a velocity ‘v’ and collides inelastically x
xmax
with another identical mass. After collision the lst mass moves During the displacement, which of the curves shown in the
v graph best represents the kinetic energy of the block ?
with velocity in a direction perpendicular to the initial (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
3 44. The K.E. acquired by a mass m in travelling a certain distance
direction of motion. Find the speed of the 2nd mass after
collision. d, starting form rest, under the action of a constant force is
directly proportional to
v m m (a) m (b) m
3 A before 1
Aafter (c) (d) independent of m
collision collision m
2 45. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A
v
(a) 3 v (b) v (c) (d) v ball of mass m at a height h above the free upper end of the
3 3 spring falls vertically on the spring so that the spring is
41. A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is stationary at the top of a hill compressed by a distance d. The net work done in the
of height 100 m. It rolls down a smooth surface to the ground, process is
then climbs up another hill of height 30 m and finally rolls 1 1
down to a horizontal base at a height of 20 m above the (a) mg(h + d) - kd 2 (b) mg(h - d) - kd 2
ground. The velocity attained by the ball is 2 2
1 1
(a) 20 m/s (b) 40 m/s (c) 10 30 m/s (d) 10 m/s (c) mg(h - d) + kd 2 (d) mg(h + d) + kd2
2 2
RESPONSE 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
GRID 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
DAILY PRA CTICE PROBLEM DPP CHAPTERWISE CP05 - PHYSICS

Total Ques tions 45 Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
Succes s Gap = Net Score – Space
Qualifying
for RoughScore
Work

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP06
SYLLABUS : System of Particles and Rotational Motion
1. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a cube of 4. From a uniform wire, two circular loops are made (i) P of
maximum possible volume is cut. Moment of inertia of cube radius r and (ii) Q of radius nr. If the moment of inertia of Q
about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular
to one of its faces is : to its plane is 8 times that of P about a similar axis, the value
of n is (diameter of the wire is very much smaller than r or nr)
4MR 2 4MR 2 MR 2 MR 2 (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 3p 3 3p 32 2p 16 2p 5. A billiard ball of mass m and radius r, when hit in a horizontal
2. A hollow sphere is held suspended. Sand direction by a cue at a height h above its centre, acquired a
is now poured into it in stages. linear velocity v0. The angular velocity w0 acquired by the
ball is
The centre of mass of the sphere with
the sand 5v0 r 2 2v0 r 2 2v0 h 5v0 h
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) rises continuously 2h 5h 5r 2 2r 2
(b) remains unchanged in the process 6. Three bricks each of length L and Wall
SAND
(c) first rises and then falls to the mass M are arranged as shown
original position from the wall. The distance of the
(d) first falls and then rises to the centre of mass of the system from L/4
original position the wall is L/2
3. A body A of mass M while falling vertically downwards (a) L/4 (b) L/2 (c) (3/2)L L (d) (11/12)L
1 7. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed at the corners
under gravity breaks into two parts; a body B of mass M of a square ABCD of side l. The moment of inertia of this
3
2 system about an axis passing through A and parallel to BD is
and a body C of mass M. The centre of mass of bodies
3 (a) 2ml 2 (b) 3ml2 (c) 3ml 2 (d) ml 2
B and C taken together shifts compared to that of body A 8. A loop of radius r and mass m rotating with an angular velocity
towards w0 is placed on a rough horizontal surface. The initial velocity
(a) does not shift of the centre of the hoop is zero.What will be the velocity of
the centre of the hoop when it ceases to slip?
(b) depends on height of breaking rw0 rw0 rw0
(c) body B (d) body C (a) (b) (c) (d) rw0
4 3 2
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
RESPONSE GRID
6. 7. 8.
EBD_7156
P-22 DPP/ CP06
9. Two masses m1 and m2 are connected by a massless spring 2 5
of spring constant k and unstretched length l. The masses (b) rotational and translational
7 7
are placed on a frictionless straight channel, which are 2 3
consider our x-axis. They are initially at x = 0 and x = l (c) rotational and translational
respectively. At t = 0, a velocity v0 is suddenly imparted to 5 5
the first particle. At a later time t, the centre of mass of the 1 1
(d) rotational and translational
two masses is at : 2 2
m2 l 15. A ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis with
(a) x = m + m angular velocity w. Two identical bodies each of mass m are
1 2 now gently attached at the two ends of a diameter of the
m1l m2 v0t ring. Because of this, the kinetic energy loss will be :
(b) x = m + m + m + m m( M + 2m) 2 2 Mm
1 2 1 2 (a) w R (b) w2 R2
M ( M + m)
m2 l m2v0t m2 l m1v0 t ( M + m) M 2 2
(c) x = + (d) x = m + m + m + m Mm 2 2
m1 + m1 m1 + m2 (c) w R (d) ( M + 2 m) w R
1 2 1 2 ( M + 2m)
10. A body of mass 1.5 kg rotating about an axis with angular 16. Acertain bicycle can go up a n F1
Chai
velocity of 0.3 rad s–1 has the angular momentum of 1.8 kg gentle incline with constant speed
m2s–1. The radius of gyration of the body about an axis is when the frictional force of R2 Roa
d
(a) 2 m (b) 1.2 m (c) 0.2 m (d) 1.6 m ground pushing the rear wheel is R1
r F2 = 4 N. With what force F1 must
11. If F is the force acting on a particle having position 4N
r r the chain pull on the sprocket F2 =
vector r and t be the torque of this force about the origin, wheel if R1=5 cm and R2 = 30 cm? Horizontal
then: 35
r r (a) 4 N (b) 24 N (c) 140 N (d) N
r r 4
(a) r . t > 0 and F . t < 0
17. A wooden cube is placed on a rough horizontal table, a
r r r r
(b) r . t = 0 and F . t = 0 force is applied to the cube. Gradually the force is increased.
r r Whether the cube slides before toppling or topples before
r r sliding is independent of :
(c) r . t = 0 and F . t ¹ 0
r r (a) the position of point of application of the force
r r (b) the length of the edge of the cube
(d) r . t ¹ 0 and F . t = 0
(c) mass of the cube
12. A thin uniform rod of length l and mass m is swinging freely (d) Coefficient of friction between the cube and the table
about a horizontal axis passing through its end. Its maximum 18. From a circular ring of mass M and radius R, an arc
angular speed is w. Its centre of mass rises to a maximum corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment of
height of inertia of the ramaining part of the ring about an axis passing
through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane
1 lw 1 l 2w 2 1 l 2w 2 1 l 2w2 of the ring is k times MR2. Then the value of k is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 g 2 g 6 g 3 g (a) 3/4 (b) 7/8 (c) 1/4 (d) v1
0
19. A mass m moves in a circle on a
13. A wheel is rolling straight on ground smooth horizontal plane with
without slipping. If the axis of the P
velocity v0 at a radius R0. The
wheel has speed v, the instantenous q m
mass is attached to string which
velocity of a point P on the rim, defined passes through a smooth hole in
by angle q, relative to the ground will the plane as shown.
be The tension in the string is increased gradually and finally
R
æ1 ö æ1 ö m moves in a circle of radius 0 . The final value of the
(a) v cos ç q ÷ (b) 2 v cos ç q ÷ 2
è2 ø è2 ø kinetic energy is
(c) v(1 + sin q) (d) v(1 + cos q) 1 1
(a) mv02 (b) 2mv02 (c) mv02 (d) mv20
4 2
14. A solid sphere having mass m and radius r rolls down an 20. A rod PQ of length L revolves in a horizontal plane about the
inclined plane. Then its kinetic energy is
axis YY´. The angular velocity of the rod is w. If A is the area
5 2 of cross-section of the rod and r be its density, its rotational
(a) rotational and translational
7 7 kinetic energy is
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

RESPONSE
14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
GRID
19.
DPP/ CP06 P-23
1 1 3 2 28. A uniform square plate has a small piece Q of an irregular

(a) AL3rw 2 ` (b) AL rw shape removed and glued to the centre of the plate
3 2
1 1 leaving a hole behind. Then the moment of inertia about
(c) AL3rw 2 (d) AL3rw 2 the z-axis
y y
24 18
21. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg rolls on a smooth horizontal (a) increases Hole
Q
surface at 10 m/s. It then rolls up a smooth inclined plane of (b) decreases x x
inclination 30° with the horizontal. The height attained by (c) remains same
the sphere before it stops is (d) changed in unpredicted manner.
29. A circular turn table has a block of ice placed at its centre.
(a) 700 cm (b) 701 cm (c) 7.1 m (d) 70 m
The system rotates with an angular speed w about an axis
22. A hollow smooth uniform sphere A of mass m rolls without passing through the centre of the table. If the ice melts on
sliding on a smooth horizontal surface. It collides head on its own without any evaporation, the speed of rotation of
elastically with another stationary smooth solid sphere B of the system
the same mass m and same radius. The ratio of kinetic energy (a) becomes zero
of B to that of A just after the collision is (b) remains constant at the same value w
(a) 1 : 1 A B
(c) increases to a value greater than w
(b) 2 : 3 (d) decreases to a value less than w
v
(c) 3 : 2 0
30. Seven identical coins are rigidly arranged on a flat table in

(d) 4 : 3
the pattern shown below so that each coin touches it
23. Two discs of same thickness but of different radii are made
neighbors. Each coin is a thin disc of mass m and radius r.
of two different materials such that their masses are same.
The moment of inertia of the system of seven coins about
The densities of the materials are in the ratio of 1 : 3. The
an axis that passes through point P and perpendicular to
moments of inertia of these discs about the respective axes
the plane of the coin is :
passing through their centres and perpendicular to their
planes will be in the ratio of 55 2 127 2 111 2
(a) mr (b) mr (c) mr (d) 55 mr2
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 9 (d) 9 : 1 2 2 2
24. A pulley fixed to the ceiling carries a string with blocks of 31. In a two-particle system with particle masses m1 and m2, the
mass m and 3 m attached to its ends. The masses of string first particle is pushed towards the centre of mass through
and pulley are negligible. When the system is released, its a distance d, the distance through which second particle
centre of mass moves with what acceleration ? must be moved to keep the centre of mass at the same
(a) 0 (b) – g/4 (c) g/2 (d) – g/2 position is
25. A ring of mass m and radius R has
four particles each of mass m m 2d m1d m1d
(a) m1 (b) d (c) (d) m
attached to the ring as shown in (m1 + m 2 ) 2
figure. The centre of ring has a speed 32. A uniform bar of mass M and length L is horizontally
v0. The kinetic energy of the system suspended from the ceiling by two vertical light cables as
is shown. Cable A is connected 1/4th distance from
the left end of the bar. Cable
(a) mv02 (b) 3mv02 (c) 5mv02 (d) 6mv02
B is attached at the far right Cable A Cable B
1L
26. Consider a uniform square plate of side ‘a’ and mass ‘M’. end of the bar. What is the 4
The moment of inertia of this plate about an axis tension in cable A? L
perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its (a) 1/4 Mg (b) 1/3 Mg (c) 2/3 Mg (d) 3/4 Mg
corners is 33. A couple produces
(a) purely linear motion
5 1 7 2
(a) Ma 2 (b) Ma 2 (c) Ma 2 (d) Ma 2 (b) purely rotational motion
6 12 12 3 (c) linear and rotational motion
27. A dancer is standing on a stool rotating about the vertical (d) no motion
axis passing through its centre. She pulls her arms towards 34. Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the point (0, 0, 0),
the body reducing her moment of inertia by a factor of n. (2, 0, 0), (0, 3, 0) and (–2, –2, 0) respectively. The moment of
The new angular speed of turn table is proportional to inertia of this system about x-axis will be
(a) n (b) n –1 (c) n 0 (d) n 2 (a) 43 kgm2 (b) 34 kgm2 (c) 27 kgm2 (d) 72 kgm2
20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

RESPONSE
25. 26. 27. 28. 29.
GRID
30. 31. 32. 33. 34.
EBD_7156
P-24 DPP/ CP06
35. A solid sphere of mass M and æ M + mö æ M + mö
radius R is pulled horizontally on (a) çè ÷ w1 (b) çè ÷ w1
a sufficiently rough surface as M ø m ø
shown in the figure. æ M ö æ M ö
(c) çè ÷w (d) ç w.
Choose the correct alternative. M + 4m ø 1 è M + 2m ÷ø 1
(a) The acceleration of the centre of mass is F/M 41. Two identical discs of mass m and radius r are //////////////////
2 F arranged as shown in the figure. If a is the
(b) The acceleration of the centre of mass is angular acceleration of the lower disc and acm
3M
is acceleration of centre of mass of the lower
(c) The friction force on the sphere acts forward
disc, then relation between a cm ,
(d) The magnitude of the friction force is F/3 a and r is
36. The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is (a) acm = a/r (b) acm = 2ar
1.2 kg m2. Initially, the body is at rest. In order to produce a (c) acm = a r (d) None of these
rotational kinetic energy of 1500 joule, an angular 42. Five masses are placed in a plane as shown in figure. The
acceleration of 25 radian/sec2 must be applied about that coordinates of the centre of mass are nearest to
axis for a duration of y
(a) 1.2, 1.4 2 3 kg
(a) 4 sec (b) 2 sec (c) 8 sec (d) 10 sec 4 kg
37. A gymnast takes turns with her arms and legs stretched.
When she pulls her arms and legs in (b) 1.3, 1.1 5 kg
(a) the angular velocity decreases 1
(b) the moment of inertia decreases (c) 1.1, 1.3
(c) the angular velocity stays constant
(d) the angular momentum increases (d) 1.0, 1.0 0 1 kg 2 kg x
0 1 2
38. An equilateral triangle ABC formed from A 43. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated at the
a uniform wire has two small identical vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side l cm (as shown
beads initially located at A. The triangle is g
in the figure). The moment of inertia of the system about a
set rotating about the vertical axis AO. line AX perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC, in
Then the beads are released from rest gram-cm2 units will be
simultaneously and allowed to slide B C X
O 3
down, one along AB and the other along AC as shown. (a) m l 2
m C
Neglecting frictional effects, the quantities that are conserved 2
as the beads slide down, are 3
(a) angular velocity and total energy (kinetic and potential) (b) ml 2 l l
4
(b) total angular momentum and total energy (c) 2 ml2
(c) angular velocity and moment of inertia about the axis 5 A B
of rotation (d) ml 2 m l m
(d) total angular momentum and moment of inertia about 4
the axis of rotation 44. When a ceiling fan is switched on, it makes 10 rotations in
39. The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular wire of mass the first 3 seconds. Assuming a uniform angular
m and radius r, about an axis passing through its centre of acceleration, how many rotation it will make in the next 3
seconds?
æ kö (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40
mass and perpendicular to its plane is mr 2 ç1 - 2 ÷ . Find
è p ø 45. A solid sphere spinning about a horizontal axis with an
the value of k. angular velocity w is placed on a horizontal surface.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 Subsequently it rolls without slipping with an angular
40. Initial angular velocity of a circular disc of mass M is w 1. velocity of :
Then two small spheres of mass m are attached gently to 2w 7w 2w
diametrically opposite points on the edge of the disc. What (a) (b) (c) (d) w
5 5 7
is the final angular velocity of the disc?
RESPONSE 35. 36. 37. 38. 39.

GRID 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.
45.
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP07
SYLLABUS : Gravitation
1. The radius of a planet is 1/4th of Re and its acc. due to A spherical cavity of radius R/2 is now made in the sphere
gravity is 2g. What would be the value of escape velocity as shown in the figure. The sphere with cavity now applies
on the planet, if escape velocity on earth is ve. a gravitational force F2 on the same particle placed at A.
ve ve The ratio F2/F1 will be
(a) (b) v e 2 (c) 2 ve (d) (a) 1/2 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) 1/9
2 2
2. A projectile is fired vertically from the Earth with a velocity 4. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of
kve where ve is the escape velocity and k is a constant less 5R above that surface of the earth, R being the radius of the
than unity. The maximum height to which projectile rises, as earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height
measured from the centre of Earth, is of 2R from the surface of the earth is :
R R R R 6
(a) (b) (c) 2 (d) (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 6 2 (d)
k k -1 1- k 1+ k2 2
3. A solid sphere of uniform 5. A satellite of mass m is orbiting around the earth in a circular
density and radius R applies a A orbit with a velocity v. What will be its total energy?
gravitational force of attraction
(a) (3/4) mv2 (b) (1/2) mv2
equal to F1 on a particle placed 2
at A, distance 2R from the centre (c) mv (d) – (1/2)m v2
of the sphere. R R
EBD_7156
P-26 DPP/ CP07
6. The gravitational force of attraction between a uniform 12. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between the
sphere of mass M and a uniform rod of length l and mass m earth and a satellite revolving around it becomes zero, then
oriented as shown is the satellite will
(a) continue to move in its orbit with same speed
M m (b) move tangentially to the original orbit with same speed
(c) become stationary in its orbit
(d) move towards the earth
r l
13. Mass M is divided into two parts xM and (1 – x )M. For a
GMm GM given separation, the value of x for which the gravitational
(a) r(r + l )
(b) (c) Mmr2 + l (d) (r2 + l) mM attraction between the two pieces becomes maximum is
r2 1 3
7. If the gravitational force between two objects were (a) (b) (c) 1 (d) 2
2 5
proportional to 1/R (and not as 1/R2) where R is separation
between them, then a particle in circular orbit under such a 14. The potential energy of a satellite, having mass m and
force would have its orbital speed v proportional to rotating at a height of 6.4 × 106 m from the earth surface, is
(a) 1/R2 (b) R0 (c) R1 (d) 1/R (a) – mgRe (b) – 0.67 mgRe
8. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R (c) – 0.5 mgRe (d) – 0.33 mgRe
at a height ‘x’ from its surface. If g is the acceleration due to 15. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1%, with its mass
gravity on the surface of the earth, the orbital speed of the remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity on the
satellite is earth’s surface would
æ gR 2 ö 1/ 2 (a) decrease by 1% (b) decrease by 2%
gR 2 gR
(a) (b) (c) gx (d) çç ÷
÷
(c) increase by 1% (d) increase by 2%
R+x R-x è R + x ø 16. Suppose the law of gravitational attraction suddenly
9. A body is projected up with a velocity equal to 3/4th of the 1
escape velocity from the surface of the earth. The height it changes and becomes an inverse cube law i.e. F µ , but
reaches from the centre of the earth is (Radius of the earth = R) r3
10R 16R 9R 10R still remaining a central force. Then
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Kepler’s law of area still holds
9 7 8 3 (b) Kepler’s law of period still holds
10. A Planet is revolving around the sun. (c) Kepler’s law of area and period still holds
B (d) neither the law of area nor the law of period still holds
17. Four equal masses (each of mass M) are placed at the corners
A C of a square of side a. The escape velocity of a body from the
S centre O of the square is
2GM 8 2 GM 4GM 4 2 GM
D (a) 4 (b) (c) (d)
Which of the following is correct option? a a a a
(a) The time taken in travelling DAB is less than that for
BCD 18. If the gravitational force had varied as r –5/2 instead of r–2;
(b) The time taken in travelling DAB is greater than that the potential energy of a particle at a distance ‘r’ from the
for BCD centre of the earth would be directly proportional to
(c) The time taken in travelling CDA is less than that for
(a) r -1 (b) r - 2 (c) r -3 / 2 (d) r -5 / 2
ABC
19. A particle of mass ‘m’ is kept at rest at a height 3R from the
(d) The time taken in travelling CDA is greater than that
for ABC surface of earth, where ‘R’ is radius of earth and ‘M’ is mass
11. The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A is 9 times of earth. The minimum speed with which it should be
the acceleration due to gravity on planet B. A man jumps to projected, so that it does not return back, is (g is acceleration
a height of 2m on the surface of A. What is the height of due to gravity on the surface of earth)
jump by the same person on the planet B? 1 1 1 1
2 2 æ GM ö 2 æ GM ö 2 æ gR ö 2 æ 2g ö 2
(a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷ (c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷
(a) m (b) m (c) 18 m (d) 6 m è R ø è 2R ø è 4 ø è 4 ø
3 9
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
GRID 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19.
DPP/ CP07 P-27
20. The ratio between the values of acceleration due to gravity (c) O r (d) O r
at a height 1 km above and at a depth of 1 km below the GMm
Earth’s surface is (radius of Earth is R) –
R
R–2 R R–2
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
R –1 R –1 R U (r ) U (r )
21. The weight of an object in the coal mine, sea level and at the 28. The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from the
top of the mountain, are respectively W1, W2 and W3 then sun are r1 and r2. Its distance from the sun when it is at
(a) W1< W2 > W3 (b) W1= W2 = W3 perpendicular to the major-axis of the orbit drawn from the sun
(c) W1< W2 < W3 (d) W1> W2 > W3 (a) (r1 + r2)/4 (b) (r1 + r2)/(r1 – r 2)
22. The period of moon's rotation around the earth is nearly 29 (c) 2r1 r2 /(r1 + r2) (d) (r1 + r2)/3
days. If moon's mass were 2 fold its present value and all 29. A planet is moving in an elliptical orbit around the sun. If T,
other things remain unchanged, the period of moon's rotation V, E and L stand respectively for its kinetic energy,
would be nearly gravitational potential energy, total energy and magnitude
of angular momentum about the centre of force, then which
(a) 29 2 days (b) 29 / 2 days of the following is correct ?
(c) 29 × 2 days (d) 29 days (a) T is conserved
23. The mean radius of earth is R, its angular speed on its own (b) V is always positive
axis is w and the acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface (c) E is always negative
is g. What will be the radius of the orbit of a geostationary (d) L is conserved but direction of vector L changes
satellite ? continuously
(a) (R2g / w2)1/3 (b) (Rg / w2)1/3 30. The earth is assumed to be sphere of radius R. A platform is
(c) (R w / g)
2 2 1/3 (d) (R2g / w)1/3 arranged at a height R from the surface of Earth. The escape
24. In order to make the effective acceleration due to gravity velocity of a body from this platform is kv, where v is its
equal to zero at the equator, the angular velocity of rotation escape velocity from the surface of the earth. The value of k is
of the earth about its axis should be (g = 10 ms–2 and radius 1 1 1
of earth is 64000 km) (a) (b) (c) (d) 2
2 3 2
31. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is m
1 h
(a) Zero (b) rad sec –1 surrounded by a spherical shell of same A
800 mass M and radius 2R as shown. A small
1 B
1 particle of mass m is released from rest
(c) rad sec–1 (d) 8 rad sec –1 from a height h [ << R] above the shell. R
80
25. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the There is a hole in the shell. 2R
gravitational force on it due to earth at a height equal to half What time will it enter the hole at A ?
the radius of the earth from the surface?
(a) 32 N (b) 28 N (c) 16 N (d) 72 N hR 2 2hR 2
(a) 2 (b)
26. A body weighs W newton at the surface of the earth. Its GM GM
weight at a height equal to half the radius of the earth, will be
hR 2 3hR 2
W 2W 4W 8W (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) GM GM
2 3 9 27 32. A body starts from rest from a point distance R0 from the
27. A shell of mass M and radius R has a point mass m placed at centre of the earth. The velocity acquired by the body when
a distance r from its centre. The graph of gravitational it reaches the surface of the earth will be (R represents radius
potential energy U(r) vs distance r will be of the earth).
r
(a) O r (b) O æ1 1 ö æ 1 1ö
(a) 2 G M çç - ÷
÷
(b) 2 G M çç - ÷÷
è R R 0ø R
è 0 R ø
æ1 1 ö æ1 1 ö
(c) G M çç - ÷
÷
(d) 2 G M çç - ÷
÷
U (r ) è R R 0ø è R R0 ø
U (r )
20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

RESPONSE
25. 26. 27. 28. 29.
GRID
30. 31. 32.
EBD_7156
P-28 DPP/ CP07
33. A satellite of mass M is moving in a circle of radius R under a 39. If the earth is treated as a sphere of radius R and mass M;
centripetal force given by (–k/R2), where k is a constant. Then its angular momentum about the axis of its rotation with
k period T, is
(a) The kinetic energy of the particle is R
12 pMR 3 MR 2 p 2 pMR 2 4 pMR 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) The total energy of the particle is æç - k ö÷ T T 5T 5T
è 2R ø 40. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R around
æ kö the earth. A second satellite is launched into an orbit of
(c) The kinetic energy of the particle is ç - ÷ radius 1.01 R. The period of second satellite is larger than
è Rø the first one by approximately
æ k ö (a) 0.5% (b) 1.0% (c) 1.5% (d) 3.0%
(d) The potential energy of the particle is ç ÷
è 2R ø 41. A uniform spherical shell gradually shrinks maintaining
34. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the surface its shape. The gravitational potential at the centre
of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’ below the surface of
earth. When both ‘d’ and ‘h’ are much smaller than the radius (a) increases (b) decreases
of earth, then which one of the following is correct? (c) remains constant (d) cannot say
3h h 42. The depth d at which the value of acceleration due to gravity
(a) d = (b) d = (c) d = h (d) d =2 h 1
2 2 becomes times the value at the surface of the earth, is
35. Two identical geostationary satellites are moving with equal n
speeds in the same orbit but their sense of rotation brings [R = radius of the earth]
them on a collision course. The debris will
(a) fall down R æ n -1 ö R æ n ö
(a) (b) R ç ÷ (c) (d) R ç ÷
(b) move up n è n ø n 2 è n +1ø
(c) begin to move from east to west in the same orbit 43. Radius of moon is 1/4 times that of earth and mass is 1/81
(d) begin to move from west to east in the same orbit times that of earth. The point at which gravitational field
36. A diametrical tunnel is dug across the Earth. A ball is dropped due to earth becomes equal and opposite to that of moon, is
into the tunnel from one side. The velocity of the ball when (Distance between centres of earth and moon is 60R, where
it reaches the centre of the Earth is .... (Given : gravitational R is radius of earth)
3 GM (a) 5.75 R from centre of moon
potential at the centre of Earth = – )
2 R (b) 16 R from surface of moon
(a) (b) gR (c) 2.5gR (d) 7.1gR (c) 53 R from centre of earth
R
(d) 54 R from centre of earth
37. A satellite revolves around the earth of radius R in a circular
44. If earth is supposed to be a sphere of radius R, if g30 is
orbit of radius 3R. The percentage increase in energy
required to lift it to an orbit of radius 5R is value of acceleration due to gravity at lattitude of 30° and g
(a) 10 % (b) 20 % (c) 30 % (d) 40 % at the equator, the value of g – g30 is
38. A (nonrotating) star collapses onto itself from an initial radius 3 2 1 2
Ri with its mass remaining unchanged. Which curve (a) 1 w2 R (b) w R (c) w 2 R (d) w R
4 4 2
in figur e best gives th e a g
45. What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of
gravitational acceleration ag on d mass m from the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R
the surface of the star as a b
function of the radius of the in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R?
a
star during the collapse 5GmM 2GmM GmM GmM
R (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d Ri 6R 3R 2R 2R
33. 34. 35. 36. 37.

RESPONSE
38. 39. 40. 41. 42.
GRID
43. 44. 45.
Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
Success Gap = Net Score –Space
Qualifying
for RoughScore
Work

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP08
SYLLABUS : Mechanical Properties of Solids
1. Two wires A and B are of the same material. Their lengths (Y1Y2 ) A (Y1Y2 ) A
(a) (b)
are in the ratio 1 : 2 and the diameter are in the ratio 2 : 1. If 2(Y1 L2 + Y2 L1 ) ( L1 L2 )1/2
they are pulled by the same force, then increase in length
(Y1Y2 ) A (Y1Y2 )1/2 A
will be in the ratio (c) (d)
Y1L2 + Y2 L1 ( L2 L1 )1/2
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 8 : 1
2. The load versus elongation graphs for four wires of same 5. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The
length and made of the same material are shown in the figure. compressibility of water is 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 and density of
The thinnest wire is represented by the line water is 103 kg/m3.What fractional compression of water
will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean ?
Load D
(a) OA C (a) 1.0 × 10–2 (b) 1.2 × 10–2
(c) 1.4 × 10 –2 (d) 0.8 × 10–2
B
(b) OC 6. The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two
A
wires of same length and of same area of cross section, one
(c) OD of steel and another of brass are suspended from the same
O Elongation roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the same
(d) OB
level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires
3. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 must be in the ratio of :
cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is (a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
(a) 16 J (b) 8 J (c) 32 J (d) 24 J 7. Choose the wrong statement.
4. A metal wire of length L1 and area of cross-section A is (a) The bulk modulus for solids is much larger than for
attached to a rigid support. Another metal wire of length L2 liquids.
and of the same cross-sectional area is attached to the free (b) Gases are least compressible.
end of the first wire. A body of mass M is then suspended (c) The incompressibility of the solids is due to the tight
from the free end of the second wire. If Y1 and Y2 are the coupling between neighbouring atoms.
Young’s moduli of the wires respectively, the effective force (d) The reciprocal of the bulk modulus is called
constant of the system of two wires is compressibility.
RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6. 7.
EBD_7156
P-30 DPP/ CP08
8. A copper wire of length 1.0 m and a steel wire of length (a) 1.4 × 104 N (b) 2.7 × 104 N
(c) 3.3 × 10 N 4 (d) 1.1 × 104 N
0.5 m having equal cross-sectional areas are joined end to
end. The composite wire is stretched by a certain load which 14. A ball falling in a lake of depth 400 m has a decrease of 0.2%
stretches the copper wire by 1 mm. If the Young’s modulii of in its volume at the bottom. The bulk modulus of the material
copper and steel are respectively 1.0 × 1011 Nm–2 and 2.0 × of the ball is (in N m–2)
1011 Nm–2, the total extension of the composite wire is : (a) 9.8 × 109 (b) 9.8 × 1010
(c) 1.96 × 10 10 (d) 1.96 × 109
(a) 1.75 mm (b) 2.0 mm (c) 1.50 mm (d) 1.25 mm
15. A circular tube of mean radius 8 cm and thickness 0.04 cm is
9. A cube at temperature 0ºC is compressed equally from all melted up and recast into a solid rod of the same length. The
sides by an external pressure P. By what amount should its ratio of the torsional rigidities of the circular tube and the
temperature be raised to bring it back to the size it had before solid rod is
the external pressure was applied. The bulk modulus of the
material of the cube is B and the coefficient of linear (8.02) 4 - (7.98) 4 (8.02) 2 - ( 7.98) 2
(a) (b)
expansion is a. (0.8) 4 (0.8) 2
(a) P/B a (b) P/3 B a (c) 3 p a/B (d) 3 B/P
(0.8) 2 (0.8) 2
10. The diagram below shows the change in the length X of a (c) (d)
thin uniform wire caused by the application of stress F at (8.02) 4 - (7.98) 4 (8.02) 3 - (7.98) 2
two different temperatures T1 and T2. The variation shown 16. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same
suggests that volume. However wire 1 has cross-sectional area A and wire
2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases
(a) T1 > T2 T2
F by Dx on applying force F, how much force is needed to
(b) T1 < T2 T1 stretch wire 2 by the same amount?
(a) 4 F (b) 6 F (c) 9 F (d) F
(c) T2 > T1 17. In materials like aluminium and copper, the correct order of
magnitude of various elastic modului is:
(d) T1 ³ T2 X
(a) Young’s modulus < shear modulus < bulk modulus.
11. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's moduli of steel and
brass wires in the figure are a, b and c respectively, then the (b) Bulk modulus < shear modulus < Young’s modulus
corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths is : (c) Shear modulus < Young’s modulus < bulk modulus.
3c (d) Bulk modulus < Young’s modulus < shear modulus.
(a) Steel 18. What per cent of length of wire increases by applying a
2ab2 stress of 1 kg weight/mm2 on it?
2a 2 c M (Y = 1 × 1011 N/m2 and 1 kg weight = 9.8 newton)
(b) (a) 0.0067% (b) 0.0098%
b Brass
(c) 0.0088% (d) 0.0078%
3a 19. An elastic string of unstretched length L and force constant
(c) 2M
2b2c k is stretched by a small length x. It is further stretched by
another small length y. The work done in the second
2ac
(d) stretching is :
b2
1 2 1
12. The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are respectively (a) ky (b) k ( x2 + y 2 )
2 2
1010 N/m2. and 2 × 1010 N/m2. A brass wire and a steel wire
of the same length are extended by 1 mm under the same 1 1
(c) k ( x + y)2 (d) ky (2 x + y )
force, the radii of brass and steel wires are RB and RS 2 2
respectively. Then 20. Two, spring P and Q of force constants k p and
(a) RS = 2 R B (b) RS = R B / 2 æ kp ö
kQ ç kQ =
(c) R S = 4R B (d) R S = R B / 4 è 2 ÷ø are stretched by applying forces of equal
13. Steel ruptures when a shear of 3.5 × 108 N m–2 is applied. magnitude. If the energy stored in Q is E, then the energy
The force needed to punch a 1 cm diameter hole in a steel stored in P is
sheet 0.3 cm thick is nearly: (a) E (b) 2 E (c) E/2 (d) E/4
RESPONSE 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
GRID
18. 19. 20.
DPP/ CP08 P-31
21. The pressure that has to be applied to the ends of a steel 29. When a 4 kg mass is hung vertically on a light spring that
wire of length 10 cm to keep its length constant when its obeys Hooke’s law, the spring stretches by 2 cms. The work
temperature is raised by 100ºC is: required to be done by an external agent in stretching this
spring by 5 cms will be (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
(For steel Young’s modulus is 2 ´ 1011 Nm -2 and coefficient (a) 4.900 joule (b) 2.450 joule
of thermal expansion is 1.1 ´ 10-5 K -1 ) (c) 0.495 joule (d) 0.245 joule
30. The length of a metal is l1 when the tension in it is T1 and is
(a) 2.2 ´ 108 Pa (b) 2.2 ´ 10 9 Pa l2 when the tension is T2. The original length of the wire is
(c) 2.2 ´ 10 7 Pa (d) 2.2 ´ 10 6 Pa l1 + l 2 l 1T2 + l 2 T1
(a) (b)
22. A steel ring of radius r and cross sectional area A is fitted 2 T1 + T2
onto a wooden disc of radius R (R > r). If the Young’s modulus
of steel is Y, then the force with which the steel ring is l 1T2 - l 2 T1
(c)
T2 - T1
(d) T1T2 l 1l 2
expanded is
(a) A Y (R/r) (b) A Y (R – r)/r 31. For the same cross-sectional area and for a given load, the
(c) (Y/A)[(R – r)/r] (d) Y r/A R ratio of depressions for the beam of a square cross-section
23. Two wires A and B of same material and of equal length with and circular cross-section is
the radii in the ratio 1 : 2 are subjected to identical loads. If (a) 3 : p (b) p : 3 (c) 1 : p (d) p : 1
the length of A increases by 8 mm, then the increase in 32. The bulk moduli of ethanol, mercury and water are given as
length of B is 0.9, 25 and 2.2 respectively in units of 109 Nm–2. For a given
(a) 2 mm (b) 4 mm (c) 8 mm (d) 16 mm value of pressure, the fractional compression in volume is
24. A material has poisson’s ratio 0.50. If a uniform rod of it DV DV
suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 10–3, then the percentage . Which of the following statements about for
V V
change in volume is these three liquids is correct ?
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.2 (d) Zero (a) Ethanol > Water > Mercury
25. The upper end of a wire of diameter 12mm and length 1m is (b) Water > Ethanol > Mercury
clamped and its other end is twisted through an angle of (c) Mercury > Ethanol > Water
30°. The angle of shear is (d) Ethanol > Mercury > Water
(a) 18° (b) 0.18° (c) 36° (d) 0.36° 33. The graph given is a stress-strain curve for
26. The pressure on an object of bulk modulus B undergoing
hydraulic compression due to a stress exerted by
2 1.0
æ DV ö
Stress (N/ m2)
surrounding fluid having volume strain ç

è V ÷ø
is
2 0.5
æ DV ö æ DV ö
(a) B2 ç
è V ÷ø (b) B ç
è V ÷ø
0
1 æ DV ö æ DV ö 0.5 1.0
(c) B ç
è V ÷ø (d) B ç
è V ÷ø Strain
27. A structural steel rod has a radius of 10 mm and length of (a) elastic objects (b) plastics
1.0 m. A 100 kN force stretches it along its length. Young’s
(c) elastomers (d) None of these
modulus of structural steel is 2 × 1011 Nm–2. The percentage
strain is about 34. A metal rod of Young's modulus 2 × 1010 N m–2 undergoes
(a) 0.16% (b) 0.32% (c) 0.08% (d) 0.24% an elastic strain of 0.06%. The energy per unit volume stored
28. A beam of metal supported at the two edges is loaded at the in J m–3 is
centre. The depression at the centre is proportional to (a) 3600 (b) 7200 (c) 10800 (d) 14400
35. Two wires of the same material and same length but diameters
d in the ratio 1 : 2 are stretched by the same force. The potential
energy per unit volume of the two wires will be in the ratio
(a) Y 2 (b) Y (c) 1/Y (d) 1/Y 2 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 16 : 1
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
RESPONSE
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
GRID 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
EBD_7156
P-32 DPP/ CP08
36. The length of an elastic string is a metre when the 41. A ball is falling in a lake of depth 200 m creates a decrease
longitudinal tension is 4 N and b metre when the longitudinal 0.1 % in its volume at the bottom. The bulk modulus of the
tension is 5 N. The length of the string in metre when the material of the ball will be
longitudinal tension is 9 N is
1 (a) 19.6 ´ 10 -8 N / m 2 (b) 19.6 ´ 1010 N / m 2
(a) a – b (b) 5b – 4a (c) 2b – a (d) 4a – 3b
4 (c) 19.6 ´10 -10 N / m 2 (d) 19.6 ´108 N / m 2
37. A force of 103 newton, stretches the length of a hanging
42. The diagram shows a force-
wire by 1 millimetre. The force required to stretch a wire of
extension graph for a rubber
same material and length but having four times the diameter
band. Consider the following
Extension
by 1 millimetre is
(a) 4 × 103 N (b) 16 × 103 N statements :
1 1 I. It will be easier to compress
(c) ´ 103 N (d) ´ 103 N
4 16 this rubber than expand it Force
38. A steel wire of length l and cross sectional area A is stretched II.Rubber does not return to its original length after it is
by 1 cm under a given load. When the same load is applied stretched
to another steel wire of double its length and half of its III. The rubber band will get heated if it is stretched and
cross section area, the amount of stretching (extension) is released
(a) 0.5 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 1.5 cm Which of these can be deduced from the graph:
39. The adjacent graph shows the extension (D l) of a wire of (a) III only (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I only
length 1 m suspended from the top of a roof at one end with 43. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.5. If a force is applied to a
a load W connected to the other end. If the cross-sectional wire of this material, there is a decrease in the cross-sectional
area of the wire is 10–6 m2, calculate the Young’s modulus area by 4%. The percentage increase in the length is:
of the material of the wire : (a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 2.5% (d) 4%
Dl(x10 )m 44. Copper of fixed volume ‘V; is drawn into wire of length ‘l’.
-4
When this wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’, the

4 extension produced in the wire is ‘Dl’. Which of the following
3 graphs is a straight line?
2
1
1
(a) Dl versus (b) Dl versus l2
l
20 40 60 80 W(N)
1
(a) 2 × 1011 N/m2 (b) 2 × 10–11 N/m2 (c) Dl versus 2 (d) Dl versus l
l
(c) 3 × 10–12 N/m2 (d) 2 × 10–13 N/m2 45. When a 4 kg mass is hung vertically on a light spring that
40. If a rubber ball is taken at the depth of 200 m in a pool, its obeys Hooke’s law, the spring stretches by 2 cms. The work
volume decreases by 0.1%. If the density of the water is required to be done by an external agent in stretching this
1 × 103 kg/m3 and g = 10m/s2, then the volume elasticity in spring by 5 cm will be (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
N/m2 will be (a) 4.900 joule (b) 2.450 joule
(a) 108 (b) 2 × 108 (c) 109 (d) 2 × 109 (c) 0.495 joule (d) 0.245 joule
RESPONSE 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

GRID 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP09
SYLLABUS : Mechanical Properties of Fluids
1. The density of water at the surface of ocean is r. If the bulk 3. Two parallel glass plates are dipped partly in the liquid of
modulus of water is B, what is the density of ocean water at density 'd' keeping them vertical . If the distance between
a depth where the pressure is nP 0 , where P 0 is the the plates is 'x', surface tension for liquids is T and angle of
atmospheric pressure ? contact is q, then rise of liquid between the plates due to
rB rB capillary will be
(a) B - ( n - 1) P0 (b) B + ( n - 1) P0 T cos q 2T cos q 2T T cos q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
xd xdg xdg cos q xdg
rB rB 4. A liquid is allowed to flow into a tube of truncated cone
(c) B - nP0 (d) B + nP0 shape. Identify the correct statement from the following
(a) The speed is high at the wider end and high at the
2. A ball of radius r and density r falls freely under narrow end
gravity through a distance h before entering (b) The speed is low at the wider end and high at the
water. Velocity of ball does not change even on narrow end
h
entering water. If viscosity of water is h the value (c) The speed is same at both ends in a streamline flow
of h is given by (d) The liquid flows with uniform velocity in the tube
5. A wide vessel with a small hole at the bottom is filled with
2 2 æ 1- r ö 2 2 æ r -1 ö water (density r1, height h1) and kerosene (density r2, height
(a) r ç ÷g (b) r ç ÷g
9 è h ø 81 è h ø h2). Neglecting viscosity effects, the speed with which water
2 2 flows out is :
2 4 æ r -1 ö 2 4 æ r -1 ö (a) [2g(h1 + h2)]1/2 (b) [2g(h1r1 + h2r2)]1/2
(c) r ç ÷ g (d) r ç ÷ g
81 è h ø 9 è h ø (c) [2g(h1 + h2(r2/r1))]1/2 (d) [2g (h1 + h2(r1/r2))]1/2
EBD_7156
P-34 DPP/ CP09
6. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed vertically in a liquid 8 9 5 7
such that liquid rises in it to height h (less than the length of (a) X (b) X (c) X (d) X
9 8 7 5
the tube). Mass of liquid in the capillary tube is m. If radius 13. A candle of diameter d is floating on a liquid in a cylindrical
of the capillary tube is increased by 50%, then mass of liquid container of diameter D (D >> d) as shown in figure. If it is
that will rise in the tube, is burning at the rate of 2 cm/hour then the top of the candle
2 4 3 9 will
(a) m (b) m (c) m (d) m L
3 9 2 4 (a) remain at the same height
7. A lead shot of 1 mm diameter falls through a long column of
glycerine. The variation of its velocity v with distance (b) fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour L
covered is represented by (c) fall at the rate of 2 cm/hour d
(d) go up at the rate of 1 cm/hour D
v v 14. An isolated and charged spherical soap bubble has a radius
(a) r and the pressure inside is atmospheric. T is the surface
(b)
Distance
covered
Distance tension of soap solution. If charge on drop is X pr 2rTe 0
covered
then find the value of X.
v v (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 2
15. A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as in figure and
(c) (d) the frame is dipped into a soap solution and taken out. The
Distance Distance frame is completely covered with the film. When the portion
covered covered
8. Two mercury drops (each of radius ‘r’) merge to form bigger A is punctured with a pin, the thread
drop. The surface energy of the bigger drop, if T is the (a) becomes concave towards A Frame
A
surface tension, is : (b) becomes convex towards A
(a) 4pr 2T (b) 2pr 2T (c) remains in the initial position B
Thread
(d) either (a) or (b) depending
(c) 28/ 3 pr 2T (d) 25/ 3 pr 2T
9. Wax is coated on the inner wall of a capillary tube and the on the size of A w.r. t. B
tube is then dipped in water. Then, compared to the unwaxed 16. Which of the following expressions represents the excess
capillary, the angle of contact q and the height h upto which of pressure inside the soap bubble?
water rises change. These changes are :
(a) q increases and h also increases (a) Pi – Po = s (b) Pi – Po = 2s
r r
(b) q decreases and h also decreases 2s 4s
(c) q increases and h decreases (c) Pi – Po = + hrg (d) Pi – Po =
r r
(d) q decreases and h increases 17. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of
10. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity in air = density r1. It is falling through a liquid of density
1 m/s. The viscosity of air is 8 × 10–5 poise. The viscous r1 (r2< r1). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on
force on it is the ball that is proportional to the square of its speed
(a) 45.2 × 10–4 dyne (b) 101.73×10–5 dyne v, i.e., Fviscous = –kv2 (k > 0). The terminal speed of the ball
–4
(c) 16.95 × 10 dyne (d) 16.95 × 10–5 dyne is
11. A water tank of height 10m, completely filled with water is
Vg (r1 – r2 ) Vg r1
placed on a level ground. It has two holes one at 3 m and the (a) (b)
other at 7 m from its base. The water ejecting from k k
(a) both the holes will fall at the same spot Vg r1 Vg (r1 – r2 )
(b) upper hole will fall farther than that from the lower hole (c) (d)
k k
(c) upper hole will fall closer than that from the lower hole
(d) more information is required 18. Select the correct statements from the following.
12. Two capillary of length L and 2L and of radius R and 2R are (a) Bunsen burner and sprayers work on Bernoulli's
connected in series. The net rate of flow of fluid through principle
them will be (given rate to the flow through single capillary, (b) Blood flow in arteries is explained by Bernoulli's
principle
pPR 4 (c) A siphon works on account of atmospheric pressure.
X= ) (d) All are correct
8hL
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
GRID 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18.
DPP/ CP09 P-35

19. The wetability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on one -half that of a freely falling body ? (The densities of
(a) surface tension metal and of liquid are r and s respectively, and the viscosity
(b) density of the liquid is h).
(c) angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
(d) viscosity r2 g r2 g
20. The relative velocity of two parallel layers of water is (a) (r - 2s) (b) (2r - s)
9h 9h
8 cm/sec. If the perpendicular distance between the layers
is 0.1 cm, then velocity gradient will be r2g 2r 2 g
(a) 80/sec (b) 60 /sec (c) 50/sec (d) 40/sec (c) (r - s) (d) ( r - s)
9h 9h
21. Choose the correct statement
27. Two pieces of metals are suspended from the arms of a
(a) Terminal velocities of rain drops are proportional to
balance and are found to be in equilibrium when kept
square of their radii
immersed in water. The mass of one piece is 32 g and its
(b) Water proof agents decrease the angle of contact
density 8 g cm–3. The density of the other is 5 g per cm3.
between water and fibres
Then the mass of the other is
(c) Detergents increase the surface tension of water
(d) Hydraulic machines work on the principle of Torricelli's (a) 28 g (b) 35 g (c) 21 g (d) 33.6 g
law 28. A block of material of specific gravity 0.4 is held submerged
22. When a ball is released from rest in a very long column of at a depth of 1m in a vessel filled with water. The vessel is
viscous liquid, its downward acceleration is ‘a’ (just after accelerated upwards with acceleration of ao = g/5. If the
release). Its acceleration when it has acquired two third of block is released at t = 0, neglecting viscous effects, it will
the maximum velocity is a/X. Find the value of X. reach the water surface at t equal to (g = 10 m/s2) :
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) 0.60 s (b) 0.33 s (c) 3.3 s (d) 1.2 s
23. A ring is cut from a platinum tube 8.5 cm internal and 8.7 cm 29. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown through
external diameter. It is supported horizontally from the pan the horizontal tube in the direction as shown then rise in
of a balance, so that it comes in contact with the water in a capillary tube will be
glass vessel. If an extra 3.97. If is required to pull it away (a) = H
from water, the surface tension of water is H
(a) 72 dyne cm–1 (b) 70.80 dyne cm–1 (b) > H
(c) 63.35 dyne cm–1 (d) 60 dyne cm–1 (c) < H
24. Which of the following graph represents the variation of (d) zero
surface tension with temperature over small temperature
ranges for water? 30. A small spherical ball falling through a viscous medium of
negligible density has terminal velocity v. Another ball of
(a) S.T. (b) S.T. the same mass but of radius twice that of the earlier falling
through the same viscous medium will have terminal velocity
(a) v (b) v/4 (c) v/2 (d) 2v
31. Two non-mixing liquids of densities r and n r
T T (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h.
A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this
(c) S.T. (d) S.T. container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length
pL(p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to :
(a) {1 + (n + 1)p}r (b) {2 + (n + 1)p}r
T T (c) {2 + (n – 1)p}r (d) {1 + (n – 1)p}r
25. When a large air bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to 32. A thin liquid film formed between a U-shaped
the surface, its radius doubles. If the atmospheric pressure wire and a light slider supports a weight of
is equal to that of a column of water of height H, then depth 1.5 × 10–2 N (see figure). The length of the Film
of the lake is slider is 30 cm and its weight negligible. The
(a) H (b) 2H (c) 7H (d) 8H surface tension of the liquid film is
26. What is the velocity v of a metallic ball of radius r falling in (a) 0.0125 Nm–1 (b) 0.1 Nm–1
W
a tank of liquid at the instant when its acceleration is (c) 0.05 Nm–1 (d) 0.025 Nm–1
19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

RESPONSE
GRID 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.
29. 30. 31. 32.
EBD_7156
P-36 DPP/ CP09
33. Two liquids of densities d1 and d2 are flowing in identical a weight of water W and surface tension of water is T, then
capillary tubes uder the same pressure difference. If t1 and the weight of metal disc is:
t2 are time taken for the flow of equal quantities (mass) of (a) 2 prT + W (b) 2 prT cos q – W
liquids, then the ratio of coefficient of viscosity of liquids (c) 2 prT cos q + W (d) W – 2 prT cos q
must be 40. A tank has a small hole at its botom of area of cross-section
a. Liquid is being poured in the tank at the rate Vm3/s,
d1 t 1 t d2 t2 d1 t 1
(a) (b) 1 (c) (d) the maximum level of liquid in the container will be (Area of
d2t2 t 2 d1 t 1 d2t 2 tank = A)
34. Let T1 be surface tension between T V V2 V2 V
solid and air, T2 be the surface liquid air (a) (b) (c) (d)
q gaA 2gAa gAa 2gaA
tension between solid and liquid and
T be the surface tension between T1 Solid T2 41. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and r1
liquid and air. Then in equilibrium, for a drop of liquid on 2 having densities r1 and, r2 respectively. A r 3
a clean glass plate, the correct relation is (q is angle of solid ball, made of a material of density r3 , is
contact) dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in
the position shown in the figure.Which of the following is
T T true for r1, r2and r3?
(a) cos q = (b) cos q =
T1 + T2 T1 - T2 (a) r3 < r1 < r2 (b) r1 > r3 > r2
T1 + T2 T1 - T2 (c) r1 < r2 < r3 (d) r1 < r3 < r2
(c) cos q = (d) cos q = 42. On heating water, bubbles being formed
T T
35. A uniform rod of density r is placed in a wide tank containing at the bottom of the vessel detach and
a liquid of density r0(r0 > r). The depth of liquid in the rise. Take the bubbles to be spheres of
tank is half the length of the rod. The rod is in equilibrium, radius R and making a circular contact
with its lower end resting on the bottom of the tank. In this of radius r with the bottom of the vessel. R
position the rod makes an angle q with the horizontal If r << R and the surface tension of water
1 r0 is T, value of r just before bubbles
1 detach is: (density of water is rw)
(b) sin q = .
2r
(a) sin q = r0 / r
2 2 r
(c) sin q = r / r0 (d) sin q = r0 / r 2rw g r g r g 3r w g
(a) R 2 (b) R 2 w (c) R 2 w (d) R 2
36. A spherical ball of iron of radius 2 mm is falling through a 3T 6T T T
column of glycerine. If densities of glycerine and iron are 43. The lift of an air plane is based on
respectively 1.3 × 103 kg/m3 and 8 × 103 kg/m3. h for glycerine (a) Torricelli's theorem
= 0.83 Nm–2 sec, then the terminal velocity is (b) Bernoulli's theorem
(a) 0.7 m/s (b) 0.07 m/s (c) 0.007 m/s (d) 0.0007 m/s (c) Law of gravitation
37. A water film is formed between two straight parallel wires of (d) conservation of linear momentum
10 cm length 0.5 cm apart. If the distance between wires is 44. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius, R, one end
increased by 1 mm. What will be the work done ? of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the speed of the
(surface tension of water = 72 dyne/cm) liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid
(a) 36 erg (b) 288 erg (c) 144 erg (d) 72 erg through the holes is :
38. A waterproofing agent changes the angle of contact VR 2 VR 2 V 2R VR 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) from obtuse to acute. nr 2 n3r 2 nr n2r2
(b) from acute to obtuse. 45. Drops of liquid of density r are floating half immersed in a
(c) from obtuse to p/2. liquid of density s. If the surface tension of liquid is T, the
(d) from acute to p/ 2. radius of the drop will be
39. A thin metal disc of radius r floats on water surface and 3T 6T 3T 3T
bends the surface downwards along the perimeter making (a) (b) (c) (d)
g (3r - s) g (2r - s ) g (2r - s ) g (4r - 3s)
an angle q with vertical edge of the disc. If the disc displaces
33. 34. 35. 36. 37.
RESPONSE
38. 39. 40. 41. 42.
GRID 43. 44. 45.
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
Cut-off Score 45 Space for Rough Work Score
Qualifying 60
DPP/ CP10 P-37

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP10
SYLLABUS : Thermal Properties of Matter
1. The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction 3. The sprinkling of water slightly reduces the temperature
of incidence, received at a distance R from the centre of a of a closed room because
star of radius r, whose outer surface radiates as a black (a) temperature of water is less than that of the room
body at a temperature T K is given by: (s is Stefan's (b) specific heat of water is high
constant) (c) water has large latent heat of vaporisation
s r 2T 4 s r 2T 4 (d) water is a bad conductor of heat
(a) (b) 4. The value of molar heat capacity at constant temperature is
R2 4p r 2
(a) zero (b) infinity
s r 4T 4 4 p s r 2T 4 (c) unity (d) 4.2
(c) (d)
r4 R2 5. The specific heat capacity of a metal at low temperature (T)
2. Three rods of same dimensions are arranged as shown in is given as
figure, have thermal conductivities K1, K2 and K3 . The points
3
P and Q are maintained at different temeratures for the heat æ T ö
C p (kJK -1kg -1 ) = 32 ç
to flow at the same rate along PRQ and PQ. Then which of è 400 ÷ø
the following option is correct?
R A 100 gram vessel of this metal is to be cooled from 20ºK to
1 4ºK by a special refrigerator operating at room temperature
(a) K 3 = ( K1 + K 2 )
2 (27°C). The amount of work required to cool the vessel is
(b) K3 = K1 + K2 K1 K2 (a) greater than 0.148 kJ
K1K 2 (b) between 0.148 kJ and 0.028 kJ
(c) K3 = (c) less than 0.028 kJ
K1 + K2
P Q (d) equal to 0.002 kJ
(d) K3 = –2(K1 + K2) K3
EBD_7156
P-38 DPP/ CP10
6. The emissive power of a black body at T = 300K is 100 Watt/ 13. A body of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 20 metres on the
m2. Consider a body B of area A = 10m2 coefficient of ground and it rebounds to a height of 0.2 m. If the loss in
reflectivity r = 0.3 and coefficient of transmission t = 0.5. Its potential energy is used up by the body, then what will be the
temperature is 300K. Then which of the following is incorrect? temperature rise?
(a) The emissive power of B is 20 W/m2 (specific heat of material = 0.09 cal gm–1 ºC–1)
(b) The emissive power of B is 200 W/m2 (a) 0ºC (b) 4ºC (c) 8ºC (d) None of these
(c) The power emitted by B is 200 Watts 14. Two straight metallic strips each of thickness t and length l
(d) The emissivity of B is 0.2 are rivetted together. Their coefficients of linear expansions
7. A solid cube and a solid sphere of the same material have are a1 and a2 . If they are heated through temperature DT,
equal surface area. Both are at the same temperture 120°C , the bimetallic strip will bend to form an arc of radius
then (a) t/{a1 + a2)DT} (b) t/{(a2 – a1)DT}
(a) both the cube and the sphere cool down at the same rate (c) t(a1 – a2)DT (d) t(a2 – a1)DT
(b) the cube cools down faster than the sphere 15. The figure shows a system of two
(c) the sphere cools down faster than the cube concentric spheres of radii r1 and r2 are
(d) whichever is having more mass will cool down faster kept at temperatures T 1 and T 2 , r1
8. The density of water at 20°C is 998 kg/m3 and at 40°C 992 respectively. The radial rate of flow of T1
kg/m3. The coefficient of volume expansion of water is heat in a substance between the two
(a) 10–4/°C (b) 3 × 10–4/°C concentric spheres is proportional to r2 T2
(c) 2 × 10–4/°C (d) 6 × 10–4/°C (r2 - r1 )
æ ö
9. A metallic rod l cm long, A square cm in cross-section is (a) ln ç r2 ÷ (b)
heated through tºC. If Young’s modulus of elasticity of the è r1 ø (r1 r2 )
metal is E and the mean coefficient of linear expansion is a per r1 r2
degree celsius, then the compressional force required to (c) ( r2 - r1 ) (d)
prevent the rod from expanding along its length is (r2 - r1 )
Temperature
C
(a) E A a t (b) E A a t/(1 + at) 16. A block of steel heated to 100ºC is left B
(c) E A a t/(1 – a t) (d) E l a t in a room to cool. Which of the curves A

10. If liquefied oxygen at 1 atmospheric pressure is heated from shown in fig., represents the correct
50 K to 300 K by supplying heat at constant rate. The graph behaviour? Time
of temperature vs time will be (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) None of these

17. Which of the following will expand the most for same rise
in temperature?
(a) Aluminium (b) Glass
T (c) Wood (d) All will expand same
(a) (b) T 18. The plots of intensity versus T3
wavelength for three black bodies
t t at temperatures T 1 , T 2 and T 3 I T1 T2
respectively are as shown. Their
temperature are such that
(a) T1 > T2 > T3 (b) T1 > T3 > T2 l
(c) T (d) T (c) T2 > T3 > T1 (d) T3 > T2 > T1
19. When the temperature of a rod increases from t to t + Dt, its
t t moment of inertia increases from I to I + DI. If a be the
11. If a bar is made of copper whose coefficient of linear coefficient of linear expansion of the rod, then the value of
expansion is one and a half times that of iron, the ratio of DI
is
force developed in the copper bar to the iron bar of identical I
lengths and cross-sections, when heated through the same aDt Dt
(a) 2aDt (b) aDT (c) (d)
temperature range (Young’s modulus of copper may be taken 2 a
to be equal to that of iron) is 20. Two rods, one of aluminum and the other made of steel,
(a) 3/2 (b) 2/3 (c) 9/4 (d) 4/9 having initial length l1 and l2 are connected together to
12. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. form a single rod of length l1 + l2. The coefficients of linear
Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the expansion for aluminum and steel are aa and as and
ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its respectively. If the length of each rod increases by the same
fall. The value of h is : amount when their temperature are raised by t0C, then find
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 105 J/kg and g = 10 N/kg] the ratio l1/(l1 + l2)
(a) 34 km (b) 544 km (c) 136 km (d) 68 km (a) as/aa (b) aa/as (c) a s/(aa + as) (d) aa/(aa + as)
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
DPP/ CP10 P-39

21. A polished metal plate with a rough black spot on it is heated (b) total radiation, emitted by a hot surface
to about 1400 K and quickly taken into a dark room. Which (c) an expression for spectral distribution of energy of a
one of the following statements will be true? radiation from any source
(a) The spot will appear brighter than the plate (d) a relation between the temperature of a black body and
(b) The spot will appear darker than the plate the wavelength at which there is maximum radiant
(c) The spot and plate will appear equally bright energy per unit wavelength
(d) The spot and the plate will not be visible in the dark room 28. If a piece of metal is heated to temperature q and then allowed
22. On observing light from three different stars P, Q and R, it to cool in a room which is at temperature q0, the graph
was found that intensity of violet colour is maximum in the between the temperature T of the metal and time t will be
spectrum of P, the intensity of green colour is maximum in closest to
the spectrum of R and the intensity of red colour is maximum
in the spectrum of Q. If TP, TQ and TR are the respective T
T
absolute temperature of P, Q and R, then it can be concluded (a) (b) q0
from the above observations that
(a) TP > TR > TQ (b) TP < TR < TQ O t O t
(c) TP < TQ < TR (d) TP > TQ > TR
23. A partition wall has two layers of different materials A and B T T
q0
in contact with each other. They have the same thickness (c) q0
(d)
but the thermal conductivity of layer A is twice that of layer
O t
B. At steady state the temperature difference across the O t
layer B is 50 K, then the corresponding difference across 29. Two rods of same length and
transfer a given amount of heat
the layer A is
12 second, when they are joined
(a) 50 K (b) 12.5 K (c) 25 K (d) 60 K
as shown in figure (i). But when
24. Which of the following statements is/are false about
they are joined as shwon in figure
mode of heat transfer? (ii), then they will transfer same
(a) In radiation, heat is transfered from one medium to heat in same conditions in
another without affecting the intervening medium
(a) 24 s (b) 13 s (c) 15 s (d) 48 s
(b) Radiation and convection are possible in vaccum
30. Consider a compound slab consisting of two different
while conduction requires material medium.
materials having equal thicknesses and thermal
(c) Conduction is possible in solids while convection
conductivities K and 2K, respectively. The equivalent thermal
occurs in liquids and gases.
conductivity of the slab is
(d) All are correct
25. In a vertical U-tube containing a liquid, 4 2
(a) K (b) K (c) 3 K (d) 3 K
the two arms are maintained at 3 3
different temperatures t1 and t2. The t1 31. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper, mercury
liquid columns in the two arms have t2 and glass are respectively Kc, Km and Kg such that Kc > Km
heights l 1 and l 2 respectively. The l1 > Kg. If the same quantity of heat is to flow per sec per unit
coefficient of volume expansion of the 2 l area of each and corresponding temperature gradients are
liquid is equal to Xc, Xm and Xg then
l1 – l2 l1 – l2 l1 + l2 l1 + l2 (a) Xc = Xm = Xg (b) Xc > Xm > Xg
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) Xc < Xm < Xg (d) Xm < Xc < Xg
l2 t1 – l1t2 l1t1 – l2 t2 l2 t1 + l1t2 l1t1 + l2 t2
26. The top of an insulated cylindrical container is covered by 32. The radiation energy density per unit wavelength at a
temperature T has a maximum at a wavelength l0. At
a disc having emissivity 0.6 and conductivity 0.167 WK– temperature 2T, it will have a maximum wavelength
1m–1 and thickness 1 cm. The temperature is maintained by
l0 l0
circulating oil as shown in figure. (a) 4l 0 (b) 2l 0 (c) (d)
Find the radiation loss to the 2 4
surroundin g in Jm –2 s –1 if Oil out 33. Assuming the Sun to be a spherical body of radius R at a
temperature of the upper surface temperature of TK, evaluate the total radiant powerd incident
of the disc is 27°C and temperature Oil in
of Earth at a distance r from the Sun
of the surrounding is 27°C. 4 4
2 2 T 2 2 T
(a) 595 Jm–2s–1 (b) 545 Jm–2s–1 (a) 4pr0 R s 2 (b) pr0 R s 2
(c) 495 Jm s –2 –1 (d) None of these r r
27. Wien's law is concerned with 4 4
2 2 T 2 T
(a) relation between emissivity and absorptivity of a (c) r0 R s 2
(d) R s 2
radiating surface 4pr r
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
RESPONSE 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
GRID 31. 32. 33.
EBD_7156
P-40 DPP/ CP10
34. A metal ball immersed in alcohol weighs W1 at 0ºC and W2 at 40. In a surrounding medium of temperature 10°C, a body takes
59ºC. The coefficient of cubical expansion of the metal is less 7 min for a fall of temperature from 60°C to 40°C. In what time
than that of alcohol. Assuming that the density of the metal is the temperature of the body will fall from 40°C to 28°C?
large compared to that of alcohol, it can be shown that (a) 7 min (b) 11 min (c) 14 min (d) 21 min
(a) W1 > W2 (b) W1 = W2 41. Two rods of same length and area of cross-section A1 and
(c) W1 < W2 (d) W1 = (W2/2) A2 have their ends at the same temperature. If K 1 and K2 are
35. One end of a thermally insulated rod is kept at a temperature their thermal conductivities, c1 and c2 are their specific heats
T1 and the other at T2. The rod is composed of two sections and d1 and d2 are their densities, then the rate of flow of
of length l 1 and l 2 and thermal T1 l1 l2 T2 heat is the same in both the rods if
conductivities K 1 and K 2 A1 - k 1 A1 k c d
respectively. The temperature at the (a) = (b) = 1 1 1
A2 k2 A 2 k 2 c2 d 2
interface of the two sections is K1 K2
A1 k c d A1 k 2
( K 1l1T1 + K 2 l2T 2 ) ( K 2l2T1 + K1l1T2 ) (c) = 2 1 1 (d) =
(a) (b) A 2 c 2 d 2 k1 A 2 k1
( K1l1 + K 2l2 ) ( K1l1 + K 2 l2 )
42. A student takes 50gm wax
( K 2l1T1 + K1l2T2 ) ( K1l2T1 + K 2l1T2 )
Temperature (°C)
(specific heat = 0.6 kcal/kg°C) 250
(c) (d) 200
( K 2 l1 + K1l2 ) ( K1l2 + K 2 l1 ) and heats it till it boils. The 150
36. Two spheres of different materials one with double the radius graph between temperature and 100
and one-fourth wall thickness of the other are filled with ice. time is as follows. Heat supplied 50
If the time taken for complete melting of ice in the larger to the wax per minute and 0
1 2 3 4 567 8
sphere is 25 minute and for smaller one is 16 minute, the boiling point are respectively Time (Minute)
ratio of thermal conductivities of the materials of larger (a) 500 cal, 50°C (b) 1000 cal, 100°C
spheres to that of smaller sphere is (c) 1500 cal, 200°C (d) 1000 cal, 200°C
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 25 : 8 (d) 8 : 25 43. Consider two identical iron spheres , one
37. A black body has maximum wavelength lm at temperature which lie on a thermally insulating plate,
2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000 while the other hangs from an insulatory
K will be thread. Equal amount of heat is supplied
3 2 4 9 to the two spheres, then
(a) lm (b) lm (c) lm (d) lm (a) temperature of A will be greater than B
2 3 9 4
38. A solid material is supplied with (b) temperature of B will be greater than A
Temperature
E
heat at constant rate and the (c) their temperature will be equal
C
temperature of the material changes D (d) can’t be predicted
A 44. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When
as shown. From the graph, the B
CD = 2AB
FALSE conclusion drawn is water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass of water
O Heat Input
(a) AB and CD of the graph represent phase changes present will be: [Takespecific heat of water = 1 cal g– 1 °C– 1
(b) AB represents the change of state from solid to liquid and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g– 1]
(c) latent heat of fusion is twice the latent heat of (a) 24 g (b) 31.5 g (c) 42.5 g (d) 22.5 g
vaporization 45. Two solid spheres, of radii R1 and R2 are made of the same
(d) CD represents change of state from liquid to vapour material and have similar surfaces. The spheres are raised to
39. 10 gm of ice cubes at 0°C are released in a tumbler (water the same temperature and then allowed to cool under
equivalent 55 g) at 40°C. Assuming that negligible heat is identical conditions. Assuming spheres to be perfect
taken from the surroundings, the temperature of water in conductors of heat, their initial rates of loss of heat are
the tumbler becomes nearly (L = 80 cal/g)
(a) 31°C (b) 22°C (c) 19°C (d) 15°C (a) R12 / R22 (b) R1 / R 2 (c) R 2 / R1 (d) R22 / R12
RESPONSE 34. 35. 36. 37. 38.

GRID 39. 40. 41. 42. 43.
44. 45.
Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
Net Score = Space for Rough Work
(Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP11
SYLLABUS : Thermodynamics
1. The relation between U, P and V for an ideal gas in an 5. A closed gas cylinder is divided into two parts by a piston
adiabatic process is given by relation U = a + bP V. Find the held tight. The pressure and volume of gas in two parts
value of adiabatic exponent (g) of this gas respectively are (P, 5V) and (10P, V). If now the piston is left
b +1 b +1 a +1 a free and the system undergoes isothermal process, then the
(a) (b) (c) (d) volumes of the gas in two parts respectively are
b a b a+b
2. Carbon monoxide is carried around P 10 20
(a) 2V, 4V (b) 3V, 3V (c) 5V, V V,
(d) V
a closed cycle abc in which bc is an P2 b 11 11
isothermal process as shown in the 6. The efficiency of an ideal gas with adiabatic exponent ‘g’ for
figure. The gas absorbs 7000 J of the shown cyclic process would be
heat as its temperture increases from P1 a c
( 2 ln 2 - 1)
300 K to 1000 K in going from a to b. (a)
O V1 V2
V g / (g - 1) v
The quantity of heat rejected by the
2V0 C
gas during the process ca is (1 - 2 ln 2)
(b) g /( g - 1)
(a) 4200 J (b) 5000 J (c) 9000 J (d) 9800 J
3. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of h = 1/10 as heat ( 2 ln 2 + 1) V0
B A
(c)
engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the g /( g - 1)
system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the T0 2T0 T
( 2 ln 2 - 1)
reservoir at lower temperature is (d)
g /( g + 1)
(a) 100 J (b) 99 J (c) 90 J (d) 1 J
4. In a thermodynamic process, fixed mass of a gas is changed 7. A mass of diatomic gas (g = 1.4) at a pressure of 2
in such a manner that the gas release 20 J of heat and 8 J of atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its
work was done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of temperature rises from 27°C to 927°C. The pressure of the
the gas was 30 J. Then the final internal energy will be gas in final state is
(a) 2 joule (b) 18 joule (c) 42 joule (d) 58 joule (a) 28 atm (b) 68.7 atm (c) 256 atm (d) 8 atm
RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6. 7.
EBD_7156
P-42 DPP/ CP11
8. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a Carnot engine as the working 9 3 15 9
substance. If during the adiabatic expansion part of the cycle (a) RT1 (b) RT1 (c) RT1 (d) RT
8 2 8 2 1
the volume of the gas increases from V to 32 V, the efficiency 15. Four curves A, B, C and D are drawn in the figure for a given
of the engine is amount of a gas. The curves which represent adiabatic and
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.99 (d) 0.25 isothermal changes are
9. The P-V diagram of a gas system undergoing cyclic process
(a) C and D respectively
is shown here. The work done during isobaric compression P B
C
is A D (b) D and C respectively A
D
2 × 102 (c) A and B respectively
(a) 100 J P(N m–2) (d) B and A respectively
B C V
102
2
(b) 200 J 16. In an adiabatic process, the pressure is increased by % .
3
(c) 600 J 3
If g = , then the volume decreases by nearly
0 1 2 3 2
–3
(d) 400 J V(m )
4 2 9
10. During an adiabatic process of an ideal gas, if P is (a) % (b) % (c) 1% (d) %
9 3 4
1
proportional to 1.5 , then the ratio of specific heat 17. A reversible engine converts one-sixth of the heat input
V into work. When the temperature of the sink is reduced by
capacities at constant pressure to that at constant volume 62ºC, the efficiency of the engine is doubled. The
for the gas is temperatures of the source and sink are
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.75 (d) 0.4 (a) 99ºC, 37ºC (b) 80ºC, 37ºC
11. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to compress one
kilo mole of gas adiabatically and in this process the (c) 95ºC, 37ºC (d) 90ºC, 37ºC
temperature of the gas increases by 7°C. The gas is 1
18. A diatomic ideal gas is compressed adiabatically to of
(R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1) 32
(a) diatomic its initial volume. If the initial temperature of the gas is Ti (in
(b) triatomic Kelvin) and the final temperature is aTi, the value of a is
(c) a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
(d) monoatomic
19. When the state of a gas adiabatically changed from an
12. Consider a spherical shell of radius R at temperature T. The
equilibrium state A to another equilibrium state B an amount
black body radiation inside it can be considered as an ideal of work done on the stystem is 35 J. If the gas is taken from
U
gas of photons with internal energy per unit volume u = state A to B via process in which the net heat absorbed by
V the system is 12 cal, then the net work done by the system
1æUö
µ T and pressure p = ç ÷ . If the shell now undergoes
4
is (1 cal = 4.19 J)
3è V ø
(a) 13.2 J (b) 15.4 J (c) 12.6 J (d) 16.8 J
an adiabatic expansion the relation between T and R is :
20. Calculate the work done when 1 mole of a perfect gas is
1 1 compressed adiabatically. The initial pressure and volume
(a) T µ (b) T µ 3 (c) T µ e–R (d) T µ e–3R
R R of the gas are 105 N/m2 and 6 litre respectively. The final
13. The specific heat capacity of a metal at low temperature (T) volume of the gas is 2 litres. Molar specific heat of the gas at
3 constant volume is 3R/2. [Given (3)5/3 = 6.19]
æ T ö
is given as C (kJK –1kg –1 ) = 32 ç ÷ . A 100 g vessel of (a) –957 J (b) +957 J (c) – 805 J (d) + 805 J
è 400 ø
this metal is to be cooled from 20 K to 4 K by a special 21. A Carnot engine whose efficiency is 40%, receives heat at
refrigerator operating at room temperature (27°C). The 500K. If the efficiency is to be 50%, the source temperature
amount of work required to cool in vessel is for the same exhaust temperature is
(a) equal to 0.002 kJ (a) 900 K (b) 600 K (c) 700 K (d) 800 K
(b) greater than 0.148 kJ 22. 1 gm of water at a pressure of 1.01 × 105 Pa is converted into
(c) between 0.148 kJ and 0.028 kJ steam without any change of temperature. The volume of 1
(d) less than 0.028 kJ g of steam is 1671 cc and the latent heat of evaporation is
14. 5.6 litre of helium gas at STP is adiabatically compressed to 540 cal. The change in internal energy due to evaporation of
0.7 litre. Taking the initial temperature to be T1, the work 1 gm of water is
done in the process is (a) » 167 cal (b) 500 cal (c) 540 cal (d) 581 cal
RESPONSE 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
GRID 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
DPP/ CP11 P-43

23. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T was cooled (d) the question is irrelevant, there is no meaning of slow
P adiabatic expansion
isochorically till the gas pressure fell from P to . Then, by 31. The given p-v diagram represents the thermodynamic cycle
n of an engine, operating with an ideal monatomic gas. The
an isobaric process, the gas was restored to the initial amount of heat, extracted from the source in a single cycle is
temperature. The net amount of heat absorbed by the gas in (a) p 0 v 0 p
the process is
RT æ 13 ö A B
(a) nRT (b) (b) ç ÷ p0 v0 2p0
n è2ø
(c) RT (1 – n–1) (d) RT (n – 1)
1 æ 11 ö p0 C
24. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of h = as heat
(c) ç ÷ p0 v0 D
10 è2ø
engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the (d) 4p0v0 v
v0 2v0
system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the
reservoir at lower temperature is 32. For an ideal gas graph is shown for three processes. Process
(a) 99 J (b) 90 J (c) 1 J (d) 100 J 1, 2 and 3 are respectively. Work done (magnitude)
25. The volume of an ideal gas is 1 litre and its pressure is equal (a) Isobaric, adiabatic, isochoric 3
to 72 cm of mercury column. The volume of gas is made
900 cm3 by compressing it isothermally. The stress of the (b) Adiabatic, isobaric, isochoric 2
gas will be (c) Isochoric, adiabatic, isobaric 1

DT
(a) 8 cm of Hg (b) 7 cm of Hg (d) Isochoric, isobaric, adiabatic Temperature change
(c) 6 cm of Hg (d) 4 cm of Hg 33. During an adiabatic process an object does 100J of work
26. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A ® B ® C ® A , as and its temperature decreases by 5K. During another
shown in figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas in the cycle process it does 25J of work and its temperature decreases
is 5 J, the work done by the gas in the process C ® A is by 5K. Its heat capacity for 2nd process is
(a) 20 J/K (b) 24 J/K (c) 15 J/K (d) 100 J/K
(a) – 5 J 34. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to
C remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep
2 B
(b) – 10 J V (in m3 ) the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The
1 A power required is: (Take 1 cal = 4.2 joule)
(c) – 15 J (a) 2.365 W (b) 23.65 W (c) 236.5 W (d) 2365 W
35. A perfect gas goes from a state A to another state B by
5 10 absorbing 8 × 105 J of heat and doing 6.5 × 105 J of external
(d) – 20 J P ( N / m2 )
work. It is now transferred between the same two states in
27. An ideal gas undergoing adiabatic change has the following
another process in which it absorbs 105 J of heat. In the
pressure-temperature relationship
second process
(a) P g -1T g = constant (b) P g T g -1 = constant (a) work done by gas is 105 J
g 1-g
(c) P T = constant (d) P1-g T g = constant (b) work done on gas is 105 J
28. In a thermodynamic process, fixed mass of a gas is changed (c) work done by gas is 0.5 × 105 J
in such a manner that the gas release 20 J of heat and 8 J of (d) work done on the gas is 0.5 × 105 J
work was done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of 36. One mole of a diatomic ideal gas
the gas was 30 J, the final internal energy will be undergoes a cyclic process ABC as
(a) 2 joule (b) 18 joule (c) 42 joule (d) 58 joule shown in figure. The process BC is B
800 K
29. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the adiabatic. The temperatures at A, B
inside temperature of freezer is –20°C, then the temperature and C are 400 K, 800 K and 600 K
of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is P
respectively. Choose the correct
(a) 41°C (b) 11°C (c) 21°C (d) 31°C statement: 600 k
30. Monatomic, diatomic and polyatomic ideal gases each (a) The change in internal energy C
A
undergo slow adiabatic expansions from the same initial in whole cyclic process is 250 400 K
volume and same initial pressure to the same final volume. R. V
The magnitude of the work done by the environment on the (b) The change in internal energy in the process CA is 700 R.
gas is (c) The change in internal energy in the process AB is -
(a) the greatest for the polyatomic gas 350 R.
(b) the greatest for the monatomic gas
(d) The change in internal energy in the process BC is –
(c) the greatest for the diatomic gas
500 R.
RESPONSE 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.
28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
GRID
33. 34. 35. 36.
EBD_7156
P-44 DPP/ CP11
37. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. The (b) Final pressure will be three times more than initial
engine A receives heat from the source at temperature T 1 pressure.
and rejects the heat to the sink at temperature T. The second (c) Change in pressure will be more than three times the
engine B receives the heat at temperature T and rejects to initial pressure.
its sink at temperature T2. For what value of T the efficiencies (d) Change in pressure will be less than three times the
of the two engines are equal? initial pressure.
T1 + T2 T -T 42. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume.
(a) (b) 1 2 (c) T 1T 2 (d) T1T2 The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic
2 2 process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then :
38. An ideal gas is initially at P1, V1 is expanded to P2, V2 and (a) Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work
then compressed adiabatically to the same volume V1 and to be done.
pressure P3. If W is the net work done by the gas in complete (b) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will
process which of the following is true ? require more work to be done.
(a) W > 0 ; P3 > P1 (b) W < 0 ; P3 > P1 (c) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will
(c) W > 0 ; P3 < P1 (d) W < 0 ; P3 < P1 require the same amount of work.
39. Which of the following statements is correct for any (d) Which of the case (whether compression through
thermodynamic system ? isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more
(a) The change in entropy can never be zero work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
(b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions 43. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different
(c) The internal energy changes in all processes processes as indicated in the P-V diagram :
(d) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero. If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat a absorbed A 1
40. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final by the gas along the three processes and P 2
state B via two processes : It first undergoes isothermal DU1, DU2, DU3 indicate the change in 3 B
expansion from volume V to 3V and then its volume is internal energy along the three processes
reduced from 3V to V at constant pressure. The correct P-V respectively, then V
diagram representing the two processes is : (a) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and DU1 = DU2 = DU3
(a) B (b) (b) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and DU1= DU2 = DU3
A
(c) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and DU1 > DU2 > DU3
P P
(d) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and DU1> DU2 > DU3
A 44. In P-V diagram shown in figure ABC is a semicircle. The
B work done in the process ABC is
2
V V P(N/m )
3V 3V (a) 4 J
V A
A A
3
-p
(b) J B
(c) P (d) P
2
B B p 1
(c) J C
2 3
0 V(m )
V
V
3V V
V
3V (d) zero 1 2
41. What will be the final pressure if an ideal gas in a cylinder 45. For an isothermal expansion of a perfect gas, the value of
1 DP
is compressed adiabatically to rd of its volume? is equal to
3 P
(a) Final pressure will be three times less than initial
1/ 2 D V DV DV DV
pressure. (a) – g (b) – (c) –g (d) – g2
V V V V
RESPONSE 37. 38. 39. 40. 41.

GRID 42. 43. 44. 45.

Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
Net Score = Space
(Correct × 4) Work
for Rough – (Incorrect × 1)

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP12
SYLLABUS : Kinetic Theory
1. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific heat 4. Air is pumped into an automobile tube upto a pressure of
capacity of the gas at constant volume is 5.0JK–1. If the 200 kPa in the morning when the air temperature is 22°C.
speed of any quantity x in this gas at NTP is 952 ms–1, then During the day, temperature rises to 42°C and the tube
the heat capacity at constant pressure is (Take gas constant expands by 2%. The pressure of the air in the tube at this
R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1)
temperature, will be approximately
(a) 7.5 JK–1 mol–1 (b) 7.0 JK–1 mol–1
(a) 212 kPa (b) 209 kPa (c) 206 kPa (d) 200 kPa
(c) 8.5 JK–1 mol–1 (d) 8.0 JK–1 mol–1
5. The rms speed of the particles of fume of mass 5 × 10–17 kg
2. A fixed mass of gas at constant pressure occupies a volume executing Brownian motion in air at N.T.P. is (k = 1.38 ×
V. The gas undergoes a rise in temperature so that the root 10–23 J/K)
mean square velocity of its molecules is doubled. The new
volume will be (a) 1.5 m/s (b) 3.0 m/s (c) 1.5 cm/s (d) 3 cm/s
6. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas requires 207 J heat to
(a) V/2 (b) V / 2 (c) 2 V (d) 4 V
raise the temperature by 10 K when heated at constant
3. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium and 16 g of pressure. If the same gas is heated at constant volume to
Cp raise the temperature by the same 10 K, the heat
oxygen. The ratio of the mixture is
Cv required is [Given the gas constant R = 8.3 J/ mol. K]
(a) 1.62 (b) 1.59 (c) 1.54 (d) 1.4 (a) 198.7 J (b) 29 J (c) 215.3 J (d) 124 J
RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6.

EBD_7156
P-46 DPP/ CP12
7. Figure shows the variation in temperature (DT) with the ( g – 1) (g –1)
amount of heat supplied (Q) in an isobaric process (c) Mv 2 K (d) Mv 2 K
2R 2( g + 1) R
corresponding to a monoatomic (M), diatomic (D) and a
14. Figure shows a parabolic graph between T and 1/V for a
polyatomic (P) gas. The initial state of all the gases are the
mixture of a gases undergoing an adiabatic process. What
same and the scales for the two axes coincide. Ignoring
is the ratio of Vrms of molecules and speed of sound in mixture?
vibrational degrees of freedom, the lines a, b and c
T
respectively correspond to (a) 3/ 2
a
(a) P, M and D (b)
b 2 2T 0
(b) M, D and P Q T0
c (c) 2/3 1/V

1/V0 4/V0
(c) P, D and M
(d) 3
(d) D, M and P DT 15. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to compress one
8. 1 mole of a monatomic and 2 mole of a diatomic gas are
kilomole of gas adiabatically and in this process the
mixed. The resulting gas is taken through a process in which temperature of the gas increases by 7°C. The gas is
molar heat capacity was found 3R. Polytropic constant in (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
the process is (a) diatomic
(a) –1/5 (b) 1/5 (c) 2/5 (d) –2/5 (b) triatomic
9. The density of a gas is 6 × 10–2 kg/m3 and the root mean (c) a mixture of monatomic and diatomic
square velocity of the gas molecules is 500 m/s. The pressure (d) monatomic
exerted by the gas on the walls of the vessel is 16. At what temperature is root mean square velocity of gaseous
(a) 5 × 103 N/m2 (b) 1.2 × 10–4 N/m2 hydrogen molecules equal to that of oxygen molecules at
–4
(c) 0.83 × 10 N/m 2 (d) 30 N/m2 47°C ?
10. The absolute temperature of a gas is increases 3 times. The (a) 40K (b) 80K (c) – 73K (d) 3K
root mean square velocity of the moelcules will be 17. The kinetic theory of gases states that the average squared
(a) 3 times (b) 9 times velocity of molecules varies linearly with the mean molecular
(c) 1/3 times (d) Ö3 times weight of the gas. If the root mean square (rms) velocity of
11 Consider an ideal gas confined in an isolated closed chamber. oxygen molecules at a certain temperature is 0.5 km/sec.
As the gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion, the average The rms velocity for hydrogen molecules at the same
time of collision between molecules increases as Vq, where temperature will be :
(a) 2 km/sec (b) 4 km/sec (c) 8 km/sec (d) 16 km/sec
æ Cp ö 18. If 2 moles of an ideal monatomic gas at temperature T0 is
V is the volume of the gas. The value of q is : ç g = ÷ mixed with 4 moles of another ideal monatomic gas at
è Cv ø
temperature 2T0, then the temperature of the mixture is
g +1 g -1 3g + 5 3g - 5
(a) (b) (c) (d) 5 3 4 5
2 2 6 6 (a) T0 (b) T0 (c) T0 (d) T0
3 2 3 4
12. One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of 8 × 104N/m2. The
19. From the following statements, concerning ideal gas at any
density of the gas is 4kg/m3. What is the energy of the gas given temperature T, select the incorrect one(s)
due to its thermal motion? (a) The coefficient of volume expansion at constant
(a) 5 × 104 J (b) 6 × 104 J pressure is same for all ideal gas
(c) 7 × 10 J 4 (d) 3 × 104 J (b) The average translational kinetic energy per molecule
13. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of molecular of oxygen gas is 3 KT (K being Boltzmann constant)
mass M and ratio of specific heats g. It is moving with speed v (c) In a gaseous mixture, the average translational kinetic
and it suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to energy of the molecules of each component is same
the surroundings, its temperature increases by (d) The mean free path of molecules increases with
( g –1) gMv 2 decrease in pressure
(a) Mv 2 K (b) K
2gR 2R
7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
RESPONSE
GRID 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
17. 18. 19.
DPP/ CP12 P-47
20. The adjoining figure shows graph of pressure and volume 3 1 2

of a gas at two tempertures T1 and T2. Which of the following (a) (b) 2 (c) (d)
4 2 3
inferences is correct? P 26. The temperature of the mixture of one mole of helium and
(a) T1 > T2 one mole of hydrogen is increased from 0°C to 100°C at
(b) T1 = T2 constant pressure. The amount of heat delivered will be
T2 (a) 600 cal (b) 1200 cal (c) 1800 cal (d) 3600 cal
(c) T1 < T2 27. If the intermolecular forces vanish away, the volume
T1
(d) None of these V occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 g water at
21. The molecules of a given mass of gas have a root mean standard temperature and pressure will be
square velocity of 200m s–1 at 27°C and 1.0 × 105 N m–2 (a) 5.6 litre (b) 4.5 litre (c) 11.2 litre (d) 6.5 litre
pressure. When the temperature is 127°C and the pressure 28. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of
0.5 × 105 Nm–2, the root mean square velocity in ms–1, is Argon at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational moles,
the total internal energy of the system is
400 100 2 100 (a) 4 RT (b) 15 RT (c) 9 RT (d) 11RT
(a) (b) 100 2 (c) (d)
3 3 3 29. A vessel has 6g of hydrogen at pressure P and temperature
22. A graph is plotted with PV/T on y-axis and mass of the gas 500K. A small hole is made in it so that hydrogen leaks out.
along x-axis for different gases. The graph is How much hydrogen leaks out if the final pressure is P/2
(a) a straight line parallel to x-axis for all the gases and temperature falls to 300 K ?
(b) a straight line passing through origin with a slope (a) 2g (b) 3g (c) 4g (d) 1g
having a constant value for all the gases 30. For a gas if ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and
volume is g then value of degrees of freedom is
(c) a straight line passing through origin with a slope
having different values for different gases 3g –1 2 9 25
(a) (b) (c) ( g –1) (d) (g –1)
(d) a straight line parallel to y-axis for all the gases 2g –1 g –1 2 2
23. At identical temperatures, the rms speed of hydrogen 31. The given P-V curve is predicted by
molecules is 4 times that for oxygen molecules. In a mixture 1.4
of these in mass ratio H2 : O2 = 1:8, the rms speed of all molecules (a) Boyle’s law 1.2
is n times the rms speed for O2 molecules, where n is 1.0 T1 > T2 > T3
(a) 3 (b) 4/3 (c) (8/3)1/2 (d) (11)1/2 (b) Charle’s law P 0.8
T1
24. Work done by a system under isothermal change from a 0.6
volume V1 to V2 for a gases which obeys Vander Waal's 0.4 T2
(c) Avogadro’s law T3
0.2
æ an 2 ö 0
equation (V - bn) ç P + ÷ = nRT is (d) Gaylussac’s law 20 60 100 140 160 200
ç V ÷ø
è V
æ V2 - nb ö 2 æ V1 - V2 ö 32. Three perfect gases at absolute temperatures T1, T2 and T3
(a) nRT log e ç V - nb ÷ + an ç V V ÷ are mixed. The masses of molecules are m1, m2 and m3 and
è 1 ø è 1 2 ø the number of molecules are n1, n2 and n3 respectively.
æ V - nb ö 2 æ V1 - V2 ö Assuming no loss of energy, the final temperature of the
(b) nRT log10 ç 2 ÷ + an ç ÷ mixture is :
è V1 - nb ø è V1V2 ø
n1T1 + n2T2 + n3T3 n1T12 + n2T22 + n3T32
æ V - nb ö 2 æ V1 - V2 ö
(a) n1 + n2 + n3 (b)
nRT loge ç 2 n1T1 + n2T2 + n3T3
(c) ÷ + bn ç ÷
è V1 - nb ø è V1V2 ø n12T12 + n22T22 + n32T32 (T1 + T2 + T3 )
(c) (d)
æ V1 - nb ö n1T1 + n2T2 + n3T3
2 æ V1V2 ö 3
(d) nRT log e ç V - nb ÷ + an ç V – V ÷ 33. A gas is enclosed in a cube of side l. What will be the
è 2 ø è 1 2ø
change in momentum of the molecule, if it suffers an
25. Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at
the same temperature. The pressure of A being twice that of elastic collision with the plane wall parallel to yz-plane and
B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be rebounds with the same velocity ?
1.5 times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of A [(Vx, Vy & Vz) initial velocities of the gas molecules]
and B is : (a) mvx (b) zero (c) – mvx (d) – 2mvx.
20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

RESPONSE
25. 26. 27. 28. 29.
GRID
30. 31. 32. 33.
EBD_7156
P-48 DPP/ CP12
34. What will be the ratio of number of molecules of a 40. Four molecules have speeds 2 km/sec, 3 km/sec, 4 km/sec
monoatomic and a diatomic gas in a vessel, if the ratio of and 5 km/sec. The root mean square speed of these
their partial pressures is 5 : 3 ? molecules (in km/sec) is
(a) 5 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 5 : 3 (d) 3 : 5 (a) 54 / 4 (b) 54 / 2 (c) 3.5 (d) 3 3
35. The average transitional energy and the rms speed of 41. If R is universal gas constant, the amount of heat needed to
molecules in a sample of oxygen gas at 300 K are 6.21 × 10–21 J raise the temperature of 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas
and 484 m/s respectively. The corresponding values at 600 from 273 K to 373 K, when no work is done, is
K are nearly (assuming ideal gas behaviour) (a) 100 R (b) 150 R (c) 300 R (d) 500 R
(a) 12.42 × 10–21 J, 968 m/s (b) 8.78 × 10–21 J, 684 m/s 42. N molecules, each of mass m, of gas A and 2 N molecules, each
(c) 6.21 × 10–21 J, 968 m/s (d) 12.42 × 10–21 J, 684 m/s of mass 2 m, of gas B are contained in the same vessel which
36. At 10° C the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal is maintained at a temperature T. The mean square velocity of
gas divided by its pressure is x. At 110°C this ratio is: molecules of B type is denoted by V2 and the mean square
V
383 10 283 velocity of A type is denoted by V1, then 1 is
(a) x (b) x (c) x (d) x V2
283 110 383
37. If the potential energy of a gas molecule is (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 1/3 (d) 2/3
U = M/r6 – N/r12, M and N being positive constants. Then 43. The root mean square value of the speed of the molecules in
the potential energy at equilibrium must be a fixed mass of an ideal gas is increased by increasing
(a) zero (b) M2/4N (c) N2/4M (d) MN2/4 (a) the volume while keeping the temperature constant
38. Consider a gas with density r and c as the root mean (b) the pressure while keeping the volume constant
square velocity of its molecules contained in a volume. If (c) the temperature while keeping the pressure constant
the system moves as whole with velocity v, then the pressure (d) the pressure while keeping the temperature constant
exerted by the gas is 44. The P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing
1 2 1 through origin. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the
(a) rc (b) r( c + v ) 2 process will be
3 3
1 1 4R
(c) r(c – v) 2 (d) r(c –2 – v ) 2 (a) 4 R (b) 2.5 R (c) 3 R (d)
3 3 3
39. How is the mean free path (l) in a gas related to the 45. For a gas, difference between two specific heats is 5000 J/
interatomic distance? mole°C. If the ratio of specific heats is 1.6, the two specific
(a) l is 10 times the interatomic distance heats in J/mole-°C are
(b) l is 100 times the interatomic distance (a) CP = 1.33 × 104, CV = 2.66 × 104
(c) l is 1000 times the interatomic distance (b) CP = 13.3 × 104, CV = 8.33 × 103
1 (c) CP = 1.33 × 104, CV = 8.33 × 103
(d) l is times of the interatomic distance (d) CP = 2.6 × 104, CV = 8.33 × 104
10
34. 35. 36. 37. 38.

RESPONSE
39. 40. 41. 42. 43.
GRID
44. 45.

Total Questions 45Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP13
SYLLABUS : Oscillations
1. If x, v and a denote the displacement, the velocity and the be the projection of P on x-axis. For the time interval in
acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion p
of time period T, then, which of the following does not change which q changes from 0 to , the correct statement is
2
with time? (a) The acceleration of M is always directed towards right
(a) aT/x (b) aT + 2pv (b) M executes SHM
(c) aT/v (d) a2T2 + 4p2v2 (c) M moves with constant speed
2. A mass is suspended separately by two different springs in (d) M moves with constant acceleration
successive order, then time periods is t1 and t2 respectively. 4. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic motion with
It is connected by both springs as shown in fig. then time amplitude a and frequency n. The average kinetic energy
period is t0. The correct relation is during its motion from the position of equilibrium to the end
is
(a) t 02 = t12 + t 22 (a) 2p2ma2n2 (b) p2ma2n2
k1 k2
(b) t 0-2 = t 1-2 + t 2-2 1 2 2
ma n
(c) (d) 4p2ma2n2
4
(c) t 0-1 = t1-1 + t -2 1 m 5. A mass M attached to a spring oscillates with a period of 2s.
(d) t 0 = t1 + t 2 If the mass is increased by 2 kg, then the period increases
by 2s. Find the initial mass M assuming that Hooke's law is
3. A rod of length l is in motion such that its ends A and B are obeyed.
moving along x-axis and y-axis respectively. It is given that
dq 2 1 1
= 2 rad/sec always. P is a fixed point on the rod. Let M (a) kg (b) kg (c) kg (d) 1 kg
dt 3 3 2
EBD_7156
P-50 DPP/ CP13
æ 1ö
rd 14. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass.
6. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes ç ÷ in 2 The spring is pulled a little and then released so that the
è 3ø mass executes SHM of time period T. If the mass is increased
1
seconds. If its amplitude after 6 seconds is times the 5T m
n by m, the time period becomes . Then the ratio of
original amplitude, the value of n is 3 M
is
(a) 32 (b) 33 (c) 3 3 (d) 23
7. Assume the earth to be perfect sphere of uniform density. If 3 25 16 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a body is dropped at one end of a tunnel dug along a diameter 5 9 9 3
of the earth (remember that inside the tunnel the force on 15. A body oscillates with a simple harmonic motion having
the body is – k times the displacement from the centre, k amplitude 0.05 m. At a certain instant of time, its displacement
being a constant), it (body) will is 0.01 m and acceleration is 1.0 m/s2. The period of
(a) reach the earth’s centre and stay there oscillation is
(b) go through the tunnel and comes out at the other end
p p
(c) oscillate simple harmonically in the tunnel (a) 0.1 s (b) 0.2 s (c) s (d) s
(d) stay somewhere between the earth’s centre and one of 10 5
the ends of tunnel. 16. The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic
8. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion having time energy K0 cos2 wt. The maximum values of the potential
period T. The time taken in 3/8th oscillation is energy and the total energy are respectively
3 5 5 7 (a) K0/2 and K0 (b) K0 and 2K0
(a) T (b) T (c) T (d) T (c) K0 and K0 (d) 0 and 2K0
8 8 12 12
9. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with amplitude 17. A simple pendulum attached to the ceiling of a stationary
A. When the ratio of its kinetic energy to the potential energy lift has a time period T. The distance y covered by the lift
1 moving upwards varies with time t as y = t2 where y is in
is , its displacement from its mean position is metres and t in seconds. If g = 10 m/s2, the time period of
4
pendulum will be
2 3 3 1
(a) A (b) A (c) A (d) A
5 2 4 4 4 5 5 6
(a) T (b) T (c) T (d) T
10. The length of a simple pendulum executing simple harmonic 5 6 4 5
motion is increased by 21%. The percentage increase in the 18. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a straight
time period of the pendulum of increased length is line. In first ts, after starting from rest it travels a distance a,
(a) 11% (b) 21% (c) 42% (d) 10% and in next t s it travels 2a, in same direction, then:
11. The time period of a mass suspended from a spring is T. If (a) amplitude of motion is 3a
the spring is cut into four equal parts and the same mass is (b) time period of oscillations is 8t
suspended from one of the parts, then the new time period (c) amplitude of motion is 4a
will be (d) time period of oscillations is 6t
T T 19. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the
(a) 2T (b) (c) 2 (d)
p
4 2 equations y1 = 0.1 sin æç100pt + ö÷ and y 2 = 0.1 cos pt .
12. Two simple harmonic motions act on a particle. These è 3ø
harmonic motions are x = A cos (wt + d ), y = A cos (wt + a) The phase difference of the velocity of particle 1 with respect
p to the velocity of particle 2 is
when d = a + , the resulting motion is
2 p -p p -p
(a) a circle and the actual motion is clockwise (a) (b) (c) (d)
3 6 6 3
(b) an ellipse and the actual motion is counterclockwise
20. Masses MA and MB hanging from the ends of strings of
(c) an elllipse and the actual motion is clockwise
lengths LA and LB are executing simple harmonic motions. If
(d) a circle and the actual motion is counter clockwise
their frequencies are fA = 2fB, then
13. A point mass oscillates along the x-axis according to the law
x = x0 cos(wt – p/4). If the acceleration of the particle is (a) LA = 2LB and MA = MB/2
written as a = A cos(wt – d), then (b) LA = 4LB regardless of masses
(a) A = x0w2, d = 3p/4 (b) A = x0, d = –p/4 (c) LA = LB/4 regardless of masses
(c) A = x0w2, d = p/4 (d) A = x0w2, d = –p/4 (d) LA = 2LB and MA = 2MB
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
DPP/ CP13 P-51

21. In damped oscillations, the amplitude of oscillations is 30. Two oscillators are started simultaneously in same phase.
reduced to one-third of its inital value a0 at the end of 100 After 50 oscillations of one, they get out of phase by p, that
oscillations. When the oscillator completes 200 oscillations, is half oscillation. The percentage difference of frequencies
its amplitude must be of the two oscillators is nearest to
(a) a0/2 (b) a0/4 (c) a0/6 (d) a0/9
22. The spring constant from the adjoining combination of (a) 2% (b) 1% (c) 0.5% (d) 0.25%
springs is 31. The length of a second’s pendulum at the surface of earth is
(a) K 2K 1 m. The length of second’s pendulum at the surface of
(b) 2 K m moon where g is 1/6th that at earth’s surface is
(c) 4 K K K (a) 1/6 m (b) 6 m (c) 1/36 m (d) 36 m
(d) 5 K/2
23. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The potential 32. A simple spring has length l and force constant K. It is cut
energy (P.E), the kinetic energy (K.E) and total energy (T.E) into two springs of lengths l1 and l2 such that l1 = n l2
are measured as a function of displacement x. Which of the (n = an integer). The force constant of spring of length l1 is
following statements is true ? (a) K (1 + n) (b) (K/n) (1 + n)
(a) K.E. is maximum when x = 0 (c) K (d) K/(n + 1)
(b) T.E is zero when x = 0
33. The displacement of a particle from its mean position (in
(c) K.E is maximum when x is maximum
(d) P.E is maximum when x = 0 metre) is given by y = 0.2 sin (10p t + 1.5p) cos (10pt + 1.5 p)
24. A simple harmonic wave having an amplitude a and time The motion of particle is
period T is represented by the equation y = 5sin p (t + 4)m . (a) periodic but not SHM
Then the value of amplitude (a) in (m) and time period (T) in (b) non-periodic
second are (c) simple harmonic motion with period 0.1s
(a) a = 10, T = 2 (b) a = 5, T = 1 (d) simple harmonic motion with period 0.2s.
(c) a = 10, T = 1 (d) a = 5, T = 2
25. A particle moves such that its acceleration ‘a’ is given by a 34. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing S.H.M. of
= – zx where x is the displacement from equilibrium position amplitude 0.1 m. When the particle passes through the mean
and z is constant. The period of oscillation is position, its kinetic energy is 8 × 10–3 joule. Obtain the
equation of motion of this particle, if the initial phase of
(a) 2 p/z (b) 2 π / z (c) 2 p / z (d) 2 p / z
oscillation is 45º.
26. The displacement of an object attached to a spring and
executing simple harmonic motion is given by x = 2 × 10–2 æ pö æ pö
cos pt metre.The time at which the maximum speed first (a) y = 0.1sin ç ±4t + ÷ (b) y = 0.2sin ç ±4t + ÷
è 4ø è 4ø
occurs is
æ pö p
y = 0.1sin ç ±2t + ÷ (d) y = 0.2sin æç ±2t + ö÷
(a) 0.25 s (b) 0.5 s (c) 0.75 s (d) 0.125 s
27. A tunnel has been dug through the centre of the earth and (c) è 4ø è 4ø
a ball is released in it. It executes S.H.M. with time period
(a) 42 minutes (b) 1 day 35. For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted between its kinetic
(c) 1 hour (d) 84.6 minutes energy (KE) and potential energy (PE) against its
28. The displacement equation of a particle is displacement d. Which one of the following represents these
correctly? (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)
x = 3sin2t + 4cos2t . The amplitude and maximum
velocity will be respectively E KE E
(a) 5, 10 (b) 3, 2 (c) 4, 2 (d) 3, 4 PE
29. A body of mass 0.01 kg executes simple harmonic motion (a) d (b) KE
about x = 0 under the influence of a force as shown in figure. d
The time period of SHM is F(N)
PE
(a) 1.05 s
80 E E
KE PE
(b) 0.52 s 0.2 x(m)
–0.2
(c) 0.25 s (c) PE
(d) KE
–80 d d
(d) 0.03 s
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
RESPONSE 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
GRID 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
EBD_7156
P-52 DPP/ CP13
36. The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by leave contact with the platform for the first time
p (a) at the mean position of the platform
y = 3sin (50t - x) g
2 (b) for an amplitude of 2
Where x and y are in meters and t is in seconds. The ratio of w
maximum particle velocity to the wave velocity is g2
3 2 (c) for an amplitude of 2
(a) 2p (b) p (c) 3p (d) p w
2 3 (d) at the highest position of the platform
37. If the mass shown in figure is slightly displaced and then let 41. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic
go, then the system shall oscillate with a time period of motion in water with a period t, while the period of oscillation
of the bob is t0 in air. Neglecting frictional force of water and
m
(a) 2p given that the density of the bob is (4/3) × 1000 kg/m3. The
3k k relationship between t and t0 is
(a) t = 2t0 (b) t = t0/2 (c) t = t0 (d) t = 4t0
3m 42. Starting from the origin a body oscillates simple harmonically
(b) 2p
2k with a period of 2 s. After what time will its kinetic energy be
75% of the total energy?
2m k k
(c) 2p 1 1 1 1
3k (a) s (b) s (c) s (d) s
6 4 3 12
3k 43. A body executes simple harmonic motion under the action
(d) 2p m
m 4
of a force F1 with a time period s. If the force is changed
38. A hollow sphere is filled with water. It is hung by a long 5
thread. As the water flows out of a hole at the bottom, the 3
period of oscillation will to F2, it executes S.H.M. with time period s. If both the
5
(a) first increase and then decrease forces F1 and F2 act simultaneously in the same direction
(b) first decrease and then increase on the body, its time period in second is
(c) go on increasing
12 7 24 5
(d) go on decreasing (a) (b) (c) (d)
39. The figure shows a position time graph of a particle 25 5 25 7
executing SHM. If the time period of SHM is 2 sec, then the 44. A block connected to a spring oscillates vertically. A damping
equation of SHM is force Fd, acts on the block by the surrounding medium. Given
(a) x = 10 cos pt x as Fd = –bV, b is a positive constant which depends on :
10 (a) viscosity of the medium
æ pö (b) size of the block
(b) x = 5sin ç pt + ÷ 5
è 3ø t (c) shape of the block
æ pö (d) All of these
(c) x = 10sin ç pt + ÷
è 3 ø –10 45. If a simple pendulum of length l has maximum angular
æ pö displacement q, then the maximum K.E. of bob of mass m is
(d) x = 10sin ç pt + ÷
è 6ø 1
ml / g
40. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes (a) (b) mg / 2l
2
vertical simple harmonic motion of angular frequency w. The (c) mgl (1 – cos q) (d) mgl sin q/2
amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The coin will
RESPONSE 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
GRID 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
Net Score = Space
(Correct × 4) Work
for Rough – (Incorrect × 1)
DPP/ CP14 P-53

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP14
SYLLABUS : Waves
1. Where should the two bridges be set in a 110cm long wire 4. The equation of a plane progressive wave is y = 0.9 sin
so that it is divided into three parts and the ratio of the
frequencies are 3 : 2 : 1 ? é xù
4p êt - ú . When it is reflected at a rigid support, its
(a) 20cm from one end and 60cm from other end ë 2û
(b) 30cm from one end and 70cm from other end 2
(c) 10cm from one end and 50cm from other end amplitude becomes of its previous value. The equation
3
(d) 50cm from one end and 40cm from other end of the reflected wave is
2. When a wave travel in a medium, the particle displacement
é xù
is given by the equation y = a sin 2p (bt– cx) where a, b and (a) y = 0 .6 sin 4 p ê t + ú
c are constants. The maximum particle velocity will be twice ë 2û
the wave velocity if é xù
(b) y = - 0.6 sin 4 p ê t + ú
1 1 ë 2û
(a) c= (b) c = pa (c) b = ac (d) b =
pa ac é xù
3. The wave described by y = 0.25 sin (10px – 2pt), (c) y = - 0.9 sin 8p ê t - ú
where x and y are in meters and t in seconds, is a wave ë 2û
travelling along the: é xù
(a) –ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz. (d) y = - 0.6 sin 4 p ê t + ú
ë 2û
(b) +ve x direction with frequency p Hz and wavelength l
= 0. 2 m. 5. A person carrying a whistle emitting continuously a note of
(c) +ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and wavelength l 272 Hz is running towards a reflecting surface with a speed
= 0.2 m of 18 km h–1. The speed of sound in air is 345 m s–1. The
(d) –ve x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and wavelength l number of beats heard by him is
= 0.2 m (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) zero
EBD_7156
P-54 DPP/ CP14
6. A closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is excited to support 15. What will be the frequency of beats formed from the
the third overtone. It is found that air in the pipe has superposition of two harmonic waves shown below?
(a) three nodes and three antinodes y
(b) three nodes and four antinodes
1.0
(c) four nodes and three antinodes
0
(d) four nodes and four antinodes
t(s)
7. A wave disturbance in a medium is described by –1.0 (a)
æ pö y
y( x , t ) = 0.02 cos ç 50pt + ÷ cos(10px ) where x and y are
è 2ø 1.0
in metre and t is in second. Which of the following is correct?
(a) A node occurs at x = 0.15 m 0
t(s)
(b) An antinode occurs at x = 0.3 m
–1.0
(c) The speed wave is 5 ms–1 (b)
(d) The wavelength is 0.3 m (a) 20 Hz (b) 11 Hz (c) 9 Hz (d) 2 Hz
8. In a resonance column, first and second resonance are 16. What is the effect of increase in temperature on the frequency
obtained at depths 22.7 cm and 70.2 cm. The third resonance of sound produced by an organ pipe?
will be obtained at a depth (a) increases (b) decreases
(a) 117.7 cm (b) 92.9 cm (c) no effect (d) erratic change
(c) 115.5 cm (d) 113.5 cm 17. A cylinderical tube open at both ends, has a fundamental
9. An engine approaches a hill with a constant speed. When it frequency f in air. The tube is dipped vertically in water so
is at a distance of 0.9 km, it blows a whistle whose echo is that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of air
heard by the driver after 5 seconds. If the speed of sound in column is now
air is 330 m/s, then the speed of the engine is : (a) f / 2 (b) f (c) 3f / 4 (d) 2 f
(a) 32 m/s (b) 27.5 m/s (c) 60 m/s (d) 30 m/s 18. The transverse displacement y (x, t) of a wave on a string is
10. Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T given by y( x, t ) = e
(
- ax2 + bt 2 + 2 abxt ).
have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional
increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to This represents a:
occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate b
together would be (a) wave moving in –x direction with speed
a
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.03 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.01 (b) standing wave of frequency
11. Two sound sources emitting sound each of wavelength l b
are fixed at a given distance apart. A listener moves with a 1
(c) standing wave of frequency
velocity u along the line joining the two sources. The number b
of beats heard by him per second is a
u 2u u u (d) wave moving in + x direction with speed
b
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2l l l 3l 19. A longitudinal wave is represented by
12. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, æ xö
with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound. What is x = x 0 sin 2 pç nt - ÷
the percentage increase in the apparent frequency ? è l ø
(a) 0.5% (b) zero (c) 20 % (d) 5 % The maximum particle velocity will be four times the wave
13. Velocity of sound in air is 320 m s–1. A pipe closed at one velocity if
end has a length of 1 m. Neglecting end correction, the air px 0
column in the pipe cannot resonate with sound of frequency (a) l = (b) l = 2px 0
4
(a) 80 Hz (b) 240 Hz (c) 320 Hz (d) 400 Hz
px
14. The driver of a car travelling with speed 30 m/sec towards (c) l = 0 (d) l = 4px 0
a hill sounds a horn of frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of 2
sound in air is 330 m/s, the frequency of reflected sound as 20. Two tones of frequencies n 1 and n2 are sounded together.
heard by driver is The beats can be heard distinctly when
(a) 555.5 Hz (b) 720 Hz (c) 500 Hz (d) 550 Hz (a) 10 < (n1 – n 2) < 20 (b) 5 < (n1 – n 2) > 20
(c) 5 < (n1 – n 2) < 20 (d) 0 < (n1 – n 2) < 10
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
GRID 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
DPP/ CP14 P-55

21. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the 29. The equation Y = 0.02 sin (500pt) cos (4.5 x) represents
number of possible natural oscillations of air column in the (a) progressive wave of frequency 250 Hz along x-axis
pipe whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. The velocity of (b) a stationary wave of wavelength 1.4 m
sound in air is 340 m/s. (c) a transverse progressive wave of amplitude 0.02 m
(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4 (d) progressive wave of speed of about 350 m s–1
22. A vehicle, with a horn of frequency n is moving with a velocity
30. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about
of 30 m/s in a direction perpendicular to the straight line
joining the observer and the vehicle. The observer perceives waves ?
the sound to have a frequency n + n1. Then (if the sound (a) Waves are patterns of disturbance which move without
velocity in air is 300 m/s) the actual physical transfer of flow of matter as a whole.
(a) n1 = 10n (b) n1 = 0 (b) Waves cannot transport energy.
(c) n1 = 0.1n (d) n1 = – 0.1n (c) The pattern of disturbance in the form of waves carry
23. A source of sound gives 5 beats per second, when sounded information that propagate from one point to another.
with another source of frequency 100/sec. The second (d) All our communications essentially depend on
harmonic of the source, together with a source of frequency transmission of signals through waves.
205/sec gives 5 beats per second. What is the frequency of 31. An organ pipe P1, closed at one end vibrating in its first
the source? harmonic and another pipe P2, open at both ends vibrating
(a) 95 sec–1 (b) 100 sec–1
in its third harmonic, are in resonance with a given tuning
(c) 105 sec–1 (d) 205 sec–1
24. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then fork. The ratio of the lengths of P1 and P2 is :
which of the following statements is not true ? 8 1 1 1
(a) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be (a) (b) (c) (d)
3 6 2 3
generated 32. Two vibrating tuning forks producing waves given by
(b) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be y1 = 27 sin 600pt and y2 = 27 sin 604 pt are held near the ear
generated
of a person, how many beats will be heard in three seconds
(c) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends
(d) Antinode will be at open end by him ?
25. 41 forks are so arranged that each produces 5 beats per sec (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 12
when sounded with its near fork. If the frequency of last 33. A source of sound A emitting waves of frequency 1800 Hz
fork is double the frequency of first fork, then the frequencies is falling towards ground with a terminal speed v. The
(in Hz) of the first and the last fork are respectively. observer B on the ground directly beneath the source
(a) 200, 400 (b) 205, 410
receives waves of frequency 2150 Hz. The source A receives
(c) 195, 390 (d) 100, 200
26. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and 15 m from waves, reflected from ground of frequency nearly: (Speed
the source of oscillation. The period of oscillation is 0.05 of sound = 343 m/s)
sec and the velocity of the wave is 300 m/sec. What is the (a) 2150 Hz (b) 2500 Hz (c) 1800 Hz (d) 2400 Hz
phase difference between the oscillations of two points? 34. Consider the three waves z 1, z2 and z3 as
p 2p p z1 = A sin (kx – wt)
(a) (b) (c) p (d)
3 3 6 z2 = A sin (kx + wt)
27. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The z3 = A sin (ky – wt)
intensity decreases by a factor of
(a) 100 (b) 1000 (c) 10000 (d) 10 Which of the following represents a standing wave?
28. A wave travelling along the x-axis is described by the (a) z1 + z2 (b) z2 + z3
equation y(x, t) = 0.005 cos (a x – bt). If the wavelength and (c) z3 + z1 (d) z1 + z2 + z3
the time period of the wave are 0.08 m and 2.0s, respectively, 35. A sonometer wire supports a 4 kg load and vibrates in
then a and b in appropriate units are fundamental mode with a tuning fork of frequency 416 Hz.
0.08 2.0 The length of the wire between the bridges is now doubled.
(a) a = 25.00 p , b = p (b) a = ,b =
In order to maintain fundamental mode, the load should be
p p
0.04 1.0 p changed to
(c) a = ,b = (d) a = 12.50p, b = (a) 1 kg (b) 2 kg (c) 4 kg (d) 16 kg
p p 2.0
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

RESPONSE
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
GRID
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
EBD_7156
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36. The vibrations of a string of length 60 cm fixed at both the 41. A whistle of frequency 1000 Hz is sounded on a car travelling
æ 4p x ö towardsacliff with velocity of 18 m s–1 normal to the cliff. If
ends are represented by the equation y = 2 sin ç cos velocity of sound (v) = 330 m s–1 , then the apparent
è 15 ÷ø
(96pt) where x and y are in cm. The maximum number of frequency of the echo as heard by the car driver is nearly
loops that can be formed in it is (a) 1115 Hz (b) 115 Hz (c) 67 Hz (d) 47.2 Hz
(a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 5 (d) 15 42. The transverse wave represented by the equation
37. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of three æ pö
segments into which a string is divided, then the original y = 4 sin ç ÷ sin (3x - 15t ) has
è6ø
fundamental frequency n of the string is given by (a) amplitude = 4
(a) n = n1 + n2 + n3
p
1 1 1 1 (b) wavelength = 4
(b) n = n + n + n 3
1 2 3 (c) speed of propagation = 5
1 1 1 1
(c) = + + (d) period = p
n n1 n2 n3 15
43. If the intensities of two interfering waves be I1 and I2, the
(d) n = n1 + n2 + n3 contrast between maximum and minimum intensity is
38. An echo repeats two syllables. If the velocity of sound is maximum, when
330 m/s, then the distance of the reflecting surface is (a) I1 > > I2 (b) I1 << I2
(a) 66.0 m (b) 33.0 m (c) 99.0 m (d) 16.5 m (c) I1 = I2 (d) either I1 or I2 is zero
39. What is the effect of humidity on sound waves when 44. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length
humidity increases? 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe open
(a) Speed of sound waves is more at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at both the
(b) Speed of sound waves is less ends is
(c) Speed of sound waves remains same (a) 100 cm (b) 120 cm (c) 140 cm (d) 80 cm
(d) Speed of sound waves becomes zero 45. The equation of a travelling wave is y = 60 cos (180 t – 6x)
40. If the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity in beats is 49, where y is in mm, t in second and x in metres. The ratio of
then the ratio of amplitudes of two progressive wave trains maximum particle velocity to velocity of wave propagation is
is (a) 3.6 × 10–2 (b) 3.6 × 10–4
(a) 7 : 1 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 49 : 1 (d) 16 : 9 (c) 3.6 × 10 –6 (d) 3.6 × 10–11
RESPONSE 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

GRID 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.

Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score


Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP15
SYLLABUS : Electric Charges and Fields
1. The surface charge density of a thin charged disc of radius

3F F F
R is s. The value of the electric field at the centre of the disc (a) F (b) (c) (d)
s 4 2 4
is . With respect to the field at the centre, the electric 4. In the figure, the net electric flux through the area A is
2 Î0 r r
field along the axis at a distance R from the centre of the disc f = E × A when the system is in air. On immersing the system
reduces by in water the net electric flux through the area
(a) 70.7% (b) 29.3% (c) 9.7% (d) 14.6%
2. A solid conducting sphere of radius a has (a) becomes zero
a net positive charge 2Q. A conducting Q
(b) remains same
spherical shell of inner radius b and outer a
radius c is concentric with the solid sphere b (c) increases A
and has a net charge – Q. The surface c

charge density on the inner and outer (d) decreases
surfaces of the spherical shell will be 5. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at
respectively each corner as shown in fig. The electric intensity at centre
2Q Q Q Q O will be +q A
(a) - , (b) - , 1 q
4 pb 2 4 pc 2 4 pb 2 4 pc 2 (a) r
4 p Îo r
Q Q O
(c) 0, (d) ,0 r r
4pc 2 1 q
4pc 2 (b) +q +q
3. Two equally charged, identical metal spheres A and B repel 4 p Îo r 2 B C
each other with a force ‘F’. The spheres are kept fixed with
a distance ‘r’ between them. A third identical, but uncharged 1 3q
(c)
sphere C is brought in contact with A and then placed at the 4 p Îo r 2
mid point of the line joining A and B. The magnitude of the (d) zero
net electric force on C is
EBD_7156
P-58 DPP/ CP15
6. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field. The (a) Q1 = 4(Q 3 ) (b) Q = 2(Q 3 )
dipole will experience
(a) a force that will displace it in the direction of the field (c) Q1 = 2 (Q 3 ) (d) Q1 =| Q 3 |
(b) a force that will displace it in a direction opposite to the 13. Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long straight
field. wire of radius 1 mm. The charge per cm length of the wire is
(c) a torque which will rotate it without displacement Q coulomb. Another cylindrical surface of radius 50 cm and
(d) a torque which will rotate it and a force that will displace length 1 m symmetrically encloses the wire. The total electric
it flux passing through the cylindrical surface is
7. An uniform electric field E exists along positive x-axis. The
work done in moving a charge 0.5 C through a distance 2 m Q 100Q 10Q 100Q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
along a direction making an angle 60° with x-axis is 10 J. e0 e0 pe 0 pe 0
Then the magnitude of electric field is 14. A small sphere carrying a charge ‘q’ is hanging in between
(a) 5 Vm–1 (b) 2 Vm–1 (c) 5 Vm –1 (d) 20 Vm–1 two parallel plates by a string of length L. Time period of
pendulum is T0. When parallel
8. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation
plates are charged, the time L
of electric field with distance r from the centre of a charged m
period changes to T. The ratio
spherical conductor of radius R?
T/T0 is equal to
E 1/ 2
E æ qE ö 3/ 2
çg+ m ÷ æ g ö
(a) (b) (a) ç ÷ (b) ç qE ÷
r r è g ø çg+ ÷
r=R r=R
1/ 2
è m ø
æ g ö 5/2
E E (c) ç ÷ (d) æ g ö
qE ç qE ÷
çg+ ÷ çg+ ÷
è m ø è m ø
(c) (d) 15. An electric dipole, consisting of two opposite charges of
r r
r=R r=R 2 ´ 10 -6 C each separated by a distance 3 cm is placed in
9. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If f is an electric field of 2 ´ 10 5 N/C. Torque acting on the dipole is
the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the (a) 12 ´ 10 -1 N - m (b) 12 ´ 10 - 2 N - m
curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in
units of voltmeter will be (c) 12 ´ 10 - 3 N - m (d) 12 ´ 10 - 4 N - m
B 16. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward
q f and is given by E = Ar. A charge contained in a sphere of
(a) (b) C A
2e 0 radius 'a' centred at the origin of the field, will be given by
3
(a) A e0 a2 (b) 4 pe0 Aa3 (c) e0 Aa3 (d) 4 pe0 Aa2
q 1æ q ö 17. The spatial distribution of electric field due to charges (A, B)
(c) - f (d) ç - f÷ is shown in figure. Which one of the following statements is
e0 2 è e0 ø
correct?
10. If Ea be the electric field strength of a short dipole at a (a) A is +ve and B –ve, |A| > |B|A B
point on its axial line and Ee that on the equatorial line at (b) A is –ve and B +ve, |A| = |B|
the same distance, then (c) Both are +ve but A > B
(a) Ee= 2Ea (b) Ea = 2Ee (d) Both are –ve but A > B
(c) Ea = Ee (d) None of the above 18. Point charges + 4q, –q and +4q are kept on the X-axis at
11. Three positive charges of equal value q are placed at vertices points x = 0, x =a and x = 2a respectively.
of an equilateral triangle. The resulting lines of force should (a) only – q is in stable equilibrium
be sketched as in (b) none of the charges is in equilibrium
(c) all the charges are in unstable equilibrium
(a) (b) (c) (d) (d) all the charges are in stable equilibrium.
19. Figure shows some of the electric field
12. Three point charges Q1, Q2, Q3 in the order are placed equally lines corresponding to an electric field. A B C
spaced along a straight line. Q2 and Q3 are equal in magnitude The figure suggests that
but opposite in sign. If the net force on Q3 is zero. The value (a) EA > EB > EC (b) EA = EB = EC
of Q1 is (c) EA = EC > EB (d) EA = EC < EB
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID 16. 17. 18. 19.
DPP/ CP15 P-59

20. For distance far away from centre of dipole the change in
magnitude of electric field with change in distance from the between P and E is
centre of dipole is p 3p
(a) zero. (a) zero (b) (c) p (d)
(b) same in equatorial plane as well as axis of dipole. 2 2
(c) more in case of equatorial plane of dipole as compared 27. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
to axis of dipole. (a) The charge q on a body is always given by q = ne,
(d) more in case of axis of dipole as compared to equatorial where n is any integer, positive or negative.
plane of dipole. (b) By convention, the charge on an electron is taken to
21. Two charge q and –3q are placed fixed on x–axis be negative.
separated by distance d. Where should a third charge 2q (c) The fact that electric charge is always an integral
be placed such that it will not experience any force ? multiple of e is termed as quantisation of charge.
q –3q (d) The quatisation of charge was experimentally
demonstrated by Newton in 1912.
A d B 28. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated
d + 3d d - 3d by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between the
d - 3d d + 3d
(a) (b) (c) (d) ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be
2 2 2 2 (e being the charge of an electron)
22. A charge Q is placed at each of the opposite corners of a
square. A charge q is placed at each of the other two corners. 4pe0 Fd 2 4pe0 Fe 2
If the net electrical force on Q is zero, then Q/q equals: (a) (b)
1 e2 d2
(a) –1 (b) 1 (c) - (d) -2 2
2 4pe0 Fd 2 4 pe0 Fd 2
23. Identify the wrong statement in the following. Coulomb's (c) (d)
law correctly describes the electric force that e2 q2
(a) binds the electrons of an atom to its nucleus 29. Two small similar metal spheres A and B having charges 4q
(b) binds the protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an and – 4q, when placed at a certain distance apart, exert an
atom electric force F on each other. When another identical
(c) binds atoms together to form molecules uncharged sphere C, first touched with A then with B and
(d) binds atoms and molecules together to form solids then removed to infinity, the force of interaction between A
24. An oil drop of radius r and density r is held stationary in a and B for the same separation will be
uniform vertically upwards electric field 'E'. If r0 (< r) is the (a) F/2 (b) F/8 (c) F/16 (d) F/32
density of air and e is quanta of charge, then the drop has– 30. The electric field intensity just sufficient to balance the
4pr3 (r - r0 ) g earth’s gravitational attraction on an electron will be: (given
(a) excess electrons mass and charge of an electron respectively are
3eE
(b)
4 p r 2 (r - r0 ) g
excess electrons 9.1 ´10-31 kg and 1.6 ´10 -19 C .)
eE
4pr3 (r - r0 ) g
(a) - 5.6 ´10 -11 N / C (b) - 4.8 ´10 -15 N / C
(c) deficiency of electrons
3eE (c) - 1.6 ´10 -19 N / C (d) - 3.2 ´10 -19 N / C
4 pr 2 (r - r0 ) g 31. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric
(d) deficiency of electrons field of intensity 2 × 105 NC–1, It experiences a torque of 4
eE
25. A square surface of side L meter in the E
Nm. Calculate the charge on the dipole if the dipole length is
plane of the paper is placed in a uniform 2 cm.
electric field E (volt/m) acting along the (a) 8 mC (b) 4 mC (c) 8 mC (d) 2 mC
q
same plane at an angle q with the 32. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a
horizontal side of the square as shown uniform electric field E and then released. The kinetic energy
in Figure. The electric flux linked to the attained by the particle after moving a distance y is
surface, in units of volt. m, is (a) qEy2 (b) qE2 y (c) qEy (d) q2 Ey
(a) EL2 (b) EL2 cos q 33. There is an electric field E in x-direction. If the work done on
2
(c) EL sin q (d) zero moving a charge of 0.2 C through a distance of 2 m along a
ur line making an angle 60° with x-axis is 4 J, then what is the
26. An electric dipole of moment p placed in a uniform electric value of E?
field E has minimum potential energy when the angle (a) 3 N/C (b) 4 N/C (c) 5 N/C (d) 20 N/C
RESPONSE 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

25. 26. 27. 28. 29.
GRID
30. 31. 32. 33.
EBD_7156
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r
34. ( )
A surface has the area vector A = 2$i + 3 $j m 2 . The flux of an (a)
2e
e0
(b)
e
e0
(c) ee0 (d)
e0 e
4
r V
electric field through it if the field is E = 4$i : 39. Which of the following is a wrong statement?
m (a) The charge of an isolated system is conserved
(a) 8 V-m (b) 12 V-m (c) 20 V-m (d) zero (b) It is not possible to create or destroy charged
35. There exists a non!-uniform electric field along x-axis as particles
shown in the figure below. The field increases at a uniform (c) It is possible to create or destroy charged particles
rate along +ve x-axis. A dipole is placed inside the field as (d) It is not possible to create or destroy net charge
shown. Which one of the following is correct for the dipole? 40. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open end of a
cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric field through the
surface of the vessel is
–q q
a (a) zero (b) q/eo
+q x-axis
(c) q/2eo (d) 2q/eo
41. If the electric flux entering and leaving a closed surface are
(a) Dipole moves along positive x-axis and undergoes a 6 × 106 and 9 × 106 S.I. units respectively, then the charge
clockwise rotation inside the surface of permittivity of free space e0 is
(b) Dipole moves along negative x-axis and undergoes a (a) e0 × 106 (b) – e0 × 106
clockwise rotation (c) – 2e0 × 106 (d) 3e0 × 106
(c) Dipole moves along positive x-axis and undergoes a 42. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a
anticlockwise rotation distance of 16 cm. They do not experience any force. The
(d) Dipole moves along negative x-axis and undergoes a q
anticlockwise rotation value of is
36. A square surface of side L metres is in m
the plane of the paper. A uniform pe0 G
uur (a) l (b) (c) (d) 4pe0 G
electric field E (volt /m), also in the E G 4pe 0
plane of the paper, is limited only to 43. A rod of length 2.4 m and radius 4.6 mm carries a negative
the lower half of the square surface (see figure). The electric charge of 4.2 × 10–7 C spread uniformly over it surface.
flux in SI units associated with the surface is The electric field near the mid–point of the rod, at a point
(a) EL2/2 (b) zero (c) EL2 (d) EL2 / (2e0) on its surface is
37. Among two discs A and B, first have radius 10 cm and charge (a) –8.6 × 105 N C–1 (b) 8.6 × 104 N C–1
(c) –6.7 × 10 N C5 –1 (d) 6.7 × 104 N C–1
10 -6 µC and second have radius 30 cm and charge 10 -5 C.
44. A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given a positive
When they are touched, charge on both q A and q B charge of 10 mC. What will be the electric field at the centre
respectively will, be of the sphere if its radius is 2 m?
(a) q A =2.75μC, q B =3.15μC (a) Zero (b) 5 mCm–2
(c) 20 mCm –2 (d) 8 mCm–2
(b) q A =1.09 μC, q B =1.53μC 45. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of
(c) q A = q B =5.5μC (d) None of these radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric
flux will
38. The total electric flux emanating from a closed surface (a) increase four times (b) be reduced to half
enclosing an a-particle (e-electronic charge) is (c) remain the same (d) be doubled
34. 35. 36. 37. 38.
RESPONSE 39. 40. 41. 42. 43.
GRID 44. 45.
Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
DPP/ CP16 P-61

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP16
SYLLABUS : Electrostatic Potential & Capacitance
1. If n drops, each charged to a potential V, coalesce to form a 4. A parallel plate condenser is immersed in an oil of dielectric
single drop. The potential of the big drop will be constant 2. The field between the plates is
V V (a) increased, proportional to 2
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/ 3 (c) Vn1/3 (d) Vn2/3 1
n n (b) decreased, proportional to
2. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is Ca (Fig. a). A 2
dielectric of dielectric constant K is inserted as shown in (c) increased, proportional to – 2
fig. (b) and (c). If Cb and Cc denote the capacitances in fig.
1
(b) and (c), then (d) decreased, proportional to -
2
d/2
d 5. What is the effective capacitance between points X and Y?
K C1=6m F
Ca Cb
(a) (b)
C3 =6m F C5=20m F C2=6m F
X Y
A C B D
C4=6m F
d K (c)
(a) 24 mF (b) 18 mF (c) 12 mF (d) 6 mF
Cc 6. Two identical particles each of mass m and having charges
(a) both Cb, Cc > Ca (b) Cc > Ca while Cb > Ca – q and +q are revolving in a circle of radius r under the
(c) both Cb, Cc < Ca (d) Ca = Cb = Cc influence of electric attraction. Kinetic energy of each
3. The electric potential V(x) in a region around the origin is æ 1 ö
given by V(x) = 4x2 volts. The electric charge enclosed in a particle is ç k =
è 4pe 0 ÷ø
cube of 1 m side with its centre at the origin is (in coulomb)
(a) 8e0 (b) – 4e0 (c) 0 (d) – 8e0 (a) kq2/4r (b) kq2/2r (c) kq2/8r (d) kq2/r
RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6.
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7. Four metallic plates each with a surface area of one side A, (c) (d)
are placed at a distance d from each other. The two outer
plates are connected to one point A and the two other inner V V
plates to another point B as shown in the figure. Then the
capacitance of the system is
S S
13. The 1000 small droplets of water each of radius r and charge
A B Q, make a big drop of spherical shape. The potential of big
drop is how many times the potential of one small droplet ?
e0A 2e 0 A 3e 0 A 4e 0 A (a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 100 (d) 1000
(a) (b) (c) (d) 14. The work done in carrying a charge q once around a circle
d d d d
8. A parallel plate condenser with a dielectric of dielectric of radius r with a charge Q placed at the centre will be
constant K between the plates has a capacity C and is (a) Qq(4pe0r2) (b) Qq/(4pe0r)
charged to a potential V volt. The dielectric slab is slowly (c) zero (d) Qq2/(4pe0r)
removed from between the plates and then reinserted. The
15. A parallel plate condenser is filled with two
net work done by the system in this process is
dielectrics as shown. Area of each plate is
1
(a) zero (b) ( K - 1) CV 2 A m2 and the separation is t m. The k1 k2
2 dielectric constants are k 1 and k 2
(c) CV 2 ( K - 1) (d) ( K - 1) CV 2 respectively. Its capacitance in farad will be
K eo A eo A k1 + k 2
(a) (k1 + k2) (b) .
9. If a slab of insulating material 4 × 10–5 m thick is introduced t t 2
between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, the distance 2e o A eo A k1 - k2
between the plates has to be increased by 3.5 × 10–5 m to (c) (k1 + k2) (d) .
t t 2
restore the capacity to original value. Then the dielectric 16. Two metal pieces having a potential difference of 800 V are
constant of the material of slab is 0.02 m apart horizontally. A particle of mass 1.96 × 10–15 kg
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 10 is suspended in equilibrium between the plates. If e is the
10. A unit charge moves on an equipotential surface from a elementary charge, then charge on the particle is
point A to point B, then (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 0.1 (d) 3
(a) VA – VB = + ve (b) VA – VB = 0 17. A one microfarad capacitor of a TV is subjected to 4000 V
(c) VA – VB = – ve (d) it is stationary potential difference. The energy stored in capacitor is
11. Identify the false statement. (a) 8 J (b) 16 J
(a) Inside a charged or neutral conductor, electrostatic (c) 4 × 10–3 J (d) 2 × 10–3 J
field is zero 18. An unchanged parallel plate capacitor filled with a dielectric
(b) The electrostatic field at the surface of the charged constant K is connected to an air filled identical parallel
conductor must be tangential to the surface at any capacitor charged to potential V1. If the common potential
point is V2, the value of K is
(c) There is no net charge at any point inside the
V1 - V2 V1
conductor (a) (b)
(d) Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the V1 V1 - V2
volume of the conductor V2 V1 - V2
12. In a hollow spherical shell, potential (V) changes with respect (c) V1 - V2 (d)
V2
to distance (s) from centre as 19. In the circuit given below, the
3mF 2mF
charge in mC, on the capacitor
(a) (b) e d
having 5 mF is
5mF
V V (a) 4.5 f c
(b) 9 4mF
a + b
(c) 7 6V
S
S (d) 15
RESPONSE 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.

GRID 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
17. 18. 19.
DPP/ CP16 P-63

20. Two concentric, thin metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 27. Three capacitors are connected in the C
(R1 > R2) bear charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. Then the arms of a triangle ABC as shown in
potential at distance r between R 1 and R 2 will be figure 5 V is applied between A and B. 2µF 3µF
æ Q1 + Q2 ö æ Q1 Q 2 ö The voltage between B and C is
(a) k ç ÷ (b) k ç +
è r ø è r R 2 ÷ø (a) 2 V (b) 1 V A B
2µF
æ Q2 Q1 ö æ Q1 Q2 ö (c) 3 V (d) 1.5 V
(c) k ç r + R ÷ (d) k ç +
è 1ø è R1 R 2 ÷ø 28. Two parallel metal plates having charges + Q and –Q face
21. Charge Q on a capacitor varies y each other at a certain distance between them. If the plaves
with voltage V as shown in the A are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field between
figure, where Q is taken along the the plates will
X-axis and V along the Y-axis. The
V (a) remain same (b) become zero
area of triangle OAB represents
(a) capacitance (c) increases (d) decrease
(b) capacitive reactance 29. An air capacitor C connected to a battery of e.m.f. V acquires
x
(c) magnetic field between the plates O B a charge q and energy E. The capacitor is disconnected
Q
(d) energy stored in the capacitor from the battery and a dielectric slab is placed between the
22. An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference plates. Which of the following statements is correct ?
of 106 volt. Its kinetic energy will be
(a) 1 MeV (b) 2 MeV (c) 4 MeV (d) 8 MeV (a) V and q decrease but C and E increase
23. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at (b) V remains unchange, but q, E and C increase
each corner of the square. The relation between Q and q for (c) q remains unchanged, C increases, V and E decrease
which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is : (d) q and C increase but V and E decrease.
1 1 30. Choose the wrong statement about equipotential surfaces.
(a) Q = – q (b) Q = – (c) Q = q (d) Q =
q q (a) It is a surface over which the potential is constant
24. A parallel plate capacitor having a separation between the (b) The electric field is parallel to the equipotential surface
plates d, plate area A and material with dielectric constant K
has capacitance C0. Now one-third of the material is replaced (c) The electric field is perpendicular to the equipotential
by another material with dielectric constant 2K, so that surface
effectively there are two capacitors one with area 1/3A, (d) The electric field is in the direction of steepest decrease
dielectric constant 2K and another with area 2/3A and of potential
dielectric constant K. If the capacitance of this new capacitor 31. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a
C and b (b>a) are placed concentrically in air. b B
is C then is A
C0 The two are connected by a copper wire as a
(a) 1 (b) 4/3 (c) 2/3 (d) 1/3 shown in figure. Then the equivalent
25. Two conden sers, on e of capacitance of the system is
capacity C and other of
capacity C/2 are connected to ab
(a) 4pe 0 (b) 4pe0(a + b)
a V-volt battery, as shown. The V C C/2 b-a
work done in charging fully
both the condensers is (c) 4pe0b (d) 4pe0a
32. A capacitor is charged to store an energy U. The charging
1 3 1
(a) CV 2 (b) CV 2 (c) CV 2 (d) 2CV2. battery is disconnected. An identical capacitor is now
4 4 2 connected to the first capacitor in parallel. The energy in
26. A, B and C are three points
each of the capacitors is
in a uniform electric field. B
A
®
The electric potential is E (a) U / 2 (b) 3U / 2 (c) U (d) U / 4
(a) maximum at B 33. Equipotentials at a great distance from a collection of charges
C
(b) maximum at C whose total sum is not zero are approximately
(c) same at all the three points A, B and C (a) spheres (b) planes
(d) maximum at A (c) paraboloids (d) ellipsoids
20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

RESPONSE
25. 26. 27. 28. 29.
GRID
30. 31. 32. 33.
EBD_7156
P-64 DPP/ CP16
34. Which of the following figure shows the correct Q Q
equipotential surfaces of a system of two positive charges? (a) (b)
2pe 0 R 4pe 0 R
(a) + + (b) + + 2Q Q
(c) pe0 R (d) pe0 R
r
40. An electric field E = (25i$ + 30j)NC
$ -1 exists in a region of
(c) + + (d) + +
space. If the potential at the origin is taken to be zero then
the potential at x = 2 m, y = 2 m is :
35. Two identical metal plates are given positive charges Q1 (a) –110 V (b) –140 V (c) –120 V (d) –130 V
and Q2 ( < Q1) respectively. If they are now brought close 41. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another
together to form a parallel plate capacitor with capacitance over an equipotential surface, then
C, the potential difference between them is (a) work is done on the charge
Q1 + Q 2 Q + Q2 Q – Q2 Q – Q2 (b) work is done by the charge
(a) (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) 1
2C C C 2C A (c) work done is constant
2
36. The capacitance of the capacitor of plate A1 (d) no work is done
areas A1 and A2 (A1 < A2) at a distance d, 42. Three large plates A, B and C are placed
as shown in figure is parallel to each other and charges are
Î0 (A1 + A 2 ) Î0 A 2 given as shown. The charge that appears
(a) (b)
2d d on the left surface of plate B is
Î0 A1
(c) Î0 A1A 2 (d) (a) 5C (b) 6C (c) 3C (d) –3 C
d d d 43. Three charges 2 q, – q and – q are located at the vertices of
37. In a given network the C1 an equilateral triangle. At the centre of the triangle
equivalent capacitance C2 (a) the field is zero but potential is non-zero
between A and B is [C1 = C4 =
1 mF, C2 = C3 = 2mF] A B (b) the field is non-zero, but potential is zero
C3 (c) both field and potential are zero
(a) 3 mF (b) 6 mF
C4 (d) both field and potential are non-zero
(c) 4.5 mF (d) 2.5 mF
44. If a charge – 150 nC is given to a concentric spherical shell
38. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential
difference of V volts. After disconnecting the charging and a charge +50 nC is placed at its centre then the charge
battery the distance between the plates of the capacitor is on inner and outer surface of the shell is
increased using an insulating handle. As a result the (a) –50 nC, –100 nC (b) +50 nC, –200 nC
potential difference between the plates (c) –50 nC, –200 nC (d) 50 nC, 100 nC
(a) does not change (b) becomes zero 45. Two capacitors of capacitances C1 and C2 are connected in
(c) increases (d) decreases parallel across a battery. If Q1 and Q2 respectively be the
39. Figure shows three circular arcs, +Q
Q
each of radius R and total charge as charges on the capacitors, then 1 will be equal to
45° Q2
indicated. The net electric potential –2Q
30°
at the centre of curvature is R

C2 C1 C12 C 22
(a) (b) (c) (d)
+3Q C1 C2 C 22 C12
34. 35. 36. 37. 38.

RESPONSE
39. 40. 41. 42. 43.
GRID
44. 45.
Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP17
SYLLABUS : Current Electricity
1. When 5V potential difference is applied across a wire of 30 E

30 E
length 0.1 m, the drift speed of electrons is 2.5 × 10 –4 ms–1. If (a) (b)
the electron density in the wire is 8 × 10 28 m–3, the resistivity 100.5 ( - 0.5)
100
of the material is close to :
30 ( E - 0.5i ) 30 E
(a) 1.6 × 10–6 Wm (b) 1.6 × 10–5 Wm (c) (d)
(c) 1.6 × 10 Wm
–8 (d) 1.6 × 10–7 Wm 100 100
2. Variation of current passing through a conductor as the 4. The masses of the three wires of copper are in the ratio of
voltage applied across its ends is varied as shown in the 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 1. The ratio
adjoining diagram. If the resistance (R) is determined at the of their electrical resistance is
points A, B, C and D, we will find that
(a) 1 : 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 : 1
V
(a) RC = RD C D (c) 1 : 25 : 125 (d) 125 : 15 : 1
B
(b) RB > RA A 5. n equal resistors are first connected in series and then
connected in parallel. What is the ratio of the maximum to
(c) RC > RB the minimum resistance ?
i
(a) n (b) 1/n2 (c) n2 (d) 1/ n
(d) RA > RB
6. A battery is charged at a potential of 15V for 8 hours when
3. The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100 cm, and the e. the current flowing is 10A. The battery on discharge
m.f. of its standard cell is E volt. It is employed to measure supplies a current of 5A for 15 hours. The mean terminal
the e.m.f. of a battery whose internal resistance is 0.5W. If voltage during discharge is 14V. The “watt-hour” efficiency
the balance point is obtained at l = 30 cm from the positive of the battery is
end, the e.m.f. of the battery is (a) 87.5% (b) 82.5% (c) 80% (d) 90%
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
RESPONSE GRID
6.
EBD_7156
P-66 DPP/ CP17
+ –
7. Shown in the figure below is a meter-bridge set up with null (a) 12 V
deflection in the galvanometer. 12 V
55W R (b) 6 V 6W 8W 10 W
(c) 4 V
E
G (d) 2 V + –
16. Find emf E of the cell as shown in figure.
20 cm
12V 2W I
D C
The value of the unknown resistor R is E 1W
(a) 13.75 W (b) 220 W (c) 110 W (d) 55 W A B
8. In the equation AB = C, A is the current density, C is the 1A
electric field, Then B is
F E
(a) resistivity (b) conductivity
(c) potential difference (d) resistance 2A
9. The Kirchhoff's first law (Si = 0) and second law (SiR = SE), (a) 15V (b) 10V (c) 12V (d) 5V
17. A torch bulb rated as 4.5 W, 1.5 V is connected as shown in
are respectively based on fig. The e.m.f. of the cell, needed to make the bulb glow at
(a) conservation of charge, conservation of momentum full intensity is
(b) conservation of energy, conservation of charge 4.5 W,
(c) conservation of momentum, conservation of charge 1.5V
(d) conservation of charge, conservation of energy 2E/9
10. You are given a resistance coil and a battery. In which of
the following cases the largest amount of heat generated ? E/9
(a) When the coil is connected to the battery directly 0.33 W
(b) When the coil is divided into two equal parts and both E/3
the parts are connected to the battery in parallel
(c) When the coil is divided into four equal parts and all E, r = 2.67 W
the four parts are connected to the battery in parallel (a) 4.5 V (b) 1.5 V (c) 2.67 V (d) 13.5 V
(d) When only half the coil is connected to the battery 18. In a given network, each resistance has value of 6W. The
11. The resistance of the coil of an ammeter is R. The shunt point X is connected to point A by a copper wire of negligible
resistance and point Y is connected to point B by the same
required to increase its range n-fold should have a resistance wire. The effective resistance between X and Y will be
R R R
(a) (b) (c) (d) nR 6W 6W A6W
n n -1 n +1 X Y
12. On increasing the temperature of a conductor, its resistance B
increases because the
(a) 18W (b) 6W (c) 3W (d) 2W
(a) relaxation time increases 19. If N, e, t and m are representing electron density, charge,
(b) mass of electron increases relaxation time and mass of an electron respectively, then
the resistance of wire of length l and cross-sectional area A
(c) electron density decreases is given by
(d) relaxation time decreases
2ml 2mtA Ne 2 t A Ne 2 A
13. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing (a) (b) (c) (d)
two wires of the same material, connected in parallel. If the Ne 2 At Ne 2 l 2ml 2m tl
4 2 20. Cell having an emf e and internal resistance r is connected
lengths and radii are in the ratio of and , then the ratio across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R
3 3 is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is
of the current passing through the wires will be
given by :
(a) 8/9 (b) 1/3 (c) 3 (d) 2
14. In a meter bridge experiment null point is obtained at 20 cm. (a) e (b) e
V V
from one end of the wire when resistance X is balanced against
another resistance Y. If X < Y, then where will be the new
0
position of the null point from the same end, if one decides to 0
R R
balance a resistance of 4 X against Y (c) (d)
e V
(a) 40 cm (b) 80 cm (c) 50 cm (d) 70 cm V
15. In the circuit shown, the current through 8 ohm is same
before and after connecting E. The value of E is 0
R 0
R
7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
RESPONSE 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
GRID 17. 18. 19. 20.
DPP/ CP17 P-67

21. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 Volt-100 Watt drops by 30. The resistance of the series combination of two resistances
2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by is S. when they are joined in parallel the total resistance is P.
which the power would decrease is : If S = nP then the minimum possible value of n is
(a) 20% (b) 2.5% (c) 5% (d) 10% (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
22. If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is 10–7 Wm, the 31. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we
current flow through it is 0.1 A and the cross-sectional area must connect with the ammeter a
of wire is 10–6 m2 then potential gradient will be (a) low resistance in parallel
(a) 10–2 volt/m (b) 10–4 volt/m (b) high resistance in parallel
(c) 10–6 volt/m (d) 10–8 volt/m (c) high resistance in series
23. Two resistances R1 and R2 are made of different materials. (d) low resistance in series.
The temperature coefficient of the material of R1 is a and 32. A d.c. main supply of e.m.f. 220 V is connected across a
that of material of R2 is – b. The resistance of the series storage battery of e.m.f. 200 V through a resistance of 1W.
combination of R1 and R2 will not change with temperature The battery terminals are connected to an external resistance
‘R’. The minimum value of ‘R’, so that a current passes
R1 through the battery to charge it is:
if equal to (a) 7 W (b) 9 W (c) 11 W (d) Zero
R2
33. In the given circuit diagram when the current reaches steady
a a +b a 2 + b2 b state in the circuit, the charge on the capacitor of capacitance
(a) (b) (c) (d)
b a -b 2ab a C will be :
24. Five cells each of emf E and internal resistance r send the r2
same amount of current through an external resistance R (a) CE
(r + r2 )
whether the cells are connected in parallel or in series. Then
r1
the ratio æç ö÷ is
R (b) CE
(r1 + r)
è rø
1 1 r2
(a) 2 (b) (c) (d) 1 (c) CE
2 5 ( + r1 )
r
25. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. r
Due to the consequent decrease in diameter the change in (d) CE 1
(r2 + r)
the resistance of the wire will be
(a) 200% (b) 100% (c) 50% (d) 300% 34. Suppose the drift velocity nd in a material varied with the
26. Potentiometer wire of length 1 m is connected in series with applied electric field E as nd µ E . Then V – I graph for a
490W resistance and 2 V battery. If 0.2 mV/cm is the potential wire made of such a material is best given by :
gradient, then resistance of the potentiometer wire is V V
(a) 4.9 W (b) 7.9 W (c) 5.9 W (d) 6.9 W
27. See the electric circuit shown in the figure. R (a) (b)
Which of the following I I
equations is a correct equation V V
for it?
i1 e 1 r1
(a) e2 – i2 r2 – e1 – i1 r1 = 0 (c) (d)
I
(b) - e2 – (i1 + i2) R+ i2 r2 = 0 I
35. In a neon gas discharge tube Ne+ ions moving through a
(c) e1 – (i1 + i2) R + i1 r1 = 0 i2 cross-section of the tube each second to the right is 2.9 ×
(d) e1 – (i1 + i2) R– i1 r1 = 0 r2 e2 1018, while 1.2 × 1018 electrons move towards left in the same
28. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W, 5 bulbs of 100 time; the electronic charge being 1.6 × 10–19 C, the net electric
W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of 1 kW. The voltage of current is
electric mains is 220 V. The minimum capacity of the main (a) 0.27 A to the right (b) 0.66 A to the right
(c) 0.66 A to the left (d) zero
fuse of the building will be: 36. Two rods are joined end to end, as shown. Both have a
(a) 8 A (b) 10 A (c) 12 A (d) 14 A cross-sectional area of 0.01 cm2. Each is 1 meter long. One
29. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an external rod is of copper with a resistivity of 1.7 × 10–6 ohm-centimeter,
resistance R. The internal resistance of the two sources are the other is of iron with a resistivity of 10–5 ohm-centimeter.
R1 and R2 (R1 > R1). If the potential difference across the How much voltage is required to produce a current of 1
V
source having internal resistance R2 is zero, then ampere in the rods?
(a) R = R2 – R1 (a) 0.117 V
(b) R = R2 × (R1 + R2)/(R2 – R1) (b) 0.00145 V
(c) R = R1R2/(R2 – R1) (c) 0.0145 V
(d) 1.7 × 10–6 V Cu Fe
(d) R = R1R2 /( R1 - R2 )
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
RESPONSE 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
GRID 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36.
EBD_7156
P-68 DPP/ CP17
37. An energy source will supply a constant current into the P R (S1 + S2 ) P R
load if its internal resistance is (c) = (d) =
(a) very large as compared to the load resistance Q 2S1S2 Q S1 + S2
(b) equal to the resistance of the load 42. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its
(c) non-zero but less than the resistance of the load length and radius are both doubled, then
(d) zero (a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both
38. The resistance of a wire at room temperature 30°C is found remain unchanged
to be 10 W. Now to increase the resistance by 10%, the (b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific
temperature of the wire must be [ The temperature coefficient resistance will be halved
of resistance of the material of the wire is 0.002 per °C] (c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance
(a) 36°C (b) 83°C will remain unchanged
(c) 63°C (d) 33°C (d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance
39. If current flowing in a conductor changes by 1% then power will be doubled
consumed will change by 43. A car battery has e.m.f. 12 volt and internal resistance 5 × 10–2
(a) 10% (b) 2% (c) 1% (d) 100% ohm. If it draws 60 amp current, the terminal voltage of the
40. In the circuit shown in figure, the 5W resistance battery will be
develops 20.00 cal/s due to the current flowing through it. (a) 15 volt (b) 3 volt (c) 5 volt (d) 9 volt
The heat developed in 2 W resistance (in cal/s) is
44. A conducting wire of cross-sectional area 1 cm 2 has
3 × 1023 charge carriers per m3. If wire carries a current of 24
mA, then drift velocity of carriers is
(a) 5 × 10–2 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s
(c) 5 × 10–3 m/s (d) 5 × 10–6 m/s
(a) 23.8 (b) 14.2 (c) 11.9 (d) 7.1
45. In the series combination of n cells each cell having emf
41. In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistances P, Q and R
connected in the three arms and the fourth arm is formed by e and internal resistance r. If three cells are wrongly
two resistances S1 and S2 connected in parallel. The connected, then total emf and internal resistance of this
condition for the bridge to be balanced will be combination will be
(a) ne, (nr – 3r) (b) (ne – 2e) nr
P 2R P R (S1 + S2 )
(a) = (b) = (c) (ne – 4e), nr (d) (ne – 6e), nr
Q S1 + S2 Q S1S2
RESPONSE 37. 38. 39. 40. 41.

GRID 42. 43. 44. 45.

Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP18
SYLLABUS : Moving Charges and Magnetism
1. An insulating rod of length l carries a charge q distributed 5 × 10–2 tesla making an angle of 30° with the axis of the
uniformly on it. The rod is pivoted at its mid point and is solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be:
rotated at a frequency f about a fixed axis perpendicular to (a) 3 × 10–2 N-m (b) 3 × 10–3 N-m
–3
(c) 1.5 × 10 N-m (d) 1.5 × 10–2 N-m
rod and passing through the pivot. The magnetic moment
4. An alternating electric field, of frequency v, is applied across
1
of the rod system is pqfl 2 . Find the value of a. the dees (radius = R) of a cyclotron that is being used to
2a accelerate protons (mass = m). The operating magnetic field
(a) 6 (b) 4 (B) used in the cyclotron and the kinetic energy (K) of the
(c) 5 (d) 8 proton beam, produced by it, are given by :
2. A portion of a conductive wire is bent in the form of a (a) B = mn and K = 2mp2n2R2
semicircle of radius r as shown below in fig. At the centre of e
semicircle, the magnetic induction will be (b) B = pmn and K = m2pnR2
2
e
(c) B = mn and K = 2mp2n2R2
2 p
i
r
e
i
O mn
(d) B = and K = m2pnR2
e
(a) zero (b) infinite 5. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A
μ 0 2π i μ0 π i current of 4 × 10–4 ampere gives a deflection of one per
(c) 4 π . r (d) 4 π . r division. To convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter
3. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross- having a range of 25 volts, it should be connected with a
section 1.5 × 10–4 m2 carries a current of 2.0 A. It suspended resistance of
through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing (a) 2450 W in series (b) 2500 W in series.
it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field (c) 245 W in series. (d) 2550 W in series.
EBD_7156
P-70 DPP/ CP18
6. If we double the radius of a coil keeping the current through r r
(a) 3 F (b) – F
it unchanged, then the magnetic field at any point at a large r r
distance from the centre becomes approximately (c) – 3 F (d) F
(a) double (b) three times 15. A straight section PQ of a circuit lies along the X-axis from
(c) four times (d) one-fourth a a
7. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a x = - to x = and carries a steady current i. The
r 2 2
transverse uniform magnetic field of induction B . After 3 magnetic field due to the section PQ at a point X = + a will be
seconds, the kinetic energy of the particle will be: (a) proportional to a (b) proportional to a2
(a) 3T (b) 2T (c) proportional to 1/a (d) zero
(c) T (d) 4T 16. A and B are two A
8. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a conductors carrying a
uniform field at magnetic induction 10–4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 current i in the same
gauss). The orbital radius of the electron is direction. x and y are B
(a) 12 cm (b) 16 cm two electron beams
moving in the same x
(c) 11 cm (d) 18 cm
direction. Then
9. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field exist in y
a region in the same direction. An electron is projected with (a) there will be repulsion betwen A and B, attraction between
velocity pointed in the same direction. The electron will x and y
(a) turn to its right (b) there will be attraction between A and B, repulsion
(b) turn to its left between x and y
(c) keep moving in the same direction but its speed will (c) there will be repulsion between A and B and also x and y
increase (d) there will be attraction between A and B and also x and y
(d) keep moving in the same direction but its speed will 17. A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a resistance
decrease S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit unchanged,
10. Proton, deuteron and alpha particle of same kinetic energy the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is
are moving in circular trajectories in a constant magnetic S2 SG G2 G
field. The radii of proton, deuteron and alpha particle are (a) (b) (c) (d)
(S + G) (S + G) (S + G) (S + G)
respectively rp, rd and ra. Which one of the following relation 18. A current I flows in an infinitely long wire with cross section
is correct? in the form of a semi-circular ring of radius R. The magnitude
(a) ra = rp = rd (b) ra = rp < rd of the magnetic induction along its axis is:
m0 I m0 I m0 I m0 I
(c) ra > rd > rp (d) ra = rd > rp (a) 2
2p R
(b)
2pR
(c)
4pR
(d) 2
Ip R
11. A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal divisions. Its 19. Two equal electric currents are flowing
perpendicular to each other as shown C A
current sensitivity is 10-divisions per milliampere and voltage
sensitivity is 2 divisions per millivolt. In order that each in the figure. AB and CD are
division reads 1 volt, the resistance in ohms needed to be perpendicular to each other and O
symmetrically placed with respect to I
connected in series with the coil will be
the current flow. Where do we expect
(a) 105 (b) 103 (c) 9995 (d) 99995 the resultant magnetic field to be zero?
12. A 2 µC charge moving around a circle with a frequency of B D
6.25 × 1012 Hz produces a magnetic field 6.28 tesla at the
centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is (a) On AB (b) On CD
(a) 2.25 m (b) 0.25 m (c) 13.0 m (d) 1.25 m (c) On both AB and CD (d) On both OD and BO
13. A charged particle with charge q enters a region
ur ofuconstant,
r 20. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform
uniform and mutually orthogonalurfields uE and B with a magnetic field.
r r If the magnetic forces on segments PS, Q
velocity v perpendicular to both E and B , and comes out
r SR, and RQ are F1 , F2 and F3 respectively
without any change in magnitude or direction of v . Then
r ur ur 2 r ur ur 2 and are in the plane of the paper and along P
(a) v = B ´ E / E (b) v = E ´ B / B the directions shown, the force on the
r ur ur 2 r ur ur segment QP is F3
(c) v = B ´ E / B (d) v = E ´ B / E 2 (a) F3 – F1– F2 F1
14. A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform
magnetic field acting in the
r plane of the loop. If the force on (b) (F3 – F1 )2 + F22
one arm of the loop is F , the net force on the remaining S R
three arms of the loop is
(c) (F3 – F1 ) – F22
2
F2
(d) F3 – F1+F2
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
DPP/ CP18 P-71

21. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic (c) both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are
field B along its axis. If the current is double and the number not constant
of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic (d) both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are
field is constant
(a) 4B (b) B/2 (c) B (d) 2B 29. The deflection in a galvanometer falls from 50 division to 20
22. A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a circular orbit when a 12 ohm shunt is applied. The galvanometer resistance
of radius r with angular speed w . The ratio of the magnitude is
of its magnetic moment to that of its angular momentum (a) 18 ohm (b) 36 ohm (c) 24 ohm (d) 30 ohm
depends on 30. When a long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a
(a) w and q (b) w , q and m circular coil of one turn, the magnetic induction at its centre
(c) q and m (d) w and m is B. When the same wire carrying the same current is bent
to form a circular coil of n turns of a smaller radius, the
23. A current loop in a magnetic field magnetic induction at the centre will be
(a) can be in equilibrium in one orientation (a) B/n (b) nB (c) B/n2 (d) n2B
(b) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, both the equi- 31. The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop of
librium states are unstable radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a distance of 4 cm from
(c) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable the centre is 54 mT. What will be its value at the centre of
while the other is unstable loop ?
(d) experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or (a) 125 mT (b) 150 mT
non-uniform in all orientations
24. Two long parallel wires P and Q are held perpendicular to (c) 250 mT (d) 75 mT
the plane of paper with distance of 5 m between them. If P 32. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is subjected
and Q carry current of 2.5 amp. and 5 amp. respectively in to a field of magnetic induction in negative X-direction. As
the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point half- a result, the charge will
way between the wires is (a) remain unaffected
(b) start moving in a circular path Y–Z plane
(a) m 0 / 17 (b) 3 m0 / 2 p (c) retard along X-axis
(d) move along a helical path around X-axis
(c) m 0 / 2 p (d) 3 m0 / 2 p 33. An electron travelling with a speed u along the positive
Y
25. A very long straight wire x-axis enters into a region of magnetic field where
carries a current I. At the
instant when a charge + Q B = –B0 k̂ (x > 0). It comes out of the region with speed v
r then
at point P has velocity v , O X
as shown, the force on the ×B

(a) v = u at y > 0 y
charge is
e– u
(b) v = u at y < 0 x®
(a) along OY (b) opposite to OY
(c) along OX (d) opposite to OX (c) v > u at y > 0
26. Two wires with currents 2 A and 1 A are enclosed in a circular
loop. Another wire with current 3 A is situated outside the (d) v > u at y < 0
r r
loop as shown. The Ñò B.dl around the loop is 34. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we
must connect with the ammeter a
(a) µ0 2A 1A 3A (a) low resistance in parallel
(b) high resistance in parallel
(b) 3µ0 (c) high resistance in series
(d) low resistance in series
(c) 6µ0 35. An infinite straight conductor carrying current 2 I is split
into a loop of radius r as shown in fig. The magnetic field at
(d) 2µ0 the centre of the coil is
27. If in a circular coil A of radius R, current I is flowing and in I
another coil B of radius 2R a current 2I is flowing, then the m 0 2 (p + 1)
(a)
ratio of the magnetic fields BA and BB, produced by them 4p r
will be 2I 2I
O
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 1/2 (d) 4 m 0 2 ( p - 1)
28. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field (b)
4p r
perpendicular to its direction. Then
(a) kinetic energy changes but the momentum is constant m 0 ( p + 1) I
(c)
(b) the momentum changes but the kinetic energy is 4p r
constant (d) zero
RESPONSE 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
GRID 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
EBD_7156
P-72 DPP/ CP18
36. A parallel plate capacitor of area 60 cm2 and separation 3 mm on the outer solenoid due to the inner one. Then :
is charged initially to 90 mC. If the medium between the plate uur uur
(a) F1 is radially inwards and F2 = 0
gets slightly conducting and the plate loses the charge uur uur
initially at the rate of 2.5 × 10–8 C/s, then what is the magnetic (b) F1 is radially outwards and F2 = 0
field between the plates ? uur uur
(a) 2.5 × 10–8 T (b) 2.0 × 10–7 T (c) F1 = F2 = 0
–11 uur uur
(c) 1.63 × 10 T (d) Zero (d) F1 is radially inwards and F2 is radially outwards
37. Four wires, each of length 2.0 m, are bent into four loops P, 42. A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a
Q, R and S and then suspended in a uniform region having simultaneous perpendicular electric and
magnetic field. If the same magnetic fields of strength 20 Vm–1 and 0.5 T respectively
current is passed in each, then Q S at right angles to the direction of motion of the electrons.
P
the torque will be maximum on R
Then the velocity of electrons must be
the loop
(a) P (b) Q (c) R ur (d) S (a) 8 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 40 m/s (d) 1 m / s
40
38. A certain region has an electric field E = (2iˆ - 3j) ˆ N / C and 43. The magnetic flux density B at a distance r from a long
ur straight wire carrying a steady current varies with r as
a uniform magnetic field B = (5iˆ + 3jˆ + 4k) ˆ T . The force
(a) B (b) B
experienced by a charge 1C moving with velocity (iˆ + 2ˆj)
ms–1 is
(a) (10iˆ - 7ˆj - 7k)
ˆ (b) (10iˆ + 7ˆj + 7k)
ˆ
r r
(c) (-10iˆ + 7ˆj + 7k)ˆ (d) (10iˆ + 7ˆj - 7k)
ˆ (c) B (d) B
39. A galvanometer of resistance 100 W gives a full scale
deflection for a current of 10–5 A. To convert it into a ammeter
capable of measuring upto 1 A, we should connect a
resistance of r r
(a) 1 W in parallel (b) 10–3 W in parallel 44. The AC voltage across a resistance can be measured
5
(c) 10 W in series (d) 100 W in series using a :
I1
40. A square loop, carrying a steady (a) hot wire voltmeter
current I, is placed in a horizontal plane d I (b) moving coil galvanometer
near a long straight conductor carrying (c) potential coil galvanometer
a steady current I1 at a distance d from (d) moving magnet galvanometer
the conductor as shown in figure. The r
loop will experience 45. When a charged particle moving with velocityv is subjected
I ur
(a) a net repulsive force away from the conductor to a magnetic field of induction B , the force on it is non-
(b) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the zero. This implies that
horizontal plane r ur
(c) a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal (a) angle between v and B is necessarily 90°
r ur
plane (b) angle between v and B can have any value other
(d) a net attractive force towards the conductor than 90°
41. Two coaxial solenoids of different radius carry current I in
uur r ur
the same direction. F1 be the magnetic force on the inner (c) angle between v and B can have any value other
uur than zero and 180°
solenoid due to the outer one and F2 be the magnetic force r ur
(d) angle between v and B is either zero or 180°
RESPONSE 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

GRID 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.

Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP19
SYLLABUS : Magnetism and Matter
1. Two identical magnetic dipoles of magnetic moments (a) er = 0.5, mr = 1.5 (b) er = 1.5, mr = 0.5
1.0 A-m2 each, placed at a separation of 2 m with their axis (c) er = 0.5, mr = 0.5 (d) er = 1.5, mr = 1.5
perpendicular to each other. The resultant magnetic field at 5. If the period of oscillation of freely suspended bar magnet
point midway between the dipole is in earth’s horizontal field H is 4 sec. When another magnet
(a) 5 × 10–7 T (b) 5 × 10–7 T is brought near it, the period of oscillation is reduced to 2s.
The magnetic field of second bar magnet is
(c) 10–7 T (d) 2 × 10–7 T
2. Two identical thin bar magnets each (a) 4 H (b) 3 H (c) 2 H (d) 3H
N
of length l and pole strength m are 1
6. Three identical bars A, B and C are made of different magnetic
placed at right angles to each other, materials. When kept in a uniform magnetic field, the field
with north pole of one touching 2 lines around them look as follows:
south pole of the other, then the
magnetic moment of the system is S 1
N2 S2
A B C
(a) 1 ml (b) 2 ml (c) 2 ml (d) ml/2
3. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet
(a) are from north-pole to south-pole of the magnet Make the correspondence of these bars with their material
(b) do not exist being diamagnetic (D), ferromagnetic (F) and paramagnetic
(c) depend upon the area of cross-section of the bar magnet (P):
(d) are from south-pole to north-pole of the magnet (a) A « D, B « P, C « F
4. Relative permittivity and permeability of a material er and mr, (b) A « F, B « D, C « P
respectively. Which of the following values of these (c) A « P, B « F, C « D
quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material? (d) A « F, B « P, C « D
RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6.
EBD_7156
P-74 DPP/ CP19
7. Curie temperature is the temperature above which These materials are used to make magnets for elecric
(a) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic generators, transformer core and electromagnet core. Then
(b) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic it is proper to use :
(c) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic (a) A for transformers and B for electric generators.
(d) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic (b) B for electromagnets and transformers.
8. A watch glass containing some powdered substance is placed (c) A for electric generators and trasformers.
between the pole pieces of a magnet. Deep concavity is (d) A for electromagnets and B for electric generators.
observed at the centre. The substance in the watch glass is 14. Which of the following is responsible for the earth’s magnetic
(a) iron (b) chromium (c) carbon (d) wood field?
9. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l is (a) Convective currents in earth’s core.
suspended®between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet (b) Diversive current in earth’s core.
such that B is in the plane of the coil. If due to a current i in (c) Rotational motion of earth.
the triangle a torque t acts on it, the side l of the triangle is (d) Translational motion of earth.
1 15. In a vibration megnetometer, the time period of a bar magnet
1
2 æ t ö2 æ t ö2 oscillating in horizontal component of earth's magnetic field
(a) ç ÷ (b) 2çç ÷÷ is 2 sec. When a magnet is brought near and parallel to it, the
3 è B.i ø è 3B.i ø time period reduces to 1 sec. The ratio H/F of the horizontal
2 æ t ö 1 t component H and the field F due to magnet will be
(c) ç ÷ (d)
3 è B.i ø 3 B.i (a) 3 (b) 1/3 (c) 3 (d) 1/ 3
10. A compass needle whose magnetic moment is 60 Am2, is 16. Let V and H be the vertical and horizontal components of
directed towards geographical north at any place earth's magnetic field at any point on earth. Near the north
experiencing moment of force of 1.2 × 10–3 Nm. At that place pole
the horizontal component of earth field is 40 micro W/m2. (a) V >> H (b) V << H (c) V = H (d) V = H = 0
What is the value of dip angle at that place? 17. A thin circular wire carrying a current I has a magnetic
(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) 15° moment M. The shape of the wire is changed to a square
11. The materials suitable for making electromagnets should and it carries the same current. It will have a magnetic
have moment
(a) high retentivity and low coercivity 4 4 p
(b) low retentivity and low coercivity (a) M (b) M (c) M (d) M
2 p
(c) high retentivity and high coercivity p 4
18. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed at right angles
(d) low retentivity and high coercivity to a magnetic induction B. If a force F is experienced by
12. The length of a magnet is large compared to its width and each pole of the magnet, the length of the magnet will be
breadth. The time period of its oscillation in a vibration (a) F/MB (b) MB/F (c) BF/M (d) MF/B
magnetometer is 2s. The magnet is cut along its length into 19. If the susceptibility of dia, para and ferro magnetic materials
three equal parts and these parts are then placed on each are cd, cp, cf respectively, then
other with their like poles together. The time period of this (a) cd < cp < cf (b) cd < cf < cp
combination will be (c) cf < cd < cp (d) cf < cp < cd
2 2 20. The basic magnetization curve for a ferromagnetic material
(a) 2 3 s (b) s (c) 2 s (d) s
3 3 is shown in figure. Then, the value of relative permeability
13. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A and B are is highest for the point
given below :
1.5
B R S
D
1.0
B(Tesla)
0.5
H H P
(A) (B) O 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
3
H (× 10 A/m)
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
RESPONSE
12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
GRID
17. 18. 19. 20.
DPP/ CP19 P-75

21. A magnetic needle suspended by a silk thread is vibrating configuration corresponds to the lowest potential energy
in the earth’s magnetic field. if the temperature of the needle among all the configurations shown ?
Q4
is increased by 700ºC, then
(a) time period decreases (a) PQ3
(b) time period increases
(c) time period remains unchanged
(b) PQ4 Q5 P
(d) the needle stops vibrating Q1 Q2
22. Torques t1 and t2 are required for a magnetic needle to
remain perpendicular to the magnetic fields at two different (c) PQ5
places. The magnetic fields at those places are B1 and B2
(d) PQ6 Q6
B1
respectively; then ratio is 29. A dip needle lies initially in the magnetic meridian when it
B2 shows an angle of dip q at a place. The dip circle is rotated
t2 t1 through an angle x in the horizontal plane and then it shows
(a) (b)
t1 t2 an angle of dip q'.
t1 + t 2 t1 - t 2 tan q '
(c) (d) Then is
t1 - t 2 t1 + t 2 tan q
23. A bar magnet has a length 8 cm. The magnetic field at a 1 1 1
point at a distance 3 cm from the centre in the broad side-on (a) (b) (c) (d) cos x
cos x sin x tan x
position is found to be 4×10–6 T. The pole strength of the 30. Two tangent galvanometers having coils of the same radius
magnet is. are connected in series. A current flowing in them produces
(a) 6 × 10–5 Am (b) 5 × 10–5 Am deflections of 60º and 45º respectively. The ratio of the number
(c) 2 × 10–4 Am (d) 3 × 10–4 Am
of turns in the coils is
24. A vibration magnetometer consists of two identical bar magnets
placed one over the other such that they are perpendicular 3 +1 3 +1 3
(a) 4/3 (b) (c) (d)
and bisect each other. The time period of oscillation in a 1 3 -1 1
horizontal magnetic field is 25/4 seconds. One of the magnets 31. Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in
is removed and if the other magnet oscillates in the same field, different configurations.
r Each magnet has magnet ic dipole
then the time period in seconds is moment m . Which configuration has highest net magnetic
(a) 21/4 (b) 21/2 (c) 2 (d) 23/4 dipole moment?
25. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It N
experiences
(a) neither a force nor a torque N S
(a) (b) S N
(b) a torque but not a force S S N
(c) a force but not a torque
(d) a force and a torque N
N
26. The angle of dip at a place is 37° and the vertical component
of the earth’s magnetic field is 6 × 10–5T. The earth’s (c) 30º (d) 60º
magnetic field at this place is (tan 37° = 3/4) S N S N
(a) 7 × 10–5 T (b) 6 × 10–5 T
–5 32. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal
(c) 5 × 10 T (d) 10–4 T
plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It :
27. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a (a) will become rigid showing no movement
paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substance respectively. A (b) will stay in any position
magnet when brought close to them will (c) will stay in north-south direction only
(a) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3 (d) will stay in east-west direction only
(b) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly 33. If a magnetic dipole of moment M situated in the direction of
(c) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly a magnetic field B is rotated by 180°, then the amount of
(d) attract all three of them work done is
28. The figure shows the various positions (labelled by MB
subscripts) of small magnetised needles P and Q. The arrows (a) MB (b) 2MB (c) (d) 0
show the direction of their magnetic moment. Which 2
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

RESPONSE
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
GRID
31. 32. 33.
EBD_7156
P-76 DPP/ CP19
34. A bar magnet is oscillating in the earth’s magnetic field with 40. The susceptibility of annealed iron at saturation is 5500.
a period T. What happens to its period of motion, if its mass Find the permeability of annealed iron at saturation.
is quadrupled (a) 6.9 × 10–3 (b) 5.1 × 10–2 (c) 5 × 102 (d) 3.2 × 10–5
(a) motion remains simple harmonic with new period = T/2 41. A short magnet oscillates in an oscillation magnetometer
(b) motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 2 T with a time period of 0.10s where the earth¢s horizontal
(c) motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 4T magnetic field is 24 mT. A downward current of 18 A is
(d) motion remains simple harmonic and the period stays established in a vertical wire placed 20 cm east of the magnet.
nearly constant Find the new time period.
35. The magnetic field of earth at the equator is approximately 4 (a) 0.076 s (b) 0.5 s (c) 0.1 s (d) 0.2 s
× 10–5 T. The radius of earth is 6.4 × 106 m. Then the dipole 42. A permanent magnet in the shape of a thin cylinder of
moment of the earth will be nearly of the order of: length 10 cm has magnetisation (M) = 106 A m–1. Its
(a) 1023 A m2 (b) 1020 A m2 (c) 1016 A m2 (d) 1010 A m2 magnetization current IM is
36. The relative permeability of a medium is 0.075. What is its (a) 105 A (b) 106 A (c) 107 A (d) 108 A
magnetic susceptibility? 43. The earth’s magnetic field lines resemble that of a dipole at
(a) 0.925 (b) – 0.925 (c) 1.075 (d) –1.075 the centre of the earth. If the magnetic moment of this dipole
37. A dip circle is so set that its needle moves freely in the is close to 8 × 1022 Am2, the value of earth’s magnetic field
magnetic meridian. In this position, the angle of dip is 40º. near the equator is close to (radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106 m)
Now the dip circle is rotated so that the plane in which the
needle moves makes an angle of 30º with the magnetic (a) 0.6 Gauss (b) 1.2 Gauss
meridian. In this position, the needle will dip by an angle (c) 1.8 Gauss (d) 0.32 Gauss
(a) 40º (b) 30º (c) more than 40º (d) less than 40º 44. The coercivity of a small magnet where the ferromagnet
38. The mid points of two small magnetic dipoles of length d in gets demagnetized is 3 × 103 Am–1. The current required to
end-on positions, are separated by a distance x, (x > > d). be passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and number of turns
The force between them is proportional to x–n where n is: 100, so that the magnet gets demagnetized when inside the
solenoid, is:
N S
S N (a) 30 mA (b) 60 mA (c) 3 A (d) 6 A
45. A thin bar magnet of length 2 l and breadth 2 b pole strength
x m and magnetic moment M is divided into four equal parts
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 with length and breadth of each part being half of original
39. At a temperatur of 30°C, the susceptibility of a ferromagnetic magnet.
material is found to be c. Its susceptibility at 333°C is Then, the magnetic moment of each part is
(a) c (b) 0.5c (c) 2c (d) 11.1c (a) M/4 (b) M (c) M/2 (d) 2 M
34. 35. 36. 37. 38.

RESPONSE
39. 40. 41. 42. 43.
GRID
44. 45.
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score


Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP20
SYLLABUS : Electromagnetic Induction
1. A metal disc of radius 100 cm is rotated at a constant angular 4. The figure shows certain wire segments
c d
speed of 60 rad/s in a plane at right angles to an external joined together to form a coplanar loop.
a b
field of magnetic induction 0.05 Wb/m2. The emf induced The loop is placed in a perpendicular
between the centre and a point on the rim will be magnetic field in the direction going into
(a) 3 V (b) 1.5 V (c) 6 V (d) 9 V the plane of the figure.
The magnitude of the field increases with time. I1 and I2 are
2. In a coil of resistance 100 W , a current is induced by
the currents in the segments ab and cd. Then,
changing the magnetic flux through it as shown in the figure.
The magnitude of change in flux through the coil is (a) I1 > I2 (b) I1 < I2
(c) I1 is in the direction ba and I2 is in the direction cd
(a) 250 Wb (d) I1 is in the direction ab and I2 is in the direction dc
(b) 275 Wb 5. Two solenoids of equal number of turns have their lengths
and the radii in the same ratio 1 : 2. The ratio of their self
(c) 200 Wb inductances will be
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
(d) 225 Wb 6. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one
3. A 10-meter wire is kept in east-west direction. It is falling of its ends at angular velocity 5 radians per second. If the
down with a speed of 5.0 meter/second, perpendicular to horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.2×10–4T,
the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field of then the e.m.f. developed between the two ends of the
conductor is
0.30 ×10-4 weber/meter2. The momentary potential difference
(a) 5 mV (b) 50 mV (c) 5 mV (d) 50mV
induced between the ends of the wire will be 7. Eddy currents do not produce
(a) 0.0015 V (b) 0.015 V (a) heat (b) a loss of energy
(c) 0.15 V (d) 1.5 V (c) spark (d) damping of motion
6. 7.
EBD_7156
P-78 DPP/ CP20
8. A conducting square frame of side ‘a’ and a long staight (a) in AD, but not in BC (b) in BC, but not in AD
wire carrying current I are located in the same plane as shown (c) neither in AD nor in BC (d) in both AD and BC
in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant 15. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area
velocity ‘V’. The emf induced in the frame will be proportional A and total resistance R, rotates with frequency w in a
to magnetic field B. The maximum value of emf generated in
1 the coil is
(a) X (a) N.A.B.R.w (b) N.A.B.
(2x – a)2
(c) N.A.B.R. (d) N.A.B.w
1
(b) l 16. In an inductor of self-inductance L = 2 mH, current changes
(2x + a)2 with time according to relation i = t2e–t. At what time emf is
V
1 zero?
(c) (2x – a)(2x + a) (a) 4s (b) 3s (c) 2s (d) 1s
17. Choke coil works on the principle of
1 a (a) transient current (b) self induction
(d)
x2 (c) mutual induction (d) wattless current
9. Which of the following figure correctly depicts the Lenz’s 18. A coil having n turns and resistance R W is connected with
law. The arrows show the movement of the labelled pole of a galvanometer of resistance 4R W. This combination is
a bar magnet into a closed circular loop and the arrows on moved in time t seconds from a magnetic field W1 weber to
the circle show the direction of the induced current W2 weber. The induced current in the circuit is
( W1 - W2 ) n ( W2 - W1 )
(a) - (b) -
(a) (b) (c) (d) Rnt 5 Rt
N N S S
( W2 - W1 ) n ( W2 - W1 )
10. The magnetic flux (in weber) linked with a coil of resistance (c) - (d) -
5 Rnt Rt
10 W is varying with respect to time t as f = 4t2 + 2t + 1. Then
the current in the coil at time t = 1 second is 19. A thin circular ring of area A is held perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field of induction B. A small cut is made in
(a) 0.5 A (b) 2 A (c) 1.5 A (d) 1 A the ring and a galvanometer is connected across the ends
11. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated such that the total resistance of the circuit is R. When the
wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area A = 10 cm2 and ring is suddenly squeezed to zero area, the charge flowing
length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoid has 300 turns and the through the galvanometer is
other 400 turns, their mutual inductance is AB B2 A
BR
(m0 = 4p × 10 –7 Tm A–1) (a) (b) (c) ABR (d)
(a) 2.4p × 10–5 H (b) 4.8p × 10–4 H A R R2
(c) 4.8p × 10–5 H (d) 2.4p × 10–4 H 20. A boat is moving due east in a region where the earth's
magnetic field is 5.0 × 10–5 NA–1 m–1 due north and horizontal.
12. When the current changes from +2 A to –2A in 0.05 second,
The boat carries a vertical aerial 2 m long. If the speed of the
an e.m.f. of 8 V is induced in a coil. The coefficient of self - boat is 1.50 ms–1, the magnitude of the induced emf in the
induction of the coil is wire of aerial is:
(a) 0.2 H (b) 0.4 H (c) 0.8 H (d) 0.1 H (a) 0.75 mV (b) 0.50 mV (c) 0.15 mV (d) 1mV
13. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2 ampere
21. In a coil of area 10 cm2 and 10 turns with magnetic field
is passed through it, the resulting magnetic flux linked with
directed perpendicular to the plane and is changing at the
each turn of the solenoid is 4 ×10–3 Wb. The self- inductance
rate of 108 Gauss/second. The resistance of the coil is 20W.
of the solenoid is
The current in the coil will be
(a) 2.5 henry (b) 2.0 henry
(a) 0.5 A (b) 5 A (c) 50 A (d) 5 × 108 A
(c) 1.0 henry (d) 40 henry
14. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving 22. A horizontal straight wire 20 m long extending from east to
A B west falling with a speed of 5.0 m/s, at right angles
in its own plane with velocity v in a
uniform magnetic field perpendicular to to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field
v
its plane as shown in the figure. An 0.30 × 10–4 Wb/m2. The instantaneous value of the e.m.f.
induced in the wire will be
electric field is induced D C
(a) 3 mV (b) 4.5 mV (c) 1.5 mV (d) 6.0 mV
8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

RESPONSE
13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
GRID
18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
DPP/ CP20 P-79

23. The self inductance of a long solenoid cannot be increased 30. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m rotated about its centre with
by 10 revolutions per second in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1
(a) increasing its area of cross section tesla with its plane perpendicular to the field. The e.m.f.
(b) increasing its length induced across the radius of disc is
(c) changing the medium with greater permeability
(d) increasing the current through it p 2p
(a) volt (b) volt
24. A metallic rod of length ‘l’ is tied to a string of length 2l and 10 10
(c) p × 10 volt
–2 (d) 2p × 10–2 volt
made to rotate with angular speed w on a horizontal
31. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils, each of N turns, is
table with one end of the string fixed. M henry. If a current of I ampere in one of the coils is
If there is a vertical magnetic field ‘B’ brought to zero in t second, the emf induced per turn in the
in the region, the e.m.f. induced across other coil, in volt, will be
the ends of the rod is MI NMI MN MI
(a) (b) (c) (d)
t t It Nt
2 Bwl2 3Bwl 2 4 Bwl2 5 Bwl 2 32. Consider the situation shown in figure. If the switch is closed
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2 and after some time it is opened again, the closed loop will
25. Lenz’s law gives show
(a) the magnitude of the induced e.m.f. (a) a clockwise current
(b) the direction of the induced current (b) an anticlockwise current
(c) both the magnitude and direction of the induced current
(c) an anticlockwise current and then clockwise
(d) the magnitude of the induced current
(d) a clockwise current and then an anticlock wise current.
26. A metal ring is held horizontally and bar magnet is dropped 33. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly,
through the ring with its length along the axis of the ring. then the induced e.m.f. is
The acceleration of the falling magnet (a) larger in case (i)
(a) is equal to g (b) smaller in case (i)
(b) is less than g (c) equal to both the cases
(c) is more than g (d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil
34. A circular wire of radius r rotates about its own axis with
(d) depends on the diameter of ring and length of magnet
angular speed w in a magnetic field B perpendicular to its
27. The pointer of a dead-beat galvanometer gives a steady plane, then the induced e.m.f. is
deflection because 1
(a) eddy currents are produced in the conducting frame (a) Brw 2 (b) Brw2 (c) 2Brw2 (d) zero
over which the coil is wound. 2
(b) its magnet is very strong. 35. A conducting ring of radius l m kept in a uniform magnetic
(c) its pointer is very light. field B of 0.01 T, rotates uniformly with an angular velocity
(d) its frame is made of ebonite. 100 rad s–1 with its axis of rotation perpendicular to B. The
28. A metal rod of length l cuts across a uniform magnetic field maximum induced emf in it is
B with a velocity v. If the resistance of the circuit of which (a) 1.5pV (b) pV (c) 2pV (d) 0.5pV
the rod forms a part is r, then the force required to move the 36. A magnetic field of 2 × 10–2 T acts at right angles to a coil of
rod is area 100 cm2, with 50 turns. The average e.m.f. induced in
the coil is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field in t sec.
B2 l 2 v Blv B2 lv B2 l 2 v 2 The value of t is
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 10 s (b) 0.1 s (c) 0.01 s (d) 1 s
r r r r
37. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes
29. In an A.C. generator, when the plane of the armature is
by an amount Df in a time Dt. Then the total quantity of
perpendicular to the magnetic field electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during
(a) both magnetic flux and emf are maximum the time Dt is represented by
(b) both magnetic flux and emf are zero Df 1 Df
(c) both magnetic flux and emf are half of their respective (a) Q = R . (b) Q = .
Dt R Dt
maximum values
Df Df
(d) magnetic flux is maximum and emf is zero (c) Q = (d) Q =
R Dt
23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

RESPONSE 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
GRID 33. 34. 35. 36. 37.
EBD_7156
P-80 DPP/ CP20
38. Fig shown below represents an area A = 0.5 m 2 situated in a (a) current (b) voltage
uniform magnetic field B = 2.0 weber/m2 and making an angle (c) magnetic field (d) electric field
of 60º with respect to magnetic field. 42. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which
is directed into the paper. The magnetic field is increasing at
a constant rate. The directions of induced current in wires
B AB and CD are
60 (a) B to A and D to C
(b) A to B and C to D
(c) A to B and D to C
The value of the magnetic flux through the area would be
(d) B to A and C to D
equal to
43. Two different wire loops are concentric
(a) 2.0 weber (b) 3 weber and lie in the same plane. The current in
the outer loop (I) is clockwise and I
(c) 3 / 2 weber (d) 0.5 weber increases with time. The induced current
39. As a result of change in the magnetic flux in the inner loop
linked to the closed loop shown in the fig, an (a) is clockwise
e.m.f. V volt is induced in the loop. The work (b) is zero
done (joule) in taking a charge Q coulomb (c) is counter clockwise
once along the loop is (d) has a direction that depends on the ratio of the loop
(a) QV (b) 2QV (c) QV/2 (d) Zero radii.
40. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual 44. When current in a coil changes from 5 A to 2 A in 0.1 s,
inductance of the pair of coils depends upon average voltage of 50 V is produced. The self - inductance
(a) the rates at which currents are changing in the two of the coil is :
coils (a) 6 H (b) 0.67 H (c) 3 H (d) 1.67 H
(b) relative position and orientation of the two coils 45. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are placed
(c) the materials of the wires of the coils in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If
(d) the currents in the two coils R1>>R2, the mutual inductance M between them will be
41. When current i passes through an inductor of self directly proportional to
inductance L, energy stored in it is 1/2. L i 2. This is stored in (a) R1/R2 (b) R2/R1 (c) R12 / R2 (d) R22 / R1
the
RESPONSE 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

GRID 43. 44. 45.

Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score


Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP21
SYLLABUS : Alternating Current
1. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across R is 100 5. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2W is connected
volts and R = 1 kW with C = 2mF. The resonant frequency w to a source of voltage 2V. The current reaches half of its
is 200 rad/s. At resonance, the voltage across L is steady state value in
(a) 0.1 s (b) 0.05 s (c) 0.3 s (d) 0.15 s
(a) 2.5 × 10–2 V (b) 40 V 6. In an A.C. circuit, a resistance of R ohm is connected in
(c) 250 V (d) 4 × 10–3 V series with an inductance L. If phase angle between voltage
2. An alternating voltage V = V0 sin wt is applied across a and current be 45°, the value of inductive reactance will be
circuit. As a result, a current I = I0 sin (wt – p/2) flows in it. (a) R/4 (b) R/2 (c) R (d) R/5
The power consumed per cycle is 7. A bulb is rated at 100 V, 100 W, it can be treated as a resistor.
Find out the inductance of an inductor (called choke coil)
(a) zero (b) 0.5 V0I0
that should be connected in series with the bulb to operate
(c) 0.707 V0I0 (d) 1.414 V0I0 the bulb at its rated power with the help of an ac source of
3. For the circuit shown in the fig., the current through the 200 V and 50 Hz.
inductor is 0.9 A while the current through the condenser is p
H (b) 100 H (c) 2 3
0.4 A. Then (a) H (d) H
C 3 p p
(a) current drawn from
8. An ac source of angular frequency w is fed across a resistor
generator I = 1.13 A r and a capacitor C in series. The current registered is I. If
L
(b) w = 1/(1.5 L C) now the frequency of source is changed to w/3 (but
maintaining the same voltage), the current in the circuit is
(c) I = 0.5 A ~ found to be halved. The ratio of reactance to resistance at
(d) I = 0.6 A V = V0 sin wt
the original frequency w is
4. A capacitor has capacity C and reactance X. If capacitance
and frequency become double, then reactance will be 3 2 1 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 4X (b) X/2 (c) X/4 (d) 2X 5 5 5 5
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
EBD_7156
P-82 DPP/ CP21
9. Large transformers, when used for some time, become hot 16. The r.m.s. value of potential V
and are cooled by circulating oil. The heating of transformer difference V shown in the
figure is V0
is due to
(a) heating effect of current alone O t
(b) hysteresis loss alone T/2 T
(c) both the hysteresis loss and heating effect of current (a) V0 (b) V0 / 2 (c) V0/2 (d) V0 / 3
(d) none of the above 17. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(a) If the resonance is less sharp, not only is the
maximum current less, the circuit is close to resonance
10. An inductor of inductance L = 400 mH
for a larger range Dw of frequencies and the tuning
and resistors of resistance R1 = 2W E of the circuit will not be good.
and R2 = 2W are connected to a battery L
of emf 12 V as shown in the figure. (b) Less sharp the resonance less is the selectivity of
R
The internal resistance of the battery
1
the circuit or vice–versa.
is negligible. The switch S is closed at (c) If quality factor is large, i.e., R is low or L is large,
t = 0. The potential drop across L as a
R 2 the circuit is more selective.
function of time is S
(d) Below resonance, voltage leads the current while
`
above it, current leads the voltage.
12 -3t 18. A lamp consumes only 50% of peak power in an a.c. circuit.
(a) e V (b) 6(1 – e–t/0.2)V
t What is the phase difference between the applied voltage
(c) 12e–5t V (d) 6e–5t V and the circuit current?
11. An ideal coil of 10H is connected in series with a resistance p p p p
of 5W and a battery of 5V. 2second after the connection is (a) (b) (c) (d)
made, the current flowing in ampere in the circuit is 6 3 4 2
(a) (1 – e–1) (b) (1 – e) (c) e (d) e–1 19. A step down transformer reduces 220 V to 110 V. The primary
draws 5 ampere of current and secondary supplies 9 ampere.
12. In an A.C. circuit, the current flowing in inductance is
The efficiency of transformer is
I = 5 sin (100 t – p/2) amperes and the potential difference is
V = 200 sin (100 t) volts. The power consumption is equal to (a) 20% (b) 44% (c) 90% (d) 100%
20. The voltage time (V-t) graph for triangular wave having
(a) 1000 watt (b) 40 watt
peak value V0 is as shown in +V
(c) 20 watt (d) Zero figure.The rms value of V in 0
13. In an oscillating LC circuit the maximum charge on the time interval from t = 0 to T/4 is T/2
0 t
capacitor is Q. The charge on the capacitor when the energy T/4 T
is stored equally between the electric and magnetic field is V0
then find the value of x. –V0
x
Q Q Q
(a) (b) (c) (d) Q
2 3 2 (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 3
14. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q0 is connected 21. The tuning circuit of a radio receiver has a resistance of
to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0. The time at which the 50 W , an inductor of 10 mH and a variable capacitor. A
energy is stored equally between the electric and the 1 MHz radio wave produces a potential difference of
magnetic fields is: 0.1 mV. The values of the capacitor to produce resonance is
p (Take p2 = 10)
(a) LC (b) 2p LC (c) LC (d) p LC (a) 2.5 pF (b) 5.0 pF (c) 25 pF (d) 50 pF
4
15. For an LCR series circuit with an A.C. source of angular 22. In an alternating current circuit in which an inductance and
frequency w capacitance are joined in series, current is found to be
1 maximum when the value of inductance is 0.5 henry and the
(a) circuit will be capacitive if w > value of capacitance is 8µF. The angular frequency of applied
LC alternating voltage will be
1 (a) 5000 rad/sec (b) 4000 rad/sec
(b) circuit will be inductive if w = (c) 2 × 105 rad/sec (d) 500 rad/sec
LC 23. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20
(c) power factor of circuit will be unity if capacitive ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz,
reactance equals inductive reactance is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be
1 20
(d) current will be leading voltage if w > (a) 4.0 A (b) 8.0 A (c) A (d) 2.0 A
LC 13
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

RESPONSE
14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
GRID
19. 20. 21. 22. 23.
DPP/ CP21 P-83
24. In the figure shown, three AC V V 1 2 33. An LCR series circuit is connected to a source of alternating
voltmeters are connected. At current. At resonance, the applied voltage and the current
resonance R L C
flowing through the circuit will have a phase difference of
(a) V2 = 0 (b) V1 = 0 V p p
(a) p
3
(c) V3 = 0 (d) V1 = V2 ¹ 0 (b) (c) (d) 0

~
2 4
25. A.C. power is transmitted from a power house at a high 34. What is the value of inductance L for which the current is
voltage as maximum in a series LCR circuit with
(a) the rate of transmission is faster at high voltages
C = 10 µF and w = 1000s– 1 ?
(b) it is more economical due to less power loss (a) 1 mH
(c) power cannot be transmitted at low voltages (b) cannot be calculated unless R is known
(d) a precaution against theft of transmission lines (c) 10 mH
26. A transformer has an efficiency of 80%. It works at 4 kW
(d) 100 mH
and 100 V. If secondary voltage is 240 V, the current in primary
coil is 35. In the circuit of Fig, the bulb will become suddenly bright if
(a) 0.4 A (b) 4 A (c) 10 A (d) 40 A L B
27. A 12 W resistor and a 0.21 henry inductor are connected in
series to an a.c. source operating at 20 volt, 50 cycle. The
phase angle between the current and source voltage is
+ –
(a) 30º (b) 40º (c) 80º (d) 90º
B K
28. In LCR series circuit fed by a DC source, how does the
amplitude of charge oscillations vary with time during (a) contact is made or broken
discharge ? (b) contact is made
q q q
q
qo (c) contact is broken
(a) qo (b) (c) qo (d)
(d) won't become bright at all
O t O t
O t O t 36. The voltage of an ac source varies with time according to
29. The primary and secondary coil of a transformer have 50 the equation V = 100 sin 100 pt cos 100 pt where t is in
and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux f linked seconds and V is in volt. Then
with the primary coil is given by f = f0 + 4t, where f is in (a) the peak voltage of the source is 100 volt
webers, t is time in seconds and f0 is a constant, the output
(b) the peak voltage of the source is 50 volt
voltage across the secondary coil is
(a) 120 volts (b) 220 volts (c) the peak voltage of the source is 100 / 2 volt
(c) 30 volts (d) 90 volts (d) the frequency of the source is 50 Hz
30. The primary winding of a transformer has 100 turns and its 37. The current (I) in the inductance is varying with time
secondary winding has 200 turns. The primary is connected according to the plot shown in figure.
to an A.C. supply of 120 V and the current flowing in it is 10
A. The voltage and the current in the secondary are I
(a) 240 V, 5 A (b) 240 V, 10 A
(c) 60 V, 20 A (d) 120 V, 20 A T/2
31. The resistance in the following circuit is increased at a t T
10mH
particular instant. At this instant Which one of the following is the correct variation of voltage
the value of resistance is 10W. The i with time in the coil?
current in the circuit will be now
V
V
5V Rh
(a) i = 0.5 A (b) i > 0.5 A (c) i < 0.5 A (d) i = 0 (a) t (b)
T/2 T T/2 T
t
3
32. The current in a LR circuit builds up to th of its steady
4 V
V
state value in 4s. The time constant of this circuit is t
(c) (d)
1 2 3 4 T/2 t T T/2 T
(a) s (b) s (c) s (d) s
ln2 ln2 ln2 ln2
24. 25. 26. 27. 28.

RESPONSE 29. 30. 31. 32. 33.
GRID
34. 35. 36. 37.
EBD_7156
P-84 DPP/ CP21
38. Using an A.C. voltmeter the potential difference in the 42. An AC generator of 220 V having internal resistance r = 10W
electrical line in a house is read to be 234 volt. If the line and external resistance R = 100W. What is the power
frequency is known to be 50 cycles/second, the equation developed in the external circuit?
for the line voltage is (a) 484 W (b) 400 W (c) 441 W (d) 369 W
43. What is increased in step-down transformer?
(a) V = 165 sin (100 p t) (b) V = 331 sin (100 p t)
(a) Voltage (b) Current
(c) V = 220 sin (100 p t) (d) V = 440 sin (100 p t) (c) Power (d) Current density
V K
39. In the circuit shown, when the switch is closed, the capacitor 44. In the circuit shown below, the key
charges with a time constant C R K is closed at t = 0. The current L R 1
(a) RC through the battery is

R
(b) 2RC VR1R2 V 2
(a) at t = 0 and R at t = ¥
1 R 2 + R2
1 2
2
(c) RC
2 + V V ( R1 + R2 )
(b) at t = 0 and at t = ¥
B R2 R1 R2
(d) RC ln 2
V VR1R2
40. A 100 mF capacitor in series with a 40W resistance is (c) at t = 0 and at t = ¥
connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz supply. R2 R12 + R22
What is the maximum current in the circuit? V ( R1 + R2 ) V
(d) at t = 0 and at t = ¥
(a) 3.24 A (b) 4.25 A (c) 2.25 A (d) 5.20 A R1 R2 R2
41. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to 45. The inductance between A and D is
(a) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents
(b) make it light weight
(c) make it robust and strong A 3H 3H 3H D
(d) increase the secondary voltage
(a) 3.66 H (b) 9 H (c) 0.66 H (d) 1 H
RESPONSE 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

GRID 43. 44. 45.

Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score


Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP22
SYLLABUS : Electromagnetic Waves
1. An electromagnetic wave in vacuum has the electric and (b) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy
r r density.
magnetic field E and B , which are always perpendicular to
r (c) Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy
each other. The direction of polarization is given by X and density.
r
that of wave propagation by k . Then (d) Both electric and magnetic energy densities are zero.
r r r r r r r r r r 5. An electromagnetic wave with frequency w and wavelength
(a) X || B and k || B ´ E (b) X || E and k || E ´ B l travels in the + y direction. Its magnetic field is along + x-
r r r r r r r r r r axis. The vector equation for the associated electric field (of
(c) X || B and k || E ´ B (d) X || E and k || B ´ E
amplitudeE0) is
2. The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from
® æ 2p ö
the Sun is 720 N/C. The average total energy density of the (a) E = - E0 cos ç wt + y ÷ xˆ
electromagnetic wave is è l ø
(a) 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3 (b) 6.37 × 10–9 J/m3
® æ 2p ö
(c) 81.35 × 10–12 J/m3 (d) 3.3 × 10–3 J/m3 (b) E = E0 cos ç wt - y ÷ xˆ
3. In order to establish an instantaneous displacemet current è l ø
of 1 mA in the space between the plates of 2mF parallel ®
plate capacitor, the potential difference need to apply is æ 2p ö
(c) E = E0 cos ç wt - y÷ zˆ
(a) 100 Vs–1 (b) 200 Vs–1 (c) 300 Vs–1 (d) 500 Vs–1 è l ø
4. During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a ® æ 2p ö
medium: (d) E = - E0 cos ç wt + y÷ zˆ
è l ø
(a) Electric energy density is double of the magnetic
energy density.
EBD_7156
P-86 DPP/ CP22
6. An electromagnetic wave of frequency n = 3.0 MHz (a) 3 V/m (b) 6 V/m (c) 9 V/m (d) 12 V/m
14. Microwave oven acts on the principle of :
passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with (a) giving rotational energy to water molecules
permittivity Î = 4.0 . Then (b) giving translational energy to water molecules
(a) wavelength is halved and frequency remains (c) giving vibrational energy to water molecules
unchanged (d) transferring electrons from lower to higher energy
levels in water molecule
(b) wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
15. Displacement current is
(c) wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains
(a) continuous when electric field is changing in the circuit
unchanged
(b) continuous when magnetic field is changing in the
(d) wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.
circuit
7. The average electric field of electromagnetic waves in certain (c) continuous in both types of fields
region of free space is 9 × 10–4 NC–1. Then the average (d) continuous through wires and resistance only
magnetic field in the same region is of the order of 16. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave in vacuum is
r
(a) 27 × 10–4 T (b) 3 × 10–12 T given by E = iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 × 108t), where E, z and t are in
æ 1ö –12 volt/m, meter and seconds respectively. The value of wave
(c) ç ÷ ´ 10 T (d) 3 × 1012 T vector k is
è 3ø
8. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave travelling (a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1 (c) 6 m–1 (d) 3 m–1
through vaccum is given by the equation 17. The charge on a parallel plate capacitor varies as q = q0
E = E0 sin (kx – wt). The quantity that is independent of cos 2put. The plates are very large and close together
wavelength is (area = A, separation = d). The displacement current
k through the capacitor is
(a) kw (b) (c) k2 w (d) w (a) q0 2pu sinput (b) – q0 2pu sin2put
w (c) q0 2p sinput (d) q0 pu sin2put
9. The electric and the magnetic field associated with an E.M. 18. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly
wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface
r r r r r is (C = Velocity of light)
ˆ B = B ˆjù
(a) éë E = E 0 i, (b) éë E = E 0 k, B = B0î ùû
0 û
2E 2E E E
r r r r (a)
C
(b)
C2
(c)
C2
(d)
C
(c) éë E = E 0 ˆj, B = B0 iˆ ùû (d) éë E = E 0 ˆj,B = B0 kˆ ùû
19. Match List - I (Electromagnetic wave type) with List - II (Its
10. The energy of electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by association/application) and select the correct option from
the relation the choices given below the lists:
List 1 List 2
E2 B2 1 1 1. Infrared waves (i) To treat muscular strain
(a) + (b) e0E 2 + µ0B2
2e 0 2µ 0 2 2 2. Radio waves (ii) For broadcasting
3. X-rays (iii) To detect fracture of bones
E 2 + B2 1 B2 4. Ultraviolet rays (iv) Absorbed by the ozone layer
(c) (d) e0E 2 + of the atmosphere
c 2 2µ0
11. A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a plane surface 1 2 3 4
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
of area A, normally and is perfectly reflected. If energy E (b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
strikes the surface in time t then average pressure exerted (c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
on the surface is (c = speed of light) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) zero (b) E/Atc (c) 2E/Atc (d) E/c 20. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along
r
12. An electromagnetic wave travels along z-axis. Which of the X-direction. If the value of B (in tesla) at a particular point
following pairs of space and time varying fields would r
generate such a wave ? in space and time is 1.2 × 10–8 k̂. The value of E (in Vm–1)
(a) Ex, By (b) Ey, Bx (c) Ez, Bx (d) Ey, Bz at that point is
13. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic wave has
a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value of electric field strength (a) 1.2 ˆj (b) 3.6 kˆ (c) 1.2 kˆ (d) 3.6 ˆj
is :
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
DPP/ CP22 P-87
21. If vs, vx and vm are the speed of soft gamma rays, X-rays 29. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum depends
and microwaves respectively in vacuum, then upon the source of radiation. It
(a) vs > vx > vm (b) vs < vx < vm (a) increases as we move from g-rays to radio waves
(c) vs > vx < vm (d) vs = vx = vm (b) decreases as we move from g-rays to radio waves
22. Photons of an electromagnetic radiation has an energy (c) is same for all of them
11 keV each. To which region of electromagnetic spectrum (d) None of these
does it belong ? 30. When an electromagnetic waves enter the ionised layer of
(a) X-ray region (b) Ultra violet region ionosphere, the motion of electron cloud produces a space
current and the electric field has its own capacitative
(c) Infrared region (d) Visible region displacement current, then
23. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along (a) the space current is in phase of displacement current
x-axis. At a particular point in space, the electric field along
(b) the space current lags behind the displacement current
y-axis is 9.3 V m–1. The magnetic induction (B) along z-axis by a phase 180°.
is
(c) the space current lags behind the displacement current
(a) 3.1 × 10–8 T (b) 3 × 10–5 T by a phase 90°.
(c) 3 × 10–6 T (d) 9.3 × 10–6 T (d) the space current leads the displacement current by a
24. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of phase 90°.
electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in 31. The displacement current is
vacuum is equal to : eo
(a) e o d f E / dt (b) d f E / dt
(a) the speed of light in vacuum R
(b) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum (c) e o E / R (d) e o q C / R
(c) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric 32. Electromagnetic radiation of highest frequency is
susceptibility of vacuum (a) infrared radiations (b) visible radiation
(d) unity (c) radio waves (d) g-rays
25. A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material 33. A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an average
power output of 1500 W. The maximum value of electric field
surface. If the wave delivers momentum p and energy E, at a distance of 3m from this sources in Vm–1 is
then
500 250
(a) p = 0, E = 0 (b) p ¹ 0, E ¹ 0 (a) 500 (b) 100 (c) (d)
3 3
15
34. Frequency of a wave is 6 × 10 Hz. The wave is
(c) p ¹ 0, E = 0 (d) p = 0, E ¹ 0
(a) radiowave (b) microwave
26. Intensity of electromagnetic wave will be
(c) x-ray (d) ultraviolet
(a) I = cm 0 B20 / 2 (b) I = ce 0 B20 / 2 35. The electromagnetic waves do not transport
(a) energy (b) charge
(c) momentum (d) information
(c) I = B20 / cm 0 (d) I = E 02 / 2ce 0
36. Which of the following statement is false for the properties
27. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, of electromagnetic waves?
ultraviolet and gamma rays is (a) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the
(a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays maxima and minima at the same place and same time.
(b) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, micro-waves (b) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally
(c) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet between electric and magnetic vectors
(d) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays (c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to
28. Which radiation in sunlight, causes heating effect ? each other and perpendicular to the direction of
(a) Ultraviolet (b) Infrared propagation of wave
(c) Visible light (d) All of these (d) These waves do not require any material medium for
propagation.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

RESPONSE 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
GRID 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36.
EBD_7156
P-88 DPP/ CP22
37. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has minimum 42. Out of the following options which one can be used to
frequency ? produce a propagating electromagnetic wave ?
(a) Microwaves (b) Audible waves (a) A charge moving at constant velocity
(c) Ultrasonic wave (d) Radiowaves (b) A stationary charge
38. The wave impendance of free space is (c) A chargeless particle
(a) zero (b) 376.6 W (c) 33.66 W (d) 3.76 W (d) An accelerating charge
39. A plane electromagnetic
ur urwave in a non-magnetic dielectric 43. Radio waves of constant amplitude can be generated with
medium is given by E = E 0 (4 ´ 10 -7 x - 50t ) with distance (a) rectifier (b) filter
being in meter and time in seconds. The dielectric constant (c) F.E.T. (d) oscillator
of the medium is : 44. In an electromagnetic wave
(a) 2.4 (b) 5.8 (c) 8.2 (d) 4.8 (a) power is transmitted along the magnetic field
40. We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. (b) power is transmitted along the electric field
Which of the following statements is true? (c) power is equally transferred along the electric and
(a) the radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and magnetic fields
hence is not visible. (d) power is transmitted in a direction perpendicular to
both the fields
(b) the radiation emitted is in the infra-red region.
(c) the radiation is emitted only during the day. 45. If c is the speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum, its
speed in a medium of dielectric constant K and relative
(d) the radiation is emitted during the summers and
permeability µr is
absorbed during the winters.
41. In a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in space has 1
(a) v= (b) v = c mr K
an electric field of amplitude 9 × 103 V/m, then the amplitude mr K
of the magnetic field is
(a) 2.7 × 1012 T (b) 9.0 × 10–3 T c K
(c) v= (d) v=
(c) 3.0 × 10 T –4 (d) 3.0 × 10–5 T mr K mr C
RESPONSE 37. 38. 39. 40. 41.

GRID 42. 43. 44. 45.

Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score


Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP23
SYLLABUS : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
1. A double convex lens is made of glass which has its

refractive index 1.45 for violet rays and 1.50 for red rays. If
35°
the focal length for violet ray is 20cm, the focal length for 60°
(i) Glass (ii) Air
red ray will be Air 60° Water
(a) 9 cm (b) 18 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 22 cm 41°
A
2. If the refractive index of the material of a prism is cot
and
2 q
the angle of prism is A, then angle of minimum deviation is (iii) Glass
Water
p p 41°
(a) p - 2A (b) p - A (c) - 2A (d) -A
2 2 (a) 30° (b) 35° (c) 60° (d) 41°
3. If two + 5 diopter lenses are mounted at some distance apart, 5. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world
the equivalent power will always be negative if the distance contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of
is 4
water is and the fish is 12 cm below the surface, the
(a) greater than 40 cm (b) equal to 40 cm 3
radius of this circle in cm is
(c) equal to 10 cm (d) less than 10 cm
4. Refraction of light from air to glass and from air to water (a) 36 5 (b) 4 5 (c) 36 7 (d) 36/ 7
are shown in figure (i) and figure (ii) below. The value of 6. If fV and fR are the focal lengths of a convex lens for violet and
the angle q in the case of refraction as shown in figure red light respectively and FV and FR are the focal lengths of
(iii) will be concave lens for violet and red light respectively, then we have
(a) fV < fR and FV > FR (b) fV < fR and FV < FR
(c) fV > fR and FV > FR (d) fV > fR and FV < FR
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
RESPONSE GRID
6.
EBD_7156
P-90 DPP/ CP23
7. Spherical aberration in a lens : (a) 30 m (b) 60 m (c) 90 m (d) 120 m
(a) is minimum when most of the deviation is at first surface 16. A parallel beam of light is incident on the surface of a
(b) is minimum when most of the deviation is at the second transparent hemisphere of radius R and refractive index 2.0
surface as shown in figure. The position of the image formed by
(c) is minimum when the total deviation is equally distributed refraction at the first surface is :
over the two surfaces (a) R/2
(d) does not depend on the above considerations (b) R
8. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a (c) 2R
concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its
(d) 3R
end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The
length of the image is : 17. A lens made of glass whose index of refraction is 1.60 has a
focal length of + 20 cm in air. Its focal length in water, whose
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 2.5 cm (d) 5 cm
9. A telescope consists of two thin lenses of focal lengths, 0.3 refractive index is 1.33, will be
m and 3 cm respectively. It is focused on moon which (a) three times longer than in air
subtends an angle of 0.5° at the objective. Then the angle (b) two times longer than in air
subtended at the eye by the final image will be (c) same as in air
(a) 5° (b) 0.25° (c) 0.5° (d) 0.35° (d) None of these
10. The layered lens as shown is made of 18. A compound microscope has an eye piece of focal length 10
two types of transparent materials-one cm and an objective of focal length 4 cm. Calculate the
indicated by horizontal lines and the magnification, if an object is kept at a distance of 5 cm from
other by vertical lines. The number of the objective so that final image is formed at the least
images formed of an object will be distance vision (20 cm) :
(a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 13
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6
19. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence
11. A man’s near point is 0.5 m and far point is 3 m. Power of
60°, the angle of Prism A, angle of deviation d and angle of
spectacle lenses required for (i) reading purposes, (ii) seeing
emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of
distant objects, respectively, are
the prism is
(a) –2 D and + 3 D (b) +2 D and –3 D
(a) 1.73 (b) 1.15 (c) 1.5 (d) 1.33
(c) +2 D and –0.33 D (d) –2 D and + 0.33 D
20. A person can see clearly only upto a distance of 30 cm. He
12. A ray of light falls on a transparent glass slab of refractive
wants to read a book placed at a distance of 50 cm from his
index 1.62. If the reflected ray and the refracted ray are
eyes. What is the power of the lens of his spectacles ?
mutually perpendicular, the angle of incidence is
(a) –1.0 D (b) –1.33 D (c) –1.67 D (d) –2.0 D
æ 1 ö
tan -1 (1.62) tan -1 ç 21. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of a
è 1.62 ÷ø
(a) (b)
concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image produced is
æ 1 ö (a) real, inverted and smaller in size
tan -1 (1.33) tan -1 ç
è 1.33 ÷ø
(c) (d) (b) real, inverted and of same size
(c) real and erect
13. A telescope has an objective of focal length 100 cm and an
eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. What is the magnifying power (d) virtual and inverted
of the telescope when the final image is formed at the least 22. A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of refractive index
distance of distinct vision ? m1 and the other half is filled with water of refractive index
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 32 m2. The apparent depth of the vessel when viewed from
14. Which light rays undergoes two internal reflection inside above is
a raindrop, which of the rainbow is formed? x (m1 + m 2 ) xm1m 2
(a) Primary rainbow (b) Secondary rainbow (a) (b)
2m1m2 2(m1 + m2 )
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Can’t say
15. When a plane mirror is placed horizontally on a level ground xm1m2 2 x (m1 + m2 )
(c) (d)
at a distance of 60 m from the foot of a tower, the top of the (m1 + m 2 ) m1m2
tower and its image in the mirror subtend an angle of 90° at
the eye. The height of the tower will be
7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
RESPONSE 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
GRID 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.
22.
DPP/ CP23 P-91
23. The following figure 29. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that
shows refraction of light the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence
Medium 1 Medium 2 r2 Medium 3
at the interface of three r1 3
media Correct the order of and the latter is equal to th of angle of prism. The angle
r1 4
optical density (d) of the i1 of deviation is
media is (a) 25° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 35°
30. The power of a biconvex lens is 10 dioptre and the radius of
(a) d1 > d2 > d3 (b) d2 > d1 > d3 curvature of each surface is 10 cm. Then the refractive index
(c) d3 > d3 > d2 (d) d2 > d3 > d1 of the material of the lens is
24. Light travels in two media A and B with speeds 1.8 × 3 4 9 5
108 m s–1 and 2.4 × 108 m s–1 respectively. Then the critical (a) (b) (c) (d)
angle between them is 2 3 8 3
31. A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and
-1 æ 2 ö -1 æ 3 ö
(a) sin ç ÷ (b) tan ç ÷ then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index
3
è ø è 4ø 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be
æ 2ö æ 3ö moved to get the mark in focus again ?
(c) tan -1 ç ÷ (d) sin -1 ç ÷
è 3ø è 4ø (a) 4.5 cm downward (b) 1 cm downward
25. The refractive index of a glass is 1.520 for red light and (c) 2 cm upward (d) 1 cm upward
1.525 for blue light. Let D1 and D2 be angles of minimum 32. What causes chromatic aberration?
deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of (a) Marginal rays
this glass. Then, (b) Central rays
(a) D1 < D2 (b) D1 = D2 (c) Difference in radii of curvature of its surfaces
(c) D1 can be less than or greater than D2 depending upon (d) Variation of focal length of lens with colour
the angle of prism 33. The graph between angle of deviation (d) and angle of
(d) D1 > D2 incidence (i) for a triangular prism is represented by
26. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
(a) Working of optical fibre (a) (b)
(b) Difference between apparent and real depth of pond d d
(c) Mirage on hot summer days
(d) Brilliance of diamond
27. A body is located on a wall. Its image of equal size is to be o o
obtained on a parallel wall with the help of a convex lens. i i
The lens is placed at a distance 'd' ahead of second wall,
then the required focal length will be
(c) (d)
d d d
(a) only
4
d
(b) only
2 o o
d d i i
(c) more than but less than
4 2 34. The ratio of thickness of plates of two transparent medium
d A and B is 6 : 4. If light takes equal time in passing through
(d) less than
4 them, then refractive index of A with respect to B will be
28. A concave mirror forms the image of an object on a screen. (a) 1.33 (b) 1.75 (c) 1.4 (d) 1.5
If the lower half of the mirror is covered with an opaque 35. A rectangular block of glass is placed on a mark made on the
card, the effect would be to make the surface of the table and it is viewed from the vertical position
(a) image less bright. of eye. If refractive index of glass be m and its thickness d,
(b) lower half of the image disappear. then the mark will appear to be raised up by
(c) upper half of the image disappear.
(m + 1)d (m - 1)d (m + 1) (m - 1) m
(d) image blurred. (a) (b) (c) (d)
m m md d
23. 24. 25. 26. 27.
RESPONSE 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
GRID 33. 34. 35.
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P-92 DPP/ CP23
36. If a glass prism is dipped in water, its dispersive power 42. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with
(a) increases liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels upto the surface of
(b) decreases the liquid and moves along its surface. How fast is the light
(c) does not change travelling in the liquid?
(d) may increase or decrease depending on whether the 3 cm
angle of the prism is less than or greater than 60º
37. A planoconcave lens is placed Radius of
on a paper on which a flower is curvature =20cm
drawn. How far above its actual Air 4 cm
position does the flower appear µ=3/2
t=20cm
to be?
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm
Paper
(c) 50 cm (d) None of these coin
38. To get three images of a single object, one should have two (a) 2.4 × 108 m/s (b) 3.0 × 108 m/s
plane mirrors at an angle of (c) 1.2 × 108 m/s (d) 1.8 × 108 m/s
(a) 60º (b) 90º (c) 120º (d) 30º
43. A ray PQ incident on the refracting A
39. Light propagates with speed of 2.2 ´ 108 m / s and face BA is refracted in the prism
2.4 ´ 108 m / s in the media P and Q respectively. The critical 60° R
BAC as shown in the figure and Q
angle of incidence for light undergoing reflection from P emerges from the other refracting S
and Q is face AC as RS such that AQ = AR.
If the angle of prism A = 60° and the P B C
æ1ö
(b) sin -1 æç ö÷
11
(a) sin -1 ç ÷ refractive index of the material of prism is 3 , then the
è 11 ø 12
è ø angle of deviation of the ray is
-1 æ 5 ö -1 æ 5 ö (a) 60° (b) 45°
(c) sin ç ÷ (d) sin ç ÷
è 12 ø è 11 ø (c) 30° (d) None of these
40. A thin convergent glass lens (mg = 1.5) has a power of 44. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47
+ 5.0 D. When this lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of glass. This
index m, it acts as a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm. implies that the liquid must have refractive index.
The value of m must be (a) equal to that of glass
(a) 4/3 (b) 5/3 (c) 5/4 (d) 6/5 (b) less then one
41. A ray of light travelling inside a rectangular glass block of (c) greater than that of glass
refractive index 2 is incident on the glass-air surface at (d) less then that of glass
an angle of incidence of 45º. The refractive index of air is 45. If a thin prism of glass is dipped in water then minimum
one. Under these conditions the ray will deviation (with respect to air) of light produced by prism
(a) emerge into the air without any deviation æ 3 4ö
(b) be reflected back into the glass will be ç w µg = , aµ w = ÷
(c) be absorbed è 2 3ø
(d) emerge into the air with an angle of refraction equal 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
to 90º 5 4 2 3
RESPONSE 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

GRID 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score


Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP24
SYLLABUS : Wave Optics
1. In young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a (c) 5th order of 1st and 3rd order of 2nd
point on the screen where the path difference is l is I, l (d) 5th order of 1st and 7th order of 2nd
being the wavelength of light used. The intensity at a point 4. Figure shows behavior of a wavefront when it passes
l through a prism.
where the path difference is will be
4
I I A A’
(a) (b) (c) I (d) zero
4 2 Incident Refracted
2. A beam of light is incident on a A B wavefront wavefront
glass slab (m = 1.54) in a direction
B B’
as shown in the figure. The
reflected light is analysed by a 33° Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
33°
polaroid prism. On rotating the (a) Lower portion of wavefront (B’) is delayed resulting
polaroid, (tan 57° = 1.54) Glass slab
in a tilt.
(a) the intensity remains unchanged (b) Time taken by light to reach A’ is equal to the time
(b) the intensity is reduced to zero and remains at zero taken to reach B’ from B.
(c) the intensity gradually reduces to zero and then again (c) Speed of wavefront is same everywhere.
increase (d) A particle on wavefront A’ B’ is in phase with a
(d) the intensity increases continuously particle on wavefront AB.
3. Two sources of light of wavelengths 2500 Å and 3500 Å are 5. When the angle of incidence is 60° on the surface of a
used in Young’s double slit expt. simultaneously. Which glass slab, it is found that the reflected ray is completely
orders of fringes of two wavelength patterns coincide? polarised. The velocity of light in glass is
(a) 3rd order of 1st source and 5th of the 2nd (a) 2 ´ 108 ms -1 (b) 3 ´ 108 ms -1
(b) 7th order of 1st and 5th order of 2nd
(c) 2 ´ 108 ms -1 (d) 3 ´ 108 ms -1
EBD_7156
P-94 DPP/ CP24
6. Figure shows two coherent sources S1 and S2 vibrating in 12. On a rainy day, if there is an oil drop on tar road coloured
same phase. AB is an irregular wire lying at a far distance rings are seen around this drop. This is due to
l -3
(a) total internal reflection of light
from the sources S1 and S2. Let = 10 and ÐBOA = 0.12°. (b) polarisation
d
(c) diffraction pattern
How many bright spots will be seen on the wire, including
(d) interference pattern produced due to oil film
points A and B? A
S1 13. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity at a point
(a) 5
(b) 4 d O l
where the path difference (l – is wavelength of the light)
(c) 2 6
S2
(d) 7 B
I
7. Two identical light waves, propagating in the same direction, is I. If I0 denotes the maximum intensity, then is equal to
I0
have a phase difference d. After they superpose, the intensity
of the resulting wave will be proportional to 1
1 3 3
(a) cos d (b) cos (d/2) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) cos2 (d/2) (d) cos2 d 2 2 2 4
8. In YSDE, both slits are covered by transparent slab. Upper 14. According to Huygens, medium through which light
slit is covered by slab of R.I. 1.5 and thickness t and lower is waves travel is
(a) vacuum only (b) luminiferous ether
4
covered by R.I. and thickness 2t, then central maxima (c) liquid only (d) solid only
3
15. If we observe the single slit Fraunhofer diffraction with
(a) shifts in +ve y-axis direction y wavelength l and slit width b, the width of the central
(b) shifts in –ve y-axis direction maxima is 2q. On decreasing the slit width for the same l
x (a) q increases
(c) remains at same position
(b) q remains unchanged
(d) may shift in upward (c) q decreases
or downward depending upon wavelength of light (d) q increases or decreases depending on the intensity of
9. A beam of light of l = 600 nm from a distant source falls on light
a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern 16. Aperture of the human eye is 2 mm. Assuming the mean
is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between wavelength of light to be 5000 Å, the angular resolution
first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is limit of the eye is nearly
(a) 2 minute (b) 1 minute
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm
(c) 0.5 minute (d) 1.5 minute
(c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm
17. Unpolarised light is incident on a dielectric of refractive
10. A parallel beam of light of wavelength l is incident normally
on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on a screen index 3 . What is the angle of incidence if the reflected
placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. beam is completely polarised?
At the second minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase (a) 30° (b) 45°
difference between the rays coming from the two edges of
(c) 60° (d) 75°
slit is
18. The figure shows the
(a) pl (b) 2p Central bright
interference pattern obtained in fringe
(c) 3p (d) 4p
a double-slit experiment using
11. The diffraction effects in a microscopic specimen become
light of wavelength 600nm. 1, 2,
important when the separation between two points is
3, 4 and 5 are marked on five
(a) much greater than the wavelength of light used.
fringes. 12 3 4 5
(b) much less than the wavelength of light used.
The third order bright fringe is
(c) comparable to the wavelength of light used.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
(d) independent of the wavelength of light used.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID
16. 17. 18.
DPP/ CP24 P-95
19. Which of the following diagrams represent the variation of respectively. What is the actual distance of separation?
electric field vector with time for a circularly polarised (a) 12.5 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 13 cm (d) 14 cm
light ?
æ pö
(a) (b) (c) (d) 27. If two waves represented by y1 = 4 sin wt and y2 = ç wt + ÷
|E | |E | |E |
|E | è 3ø
t t t
interfere at a point, then the amplitude of the resulting wave
t
(a) (b)
20. With a monochromatic light, the fringe-width obtained in a
(d) will be about
Young’s double slit experiment is 0.133 cm. The whole set- (a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 3.5
up is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33, then the 28. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between
new fringe-width is the slits is halved and the distance between the slits and
(a) 0.133 cm (b) 0.1 cm screen is doubled. The fringe width will
(c) 1.33 cm (d) 0.2 cm (a) be halved (b) be doubled
21. The condition for obtaining secondary maxima in the (c) be quadrupled (d) remain unchanged
diffraction pattern due to single slit is 29. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a
single-slit diffraction pattern, the phase difference between
l
(a) a sin q = nl (b) a sin q = ( 2n - 1) the Huygen's wavelet from the edge of the slit and the
2 wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is :
nl
(c) a sin q = ( 2n - 1) l (d) a sin q = p
2 (a) radian (b) p radian
2
22. In double slit experiment, the angular width of the fringes is
p p
0.20° for the sodium light (l = 5890Å ) . In order to increase (c) radian (d) radian
8 4
the angular width of the fringes by 10%, the necessary
30. The central fringe of the interference pattern produced by
change in wavelength is
light of wavelength 6000Å is found to shift to the position
(a) zero (b) increased by 6479 Å
of 4th bright fringe after a glass plate of refractive index 1.5
(c) decreased by 589 Å (d) increased by 589 Å
is introduced in front of one of slits in Young's experiment.
23. In Young's double slit experiment with sodium vapour lamp
The thickness of the glass plate will be
of wavelength 589 nm and the slits 0.589 mm apart, the half
(a) 4.8 µm (b) 8.23 µm
angular width of the central maximum is (c) 14.98 µm (d) 3.78 µm
(a) sin–1 (0.01) (b) sin –1 (0.0001)
–1
(c) sin (0.001) (d) sin–1 (0.1) 31. Sodium light (l = 6 ´10 -7 m) is used to produce
24. The adjacent figure shows Fraunhoffer’s diffraction due to interference pattern. The observed fringe width is 0.12 mm.
a single slit. If first minimum is obtained in the direction The angle between two interfering wave trains, is
shown, then the path difference between rays 1 and 3 is
(a) 1 ´ 10 -3 rad (b) 1´10 -2 rad
(a) 0
1
(b) l / 4 2
(c) 5 ´ 10 -3 rad (d) 5 ´ 10 -2 rad
(c) l / 2 3 32. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed with blue
(d) l and with green light of wavelengths 4360Å and 5460Å
respectively. If x is the distance of 4th maxima from the central
one, then
25. A YDSE is conducted in water (µ1) as shown in figure. A (a) x (blue) = x (green) (b) x (blue) > x (green)
glass plate of thickness t and refractive index µ2 is placed in
x (blue) 5460
the path of S2. The optical path difference at O is (c) x (blue) < x (green) (d) =
(a) (m 2 - 1)t x (green) 4360
S1
(b) (m1 - 1)t
water µ1
33. If yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s double
O slit experiment is replaced by a monochromatic blue light of
æ m2 ö S
the same intensity
(c) ç - 1÷ t µ
S2 2
è m1 ø t
(a) fringe width will decrease
(d) (m 2 – m1 )t Screen
(b) finge width will increase
26. In a Fresnel biprism experiment, the two positions of lens (c) fringe width will remain unchanged
give separation between the slits as 16 cm and 9 cm (d) fringes will become less intense
19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

RESPONSE
GRID 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.
29. 30. 31. 32. 33.
EBD_7156
P-96 DPP/ CP24
34. When unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass plate at 39. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are separated by a
Brewster’s angle, then which of the following statements is small distance d as shown. The fringes obtained on the
correct? vertical screen will be :
(a) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised (a) points d
(b) straight bands S1 S2 screen
with their planes of polarization parallel to each other
(c) concentric circles D
(b) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised
(d) semicircles
with their planes of polarization perpendicular to each
40. In the phenomena of diffraction of light, when blue light is
other used in the experiment in spite of red light, then
(c) Reflected light is plane polarised but transmitted light (a) fringes will become narrower
is partially polarised (b) fringes will become broader
(d) Reflected light is partially polarised but refracted light (c) no change in fringe width
is plane polarised (d) None of these
35. The maximum number of possible interference maxima for 41. On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest
slit- separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young¢s near the ground and increases with height from the ground.
double-slit experiment is When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens'
(a) infinite (b) five (c) three (d) zero principle leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light
36. In the figure shown if a parallel beam :
beam of white light is incident (a) bends downwards
on the plane of the slits then (b) bends upwards
d 2d/3
the distance of the nearest O (c) becomes narrower
white spot on the screen from (d) goes horizontally without any deflection
O is d/A. Find the value of A. D 42. If I 0 is the intensity of the principal maximum in the single
(assume d << D, l << d] slit diffraction pattern, then what will be its intensity when
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4 the slit width is doubled?
37. Two light waves superimposing at the mid-point of the I0
(a) 4 I 0 (b) 2 I 0 (c) (d) I 0
screen are coming from coherent sources of light with 2
phase difference 3p rad. Their amplitudes are 1 cm each. 43. Conditions of diffraction is
The resultant amplitude at the given point will be. a a a
(a) =1 (b) >> 1 (c) << 1
(a) 5 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 2 cm (d) zero l l l
(d) None of these
38. Spherical wavefronts, emanating from a point source, strike
44. In Fresnel’s biprism expt., a mica sheet of refractive index 1.5
a plane reflecting surface. What will happen to these wave
and thickness 6 × 10–6 m is placed in the path of one of
fronts, immediately after reflection?
interfering beams as a result of which the central fringe gets
(a) They will remain spherical with the same curvature,
shifted through 5 fringe widths. The wavelength of light
both in magnitude and sign.
used is
(b) They will become plane wave fronts. (a) 6000 Å (b) 8000 Å (c) 4000 Å (d) 2000 Å
(c) They will remain spherical, with the same curvature, 45. Two nicols are oriented with their principal planes making
but sign of curvature reversed. an angle of 60º. Then the percentage of incident unpolarised
(d) They will remain spherical, but with different light which passes through the system is
curvature, both in magnitude and sign. (a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 12.5 (d) 37.5
34. 35. 36. 37. 38.

RESPONSE GRID 39. 40. 41. 42. 43.
44. 45.

Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score

Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP25
SYLLABUS : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
1. A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an 4. The maximum kinetic energy of the electrons hitting a target
electron moving with a velocity of 3×106 ms–1. The velocity so as to produce X-ray of wavelength 1 Å is
of the particle is: (a) 1.24 keV (b) 12.4 keV
(a) 2.7× 10–18 ms–1 (b) 9 × 10–2 ms–1 (c) 124 keV (d) None of these
(c) 3 × 10–31 ms–1 (d) 2.7×10–21 ms–1 5. An X-ray tube is operated at 15 kV. Calculate the upper limit
of the speed of the electrons striking the target.
2. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E.
The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them (a) 7.26 × 107 m/s (b) 7.62 × 109 m/s
is : (c) 7.62 × 107 cm/s (d) 7.26 × 109 m/s
1 1 6. A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies
1æ E ö2 æ E ö2 1.8 × 1014 Hz and 2.2 × 1014 Hz. Two identical photons of
(a) (b) ç
ç ÷
c è 2m ø è 2m ÷ø energy 0.825 eV each are incident on them. Then
photoelectrons are emitted in (Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
1 1 (a) B alone (b) A alone
1 æ 2m ö 2
(c) c(2mE) 2 (d) ç ÷ (c) neither A nor B (d) both A and B.
cè E ø
7. If E1, E2, E3 are the respective kinetic energies of an electron,
3. All electrons ejected from a surface by incident light of an alpha-particle and a proton, each having the same
wavelength 200nm can be stopped before travelling 1m in
de-Broglie wavelength, then
the direction of uniform electric field of 4N/C. The work
function of the surface is (a) E1 > E3 > E2 (b) E2 > E3 > E1
(a) 4 eV (b) 6.2 eV (c) 2 eV (d) 2.2 eV (c) E1 > E2 > E3 (d) E1 = E2 = E3
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
RESPONSE GRID
6. 7.
EBD_7156
P-98 DPP/ CP25
8. Which of the following when falls on a metal will emit 16. Which metal will be suitable for a photoelectric cell using
photoelectrons ? light of wavelength 4000Å. The work functions of sodium
(a) UV radiations (b) Infrared radiation and copper are respectively 2.0 eV and 4.0 eV.
(c) Radio waves (d) Microwaves (a) Sodium (b) Copper
9. The stopping potential (V 0 ) versus V0 (c) Both (d) None of these
frequency (v) plot of a substance is 2 17. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of
shown in figure, the threshold wavelength l incident on the surface of a metal of work-
wavelength is 1 function f is
(a) 5 × 1014m
2( hc + lf ) 2(hc + lf )
(b) 6000 Å (a) (b)
(c) 5000 Å
4 5 6 7 8 ml ml
v × 1014 Hz
(d) Cannot be estimated from given data 2( hc - lf ) 2(hl - f)
10. A material particle with a rest mass m0 is moving with speed (c) (d)
ml m
of light c. The de-Broglie wavelength associated is given 18. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, it’s deBroglie
by
wavelength changes by the factor
h m0c
(a) (b) (c) zero (d) ¥ 1 1
m0c h (a) 2 (b) (c) 2 (d)
2 2
11. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength
0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting 19. Radiations of two photon’s energy, twice and ten times the
electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow work function of metal are incident on the metal surface
light it emits per second is successsively. The ratio of maximum velocities of
(a) 1.5 × 1020 (b) 6 × 1018 photoelectrons emitted in two cases is
(c) 62 × 10 20 (d) 3 × 1019 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
12. A proton has kinetic energy E = 100 keV which is equal to 20. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed such that the
work function changes from W1 to W2 (W2 > W1). If the
that of a photon. The wavelength of photon is l2 and that
current before and after changes are I1 and I2, all other
of proton is l1. The ratio of l2/l1 is proportional to
conditions remaining unchanged, then (assuming hn > W2)
(a) E2 (b) E1/2 (c) E–1 (d) E–1/2 (a) I1 = I2 (b) I1 < I2
13. In photoelectric effect the work function of a metal is 3.5 eV. (c) I1 > I2 (d) I1 < I2 < 2 I1
The emitted electrons can be stopped by applying a potential 21. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on
of –1.2 V. Then hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state
(a) the energy of the incident photon is 4.7 eV irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential
(b) the energy of the incident photon is 2.3 eV is measured to be 3.57 V. The threshold frequency of the
(c) if higher frequency photon be used, the photoelectric materials is :
current will rise (a) 4 × 1015 Hz (b) 5 × 1015 Hz
(d) when the energy of photon is 3.5 eV, the photoelectric (c) 1.6 × 1015 Hz (d) 2.5 × 1015 Hz
current will be maximum 22. Photoelectric work function of a metal is 1eV. Light of
14. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds wavelength l = 3000 Å falls on it. The photo electrons come
to an energy of 6.2 eV and the stopping potential for a out with velocity
radiation incident on this surface is 5 V. The incident radiation (a) 10 metres/sec (b) 102 metres/sec
4
(c) 10 metres/sec (d) 106 metres/sec
lies in
23. When the energy of the incident radiation is incredased by
(a) ultra-violet region (b) infra-red region
20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from
(c) visible region (d) X-ray region a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work
15. When photons of energy hn fall on an aluminium plate (of function of the metal is :
work function E0), photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy (a) 0.65 eV (b) 1.0 eV (c) 1.3 eV (d) 1.5 eV
K are ejected. If the frequency of the radiation is doubled, 24. The maximum distance between interatomic lattice planes is
the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons 15 Å. The maximum wavelength of X-rays which are
will be diffracted by this crystal will be
(a) 2K (b) K (c) K + hn (d) K + E0 (a) 15 Å (b) 20 Å (c) 30 Å (d) 45 Å
8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
RESPONSE 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
GRID 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
23. 24.
DPP/ CP25 P-99
25. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential for a light of 30. X-rays are produced in X-ray tube operating at a given
frequency n 1 is V1. If light is replaced by another having a accelerating voltage. The wavelength of the continuous
frequency n 2 then its stopping potential will be X-rays has values from
(a) 0 to ¥
h h
(a) V1 -
e
( n 2 - n1 ) (b) V1 +
e
( n 2 + n1 ) (b) lmin to ¥, where lmin > 0
(c) 0 to lmax, where lmax < ¥
h h (d) lmin to lmax, where 0 < lmin < lmax < ¥
(c) V1 + ( n 2 - 2n1 ) (d) V1 + ( n 2 - n1 )
e e 31. Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by
26. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons ejected a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is increased to 100kV then
from a photocathode when it is irradiated with light of the de–Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons
wavelength 440nm is 1eV. If the threshold energy of the would
surface is 1.9eV, then which of the following statement
(a) increase by 2 times (b) decrease by 2 times
is/are incorrect?
(c) decrease by 4 times (d) increase by 4 times
(a) The threshold frequency for photo sensitive metal is
32. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of
4.6 × 1014Hz
electrons emitted from the electron gun can be increased by
(b) The minimum wavelength of incident light required for
(a) increasing the potential difference between the anode
photoemission is 6513 Å.
and filament
(c) The maximum wavelength of incident light required for
(b) increasing the filament current
photoemission is 6513 Å.
(c) decreasing the filament current
(d) The energy of incident photon is 2.9 eV.
(d) decreasing the potential difference between the anode
27. The work functions of metals A and B are in the raio 1 : 2.
and filament
If light of frequencies f and 2f are incident on the surfaces of
33. Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV,
A and B respectively, the ratio of the maximum kinetic
successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface of
energies of photoelectrons emitted is (f is greater than
work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of
threshold frequency of A, 2f is greater than threshold
the emitted electrons is :
frequency of B)
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 5
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4
34. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallic surface
28. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation
for frequencies v1 and v2 of the incident light rays (v1 > v2).
of maximum kinetic energy (EK) of the emitted electrons
If the maximum values of kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
with frequency u in photoelectric effect correctly ?
emitted in the two cases are in the ratio of 1 : k, then the
(a) EK (b) EK threshold frequency of the metallic surface is
v1 - v 2 kv1 - v 2
(a) (b)
k -1 k -1
u kv2 - v1 v2 - v1
u (c) (d)
k -1 k
35. Which of the following is/are false regarding cathode
EK
(c) EK (d) rays?
(a) They produce heating effect
(b) They don’t deflect in electric field
(c) They cast shadow
u (d) They produce fluorescence
u u0
36. The ratio of the respective de Broglie wavelengths
29. The potential difference that must be applied to stop the
associated with electrons accelerated from rest with the
fastest photoelectrons emitted by a nickel surface, having
voltages 100 V, 200 V and 300 V is
work function 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls
on it, must be: 1 1 1 1
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 4 : 9 (c) 1: : (d) 1: :
(a) 2.4 V (b) – 1.2 V (c) – 2.4 V (d) 1.2 V 2 3 2 3
25. 26. 27. 28. 29.

RESPONSE
30. 31. 32. 33. 34.
GRID
35. 36.
EBD_7156
P-100 DPP/ CP25
37. A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength (c) Work function of metal A is greater than that of metal B
5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons (d) Students data is not correct
from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the source is 41. White X-rays are called white due to the fact that
moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons (a) they are electromagnetic radiations having nature
liberated will be reduced by a factor of same as that of white light.
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 2 (d) 4 (b) they are produced most abundantly in X ray tubes.
38. In the photoeletric effect, electrons are emitted
(c) they have a continuous wavelength range.
(a) at a rate that is proportional to the amplitude of the (d) they can be converted to visible light using coated
incident radiation
screens and photographic plates are affected by
(b) with a maximum velocity proportional to the frequency them just like light.
of the incident radiation 42. The wavelength associated with an electron, accelerated
(c) at a rate that is independent of the emitter through a potential difference of 100 V, is of the order of
(d) only if the frequency of the incident radiations is above (a) 1000 Å (b) 100 Å (c) 10.5 Å (d) 1.2 Å
a certain threshold value 43. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is produced
39. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 3.3 × by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10–3 w. The number of
1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident on this photons emitted, on the average, by the sources per second
metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission is is
nearly (a) 5 × l 016 (b) 5 × 1017 (c) 5 × 1014 (d) 5 × 1015
(a) 2 V (b) 3 V (c) 5 V (d) 1 V 44. The de-Broglie wavelength of neutron in thermal
40. In an experiment on photoelectric effect, a student plots equilibrium at temperature T is
stopping potential V0 against reciprocal
30.8 3.08 0.308 0.0308
of the wavelength l of the incident V (a) Å (b) Å (c) Å (d)
Å
light for two different metals A and
0 Metal A
Metal B T T T T
B. These are shown in the figure. 45. Which of the following cannot be explained on the basis
of photoelectric theory?
1/l
(a) Instantaneous emission of photoelectrons
Looking at the graphs, you can most appropriately say that:
(b) Existence of threshold frequency
(a) Work function of metal B is greater than that of metal A
(c) Sufficiently intense beam of radiation can emit
(b) For light of certain wavelength falling on both metal, photoelectrons
maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted from A (d) Existence of stopping potential
will be greater than those emitted from B.
RESPONSE 37. 38. 39. 40. 41.

GRID 42. 43. 44. 45.
Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score


Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP26
SYLLABUS : Atoms
1. The potential energy associated with an electron in the orbit (a) 4 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
(a) increases with the increases in radii of the orbit 4. In Rutherford scattering experiment, the number of
(b) decreases with the increase in the radii of the orbit a-particles scattered at 60° is 5 × 106. The number of
(c) remains the same with the change in the radii of the orbit a-particles scattered at 120° will be
(d) None of these
2. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a 3
(a) 15 × 106 (b) × 106
certain atom. Which transition shown represents the 5
emission of a photon with the most energy? 5
(c) × 106 (d) None of these
n =4 9
n =3
5. In the Bohr model an electron moves in a circular orbit around
n =2 the proton. Considering the orbiting electron to be a circular
current loop, the magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom,
when the electron is in nth excited state, is :
n =1
I II III IV æ e n2 h ö æ e ö nh
(a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷
(a) IV (b) III (c) II (d) I ç 2m 2p ÷ è m ø 2p
3. Electrons in a certain energy level n = n1, can emit 3 spectral è ø
2
lines. When they are in another energy level, n = n 2. They æ e ö nh æ e ön h
(c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷
can emit 6 spectral lines. The orbital speed of the electrons è 2m ø 2p è m ø 2p
in the two orbits are in the ratio of

EBD_7156
P-102 DPP/ CP26
6. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous 14. One of the lines in the emission spectrum of Li2+ has the
hydrogen at room temperature. It will emit : same wavelength as that of the 2nd line of Balmer series in
(a) 2 lines in the Lyman series and 1 line in the Balmar hydrogen spectrum. The electronic transition corresponding
series to this line is n = 12 ® n = x. Find the value of x.
(b) 3 lines in the Lyman series (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 7 (c) 5
(c) 1 line in the Lyman series and 2 lines in the Balmar 257
15. If the atom 100Fm follows the Bohr model and the radius
series
(d) 3 lines in the Balmer series of 100Fm257 is n times the Bohr radius, then find n.
7. A Hydrogen atom and a Li++ ion are both in the second (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 4 (d) 1/4
excited state. If lH and lLi are their respective electronic 16. The energy of He+ in the ground state is – 54.4 eV, then the
angular momenta, and EH and ELi their respective energies, energy of Li++ in the first excited state will be
then (a) – 30.6 eV (b) 27.2 eV
(a) lH > lLi and |EH| > |ELi| (b) lH = lLi and |EH| < |ELi| (c) – 13.6 eV (d) – 27.2 eV
(c) lH = lLi and |EH| > |ELi| (d) lH < lLi and |EH| < |ELi| 17. If the angular momentum of an electron in an orbit is J then
8. The radius of hydrogen atom in its ground state is the K.E. of the electron in that orbit is
5.3 × 10–11 m. After collision with an electron it is found to J2 Jv J2 J2
have a radius of 21.2 × 10–11 m. What is the principal quantum (a) (b) (c) (d)
2mr 2 r 2m 2p
number n of the final state of the atom 18. Suppose an electron is attracted towards the origin by a
(a) n = 4 (b) n = 2 (c) n = 16 (d) n = 3
k
9. When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, its radius is force where ‘k’ is a constant and ‘r’ is the distance of the
(a) four times its ground state radius r
(b) twice electron from the origin. By applying Bohr model to this
(c) same system, the radius of the nth orbital of the electron is found
(d) half to be ‘rn’ and the kinetic energy of the electron to be ‘Tn’.
10. Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (Helium), using non-relativistic Then which of the following is true?
approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be [given K 1 2
= 9 × 109 constant, Z = 2 and h (Plank's Constant) (a) Tn µ 2 , rn µ n (b) Tn independent of n, rn µ n
n
= 6.6 × 10–34 J s]
(a) 1.46 × 106 m/s (b) 0.73 × 106 m/s 1 1
8
(c) Tn µ , rn µ n (d) Tn µ , rn µ n 2
(c) 3.0 × 10 m/s (d) 2.92 × 106 m/s n n
11. An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state 19. In Hydrogen spectrum, the wavelength of Ha line is 656 nm,
n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted illuminates whereas in the spectrum of a distant galaxy, Ha line
a photosensitive material having work function 2.75 eV. If wavelength is 706 nm. Estimated speed of the galaxy with
the stopping potential of the photoelectron is 10 V, the value respect to earth is
of n is (a) 2 × 108 m/s (b) 2 × 107m/s
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2 (c) 2 × 106 m/s (d) 2 × 105 m/s
12. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an 20. In the hydrogen atom, an electron makes a transition from
n = 2 to n = 1. The magnetic field produced by the circulating
excited state to the ground state. Which of the following
electron at the nucleus
statements is true? (a) decreases 16 times (b) increases 4 times
(a) Its kinetic energy increases and its potential energy (c) decreases 4 times (d) increases 32 times
decreases. 21. What is the radius of iodine atom (At. no. 53, mass no. 126)
(b) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases. (a) 2.5 × 10–11 m (b) 2.5 × 10–9 m
(c) Its kinetic and its potential energy increases. (c) 7 × 10–9 m (d) 7 × 10–6 m
(d) Its kinetic, potential energy decrease. 22. When an a-particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v'
13. An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one of the bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze', its distance of
electrons from a neutral helium atom. The energy in (eV) closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as :
required to remove both the electrons from a neutral helium
1 1 1
atom is (a) (b) (c) (d) m
(a) 38.2 (b) 49.2 (c) 51.8 (d) 79.0 m m m2
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
RESPONSE 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
GRID 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22.
DPP/ CP26 P-103
23. The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom (c) uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation
in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited to higher (d) predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms
energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum 30. The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the
wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to the hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The smallest wavelength in
transition between the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest
(a) n = 3 to n = 1 states (b) n = 2 to n = 1 states integer) is
(c) n = 4 to n = 3 states (d) n = 3 to n = 2 states (a) 802 nm (b) 823 nm (c) 1882 nm (d) 1648 nm
24. The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of deuterium 31. A doubly ionised Li atom is excited from its ground state(n
( )
2
1D are slightly different from that of hydrogen spectrum,
= 1) to n = 3 state. The wavelengths of the spectral lines are
given by l32, l31 and l21. The ratio l32/l31 and l21/l31
because are, respectively
(a) the size of the two nuclei are different (a) 8.1, 0.67 (b) 8.1, 1.2
(b) the nuclear forces are different in the two cases (c) 6.4, 1.2 (d) 6.4, 0.67
(c) the masses of the two nuclei are different 32. In Rutherford scattering experiment, what will be the correct
(d) the attraction between the electron and the nucleus is angle for a-scattering for an impact parameter, b = 0 ?
differernt in the two cases (a) 90° (b) 270° (c) 0° (d) 180°
25. An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition n1 ® n2 33. Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (Helium), using non-relativistic
where n1 and n2 are principal quantum numbers of the two approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be [given
states. Assuming Bohr’s model to be valid the time period K = 9 × 109 constant, Z = 2 and h (Plank's Constant)
of the electron in the initial state is eight times that in the = 6.6 × 10–34 J s]
final state. The possible values of n1 and n2 are (a) 1.46 × 106 m/s (b) 0.73 × 106 m/s
(a) n1 = 4 and n2 = 2 (b) n1 = 6 and n2 = 2 (c) 3.0 × 108 m/s (d) 2.92 × 106 m/s
(c) n1 = 8 and n2 = 1 (d) n1 = 8 and n2 = 2 34. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Following
Bohr’s theory, the energy corresponding to a transition
26. Ina hydrogen like atom electronmake transition from an
between 3rd and 4th orbit is
energy level with quantum number n to another with quantum (a) 3.40 eV (b) 1.51 eV (c) 0.85 eV (d) 0.66 eV
number (n – 1). If n>>1, the frequency of radiation emitted is 35. The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like
proportional to : atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will
1 1 1 1 be obtained in the transition from :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
n n 2
n 3
n3 (a) 2 ® 1 (b) 3 ® 2 (c) 4 ® 2 (d) 4 ® 3
2 36. Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107m–1, the wave
27. The spectrum obtained from a sodium vapour lamp is an number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen
example of spectrum will be :
(a) band spectrum (a) 0.025 × 104 m–1 (b) 0.5 × 107 m–1
(c) 0.25 × 10 m 7 –1 (d) 2.5 × 107 m–1
(b) continuous spectrum
(c) emission spectrum 37. Which of the plots shown in the figure represents speed
(d) absorption spectrum (vn) of the electron in a hydrogen atom as a function of the
28. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6eV. Hydrogen principal quantum number (n)?
atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic A C
radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s
theory, the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen will be vn
(a) three (b) four (c) one (d) two D
29. The Bohr model of atoms
(a) predicts the same emission spectra for all types of
B
atoms
o 1 2 3 4 n
(b) assumes that the angular momentum of electrons is
quantised (a) B (b) D (c) C (d) A
23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

RESPONSE
28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
GRID
33. 34. 35. 36. 37.
EBD_7156
P-104 DPP/ CP26
38. The ionisation potential of H-atom is 13.6 V. When it is excited 42. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of
from ground state by monochromatic radiations of 970.6 Å, charge Z1 and mass M1approaches a target nucleus of
the number of emission lines will be (according to Bohr’s charge Z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach
theory) is r0. The energy of the projectile is
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4 (a) directly proportional to Z1 Z2
39. The energy of hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En, then the
(b) inversely proportional to Z1
energy in nth orbit of single ionised helium atom will be
(a) 4En (b) En/4 (c) 2En (d) En/2 (c) directly proportional to mass M1
(d) directly proportional to M1 × M2
40. In the Rutherford experiment, a-particles are scattered from
43. The wavelength of the first spectral line in the Balmer series
a nucleus as shown. Out of the four paths, which path is not
possible? of hydrogen atom is 6561 A°. The wavelength of the second
spectral line in the Balmer series of singly-ionized helium
A atom is
o o o o
(a) 1215 A (b) 1640 A (c) 2430 A (d) 4687 A
B 44. If u1 is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman series,
u2 is the frequency of the first line of Lyman series and
C u3 is the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer series
D then
(a) u1 - u2 = u3 (b) u1 = u2 - u3
(a) D (b) B (c) C (d) A 1 1 1 1 1 1
41. An electron changes its position from orbit n = 2 to the orbit (c) = + (d) = +
n = 4 of an atom. The wavelength of the emitted radiations is u2 u1 u3 u1 u2 u3
(R = Rydberg’s constant) 45. In a hypothetical Bohr hydrogen atom, the mass of the electron
16 16 16 16 is doubled. The energy E¢0 and radius r¢0 of the first orbit will
(a) (b) (c) (d) be (r0 is the Bohr radius)
R 3R 5R 7R
(a) –11.2 eV (b) –6.8 eV (c) –13.6 eV (d) –27.2 eV
RESPONSE 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

GRID 43. 44. 45.

Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score


Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP27
SYLLABUS : Nuclei
1. The mass of a 37 Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of 6. The radioactivity of a sample is R1 at a time T1 and R2 at a
the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per time T2. If the half-life of the specimen is T, the number of
atoms that have disintegrated in the time (T1 – T2 ) is
nucleon of 37 Li nucleus is nearly proportional to
(a) 46 MeV (b) 5.6 MeV
(c) 3.9 MeV (d) 23 MeV (a) (R1T1 – R2T2) (b) (R1 – R2)
2. In the nuclear decay given below: (c) (R1 – R2)/T (d) (R1 – R2) T
A A– 4 A -4
A
® Z-1 B* 7. In the reaction, 12 H + 13 H 4 1
2 He + 0 n
, if the binding
Z X ¾¾
® Z + 1Y ¾¾ ¾¾ ® Z -1B,
the particles emitted in the sequence are
(a) g, b, a (b) b, g, a energies of 12 H , 13 H and 42 He are respectively, a, b and c
(c) a, b, g (d) b, a, g (in MeV), then the energy (in MeV) released in this reaction
3. If the nuclear radius of 27Al is 3.6 Fermi, the approximate
nuclear radius of 64Cu in Fermi is : is
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2 (c) 4.8 (d) 3.6 (a) a + b + c (b) a + b – c
4. Which of the following statements is true for nuclear forces? (c) c – a – b (d) c + a – b
(a) they obey the inverse square law of distance 8. If M (A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus
(b) they obey the inverse third power law of distance A
Z X, proton and neutron respectively in units of u ( 1u =
(c) they are short range forces 931.5 MeV/c2) and BE represents its bonding energy in
(d) they are equal in strength to electromagnetic forces. MeV, then
5. A radioactive sample at any instant has its disintegration (a) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn –BE/c2
rate 5000 disintegrations per minute. After 5 minutes, the (b) M (A, Z) = ZMp+ ( A–Z) Mn + BE
rate is 1250 disintegrations per minute. Then, the decay
constant (per minute) is (c) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE
(a) 0.4 ln 2 (b) 0.2 ln 2 (c) 0.1 ln 2(d) 0.8 ln 2 (d) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z)Mn + BE/c2
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
EBD_7156
P-106 DPP/ CP27
9. How does the binding energy per nucleon vary with the 16. Which of the following nuclear reactions is not possible?
increase in the number of nucleons? 12 12 20
(a) Increases continuously with mass number (a) 6C+ 6 C ¾¾
® 10 Ne + 42 He
(b) Decreases continuously with mass number
9 1
(c) First decreases and then increases with increase in mass (b) 4 Be + 1H ® 63 Li + 42 He
¾¾
number 11 1
(d) First increases and then decreases with increase in mass (c) 5 Be + 1H ® 94 Be + 42 He
¾¾
number
7 4
10. The energy spectrum of b-particles [Number N(E) as a (d) ® 11H + 104 B
3 Li + 2 He ¾¾
function of b-energy E] emitted from a radioactive source is
TA
(a) (b) 17. The ratio of half-life times of two elements A and B is .
N(E) N(E)
TB
lA
E The ratio of respective decay constant , is
E0
E0
E
lB
(c) (d) (a) TB / TA (b) TA / TB
N(E) N(E) TA + TB TA - TB
(c) (d)
TA TA
E E
E0 E0 18. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants
11. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decay according 10l and l respectively. If initially they have the same number
to the scheme of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that
a b a g of X2 will be 1/e after a time
A ¾¾ ® A1 ¾¾ ® A 2 ¾¾ ® A 3 ¾¾ ® A4
(a) 1/10l (b) 1/11l
If the mass number and atomic number of ‘A’ are 180 and 72 (c) 11/10l (d) 1/9l
respectively, then what are these numbers for A4 19. In a radioactive material the activity at time t1 is R1 and at a
(a) 172 and 69 (b) 174 and 70 later time t2, it is R2. If the decay constant of the material is
(c) 176 and 69 (d) 176 and 70 l, then
12. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as 9750
counts per minute at t = 0 and as 975 counts per minute at (a) R1 = R2 e l (t1 -t2 ) (b) R1 = R2 e(t2 / t1 )
t = 5 minutes. The decay constant is approximately
(a) 0.922 per minute (b) 0.691 per minute (c) R1 = R2 (d) R1 = R2 e -l (t1 -t2 )
(c) 0.461 per minute (d) 0.230 per minute 20. The correct relation between t av = average life and
13. Actinium 231, 231 AC89, emit in succession two b particles, t 1/2 = half life for a radioactive nuclei.
four a-particles, one b and one a plus several g rays. What 1
is the resultant isotope? (a) t av = t 1/2 (b) t av = t
2 1/2
(a) 221 Au 79 (b) 211 Au 79 (c) 0.693 t av = t 1/2 (d) t av = 0.693 t 1/2
(c) 221 Pb 82 (d) 211 Pb82 21. If the nuclear force between two protons, two neutrons and
14. Fusion reactions take place at high temperature because between proton and neutron is denoted by Fpp, Fnn and Fpn
(a) atoms are ionised at high temperature respectively, then
(b) molecules break up at high temperature (a) Fpp » Fnn » Fpn (b) Fpp ¹ Fnn and Fpp = Fnn
(c) nuclei break up at high temperature
(d) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion (c) Fpp = Fnn = Fpn (d) Fpp ¹ Fnn ¹ Fpn
between nuclei 22. Which one is correct about fission?
15. If MO is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8 O17 ,MP and MN (a) Approx. 0.1% mass converts into energy
(b) Most of energy of fission is in the form of heat
are the masses of a proton and a neutron respectively, the (c) In a fission of U 23 5 about 200 eV energy is
nuclear binding energy of the isotope is released
(a) (MO –17MN)c2 (b) (MO – 8MP)c2
(d) On an average, one neutron is released per
(c) (MO– 8MP –9MN)c2 (d) MOc 2
fission of U235
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

RESPONSE
14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
GRID
19. 20. 21. 22.
DPP/ CP27 P-107

23. If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of a single U235 30. If the end A of a wire is irradiated with a-rays and the other
nucleus, the number of fissions required per second to end B is irradiated with b-rays. Then
produce 1 kilowatt power shall be (Given 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J) (a) a current will flow from A to B
(a) 3.125 × 1013 (b) 3.125 × 1014 (b) a current will flow from B to A
(c) 3.125 × 10 15 (d) 3.125 × 1016 (c) there will be no current in the wire
24. In any fission process, the ratio of (d) a current will flow from each end to the mid-point of
mass of fission products the wire
is
mass of parent nucleus 31. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency
(a) equal to 1 n and the nucleus recoils. The recoil energy will be
(b) greater than 1 (a) Mc2 – hn (b) h2n2 / 2Mc2
(c) less than 1 (c) zero (d) hn
(d) depends on the mass of the parent nucleus 32. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide. The
25. In an a-decay the kinetic energy of a-particle is 48 MeV and rate of decay of reactant is correctly depicted by
Q-value of the reaction is 50 MeV. The mass number of the N N N N
mother nucleus is X. Find value of X/25.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(Assume that daughter nucleus is in ground state) t t t t
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
33. A nucleus of mass M + Dm is at rest and decays into two
26. A sample of radioactive element has a mass of 10gm at an
instant t=0. The approximate mass of this element in the M
daughter nuclei of equal mass each. Speed of light is c.
sample after two mean lives is 2
(a) 6.30 gm (b) 1.35 gm The speed of daughter nuclei is
(c) 2.50 gm (d) 3.70 gm
27. Consider a radioactive material of half-life 1.0 minute. If one Dm 2 Dm Dm Dm
(a) c (b) c (c) c (d) c
of the nuclei decays now, the next one will decay M + Dm M M M + Dm
(a) after 1 minute 34. Atomic weight of Boron is 10.81 and it has two isotopes
1
(b) after log 2 minute 5B
10 and
5B
11 .Then the ratio 5 B10 :5 B11 in nature would
e
be
1 (a) 19 : 81 (b) 10 : 11 (c) 15 : 16 (d) 81 : 19
(c) after minute, where N is the number of nuclei present
N 35. A nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts, which have their
at that moment
velocity ratio equal to 2:1. What will be the ratio of their
(d) after any time
nuclear size (nuclear radius)?
28. The mass of a-particle is
(a) less than the sum of masses of two protons and two (a) 21/3 : 1 (b) 1 : 21/3 (c) 31/2 : 1 (d) 1 : 31/2
neutrons 36. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium
and helium. Then :
(b) equal to mass of four protons (a) the helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium
(c) equal to mass of four neutrons nucleus.
(d) equal to sum of masses of two protons and two neutron (b) the helium nucleus has more momentum than the
29. The decay constants of a radioactive substance for a and b thorium nucleus.
emission are la and lb respectively. If the substance emits (c) the helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the
a and b simultaneously, then the average half life of the thorium nucleus.
material will be (d) the helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the
thorium nucleus.
2Ta Tb 27
37. If radius of the 12 Al nucleus is taken to be RAl, then the
(a) Ta + Tb (b) Ta + Tb
125
radius of 53 Te nucleus is nearly:
Ta Tb 1
( )
1/3 1/3
5 3
R Al (c) æç ö÷ R Al (d) æç ö÷ R Al
(c) (d) Ta + Tb 13 53
Ta + Tb (a) R Al (b)
2 3 5 è 53 ø è 13 ø
23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

RESPONSE 28. 28. 29. 30. 31.
GRID 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
37.
EBD_7156
P-108 DPP/ CP27
38. M n an d M p represent mass of neutron and proton 2 4 56 235
42. If the total binding energies of 1 H, 2 He, 26 Fe & 92 U
respectively. If an element having atomic mass M has N-
neutron and Z-proton, then the correct relation will be nuclei are 2.22, 28.3, 492 and 1786 MeV respectively, identify
(a) M < [NMn + ZMp] (b) M > [NMn + ZMp] the most stable nucleus of the following.
(c) M = [NMn + ZMp] (d) M = N[Mn + Mp] (a) 56 (b) 2
26 Fe 1H
39. After 300 days, the activity of a radioactive sample is 5000
(c) 235 (d) 4
dps (disintegrations per sec). The activity becomes 2500 92 U 2 He
dps after another 150 days. The initial activity of the sample 43. At a specific instant emission of radioactive compound is
in dps is deflected in a magnetic field. The compound cannot emit
(a) 20,000 (b) 10,000 (a) electrons (b) protons
(c) 7,000 (d) 25,000 (c) He2+ (d) neutrons
40. Order of magnitude of density of uranium nucleus is 44. A nuclear reaction is given by
(mp = 1.67 × 10–27 kg)
A
(a) 1020 kg / m3 (b) 1017 kg / m3 ZX ® Z+1Y A + -1 e 0 + n , represents
14
(c) 10 kg / m 3 (d) 1011 kg / m3 (a) fission (b) b-decay
41. The electrons cannot exist inside the nucleus because (c) µ-decay (d) fusion
(a) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in b- 45. Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8 l' and material
decay is much less than the size of nucleus 'B' has decay constant 'l'. Initially they have same number
(b) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in b- of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of
decay is much greater than the size of nucleus 1
material 'B' to that 'A' will be ?
(c) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in b- e
decay is equal to the size of nucleus 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) negative charge cannot exist in the nucleus 7l 8l 9l l
RESPONSE 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

GRID 43. 44. 45.

Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score


Chapter-wise Sheets
PHYSICS CP28
SYLLABUS : Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
1. A change of 8.0 mA in the emitter current bring a change of A

7.9 mA in the collector current. The values of parameters a B
and b are respectively
(a) 0.99, 90 (b) 0.96,79 (c) 0.97,99 (d) 0.99,79
2. A pure semiconductor has equal electron and hole V
concentration of 1016 m–3. Doping by indium increases Lamp
number of hole concentration n h to 5 × 1022 m–3. Then, the
value of number of electron concentration n e in the doped (a) NAND gate (b) OR gate
semiconductor is (c) NOR gate (d) AND gate
(a) 106/m3 (b) 1022/m3 6. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region
(c) 2 × 106/m3 (d) 2 × 109/m3 to n-region because of
3. For LED’s to emit light in visible region of electromagnetic (a) the potential difference across the p-n junction
light, it should have energy band gap in the range of: (b) the attraction of free electrons of n-region
(a) 0.1 eV to 0.4 eV (b) 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV (c) the higher hole concentration in p-region than that in
(c) 0.9 eV to 1.6 eV (d) 1.7 eV to 3.0 eV n-region
(d) the higher concentration of electrons in the n-region
4. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input
than that in the p-region
impedance of 100W and an output impedance of 200W. The 7. A silicon diode has a threshold voltage of 0.7 V. If an input
power gain of the amplifier is voltage given by 2 sin(pt) is supplied to a half wave rectifier
(a) 1000 (b) 1250 (c) 100 (d) 500 circuit using this diode, the rectified output has a peak
5. Which logic gate with inputs A and B performs the same value of
operation as that performed by the following circuit? (a) 2 V (b) 1.4 V (c) 1.3 V (d) 0.7 V
6. 7.
EBD_7156
P-110 DPP/ CP28
8. The current gain for a transistor working as common-base (a) A B Y (b) A B Y
amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter current is 7.2 mA, then the 0 0 1 0 0 0
base current is 0 1 0 0 1 0
(a) 0.29 mA (b) 0.35 mA (c) 0.39 mA (d) 0.43 mA 1 0 0 1 0 1
9. In a npn transistor 1010 electrons enter the emitter in 1 1 1 1 1 0
10–6 s. 4% of the electrons are lost in the base. The current (c) (d) A B Y
A B Y
transfer ratio will be 0 0 1 0 0 1
(a) 0.98 (b) 0.97 (c) 0.96 (d) 0.94 0 1 0 0 1 1
10. Assuming that the silicon diode having resistance of 1 0 1 1 0 0
20 W, the current through the diode is (knee voltage 0.7 V) 1 1 0 1 1 0
R =180W 18. The intrinsic conductivity of germanium at 27° is 2.13 mho
m–1 and mobilities of electrons and holes are 0.38 and 0.18
2V 0V m2V–1s–1 respectively. The density of charge carriers is
(a) 0 mA (b) 10 mA (c) 6.5 mA (d) 13.5 mA (a) 2.37 × 1019 m–3 (b) 3.28 × 1019 m–3
11. Transfer characteristics [output 19
(c) 7.83 × 10 m –3 (d) 8.47 × 1019 m–3
V I II
voltage (V0) vs input voltage (Vi)] 0 III 19. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms
for a base biased transistor in CE ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the correct output
configuration is as shown in the waveform
figure. For using transistor as a
A
switch, it is used Vi Y
(a) in region III
(b) both in region (I) and (III) B
(c) in region II Input A
(d) in region (I)
12. A half-wave rectifier is being used to rectify an alternating
voltage of frequency 50 Hz. The number of pulses of rectified Input B
current obtained in one second is
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 100 (d) 2000
13. A diode having potential difference 0.5 V across its junction Output is
which does not depend on current, is connected in series
with resistance of 20W across source. If 0.1 A current passes (a)
through resistance then what is the voltage of the source?
(a) 1.5 V (b) 2.0 V (c) 2.5 V (d) 5 V (b)
14. In common emitter amplifier, the current gain is 62. The collector
resistance and input resistance are 5 kW an 500W respectively.
If the input voltage is 0.01V, the output voltage is (c)
(a) 0.62 V (b) 6.2 V (c) 62 V (d) 620 V
15. On doping germanium with donor atoms of density
1017 cm–3 its conductivity in mho/cm will be (d)
[Given : me = 3800 cm2/V–s and ni = 2.5 × 1013 cm–13] 20. Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh)
(a) 30.4 (b) 60.8 (c) 91.2 (d) 121.6 concentrations of 1.5 × 1016 m–3. Doping by indium increases
16. The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9% negative feedback nh to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is of
is 10. The voltage gain without feedback will be (a) n–type with electron concentration n e = 5 × 1022 m–3
(a) 90 (b) 10 (c) 1.25 (d) 100 (b) p–type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 ×1010 m–3
17. A system of four gates is set up as shown. The ‘truth table’ (c) n–type with electron concentration n e = 2.5 × 1023 m–3
corresponding to this system is : (d) p–type having electron concentration n e = 5 × 109 m–3
A
21. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decrease
with increase of temperature
Y (b) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities give p-type
semiconductors
(c) The majority carriers in n-type semiconductors are holes
B (d) A p-n junction can act as a semiconductor diode
8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

RESPONSE 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
GRID 18. 19. 20. 21.
DPP/ CP28 P-111

22. The relation between number of free electrons (n) in a (c) number of electrons and holes remain same
semiconductor and temperature (T) is given by (d) number of electrons and holes increases equally.
(a) n µ T (b) n µ T2 (c) n µ T (d) n µ T3/2 30. The ratio of electron and hole currents in a semiconductor
23. If a PN junction diode of depletion layer width W and barrier is 7/4 and the ratio of drift velocities of electrons and holes
height V0 is forward biased, then is 5/4, then the ratio of concentrations of electrons and holes
(a) W increases, V0 decreases will be
(b) W decreases, V0 increases (a) 5/7 (b) 7/5 (c) 25/49 (d) 49/25
(c) both W and V0 increase 31. C and Si both have same lattice structure, having 4 bonding
(d) both W and V0 decrease electrons in each. However, C is insulator whereas Si is
24. The circuit has two oppositively connected ideal diodes in intrinsic semiconductor. This is because :
parallel. The current flowing in the circuit is (a) In case of C the valence band is not completely filled at
4W absolute zero temperature.
(b) In case of C the conduction band is partly filled even at
D1 D2 absolute zero temperature.
12V
(c) The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the
3W 2W second orbit, whereas in the case of Si they lie in the
third.
(a) 1.71 A (b) 2.00 A (c) 2.31 A (d) 1.33 A (d) The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the
25. For a transistor amplifier in common emitter configuration third orbit, whereas for Si they lie in the fourth orbit.
for load impedanceof 1kW (hfe = 50 and h0e = 25) the current 32. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode ?
gain is R
(a) –4V –3V
(a) – 24.8 (b) – 15.7 (c) – 5.2 (d) – 48.78
26. A PN-junction has a thickness of the order of –2V R
(b) +2V
(a) 1 cm (b) 1mm (c) 10–6 m (d) 10–12 cm
27. A working transistor with its three legs marked P, Q and R is
3V R 5V
tested using a multimeter. No conduction is found between (c)
P and Q. By connecting the common (negative) terminal of
the multimeter to R and the other (positive) terminal to P or 0V R –2V
(d)
Q, some resistance is seen on the multimeter. Which of the
following is true for the transistor? 33. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifer with
(a) It is an npn transistor with R as base (a) positive feedback (b) negative feedback
(b) It is a pnp transistor with R as base (c) large gain (d) no feedback
(c) It is a pnp transistor with R as emitter 34. The current gain in the common emitter mode of a transistor
(d) It is an npn transistor with R as collector is 10. The input impedance is 20kW and load of resistance is
28. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is applied 100kW. The power gain is
as shown, then the output across RL will be
(a) 300 (b) 500 (c) 200 (d) 100
+5V 35. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage
RL æ pö
gain of 150 is Vi = 2 cos çè15t + ÷ø . The corresponding
3
–5V output signal will be :
10V
2p æ 5p ö
(a) (b) (a) 75cos æç15t + ö÷ (b) 2cos ç15t + ÷
–5V è 3ø è 6ø
æ 4p ö p
5V (c) 300cos ç15t + ÷ (d) 300cos æç15t + ö÷
(c) (d) è 3 ø è 3ø
–10V 36. To use a transistor as an amplifier
29. When n-type semiconductor is heated (a) the emitter base junction is forward biased and the
(a) number of electrons increases while that of holes base collector junction is reverse biased
decreases (b) no bias voltage is required
(b) number of holes increases while that of electrons (c) both junctions are forward biased
decreases (d) both junctions are reverse biased.
22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

RESPONSE 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.
GRID 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
EBD_7156
P-112 DPP/ CP28
37. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled I (mA)
from room temperature to 77K. The resistance of
(a) copper increases and germanium decreases 800
(b) each of them decreases
(c) each of them increases
(d) copper decreases and germanium increases 400
38. A d.c. battery of V volt is connected to a series combination
of a resistor R and an ideal diode D as shown in the figure 2 2.1 V (volt)
below. The potential difference across R will be
(a) 1 W (b) 0.25 W (c) 0.5 W (d) 5 W
R D 42. The circuit diagram shows a logic combination with the
states of outputs X, Y and Z given for inputs P, Q, R and S
all at state 1. When inputs P and R change to state 0 with
inputs Q and S still at 1, the states of outputs X, Y and Z
change to
V P(1)
X(1)
Q(1)
(a) 2V when diode is forward biased
(b) Zero when diode is forward biased Z(0)
(c) 5V when diode is reverse biased R(1)
Y(1)
(d) 6V when diode is forward biased S(1)
39. The current gain for a transistor working as common-base
amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter current is 7.2 mA, then the (a) 1, 0, 0 (b) 1, 1, 1 (c) 0, 1, 0 (d) 0, 0, 1
base current is 43. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to
(a) 0.29 mA (b) 0.35 mA (c) 0.39 mA (d) 0.43 mA A OR
40. In the circuit given below, A and B represent two inputs and B
C represents the output. Y
A AND
NAND
C (a) NAND gate (b) XOR gate
(c) OR gate (d) NOR gate
B 44. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of
2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation that can be
The circuit represents absorbed by the material is nearly
(a) NOR gate (b) AND gate (a) 10 × 1014 Hz (b) 5 ×1014 Hz
(c) 1 × 10 Hz14 (d) 20 × 1014 Hz
(c) NAND gate (d) OR gate
41. The I-V characteristic of a P-N junction diode is shown 45. The average value of output direct current in a full wave
below. The approximate dynamic resistance of the p-n rectifier is
junction when a forward bias voltage of 2 volt is applied is (a) I0/p (b) I0/2 (c) p I0/2 (d) 2 I0/p
RESPONSE 37. 38. 39. 40. 41.

GRID 42. 43. 44. 45.

Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
DAILY PRACTICE PHYSICS

PROBLEMS SOLUTIONS DPP/CP01
1. (b) In CGS system, 12. (b) b = l m T = LK = [M0 L1 T 0 K1 ]
g
d =4 3 13. (d) Let unit ‘u’ related with e, a0, h and c as follows.
cm
[u] = [e]a [a0]b [h]c [C]d
The unit of mass is 100g and unit of length is 10 cm, so
Using dimensional method,
æ 100g ö
4ç [M–1L–2T+4A+2] = [A1T1]a[L]b[ML2T–1]c[LT–1]d
è 100 ÷ø
density = 3 [M–1L–2T+4A+2] = [Mc Lb+2c+d Ta–c–d Aa]
æ 10 ö
çè cm÷ø a = 2, b = 1, c = – 1, d = – 1
10
æ 4 ö e 2 a0
çè ÷ \ u=
100 ø (100g) hc
= 3 3
æ 1 ö (10cm)
çè ÷ø 1 e2
10 14. (c) From F =
4 100g
4 p eo r2
= ´ (10)3 ·
100 (10cm) 3 e2
\ = 4 p F r 2 (dimensionally)
= 40 unit eo
2. (a) T = Pa Db Sc
e2 4pFr 2 (MLT-2 )L2
M0L0T1 = (ML–1 T–2)a (ML–3)b (MT–2)c = = = [M 0 L0 T 0 A 0 ] ,
eo hc hc ML2T-1[LT-1]
= Ma+b+c L–a–3b T–2a–2c
Applying principle of homogeneity e2
a + b + c = 0; – a – 3b = 0; – 2a – 2c = 1 is called fine structure constant & has value
e o hc
on solving, we get a = – 3/2, b = 1/2, c = 1
3. (a) Number of significant figures in 23.023= 5 1
.
Number of significant figures in 0.0003 = 1 137
Number of significant figures in 2.1 × 10–3 = 2 Mass
Stress Force / Area 15. (d) Density =
4. (a) Y = = Þ Y = Pressure. Volume
Strain Dimensionless
M Dr DM DL
5. (d) For angular momentum, the dimensional formula is r= \ = +3
[ML2T–1]. For other three, it is [ML2T–2]. L3 r M L
% error in density = % error in Mass
DP DF Dl + 3 (% error in length]
6. (c) ´ 100 = ´ 100 + 2 ´ 100 = 4% + 2 × 2%
P F l = 4 + 3(3) = 13%
= 8% 16. (d) Poisson’s ratio is a unitless quantity.
7. (d) Conductance, 17. (d) Dimensionally e0L = Capacitance (c)
1 DV C DV q
G= = mho(W -1 ) or siemen (S) \ e0 L = = =I
resistance Dt Dt Dt
-2 DV Dr Dr Dr
é F ù é MLT ù 0 -1 18. (c) =3 or 6% = 3 or = 2%
8. (d) F µ v Þ F = kv Þ [k ] = ê ú = ê ú = [ML T ] V r r r
ë v û ëê LT -1 ûú
Now surface area s = 4 pr2 or log s = log 4 p
0.2 + 2 log r
9. (c) ´ 100 = 0.8 %
25 Ds Dr
10. (c) Weber is the unit of magnetic flux in S.I. system. \ =2 = 2 ´ 2% = 4%.
s r
1 Wb(S.I unit) = 108 maxwell
11. (b) Solar constant = energy/area/time 19. (d) Let (M) = Va Fb Ec
Putting the dimensions of V, F and E, we have
M L2 T -2 (M) = (LT–1)a ´ (MLT–2)b ´ (ML2T–2)c
= = [M1 T -3 ] .
2
L T or M1 = Mb+c La+b+2c T–a–2b–2c
Equating the powers of dimensions, we have
EBD_7156
S-2 DPP/ CP01
b+ c= 1 e 2
a + b + 2c = 0; –a – 2b – 2c = 0 = ML3T–2
which give a = –2, b = 0 and c = 1. 4pe0
Therefore (M) = (V–2 F0 E). L = [LT–1]x [M–1L3T–2]y[ML3T–2]z
20. (d) Number of significant figures in multiplication is three, [L] = [Lx + 3y + 3z M –y + z T–x – 2y – 2z]
corresponding to the minimum number
Comparing both sides
107.88 × 0.610 = 65.8068 = 65.8
21. (d) A quantity which has dimensions and a constant value –y + z = 0 Þ y = z ...(i)
is called dimensional constant. Therefore, gravitational x + 3y + 3z = 1 ...(ii)
constant (G) is a dimensional constant. –x – 4z = 0 (Q y = z) ...(iii)
[ML2 T -2 ][ML2 T -1 ]2 From (i), (ii) & (iii)
22. (a) = [M 0 L0 T 0 ] = angle.
[M 5 ][M -1L3 T -2 ]2 1
z = y = , x = –2
2
23. (a) The mean value of refractive index, 1/2
é e2 ù
1.34 + 1.38 + 1.32 + 1.36 Hence, L = c-2 êG × ú
m= = 1.35
4 ëê 4pe 0 ûú
and 30. (c) Impulse = change in momentum
| (1.35 - 1.34) | + | (1.35 - 1.38) | + | (1.35 - 1.32) | + | (1.35 - 1.36) |
Dm =
4 Q2
31. (c) We know that is energy of capacitor so it represent
= 0.02 2C
Dm 0.02 the dimension of energy = [ML2T–2].
Thus ´ 100 = ´ 100 = 1.48
m 1.35 32. (b) Let M = pnvm
eV W PV ML-2 T -1 = ( ML-1 T -2 ) n (LT -1 ) m
24. (c) = = =R
T T T
= M n L- n + m T -2n - m
R
and = Boltzmann constant.
N \ n = 1; - n + m = -2
drift velocity Vd (ms -1) m 2 s -3 \ m = -2 + n = -2 + 1 = -1 \ m = -n
25. (b) Mobility m = = =
electric field E (Vm -1 ) V 33. (c) I = AT2 e–B/kT
Dimensions of A = I /T2; Dimensions of B = kT
æ joule(J) ö (Q power of exponential is dimensionless)
çèQ Volt = V = coulomb(C) ÷ø
I
AB2 = 2
(kT)2 = I k 2
2 -1 2 -1 T
m s C m s As
= = [Coulomb,c = As]
J kg m 2 s -2 p(r – x 2 ) [ML–1T –2 ][L2 ]
2
34. (a) h = = = [ML–1T –1 ]
= kg–1 s2 A = M–1 T2 A 4vl [LT –1[L]
26. (a) 35. (a) The unit of l, x and A are the same
27. (b) v = kl r g a b c 36. (c) L + B = 2.331 + 2.1 @ 4.4 cm
Since minimum significant figure is 2.
[M 0 LT -1 ] = La (ML-3 ) b (LT -2 ) c 37. (c) Given, x = cos(wt + kx)
b a - 3b + c -2c (wt + kx) is an angle and hence it is a dimension less
=M L T
\ b = 0; a - 3b + c = 1 quantity.
[(wt + kx)] = [M0L0T0]
1
-2c = -1 Þ c = 1 / 2 \ a= or [wt] = [M0L0T0]
2
v µ l1/ 2 r0 g1 / 2 or v 2 µ l g [M0 L0T0 ]
28. (b) [momentum] = [M][L][T–1] = [MLT–1] [w] = = [M0L0T -1 ]
[T]
E [M][LT-1]2 9
Planck’s constant = = = ML2T -1 38. (c) 10 VD = 9MD, 1VD = MD
n -1
T 10
29. (d) Let dimensions of length is related as, Vernier constant = 1 MD – 1 VD
é e2 ù
z æ 9ö 1 1 1
L = [c]x [G]y ê = ç1- ÷ MD = MD = ´ = 0.05 mm
ú è 10ø 10 10 2
ëê 4pe 0 ûú
DPP/ CP01 S-3
39. (c) [Energy density] =

[ Work done] l = (20 ± 0.1) or,
Dl 0.1
=
[ Volume] l 20
ML2 T -2 Dg
= = ML-1T -2 %=?
g
L3
As we know,
éF l ù
[Young’s Modulus] = ê ´ ú l
ë A Dl û t = 2p
g
MLT -2 L
= . = [ML–1T–2]
L2 L 4p 2l
Þ g=
a t2
40. (b) As 2 = P
V Dg æ Dl Dt ö
dyne or, = ± ç +2 ÷
(cm3 ) 2 = dyne cm 4 g è l t ø
\ a = PV 2 =
cm 2 æ 0.1 1 ö
41. (a) Reyonld’s constant is a pure number, hence it has no =ç + 2´ ÷
dimensions. è 20 90 ø
= 0.027
1 1
42. (d) w k = ´ = [L-1 T -1 ] Dg
T L \ % = 2.7%
The dimensions of the quantities in a, b, c are of velocity g
[LT–1] 45. (a) Dimension of magnetic flux
43. (a) M = Pole strength × length = Dimension of voltage × Dimension of time
= amp – metre × metre = amp – metre2
= [ML2T–3A–1] [T] = [ML2T–2A–1]
44. (b) According to the question.
Dt 1 work
= Q Voltage =
t = (90 ± 1) or, charge
t 90
EBD_7156
S-4 DPP/ CP02
1. (a) Acceleration of the particle a = 2t – 1 8. (d) Relative speed of police with respect to thief
The particle retards when acceleration is opposite to = 10 – 9 = 1 m/s
velocity. Instantaneous separation = 100 m
Þ a . v < 0 Þ (2t – 1) (t2 – t) < 0 Þ t (2t – 1) (t – 1) < 0
D istance 100
Now t is always positive Time = = = 100sec.
\ (2t – 1) (t – 1) < 0 Velocity 1
1 1
or 2t – 1 < 0 and t – 1 > 0 Þ t < and t > 1. a - b´
b ) = a (1 - e -1 ) = a (1 - 1 )
2 9. (d) x= (1 - e
This is not possible b b b e
or 2t – 1 > 0 & t – 1 < 0 Þ 1/2 < t < 1 a (e - 1) a ( 2 .718 - 1) a (1 .718 ) a 2
2. (b) x = at3 and y = bt3 = = = = 0 .637 ~- a/b
b e b 2 . 718 b 2 . 718 b 3
dx dy dx
vx = = 3at 2 and v y = = 3bt 2 velocity v = = ae - bt , v0 = a
dt dt dt
dv
\ v = v x2 + v2y = 9a 2t 4 + 9b2t 4 accleration a = = - abe - bt & a 0 = - ab
dt
a
= 3t 2 a 2 + b2 At t = 0, x = (1 - 1) = 0 and
b
Total distance travelled
3. (d) Average speed= 1 a a 1 2
Total time taken At t = , x = (1 - e -1 ) = (1 - ) = a / b
b b b e 3
x 5v1v2
= = a
2 x / 5 3 x / 5 3v1 + 2v2 At t = ¥, x =
+ b
v1 v2
a
4. (a) Instantaneous speed is the distance being covered by It cannot go beyond this, so point x > is not reached
b
the particle per unit time at the given instant. It is equal by the particle.
to the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity at the a
given instant. At t = 0, x = 0, at t = ¥, x = , therefore the particle
b
dx dx does not come back to its starting point at t = ¥.
5. (a) v = a x , =a xÞ = a dt 10. (d) Ist part: u = 0, t = 5s, v = 108 km/hr = 30 m/s
dt x
x t v = u + at Þ 30 = 0 + a × 5 Þ a = 6 m/s2
dx
ò x
= a ò dt
s = ut +
1 2 1
at = 0 ´ 5 + ´ 6 ´ 52 = 75 m
0 0 2 2
é2 x ù
x IIIrd part: s = 45m, u = 30m/s, v = 0
t
ê ú = a[t ]0 v2 - u 2 -30 ´ 30
ë 1 û0 a= = -10m / s 2
=
2s 2 ´ 45
a2 2
Þ 2 x = at Þ x = t v = u + at Þ 0 = 30 – 10 × t Þ t = 3s
4 IInd part :
1 1 1 s = s1 + s2 + s3
6. (c) (1 + 4) ´ 4 – ´ 1´ 2 - ´ 3 ´ 4 = 3 m
2 2 2 395 = 75 + s2 + 45 Þ s2 = 275 m
7. (b) The distance travel in n th second is
275
Sn = u + ½ (2n–1)a ....(1) t= = 9.16 = 9.2s.
so distance travel in tth & (t+1)th second are 30
St = u +½ (2t–1)a ....(2) Total time taken = (5 + 9.2 + 3) sec = 17.2 sec
St+1= u+½ (2t+1)a ....(3) dv dv
As per question, 11. (a) = - kv 3 or 3 = - k dt
dt v
St+St+1 = 100 = 2(u + at) ....(4)
Now from first equation of motion the velocity, of 1
Integrating we get, - = - kt + c ...(1)
particle after time t, if it moves with an accleration a is 2v 2
v=u+at ....(5)
where u is initial velocity 1
So from eq(4) and (5), we get v = 50 cm/sec. At t = 0, v = v0 \ - =c
2v2o
DPP/ CP02 S-5

Putting in (1) v
1 1 1 1 For t < ; the slope is negative
- = - kt - or - = - kt a
2v2 2v02 2v20 2v2 v
For t = ; the slope is zero
a
é 1 ù
[ ]
1 2
or ê + kt ú = or 1 + 2v 02 kt = v 0 v
êë 2 v 02 úû 2 v 2 v2 For t >
; the slope is positive
a
These characteristics are represented by graph (b).
v 20 v0
or v 2 = or v = 15. (d) The stone reaches its maximum height after time t1
1 + 2 v 20 kt 1 + 2v 02 kt given by
u = 10 m/s
dx u
12. (c) We know that, v = Þ dx = v dt
dt t1 = (Q v = u - gt)
g
x t 40 m
Integrating, ò dx = ò v dt 10
0 0 = = 1 sec
10
t Again it reaches to its initial position in 1 sec and falls
or x = ò (v0 + gt + ft 2 ) dt with same initial speed of 10 m/s.
0 Let t2 be the time taken to reach the ground, then
t vground = u + gt 2
é gt 2 ft 3 ù
= êv0 t + + ú 2
ëê 2 3 úû But vground = u 2 + 2gh
0
2
gt 2 ft 3 = (10) + 2 ´ 10 ´ 40 = 900
or, x = v0 t + +
2 3 Þ vground = 900 = 30 m / s
g f vground - u
At t = 1, x = v0 + + . 30 - 10
2 3 \ t2 = g
= = 2 sec.
10
13. (c) Let man will catch the bus after ‘t’ sec. So he will cover
distance ut. \ Total required time = (1 + 1 + 2) sec = 4 sec
1 2 1 2 1
Similarly, distance travelled by the bus will be at 16. (b) L = gt - g (t - T )2
2 2 2
For the given condition T L
1 Þ t = + .
ut = 45 + at 2 = 45 + 1.25 t 2 [As a = 2.5 m/s2] 2 gt
2
1 1
45
Þ u = +1.25 t 17. (b) S = AB = g t 12 Þ 2S = AC = g (t1 + t 2 )2
t 2 2
1 2
du and 3S = AD = g ( t 1 + t 2 + t 3 )
To find the minimum value of u =0 2
dt
so we get t = 6 sec then, 2S
t1 =
45 g
u= + 1.25 ´ 6 = 7.5 + 7.5 = 15 m/s
6 4S 4S 2S A
14. (b) For the body starting from rest t1 + t 2 = , t2 = -
g g g S
1 x1 – x2
x1 = 0 + at2 6S B
2 t1 + t 2 + t 3 =
1 2 g 2S S
Þ x1 = at 3S
2 C
6S 4S
For the body moving t3 = - S
with constant speed g g
x2 = vt v/a D
t t1 : t2 : t3 : :1: ( 2 - 1) : ( 3 - 2)
1 18. (c) Height of tap = 5m and (g) = 10 m/sec2.
\ x1 - x2 = at 2 - vt
2 For the first drop,
at t = 0, x1–x2 = 0 1 2 1
5 = ut + gt = (0 ´ t ) + ´10t 2 = 5t2 or t2 = 1 or t = 1.
2 2
EBD_7156
S-6 DPP/ CP02
It means that the third drop leaves after one second of 1
the first drop. Or, each drop leaves after every 0.5 sec. Now, s1 = 0 ´ 2 + ´ 4 ( 2 ) 2 or s1 = 8 m
Distance covered by the second drop in 0.5 sec 2
1
1 1 s2 = 8 ´ 2 - ´ 4 ´ ( 2 ) 2 or s2 = 8 m
= ut + gt 2 = (0 ´ 0.5) + ´ 10 = (0.5) 2 = 1.25m . 2
2 2 \ s1 + s 2 = 16 m
Therefore, distance of the second drop above the 23. (d)
ground = 5 – 1.25 = 3.75 m.
1
19. (c) Q t = x +3 24. (a) x =
t +5
Þ x = t – 3 Þ x = (t – 3)2 dx -1
dx \ v = dt = (t + 5) 2
v= = 2(t – 3) = 0
dt d2x 2
Þt=3 \ a= 2 = = 2x3
dt (t + 5)3
\ x = (3 – 3)2
1
Þ x = 0. 1
Now µ v2
a (t + 5)
20. (c) We have, Sn = u + (2n - 1)
2 3
1
a \ µ v2 µa
or 65 = u + (2 ´ 5 - 1) (t + 5)3
2
9
25. (d) B (v = 0)
or 65 = u + a ..... (1) 4 sec 4 sec
2
a (2 sec) A C
Also, 105 = u + (2 ´ 9 - 1)
2
17
or 105 = u + a ..... (2) (t = 0)
2 D
Equation (2) – (1) gives, As the time taken from D to A = 2 sec.
17 9 and D ® A ® B ® C = 10 sec (given).
40 = a - a = 4a or a = 10 m/s2. As ball goes from B ® C (u = 0, t = 4 sec)
2 2 vc = 0 + 4g.
Substitute this value in (1) we get,
1
9 As it moves from C to D, s = ut + gt 2
u = 65 - ´ 10 = 65 - 45 = 20 m / s 2
2 1
\ The distance travelled by the body in 20 s is, s = 4g ´ 2 + g ´ 4 = 10 g.
2
1 1
s = ut + at 2 = 20 ´ 20 + ´ 10 ´ (20)2 26.
1 1
(d) y = g (n + 1) 2 - gn 2
2 2 2 2
= 400 + 2000 = 2400 m.
g 2 2 g
5 50 = [(n + 1) - n ] = (2n + 1) ......(i)
21. (d) Speed, u = 60 ´ m/s = m/s 2 2
18 3 g
Also, h = (2n - 1) ......(ii)
5 100 2
d = 20m, u' = 120 ´ = m/s From (i) and (ii)
18 3
Let declaration be a then (0)2 – u2 = –2ad y= h + g
or u2 = 2ad … (1) 27. (b) The stone rises up till its vertical velocity is zero and
and (0)2 – u'2 = –2ad' again reached the top of the tower with a speed u
or u¢2 = 2ad¢ …(2) (downward). The speed of the stone at the base is 3u.
(2) divided by (1) gives, u
d' –
4= Þ d ' = 4 ´ 20 = 80m
d
22. (b) 8 = a t1 and 0 = 8 – a (4 – t1) +
8 æ 8ö
or t1 = \ 8 = a ç4 - ÷ v, g, h
a è aø
8 = 4 a – 8 or a = 4 and t1 = 8/4 = 2 sec 4u 2
Hence (3u)2 = (-u)2 + 2gh or h =
g
DPP/ CP02 S-7

28. (b) x = 40 + 12 t – t3
2 2 C u/4
®
dx æ uö æ uö
v= = 12 - 3t 2 çè ÷ø - çè ÷ø
dt 3 4 B u/3
®
and BC =
2g
12 A u/2
®
For v = 0; t = = 2 sec
3 2 2 2 2 O u
®
So, after 2 seconds velocity becomes zero. æ uö æ uö æ 1 ö æ 1ö
AB çè ÷ø - çè ÷ø çè ÷ø - çè ÷ø
Value of x in 2 secs = 40 + 12 × 2 – 23 2 3 2 20 3
\ = = =
= 40 + 24 – 8 = 56 m BC æ u ö 2 æ u ö 2 2
æ 1ö æ 1 ö
2 7
29. (b) The slope of v-t graph is constant and velocity çè ÷ø - çè ÷ø çè ÷ø - çè ÷ø
decreasing for first half. It is positive and constant 3 4 3 4
over next half. 8+8
32. (a) Velocity of boat = = 8 km h -1
æ tö dv æ tö 2
30. (c) Here, f = f 0 ç1 - ÷ or, = f 0 ç1 - ÷
è Tø dt è Tø Velocity of water = 4 km h -1
or, dv = f 0 æç1 - ö÷ dt
t 8 8 8
t= + = h = 160 minutes
è Tø 8-4 8+ 4 3
é æ t öù x + 2 x + 3x
\ v = ò dv = ò ê f0 ç1 - ÷ údt 33. (b) v av =
ë è T øû t1 + t 2 + t 3
æ 2x 2x 6x
t2 ö t1 = , t2 = , t3 =
or, v = f 0 ç t - ÷ + C vmax vmax vmax
è 2T ø
where C is the constant of integration. 6x v max
v av =
At t = 0, v = 0. 10x
æ 0ö vav 3
\ 0 = f0 ç 0 - ÷ + C Þ C = 0 =
è 2T ø vmax 5
æ 34. (b) No external force is acting, therefore,
t2 ö
\ v = f0 ç t - ÷ 50 u + 0.5 × 2 = 0
è 2T ø where u is the velocity of man.
If f = 0, then 1
u=- ms -1
æ tö 50
0 = f 0 ç1 - ÷ Þ t = T Negative sign of u shows that man moves upward.
è Tø
Time taken by the stone to reach the ground
Hence, particle's velocity in the time interval t = 0 and t
= T is given by 10
= = 5S
t =T T 2
é æ t öù
vx = ò dv = ò ê f 0 çè1 - T ÷ø údt
t =0 t =0 ë û
50 kg
T
éæ t2 ö ù
= f 0 êç t - ÷ ú
êè 2T ø ú
ë û0 2 ms -1 0.5 kg
æ T2 ö æ Tö 10 m
= f 0 ç T - ÷ = f0 ç T - ÷
è 2T ø è 2ø
1
= f 0T . Distance moved by the man
2
1
= 5´
= 0.1m
u 2 - v2 50
31. (a) Using v2 = u2 – 2gh i.e., h = ,
2g \ when the stone reaches the floor, the distance of
the man above floor = 10.1 m
2 2 r r r
æ uö æ uö 35. (a) Use vAB = vA - vB .
çè ÷ø - çè ÷ø
2 3 36. (c) Downward motion
AB =
2g v 2 - 02 = 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 5
EBD_7156
S-8 DPP/ CP02
x x
Þ v = 98 = 9.9 42. (a) 8 = , 12 =
Also for upward motion t1 t2
2x 2x 2 ´ 8 ´ 12
02 - u 2 = 2 ´ ( -9.8) ´1.8 v= = = = 9.6 ms -1
t1 + t 2 x x 12 + 8
Þ u = 3528 = 5.94 +
8 12
Fractional loss = 9.9 - 5.94 = 0.4 43. (b) Distance = Area under v – t graph = A1 + A2 + A3 + A4
9.9
37. (c) Distance travelled by the stone in the last second is
30
Velocity (m/s)
9h g
= (2t - 1) (Q u = 0) ...(i)
25 2 20
A2
Distance travelled by the stone in t s is
10 A3 A
1 1 A1 4
h = gt 2 (using s = ut + at 2 ) ...(ii) 0
2 2 1 2 3 4
Divide (i) by (ii), we get Time (in sec)
9 (2t - 1) 1 1
= = ´1 ´ 20 + (20 ´ 1) + (20 + 10) ´1 + (10 ´ 1)
25 t2 2 2
9t = 50t – 25, 9t2 – 50t + 25 = 0
2
= 10 + 20 + 15 + 10 = 55 m
Solving, we get
5 1 2
t = 5s or t = s 44. (a) Q h = gt
9 2
Substituting t = 5s in (ii), we get 1
1
\ h1 = g(5)2 = 125
h = ´ 9.8 ´ (5) 2 = 122.5 m 2
2 1
h1 + h2 = g(10)2 = 500
38. (b) y µ t 2 ; v- µ t'; a µ t° 2
39. (b) Average velocity for the second half of the distance is Þ h2 = 375
v + v2 4 + 8
= 1 = = 6 m s -1 1
2 2 h1 + h2 + h3 = g(15)2 = 1125
Given that first half distance is covered with a velocity 2
Þ h3 = 625
of 6 m s -1 . Therefore, the average velocity for the h2 = 3h1 , h3 = 5h 1
whole time of motion is 6 m s -1 h2 h3
or h1 = =
100 3 5
40. (b) Bullet will take = 0.1 sec to reach target.
1000 1 2
45. (d) Distance from A to B = S = ft1
During this period vertical distance (downward) 2
travelled by the bullet
Distance from B to C = ( ft1 ) t
1 2 1 2
= gt = ´ 10 ´ (0.1) = 0.0 5 m = 5cm u2 ( ft1 )2
2 2 Distance from C to D = = = ft12 = 2 S
So the gun should be aimed 5 cm above the target. 2a 2( f / 2)
41. (c) The distance covered in n th second is
1 A f B C f /2 D
S n = u + ( 2 n - 1)a
2 t1 t 2t 1
where u is initial velocity & a is acceleration
19 a 15 S
then 26 = u + ....(1)
2
Þ S + f t1t + 2 S = 15 S
21a
28 = u + ....(2)
2 Þ f t1t = 12 S ............. (i)
23 a 1 2
30 = u + ....(3) f t1 = S ............ (ii)
2 2
25 a t
32 = u + ....(4) Dividing (i) by (ii), we get t1 =
2 6
From eqs. (1) and (2) we get u = 7m/sec, a=2m/sec2 2
1 ætö f t2
\ The body starts with initial velocity u =7m/sec Þ S= fç ÷ =
and moves with uniform acceleration a = 2m/sec2 2 è 6ø 72

r
1. (b) u = iˆ + 2 ˆj = u x iˆ + u y ˆj Þ u cos q = 1, u sin q = 2 2
or v12 = v 2 + ( at ) - 2v ( at cos a )
2
1 gx 2
y = x tan q - dv12
2 u x2 For least value of relative velocity, =0
dt
1 2
\ y = 2x - gx = 2 x - 5x 2 d é 2
2 or v + a 2 t 2 - 2vat cos a ù = 0
1 dt ë û
2. (c) 500 cosq = 250 Þ cosq =
2 or 0 + a2 × 2t – 2vacos a = 0
or q = 60°.
v cos a
3. (c) As time periods are equal therefore ratio of angular or t =
a
æ 2p ö
speeds will be 1 : 1. çw= ÷.
è Tø 2u sin 30° 2(10) (1 / 2) 2
7. (d) t= = = sec
u g cos 30° 10 ( 3 / 2) 3
4. (d)
30°
Range R 1
R = 10 cos 30° t – g sin 30° t2
2
10 m
10 m
10 3 æ 2 ö 1 æ 1ö 4 10 20
Tower = - (10) ç ÷ = 10 - = m
2 çè 3 ÷ø 2 è 2ø 3 3 3
uuur Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù
8. (b) AB = (4 i + 5 j+ 6 k) - (3 i + 4 j+ 5 k) = i + j+ k
From the figure it is clear that range is required uuur Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù
CD = (4 i + 6 j) - (7 i + 9 j+ 3 k) = 3 i - 3 j+ 3 k
uuur uuur
u 2 sin 2q (10)2 sin(2 ´ 30°) AB and CD are parallel, because its cross-product is 0.
R= = = 5 3 = 8.66 m
g 10 9. (c) Here v = 0.5 m/sec. u = ?
5. (a) Horizontal component of velocity vx = 500 m/s and u u 1
vertical component of velocity while striking the so sin q = Þ = or u = 0.25 ms–1
v .5 2
ground.
uv = 0 + 10 × 10 = 100 m/s B u C direction
A of flow
u = 500 m/s
v
river
30º
500 m/s 120º
B q
A
\ Angle with which it strikes the ground
v 2 sin 2 (90 - q)
-1 æ
u ö æ 100 ö æ 1ö 10. (d) Max. height = H = .....(i)
q = tan ç v ÷ = tan -1 ç ÷ = tan -1 ç ÷ 2g
è ux ø è 500 ø è 5ø
6. (b) 2 v sin( 90 - q )
Time of flight, T = ...(ii)
g
v cos q 2H
From (i), = v
g g
Vertical
q
2H 8H
The velocity of first particle, v1 = v From (ii), T = 2 =
g g
The velocity of second particle, v2 = at Horizontal
r r r
Relative velocity, v12 = v1 - v2
EBD_7156
S-10 DPP/ CP03
11. (c) Yes, the person can catch the ball when horizontal 15. (d) s = t3 + 5
velocity is equal to the horizontal component of ball’s ds
Þ velocity, v = = 3t 2
velocity, the motion of ball will be only in vertical dt
direction with respect to person for that, dv
Tangential acceleration at = = 6t
dt
vo
= vo cos q or q = 60° v 2 9t 4
2 Radial acceleration ac = =
R R
12. (b) Two vectors are At t = 2s, at = 6 ´ 2 = 12 m/s2
r ˆ ˆ
A = cos wti + sin wtj 9 ´ 16
r wt wt ac = = 7.2 m/s2
B = cos î + sin ˆj 20
2 2 \ Resultant acceleration
r r
For two vectors A and B to be orthogonal A.B = 0
= at2 + ac2 = (12) 2 + (7.2) 2 = 144 + 51.84
r r wt wt
A.B = 0 = cos wt.cos 2 + sin wt.sin 2 = 195.84 = 14 m/s2
æ wt ö æ wt ö B
= cos ç wt - ÷ = cos ç ÷ 16. (b) = A 2 + B2 + 2AB cos q ...... (i)
è 2 ø è 2 ø 2
B sin q
wt p p \ tan 90° = Þ A + B cos q = 0
So, = \ t= A + B cos q
2 2 w
ur A
13. (a) v1 = 50 km h –1 due North; \ cos q = –
B
uur ur
v2 = 50 km h –1 due West. Angle between v1 and B2 B
Hence, from (i) = A2 + B2 – 2A2 Þ A= 3
uur A 2
v2 = 90º A 3
ur Þ cos q = – = – \ q = 150°
- v1 = 50 km h -1 due South B 2
17. (b) Suppose velocity of rain
\ Change in velocity r
uur ur uur ur v R = v x î - v y ˆj
= | v2 - v1 | = | v2 + (-v1 ) |
and the velocity of the man
r
= v22 + v12 2 2
= 50 + 50 = 70.7 km/h v m = u î
The direction of this change in velocity is in South-West. \ Velocity of rain relative to man
r r r
14. (b) v = 6 î + 8ˆj v Rm = v R - v m = ( v x - u ) î - v y ˆj
According to given condition that rain appears to fall
vertically, so (vx – u) must be zero.
\ vx – u = 0 or vx = u
10 8
When he doubles his speed,
uur
v'm = 2u î
q r r uur
Now v Rm = v R - v' m
uur 6
Comparing with v = vx î + v yˆj , we get ( )
= v x î - v y ˆj - (2uî )
vx = 6ms–1 and vy = 8 ms–1
2 2 = ( v x - 2u ) î – v y ˆj
Also, v 2 = v x + v y = 36 + 64 = 100 r
or v = 10 ms–1 The v Rm makes an angle q with the vertical
8 6 r
sin q = and cos q = x - componend of v Rm
10 10 tan q = r
y - componend of v Rm
v 2 sin 2q 2v 2 sin q cos q
R=
g
=
g
( v x - 2u )
= -v y
8 6 1
R = 2 ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ ´ ´ = 9.6 m u - 2u
10 10 10
= -v
y
DPP/ CP03 S-11
which gives
v2 = u2 + 2gh \ v = u 2 + 2 gh
u
vy = Another particle is thrown horizontally with same
tan q
velocity then velocity of particle at the surface of earth.
u
h
vx = u
Thus the velocity of rain v y = 2 gh v
r
v = v î - v î
R x y Horizontal component of velocity vx = u
u ˆ \ Resultant velocity, v = u 2 + 2 gh
= u iˆ - j.
tanq For both the particles, final velocities when they reach
18. (c) For projectile A the earth's surface are equal.
u 2A sin 2 45° 21. (b) rˆ = 0.5iˆ + 0.8 ˆj + ckˆ
Maximum height, HA =
2g
For projectile B | rˆ |= 1 = (0.5)2 + (0.8) 2 + c 2
u 2B sin 2 q (0.5)2 + (0.8)2 + c 2 = 1

Maximum height, HB =
2g
As we know, HA = HB c 2 = 0.11 Þ c = 0.11
22. (c) The pilot will see the ball falling in straight line because
u 2A sin 2 45° u 2B sin 2 q
= the reference frame is moving with the same horizontal
2g 2g velocity but the observer at rest will see the ball falling
sin 2 q u 2A in parabolic path.
= 23. (a) R = 2H (given)
sin 2 45° u B2
1
2 We know, R = 4 H cot q Þ cot q =
æu ö 2
sin q = ç A ÷ sin 2 45°
2
è uB ø
2 2
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö 1
sin 2 q = ç ÷ ç ÷ = Ö5
è 2 ø è 2 ø 4 2
1 -1 æ 1 ö q
sin q = Þ q = sin ç ÷ = 30°
2 è2ø 1
19. (a) The angle for which the ranges are same is
complementary. 2 1
From triangle we can say that sin q = , cos q =
Let one angle be q, then other is 90° – q 5 5
2u sin q 2u cos q 2
T1 = , T2 = 2v sin q cos q
g g \ Range of projectile R =
g
4u 2 sin q cos q u 2 sin 2 q
T1T2 = =2R (Q R = ) 2v 2 2 1 4v 2
g g = ´ ´ =
g 5 5 5g
Hence it is proportional to R. 24. (a) Note that the given angles of projection add upto 90°.
20. (c) When particle thrown in vertically downward direction
For complementary angles of projection (45° + a) and
with velocity u then final velocity at the ground level
(45° – a) with same initial velocity u, range R is same.
q1 + q2 = (45° + a) + (45° – a) = 90°
So, the ratio of horizontal ranges is 1 : 1.
u
25. (a) Th e components of 1 N and 2N forces
h
along + x axis = 1 cos 60° + 2 sin 30°
v = u 2 + 2 gh 1 1 1 3
= 1´ + 2 ´ = + 1 = = 1.5N
2 2 2 2
EBD_7156
S-12 DPP/ CP03
Y For B, going down with velocity u
4 cos 30° + 1 sin 60°
4N Þ v B = u 2 + 2gh
1N
For C, horizontal velocity remains same, i.e. u. Vertical
velocity = 0 + 2gh = 2gh
30°
60° The resultant v C = v 2x + v 2y = u 2 + 2gh .
4 sin 30° 1cos 60° + 2 sin 30° Hence v A = v B = v C
30° r
r D r (displacement)
30. (d) vav =
Dt (time taken)
2N
(13 - 2)iˆ + (14 - 3)ˆj 11 ˆ ˆ
2cos30° = = (i + j)
5-0 5
The component of 4 N force along –x-axis
31. (c) Position vector
1 r = cos wt + sin wt ŷ
= 4 sin 30° = 4 ´ = 2N . r x̂
\ Velocity, vr = –wsin wt x̂ + wcos wt ŷ
2
Therefore, if a force of 0.5N is applied along + x-axis,
and acceleration,
the resultant force along x-axis will become zero and r r
the resultant force will be obtained only along y-axis. a = –w2 cos wt x̂ + w sin wt ŷ = –w2 r
r r
r × r = 0 hence r ^ v and
r v
26. (d) d px r is directed towards the origin.
Fx = = - 2 sin q. a
dt Y
32. (d)
d py
Similarly, Fy = = 2 cos q.
dx
Angle q between two vectors ®
B v1
Fx p x + Fy p y X
O
cos q = r r ®
|F || p | a vA/B
®
q v
( -2sin q) (2cos q) + (2cos q) (2sin q) A
= r r
|F||p| Velocity of A relative to B is given by
® ® ® ® ®
Þ cos q = 0 Þ q = 90° .... (1)
v A B = v A - vB = v - v1
27. (a) The motion of the train will affect only the horizontal
component of the velocity of the ball. Since, vertical By taking x-components of equation (1), we get
component is same for both observers, the ym will be v1
0 = v sin q - v1 Þ sin q = .... (2)
same, but R will be different. v
28. (d) As body covers equal angle in equal time intervals. Its By taking Y-components of equation (1), we get
angular velocity and hence magnitude of linear velocity v y = v cos q .....(3)
is constant. Time taken by boy at A to catch the boy at B is given by
29. (a) For A: It goes up with velocity u will it reaches its Relative displacement along Y - axis
maximum height (i.e. velocity becomes zero) and comes t=
Relative velocity along Y - axis
back to O and attains velocity u. a a a
= = =
Using v 2 = u 2 + 2as Þ v A = u 2 + 2gh v cos q v . 1 - sin 2 q 2
æv ö
u v. 1- ç 1 ÷
è vø
[From equation (1)]
O u = vx
a a a2
u = = =
v 2 - v12 v 2 - v12 v 2 - v12
h v.
v2
vB vA u = vX vc = v 2x + v2y u 2 sin 2 45° u 2
33. (b) H = = ...(1)
2g 4g
vC
DPP/ CP03 S-13
u 2 sin 90° u 2 v 2 sin 2q 2v 2 sin q cos q

R= = R= =
g g g g
R u2 8 6 1
\ = ...(2) R = 2 ´10 ´ 10 ´ ´ ´ = 9.6 m
2 2g 10 10 10
37. (a) Range of a projectile is maximum when it is projected at
H
\ tan a = an angle of 45° and is given by
R/2
u2 u2
Rmax = , where u is the velocity of projection
4g 1 æ 1ö g
= = \ a = tan -1 ç ÷
u2 2 è 2ø 2
ÞR= u \ u 2 = Rg … (i)
2g g
Now, to hit a target at a distance (R/2) from the gun, we
u must have
H
45°
a R u 2 sin 2q
R/2 R/2 = , where q is the angle of projection.
2 g
34. (b) Here, x = 4sin(2pt) ...(i)
R Rg sin 2q
y = 4cos(2pt) ...(ii) Þ = ; from (i)
Squaring and adding equation (i) and (ii) 2 g
x2 + y2 = 42 Þ R = 4 1
Þ sin 2q = Þ sin 2q = sin 30°
Motion of the particle is circular motion, acceleration 2
Þ 2q = 30° \ q = 15°
ur v2
vector is along – R and its magnitude = 38. (a) Distance covered in one circular loop = 2pr
R = 2 × 3.14 × 100 = 628 m
Velocity of particle, v = wR = (2p) (4) = 8p 628
ur uur ur uur Speed = = 10 m / sec
35. (d) | A + B |2 = | A - B |2 62.8
ur ur r r ur uur Displacement in one circular loop = 0
| A + B |2 = | A |2 + | B |2 + 2 A . B = A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos q
r r r uur ur uur Velocity =
0
=0 R
| A - B |2 = | A |2 + | B |2 - 2 A . B time
uuur uuuur uuur
= A2 + B 2 - 2 AB cos q 39. (a) PQ + QR = PR b'
So, A2 + B2 + 2AB cos q uuur uur r q
\ QR = b ' - b P Q
= A2 + B2 – 2AB cos q b
uur ur 2 uur ur uur ur
4 AB cos q = 0 Þ cos q = 0 Now | b ' - b | = (b ' - b ).(b ' - b )
\ q = 90º = b '2 - 2bb ' cos q + b 2
So, angle between A & B is 90º.
= 2b2 (1 - cos q) [Q b ' = b]
36. (b) v = 6 î + 8ˆj uur r
b ' - b = 2b 1 - cos q
æ qö q
= 2b ç 2 sin ÷ = 2bsin
è 2ø 2
10 8
u 2 sin 2 q
40. (a) H1 =
2g
q
u 2 sin 2 (90° - q) u 2 cos 2 q
uur 6 and H 2 = =
2g 2g
Comparing with v = vx î + v yˆj , we get
u 2 sin 2 q u 2 cos2 q (u 2 sin 2q ) 2 R 2
vx = 6ms -1
and v y = 8 m s -1 H1 H 2 = ´ = =
2g 2g 16 g 2 16
Also, v 2 = v x 2 + v y 2 = 36 + 64 = 100 \ R = 4 H1 H 2
r r r
or v = 10 m s -1 41. (c) P = vector sum = A + B
8 6
r r r
sin q = and cos q = Q = vector differences = A - B
10 10
EBD_7156
S-14 DPP/ CP03
r r
Since P and Q are perpendicular 44. (c) Speed, V = constant (from question)
r r Centripetal acceleration,
\ P.Q=0
r r r r
Þ (A + B).(A - B) = 0 Þ A2 = B2 Þ A = B V2
a=
42. (b) y = bx2 r
Differentiating w.r.t to t an both sides, we get
ra = constant
dy dx
= b2x Hence graph (c) correctly describes relation between
dx dt acceleration and radius.
vy = 2bxvx
45. (c) From question,
Again differentiating w.r.t to t on both sides we get
Horizontal velocity (initial),
dv y dx dv
= 2bv x + 2bx x = 2bv 2x + 0
dt dt dt 40
ux = = 20m/s
dv 2
[ x = 0, because the particle has constant
dt
acceleration along y-direction] 1 2
Vertical velocity (initial), 50 = uy t + gt
dv y 2
Now, = a = 2bv 2x ;
dt 1
Þ uy × 2 + (–10) ×4
a 2
v 2x =
2b or, 50 = 2uy – 20
a 70
vx = or, uy = = 35m / s
2b 2
43. (a) Arc length = radius × angle
ur ur ur uy 35 7
So, | B – A |=| A | D q \ tan q = = =
ux 20 4
7
Þ Angle q = tan–1
B A–B 4
q
A

1. (d) Here m = 0.5 kg ; u = – 10 m/s; W = Fapplied × d = 10.5 × 0.10 = 1.05 J
t = 1/50 s ; v = + 15 ms–1 Hence this statement is incorrect.
Force = m (v– u)/t = 0.5 (10 + 15) × 50 = 625 N
5. (b) Momentum P = mv = m 2 gh
2. (b)
T cos q (Q v2 = u2 + 2gh; Here u = 0)
T1
q 1 When stone hits the ground momentum
P = m 2 gh
T1 sin q T2 when same stone dropped from 2h (100% of initial)
2m
T2 then momentum
P ¢= m 2 g (2h) = 2 P
W = 60N Which is changed by 41% of initial.
In eqbm T1cos q = T2 = 60N. …(1) 6. (c) Change in momentum along the wall
T1sin q = 60 N …(2) = mv cos60º – mv cos 60º = 0
\ tan q = 1 Change in momentum perpendicular to the wall
= mv sin60º – (– mv sin60º) = 2mv sin60º
q = 45°.
3. (d) Mass of rocket (m) = 5000 Kg Change in momentum
\ Applied force =
Exhaust speed (v) = 800 m/s Time
Acceleration of rocket (a) = 20 m/s2 2 mv sin 60º
Gravitational acceleration (g) = 10 m/s2 =
0.20
We know that upward force
2 ´ 3 ´ 10 ´ 3
F = m (g + a) = 5000 (10 +20) = = 50 ´ 3 3
= 5000 × 30 = 150000 N. 2 ´ 20
We also know that amount of gas ejected = 150 3 newton
æ dm ö F 150000 7. (b)
ç ÷= = = 187.5 kg / s
è dt ø v 800
4. (b) (i) If a body is moved up an inclined plane, then the S/2
h
oot S/2 sin q
work done against friction will be zero as there is no Sm
q
friction. But work must be done against gravity. So
this statement is incorrect. S/2
ugh S/2 sin q
(ii) This statement is correct, because moving vehicles Ro
q
are stopped by air friction only.
For upper half of inclined plane
(iii) The normal reaction acting on a body on an
v2 = u2 + 2a S/2 = 2 (g sin q) S/2 = gS sin q
inclined plane is given by, For lower half of inclined plane
R = mg cosq 0 = u2 + 2 g (sin q – m cos q) S/2
Where q is the angle of inclination. Þ – gS sin q = gS ( sinq – m cos q)
As q increases, cos q decreases and hence R Þ 2 sin q = m cos q
decreases. So this statement is incorrect. 2 sin q
(iv) The applied force needed to rub the duster upward, Þ m= = 2 tan q
cos q
8. (c) Forces acting on the block are as shown in the fig.
Normal reaction N is provided by the force ma due to
11 N acceleration a
Ff
Fs = mR
mg
Fapplied = mg + mR = 0.5 × 10 + 0.5 ×11 N = ma
= 5 + 5.5 = 10.5 N
\ The work done in rubbing it upward through a
distance of 10 cm, mg
EBD_7156
S-16 DPP/ CP04
\ N= m a a = gsinq – mk(g) cos q
For the block not to fall, frictional force, 0.9
Þ mk = = 0.5
Ff > mg 3
Þ m N > mg 17. (c) All blocks will move with the same aceleration
Let it be a . Then
Þ m m a > mg
F
Þ a > g/ m F = 4Ma Þ a =
4M
9. (b) v = gr = 10 ´ 40 = 20 m s -1 From the figures it is clear that
12 m/s T1 = 3 Ma, T2 = 2 Ma and T3 = Ma
T
1 F M 1 M M M
1 kg
10. (a) m T2
F M M M M
4 m/s 2
3
T3
2 kg F M M M M
8 m/s Putting the value of a, we get
According to conservation of linear momentum 3 F F
T1 = F , T2 = and T3 =
4 2 4
P3 = p12 + p 22 18. (c) Maximum force by surface when friction works
Þ m ´ 4 = (1´12)2 + (2 ´ 8) 2 = 20 Þ m = 5 kg. F = f 2 + R 2 = (µR) 2 + R 2 = R µ 2 + 1

11. (c) Let T be the tension in the branch of a tree when Minimum force = R when there is no friction
monkey is descending with acceleration a. Then mg – Hence ranging from R to R µ2 + 1 [where, R = mg]
T = ma; and T = 75% of weight of monkey
19. (c) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line.
æ 75 ö æ1ö g According to Newton's second law rate of change of
=ç ÷mg = ç ÷mg or a = .
è 100 ø 4
è ø 4 momentum is directly proportional to force applied.
u 20. (b) For the motion of both the blocks
12. (d) v = u - at Þ t = [ As v = 0] m1a = T – mkm1g
a
m2g – T = m2a
u ´ m 30 ´ 1000
t= = = 6sec
F 5000 a
13. (c) Applying law of conservation of linear momentum T
mk m1g m1
m1 v v m
m1v1 + m2v2 = 0, = - 2 or 1 = - 2 mk
m2 v1 v2 m1
14. (a) The frictional force acting on M is µmg m2
mmg a
\ Acceleration =
M
m 2g – m k m1g
dM a= m2g
15. (c) = 0.1 kg/s, vgas = 50 m/s , m1 + m 2
dt
Mass of the rocket = 2 kg. Mv = constant æ m 2 g – m k m1g ö
m2g – T = (m2) ç m + m ÷
dM dv dv 1 dM è 1 2 ø
–v +M =0. \ = v
dt dt dt M dt solving we get tension in the string
1 2 m1m 2 (1 + m k ) g
Þ Acceleration = ´ 50 ´ 0.1 = 2.5 m/s T=
2 m1 + m 2
16. (a) Coefficient of static friction,
21. (d) Acceleration of block while sliding down upper half =
1 g sin f;
ms = tan 30° = = 0.577 @ 0.6
3 retardation of block while sliding down lower half = –
1 2 (g sin f - mg cos f)
S = ut + at
2 For the block to come to rest at the bottom, acceleration
1 1 in I half = retardation in II half.
4 = a(4)2 Þ a = = 0.5
2 2 g sin f = -(g sin f - mg cos f)
[Q s = 4m and t = 4s given]
Þ m = 2 tan f
DPP/ CP04 S-17
22. (d) The particle is moving in circular path For the downward motion of the body,
R Rsinq mg sin q – f 2 = F2
q or F2 = mg sin q – mmg cos q
Rcosq
F1 sin q + m cos q
mg \ =
h F2 sin q - m cos q
q
tan q + m 2m + m 3m
Þ = = =3
From the figure, mg = R sin q … (i) tan q - m 2m - m m
27. (b) Considering the equilibrium of B
mv 2
= R cos q … (ii) –mBg + T = mBa
r
Since the block A slides down with constant speed.
From equations (i) and (ii) we get
a = 0.
rg r Therefore T = mBg
tan q = 2 but tan q =
v h Considering the equilibrium of A, we get
v 2 (0.5) 2 10a = 10g sin 30º – T – mN
\h = = = 0.025m = 2.5cm
g 10 where N = 10g cos 30°
23. (b) By spitting or sneezing we get a momentum in opposite a
N
direction which will help us in getting off the plane. In T
all other cases we will slip on ice as there is no friction.
A mN T a
24. (a) Force required to just move a body 0º
(F) = force due to static friction = µs mg si n3
10g B
When body moves with a constant acceleration (a) 10g cos30º
then mBg
10g
F – fk = ma, where fk is the force of kinetic friction = µk
mg 10
\ 10 a = g - T - m ´ 10 g cos 30 º
F - fk F - fk m mg - m k mg 2
\ a= = = s but a = 0, T = mBg
m m m
g 0 .2 3
= (µs – µk) g = (0.75 – 0.5) g = . 0 = 5g - m B g - × 10 ×g
4 2
25. (c) Considering the two masses and the rope a system, Þ mB = 3.268 » 3.3 kg
then 28. (a) When tension in the cable is equal to the weight of
cable, the system is in equilibrium. It means the system
Initial net force = [25 - (15 + 5)] g = 5g is at rest or moving with uniform velocity.
29. (c) Tension at the highest point
Final net force = éë( 25 + 5 ) - 15 ùû g = 15 g
mv2
Ttop = – mg = 2mg (\ vtop = 3gr )
Þ (acceleration)final = 3 (acceleration)initial r
26. (c) Tension at the lowest point
N1 F1
Tbottom = 2mg + 6mg = 8mg
Ttop 2mg 1
\ = = .
Tbottom 8mg 4
mg sin q 30. (d) When brakes are on, the wheels of the cycle will slide
f1 mg cos q on the road instead of rolling there. It means the sliding
q mg
friction will come into play instead of rolling friction.
N2 The value of sliding friction is more than that of rolling
friction.
2
F
f2 31. (a) When car moves towards right with acceleration a then
due to pseudo force the plumb line will tilt in backward
direction making an angle q with vertical
mg sin q a
mg cos q
q mg From the figure
q
For the upward motion of the body a
tan q = a / g
mg sin q + f1 = F1 q
or, F1 = mg sin q + mmg cos q \q = tan -1 (a / g) g
EBD_7156
S-18 DPP/ CP04
32. (b) See fig. Q Coefficient of friction m = 0.5
mN x2
\ 0.5 =
2
Þ x=+1
ma N
x3 1
Now, y = = m
mg 6 6
37. (a) As the ball, m = 10 g = 0.01 kg rebounds after striking
the wall
If a = acceleration of the cart, then N = ma
\ Change in momentum = mv – (–mv) = 2 mv
\ mN = mg or m ma = mg or a = g/m
Inpulse = Change in momentum = 2mv
33. (a) R
Impulse 0.54 N s
F \n= = = 27 m s-1
2m 2 × 0.01 kg
60°
f cos 60°
38. (b) From the F.B.D.
N = mg cos q
f sin 60° W = 10Ö 3 F = ma = mg sin q – mN
f = µR Þ a = g(sin q – m cos q)
Fcos 60° = µ(W + Fsin 60°) N mN
1
Substituing µ = and W = 10 3 we get F = 20 N
2 3 mg sin q m g cos q
34. (d) When the block slides down the plane with a constant xmg
speed, then the inclination of the plane is equal to angle q
of repose (q). Now using, v2 – u2 = 2as
Coeff. of friction = tan of the angle of repose = tan q.
35. (d) Writing free body-diagrams for m & M, or, v 2 = 2 ´ g (sin q - m cos q)l
M (l = length of incline)
m
K
F or, v = 2gl (sin q - m cos q)
N N 39. (a) During collision of ball with the wall horizontal
a momentum changes (vertical momentum remains
T T M constant)
m F
Change in horizontal momentum
\ F=
mg Mg Time of contact
we get T = ma and F – T = Ma 2P cos q 2mv cos q
where T is force due to spring = =
0.1 0.1
Þ F – ma = Ma or,, F = Ma + ma
F
\ a= .
M +m
Now, force acting on the block of mass m is
60°
æ F ö = mF P = mv 30°
ma = m ç .
è M + m ÷ø m + M
36. (a) At limiting equilibrium, m = tan q
dy x 2 2 ´ 0.1 ´ 10 ´ cos 60°
tanq = m = = (from question) = = 10N
dx 2 0.1
40. (d) Given F = 600 – (2 × 105 t)
The force is zero at time t, given by
m 0 = 600 – 2 × 105 t
q y 600
Þ t= = 3 ´ 10 –3 seconds
2 ´ 105
t 3´10 –3
ò
\ Impulse = Fdt = ò (600 – 2 ´ 105 t ) dt
0 0
DPP/ CP04 r
S-19
r
3´10 Therefore the resultant force is zero. Fnet = ma.
–3
é 2 ´ 105 t 2 ù
= ê600t – ú Therefore acceleration is also zero i.e., velocity remains
ëê 2 ûú 0 unchanged.
44. (b) Rate of flow of water will depend on the net acceleration
= 600 ´ 3 ´ 10 –3 – 105 (3 ´10 –3 ) 2 due to gravity.
= 1.8 – 0.9 = 0.9Ns When the lift is moving upward with acceleration a ,
41. (d) According to question, two stones experience same g 'u = g + a
centripetal force When the lift is moving downward with acceleration
i.e. FC1 = FC2 on a, g 'd = g – a
mv12 2mv 22 \ g 'u > g > g 'd \ Ru > R0 > Rd
or, = or, V12 = 4V22
r (r / 2) 45. (d) According to law of conservation of momentum the
third piece has momentum
So, V1 = 2V2 i.e., n = 2
= 1´ –(3iˆ + 4j)
ˆ kg ms–1
42. (b) T1 = m(g + a ) = 0.1(10 + 5) = 1.5N
Impulse = Average force × time
T2 = m(g - a ) = 0.1(10 - 5) = 0.5N Impulse
Þ Average force =
Þ T1 - T2 = (1.5 - 0.5) N = 1N time
43. (d) As shown in the figure, the three forces are represented Change in momentum –(3iˆ + 4ˆj)kg ms –1
= =
by the sides of a triangle taken in the same order. time 10 –4 s
EBD_7156
S-20 DPP/ CP05
1. (b) k = 5 × 103 N/m Vf 1
=
1
2
( )1
W = k x22 - x12 = ´ 5 ´ 103 é(0.1) 2 - (0.05) 2 ù
2 ë û
or
Vi 2
5000 2gh 1
= ´ 0.15 ´ 0.05 = 18.75 Nm =
or, 2
2 v02 + 2gh
10
2. (a) Given: Mass of particle, M = 10g = kg or, 4gh = v02 + 2gh
1000
radius of circle R = 6.4 cm \ v0 = 20ms–1
Kinetic energy E of particle = 8 × 10–4J
acceleration at = ? M
1
mv 2 = E
2
1 æ 10 ö 2
Þ ç ÷ v = 8 × 10–4
2 è 1000 ø M
Þ v2 = 16 × 10–2
Þ v = 4 × 10–1 = 0.4 m/s
Now, using
v2 = u2 + 2ats (s = 4pR) 5. (c) As the cord is trying to hold the motion of the block,
æ 22 6.4 ö work done by the cord is negative.
(0.4)2 = 02 + 2at ç 4 ´ ´ ÷
è 7 100 ø
æ gö - 3M gd
7 ´100 W = – M (g – a) d = - M ç g - ÷ d =
Þ at = (0.4)2 × = 0.1 m/s2 è 4 ø 4
8 ´ 22 ´ 6.4
3. (b) We know that F × v = Power 6. (b) According to principle of conservation of energy
\ F ´ v = c where c = constant Loss in potential energy = Gain in kinetic energy
dv æ mdv ö 1 2
m ´v = c çQ F = ma = ÷ Þ mgh =
2
mv Þ v = 2 gh
dt è dt ø
v t If h1 and h2 are initial and final heights, then
1 2
m ò vdv = c ò dt Þ mv = ct v1 = 2 gh1 , v2 = 2 gh2
2
0 0
Loss in velocity
2c 1 2
v= ´t Dv = v1 – v2 = 2 gh1 – 2 gh2
m
dx 2c 1 2 dx \ Fractional loss in velocity
= ´t where v =
dt m dt 2 gh1 – 2 gh2
Dv h2
= =1–
v1 =
x t
2c 1 2 gh1 h1
ò dx = m
´ ò t 2 dt
0 0
1.8 2
3 = 1– = 1 – 0.36 = 1 – 0.6 = 0.4 =
2c 2t 2 3 5 5
x= ´ Þ xµt 2
m 3 7. (a) As u2 = 0 and m1 = m2, therefore from
4. (a) When ball collides with the ground it loses its 50% of m1 u1 + m2 u2 = m1 v1 + m2 v2 we get u1 = v1 + v2
energy
v 2 - v1 v 2 - v1 1 - v1 / v 2
1 Also, e = = = ,
KEf 1 mVf2 u1 v 2 + v1 1 + v1 / v 2
= 2 1
\ Þ =
KEi 2 1
mVi2 2 v1 1 - e
2 which gives =
v2 1 + e
DPP/ CP05 S-21

dw 12. (b) If the particle is released at the origin, it will try to go in
8. (d) As we know power P = dU
dt
1 the direction of force. Here is positive and hence
Þ w = Pt = mv 2 dx
2 force is negative, as a result it will move towards –ve
2Pt x-axis.
So, v = 13. (c) The potential energy of a spring is given by,
m
1 2
dv 2P 1 U= kx Þ 10 J = 1 ks2 .... (i)
Hence, acceleration a = = . 2 2
dt m 2 t
The potential energy stored when stretched
Therefore, force on the particle at time ‘t’
1 1
through(2s) = k (2s 2 ) = k s 2 ´ 4
2Km 2 1 Km mK –1/2 2 2
= ma = . = = t
m 2 t 2t 2
Substituting from (i)
t3 dx 3t 2 P.E. = 40 J.
9. (b) x = Þ = = t 2 Þ v = t2 But to increase ‘s’ to ‘2s’, the work done
3 dt 3
= 40 – 10 = 30 J.
when, t = 2 sec, v = t2 = (2)2 = 4 m/s
Work done = K.E. acquired =

1
mv 2 14. (b)
1 2
Work done 2 m v - u
2
( )
2 Power = =
Time t
1
´ (2) ´ (4)2 = 16 J
=
2
P= ´
6 é
1 2.05 ´ 10 ´ ë( 25) - 5 û
2 2 ù
( )
10. (b) For elastic collision in one dimension 2 5 ´ 60
P = 2.05 × 106 W = 2.05 MW
2m 2 u 2 (m1 - m 2 )u1 15. (b) Work done = Area under F-x graph
v1 = +
m1 + m 2 (m1 + m 2 ) = area of rectangle ABCD + area of rectangle LCFE
+ area of rectangle GFIH + area of triangle IJK
As mass 2m, is at rest, So u 2 = 0
F(N)
A B J
(8m - 2m )u 3 10
Þ v1 = = u
8m + 2 m 5 5 E
L
Final energy of sphere = (K.E.) f F I K
0 x(m)
l 2 3 4 5 6
D C
1 æ 3u ö
2
1 æ3ö
2 –5
(8m )ç ÷ = (8m)u 2 ´ ç ÷ G H
=
2 è 5 ø 2 è5ø –10
9 = (2–1)×(10 – 0) + (3 –2) (5 –0) (4 –3) (–5 –0)

= E = 0.36 E 1
25 + (5 - 4)(10 - 0) = 15 J
11. (b) As we know work done in stretching spring 2
1 2 16. (c)
w= kx
2
where k = spring constant
10m h1
x = extension
Case (a) If extension (x) is same,
1
W = K x2
2 Just before impact, energy
So, WP > WQ (Q KP > KQ) E = mgh = 10mg ............. (1)
Just after impact
F2
Case (b) If spring force (F) is same W = 25
2K E1 = mgh - mgh = 0.75 mgh
100
So, WQ > WP
Hence, mgh 1 = E1 (from given figure)
EBD_7156
S-22 DPP/ CP05
mgh1 = 0.75 mg (10) where vb is velocity of bullet before collision
h1 = 7.5m v1b velocity of bullet after collision and vbl is the
17. (d) When C strikes A velocity of block.
1 1 1 K.E. of block = P.E. of block
mv 0 2 = mv' 2 + kx 0 2 ( v ' = velocity of A)
2 2 2 1 2
2m M bl Vbl = Mbl gh (h = 0.2m)
m v0 m 2
C A B Solving we get Vbl = 2ms–1
Now from eq (i)
20 × 10–3 × 600 = 4 × 2 + 20 × 10–3 Vb1
kx 0 2 = m( v 0 2 - v' 2 ) .... (i)
1 Solving we get Vb1 = 200 m/s
1
2mv '2 = kx 0 2
2 2 1
(When A and B Block attains K.E.) 21. (d) sin q =
x
1 From free body diagram of the body
\ kx 0 2 = mv'2 .... (ii)
2 v
F
From (i) and (ii), a
2 k 2
kx 0 2 = mv0 2 - mv' 2 = mv 0 - x 0
2 x 1
2 k 2 2 q
Þ kx 0 + x 0 = mv0 sin
2 mg
2 q
3 2 v0
kx 0 2 = mv 0 2 \ k = m 2 F – mg sin q = ma
2 3 x0
æg ö
18. (a) Given : k A = 300 N / m, k B = 400 N / m F = m (g sin q + a) = m çè + a ÷ø ....... (1)
x
Let the combination of springs is compressed by force
Displacement of the body till its velocity reaches v
F. Spring A is compressed by x. Therefore compression
in spring B v2
v2 = 0 + 2as Þ s =
2a
x B = (8.75 - x) cm m v2
Now, work done = F s cos 0° = (g + ax) ´
F = 300 ´ x = 400(8.75 - x) x 2a
2
Solving we get, x = 5 cm mv
= (g + ax)
2ax
x B = 8.75 - 5 = 3.75cm
2h
1 22. (c) t AB =
k (x )2 g
EA 2 A A 300 ´ (5)2 4
= = = A
EB 1 2
k B (x B )2 400 ´ (3.75)
3 2h1
t BC + t CB =2
2 g
r h C
19. (d) Given force F = 2tiˆ + 3t 2 ˆj 2
2e h 2h D
According to Newton's second law of motion, =2 = 2e
r g g h1
dv h2
m = 2tiˆ + 3t 2 ˆj (m = 1 kg) 2h
dt t BD + t DB = 2e 2
r g
v t
r
ò dv = ò ( 2tiˆ + 3t ˆj) dt
2 B
Þ
\ Total time taken by the body in coming to rest
0 0
r 2h 2h 2h
Þ v = t 2 î + t 3 ˆj = + 2e + 2e 2 + .........
r r g g g
Power P = F·v = (2t iˆ + 3t 2 ˆj) · (t 2 î + t 3 ˆj)
= (2t3 + 3t5)W 2h 2h
= + 2e [1 + e + e 2 + .........]
20. (a) According to conservation of linear momentum, g g
MbVb = MblVbl + MbVb1 ....(i)
DPP/ CP05 S-23
2h 2h 1 = 2h é1 + e ù æ 1 + e ö 2P0t
v=
= + 2e ´
g êë1 - e ûú = t èç 1 - e ø÷ m
g g 1- e
Q P0 , m and 2 are constant
23. (a) Velocity is maximum when K.E. is maximum \ vµ t
For minimum. P.E., 27. (a) x = 3t –4t2 + t3
dV dx
= 0 Þ x 3 - x = 0 Þ x = ±1 = 3 - 8t + 3t 2
dx dt
1 1 1 d2x
Þ Min. P.E. = - =- J Acceleration = = -8 + 6t
4 2 4 dt 2
K.E.(max.) + P.E.(min.) = 2 (Given) Acceleration after 4 sec
= –8 + 6 × 4 = 16 ms–2
1 9 Displacement in 4 sec
\ K.E.(max.) = 2 + =
4 4 = 3 ×4 – 4 × 42 + 43 = 12 m
1 \ Work = Force × displacement
2
K.E.max . = mv max . = Mass × acc. × disp.
2
= 3 × 10–3 × 16 × 12 = 576 mJ
1 9 3
Þ ´1´ v 2max. = Þ vmax . = Ki =
1
m1u12 ,
2 4 2 28. (c)
2
24. (a) Given, h = 60m, g = 10 ms–2,
1 m - m2
Rate of flow of water = 15 kg/s K f = m1v12 , v1 = 1 u1
\ Power of the falling water 2 m1 + m 2
= 15 kgs–1 × 10 ms–2 × 60 m = 900 watt. Fractional loss
Loss in energy due to friction 1 1
m1u12 - m1v12
10 Ki - K f 2 2
= 9000 ´ = 900 watt. =
100 Ki 1
m1u12
\ Power generated by the turbine 2
= ( 9000 – 900) watt = 8100 watt = 8.1 kW
24. (b) Let initial velocity of the bullet be v. =1-
v12
=1 -
(m1 - m 2 )2 4m1m 2
=
By linear momentum conservation u12 (m1 + m 2 )2 (m1 + m 2 )2
m æm ö 4n
v = ç + m÷ v1 ( m2 = m; m1 = nm ) ; =
2 è 2 ø (1 + n )2
(v1 = combined velocity)
Energy transfer is maximum when K f = 0
v
v1 = .... (1)
3 4n
= 1 Þ 4n = 1 + n 2 + 2n Þ n 2 + 1 - 2 n = 0
retardation = µg (1 + n ) 2
2
æ vö
0 = ç ÷ - 2mgd Þ v = 3 2mgd (n - 1)2 = 0 n = 1 ie. m 2 = m , m1 = m
è 3ø
25. (c) Force constant of a spring Transfer will be maximum when both masses are equal
and one is at rest.
F mg 1 ´10
k= = = Þ k = 500 N / m 29. (a) For inelastic collision, linear momentum is conserved
x x 2 ´10-2
v1
Increment in the length = 60 – 50 = 10 cm Þ mv1 = 2mv 2 Þ v 2 =
2
1 1
( )
2
U = kx 2 = 500 10 ´10 -2 = 2.5 J Loss in K.E. = Gain in P.E.
2 2
1 1
26. (b) Constant power of car P0 = F.v = ma.v = mv12 - (2m) v 22 = 2mgh
2 2
dv
P0 = m .v mv12
dt mv12 mv2
Þ 4 mgh = mv12 – = =
P0 dt = mvdv Integrating 2 2 2
mv 2 v2
P0 .t = Þ h=
2 8g
EBD_7156
S-24 DPP/ CP05
30. (c) Volume of water to raise = 22380 l = 22380×10–3m3
m2 v
m2v = m1vx Þ = vx
mgh V rgh V rgh m1
P= = Þt=
t t P along y-direction
-3 3 v m v
22380 ´10 ´ 10 ´ 10 ´10 m2 ´ = m1v y Þ v y = 2
t= = 15 min
10 ´ 746 2 2m1
Note: Let A moves in the direction, which makes an
p2 angle q with initial direction i.e.
31. (b) E =
2m
2 2 vy m2 v m2 v
tan q = =
or, E1 = p1 , E2 = p2 vx 2m1 m1
2m1 2m2
p12 p2 1
or, m1 = , m2 = 2 tan q =
2 E1 2 E2 2
m1 æ 1ö
m1 > m2 Þ >1 Þ q = tan–1 çè ÷ø to the x-axis.
m2 2
p12 E2 37. (b) Let the block compress the spring by x before stopping.
E2
\ >1 Þ >1 [Q p1 = p2 ] Kinetic energy of the block = (P.E of compressed spring)
E1P22 E1
+ work done against friction.
or, E2 > E1
32. (d) From, F = ma 1 1
´ 2 ´ (4) 2 = ´ 10,000 ´ x 2 + 15 ´ x
2 2
F 0.1x dV
a= = = 0.01x = V 10,000 x2 + 30x – 32 = 0
m 10 dx
v2
Þ 5000 x 2 + 15 x - 16 = 0
x 30
So, ò VdV = ò dx
v1 20 100 -15 ± (15)2 - 4 ´ (5000)(-16)
\ x=
2 ´ 5000
V2 30
V2 x2 30 ´ 30 20 ´ 20 = 0.055m = 5.5cm.
– = = –
2 200 200 200 38. (a) Amount of water flowing per second from the pipe
V1 20
= 4.5 – 2 = 2.5 m m l æmö

= = . = ç ÷v
time l t èlø
1
2
(2 2
)
= m V2 – V1 = 10 ´ 2.5 J = – 25J
Power = K.E. of water flowing per second
Final K.E. 1æmö 2
= ç ÷v ×v
1 2 1 2 1 2è l ø
= mV2 = mV1 – 25 = ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ 10 – 25
2 2 2 1æmö 3
= ç ÷v
= 500 – 25 = 475 J 2è l ø
33. (c) Friction is a non-conservative force. Work done by a 1
non-conservative force over a closed path is not zero. = ´100 ´ 8 = 400 W
2
12 4
34. (b) F= ´ 1000 ´ 10 N = 1200 N 39. (b) Mass of over hanging chain m¢ = ´ (0.6)kg
100 2
P = Fv = 1200 N × 15 ms–1 = 18 kW. Let at the surface PE = 0
35. (c) When the ball is released from the top of tower then C.M.of hanging part = 0.3 m below the table
ratio of distances covered by the ball in first, second
and third second 4
U i = - m ¢gx = - ´ 0.6 ´ 10 ´ 0.30
hI : hII : hIII = 1 : 3 : 5 : [ Because h n µ (2n–1)] 2
\ Ratio of work done mgh I : mghII : mghIII = 1 : 3 : 5 DU = m ' gx = 3.6J = Work done in putting the entire
36. (c) m2 m1 chain on the table.
B ®v A
u=0
conservation of linear momentum along
x-direction
DPP/ CP05 S-25
40. (d) v =v æ1 2 ö
v m (10 × 100) = m çè v + 10 ´ 20÷ø
3 2
1 2
or v = 800 or v = 1600 = 40 m/s
2
u1 = v u2 = 0 N
42. (b)
m m
In x-direction : mv + 0 = m (0) + m(v2)x
æ v ö
In y-direction : 0 + 0 = m ç ÷ + m(v 2 ) y is
è 3ø M(g+a)
v N h = 1 aT2
Þ (v2 ) y = and (v2)x = v 2
3
2
æ v ö 2
\ v2 = ç ÷ +v M(g+a)
è 3 ø Work done by normal reaction
2 4 2v
v 1 2 1
Þ v2 = + v2 = v = = Nh = M (g + a) aT = M (g + a) aT
2
3 3 3 2 2
Alternative method : In x-direction, 43. (c) Applying W-E theorem on the block for any
mv = mv1 cosq ...(1) compression x :
where v1 is the velocity of second mass Wext + Wg + Wspring = DKE
In y-direction,
1 1
mv Þ Fx + 0 - Kx 2 = mv 2
0= - mv1 sin q 2 2
3
Þ KE vs x is inverted parabola.
mv 1
or m1v1 sin q = ...(2) 44. (d) K.E. = mv
2
3 2
v/ 3 Further, v 2 = u 2 + 2as = 0 + 2ad = 2ad
= 2(F / m) d
v
m v 1
v1 cosq Hence, K.E. = m ´ 2(F / m) d = Fd
q 2
or, K.E. acquired = Work done
v1 = F × d = constant.
v1 sinq i.e., it is independent of mass m.
45. (a) Gravitational potential energy of ball gets converted
Squaring and adding eqns. (1) and (2) into elastic potential energy of the spring.
v2 2 1 2
v12 = v 2 + Þ v1 = v mg(h + d) = kd
3 3 2
1 2
41. (b) Net work done = mg(h + d) - kd = 0
2
100
30 20 h
mgH 1 d
mv 2 + mgh
2
Using conservation of energy,
EBD_7156
S-26 DPP/ CP06
2
1. (a) Here a = R 6. (d)
3 L
4 a L
pR 3 4
M
Now, = 3 3 2
M¢ a
4 3
pR 2M
3
= 3 3
= p. M¢ = L
æ 2 ö 2 3p x1
çè R ÷ø x2
3
Moment of inertia of the cube about the given axis, x3
2
2M æ 2 ö
´ç R÷ 2 L 5L
M¢ a 2
3p è 3 ø = 4MR x1 = , x 2 = L, x 3 =
I= = 2 4
6 6 9 3p
2. (d) Initially centre of mass is at the centre. When sand is m1x1 + m 2 x 2 + m3 x 3
poured it will fall and again after a limit, centre of mass \ X CM =
m1 + m 2 + m3
will rise.
3. (a) Does not shift as no external force acts. The centre of L 5L
M´ +M´L+M´
mass of the system continues its original path. It is = 2 4
only the internal forces which comes into play while M+M+M
breaking. 11
4. (d) Let the mass of loop P (radius = r) = m ML 11L
So, the mass of loop Q (radius = nr) = nm = 4 =
3M 12
7. (c) l
D C
n
nr O
r 2
l/
A B
P
Q
n'
Inn' = M.I due to the point mass at B +
Moment of inertia of loop P, IP = mr2 M.I due to the point mass at D +
Moment of inertia of loop Q, IQ = nm(nr)2 = n3mr2 M.I due to the point mass at C.
IQ 2
\ = n3 = 8 Þ n = 2 æ l ö
I nn ' = 2 ´ m ç + m( 2l) 2
IP è 2 ÷ø
5. (d) When the ball is hit by a cue, the linear impulse imparted
to the ball = change in momentum = mv0 = ml 2 + 2ml 2 = 3ml 2
r
v0 8. (c) o o
h
w0 From conservation of angular momentum about any
fix point on the surface,
Angular momentum = Moment of momentum mr2w0 = 2mr2w
Iw0 = (mv0 )h w0 r
5v h
Þ w = w0 / 2 Þ v =
2
[Q v = rw ]
2 2
mr w0 = mv0 h or w0 = 02
5 2r m2l
9. (d) Initial position of cm =
m1 + m2
DPP/ CP06 S-27
m1Dx1 + m2 Dx2 m1v0t + 0 1 2

Also xcm = = 14. (b) K .Erotational = Iw
m1 + m2 m1 + m2 2
12 2 2 æ 2 2ö
m2l mv t = wr d çèQ ISolid sphere = mr ÷ø
\ final position = + 10 25 5
m1 + m2 m1 + m2
10. (a) Here, L = 1.8 kg m2 s–1, M = 1.5 kg, 1 2
K .Etranslational = mv
w = 0.3 rad s–1 2
Angular momentum, L = Iw
K .Erotational 2
L = k2 Mw (QI = MK2) \ K .E =
2
or 1.8 = k × 1.5 × (0.3) translational 5
1.8 Hence option (b) is correct
Þ k2 = =4
1 2
1.5 ´ 0.3 Iw
15. (c) Kinetic energy (rotational) KR =
Þ k = 2 m. 2
r r r r r r r 1 2
11. (b) t = r ´ F Þ r . t = 0 F.t = 0 Kinetic energy (translational) KT = Mv
r 2
r r (v = Rw)
Since, t is perpendicular to the plane of r and F ,
r r r M.I.(initial) Iring = MR2; winitial = w
hence the dot product of t with r and F is zero.
M.I.(new) I¢(system) = MR 2 + 2mR 2
12. (c) O
Mw
w¢(system) =
M + 2m
Solving we get loss in K.E.
C. M Mm
h = w2 R 2
C. M Reference (M + 2m)
level for P.E. 16. (b) For no angular acceleration tnet = 0
Þ F1 × 5 = F2 × 30 (given F2 = 4N) Þ F1 = 24 N
L
17. (c) For toppling Mg = F1 × h
1 2 2
The moment of inertia of the rod about O is ml . For sliding
3
The maximum angular speed of the rod is when the rod µMg = F2
is instantaneously vertical. The energy of the rod in For sliding to occur first
1 F1 > F2
this condition is I w 2 where I is the moment of inertia
2 mgL
of the rod about O. When the rod is in its extreme or > mMg or L > 2mh
2
portion, its angular velocity is zero momentarily. In this
case, the energy of the rod is mgh where h is the 18. (a) R
maximum height to which the centre of mass (C.M)
R
rises
1 2 1 æ 1 2ö 2 (i) (ii)
\ mgh = I w = ç ml ÷ w
2 2è3 ø Moment of inertia of a ring about a given axis is
l 2 w2 I = MR2
Þ h=
6g 3M
Mass of the remaining portion of the ring =
4
13. (b) v
qv Moment of inertia of the remaining portion of the ring
q about a given axis is
3
I¢ = MR 2
4
Given I¢ = kMR2
\ k = 3/4.
v R = v 2 + v 2 + 2 v 2 cos q = 2 v 2 (1 + cos q)
q
= 2v cos
2
EBD_7156
S-28 DPP/ CP06
19. (b) Applying angular momentum conservation
1
If mass and thickness are same then, I µ
V0 r
m
I1 r2 3
\ = =
I 2 r1 1
24. (c)
æ R0 ö When the system is released,
mV0R0 = (m) (V1) ç ÷ heavier mass move downward
è 2 ø
\ v1 = 2V0 and the lighter one upward.
Thus, centre of mass will move T
1 2 a T a
Therefore, new KE = m (2V0)2 = 2mv0 towards the heavier mass with m
2
20. (c) If rotation axis is passing through its middle point & is acceleration 3m
mg
^ to its plane, then moment of inertia about YY' is æ 3m – m ö g
a=ç ÷g = 2 3mg
Y è 3m + m ø
L
P Q 25. (c) K = K ring + K particles
Y'
é1 1 ù é1 1
ML2 = ê mv02 + I w 2 ú + ê m( 2v0 )2 + m(2v0 )2 +
I= where M = volume × density = (L×A)×r ë2 2 û ë2 2
12
L3 Ar 1 ù
so I = m( 2v0 )2 + 0ú
12 2 û
1 L3 Arw 2 v0
so rotational K.E = Iw2 = Also w = ,I = mR2
2 24 R
21. (c) If a body rolls on a horizontal surface, it possesses \ K = 5 mv02
both translational and rotational kinetic energies. The
net kinetic energy is given by B
1 Ma 2
26. (d) Inn' = M (a 2 + a 2 ) =
1 æ K2 ö 12 6
K net = mv2 ç1 + 2 ÷ , v
2 h n m
è R ø
m q = 30°
where K is the radius of gyration. A C A
So from law of conservation of energy, D
1 æ K2 ö
mv2 ç1 + 2 ÷ = mgh ,
2 è R ø
where h is the height attained by the sphere. O
1 æ 2ö
i.e., ´ 2 ´ (10) 2 ç1 + ÷ = 2 ´ 9.8 ´ h.
2 è 5ø
1 æ7ö B
i.e., ´ 100 ´ ç ÷ = 9.8h C
2 è5ø
700 n m
h= = 7.1m
1
or
98 DB 2a a
22. (c) After collision velocity of COM of A becomes zero and Also, DO = = =
that of B becomes equal to initial velocity of COM of A. 2 2 2
But angular velocity of A remains unchanged as the According to parallel axis theorem
two spheres are smooth.
2
æ a ö Ma 2 Ma 2
1 1 æ M ö 1 M2 Imm ' = I nn ' + M ç = +
è 2 ÷ø
2
23. (b) M.I. of disc = MR = M ç ÷= 6 2
2 2 è pt r ø 2 ptr
æ M M ö Ma 2 + 3Ma 2 2
ç As r = Therefore R 2 = ÷ = = Ma 2
è pR 2
t ptr ø 6 3
DPP/ CP06 S-29
27. (a) From law of conservation of angular momentum, y

I w = I' w'
Given I' = I / n 3 (0,3,0)
\ w' = nw or w'µ n
28. (b)
(0,0,0)
29. (d) Melting of ice produces water which will spread over 34. (a) x¢ 1 2 x
larger distance away from the axis of rotation. This
(2,0,0)
increases the moment of inertia so angular velocity
decreases
(–2,–2,0)
mr 2 é mr 2 2
ù é mr 2 2
ù
30. (c) Ip = 2 + 2 ê 2 + m(2r ) ú + ê 2 + m(2r ) ú
êë úû êë úû
y¢
é mr 2 ù é mr 2 ù I1 = I2 = 0, because these particles are placed on x-axis
+ê + (2r )2 ú + 2 ê + m(2 3r )2 ú The M.I. of system about x-axis, = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4
ëê 2 ûú ëê 2 ûú
= 0 + 0 + 3 × (3)2 + 4 × (–2)2 = 27 + 16 = 43 kg – m2
35. (b)
111 2 36. (b) I = 1.2 kg m2, Er = 1500 J,
= mr a = 25 rad/sec2, w1 = 0, t = ?
2
m1 (–x1 ) + m 2 x 2 1 2 2E r 2 ´ 1500
31. (d) 0= As Er = Iw , w = = = 50 rad / sec
m1 + m 2 2 I 1.2
\ m1x1 = m2x2 From w2 = w1 + at
x1–d x2–d¢ 50 = 0 + 25 t, \ t = 2 seconds
d d¢ 37. (b) Since no external torque act on gymnast, so angular
m1 O m2 momentum (L= I ω ) is conserved. After pulling her arms
& legs, the angular velocity increases but moment of
–m1 (x1 – d) + m 2 (x 2 – d) inertia of gymnast, decreases in such a way that angular
Now, 0 =
m1 + m 2 momentum remains constant.
0 = m1 (d – x1) + m2 (x2 – d¢) 38. (b) The M.I. about the axis of rotation is not constant as
Þ 0 = m1d – m1x1 + m2x2 –m2d¢ the perpendicular distance of the bead with the axis of
m1 rotation increases.
\ d¢ = m d Also since no external torque is acting.
2
dL
32. (c) This is a torque problem. While the fulcrum can be \ text = Þ L = constant Þ Iw = constant
dt
placed anywhere, placing it at the far right end of the Since, I increases, w decreases.
bar eliminated cable B from the calculation. There are
now only two forces acting on the bar ; the weight that
produces a counterclockwise rotation and the tension
in cable A that produces a clockwise rotation. Since m
the bar is in equilibrium, these two torques must sum
39. (c)
to zero. (2/p) r
3 z
L r
Cable 4
fulcrum
1L
W = mg 2
Moment of inertia about z-axis, Iz = mr2
St = TA (3 / 4L) - Mg(1 / 2L) = 0 (about centre of mass)
Therefore Applying parallel axes theorem,
TA = ( MgL / 2) /(3L / 4) = (MgL / 2)(4 / 3L) = 2Mg / 3 Iz = Icm + mk2
2
33. (b) Couple produces purely rotational motion. æ2 ö 2 m4r 2 æ 4ö
Icm = Iz – m ç r÷ = mr - = mr 2 ç1 - 2 ÷
èp ø p 2 è p ø
i.e., k = 4
EBD_7156
S-30 DPP/ CP06
40. (c) When two small spheres of mass m are attached gently, 43. (d) IAX = m(AB)2 + m(OC)2 = ml2 + m (l cos 60º)2
the external torque, about the axis of rotation, is zero = ml2 + ml2/4 = 5/4 ml2
and therefore the angular momentum about the axis of
rotation is constant. X
I
\ I1w1 = I 2 w 2 Þ w 2 = 1 w1 Cm
I2 O
1 60º
2
Here I1 = MR l l
2
1
and I 2 = MR 2 + 2mR 2 60º
2
Am l Bm
1
MR 2
2 M 44. (c) Angle turned in three seconds, q3s = 2p × 10 = 20p rad.
\ w2 = 1 ´ w1 = w1
2 2 M + 4m
MR + 2mR 1 1
2 From q = w0 t + a t 2 Þ 20 p = 0 + a ´ (3) 2
2 2
mr 2 40p
41. (b) Tr = a1 ....... (1) Þa = rad/s 2
2 9
mr 2 Now angle turned in 6 sec from the starting
Tr = a ....... (2)
2 1 1 æ 40p ö
a1 = a ....... (3) q6 s =w 0t + at 2 = 0 + ´ ç 2
÷ ´ (6) == 80p rad
2 2 è 9 ø
T
\ Angle turned between t = 3s to t = 6s
r a1 a a
b
qlast 3s = q6s – q3s = 80p – 20p = 60p
r
60 p
Number of revolutions = = 30 .
T acm 2p
Acceleration of point b = acceleration of point a f
45. (c) a= = mg
ra1 = acm – ra ....... (4) m
Hence, 2ra = acm
fR µmgR 5 mg
a= = =
1´ 0 + 2 ´ 2 + 3 ´ 0 + 4 ´ 2 + 5 ´ 1 and I 2 2 R
42. (c) X C.M. = mR 2
1+ 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 5
4 + 8 + 5 17 Now v = 0 + at
= = = 1.1
15 15 and w¢ = w – at
1´ 0 + 2 ´ 0 + 3 ´ 2 + 4 ´ 2 + 5 ´ 1 v
YC.M = Also w¢ =
1+ 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 R
6+8+5 2w
= = 1.3 After solving above equations, we get w ¢ =
15 7

1. (a) The escape velocity on the earth is defined as r l
ve = 2g e R e
Where Re & ge are the radius & acceleration due to M m
gravity of earth.
Now for planet gP=2ge, RP=Re/4
ve x
So v P = 2g P R P = 2 ´ 2g e ´ R e / 4 =
2 r+l
r +l r +l
2. (c) Applying conservation of energy principle, we get GMm GMm 1
F= ò lx 2
dx =
l ò x2
dx
1 GMm GMm r r
mk 2 v e2 - =- r +l r +l
2 R r GMm GMm é x -2+1 ù
1 2GM GMm GMm
=
l ò x -2 dx =
l êë -2 + 1úû r
mk 2
r
Þ - =- r+l
2 R R r GMm -1 r + l GMm é 1 ù GMm
=- éx ù = - =
l ë ûr
2 2
Þ
k 1 1 1 1 k
- =- Þ = - l êë x úû r r (r + l )
R R r r R R
1 1 R k Mv 2
Þ = (1 - k 2 ) Þ r = 7. (b) F= = . Hence v µ R0
r R 1- k 2 R R
3. (d) The gravitational force due to the whole sphere at A mv 2 GmM GM
8. (d) = g= 2
point is (R + x ) (R + x ) 2 also R
GM e m o , where m is the assumed rest mass at
F1 = 0 mv 2 æ GM ö R 2
(2R ) 2 \ = mç
point A. (R + x) è R 2 ÷ø (R + x) 2
In the second case, when we made a cavity of radius mv 2 R2
(R/2), then gravitational force at point A is \ = mg
(R + x ) (R + x ) 2
GM e m o
F2 = \ F2/F1= 1/9 1/ 2
( R + R / 2) 2 gR 2 æ gR 2 ö
4. (c) According to Kepler’s law of period T2 µ R3 \ v2 = Þ v = çç ÷
÷
R+x èR+xø
T12 R13 (6 R )3 3
= = =8 9. (b) v= ve
T22 R23 (3 R )3 4
24 ´ 24 2
=8 1 1 æ3 ö 9
K.E. = mv 2 = m ç v e ÷ = mve2
T22 2 2 è4 ø 32
24 ´ 24 9 æ 2GM ö
T22 = = 72 = 36 × 2 = m
8 32 çè R ÷ø
T2 = 6 2 9 GMm GMm
K.E. = ; P.E. = -
16 R R
PE
5. (d) Total energy = – K E = 7 GMm
2 Total energy = K.E. + P.E. = -
1 16 R
K.E = mv 2 Let the height above the surface of earth be h, then
2
GMm
1 2 P.E. = -
\ Total energy = - mv h
2
6. (a) The force of attraction between sphere and shaded 7 GMm GMm 16R
- =- \ h=
æm ö 16 R h 7
ç dx ÷ 10. (a) When closer to the sun, velocity of planet will be greater.
l
position dF = GM è ø So time taken in covering a given area will be less.
x2
EBD_7156
S-32 DPP/ CP07
11. (c) Applying conservation of total mechanical energy
æ ö
principle GMm ÷ 1 8 2 GM
\ -4 ç + mv2 = 0 Þ v 2 =
ç a ÷ 2 a
1 2 è 2ø
mv = mg A h A = mg B hB
2
18. (c) The potential energy for a conservative force is defined
Þ g A hA = g B hB as
r r r
- dU
æg ö F= or U = - ò F.dr …… (i)
Þ hB = ç A ÷ hA = 9 × 2 = 18 m dr
èg ø ¥
B
r
GM1M 2 -GM1M 2
12. (b) Due to inertia of motion it will move tangentially to the or U r = ò r 2
dr =
r
…… (ii)
original orbit with same velocity. ¥
(Q U¥ = 0)
13. (a) F µ xM ´ (1 – x )M = xM 2 (1 - x ) If we bring the mass from the infinity to the centre of
dF earth, then we obtain work, ‘so it has negative
For maximum force, =0 (gravitational force do work on the object) sign &
dx
potential energy decreases. But if we bring the mass
dF
Þ = M 2 - 2 xM 2 = 0 Þ x = 1/ 2 from the surface of earth to infinite, then we must do
dx work against gravitational force & potential energy of
14. (c) Mass of the satellite = m and height of satellite from the mass increases.
earth (h) = 6.4 × 106 m. GM M
We know that gravitational potential energy of the Now in equation (i) if F = 51/ 2 2 instead of
r
satellite at height
GM1M 2
F= then
GM e m gR 2 m = - gR e m = -0.5 mgR r2
h =- =- e e
Re + h 2R e 2 r
GM1M 2 -2 GM1M 2
(where, GMe = gRe2 and h= Re)
Ur = ò r 5/2
dr =
3 r 3/2
¥
15. (d) Acceleration due to gravity on earth's surface 1
Þ Ur µ
M r +3/ 2
g=G
R2 19. (b) As we know, the minimum speed with which a body is
This implies that as radius decreases, the acceleration projected so that it does not return back is called escape
due to gravity increases. speed.
Dg DR DR 2GM 2GM 2GM
= -2 But = -1% Ve = = =
g R R r R+h 4R
('–' sign is due to shrinking of earth) 1
Dg æ GM ö 2
\ = -2 ´ (-1%) = 2% =ç ÷ (Q h = 3R)
g è 2R ø
16. (a) According to kepler's law of area 20. (a) Acceleration due to gravity at a height h above the
earth’s surface is
dA L
= æ 2h ö
dt 2m g h = g ç1 - ÷
è Rø
For central forces, torque = 0 Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d below the
\ L = constant earth’s surface is
dA æ dö
\ = constant g d = g ç1 - ÷
dt è Rø
17. (b) Potential energy of particle at the centre of square æ 2h ö

1- ÷
g h çè R ø (R - 2h)
Now, = =
æ ö gd æ dö (R - d)
çè 1 - ÷
ç GMm ÷ Rø
= -4 ç
a ÷ As h = 1 km, d = 1 km
ç ÷ gh R - 2
è 2 ø \ =
gd R - 1
DPP/ CP07 S-33
21. (a) At the surface of earth, the value of g = If 9.8m/sec2. 28. (c) Applying the properties of ellipse, we have
we go towards the centre of earth or we go above the 2 1 1 r1 + r2
surface of earth, then in both the cases the value of g = + =
R r1 r2 r1 r2
decreases.
Instant position
Hence W1=mgmine, W2=mgsea level, W3=mgmoun of satellite
So W1< W2 > W3 (g at the sea level = g at the suface Sun
of earth) R
22. (d) Time period does not depend upon the mass of satellite major axis
2 pr 2pr 2 pr 3 / 2 2p
23. (a) T = = = = r1 r2
v0 ( gR 2 / r )1/ 2 gR 2 w
2 r1 r2
gR2 gR 2 R=
Hence, r 3/ 2
= or r 3 = 2 r1 + r2
w w 29. (c) In a circular or elliptical orbital motion, torque is always
or, r = (gR2 / w2)1/3
acting parallel to displacement or velocity. So, angular
24. (b) g ' = g - w2 R cos 2 l momentum is conserved. In attractive field, potential
energy is negative. Kinetic energy changes as velocity
To make effective acceleration due to gravity zero at
increase when distance is less. So, option (c) is correct.
equator l = 0 and g ' = 0
2GM 2GM
30. (a) Here, v = and kv = .
g 1 rad R R+R
\ 0 = g - w2 R Þ w = =
R 800 s 1
Solving k =
25. (a) mg = 72 N (body weight on the surface) 2
GM G (2M) GM
g= 31. (a) g = =
R2 (2R)2 2R 2
R 1 2
At a height H = , From h = gt [ Q U= 0]
2 2
GM 2h hR 2
g¢ = 2 4 GM t= =2
æ Rö = g GM
çè R + ÷ø 9 R2
2 R GMm é1 1 ù
32. (b) P.E. = ò dr = -GMm ê - ú
R 2
Body weight at height H = ,
R0 r ë R R0 û
2 1
The K.E. acquired by the body at the surface = m v2
4 GM 2
mg ¢ = m ´
9 R2 1 2 é1 1 ù
\ mv = -GMm ê - ú
4 4 2 ë R R0 û
= m´
´ g = mg
9 9
æ 1 1ö
4 v = 2G M ç - ÷
= ´ 72 = 32 N è R0 R ø
9
26. (c) At a height h, mv 2 k 2 k
2 33. (b) = or mv =
2
R2 æ R ö R R R
g' =g Þ mg ' = mg ç
(R + h)2 è R + h ÷ø 1 k
Kinetic energy = mv 2 =
2 2 2R
æ R ö
Þ W' = Wç In case of satellites P.E = – 2 K.E
è R + h ÷ø
Here, h = R/2 and T.E = P. E + K. E
4 k k k
\ W' = W Total energy = - =-
9 2R R 2R
27. (c) Gravitational P.E. = m × gravitational potential 34. (d) Variation of g with altitude is,
U = mV, so the graph of U will be same as that of V for é 2h ù
g h = g ê1 - ú ;
a spherical shell. ë Rû
EBD_7156
S-34 DPP/ CP07
variation of g with depth is, Now, if the shell shrinks then its radius decrease then
é dù density increases, but mass is constant. so from above
g d = g ê1 - ú expression if a decreases, then V increases.
ë Rû
Equating gh and gd, we get d = 2h æ dö g æ dö
42. (b) g ' = g ç1 - ÷ Þ = g ç1 - ÷
35. (a) The total momentum will be zero and hence velocity è Rø n è Rø
will be zero just after collisiion. The pull of earth will æ n -1 ö
Þd =ç ÷R R/4 Moon
make it fall down. è n ø
36. (b) Loss in potential energy = Gain in kinetic energy
43. (d) E earth = E moon
GMm æ 3 GMm ö 1 2
- -ç- ÷ = mv
R è 2 R ø 2 GM GM / 81
Þ = 60 R
2
GMm 1 GM x (60R - x) 2 x
Þ = mv 2 Þ v = = gR
2R 2 R 1 1
37. (d) Þ x = 9 (60R - x) R Earth
1 Þ x = 54 R from centre of earth.

38. (b) gµ
R2 44. (b) Acceleration due to gravity at lattitude’ l ’ is given by
R decreasing g increase hence, curve b represents
correct variation. g l = g e - R e w 2 cos 2 l
39. (d) Angular momentum, L = Iw; moment of inertia of sphere At equator, l = 90° Þ cos l = cos 90° = 0
along the axis passing through centre of mass, or g l = g e = g (as given in question)
2 2 2p 3
I = MR and w = . 2 2
Rw 2
5 T At 30°, g 30 = g - Rw cos 30 = g -
4
4p MR 2 3
Putting these values, L = Rw 2
or, g - g 30 =
5T 4
45. (a) As we know,
(R + h) 3 -GMm
40. (c) T = 2p Gravitational potential energy =
GM r
and orbital velocity, v0 = GM / R + h
R3 (1.01R )3 1 GMm 1 GM GMm
T1 = 2 p , T2 = 2p Ef = mv02 - = m -
GM GM 2 3R 2 3R 3R
GMm æ 1 ö - GMm
T2 - T1 = ç - 1÷ =
´ 100 = 1.5% 3R è 2 ø 6R
T1
-GMm
41. (a) The gravitational potential at the centre of uniform Ei = +K
R
spherical shell is equal to the gravitational potential at
the surface of shell i.e., Ei = E f
-GM 5GMm
V= , where a is radius of spherical shell Therefore minimum required energy, K =
a 6R
DPP/ CP08 S-35

1. (c) We know that Young's modulus W l
6. (a) Young's modulus Y = .
F L A Dl
Y= ´ W1 W2
pr 2 l =
Since Y, F are same for both the wires, we have, Y1 Y2
1 L1 1 L 2 [Q A, l, Dl same for both brass and steel]
=
r12 l 1 r22 l 2
l 1 r22 ´ L1 (D 2 / 2) 2 ´ L1
or, = 2 =
l 2 r1 ´ L 2 (D1 / 2) 2 ´ L 2 A, l, Dl l, A, Dl
Y2 Y1
l 1 D 22 ´ L1 D 22 L 1 Brass Steel
or, = = ´ 2 =
l 2 D1 ´ L 2 (2 D 2 )
2 2 2 L2 8
So, l1 : l2 = 1 : 8
2. (a) From the graph, it is clear that for the same value of
W1 Y1 [Ysteel/Ybrass = 2 given]
load, elongation is maximum for wire OA. Hence OA is = =2
the thinnest wire among the four wires. W2 Y2
3. (b) Small amount of work done in extending the spring by 7. (b) Solids are least compressible whereas gases are highly
dx is compressible.
dW = k x dx 8. (d) Yc ´ ( DLc / Lc ) = Ys ´ (DLs / Ls )
0.15 æ 1´ 10-3 ö æ DL ö
Þ 1´1011 ´ ç ÷ = 2 ´1011 ´ ç s ÷
\W= k
ò x dx ç 1 ÷
è ø è 0.5 ø
0.05
0.5 ´10-3
800 é \ DLs = = 0.25 mm
= (0.15)2 - (0.05)2 ù 2
2 ë û
= 400 [(0.15 + 0.05)(0.15 – 0.05)] Therefore, total extension of the composite wire =
= 400 × 0.2 × 0.1 = 8 J DLc + DLs
4. (c) Using the usual expression for the Young’s modulus, = 1 mm + 0.25 mm = 1.25 mm
the force constant for the wire can be written as -P -PV
F YA 9. (b) Bulk modulus B = = ....(1)
k= = where the symbols have their usual (DV / V) DV
Dl L
meanings. Now the two wires together will have an -V 1
and DV = g V DT = 3 a.V.T or = ...(2)
é k1k2 ù DV 3a. T.
effective force constant ê k + k ú . Substituting the
ë 1 2û From eqs. (1) and (2), B = P /(3a.T ) or T = P
corresponding lengths and the Young’s moduli we get 3aB
the answer. 10. (a) When same str ess is applied at two different
5. (b) Compressibility of water, temperatures, the increase in length is more at higher
K = 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 temperature. Thus T1 > T2.
density of water P = 103 kg/m3 11. (c) According to questions,
depth of ocean, h = 2700 m
ls r y Dls
DV = a, s = b, s = c, =?
We have to find =? lb rb yb Dl b
V
As we know, compressibility,
Fl Fl
1 (DV / V) As, y = Þ Dl =
K= = (P = rgh) ADl Ay
B P
So, (DV/V) = Krgh 3mgl s
= 45.4 × 10–11 × 103 × 10 × 2700 Dl s = [Q Fs = (M + 2M)g]
prs2 .ys
= 1.2258 × 10–2
EBD_7156
S-36 DPP/ CP08
2Mgl b 400 ´103 ´ 9.8
Dl b = [Q Fb = 2Mg] \ k= = 196 × 107 N m–2
prb2 .y b 0.2 /100
k = 1.96 × 109 N m–2.
3Mgl s
Dl s pr 2 .y 3a ph(r24 - r14 ) phr 4
= s s = 2 15. (a) C1 = , C2 =
\ Dl b 2Mg.l b 2b c 2l 2l
prb2 .y b Initial volume = Final volume
12. (b) We know that Y = F L/p r2 l or r2 = F L/(Y p l) \ p[r22 - r12 ]lr = pr 2 lr
\ R 2B = F L /(YB p l) and R S2 = F L /(YS p l) Þ r 2 = r22 - r12 Þ r 2 = (r2 + r1 )(r2 - r1 )

Þ r2 = (8.02 + 7.98)(8.02 – 7.98)
R 2B Y 2 ´ 1010
or = S = =2 Þ r2 = 16 × 0.04 = 0.64 cm Þ r = 0.8 cm
R S2 YB 1010
C1 r24 - r14 [8.02]4 - [7.98]4
\ = =
or R 2B = 2 R S2 or R B = 2 R S C2 r4 [0.8]4
\ RS = R B / 2
16. (c) l
D
A Y
13. (c)
F Wire (1)
h 3A Y
Shearing strain is created along the side surface of the l/3

Wire (2)
punched disk. Note that the forces exerted on the disk are
exerted along the circumference of the disk, and the total
force exerted on its center only. As shown in the figure, the wires will have the same
Let us assume that the shearing stress along the side surface Young’s modulus (same material) and the length of the
of the disk is uniform, then wire of area of cross-section 3A will be l/3 (same volume
as wire 1).
F= ò dFmax = ò smax dA = smax ò dA For wire 1,
surface surface surface F/A
Y= ...(i)
D x/l
æDö
= ò s max .A = smax .2p ç ÷ h For wire 2 ,
è2ø
F '/ 3 A
Y= ...(ii)
Dx /( l / 3)
= 3.5 ´108 ´ æç ´ 10-2 ö÷ ´ 0.3 ´10-2 ´ 2p
1
è2 ø F l F' l
From (i) and (ii) , ´ = ´ Þ F ' = 9F
A Dx 3 A 3Dx
= 3.297 ´ 104 ; 3.3 ´ 10 4 N
lateral strain (b )
F/A 17. (c) Poisson’s ratio, s =
14. (d) Bulk modulus is given by, k = longitudinal strain ( a )
DV / V
For material like copper, s = 0.33
mg hrg æ ö And, y = 3k (1 – 2 s)
= = ,
m
çQ r = , V = A ´ h ÷
æ DV ö æ DV ö è V ø
Aç ÷ ç ÷ 9 1 3
è V ø è V ø Also, = +
y k n
DV 0.2 y = 2n (1+ s)
Given, h = 400 m, =
V 100 Hence, n < y < k
and r = 1× 103 kg/m3
DPP/ CP08 S-37

18. (b) Stress = 1 kg wt/mm2
= 9.8 N/mm2 A1 : A2 = 1 : 4
= 9.8 × 106 N/m2. Now, Stress1 : Stress2 = 4 : 1
Dl So, Strain1 : Strain2 = 4 : 1
Y = 1 ´ 1011 N / m 2 , ´100 = ?
l l1 4
Stress Stress \ l = Þ 4l2 = l1 = 8
Y= = 1
Strain Dl / l 2
Dl Stress 9.8 ´ 106 \ l2 = 2 mm

\ = = Increase in length of B is 2 mm.
l Y 1 ´ 1011
dV dL
Dl 24. (b) = (1 + 2s)
´100 = 9.8 ´ 10 -11 ´ 100 ´ 106 V L
l
= 9.8 × 10–3 = 0.0098 % dV
= 2 ´ 2 ´ 10 -3 = 4 ´ 10 -3
1 2
V
19. (d) W1 = kx
2
é 1ù
and
1
W2 = k ( x + y )2 êëQ s = 0.5 = 2 úû
2
1 1 \ Percentage change in volume = 4 × 10 –1 = 0.4%
\ W= W2 - W1 = k ( x + y ) 2 - kx 2
2 2 rq 6mm ´ 30°
1 25. (b) rq = lf Þ f = = = 0.18°
= ky (2 x + y ) l 1m
2
kp -dp
20. (c) Here, kQ = 26. (d) Bulk modulus B =
2 æ dV ö
çè ÷
According to Hooke's law V ø
\ Fp = –kp xp
æ DV ö
\ Pressure, dp = B çè ÷
Fp k p xp V ø
FQ = –kQxQ Þ F = k x 27. (a) Given: F = 100 kN = 105 N
Q Q Q
Y = 2 × 1011 Nm–2
Fp = FQ [Given]
l0 = 1.0 m
xp kQ radius r = 10 mm = 10– 2 m
\ = ...(i)
xQ kp Stress
From formula, Y =
Strain
1 2
Energy stored in a spring is U = kx Stress F
2 Þ Strain = =
Y AY
Up k p x 2p kp kQ2 1 é kp ù
\ = = ´ = êQ kQ = ú 105 105
UQ kQ xQ 2 kQ k 2p 2 ë 2û = =
pr 2Y 3.14 ´ 10-4 ´ 2 ´ 1011
UQ E 1
Þ Up = = [\ U Q = E ] =
2 2 628
stress 1
21. (a) Young's modulus Y = Therefore % strain = ´ 100 = 0.16%
strain 628
stress = Y ´ strain
Stress in steel wire = Applied pressure d
Pressure = stress = Y × strain 28. (c)
DL For a beam, the depression at the centre is given by,
Strain = = α D T (As length is constant)
L
= 2 × 1011 × 1.1 × 10–5 × 100 = 2.2 × 108 Pa æ fL ö
d= ç ÷
22. (b) Let T be the tension in the ring, then è 4Ybd3 ø
T.2 p r Tr Y A (R - r ) [f, L, b, d are constants for a particular beam]
Y= = \ T=
A. 2p ( R - r ) A ( R - r ) r 1
i.e. d µ
23. (a) Ratio of radii r1:r2 = 1:2 Y
Ratio of area, A1:A2 = pr12 : pr22
EBD_7156
S-38 DPP/ CP08
F 4 ´ 9.8 35. (d) Potential energy per unit volume of the wire is given
29. (b) K = = -2
= 19.6 ´ 102 by :
x 2 ´ 10
1 (Stress)2 1 S2
1 2 2 u= =
Work done = ´19.6´ 10 ´ (0.05) = 2.45 J 2 Young 's modulus 2 Y
2
Force
30. (c) If l is the original length of wire, then change in length As stress, S =
Area
of first wire, Dl 1 = (l 1 - l)
change in length of second wire, Dl 2 = (l 2 - l) S1 æ F1 ö æ A 2 ö
\ =
S2 çè F2 ÷ø çè A1 ÷ø
T1 l T l
Now, Y = ´ = 2´ As F1 = F2 (Given)
A Dl 1 A Dl 2
T1 T T1 T2 S1 æ F1 ö æ A 2 ö æ A2 ö
or = 2 or = \ = ÷ = ç A ÷ ..(i)
Dl 1 Dl 2 l1 - l l 2 - l S2 çè F2 ÷ø çè A1 ø è 1ø
T2 l 1 - T1l 2 The two wires are of the same material, therefore their
or T1 l 2 – T1 l = T2 l 1 – l T2 or l =
T2 - T1 Young's moduli will be same i.e., Y1 = Y2
Wl 3
2 2
u1 æ S1 ö æA ö
31. (a) d= , where W = load, l = length of beam and I is \ =ç ÷ =ç 2÷
3 YI u 2 è S2 ø è A1 ø
geometrical moment of inertia for rectangular beam,
b d3 æ æ d ö2ö
Ι= where b = breadth and d = depth 2
ç p èç ø÷ ÷ éæ d ö 2 ù
2
12 =ç 2 2
÷ = êç ÷ ú
2
For square beam b = d ç æ d1 ö ÷ ëêè d1 ø ûú
çè p çè ÷ø ÷ø
2
b4
\ Ι1 =
12 4 4
æd ö æ 2ö 16 æ d1 1 ö
æ πr4 ö
For a beam of circular cross-section, Ι2 = ç
= ç 2÷ = ç ÷ =
è ø çQ d = 2 (Given)÷
÷ è d1 ø 1 1 è 2 ø
è 4 ø
3 3
\ d1 = W l ´12 = 4 W l (for sq. cross section)
36. (b) Using Hooke’s law, F = kx we can write
4 = k(a – l0) … (i)
3 Y b4 Y b4
and 5 = k(b – l0) … (ii)
W l3 4 W l3 If l be the length under tension 9N, then
and d 2 = =
3 Y(p r 4 / 4) 3Y (p r 4 ) 9 = k(l – l0) … (iii)
(for circular cross-section) After solving above equations, we get
l = (5b – 4a).
d1 3 p r 4 3pr4 3 l
Now = = = 2
37. (b) F = Y ´ A ´ Þ F µ r (Y, l and and L are constant)
d2 b 4 2 2
(p r ) p L
(Q b2 = p r2 i.e., they have same cross-sectional area) If diameter is made four times then force required will be
16 times, i.e., 16 × 103 N
1 38. (c) Young’s modulus of elasticity is
32. (a) Compressibility =
Bulk modulus
As bulk modulus is least for ethanol (0.9) and maximum F/A
Y=
for mercury (25) among ehtanol, mercury and water. DL / L
DV FL
Hence compression in volume
V \ DL =
AY
Ethanol > Water > Mercury
33. (c) The given graph does not obey Hooke's law. and there L
is no well defined plastic region. So the graph represents So, D L µ
A
elastomers.
D L 2 L 2 A1 2 2
1 2
\ = ´ = ´ =4
34. (a) U / volume = Y ´ strain = 3600 J m–3 D L1 L1 A 2 1 1
2
DL2 = 4 × DL1 = 4 × 1 = 4 cm
[Strain = 0.06 × 10–2]
DPP/ CP08 S-39
Dr / r 1 Dr 1 Dl
F/A F l 43. (d) = 0.5 = , =
39. (a) y= = . Dl / l 2 r 2 l
Dl / l A Dl
20 ´ 1 F
= = 2 ´ 1011 Nm -2
10 ´ 10-4
-6 A Fl
44. (b) As Y = Dl Þ Dl =
AY
DP hrg 200 ´103 ´ 10 l
40. (d) K = = = = 2 ´109 V
DV / V DV / V 0.1/100 But V = Al so A =
l
dp Fl 2
41. (d) Bulk Modulus = Therefore Dl = µ l2
dv
VY
v
dp = h r g = 200 × 103 × 9.8 Hence graph of Dl versus l2 will give a straight line.
F 4 ´ 9.8
dv 0.1
= 45. (b) K= = = 19.6 ´ 102
v 100 x 2 ´ 10 -2
200 ´103 ´ 9.8 1

Bulk modulus = = 19.6´108 N/ m2 Work done = ´19.6 ´102 ´ (0.05)2 = 2.45 J
0.1/100 2
42. (c) x
F
Fcom Fext
From the figure, it is clear that

Fcom < Fext.
EBD_7156
S-40 DPP/ CP09
1. (a) Bulk modulus, 4. (b) The theorem of continuity is valid.
DP DP \ A1v1r = A2v2r as the density of the liquid can be
B=- Þ DV = -V0 taken as uniform.
æ DV ö B
çè V ÷ø A2
0 A1
or V - V0 = - V0 DP (Here V0 = volume at the surface

B \ A1v1 = A2v2
and V = volume at the depth) Þ Smaller the area, greater the velocity.
DP DP ö
or V = V0 - V0 Þ V = V0 æç1 - ÷ 5. (c) Pa +
1 1
r v 2 + 0 = P + r2v22 + (r1gh1 + r2gh2)
B è Bø 2 1 1 a 2
m m
\ Density, r ' = =
V æ DP ö ær ö
V0 ç1 - ÷ As v2 << v1, \ v1 = 2 g (h1 + h2 ) ç 2 ÷ .
è Bø
è r1 ø
m
=
m æ nP0 - P0 ö
(Q DP = nP0 - P0 ) 6. (c) h =
2T cos q 1 h r
Þhµ Þ 2 = 1 =
2
çè1 - ÷ø rrg r h1 r2 3
r B
æ 3 ö
rB çQ r1 = r, r2 = r + 50% of r = r ÷
r' = è 2 ø
B - ( n - 1) P0 2
2 æ3 ö æ2 ö
2. (c) Velocity of ball when it strikes the water surface New mass m2 = pr2 h 2r = p ç r1 ÷ ç h1 ÷ r
è2 ø è3 ø
n = 2gh ...(i)
Terminal velocity of ball inside the water =
3 2
2
( )
pr1 h1 r = m
3
2
2 (r - 1) 7. (a) When a body falls through a viscous liquid, its velocity
v = r2g ...(ii)
9 h increases due to gravity but after some time its velocity
becomes uniform because of viscous force becoming
2 r2g equal to the gravitational force. Viscous force itself is a
Equation (i) and (ii) we get 2 gh = (r - 1)
9 h variable force which increases as velocity increases, so
2 curve (a) represents the correct alternative.
2 4 æ r -1 ö 8. (c) Sum of volumes of 2 smaller drops
Þh= r ç ÷ g
81 è h ø = Volume of the bigger drop
x 4 4
3. (b) b 2. pr 3 = pR 3 Þ R = 21/ 3 r
3 3
Surface energy = T.4pR2
= T4p22/3r2 = T.28/3 pr2.
h
9. (c) Angle of contact q
T - TSL
cos q = SA
TLA
when water is on a waxy or oily surface
TSA < TSL cos q is negative i.e., 90° < q < 180°
Let the width of each plate is b and due to surface tension i.e., angle of contact q increases
liquid will rise upto height h then upward force due to And for q > 90º liquid level in capillary tube fall. i.e., h
surface tension. decreases
= 2Tbcosq ...(i) 10. (a) F = 6 p h r n
Weight of the liquid rises in between the plates = 6 × 3.14 × (8 ×10–5) × 0.03 ×100
= Vdg = (bxh)dg ...(ii)
= 4.52 ×10–3 dyne
Equating (i) and (ii) we get, 2T cosq = xhdg
2T cos q 11. (a) Velocity of water from hole = v1 = 2gh
\ h=
xdg
Velocity of water from hole B
DPP/ CP09 S-41
v2 = 2 g ( H 0 - h) 20. (a) dv = 8 cm/s and dx = 0.1 cm

dv 8
Time of reaching the ground from hole B Velocity gradient = = = 80 / s.
dx 0.1
t1 = 2( H 0 - h) / g 21. (a) Terminal velocities of rain drops are proportional to
square of their radii.
Time of reaching the ground from hole A
Terminal velocity of a body is given by
t2 = 2h / g
2R 2
8hL
vT = ( d - s ) g. or, V µ R 2
9h
12. (a) Fluid resistance is given by R =
pr 4 22. (b)
When two capillary tubes of same size are joined in vf 2 2
parallel, then equivalent fluid resistance is v = W
3 f 3 eff
8 hL 8 h ´ 2L æ 8hL ö 9
R S = R1 + R 2 = + = çç ÷÷ ´
pR 4 p (2R) 4 è pR 4 ø 8 Weff = vf
P pPR 4 8 8 é pPR 4 ù
Rate of flow = = ´ = X ê as X = ú
RS 8hL 9 9 êë 8hL úû
Weff
13. (b) The candle floats on the water with half its length above Weff
When the When the ball attains
and below water level. Let its length be 10 cm with 5 cm ball is released terminal velocity When the ball attains
2/3 of terminal velocity
below the surface and 5 cm above it. If its length is
reduced to 8 cm, it will have 4 cm above water surface. When the ball is just released, the net force on ball is
So we see tip going down by 1 cm. Weff (= mg - buoyant force)
\ rate of fall of tip = 1 cm/hour. The terminal velocity vf of the ball is attained when net
4T force on the ball is zero.
14. (a) Inside pressure must be greater than outside pres-
r \ Viscous force 6phr vf = Weff
sure in bubble.
2
pa When the ball acquires rd of its maximum velocity vf
3
pa
2
the viscous force is = Weff
3
This excess pressure is provided by charge on bubble. 2 1
Hence net force is Weff - Weff = Weff
4T s 2 4T Q2 é Q ù 3 3
= ; r = s= \ required acceleration is a/3
r 2e 0 16p r ´ 2e 0 êë
2 4 ú
4pr 2 û
23. (a) (2pr1 + 2pr2 )s = mg
Q = 8pr 2rTe 0
15. (a) Because film tries to cover minimum surface area. é 8.7 8. 5 ù
ê2 p ´ 2 + 2p ´ 2 ús = 3.97 ´ 980
16. (d) ë û
17. (a) The condition for terminal speed (vt) is
Weight = Buoyant force + Viscous force Þ s = 72 dyne cm-1
Fv B=Vr2 g 24. (b) Over a small temperature ranges, S.T. of water decreases
linearly with rise of temperature.
4 3
25. (c) Volume of air bubble V = pr
3
We get, V µ r 3
If r is 2 times, V becomes 8 times at the surface of lake.
Pressure at the surface of lake is given by
W=V r 1g
P1 = 1 atmosphere, V1 = 8V
Vg ( r1 - r 2 ) Þ P1 = Hdg where, d = density of water
\ V r1 g = V r2 g + kvt2 \ vt = Pressure at the bottom of lake,
k
18. (d) According to Bernoulli's theorem, when velocity of P2= Pressure of atmosphere + Pressure of water
liquid flow increases, the pressure decreases. P2 = Hdg + hdg = (H + h) dg where, h = depth of lake
Let final volume, V2 = V.
19. (c) Wetability of a surface by a liquid primarily depends Because temperature is constant, hence from Boyle's
on angle of contact between the surface and liquid. law
If angle of contact is acute liquids wet the solid and P1V1 = P2V2 Þ Hdg × 8V = (H + h)dg × V Þ h = 7H.
vice-versa. 26. (c)
EBD_7156
S-42 DPP/ CP09
32 T –T
27. (b) Volume of first piece of metal = = 4 cm3 \ – cos q = 2 1
8 T
Upthrust = 4 gf T1 – T2
\ cos q =
Effective weight = (32 – 4) gf = 28 gf T
35. (a) Let L = PQ = length of rod
If m be the mass of second body, volume of second
m L
body is \ SP = SQ =
5 2
m Weight of rod, W = Alrg.
Now, 28 = m - Þ m = 35 g Acting at point S
5
rm 4 Q
28. (b) geff. = 12 m/s2, = =
rw 10
R
V FB S L
h = L/2
V rw ´ 12 - V rm ´ 12 P W
= 18 m / s2
q
a=
V rm
And force of buoyancy,
1 1 FB = Alr0 g . [l = PR]
1= ´ 18 t2, t = s.
2 3 Which acts at mid-point of PR.
29. (b) Due to increase in velocity, pressure will be low above For rotational equilibrium.
the surface of water. l L
30. (c) If r is the density of the ball and r¢ that of the another Alr0 g ´ cos q = ALrg ´ cos q
2 2
ball, m for the balls are the same, but r¢= 2r
\ mg = 6prhv (by Stoke's law) l2 r l r
Þ = Þ =
v L2 r0 L r0
or, 6prhv = 6p2rhv¢ So, v¢ =
2
31. (d) As we know, h L 1 r0
From figure, sin q = = =
Pressure P = Vdg l 2l 2 r
2 r 2 (r - r0 )g
d 36. (b) Terminal velocity, v 0 =
r (1 – p)L 9h
2 ´ (2 ´10 -3 ) 2 ´ (8 - 1.3) ´103 ´ 9.8
= = 0.07 ms–1
nr 9 ´ 0.83
pL 37. (c) Work done = Surface tension × increase in area of the
film
Here, L A d g = (pL) A (nr)g + (1 – p)L A r g W = S × DA
Increase in area = Final area – initial area
Þ d = (1 – p)r + pn r = [1 + (n – 1)p]r
= 10 × (0.5 + 0.1) – 10 × 0.5 = 1 cm2
32. (d) At equilibrium, weight of the given block is balanced
\ W = 72 × 2 × 1 = 144 erg
by force due to surface tension, i.e.,
[Q There are 2 free surfaces; \ DA = 2 × 1].
2L. S = W
38. (b) Waterproofing agents are used so that the material
W 1.5 ´ 10 -2 N does not get wet. This means angle of contact is
or S = = = 0.025 Nm -1
2L 2 ´ 0.3 m obtuse.
39. (c) Fb
33. (a)
34. (d) T1 + T cos (p – q) = T2
T q
p–q q T T
W¢
T1 T2 For floating disc, Fnet = 0
T2 – T1
\ cos (p – q) = or Fb + 2prT cos q = W ¢
T
or W + 2 prT cos q = W '
DPP/ CP09 S-43
40. (b) 2T 4p R 3
41. (d) From the figure it is clear that liquid 1 floats on liquid 2. (p r 2 ) = rw g
R 3
The lighter liquid floats over heavier liquid. Therefore 2 R 4 rw g 2 2rw g
we can conclude that r1 < r2 Þ r2 = Þ r=R
3T 3T
Also r3 < r2 otherwise the ball would have sink to the 43. (b) Bernoulli’s theorem.
bottom of the jar. 44. (a) Inflow rate of volume of the liquid = Outflow rate of
Also r3 > r1 otherwise the ball would have floated in volume of the liquid
liquid 1. From the above discussion we conclude that pR 2 V VR 2
pR2V = npr2(v) Þ v = =
r1 < r3 < r2. npr 2
nr 2
42. (a) When the bubble gets detached, 45. (c) T ´ 2pr + mg = Fb
Buoyant force = force due to surface tension
Fb
T × 2p r
R
q mg
4 é4 3ù
rq or T ´ 2 pr + r pr 3 g = ê 3 pr ú sg
T×dl 3 ê ú
ë 2 û
Force due to excess pressure = upthrust
2T 3T
Access pressure in air bubble = \ r= g (2r - s)
R
EBD_7156
S-44 DPP/ CP10
S 4p r 2 4
æ T3 ö
1. (a) E = sT 4 = sT 4 = ò 0.1 ´ 32 ´ ç ÷ dT » 0.002 kJ.
2
S0 4p R 20 è 4003 ø
r2 Therefore, required work = 0.002 kJ
=s T4 6. (b) Since, e = a = 0.2
R2
Since a = (1 – r – t) = 0.2 for the body B
2. (c) Thus emissive power of B is given by,
E = a Eb = (100) (0.2) = 20 W/m2
H1 H1 Dq Aes (T 4 - T04 )
7. (b) Rate of cooling of a body R = =
t mc
A Area
ÞRµ µ
m Volume
[ m = r ´ V]
H H2 H 1
The given arrangement of rods can be redrawn as Þ For the same surface area. R µ
Volume
follows Q Volume of cube < Volume of sphere
2K1K2 Þ Rcube > RSphere i.e., cube, cools down with faster
K=
K1+K2 rate.
8. (b) From question,
K1 K2 Dr = (998 – 992) kg/m3 = 6 kg/m3
l l 998 + 992
r= kg/m 3 = 995 kg/m3
2
m
r=
V
K3 Dr DV Dr DV
Þ =- Þ =
It is given that H1 = H2 r V r V
\ Coefficient of volume expansion of water,
KA(q1 - q2 ) K3 A(q1 - q2 ) K KK
Þ = Þ K3 = = 1 2 1 DV 1 Dr 6
2l l 2 K1 + K2 = = » 3 ´10 -4 / °C
V Dt r Dt 995 ´ 20
3. (c) Q = mcDT
F / A stress
Q = mc (T – T0) ......(i) 9. (a) E= = where Dl = (l' – l) = lat so F =
Dl / l strain
Q = Kt whereas K is heating rate EAat
\ from 50 to boiling temperature, T increases 10. (c)
linearly. 11. (a) F = Y a t A or F µ a
At vaporization, equation is Q = mL
(Q Y t A is same for both copper and iron)
so, temperature remains constant till vaporisation is
or FC µ α C and FΙ µ α Ι
complete
After that, again Eqn (i) is followed and temperature FC 3 / 2 3
\ = =
increases linearly FI 1 2
4. (b) At constant temperature molar heat capacity 12. (c) According to question only one-quarter of the heat
produced by falling piece of ice is absorbed in the
DQ
CT = melting of ice.
n DT
T is const. Þ DT = 0 mgh
i.e., = mL
4
DQ
\ CT = = ¥ 4L 4 ´ 3.4 ´105
0 Þ h= = = 136 km .
5. (d) Required work = energy released g 10
W = W1 - W2 = mgh - mg h ¢ = mg (h - h ¢)
ò
Here, Q = mc dT 13. (d)
= 5 ´ 10 ( 20 - 0 . 2 ) = 5 ´ 10 ´ 19 .8
DPP/ CP10 S-45
= 5 ´ 198 = 990 joule 17. (a) Among glass, wood and metals, metals expand more
for same rise in temperature.
This energy is converted into heat when the ball strikes
the earth. Heat produced is 1
18. (b) According to Wein’s law l m µ and from the figure
990 T
Q= calorie
4.2 (lm)1 < (lm)3 < (lm)2 therefore T1 > T3 > T2.
Q 99 ´ 100 11 19. (a) Moment of inertia of a rod,
DT = = = ºC 1
mc 42 ´ 5000 ´ 0 .09 32 I = ML2
14. (b) Let the angle subtended by the arc formed be q. Then 12
Differentiating w.r.t. to DL, we get
l Dl l 2 - l 1
q = or q = = DI 1
r Dr r1 - r2 = ´ 2ML
DL 12
l (a 2 - a1 ) DT l l (a 2 - a1 ) DT 1 DI DL
\ q= or = DI = 2MLDL \ =2
t r t 12 I L
t DL
So, r = As we know, DL = LaDt or = aDt
( a 2 - a 1 ) DT L
DL
Substituting the value , we get
15. (d) T - dT L
DI
dr = 2aDt
I
· 20. (c) The lengths of each rod increases by the same amount
T1 r
r1 \ Dl a = Dl s Þ l1a a t = l 2 a s t
l 2 aa l a
Þ = Þ 2 +1 = a +1
T2 l1 a s l1 as
r2
l 2 + l1 a a + a s l1 as
Þ = Þ =
Consider a shell of thickness (dr) and of radius (r) and l1 as l1 + l 2 a a + a s
let the temperature of inner and outer surfaces of this 21. (a) According to Kirchhoff law, good absorbers are good
shell be T and (T – dT) respectively. emitters. Since black spot is good absorber so it is also
dQ a good emitter & will be brighter than plate.
= rate of flow of heat through it
dt 22. (a) From Wein’s displacement law
KA[(T - dT ) - T ] - KAdT lm × T = constant
= =
dr dr P – max. intensity is at violet
2 dT Þ lm is minimum Þ temp maximum
= -4pKr (Q A = 4pr 2 )
dr R – max. intensity is at green
To measure the radial rate of heat flow, integration Þ lm is moderate Þ temp moderate
technique is used, since the area of the surface through Q – max. intensity is at red Þ lm is maximum Þ temp.
which heat will flow is not constant. minimum i.e., Tp > TR > TQ
r2 T2
æ dQ ö 1 TA T TB
Then, ç
è dt ÷ø ò r2 dr = -4 pK ò dT 23. (c)
r1 T1
dQ é 1 1 ù A B
ê - ú = -4pK [T2 - T 1 ]
dt ë r1 r2 û
dQ -4pKr1r2 (T2 - T1 ) L L
or =
dt (r2 - r1 ) Let T be temperature of the junction
dQ r r Here, K A = 2K B , T - TB = 50K
\ µ 1 2
dt (r2 - r1 ) At the steady state,
16. (a) According to Newton’s law of cooling if temperature HA = HB
difference between body & surrounding is large, then
rate of cooling is also fast hence curve A shows correct K A A(TA - T) K B A(T - TB )
\ =
behaviour. L L
EBD_7156
S-46 DPP/ CP10
2K B (TA - T) = K B (T - TB )
sT 4 ´ 4pR2
T - TB =
TA - T = 4pr 2
2 Total power received by Earth
50K
= = 25K sT 4 R 2
2 = (pr02 )
24. (b) 2
r
25. (a) Suppose, height of liquid in each arm before rising the
4
temperature is l. 34. (c) The upthrust is given by π R t3 ρ g
3
t1 Here R t 3 = R 03(1 + γ m t) and r t = r0 /(1 + g a t )
t2 t1 t2
l1 So, the upthrust at tºC is given by
l l l2
4
= π R 03 (1 + γ m t) ´ {ρ 0 /(1 + γ a t)}g
With temperature rise height of liquid in each arm 3
increases i.e. l1 > l and l2 > l
As g m < g a , hence upthrust at tºC < upthrust at 0ºC
l l2
Also l = 1 = So, the upthrust is decreased. Hence weight in liquid
1 + g t1 1 + g t2
l –l gets increased.
Þ l1 + g l1t2 = l2 + g l2 t1 Þ g = 1 2 . 35. (d) Let T be the temperature of the interface. As the two
l2 t1 – l1t2
26. (a) The rate of heat loss per unit area due to radiation sections are in series, the rate of flow of heat in them
= Îs (T4–T04) will be equal.
= 0.6 × 5.67 × 10–8 [(400)4–(300)4] = 595 Jm–2s–1.
T1 1 2 T2
27. (d) According to Wein's displacement law, product of
wavelength belonging to maximum intensity and
temperature is constant i.e., lmT = constant. K1 K2
28. (c) According to Newton’s law of cooling, the temperature
K A(T - T ) K 2 A(T - T2 )
goes on decreasing with time non-linearly. \ 1 1 = ,
l1 l2
l 2l
29. (d) tµ
, t'µ where A is the area of cross-section.
A A/2
or, K1 A(T1 - T )l 2 = K 2 A(T - T2 )l1
t¢ l/A
=4 or, K1T1l 2 - K1T l 2 = K 2T l1 - K 2T2 l1
t l/A
t¢ = 4 × t or, ( K 2 l1 + K1l 2 )T = K1T1l 2 + K2T2 l1
3/t¢ = 48s K1T1l 2 + K 2T2 l1 K l T + K 2 l1T2
30. (a) In series, equivalent thermal conductivity \ T = = 1 2 1 .
K 2 l1 + K1l 2 K1l 2 + K 2 l1
2K1 K 2 36. (d) Radius of small sphere = r
Keq = K + K
1 2 Thickness of small sphere = t
Radius of bigger sphere = 2r
2 ´ K ´ 2K 4
or, Keq = = K Thickness of bigger sphere = t/4
K + 2K 3 Mass of ice melted = (volume of sphere) × (density of
ice)
æ dθ ö
31. (c) Q = -KA ç ÷ ´ t Let K1 and K2 be the thermal conductivities of larger
è dx ø and smaller sphere.
32. (c) Using Wein's law, lm T = constant For bigger sphere,
4 3
l1T1 = l 2 T2
K1 4p (2r)2 ´ 100 3 p(2r) rL
=
T1 t/4 25 ´ 60
l 2 = l1
T2 For smaller sphere,
l0T l0 4 3
pr rL
l2 = = K 2 ´ 4pr 2 ´ 100 3
2T 2 =
t 16 ´ 60
33. (b) Total power radiated by Sun = sT 4 ´ 4pR 2 K1 8
The intensity of power at earth's surface \ K = 25
2
DPP/ CP10 S-47
37. (b) According to Wein's displacement law, 20 1

lmT = 2.88 × 10–3 Þ = 40K Þ K =
7 14
When T = 2000 K,
lm (2000) = 2.88 × 10–3 ....(1) 40 - 28 é 40 + 28 ù 12
\ = Kê - 10ú Þ = 24K
When T = 3000 K, t ë 2 û t
l'm (3000) = 2.88 × 10–3 ....(2)
Dividing (1) by (2), 12 12 ´ 14
or t = = = 7 min
24K 24
2 lm l 3 2
= 1 Þ m = Þ l 'm = l m Q dθ dθ
3 l 'm l 'm 2 3 41. (d) = K1 A1 = K 2A2
t dx dx
38. (c) AB represents latent heat of fusion
Q1 = mLF 42. (c) Since specific heat = 0.6 kcal/g × °C = 0.6 cal/g × °C
Here, LF µ length of line AB From graph it is clear that in a minute, the temperature is
CD represents latent heat of vaporization Q2 = mLV raised from 0°C to 50°C.
Here, LV µ length of line CD Þ Heat required for a minute = 50 × 0.6 × 50 = 1500 cal.
\ Q2 = 2Q1 [Q As CD = 2AB]
Also from graph, Boiling point of wax is 200°C.
39. (b) Let the final temperature be T
43. (b) Temperature of B will be higher because, due to expan-
Heat gained by ice = mL + m × s × (T – 0) sion centre of mass B will come down same heat is sup-
= 10 × 80 + 10 × 1 × T plied but in B, potential energy is decreased therefore
internal energy gain will be more.
Heat lost by water = 55 × 1× (40 – T)
44. (d) According to the principle of calorimetry.
By using law of calorimetery, Heat lost = Heat gained
800 + 10 T = 55 × (40 – T) mLv + mswDq = mwswDq
Þ T = 21.54°C = 22°C Þ m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 80)
40. (a) According to Newton's law of cooling, = 20 × 1 × (80 – 10)
Þ m = 2.5 g
q1 - q 2 éq + q ù
= K ê 1 2 - q0 ú Therefore total mass of water at 80°C
t ë 2 û = (20 + 2.5) g = 22.5 g
where q0 is the surrounding temperature.
s T 4 ´ A1 ´ e R 12
60 - 40 æ 60 + 40 ö 45. (a) Initial rate of loss of heat = =
\ = Kç - 10÷ s T4 ´ A2 ´ e R 22
7 è 2 ø
EBD_7156
S-48 DPP/ CP11
1. (a) U = a + bPV ......(1) Uinitial = 30J .
In adiabatic change,
U Final = 30 - 12 = 18J .
nR nR
dU = – dW = (T2 - T1 ) = (d T ) 5. (a) The volume on both sides will be so adjusted that the
g -1 g -1 original pressure × volume is kept constant as the piston
nR moves slowly (isothermal change)
ÞU =
ò dU = g - 1 ò dT P5V = P'V' ........... (1)
10PV = P'V'' ........... (2)
æ nR ö PV From (1) and (2), V'' = 2V'
or U =ç T +a = + a ......(2)
è g - 1ø÷ g -1 and from V' + V'' = 6V
where a is the constant of integration. V' = 2V, V'' = 4V
Comparing (1) and (2), we get 6. (a) WAB = 0, WBC = PDV = nRDT = –nRT0
1 b +1
b= Þg = . Vf
g -1 b WCA = nRT ln = nR ( 2T0 ) ln 2
Vi
2. (d) For path ab : ( DU )ab = 7000 J
æ nRg ö
By using DU = mCV DT QBC = nC p DT = ç T0
è g – 1÷ø
5 W é 2ln 2 – 1 ù
7000 = m ´ R ´ 700 Þ m = 0.48 Efficiency, h= =ê ú
2 Q ë g / ( g – 1) û
For path ca :
7. (c) T1 = 273 + 27 = 300K
( DQ)ca = ( DU )ca + ( DW )ca ...(i) T2 = 273 + 927 = 1200K
Q ( DU )ab + ( DU )bc + ( DU )ca = 0 For adiabatic process,
P1–g Tg = constant
Q 7000 + 0 + ( DU )ca = 0 Þ ( DU )ca = -7000 J ...(ii) Þ P11–g T1g = P21–g T2g
Also ( DW )ca = P1 (V1 - V2 ) = mR (T1 - T2 ) 1-g g 1-g g
æP ö æ T1 ö æP ö æ T2 ö
= 0.48 × 8.31 × (300 – 1000) = –2792.16J ...(iii) Þç 2÷ =ç ÷ Þç 1÷ =ç ÷
On solving equations (i), (ii) and (iii) èP ø 1 èT ø 2 èT ø 2 èT ø 1
( DQ )ca = -7000 - 2792.16 = -9792.16 J » -9800 J æ P1 ö

1-1.4
æ 1200 ö
1.4
æP ö
-0.4
=ç Þç 1 ÷ = (4)1.4
3. (c) The efficiency (h) of a Carnot engine and the coefficient çè P ÷ø
2 è 300 ÷ø è P2 ø
of performance (b) of a refrigerator are related as
1- h 0.4
1 æ P2 ö
b= Here, h = = 41.4
h 10 çè P ÷ø
1
1
1- æ 1.4 ö æ7ö
\ b= 10 = 9. ç ÷ ç ÷
æ 1ö P2 = P1 4è 0.4 ø = P1 4è 2 ø
çè ÷ø = P1 (27) = 2 × 128 = 256 atm
10
Q
Also, Coefficient of performance (b) is given by b = 2 ,
W 8. (b)
where Q2 is the energy absorbed from the reservoir. P T1
(V, T1)
or, 9 = Q2 \ Q2 = 90 J.
10 (32 V, T2)
4. (b) According to first law of thermodynamics,
DQ = D U + D W T2
DQ = heat absorbed by gas V
DW = work done by gas.
We have, TV g -1 = constant
-20J = DU - 8J
Þ T1V g -1 = T2 (32V )g -1
DU = -12J = U Final - Uinitial
Þ T1 = (32)g -1.T2
DPP/ CP11 S-49
7
For diatomic gas, g = Q1 – Q2 æT ö
5 W = Q1 – Q2 = Q2 = ç 1 –1÷ Q2
2 Q2 T
è 2 ø
\ g -1 =
5
Þ W = æç 1 2 ö
T –T
2 ÷ Q2
\ T = (32) 5 .T Þ T1 = 4T2 è T2 ø
1 2
For T2 = 20 K
T2
Now, efficiency = 1 - T 300 – 20
1 W1 = ´ 0.001996 = 0.028 kJ
20
T2 1 3
= 1- = 1 - = = 0.75. For T2 = 4 K
4T2 4 4
9. (d) Isobaric compression is represented by curve AO W2 = 300 – 4 ´ 0.001996 = 0.148 kJ
Work done = area under AD 4
= 2 × 102 × (3 – 1) As temperature is changing from 20k to 4 k, work done
= 4 × 102 = 400 J. required will be more than W1 but less than W2.
14. (a) Initially
1 V1 = 5.6l, T1 = 273K, P1 = 1 atm,
10. (a) As P µ , So PV1.5 = constant
V1.5 5
g= (For monatomic gas)
\ g = 1.5 (Q Process is adiabatic) 3
Cp Cp The number of moles of gas is
As we know, =g \ = 1.5 5.6l 1
Cv Cv n= =
22.4l 4
nRDT 1000 ´ 8.3 ´ 7 Finally (after adiabatic compression)
11. (a) W= Þ -146000 = V2 = 0.7l
1- g 1- g
For adiabatic compression
58.1 58.1 T1V1g-1 = T2V2 g-1
or 1 - g = - Þ g = 1+ = 1.4 g-1 5
146 146 æV ö æ 5.6 ö 3
-1
Hence the gas is diatomic. \ T2 = T1 ç 1 ÷ = T1 ç ÷

è V2 ø è 0.7 ø
1æUö = T1 (8)2/3 = 4T1
12. (a) As, P = ç ÷
3èVø We know that work done in adiabatic process is
U nRDT 9
But = KT 4 W= = RT1
V g -1 8
1 15. (c) Curve A, B shows expansion. For expansion of a gas,
4
So, P = KT Wisothermal > Wadiabatic
3
Pisothermal > Padiabatic
uRT 1 Tisothermal > Tadiabatic
or = KT 4 [As PV = u RT]
V 3 Þ Slope of curve for isothermal change < slope of
curve for adiabatic change.
4 3 3 So, curve B shows isothermal change and curve A
pR T = constant
3 shows adiabatic change.
1 3
Therefore, Tµ 16. (a) PV3/2 = K, log P + log V = log K
R 2
13. (c) Heat required to change the temperature of vessel by a DP 3 DV
small amount dT + =0
P 2 V
– dQ = mCdT DV 2 DP DV æ 2 ö æ 2 ö 4
Total heat required =- or = ç- ÷ ç ÷ = -
V 3 P V è 3øè3ø 9
4
4 æ T ö
3
100 ´10 –3 ´ 32 é T 4 ù 1
– Q = m ò 32 ç ÷ dT = ê ú 17. (a) Initially the efficiency of the engine was
6
which
20 è 400 ø (400)3 ë 4 û 20
Þ Q = 0.001996 kJ 1
increases to when the sink temperature reduces
Work done required to maintain the temperature of sink 3
to T2 by 62º C.
EBD_7156
S-50 DPP/ CP11
1 T T2
h= = 1 - 2 , when T2 = sink temperature 21. (b) Efficiency of Carnot engine, h = 1 -
6 T1 T1
T1 = source temperature where T1 and T2 be the temperature of source and sink
respectively.
5
Þ T2 = T1 T2 40 60 3
6 \ = 1- h = 1 - = = (Q h = 40%)
Secondly, T1 100 100 5
1 T - 62 T 62 5 62 3 3
=1- 2 =1- 2 + =1- + T2 = T1 = ´ 500 K = 300 K ...(i)
3 T T T 6 T1 5 5
1 1 1
or, T1 = 62 × 6 = 372K =372– 273 = 99ºC (Q T1 = 500 K)
Let T 1¢ be the temperature of the source for the same
5 sink temperature when efficiency h¢ = 50%
& T2 = ´ 372= 310 K= 310 - 273 = 37º C
6
T 50 1
18. (b) For an adiabatic process, the temperature-volume \ 2 = 1 - h¢ = 1 - =
relationship is T¢
1
100 2
g -1
æV ö T1¢ = 2T2 = 2 × 300 K = 600 K (Using eq. (i))
T1V1g -1 = T2V2 g -1 Þ T1 = T2 ç 2 ÷
è V1 ø
V1
22. (b) dW = P D V = 1 .01 ´ 10 5 [1671 - 1] ´ 10 - 6 Joule
Here g = 1.4 (for diatomic gas). V2 = , T1 = Ti , T2 = aTi
32 1.01 ´ 167
1.4 -1 0.4 = cal.
é1ù é1ù aTi 4.2
\ Ti = aTi ê ú \ Ti = aTi ê 5 ú =
ë 32 û ë2 û 4 = 40cal. nearly
\ a=4
19. (b) In the first-case adiabatic change, Δ Q = mL = 1 ´ 540,
DQ = 0, DW = –35 J ΔQ = ΔW + ΔU
From 1st law of thermodynamics, or D U = 540 - 40 = 500 cal.
DQ = DU + DW,
or 0 = DU – 35 23. (c) The temperature remains unchanged therefore
\ DU = 35 J U f = Ui .
In the second case
DQ = 12 cal = 12 × 4.2 J = 50.4 J Also, DQ = DW .
DW = DQ – DU = 50.4 – 35 = 15.4 J In the first step which is isochoric, DW = 0 .
20. (a) For an adiabatic change PVg = constant
P1V1g = P2V2g P
As molar specific heat of gas at constant volume In second step, pressure = . Volume V is increased
n
3 from V to nV.
Cv = R
2 P
\ W= (nV - V)
3 5 n
CP = CV + R = R + R = R ;
2 2 æ n - 1ö
= PV ç
C (5 / 2) R 5 è n ÷ø
g= P = =
CV (3 / 2) R 3
= RT(1 - n -1 )
\ From eqn. (1)
g 5/3 24. (b) Efficiency of carnot engine
æV ö æ 6ö
P2 = ç 1 ÷ P1 = ç ÷ ´ 105 N / m 2 T2 1 T2
è V2 ø è 2ø n = 1 – T i.e., 10 = 1 – T
1 1
= (3)5/3 × 105 = 6.19 × 105 N/m2
Work done T2 1 9 T 10
Þ =1– = Þ 1 =
1 T1 10 10 T2 9
= [6.19 ´ 105 ´ 2 ´ 10-3 - 10-5 ´ 6 ´ 10-3 ] æ T1 ö
1 - (5 / 3) \ w = Q2 ç T – 1÷
è 2 ø
é 2 ´ 102 ´ 3 ù æ 10 ö æ1ö
= -ê (6.19 - 3) ú i.e., 10 = Q2 ç – 1÷ 10 = Q2 ç ÷
ëê 2 ûú è 9 ø è9ø
= –3 × 102 × 3.19 = –957 joules Þ Q2 = 90J
[–ve sign shows external work done on the gas] So, 90 J heat is absorbed at lower temperature.
DPP/ CP11 S-51
25. (a) V1 = 1l = 1000 cm3, P1 = 72 cm of Hg. nRdT

V2 = 900 cm3, P2 = ? 30. (a) W= g is minimum for a polyatomic gas
g -1
Q The process is isothermal
\ P1V1 = P2V2 Hence, W is greatest for polyatomic gas
72 × 1000 = P2 × 900
P2 = 80 cm of Hg
31. (b) Heat is extracted from the source in path DA and AB is
\ Stress = P – P = 80 – 72 = 8 cm of Hg.
2 1
26. (a) Process A ® B occurs at constant pressure Hence 3 æ P0V0 ö 5 æ 2 P0V0 ö
DQ = R + R
work done in this process is 2 çè R ÷ø 2 çè R ÷ø
WAB = PdV = P(V2 - V1 ) 3 5 æ 13ö
Þ P0V0 + 2 P0V0 = ç ÷ P0V0
= 10 × (2 – 1) = 10 J 2 2 è 2ø
Process B ® C, occurs at constant volume.
32. (d) Isochoric proceess dV = 0
Hence, WBC = 0
W= 0 proceess 1
Given : Q = 5 J therefore, total work done is W1 = 5 J
Isobaric : W = P DV = nRDT
( Q DU = 0 in a cyclic process)
nRDT
Therefore, we have Adiabatic | W | = 0<g–1<1
g -1
W1 = WAB + WBC + WCA
As workdone in case of adiabatic process is more so
or 5J = 10 J + 0 + WCA
process 3 is adiabatic and process 2 is isobaric
\ WCA = – 5 joule 33. (c) For adiabatic process, dU = – 100 J
27. (d) We know that in adiabatic process, which remains same for other processes also.
PVg = constant ....(1)
From ideal gas equation, we know that Let C be the heat capacity of 2nd process then
PV = nRT – (C) 5 = dU + dW
nRT = – 100 + 25 = – 75
V= ....(2)
P \ C = 15 J/K
Puttingt the value from equation (2) in equation (1), 34. (c) Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator,
g
æ nRT ö Q2 T2
Pç = constant b= = (Where Q2 is heat removed)
è P ÷ø W T1 - T2
P(1 – g) T g = constant Given: T2 = 4°C = 4 + 273 = 277 k
28. (b) According to first law of thermodynamics, T1 = 30°C = 30 + 273 = 303 k
DQ = D U + D W 600 ´ 4.2 277
\ b= =
DQ = heat absorbed by gas W 303 - 277
DW = work done by gas. Þ W = 236.5 joule
–20J = DU – 8J
DU = –12J = UFinal – Uinitial W 236.5 joule
Power P = = = 236.5 watt.
Uinitial = 30J. t 1sec
UFinal = 30 – 12 = 18J.
29. (d) Coefficient of performance, 35. (d) dU = dQ - dW = (8 ´105 - 6.5 ´105 ) = 1.5 ´105 J
T2
Cop = dW = dQ - dU == 105 - 1.5 ´ 105 = - 0.5 ´ 105 J
T1 - T2
– ve sign indicates that work done on the gas
273 - 20 253
5= = is 0.5 ´105 J .
T1 - (273 - 20) T1 - 253
5T1 – (5 × 253) = 253 36. (d) In cyclic process, change in total internal energy is
5T1 = 253 + (5 × 253) = 1518 zero.
DUcyclic = 0
1518
\ T1 = = 303.6
5 5R
DUBC = nCv DT = 1 ´ DT
or, T1 = 303.6 – 273 = 30.6 @ 31°C 2
EBD_7156
S-52 DPP/ CP11
Where, Cv = molar specific heat at constant volume. 2nd process is isobaric compression which is correctly
For BC, DT = –200 K shown in option (d)
\ DUBC = –500R 41. (c) P1V1g = P2V2g (Adiabatic change)
T g g
37. (d) Efficiency of engine A, h1 = 1 - , æV ö æ V ö
T1 P2 = P1 ç 1 ÷ = P1 ç 1 ÷ = P2(3)g
è V2 ø è V1 / 3 ø
T2 42. (b) Wext = negative of area with volume-axis
Efficiency of engine B, h2 = 1 -
T W(adiabatic) > W(isothermal)
Here, h1 = h2
P
T T2
\ T = T Þ T = T1T2 Adiabatic
1
38. (b) In the first process W is + ve as DV is positive, in the
second process W is – ve as DV is – ve and area under
the curve of second process is more Isothermal
\ Net Work < 0 and also P3 > P1. O
V0 2V0 V
P3
43. (a) Initial and final condition is same for all process
DU1 = DU2 = DU3
P1 from first law of thermodynamics
DQ = DU + DW
Work done
P2
DW1 > DW2 > DW3 (Area of P.V. graph)
So DQ1 > DQ2 > DQ3
pr1r2 p ´1´1
44. (c) W = =
V1 V2 2 2
39. (b) Internal energy and entropy are state function, they = p /2 J
do not depend upon path but on the state.
40. (d) 1st process is isothermal expansion which is only 45. (b) Differentiate PV = constant w.r.t V
correct shown in option (d) DP DV
Þ PDV + V DP = 0 Þ =–
P V
DPP/ CP12 S-53

1. (d) Molar mass of the gas = 4g/mol
Speed of any quantity x 3RT 3KT
Vrms = =
M m
gRT g ´ 3.3 ´ 273
V= Þ 952 = Where M and m are mol. wt and mass of gas
m 4 ´ 10-3 respectively
16 8
Þ g = 1.6 = =
10 5 3 ´1.38 ´10 - 23 ´ 273
CP 8 Vrms =
Also, g = C = 5 5 ´10 -17
V
-2
8´ 5 = 1 .5 ´ 10 m / s = 1.5 cm/s
So, CP = = 8JK–1mol–1
5 5 3
2. (d) Since vrms is doubled by increasing the temp. so by 6. (d) C p = R and Cv = R
2 2
3KT We know that Qv = nCvDT and Qp = nCpDT
vrms = , the temp. increase by four times.
m Qv 3
Þ Q =5.
V1 V2 p
Now for constant pressure =
T1 T2 Given Qp = 207 J Þ Qv @ 124 J
V1=V, T1=TºK, T2 = 4TºK, V2= ? 7. (c) On giving same amount of heat at constant pressure,
there is change in temperature for mono, dia and
V2 = 4V polyatomic gas.
n1Cv1 + n2Cv2 æ No. of molecules ö
3. (a) For mixture of gas, Cv = ( DQ) P = mCp DT ç m = ÷
n1 + n2 è Avogadro 's no. ø
3 1 5 5
4 ´ R + ´ R 6R + R 1
= 2 2 2 = 4 = 29 R ´ 2 = 29 R or DT µ
9 9´4 no. of molecules
æ 1ö 18
çè 4 + ÷ø 2
2 R
8. (a) C = Cv mix + .....(1)
5R 1 7 R 1- n
n1C p1 + n2 C p2 4´ + ´
and C p = = 2 2 2 n1C v1 + n 2 C v2
(n1 + n2 ) æ 1ö Now, Cvmix =
n1 + n 2
çè 4 + ÷ø
2
3R 5R
7 1´ +2´
10 R + R 2 2 = 13R
4 = 47 R =
= 1+ 2 6
9 18
2 13R R 1
From (1), 3R = + Þn=-
Cp 47 R 18 6 1- n 5
Þ
\ = ´ = 1.62
Cv 18 29 R 1 1
9. (a) P = r u 2 = ´ (6 ´ 10 - 2 ) ´ (500) 2
P1 V1 P2 V2 3 3
4. (b) = Here, P1 = 200kPa
T1 T2
= 5 ´ 10 3 N / m 2
T1 = 22°C = 295 K, T2 = 42°C = 315K
2 3kT
V2 = V1 + V1 = 1.02V1 10. (d) v rms = ................ (1)
100 m
200 ´ 315V1 3k ´ 3T
\ P2 = = 209.37kPa v 'rms = ................. (2)
295 ´1.02V1 m
5. (c) By kinetic theory of gases, Equ. (2) is dividing by equ. (1)
rms (root mean square) velocity of gas
EBD_7156
S-54 DPP/ CP12
v 'rms 3k.3T.m 2
1 æ1ö 1
= = 3 K.E. = ´ 32 ´ ç ÷ = ´ 2 ´ v2
v rms m.3kT 2 è2ø 2
RMS velocity of hydrogen molecules = 2 km/sec.
v'rms = 3v rms 18. (a) Let T be the temperature of the mixture, then
1 U = U1 + U2
11. (a) t= f
æ N ö 3RT Þ (n1 + n 2 ) RT
2pd2 ç ÷ 2
èVø M
V f f
tµ = (n1 ) (R) (T0 ) + (n 2 ) (R) (2T0 )
2 2
T
Þ (2 + 4)T = 2T0 + 8T0 (Q n1 = 2, n2 = 4)
As, TVg–1 = K 5
So, t µ Vg + 1/2 \ T = T0
3
g +1 19. (b) Coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure
Therefore, q =
2
1
mass 1 is for all gases. The average transnational K.E. is
= m3 273
12. (a) Volume =
density 4 same for molecules of all gases and for each molecules
5 5 1 3
K.E = PV = ´ 8 ´ 104 ´ = 5 ´ 104 J it is kT
2 2 4 2
13. (c) As no heat is lost, kT
Loss of kinetic energy = gain of internal energy of gas Mean free path l = (as P decreases, l
2 pd 2 P
1 2 1 2 m R
mv = nCV DT Þ mv = × DT increases)
2 2 M g –1
20. (c) For a given pressure, volume will be more if tempera-
Mv 2 ( g –1) ture is more (Charle's law)
Þ DT = K
2R P
14. (b) From graph, T2V = const. .....(1)
As we know that TVg–1 = const
Constant
1 pressure
Þ VT g-1 T1
= const. ....(2)
V
On comparing (1) and (2), we get V1 V2
Þ g = 3/2
From the graph it is clear that V2 > V1 Þ T2 > T1
3P Pg c2 400 2
Also v rms = and vsound = 2 400
r r 21. (a) = = Þ c2 = ´ 200 = ms -1
c1 300 3 3 3
v rms 3 PV æ mö PV æ R ö
Þ = = 2 22. (c) = nR = ç ÷ R or =ç ÷ m
vsound g T è Mø T è Mø
nRDT 1000 ´ 8.3 ´ 7 PV
15. (a) W= Þ -146000 = i.e., versus m graph is straight line passing
1- g 1- g T
through origin with slope R/M, i.e. the slope depends
58.1 58.1 on molecular mass of the gas M and is different for
or 1 - g = - Þ g = 1+ = 1.4 different gases.
146 146
Hence the gas is diatomic. 2 1
23. (d) Molecule number ratio is H 2 : O 2 = : .
3RT 3 3
16. (a) Crms =
M
2 æ 2ö + 1 æ 1ö
M is molecular wt. That gives (crms ) = 16 times the
è 3ø è 3ø
3R(273 + 47) 3RT
= = value for O2.
16 2
24. (a) According to Vander Waal's equation
Þ T = 40 K.
17. (a) When temperature is same according to kinetic theory nRT an 2
P= - 2
of gases, kinetic energy of molecules will be same. V - nb V
DPP/ CP12 S-55

Work done,
V2 V2
dV
V 2
dV 31. (a)
W= ò PdV = nRT ò
V - nb
- an2 ò 2
V n1
V1 V1 V 1 32. (a) Number of moles of first gas = N
A
V
é1ù 2 n2
= nRT [ loge (V - nb)]V2 + an2 ê ú
V
Number of moles of second gas = N
1 ëV ûV1 A
n3
æ V - nb ö 2 éV1 - V2 ù Number of moles of third gas = N
= nRT loge ç 2 ÷ + an ê ú A
è V1 - nb ø ë V1V2 û If there is no loss of energy then
25. (a) From PV = nRT P1V1 + P2V2 + P3V3 = PV
r M r M n1 n n n + n + n3
RT1 + 2 RT2 + 3 RT3 = 1 2 RTmix
PA = A A and PB = B B NA NA NA NA
RT RT
From question, n1T1 + n2T2 + n3T3
PA rA M A M 3 Þ Tmix = n1 + n2 + n3
= =2 A =
PB rB M B MB 2 33. (d) Since it hits the plane wall parallel to y z – plane and
it rebounds with same velocity, its y and z components
MA 3
So, M = 4 of velocity do not change, but the x-component
B reverses the sign.
\ Velocity after collision is (–vx, vy and vz).
m1C p1 + m 2C p2
26. (b) (C p )mix = The change in momentum is
m1 + m 2 – mvx – mvx = – 2mvx
5 7 34. (c) V and T will be same for both gases.
(C p1 ( He) = R and C p2 ( H 2 ) = R)
2 2 P1V = m1RT and P2V = m2RT
5 7 5 æm ö 5
1´ R + 1´ R (P1/P2) = \ ç 1÷=
(Cp)mix = =
2 2 3R = 3 × 2 = 6 cal/mol.°C 3
1 +1 è m2 ø 3
\ Amount of heat needed to raise the temperature from N1 N2
By definition, m1 = and m2 =
0°C to 100°C NA NA
(DQ ) p = mC p DT = 2 ´ 6 ´100 = 1200 cal N1 m1 5
\ = =
27. (a) 1 mole = 22.4 L at S.T.P. N 2 m2 3
4.5g 4.5 3 3
= 22.4 ´ = 5.6 L 35. (d) E= ´ 300 ; E ' = R(600) = 2E = 2 × 6.21 × 10–21
18g 18 2 2
28. (d) Internal energy of 2 moles of oxygen = 12.42 × 10–21 J.
æ5 ö 5 3R ´ 300 3R ´ 600
Uo 2 = µ ç RT÷ = 2. RT = 5RT vrms = ; v 'rms = = 2 vrms
è2 ø M M
2
= 684.44 m/s
Internal energy of 4 moles of Argon. 36. (d) Let the mass of the gas be m.
æ3 ö 3 At a fixed temperature and pressure, volume is fixed.
U Ar = µ ç RT÷ = 4. RT = 6RT
è2 ø 2 m
Density of the gas, r =
\ Total internal energy V
U = U O2 + U Ar = 11RT r m m
Now = =
m P PV nRT
29. (d) PV = RT m
M Þ = x (By question)
6 nRT
R ´ 500
Initially, PV = Þ xT = constant Þ x1T1 = x2T2
M
P (6 - x) é\ ù
Finally, V = R ´ 300 (if x g gas leaks out) x1T1 283 ê
2 M Þ x2 Þ = x T1 = 283K úú
6 5 T2 383 ê
Hence, 2 = ´ \ x = 1 gram êëT2 = 383K úû
6-x 3
dU d éM N ù é -6M 12N ù
2 2 f 1 2 F= =- ê - = -ê +
dr ë r 3 R12 úû ú
37. (b)
30. (b) g = 1 + , Þ g –1 = Þ = Þ f = dr ë r2 r13 û
f f 2 g –1 g –1
EBD_7156
S-56 DPP/ CP12
In equilibrium position, F = 0
For N molecule of a gas, V1= 3KT ´ N
6M 12N 6 2N
\ 2 - 13 = 0 or, r = m
r r M 3KT ´ 2N
\ Potential energy at equilibrium position For 2N molecule of a gas V2 =
(2m)
M N M2 M2 M2 V1
U= = = - = \ =1
(2N / M) (2N / M) 2 2N 4N 4N V2
38. (a) Pressure of the gas will not be affected by motion of 43. (c)
the system, hence by 44. (c) P-V diagram of the gas is a straight line passing
through origin. Hence P µ V or PV–1 = constant
3P 3P 1
vrms = Þ c2 = Þ P = rc 2 Molar heat capacity in the process PVx = constant
r r 3
R R
39. (b) Mean free path in a gas is 100 times the interatomic C= + ; Here g = 1.4 (For diatomic gas)
g -1 1 - x
distance.
R R
1/ 2
é (2) 2 + (3) 2 + (4) 2 + (5) 2 ù é 54 ù ÞC= + Þ C = 3R
= ê ú 1.4 - 1 1 + 1
40. (a) vrms = ê ú 45. (c) Given
êë 4 úû ë 4û
41. (c) If a gas is heated at constant volume then no work is CP - CV = 5000 J / mole °C .......(i)
done. The heat supplied is given by CP
= 1.6 .......(ii)
dQ = nCv dT CV
f From Equation (i) & (ii),
But Cv = R where f is the degree of freedom of the
CP CV 5000
2 Þ - =
gas CV CV CV
nfRdT
\ dQ = 5000
2 Þ 1.6 - 1 =
CV
2 ´ 3 ´ R ´ (373 - 273)
= = 300 R 5000
2 Þ CV = = 8.33 ´103
3KT 0.6
42. (b) For 1 molecule of a gas, Vrms = Hence CP = 1.6 CV = 1.6 × 8.33 × 103
m
where m is the mass of one molecule CP = 1.33 × 104

1. (a) For an SHM, the acceleration a = –w2x where w2 is a
a M
constant. Therefore, is a constant. The time period 5. (a) We know that T = 2p
x k
aT
T is also constant. Therefore,
x
is a constant. From first case, 2 = 2p M ........ (1)
2
k
4p m 2
m 4p m
2. (b) t1 = 2p or t12 = or k1 = 2 M+2
k1 k1 t1 In second case, 4 = 2p ........ (2)
k
4 p2m 4p 2 m From eq. (1) and eq. (2)
Similarly, k 2 = and (k1 + k 2 ) =
t 22 t 02 4 M+2 2
= Þ 4 = 1+
2 M M
4 p2m 4 p 2m 4 p2m 1 1 1
\ = + or = + 2 2
t 02 t12 t 22 t 02 t12 t 22 = 3 Þ M = kg
M 3
3. (b) y 6. (b) Amplitude of a damped oscillator at any instant t is given
by
A = A0e–bt/2m
B a
where A0 is the original amplitude
P From question,
q
A0
l When t = 2 s, A =
3
A0
\ = A0e–2b/2m
A x 3
O x M 1
or, = e–b/m … (i)
dq 3
= 2 \ q = 2t
dt A0
When t = 6 s, A =
Let BP = a, \ x = OM = a sin q = a sin (2t) n
Hence M executes SHM within the given time period A0
and its acceleration is opposite to x that means towards \ = A0e–6b/2m
left. n
4. (b) The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 1
given by or, = e–3b/m = (e–b/m)3
n
1 2 2 2 3
K= ma w sin wt 1 æ 1ö
2 or, =ç ÷ (Using eq. (i))
where, m = mass of particle n è 3ø
a = amplitude \ n = 33
w = angular frequency 7. (c) Acceleration due to gravity at a depth ‘d’ is given by,
t = time æ dö æ R -d ö g
1 g ' = g ç1 - ÷ = g ç ÷= y
Now, average K.E. = < K > = < mw2 a2 sin2 wt > è Rø è R ø R
2
1 d
= mw2a2 <sin2 wt >
2
1 æ 1ö æ 2 1ö
= mw2a2 çè ÷ø çè Q < sin q > = ÷ø R
2 2 2
1 1 R–d=y
= mw 2 a 2 = ma2 (2pn) 2 (Q w = 2pn)
4 4 or acceleration µ displacement
2 2 2 which is the condition for SHM. So, body will oscillate
or, < K > = p ma n
simple harmonically in tunnel.
EBD_7156
S-58 DPP/ CP13
13. (a) Here,
T x = x0 cos (wt – p / 4 )
8. (c) Time to complete 1/4th oscillation is s. Time to
4 dx æ pö
\ Velocity, v = = - x0 w sin ç wt - ÷
1 dt è 4ø
complete th vibration from extreme position is Acceleration,
8
obtained from dv 2 æ pö
a= = - x0 w cos ç wt - ÷
a 2p T dt è 4ø
y= = a cos w t = a cos t or t = s
2 T 6 é æ pö ù
= x0 w 2 cos ê p + ç wt - ÷ ú
So time to complete 3/8th oscillation ë è 4øû
T T 5T æ 3p ö
= + = 2
= x0 w cos ç wt + ÷ ...(1)
4 6 12 è 4ø
1 Acceleration, a = A cos (wt + d) ...(2)
9. (a) As we know, kinetic energy = mw2 (A 2 – x 2 )
2 Comparing the two equations, we get
1 2 2 3p
Potential energy = mw x A = x0w2 and d = .
2 4
1 M
mw2 (A 2 – x 2 ) T = 2p
2 1 A2 – x 2 1 14. (c)
k
\ = Þ =
1 4 x2 4
mw2 x 2 M + m 5T
2 T ' = 2p =
4 2 k 3
4A2 – 4x2 = x2 Þ x 2 = A 2 \x= A.
5 5 M +m 5 M
\ 2p = ´ 2p
k 3 k
l 1.21l
10. (d) T = 2p and T ' = 2p 25
g g M +m = ´M
9
(Q l ' = l + 21% of l) m 25 m 25 16
1+ = Þ = -1 =
T '- T M 9 M 9 9
% increase = ´ 100
T
15. (d) A = 0.05 m, y = 0.01 m
1.21l - l
=
l
´ 100 = ( )
1.21 - 1 ´ 100 Acceleration, a = 1.0 m/s2
We have, a = -w 2 y or | a |= w 2 y
= (1.1 - 1) ´ 100 = 10% Þ 1.0 = w 2 ´ 0.01
m 1.0
11. (d) T = 2p \ w2 = = 100 Þ w = 10
k 0.01
When a spring is cut into n parts 2 p 2p p
Spring constant for each part = nk Now, time period, T = = = sec.
w 10 5
Here, n = 4 16. (c) We have, U + K = E
m T where, U = potential energy, K = Kinetic energy, E =
T1 = 2p = Total energy.
4k 2
Also, we know that, in S.H.M., when potential energy is
12. (d) x = A cos (wt + d ) maximum, K.E. is zero and vice-versa.
y = A cos(wt + a ) ....(1) \U max + 0 = E Þ U max = E
p Further,
When d = a + 1
2 K .E . = mw 2 a 2 cos 2 w t
2
æp ö
x = A cos ç + wt + a ÷ But by question, K .E. = K0 cos 2 wt
è2 ø
1
x = - A sin (wt + a ) ....(2) \ K 0 = mw 2 a 2
2
Squaring (1) and (2) and then adding 1 2 2
x2 + y2 = A2 [cos2 (wt + a) + sin 2 (wt + a)] Hence, total energy, E = mw a = K 0
or x2 + y2 = A2, which is the equation of a circle. The 2
present motion is anticlockwise. \U max = K 0 & E = K0 .
DPP/ CP13 S-59

17. (b) Distance covered by lift is given by 22. (c) Here all the three springs are connected in parallel to
y = t2 mass m. Hence equivalent spring constant
\ Acceleration of lift upwards k = K + K + 2 K = 4 K.
d2 y d g 1 2 2 2
= = (2t) = 2 m / s 2 = 23. (a) K.E. = mw (a - x )
2 dt 5 2
dt
1 2 2
l When x = 0, K.E is maximum and is equal to mw a .
Now, T = 2p 2
g
24. (d) y = 5sin(p t + 4p ), comparing it with standard equation
l l 5 æ 2p t ö
T ' = 2p = 2p= T. y = a sin(wt + f ) = a sin ç +f ÷
g 6 6
g+ g è T ø
5 5
2p t
18. (d) In simple harmonic motion, starting from rest, a = 5m and = p t Þ T = 2 sec .
At t = 0 , x = A T
x = Acoswt ..... (i) x
displacement
When t = t , x = A – a 25. (b) T =2π = 2p = 2p / z
When t = 2 t , x = A –3a acceleration zx
From equation (i) 26. (b) Here, x = 2 × 10–2 cos p t
A – a = Acosw t ......(ii) Speed is given by
A – 3a = A cos2w t ....(iii) dx
As cos2w t = 2 cos2 w t – 1 ...(iv) v= = 2 × 10–2 p sin p t
From equation (ii), (iii) and (iv) dt
For the first time, the speed to be maximum,
2
A - 3a æ A-a ö p
= 2ç ÷ -1 sin p t = 1 or, sin p t = sin
A è A ø 2
p 1
A - 3a 2 A2 + 2a 2 - 4 Aa - A2 Þ pt = or,, t = = 0.5 sec.
Þ = 2 2
A A2
Þ 2 2 2
A – 3aA = A + 2a – 4Aa R 64 ´ 106 22 8 ´ 10 3
27. (d) T = 2p = 2p = 2´ ´
Þ 2a2 = aA g 9.8 7 7´ 2
Þ A = 2a
2 ´ 22 ´ 8 ´ 1000
a 1 = min = 84.6 min
Þ = 49 ´ 60
A 2
Now, A – a = A coswt 28. (a) x = 3sin 2t + 4cos2t . From given equation
A- a p
Þ cos wt = a1 = 3, a2 = 4, and f =
A 2
1 2p p
Þ cos wt = or t= \ a = a12 + a22 = 32 + 42 = 5
2 T 3
Þ T= 6t Þ vmax = aw = 5 ´ 2 = 10
dy1 æ pö 80
19. (b) v1 = = 0.1 ´ 100p cos ç100pt + ÷ 29. (d) Slope of F - x curve = – k = - Þ k = 400 N/m,
dt è 3ø 0.2
dy2 æ pö m
v2 = = - 0.1p sin pt = 0.1p cos ç pt + ÷ Time period, T = 2p = 0.0314 sec.
dt è 2ø k
30. (b) Phase change p in 50 oscillations.
p p 2 p - 3p p Phase change 2p in 100 oscillations.
\ Phase diff. = f1 - f 2 = - = =–
3 2 6 6 So frequency different ~ 1 in 100.
l
20. (c) f A =
1 g f
and f B = A =
1 g 31. (a) T = 2p ; 2 = 2p l = 2p l¢
2p LA 2 2p L B g g (g / 6 )
Time period will remain constant if on moon,
fA 1 g L LB L l' = l/6 = 1/6 m
\ = ´ 2p B Þ 2 = Þ 4= B ,
f A / 2 2p L A g LA LA 32. (b) Let k be the force constant of spring of length l2. Since
regardless of mass l1 = n l2, where n is an integer, so the spring is made of
21. (d) (n + 1) equal parts in length each of length l2.
EBD_7156
S-60 DPP/ CP13
1 (n + 1) v pmax75p 3p
\ = or k = (n + 1) K then = =
K k v 50 2
The spring of length l1 (= n l2) will be equivalent to n 37. (b) The equivalent situation is a series combination of two
springs connected in series where spring constant springs of spring constants k and 2k.
k If k' is the equivalent spring constant, then
k¢ = = (n + 1) K / n & spring constant of length l2 is
n (k )(2k ) 2 k
k' = =
K(n+1). 3k 3
33. (c) Given
y = 0.2 sin (10pt + 1.5p) cos (10pt + 1.5p) 3m
Þ T = 2p
We know that 2 sinA cos A = sin2A, we get 2k
y = 0.1 sin 2 (10pt + 1.5p) = 0.1 sin (20pt + 3p) æl ö
38. (a) Time period of simple pendulum T = 2p çç ÷÷ µ l
On comparing with wave equation g è ø
y = a sin (wt + f) we get
w = 20 p where l is effective length.
[i.e distance between centre of suspension and centre
2p 2p 1 of gravity of bob]
T= = = sec . = 0.1sec.
w 20p 10 Initially, centre of gravity is at the centre of sphere. When
34. (a) The displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is given by water leaks the centre of gravity goes down until it is
y = a sin (wt + f) half filled; then it begins to go up and finally it again
goes at the centre. That is effective length first increases
dy
velocity = = wa cos (wt + f) and then decreases. As T µ l , so time period first
dt
The velocity is maximum when the particle passes increases and then decreases.
through the mean position i.e., A
39. (d) At t = 0, x = 5 =
æ dy ö 2
çè ÷ø
dt max = w a p
Þ Initial phase, f = 30° =
The kinetic energy at this instant is given by 6
2 Þ x = A sin (wt + f)
1 æ dy ö 1
mç ÷ = mw2 a2 = 8 × 10–3 joule æ 2p pö æ pö
2 è dt ø max 2 = 10sin ç t + ÷ = 10sin ç pt + ÷
è T 6ø è 6ø
1 40. (b) For block A to move in S.H.M.
or × (0.1) w2 × (0.1)2 = 8 × 10–3
2 N
Solving we get w = ± 4
Substituting the values of a, w and f in the equation of A
S.H.M., we get
y = 0.1 sin (± 4t + p/4) metre.
mg x
1 2 2 mean
35. (d) K.E = k ( A - d ) position
2
mg – N = mw2x
1 2 where x is the distance from mean position
and P.E. = kd
2 For block to leave contact N = 0
At mean position d = 0. At extrement positions d = A
g
p Þ mg = mw2 x Þ x =
36. (b) y = 3sin (50t - x) w2
2
æ p ö l l
y = 3sin ç 25pt - x ÷ on comparing with the 41. (a) t = 2p ; t 0 = 2p
è 2 ø g eff g
standard wave equation
y = a sin (wt – kx) Buoyant
force 1000 Vg
w 25p
Wave velocity v = = = 50 m/sec.
k p/2
The velocity of particle 4
´ 1000 Vg
¶y æ p ö 3
vp = = 75p cos ç 25pt - x÷ Weight
¶t è 2 ø
vp max = 75p
DPP/ CP13 S-61

Under the action of second force,
æ4 ö 1000
Net force = çè - 1÷ø ´ 1000 Vg = Vg
F2 = mw 22 y
3 3
Under the action of resultant force,
1000 Vg g
g eff = = F1 + F2 = mw 2 y
4 4
3 ´ ´ 1000 V
3 Þ mw 2 y = mw12 y + mw 22 y
l
\ t = 2p Þ w 2 = w12 + w 22
g/4
2 2 2
t = 2t0 æ 2p ö æ 2p ö æ 2p ö
42. (a) K.E. of a body undergoing SHM is given by, Þ ç ÷ = ç ÷ +ç ÷
è Tø è T1 ø è T2 ø
1 2 2 2
K .E. = ma w cos wt 2 2
2 æ 4 ö æ 3ö
1 T12 T22 çè ÷ø × çè ÷ø
2 2 5 5 12
T .E. = ma w ÞT= = = .
2 T12 + T22 æ 4ö
2
æ 3ö
2
25
Given K.E. = 0.75 T.E. çè ÷ø + çè ÷ø
5 5
2 p
Þ 0.75 = cos wt Þ wt = 44. (d) F = – bV, b depends on all the three i.e, shape and size
6 of he block and viscosity of the medium.
p p´2 1 45. (c) When the bob moves from maximum angular
Þt= Þt= Þt= s displacement q to mean position, then the loss of
6´w 6 ´ 2p 6
gravitational potential energy is mgh
43. (a) Under the action of first force, F1 = mw12 y where h = l(1 – cos q)
EBD_7156
S-62 DPP/ CP14
l1 l2 l3 6. (d) Third overtone has a frequency 7 n, which means
1. (a)
7l
110 cm L= = three full loops + one half loop, which would
4
n1 : n2 : n3 = 3 : 2 : 1 make four nodes and four antinodes.
7. (c) Comparing it with y (x, t) = A cos (wt + p/2) cos kx.
1
nµ If kx = p/2, a node occurs ; \ 10 px = p/2 Þ x = 0.05 m
l
If kx = p, an antinode occurs Þ 10px = p
1 1 1
l1 : l 2 : l 3 = : : = 2:3:6 Þ x = 0.1 m
3 2 1
50p
l1 + l 2 + l 3 = 110 Also speed of wave w / k = = 5m / s and
10p
Þ 2x + 3x + 6x = 110 Þ x = 10 l = 2p / k = 2p / 10p = 0.2 m
\ The two bridges should be set at 2x i.e, 20 cm from
l
one end and 6x i.e, 60 cm from the other end. 8. (a) l1 + x = = 22.7 equation (1)
4
2. (a) Equation of the harmonic progressive wave given by :
y = a sin 2p (bt – cx). 3l
Here u = b l2 + x = = 70.2 equation (2)
4
2p 1
k= = 2pc take, = c 5λ
l l l3 + x = equation (3)
4
1 b
\ Velocity of the wave = ul = b = From equation (1) and (2)
c c
dy l 2 - 3 l 1 70 .2 - 68 .1 2 .1
= a 2pb cos 2p (bt – cx) = aw cos (wt – kx) x= = = = 1.05 cm
dt 2 2 2
Maximum particle velocity = aw= a2pb = 2p ab
l3 + x
b 2 1 From equation (2) and (3) =5
given this is 2 ´ i.e. 2pa = or c = l1 + x
c c pa
3. (c) y = 0.25 sin (10 px – 2pt) l 3 = 5 l 1 + 4x = 5 × 22.7 + 4 × 1.05 =117.7 cm
Comparing this equation with the standard wave H
equation A 0.9 km B I
y = asin (kx – wt) 9. (d)
ENGINE L
We get, k = 10p C L
2p Let after 5 sec engine at point C
Þ = 10p Þ l = 0.2 m
l AB BC
t= +
And w = 2p or, 2pv = 2p Þ v = 1Hz. 330 330
The sign inside the bracket is negative, hence the wave
travels in + ve x- direction. 0.9 ´ 1000 BC
5= +
330 330
2
4. (b) Amplitude of reflected wave = ´ 0 .9 = 0 .6 \ BC = 750 m
3 Distance travelled by engine in 5 sec
It would travel along negative direction of x-axis, and = 900 m – 750 m = 150 m
on reflection at a rigid support, there occurs a phase Therefore velocity of engine
change of p. 150 m
5. (c) Velocity of source = 18 km h–1 = 5 m s–1 = = 30 m/s
5sec
(i) S moves towards listener (vS) 10. (a) For fundamental mode,
(ii) listener moves towards source (vL) 1 T
f=
v + vL 2l m
n' = n = 280 Hz , Beats = n' – n = 8.
v - vS
DPP/ CP14 S-63
Taking logarithm on both sides, we get 15. (d) Figure(a) represents a harmonic wave of frequency
æ Tö 7.0 Hz, figure (b) represents a harmonic wave of
æ 1ö
log f = log ç ÷ + log ç ÷ frequency 5.0 Hz. Therefore beat frequency
è 2l ø è mø vs = 7 – 5 = 2.0 Hz.
æ1 ö 1 æTö
= log çè ÷ø + log ç ÷ 16. (a)uµ T
2l 2 èmø
17. (b) In fundamental mode,
æ1ö 1 l
or log f = log ç ÷ + [log T - log m] = l Þ l = 2l
è 2l ø 2
2
Differentiating both sides, we get
v v
df 1 dT \ f = = ....... (1)
= (as l and m are constants) l 2l
f 2 T
dT df A A
Þ = 2´
T f
l \2 l \4
Here df = 6
f = 600 Hz N
l N l/2
dT 2 ´ 6
\ = = 0.02
T 600
11. (b) Frequency received by listener from the rear source,
v -u v -u v v-u A
n¢ = ń = ´ =
v v l l Fundamental mode Half length dipped
Frequency received by listener from the front source, in water
v+u v v+u In half length dipped in water mode,

n¢¢ = ´ = l l
v l l = Þ l = 2l
No. of beats = n'' – n' 2 4
v+u v -u v + u - v + u 2u v v
- = \ f '= = = f
= = l 2l
l l l l 18. (a) Given wave equation is y(x,t)
é vù
é v + v0 ù êv + 5 ú é6ù =e
(- ax +bt +2
2 2
ab xt )
12. (c) n ' = n ê v ú = n ê ú = nê ú
ë û ê v ú ë5û -[( ax )2 + ( b t ) 2 + 2 a x . b t ]
êë úû =e
n' 6 n' - n 6 - 5 -( ax + bt ) 2
= ; = ´ 100 = 20% =e
n 5 n 5 æ ö
2
13. (c) In a closed organ pipe the fundamental frequency is - çè x +
b ÷
tø
= e a
u
u= It is a function of type y = f (x + vt)
4L
320 ms -1 Þ Speed of wave =
b
u= = 80 Hz a
4 ´1 m
In a closed organ pipe only odd harmonics are present. 19. (c) Particle velocity
So, it can resonate with 80 Hz, 240 Hz, 400 Hz, 560 Hz. d é æ x öù
14. (b) v = dt ê x 0 sin 2pç nt - l ÷ú
ë è øû
f f' f" f'
–1 –1 æ xö
S 30 ms O O 30 ms S = 2 pnx 0 cos 2pç nt - ÷
è l ø
f ¢ is the apparent frequency received by an observer at
the hill. f ¢¢ is the frequency of the reflected sound as \ Maximum particle velocity = 2pnx 0
heard by driver.
l
v Wave velocity = = nl
f '= f, T
v - 30
2pnx 0 px 0
v + 30 v + 30 360 Given, 2pnx 0 = 4nl Þ l = =
f"= f'= f= ´ 600 4n 2
v v - 30 300 20. (d) As number of beats/sec = diff. in frequencies has to be
= 720 Hz
less than 10, therefore 0 < (n1 – n2) < 10
EBD_7156
S-64 DPP/ CP14
21. (c) Length of pipe = 85 cm = 0.85m I I
Frequency of oscillations of air column in closed organ or, 1 = 102 or, I2 = 1 .
I2 100
pipe is given by,
Þ Intensity decreases by a factor 100.
(2n - 1)u 28. (a) y(x, t) = 0.005 cos (ax - bt) (Given)
f =
4L Comparing it with the standard equation of wave
(2 n - 1)u y(x, t) = a cos (kx - wt) we get
f = £ 1250
4L
k = a and w = b
(2n - 1) ´ 340
Þ £ 1250 2p 2p
0.85 ´ 4 But k = and w =
Þ 2n – 1 < 12.5 » 6 l T
22. (b) As the source is not moving towards or away from the 2p 2p
Þ = a and =b
observer in a straight line, so the Doppler’s effect will not l T
be observed by the observer. Given that l = 0.08 m and T = 2.0s
23. (c) Frequency of first source with 5 beats/ sec = 100 Hz and 2p 2p
frequency of second source with 5 beats/sec = 205 Hz. \ a= = 25p and b = =p
0.08 2
The frequency of the first source = 100 ± 5 = 105 or 95 Hz.
29. (b) Equation is of stationary wave. Comparing with the
Therefore, frequency of second harmonic of source = 210
standard equation
Hz or 190 Hz. As the second harmonic gives 5 beats/
second with the sound of frequency 205 Hz, therefore, æ 2p ö æ 2p ö
y = 2A sin çè ÷ø t cos çè ÷ø x
frequency of second harmonic source should be 210 Hz T l
or frequency of source = 105 Hz. 2p 2p
= 4.5 or l = = 1.4m
24. (c) Pressure change will be minimum at both ends. In fact, l 4.5
pressure variation is maximum at l/2 because the dis- 30. (b) Waves are kind of disturbances which moves from one
placement node is pressure antinode. place to another without the actual physical transfer of
25. (a) nLast = nFirst + (N – 1)x matter of the medium as a whole. The particles of the
medium only oscillate but do not travel from one place
2n = n + (41 – 1 ) × 5
to another.
Þ nFirst = 200 Hz and nLast = 400 Hz Waves transport energy and the pattern of disturbance
26. (b) Here, T = 0.05 sec, v = 300 ms–1. has information that propagate from one point to
another. Here, wave pattern propagates.
v
Now l = = vT = (300 ´ 0.05)m All our communication essentially depend on
v
transmission of signals through the waves.
or, l = 15 m
Phase of the point at 10 m from the source v 3v l1 1
31. (b) = , \ =
4 l1 2 l 2 l2 6
2p 2p 4p
= ´x= ´ 10 = rad 32. (c) w1 = 600p, w2 = 604p,
l 15 3
Phase of the point at 15 m from the source f1 = 300 Hz, f2 = 302 Hz
Beat frequency, f2 – f1 = 2 Hz
2p 2p
´x = ´ 15 = 2p rad Þ number of beats in three seconds = 6
l 15
\ The phase difference between the points 33. (b) Given f A = 1800Hz
4 p 2p vt = v
= 2p - = rad fB = 2150 Hz
3 3
æ I2 ö Reflected wave frequency received by A, f A¢ = ?
æI ö
27. (a) We have, L1 = 10log ç 1 ÷ ; L2 = 10 log ç ÷ Applying doppler’s effect of sound,
èI ø 0
è I0 ø
vs f
æI ö æI ö f¢ =
\ L1 – L2 = 10 log ç 1 ÷ - 10log ç 2 ÷ vs - v t
è 0ø
I è I0 ø
æ f ö
æI I ö æI ö here, v t = vs ç1 - A ÷
or, DL = 10 log ç 1 ´ 0 ÷ or, DL = 10log ç 1 ÷ è fB ø
I I
è 0 2ø è I2 ø
æ 1800 ö
= 343 ç 1 - ÷
æI ö æI ö è 2150 ø
or, 20 = 10 log 1 or, 2 = log 1
çè I ÷ø çè I ÷ø vt = 55.8372 m/s
2 2
DPP/ CP14 S-65
Now, for the reflected wave,

1
or, n µ or nl = constant, K
æ v + vt ö l
\ f A¢ = ç s ÷ fA
è vs - v t ø \ n1l1 = K,
n2l2 = K, n3l3 = K
æ 343 + 55.83 ö
=ç ÷ ´ 1800 Also, l = l1 + l2 +l3
è 343 - 55.83 ø
K K K K
= 2499.44 » 2500Hz or, n = n + n + n
34. (a) Standing waves are produced when two waves 1 2 3
propagate in opposite direction 1 1 1 1
or, n = n + n + n
As z 1 & z 2 are propagating in +ve x-axis & 1 2 3
–ve x-axis 2
38. (a) Time taken for two syllables t = sec.
so, z1 + z2 will represent a standing wave. 5
35. (d) Load supported by sonometer wire = 4 kg
2
Tension in sonometer wire = 4 g x + x = v ´ t = 330 ´ \ x = 66 m
5
If m = mass per unit length
g RT
1 T 39. (a) Velocity of sound =
then frequency u = M
2l m
When water vapour are represent in air average
1 4g molecular weight of air decreases and hence velocity
Þ 416 = increases.
2l m
When length is doubled, i.e., l¢ = 2l I max (a + b)2 a+b
40. (b) = = 49 \ =7
Let new load = L I min (a - b) 2 a-b
As, u¢ = u a 8 4
= =
7a – 7b = a + b or 6a = 8b or
1 Lg 1 4g b 6 3
\ = 41. (a) By the concept of accoustic, the observer and source
2l ¢ m 2l m
are moving towards each other, each with a velocity of
1 Lg 1 4g 18 m s–1.
Þ =
4l m 2l m 330 + 18
\n ' = ´1000 » 1115 Hz
330 - 18
Þ L = 2 ´ 2 Þ L = 16 kg
42. (c) Compare the given equation with standard form
36. (b) Let the string vibrates in p loops, wavelength of the
pth mode of vibration is given by é 2px 2pt ù
y = r sin ê -
2l ë l T úû
lp =
p 2p 2p 2p
= 3, l = and = 15
æ 4px ö l 3 T
Given, y = 2 sin ç ÷ cos(96 pt)
è 15 ø 2p
T=
é æ 4px ö æ 4px ö 15
or y = 2 êsin ç + 96pt ÷ + sin ç – 96pt ÷
ë è 15 ø è 15 ø l 2p / 3
Comparing it with standard equation, we get Speed of propagation, v = = =5
T 2 p / 15
96 p 4p 43. (c) The contrast will be maximum, when I1 = I2 i.e.
u= = 48 Hz and k =
2p 15
a = b. In that event, Imin = (a – b)2 = 0, where a and b are
1 2 ´ 60 4p the amplitudes of interfering waves.
= ´
48 p 15 ´ 96 p 44. (b) Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe
Þ p = 16. V
Vc =
l1 l2 l3 4lc
37. (b)
Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe
1 T V
n= V0 =
2l m 2l0
EBD_7156
S-66 DPP/ CP14
3V w 2 p l 180
Second overtone frequency of open organ pipe = v= = ´ = = 30 m / s
2l0 k T 2p 6
From question, Differentiating (1) w.r.t. t,
V 3V dy
= v= = -60 ´ 180 sin(180 t - 6 x )
4lc 2l0 dt
Þ l0 = 6lc = 6 × 20 = 120 cm vmax = 60 × 180 mm/s
45. (b) y = 60 cos (180t – 6x) ....(1) = 10800 mm/s = 0.0108 m/s
2p v max 0.0108
w = 180, k = 6 Þ =6 = = 3.6 ´ 10 - 4
l v 30

1. (a) Electric field intensity at the centre of the disc.
s 1 q2
E= = [2 - 1] = F
2 Î0
(given) 4pe 0 r 2
Electric field along the axis at any distance x from the r
centre of the disc 4. (d) Since electric field E decreases inside water, therefore
r r
æ ö
flux f = Ε.A also decreases.
s x
E' = ç1 - ÷ 5. (d) Unit positive charge at O will be repelled equally by
ç
2 Î0 ÷
è x2 + R 2 ø three charges at the three corners of triangle. By
From question, x = R (radius of disc) r
symmetry, resultant E at O would be zero.
æ ö
\ E ' = s ç1 - R 6. (c) When a dipole is placed in a uniform electric field, two
÷
2 Î0 çè ÷ equal and opposite forces act on it. Therefore, a torque
R + R2
2
ø acts which rotates the dipole.
s æ 2R - R ö 7. (d) Force acting on the charged particle due to electric
= ç ÷
2 Î0 çè 2R ÷ø
®
field = qE
S
4
= E
14
\ % reduction in the value of electric field
60° E
æ 4 ö
çè E - E÷ø ´ 100 work done in moving through distance S,
14 1000
= = % ; 70.7% ® ®
E 14
W = qE . S = (qE) ´ S ´ cos q
Charge \ 10 J = (0.5 C) × E × 2 cos 60°
2. (a) Surface charge density (s) =
Surface area E = 10 × 2 = 20 NC–1 = 20 Vm–1
– Q + 2Q = Q 8. (c) The charged sphere is a conductor. Therefore the field
-2Q inside is zero and outside it is proportional to 1/r2
So sinner = –2Q
4pb2 a q
b 9. (d) Since f total = f A + f B + fC = ,
e0
Q c
and sOuter = 2
+2Q where q is the total charge.
4pc As shown in the figure, flux associated with the curved
3. (a) Initial force between the two spheres carrying charge surface B is f = fB
(say q) is
Let us assume flux linked with the plane surfaces A and
1 q2 C be
F= (r is the distance between them)
4pe 0 r 2 fA = fC = f'
Further when an uncharged sphere is kept in touch with Therefore,
the sphere of charge q, the net charge on both become q
= 2f '+ f B = 2f '+ f
q+0 q e0
= . Force on the 3rd charge, when placed in
2 2 1æ q ö
center of the 1st two Þ f' = ç - f÷
2 è e0 ø
r/2 r/2
2kp kp
10. (b) We have Ea = and Ee = 3 ; \ Ea = 2Ee
B C A r 3 r
q q/2 q/2 11. (c) Electric lines of force due to a positive charge is
spherically symmetric.
2
æqö æqö All the charges are positive and equal in magnitude.
qç ÷ ç ÷ So repulsion takes place. Due to which no lines of
1 è2ø - 1 è2ø
F3 = force are present inside the equilateral triangle and
4pe 0 æ r ö 2 4pe 0 æ r ö 2
ç ÷ ç ÷ the resulting lines of force obtained as shown:
è2ø è2ø
EBD_7156
S-68 DPP/ CP15
16. (b) Net flux emmited from a spherical surface of radius a
according to Gauss’s theorem
q
+q fnet = in
e0 qin
or, (Aa) (4pa2) = e
0
So, qin = 4pe0 A a3
+q +q
17. (a) Since lines of force starts from A and ends at B, so A is
+ve and B is –ve. Lines of forces are more crowded near
A, so A > B.
18. (c) Net force on each of the charge due to the other charges
is zero. However, disturbance in any direction other than
12. (a) a a along the line on which the charges lie, will not make the
Q1 Q2 Q3 charges return.
19. (c)
Q 2 = -Q3 = Q 20. (d) For distances far away from centre of dipole
Force on Q3 due to Q 2 + Force on Q3 due to Q1 = 0.
1 2p
E axis = E a =
1 æ - Q2 ö 1 Q1 Q 4pe0 r 3
ç ÷+ = 0 Þ Q = 4Q
4p Î0 çè a 2 ÷ø 4p Î0 4 a 2 1 3
1 p
13. (b) Charge per cm length of the wire = qC Eequa = E e = -
4pe 0 r 3
\ Charge per metre of the wire = 100q C
According to Gauss’s law, d 1 d
Total electric flux passing through the cylindrical ( Ea ) = 2p ( r -3 )
dr 4pe0 dr
surface
q 100q 1 p
f = enclosed = = -6 × ... (i)
e0 e0 4pe 0 r 4
+
+
+ d 1 d
+
+ ( Ee ) = p ( r -3 )
+ dr 4pe 0 dr
+
+
+ 1 p
+ 1m = -3
+ ... (ii)
+ 4pe0 r 4
+
+
+ From equation (i) and (ii) the magnitude of change in
+
+ 50 cm electric field w.r.t. distance is more in case of axis of
+
+ dipole as compared to equatorial plane.
+
2q q –3q
L
14. (c) T0 = 2p 21. (b) P A B
g l d
When the plates are charged, the net acceleration is, Let a charge 2q be placed at P, at a distance I from
g' = g +a A where charge q is placed, as shown in figure.
The charge 2q will not experience any force, when
qE æ qE ö
g' = g + çè a = ÷ force, when force of repulsion on it due to q is
m mø balanced by force of attraction on it due to –3q at B
L where AB = d
\ T = 2p
qE (2q)(q ) (2q )(-3q)
g+
m or 2
=
1/ 2
4pe0 l 4pe 0 (l + d )2
T æ g ö
\ = (l + d)2 = 3l2
T0 çç g + qE ÷÷
or 2l2 – 2ld – d2 = 0
è m ø
15. (c) Char ges (q) = 2 × 10 –6 C, Distan ce (d) 2d ± 4d 2 + 2d 2 d 3d
= 3 cm = 3 × 10 –2 m and electric field (E) \ l= = ±
= 2 × 105 N/C. Torque (t) = q.d. 4 2 2
E =(2 × 10–6) × (3 × 10–2) × (2 × 105)
d + 3d
= 12 × 10–3 N–m . l=
2
DPP/ CP15 S-69
22. (d) Let F be the force between Q and Q. The force between 1 (2q) (- q) F
q and Q should be attractive for net force on Q to be Now, force F¢ = Þ F¢ =
4pe0 2 8
zero. Let F ¢ be the force between Q and q . The resultant r
30. (a) – eE = mg
of F ¢ and F ¢ is R. For equilibrium
Q q uur 9.1 ´ 10 -31 ´ 10 -11
E =- = -5.6 ´ 10 N / C
1.6 ´ 10 -19
l R F¢ r r r
31. (d) Torque, t = p ´ E = pE sin q
4 = p × 2 × 105 × sin 30°
q Q
F¢ 4
F or, p = 5
= 4 ´ 10-5 Cm
r r 2 ´ 10 ´ sin 30°
R+ F =0 2 F ' = -F Dipole moment, p = q × l
Qq Q2 Q
2 ´ k 2 = -k 2 Þ q
= -2 2 p 4 ´10-5
l ( 2 l) q= = = 2 ´ 10-3 C = 2mC
l 0.02
23. (b) Nuclear force binds the protons and neutrons in the
nucleus of an atom. 32. (c) K.E. = Force × distance = qE.y
33. (d) Charge (q) = 0.2 C; Distance (d) = 2 m; Angle q = 60º and
4 3
24. (c) Net downward force on the drop = pr (r - r0 ) g Work done (W) = 4J.
3
Work done in moving the charge (W)
For equilibrium, electric force must be upwards i.e.
charge on the drop is positive. = F.d cos q = qEd cos q
W 4 4
4 3 4pr 3 (r - r0 ) g or, E = = = = 20 N/C.
neE = pr (r - r0 ) g i.e. n = qd cos q 0.2 ´ 2 ´ cos 60º 0.4 ´ 0.5
3 3eE r r
25. (d) Electric flux, f = EA cos q , 34. (a) f = E. A = 4iˆ.(2iˆ + 3 ˆj ) = 8 V-m
35. (d) The dipole is placed in a non-uniform field, therefore a
where q = angle between E and normal to the surface.
force as well as a couple acts on it. The force on the
p negative charge is more (F µ E) and is directed along
Here q =
2 negative x-axis. Thus the dipole moves along negative
Þ f=0 x-axis and rotates in an anticlockwise direction.
26. (a) Potential energy of an electric dipole in an electric field E 1q –q
is, U = – p .E i.e. U = –pE cosq
For minimum U, q = 0º a
E
Þ Umin = –pE cos 0 = –pE
27. (c) Milikan demonstrated the quantisation of charge +q E2q
experimentally. Charge on electron = –e = –1.6×10–19 C.
Addition of charge can occur in integral multiples uur ur
36. (b) Flux = E . A.
of e.
uur ur
28. (c) Let n be the number of electrons missing. E is electric field vector & A is area vector..
uur ur
1 q2 Here, angle between E & A is 90º.
F= ×
4pe 0 d 2 uur ur
So, E . A = 0 ; Flux = 0
Þ q = 4pe 0 d 2 F = ne 37. (c) The charge on disc A is 10–6 mC. The charge on disc
B is 10 × 10–6 mC. The total charge on both = 11 mC.
When touched, this charge will be distributed equally
4pe 0 Fd 2
\ n= i.e. 5.5 mC on each disc.
e2 38. (a) According to Gauss’s law total electric flux through a
1 (4q) (-4q) 1
closed surface is times the total charge inside that
29. (b) F = 4pe e0
0 r2 surface.
when C is touched with A, then charge on A & C each =
2q after that C is touched with B, charge on q
Electric flux, fE =
e0
2q + (-4q)
B= = -q
2
EBD_7156
S-70 DPP/ CP15
Charge on a-particle = 2e l
Electric field, E = 2pe r
0
2e
fE = -1.75 ´10-7
e0
=
39. (b) It is possible to create or destroy charged particles but 2 ´ 3.14 ´ 8.854 ´10 -12 ´ 4.6 ´ 10 -3
it is not possible to create or destroy net charge. The = –6.7 × 105 N C–1
charge of an isolated system is conserved. 44. (a) Charge resides on the outer surface of a conducting
40. (a) The flux is zero according to Gauss’ Law because it is a hollow sphere of radius R. We consider a spherical
open surface which enclosed a charge q. surface of radius r < R.
41. (d) By Gauss law, we know that By Gauss theorem
++ +++
q ++ +
f= Here, Net electric flux, f = f2 – f1 +
+ +
e0 + +
+ R +
q + O +
+ S +
= 9 × 106 – 6 × 106 =
e0
Þ q = 3 × 106 × e0. + r +
+ E +
r r +
+
+
42. (d) They will not experience any force if | FG |=| Fe | + +
++
+ + +
rr 1
m2 1 q2 q 1
Þ G -2 2
= .
-
4 pe0 (16 ´ 10 )2 2
Þ =
m
4pe 0 G òsE.ds = e0 ´ charge enclosed or E ´ 4 pr 2 =
e0
´0
(16 ´ 10 )
43. (c) Here, l = 2.4 m, r = 4.6 mm = 4.6 × 10–3 m ÞE=0
q = – 4.2 × 10–7 C i.e electric field inside a hollow sphere is zero.
q Q in
Linear charge density, l = 45. (c) By Gauss’s theorem, f =
l Î0
-4.2 ´ 10-7 Thus, the net flux depends only on the charge enclosed
= = –1.75 ×10–7 C m–1 by the surface. Hence, there will be no effect on the net
2.4
flux if the radius of the surface is doubled.

1. (d) As volume remains constant, therefore, 6. (c)
4 4
p R 3 = n ´ p r3 \ R = n 1 / 3 r. r
3 3
–q +q
New potential = V´= n q = nq
O
4 p eoR 4 p e o (n 1/ 3
r)
q
= n2/3 = n 2 / 3 V.
4 p eor mv 2 kq 2 kq 2
= 2 ; mv 2 =
Î0 A Î0 A 2 Î0 A (1 + K ) r (2r) 4r
2. (a) Ca = and Cb = =
d d d d Kinetic energy of each particle
+
2 2K
1 kq 2
A A = mv 2 =
Î0 Î0 K Î A 2 8r
and C c = 2 + 2 = 0 (1 + K) 7. (b) It consists of two capacitors in parallel, therefore, the
d d 2d
2 Î0 A
Î0 A total capacitance is =
or C b = 2(1 + K ) > C a d
d
Î0 A 1 + K + + + +
or C c = > C a \ C b and C c > C a + + + +
d 2 – – – –
– – – –
3. (c) Charges reside only on the outer surface of a conductor
+A – – – – –B
with cavity. – – – –
4. (b) In oil, C becomes twice, V becomes half. Therefore, + + + +
+ + + +
E = V/d becomes half.
C1 6mF (The plates of B, having negative charge do not
constitute a capacitor).
C3 C5 6mF 8. (a) The potential energy of a charged capacitor is given
5. (d) X A Y
6mF 20mF C2
C4 Q2
by U = .
6mF 2C
Equivalent circuit If a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates, the
6mF C2 Q2
C1 6mF energy is given by , where K is the dielectric
6mF 2KC
X 20mF
6mF Y constant.
C3 6mF
Again, when the dielectric slab is removed slowly its
6mF C4 energy increases to initial potential energy. Thus, work
done is zero.
C1 C2 æ 1ö
Here, C = C 9. (a) As x = t ç1 - ÷ , where x is the addition distance of
3 4 è K ø
Hence, no charge will flow through 20mF plate, to restore the capacity of original value.
C1 C2 C'
æ 1ö
\ 3.5 ´ 10 -5 = 4 ´ 10 -5 ç1 - ÷ .
è K ø
X Y ÞX Y
Solving, we get, K = 8.
10. (b) At. equipotential surface, the potential is same at any
C3 C4 C'' point i.e., VA = VB as shown in figure. Hence no work is
C1 and C2 are in series, also C3 and C4 are in series. required to move unit change from one point to another
Hence, C' = 3 mF, C'' = 3 mF i.e.,
C' and C'' are in parallel. W
VA - VB = =0Þ W =0
Hence net capacitance = C' + C'' = 3 + 3 = 6 mF unit ch arg e
EBD_7156
S-72 DPP/ CP16
equipotential V
16. (d) In equilibrium, F = q E = ( n e) = mg
surface d
VA VB
mg d 1.96 ´ 10 -15 ´ 9.8 ´ 0.02
n= = =3
eV 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 800
1 1
VAVB 17. (a) E= CV 2 = ´ 1 ´ 10-6 ´ (4000) 2 = 8 J.
2 2
11. (b) 18. (d) As we know,
(i) Electrostatic field is zero inside a charged conductor or
Total charge
neutral conductor. Common potential =
(ii) Electrostatic field at the surface of a charged conductor Total capacity
must be normal to the surface at every point. Q1 = C0V1, Q2 = 0, therefore
(iii) There is no net charge at any point inside the conductor
C0 V1 + 0 V
and any excess charge must reside at the surface. V2 = = 1
(iv) Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the C0 + kC0 1 + k
volume of the conductor and has the same value (as V1 V V – V2
insde) on its surface. 1+ k = or k = 1 – 1 = 1
V2 V2 V2
(v) Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor is
r s 19. (b) Potential difference across the branch de is 6 V. Net
E = nˆ capacitance of de branch is 2.1 µF
e0
12. (b) In shell, q charge is uniformly distributed over its So, q = CV
surface, it behaves as a conductor. Þ q = 2.1 × 6 µC
+ Þ q = 12.6 µ C
+ Potential across 3 µF capacitance is
+ q
12.6
+
R + V= = 4.2 volt
+ 3
+
Potential across 2 and 5 combination in parallel is 6 –
+
q 4.2 = 1.8 V
V= potential at surface = and inside So, q' = (1.8) (5) = 9 µC
4pe 0 R
q
V=
4pe 0 R
Q2 Q1
Because of this it behaves as an equipotential surface. 20. (c) R1
13. (c) Volume of big drop = 1000 × volume of each small drop R2
r
4 3 4
pR = 1000 ´ pr 3 Þ R = 10r
3 3
Q V = kq and V ' = kq ´1000 Q2 Q1
r R Vr = +
Total charge on one small droplet is q and on the big 4 pe 0 r 4pe 0 R1
drop is 1000q.
1 æ Q 2 Q1 ö
V ' 1000r 1000 Vr = ç + ÷
Þ = = = 100 4 pe0 è r R1 ø
V R 10
\ V ' = 100V 1
14. (c) In a round trip, displacement is zero. Hence, work done 21. (d) U = QV = Area of triangle OAB
2
is zero.
22. (b) Charge on a particle, q = 2 e.
+q K.E. = work done = q × V = 2e × 106 V = 2 MeV.
r 23. (a) Let the side length of square be 'a' then potential at
centre O is
+Q
–Q –q
O
15. (b) The two capacitors are in parallel so
eo A 2Q 2q
C= (k1 + k2)
t´2
DPP/ CP16 S-73
(ii) charge q remains unchanged

k (-Q) k (-q) k (2q ) k (2Q)
V= + + + =0 (iii) potential V decreases
æ a ö a a a
çè ÷ (iv) energy E decreases
2ø 2 2 2
30. (b) Electric lines of force are always perpendicular to an
(Given) equipotential surface.
= – Q – q + 2q + 2Q = 0 = Q + q = 0 31. (c) All the charge given to inner sphere will pass on to the
=Q=–q outer one. So capacitance that of outer one is 4p Î0 b .
k Î0 A 32. (a) In Ist case when capacitor C attached with battery
24. (b) C0 =
d charged with the energy.
k Î0 2 2k Î0 A 4 k Î0 A U1= U (stored energy on capacitor).
C= + =
3d 3d 3 d In IInd case after disconnect of battery similar capacitor
is attached in parallel with Ist capacitor then
4 k Î0 A Ceq.= C' = 2C.
C 3 d 4
\ C = kÎ A = 3
0 0 1 q2
d U1 2 C = C' 2C
Now, = = (Q C' = 2C)
25. (b) Work done = Change in energy U2 1 q2 C C
1æ C ö 2 1 æ 3C ö 2 3CV 2 2 C'
= ç C + ÷ V = çè ÷ø V =
2è 2ø 2 2 4 U
U2 =
26. (a) Potential at B, VB is maximum 2
VB > VC > VA 33. (a) Here we have to findout the shape of equipotential
surface, these surface are perpendicular to the field
As in the direction of electric field potential de-
lines, so there must be electric field which can not be
creases.
without charge.
27. (a) The equivalent circuit diagram as shown in the figure.
So, the collection of charges, whose total sum is not
Q2 2µF C Q2 3µF zero, with regard to great distance can be considered
as a point charge. The equipotentials due to point charge
A B are spherical in shape as electric potential due to point
Q Q1 2µF Q charge q is given by
q
5V V = Ke
r
The equivalent capacitance between A and B is This suggest that electric potentials due to point charge
2µF ´ 3µF 16 is same for all equidistant points. The locus of these
Ceq = + 2µF = µF equidistant points which are at same potential, form
2µF + 3µF 5
spherical surface.
Total charge of the given circuit is The lines of field from point charge are radial. So the
16 equipotential surface perpendicular to field lines from
Q= µF ´ 5V = 16µC
5 a sphere.
Q1 = (2µF) ´ 5V = 10µC 34. (c) Equipotential surfaces are normal to the electric field
\ Q2 = Q – Q1 = 16 µC – 10 µC = 6 µC lines. The following figure shows the equipotential
\ Voltage between B and C is surfaces along with electric field lines for a system of
Q 2 6µC two positive charges.
VBC = = = 2V
3µF 3µF
28. (d) Electric field
s Q
E= =
e Ae
e of kerosine oil is more than that of air..
As e increases, E decreases.
29. (c) When a battery across the plates of capacitor is
disconnected and dielectric slab is placed in between 35. (c) Let plate A plate B be carrying charges Q1 and Q2 re-
the plates, then spectively. When they are brought closer, they induce
(i) capacity C increases equal and opposite charges on each other i.e. – Q2 on
EBD_7156
S-74 DPP/ CP16
plate A and – Q1 on plate B. Therefore, net charge on dV
plate A = Q1 – Q2 and net charge on plate B = – (Q1 – 40. (a) As we know, E = –
dx
Q2), so the charge on the capacitor = Q1 – Q2. Potential at the point x = 2m, y = 2m is given by :
\ Potential different between the plates 2, 2
V
V= 1
Q – Q2
ò dV = – ò (25dx + 30dy )
C 0 0
Î A on solving we get,
36. (d) C = 0 V = – 110 volt.
d
A ® common area, Here A = A1 41. (d) On the equipotential surface, electric field is normal
to the charged surface (where potential exists) so
37. (a) The equivalent circuit is shown in figure.
that no work will be done.
CAB = 3mF.
42. (b)
B
43. (b) Potential at the centre of the triangle,
2µF åq 2q - q - q
V= = =0
1µF 1µF 4 p e0 r 4 p e0r
2µF Obviously, E ¹ 0
44. (a) Whenever a charge (+50 nC) is kept inside a hollow
A metallic spherical shell, it induces an equal and opposite
38. (c) If we increase the distance between the plates its charge on the inner surface and an equal and same
capacity decreases resulting in higher potential as we type of charges on the outer surface.
know Q = CV. Since Q is constant (battery has been \ Inside, induced charge is – 50 nC and outside, +50
disconnected), on decreasing C, V will increase. nC – 150 nC already present.
1 Q 1 æ -2Q ö 45. (b) In parallel, potential is same, say V
39. (a) V = V1 + V2 + V3 = . + ç ÷
4p Î0 R 4p Î0 è R ø Q1 C1V C1
1 æ 3Q ö 1 æ 2Q ö = =
+ çè ÷ø = ç ÷ Q 2 C2V C2
4p Î0 R 4p Î0 è R ø
DPP/ CP17 S-75

l l12 l2 2 l32
1. (b) V = IR = (neAvd )r
A R1 : R2 : R3 = : :
m1 m2 m3
V
\ r = V lne 25 9 1
d R1 : R2 : R3 = : : = 125 :15 :1
1 3 5
Here V = potential difference
5. (c) In series, Rs = nR
l = length of wire
n = no. of electrons per unit volume of conductor. 1 1 1
In parallel, = + + ...n terms
e = no. of electrons Rp R R
Placing the value of above parameters we get resistivity
\ Rs/Rp = n2 /1 = n2
5 output
r= 28 -19 -4 6. (a) Efficiency is given by h =
8 ´ 10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 ´ 2.5 ´ 10 ´ 0.1 input
= 1.6 × 10–5Wm
5 ´ 15 ´ 14
2. (d) From the curve it is clear that slopes at points A, B, C, = = 0.875 or 87.5 %
10 ´ 8 ´ 15
D have following order A > B > C > D.
And also resistance at any point equals to slope of the 7. (b) According to the condition of balancing
V-i curve. 55 R
= Þ R = 220W
So order of resistance at three points will be 20 80
RA > RB > RC > RD 8. (a) J = sE Þ J r = E
3. (d) From the principle of potentiometer, V µ l J is current density, E is electric field
V l so B = r = resistivity.
Þ = ; where
E L 9. (d) Kirchhoff's first law is based on conservation of charge
V = emf of battery, E = emf of standard cell. and Kirchhoff's second law is based on conservation
L = length of potentiometer wire of energy.
El 30E rl
V= = 10. (c) R=
L 100 A
When wire is cut into 4 pieces and connected in parallel.
E R
Reff. = Þ PC = 16P
16
i
V2 V2 V2 V2
i PA : PB : PC : PD = : : :
R R / 4 R /16 R / 2
r Ig R Ig
11. (b) S = ÞS= R
E' nIg - I g (n - 1)I g
NOTE In this arrangement, the internal resistance lm

12. (d) Resistance of a conductor, R = 2
of the battery E does not play any role as current is not ne t A
passing through the battery. As the temperature increases, the relaxation time t
decreases because the number of collisions of electrons
rl 2 m
per second increases due to increase in thermal energy
4. (d) R = 2
. But m = pr2 ld \ pr =
pr ld of electrons.
2 2 R1 i1
rl 2 d R = rl1 d R = rl2 d 13. (b)
\R = , 1 , 2
m m1 m2
R2 i2
rl32 d
R3 =
m3 V
EBD_7156
S-76 DPP/ CP17
rl1 rl2 The equivalent resistance is given by
R1 = ; R2 =
pr12 pr22 1 1 1 1
= + + =
3
=
1
i1R1 = i2R2 (same potential difference) R 6 6 6 6 2
i1 R2 l 2 r12 Þ Req = 2W
\ = = ´ 3 4 1
= ´ =
i2 R1 l1 r22 4 9 3 1 eE
19. (a) Since average drift velocity = ´ ( t)
R1 l1 2 m
= Now I = NeA × (avg. drift velocity)
14. (c) R2 l 2 where l2 = 100 – l1
Ne 2 AE Ne 2 AV
In the first case X = 20 = ´t = ´t
Y 80 2m l 2m l
In the second case V 2m l
R = = , where N is electron density.
4X l I N e 2 tA
= Þ l = 50
Y 100 - l 20. (c) The current through the resistance R
15. (c) Before connecting E, the circuit diagram is
æ e ö
I =ç
I 12 V è R + r ÷ø
The potential difference across R
I æ e ö
V = IR = ç R
è R + r ÷ø
I e r
6W 8W 10 W
Then, Req = 6 W + 8 W + 10 W = 24 W
12V 1
Current in the 8 W resistance, I = = A
24W 2
After connecting E, the current through 8 W is
R
1
I= A e
2 V= e
æ rö V
1 çè1 + ÷ø
\ E = A ´ 8W = 4V R
2 when R = 0, V = 0,
16. (d) By junction rule at point B 0
R = ¥, v = e R
–I + 1A + 2A = 0 Thus V increases as R increases upto certain limit, but
So, I = 3A it does not increase further.
By Loop rule, 21. (c) Resistance of bulb is constant
– 3 × 2 – 1 × 1 – E + 12 = 0
V2 Dp 2DV DR
E = 5V P= Þ = +
R p V R
(1.5) 2
17. (d) Resistance of bulb R b = = 0.5 W Dp
4.5 = 2 × 2.5 + 0 = 5%
E E p
Current drawn from battery = = 22. (a) Potential gradient = Potential fall per unit length. In this
2.67 + 0.33 3
2 E 2E case resistance of unit length.
Share of bulb = ´ =
3 3 9 rl 10 -7 ´ 1
2
R= = -6
= 10-1 W
æ 2E ö A 10
\ ç ÷ ´ 0.5 = 4.5 or E = 13.5 V..
è 9 ø Potential fall across R is
18. (d) The equivalent circuit is given below : V = I .R = 0.1 ´ 10-1 = 0.01 volt/m.
6W
= 10-2 volt / m
6W 23. (d) R1 + R2 = Constant, R1 will increase, R2 will decrease.
R1aD T - RbDT = 0 Þ R1aDT = R 2bD T
X Y
R1 b
\ =
R2 a
6W
DPP/ CP17 S-77
24. (d) Given : Number of cells, n = 5, emf of each cell = E Þ 2500 = V × I Þ 2500 = 220 I
Internal resistance of each cell = r
In series, current through resistance R 2500
Þ I= = 11.36 » 12A
nE 5E 220
I= = (Minimum capacity of main fuse)
nr + R 5r + R
In parallel, current through resistance R 29. (a)
R1 R2
E nE 5E I
I¢ = = =
r r + nR r + 5R
+R
n
According to question, I = I'
5E 5E
\ = Þ 5r + R = r + 5R
5r + 5 R r + 5 R
R
or R = r \ = 1 R
r
25. (d) The total volume remains the same before and after 2e
stretching. I=
R + R1 + R 2
Therefore A ´ l = A ' ´ l ' Potential difference across second cell
Here l ' = 2l = V = e - iR 2 = 0
A´l A´l A 2e
\ A' = = = e – .R2 = 0
l' 2l 2 R + R1 + R 2
Percentage change in resistance
R + R1 + R 2 - 2R 2 = 0
æ l' l ö
rç - ÷ R + R1 - R 2 = 0
R f - Ri A' A ø
= ´100 = è ´100
Ri l \ R = R 2 - R1
r
A 30. (c) R1 R2
éæ l ' A ö ù é æ 2l A ö ù
= êç ´ ÷ - 1ú ´ 100 = êç A ´ ÷ - 1ú ´ 100 Resistance of the series combination,
ëè A ' l ø û êëè 2 l ø úû S = R1 + R2
= 300% Resistance of the parallel combination,
26. (a) Pot. gradient = 0.2mV/cm R1 R2
P=
R1 + R2
0.2 ´ 10 - 3
= = 2 ´ 10 - 2 V / m n( R1R2 )
10 - 2 S = nP Þ R1 + R2 =
( R1 + R2 )
Emf of cell = 2×10–2×1m = 2 ´ 10 - 2 V = 0.02 V
As per the condition of potentiometer Þ ( R1 + R2 )2 = nR1 R2
0.02 (R + 490) = 2 (R) or 1.98 R = 9.8 Minimum value of n is 4 for that
9.8 ( R1 + R2 )2 = 4 R1 R2 Þ ( R1 - R2 )2 = 0
Þ R= = 4.9 W
1.98 31. (c) To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter we connect
R
a high resistance in series with the galvanometer.
27. (d) a b The same procedure needs to be done if ammeter is to
i1+ i2 be used as a voltmeter.
e1 r1 32. (c) Given, emf of cell E = 200 V
f
i1 i1
c Internal resistance of cells = 1 W
i2 D. C. main supply voltage V = 220 V
e d External resistance R = ?
i2 r2 e2
æE-Vö
Applying Kirchhoff ’s rule in loop abcfa r =ç ÷R
è V ø
e1 – (i1 + i2) R – i1 r1 = 0.
28. (c) Total power consumed by electrical appliances in the æ 20 ö
building, Ptotal = 2500W
1=ç ÷´ R
è 220 ø
Watt = Volt × ampere \ R = 11 W.
EBD_7156
S-78 DPP/ CP17
33. (a) In steady state, flow fo current through capacitor will or, 10 + (10 × 0.002 × t) = 11 + 330 × 0.002
be zero.
1.66
Current through the circuit, or, 0.02t = 1 + 0.66 = 1.066 or t = = 83°C.
0.02
E
i=
r + r2 39. (b) As P = Ι 2 R, so P1 = (1.01 Ι)2 R = 1.02 I 2 R = 1.02 P.
Potential difference through capacitor It means % increase in power
Q æ E ö æP ö
Vc = = E - ir = E - ç r = ç 1 - 1÷ ´100 = 2%.
C è r + r2 ÷ø è P ø
40. (b) Let I1 be the current throug 5 W resistance, I2 through
r (6 + 9) W resistance. Then as per question,
\ Q = CE 2
r + r2
I12 ´ 5 = 20 or, I1 = 2A.
34. (c) i = neAVd and Vd µ E (Given)
Potential difference across C and D = 2 × 5 = 10V
or, i µ E
i2 µ E Current I 2 = 10 = 2 A.
6+9 3
i2 µ V Heat produced per second in 2 W
Hence graph (c) correctly dipicts the V-I graph for a 2
wire made of such type of material. æ8ö
= I2 R ç ÷ ´ 2 = 14.2cal / s.
35. (b) Current, I = (2.9 ´ 1018 + 1.2 ´1018 ) × 1.6 × 10–19 è 3ø
P R SS
= 0.66A towards right. 41. (b) = where S = 1 2
36. (a) Copper rod and iron rod are joined in series. Q S S +S
1 2
l rl
\ R = RCu + RFe = (r1 + r2) 42. (c) R = 1 , now l2 = 2l1
A A1
æ lö A2 = p(r2)2 = p (2r1)2 = 4p r12 = 4A1
çèQ R = r ÷ø
A r(2 l1 ) r l1 R
From ohm’s law V = RI \ R2 = = =
4 A1 2 A1 2
= (1.7 × 10–6 × 10–2 + 10–5 × 10–2) ¸
0.01 × 10–4 volt \ Resistance is halved, but specific resistance remains
= 0.117 volt (Q I = 1A) the same.
43. (d) E = V + Ir
E
37. (d) I = , Internal resistance (r) is V = 12 – 3 = 9 volt
R+r 44. (c) I = neAVd
E
zero, I = = constant. I
R
38. (b) Rt = R0 (1 + at)
Vd = = 5 × 10–3 m/sec
neA
Initially, R0 (1 + 30a) = 10 W 45. (d) Since due to wrong connection of each cell the total
Finally, R0 (1 + at) = 11 W emf reduced to 2e then for wrong connection of three
cells the total emf will reduced to (ne – 6e) whereas
11 1 + at
\ = the total or equivalent resistance of cell combination
10 1 + 30a will be nr.

1. (a) At a distance x consider small element of width dx. æ m 0 NI ö 2
Magnetic moment of the small element is 6. (c) Baxis = çç ÷÷R
è 2x 3 ø
æq ö
çè dx÷ø w B µ R2
l So, when radius is doubled, magnetic field becomes
dm = .px 2
2p dx four times.
7. (c) When a charged particle enters a transverse magnetic
field it traverse a circular path. Its kinetic energy remains
constant.
x 8. (c) K.E. of electron = 10 eV
l/2 1
qw 2
x dx ; M = qwl = qpfl
2 2
Þ mv 2 = 10 eV
M= ò 2l 24 12
2
-l / 2
2. (d) The straight part will not contribute magnetic field at the 1
Þ (9.1 ´ 10 -31 ) v 2 = 10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
centre of the semicircle because every element of the 2
straight part will be 0º or 180º with the line joining the
centre and the element 2 2 ´ 10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
Þ v =
1 m0 i m 0 i 9.1 ´ 10 - 31
Due to circular portion, the field is = Þ Þ v = 1.88 × 106 m
v2 = 3.52 × 1012
2 2r 4r
Also we know that for circular motion
m0 i
Hence total field at O = tesla
4r mv2 mv
=Bev Þ r = = 11 cm
3. (d) Torque on the solenoid is given by r Be
t = MB sin q 9. (d) No magnetic force acts on the electron and force due
where q is the angle between the magnetic field and the to electric field will act opposite to its initial direction
axis of solenoid. of motion. Hence its velocity decreases in magnitude.
M = niA
\ t = niA B sin 30° mv2 mv
10. (b) = qvB Þ r =
1 r qB
= 2000 ´ 2 ´ 1.5 ´ 10 -4 ´ 5 ´ 10 -2 ´
2 m p vp
Þ rp = ;
= 1.5 ´ 10 -2 N - m qp B
4. (c) Time period of cyclotron is
1 2pm 2pm mu p md vd m v
T= = ; B= u; R = = rd = ; ra = a a
u eB e eB eB qd B qa B
2pmu ma = 4mp , md = 2mp
Þ p = eBR = e ´ R = 2pmuR
e
qa = 2qp , q d = qp
p 2 (2pmuR )2
K.E. = = = 2p2mu2R2 From the problem
2m 2m
5. (a) Rg = 50W, Ig = 25 × 4 × 10–AW = 10–2 A 1
Ep = Ed = Ea = mp v p 2
Range of V = 25 volts 2
V = Ig(Re + Rg) 1 1
= md vd 2 = ma va2
2 2
V
\ Re = - Rg = 2450W
Ig Þ vp2 = 2vd2 = 4mv22
R Thus we have, ra = rp < rd

A B 11. (c) Resistance of Galvanometer,
Current sensitivity 10
Ig Re Rg G= Þ G= = 5W
Voltage sensitivity 2
EBD_7156
S-80 DPP/ CP18
Here i g = Full scale deflection current 2
G
\ S¢ = .
G +S
150
= = 15 mA I I
10 G G
S¢
V = voltage to be measured = 150 volts
(such that each division reads 1 volt)
S
150 dq
Þ R= - 5 = 9995W 18. (d) Current in a small element, dI = I
15 ´ 10 -3 p
12. (d) Magnetic field at the centre of the current loop is
Magnetic field due to the element
µ 2 pI
B= 0 m 0 2dI
4 pR dB =
4p R
µ0 2 p q u µ 2 pqu
or, B = , R= 0 The component dB cos q, of the field is cancelled by
4 pR 4 pB another opposite component.
Substituting the given values, we get
Therefore,
4p ´ 10-7 ´ 2p ´ 2 ´ 10-6 ´ 6.25 ´ 1012
R= = 1.25 m
r r 4p ´ 6.28
13. (b) Here, E and B are perpendicular to each other and
r
the velocity v does not change; therefore
E
qE = qvB Þ v = dB
B p
Also, m0 I m0I
r r Bnet = ò dB sin q = ò sin qd q =
E´B E B sin q E B sin 90° E r 2p 2 R 0 p2 R
= = 2
= = |v| =v
2 2 B B
B B I
14. (b) The force on the two arms parallel to the field is zero. 19. (a) A
C
< O I
<
<
F
B D
B
–F Net magnetic field on AB is zero because magnetic field
due to both current carrying wires is equal in magnitude
< but opposite in direction.
15. (d) Magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current carrying 20. (b) According to the figure the magnitude of force on the
wire is always zero. segment QM is F3 –F1 and PM is F2.
Y
P i Q M
a a
x=- x=
2 2
x a
16. (b) Current carrying conductors will attract each other, while
electron beams will repel each other. Therefore, the magnitude of the force on
17. (c) To keep the main current in the circuit unchanged, the
resistance of the galvanometer should be equal to the segment PQ is (F3 – F1 )2 + F22
net resistance.
21. (c) B = m 0 ni
æ GS ö
\G = ç + S¢
è G + S ÷ø æ nö
B1 = (m0 ) ç ÷ (2 i ) = m 0 ni = B
GS è 2ø
ÞG- = S¢
G+S Þ B1 = B
DPP/ CP18 S-81

22. (c) The angular momentum L of the particle is given by
L = mr2w where w = 2pn. 1 2
it is given by mv and v2 is the square of the
w wq 2
\ Frequency n = ; Further i = q × n =
2p 2p magnitude of velocity which does not change.
wq 29. (a) I = 50 k; Ig = 20k, where k is the figure of merit of
Magnetic moment, M = iA = ´ pr 2 ;
2p
20 k . R g
wqr 2 M wqr 2 q galvanometer; S = Ig Rg(I – Ig); so 12 =
\M= So, = = (50 k - 20 k )
2 L 2 mr 2 w 2 m
On solving we get Rg = 18 W.
23. (c) A current loop in a magnetic field is in equilibrium in
two orientations one is stable and another unstable. 30. (d) Let I be current and l be the length of the wire.
r uur ur m0 In m0 I ´ p
Q t = M ´ B = M B sin q For Ist case : B = = where 2pr = l
If q = 0° Þ t = 0 (stable) 2r l
If q = p Þ t = 0 (unstable) and n = 1
l
For IInd case : l = n(2pr ') Þ r ' =
2np
m0 nI m0 nI n 2 m 0 pI
B' = = = = n 2B
2r ' l l
2
2np
Do not experience a torque in some orientations
Hence option (c) is correct. m 0i a 2
31. (c) B=
m0 2 i2 m0 2 i1 m0 4 2(x 2 + a 2 )3/2
24. (c) B= - = (i - i )
4 p (r / 2) 4 p (r / 2) 4p r 2 1
m 0i = m 0i a 2 æ (x 2 + a 2 )3/2 ö
m 4 m B' = ç ÷÷
= 0 (5 - 2.5) = 0 . 2a 2a(x 2 + a 2 )3/2 çè a2 ø
4p 5 2p
r
25. (a) The direction of B is along ( - kˆ )
\ The magnetic force B.(x 2 + a 2 )3/2
B' =
ur r ur a3
F = Q (v ´ B) = Q (viˆ) ´ B( - kˆ) = QvBjˆ
r
Þ F is along OY. 54(53 )
26. (a) According to Ampere's circuit law Put x = 4 & a = 3 Þ B' = = 250mT
3´ 3´ 3
r r
Ñò B.dI = µ0Ienclosed = µ0 (2A - 1A) = µ0 32. (a) The force acting on a charged particle in magnetic field
27. (a) We know that the magnetic field produced by a current is given by
carrying circular coil of radius r at its centre is r r
F = q(v ´ B) or F = qvB sin q
m I
B = 0 ´ 2p when angle between v and B is 180°,
4p r
F= 0
m0 I
Here B A = ´ 2p 33. (b) The force acting on electron will be perpendicular to
4p R the direction of velocity till the electron remains in the
magnetic field. So the electron will follow the path as
m0 2 I
and BB = ´ 2p given.
4p 2 R
y X B
BA
Þ =1 e
BB u x
28. (b) When a charged particle enters a magnetic field at a
direction perpendicular to the direction of motion, the
path of the motion is circular. In circular motion the
direction of velocity changes at every point (the 34. (c) A voltmeter is a high resistance galvanometer and is
magnitude remains constant). connected in parallel to circuit and ammeter is a low
Therefore, the tangential momentum will change at resitance galvanometer so if we connect high resistance
every point. But kinetic energy will remain constant as in series with ammeter its resistance will be much high.
EBD_7156
S-82 DPP/ CP18
35. (d) Here, the wire does not produce any magnetic field at O 1
because the conductor lies on the line of O. Also, the F1 > F2 as F µ
, and F3 and F4 are equal and opposite.
d
loop does not produce magnetic field at O. Hence, the net attraction force will be towards the
36. (d) Magnetic field between the plates in this case is zero.
conductor.
37. (d) For a given perimeter the area of circle is maximum. So
r r
magnetic moment of (S) is greatest. 41. (c) F1 = F2 = 0
r ur r ur
38. (a) Lorentz force, F = q {E + (v ´ B)}
because of action and reaction pair
iˆ ˆj kˆ
42. (c) As electron move with constant velocity without
r ur deflection. Hence, force due to magnetic field is equal
v ´ B = 1 2 0 = 8iˆ - 4jˆ - 7kˆ
and opposite to force due to electric field.
5 3 4
E 20
r qvB = qE Þ v = = = 40 m / s
F = 1 (2iˆ - 3jˆ + 8iˆ - 4jˆ - 7k)
ˆ = (10iˆ - 7ˆj - 7k)
ˆ B 0.5
39. (b) Here, Rg = 100 W; Ig = 10–5 A; I =1A; S = ? 43. (c)
Ιg R g -5 44. (b) To measure AC voltage across a resistance a moving
10 ´ 100
S= = = 10 -3 W in parallel coil galvanometer is used.
I - Ig 1 - 10 -5
r urur
I1 45. (c) As F = qVBsin q
40. (d)
F1 F is zero for sin 0° or sin 180° and is non-zero for angle
I ur ur
between V and B any value other than zero and 180°.
F3 F4
F2
DPP/ CP19 S-83

1. (b) As the axes are perpendicular, mid point lies on axial 7. (a) The temperature above which a ferromagnetic substance
line of one magnet and on equatorial line of other becomes paramagnetic is called Curie’s temperature.
magnet. 8. (a) Iron is ferromagnetic.
9. (b) t = MB sin q
m 0 2 M 10-7 ´ 2 ´ 1
\ B1 = = = 2 ´ 10-7 t = iAB sin 90º A
4 p d3 13
t
m M \ A= l l
and B2 = 0 3 = 10-7 iB
4p d
Also, A = 1/2 (BC) (AD)
l/2 l/2
\ Resultant field = B12 + B 22 = 5 ´ 10 -7 T B
D C
2. (c) Initial magnetic moment of each magnet = m × l. l
As is clear from Fig., S1 and N2 neutralize each other. 2
1 1 ælö 3 2
Effective distance between But (BC)(AD) = (l ) l 2 -ç ÷ = l
2 2 è2ø 4
N1 and S2 = l 2 + l2 = l 2
3 2 t
\ M¢ = ml 2 . Þ (l ) =
4 Bi
3. (d) As shown in the figure, the magnetic lines of force are 1
directed from south to north inside a bar magnet. æ t ö2
\ l = 2ç ÷
ç 3 B.i ÷
è ø
10. (a) M = 60 Am2
r
t = 1.2 × 10–3 Nm, BH = 40 × 10–6 Wb/m2
r r r
N S t = M ´ BH Þ t = MBH sin q
Þ 1.2 × 10–3 = 60 × 40 × 10–6 sin q
1.2 ´ 10-3 1
Þ sin q = = = sin 30°
-6 2
60 ´ 40 ´ 10
Þ q = 30°
4. (b) For a diamagnetic material, the value of µr is less than 11. (b) Electro magnet should be amenable to magnetisation
and demagnetization.
one. For any material, the value of Îr is always greater
\ retentivity and coercivity should be low.
than 1.
5. (a) The time period of oscillation of a freely suspended I I 1
magnet is given by 12. (b) T = 2p = 2p where I = ml 2
M ´B MB 12
I When the magnet is cut into three pieces the pole
T = 2p
MH strength will remain the same and
2
I 1 æ mö æ lö I
2p M.I. (I¢) = çè ÷ø çè ÷ø ´ 3 =
T MH 12 3 3 9
Thus, =
T' I We have, Magnetic moment (M)
2p
MH ' = Pole strength (m) × l
Given, T = 4 sec, T ' = 2sec , \ New magnetic moment,
æ lö
4 H' M ' = m ´ ç ÷ ´ 3 = ml = M
So, = è 3ø
2 H
T 2
H' \T'= =
s.
or =2 9 3
H 13. (b) Graph [A] is for material used for making permanent
or H' = 4H magnets (high coercivity)
6. (b) Diamagnetic materials are repelled in an external Graph [B] is for making electromagnets and
magnetic field.
transformers.
Bar B represents diamagnetic materials.
EBD_7156
S-84 DPP/ CP19
14. (a) The earth’s core is hot and molten. Hence, convective
current in earth’s core is responsible for it’s magnetic µ0 M
B= 3/2 ; M = ml.
field. 4p é l2 ù
êr + ú
2
ë 4û
1 T1 H2 2 H+F
15. (b) T µ Þ = Þ = After substituting the values and simplifying we get
H T2 H1 1 H
B = 6 × 1–5 A -m
H 1 24. (c) Initially magnetic moment of system
Þ F = 3H or =
F 3 M 1 = M 2 + M 2 = 2M and moment of inertia
16. (a) H = B cos q, V = B sin q
Here B = earth’s magnetic field I1 = I + I = 2I.
q = angle of dip = 90º at north pole Finally when one of the magnet is removed then
Þ H = B cos 90° = 0
V = B sin 90° = B M2 = M and I2 = I
Þ V >> H
17. (d) Initially for circular coil L = 2pr and M = i × pr2 I
So, T = 2p
M BH
2
æ L ö iL2
= i ´ pç ÷ = ...(i) T1 I1 M 2 2I M
è 2p ø 4p = ´ = ´
L T2 I 2 M1 I 2M
Finally for square coil side a = and
4 25 / 4
æ Lö iL
2 2 Þ T2 = = 2sec
M '=i´ç ÷ = ...(ii) 21/ 4
è4ø 16 25. (d) A magnetic needle kept in non uniform magnetic field
experience a force and torque due to unequal forces
acting on poles.
V 3 é 3ù
26. (d) tan d = = êëQ tan 37º = 4 úû
H 4
i L/4 3
\ V= H
pM 4
Solving equation (i) and (ii) M ¢ = V = 6 × 10–5 T
4
MB 4 –5 –5
18. (b) FL = MB (= Torque) Þ L = H = ´ 6 ´ 10 T = 8 ´ 10 T
F 3
19. (a) cd < cp < cf
\ Btotal = V2 + H2 = (36 + 64) ´ 10 –5
For diamagnetic substance cd is small and negative
(10–5) = 10 × 10–5 = 10–4T.
For paramagnetic substances cp is small and positive 27. (b) Ferromagnetic substance has magnetic domains
(10–3 to 10–5) whereas paramagnetic substances have magnetic
For ferromagnetic substanes c f is very large dipoles which get attracted to a magnetic field.
(103 to 105) Diamagnetic substances do not have magnetic dipole
but in the presence of external magnetic field due to
B their orbital motion of electrons these substances are
20. (b) B = m0 mr H Þ m r µ = slope of B-H curve
H repelled.
According to the given graph, slope of the graph is 28. (d) PQ6 corresponds to the lowest potential energy among
highest at point Q. all the configurations shown.
21. (d) On increasing the temperature by 700ºC, the magnetic V V tan q¢ 1
needle is demagnetised. Therefore, the needle stops 29. (a) tan q = , tan q¢ = ; =
H H cos x tan q cos x
vibrating.
30. (d) In series, same current flows through two tangent
22. (b) t = MB sin q (q = 90°)
galvanometers.
B1 t1 q
t = MB Þ = (since magnetic moment is same) 31. (c) Net magnetic dipole moment = 2 Mcos
B2 t2 2
q
23. (a) Magnetic field due to a bar magnet in the broad-side As value of cos is maximum in case (c) hence net
2
on position is given by magnetic dipole moment is maximum for option (c).
DPP/ CP19 S-85
32. (b) Since magnetic field is in vertical direction and needle

is free to totate in horizontal plane only so magnetic (
\ cm2 = cm1 / 2 = 0.5cm = 0.5c. Q cm1 = c
1 )
force cannot rotate the needle in horizontal plane so 40. (a) We know that µr = 1+ x
needle can stay in any position.
33. (b) Work done in rotating the magnetic dipole from position = 1 + 5500 = 5501
q1= 0° to q2= 180° \ µ = µr µ0 = (5501) ´ (4p ´ 10 -7 )
Q W = MB (cosq1– cosq2) = 6.9 × 10–3
\ W = MB (cosq° – cos 180°) = 2MB
34. (b) The time period of a bar magnet in a magnetic field is T
41. (a) We know that T1 = 2p … (i)
given by. MBH1
I Where BH1 = 24 ´ 10-6 T
T = 2p ;
MB The magnetic field produced by, wire
Here, I = moment of inertia µ m , M = moment of magnet, µ0 i
B = magnetic field. B = .
2p r
(18)
= (2 ´ 10 ) ´
–7
T µ I µ m ; so, T becomes twice as mass becomes 0.20
= 1.8 ´ 10-6 T
four times
Now BH 2 = BH1 + B = 42 × 10–6 T
35. (a) Given, B = 4 × 10–5 T
RE = 6.4 × 106 m I
Dipole moment of the earth M = ? T2 = 2p … (ii)
MBH 2
m M
B= 0 3 Using equations (i) and (ii) , and substituting the values,
4p d
we get
4p´10-7 ´ M
4 ´10-5 = T2 = 0.076 s
( )
3
4p´ 6.4 ´ 106 42. (a) As BI = m0MIM = m0(I + IM)
Here, I = 0
\ M @ 1023 Am2 Then m0MI = m0(IM)
36. (b) From m r = 1 + c m ; Þ IM = MI = 105 A
43. (a) Given M = 8 × 1022 Am2
Magnetic suscaptibility, c m = m r - 1 d = Re = 6.4 × 106m
m0 2M
cm = 0.075 - 1 = - 0.925. Earth’s magnetic field, B = .
4p d3
37. (d) d1 = 40°, d2 = 30°, d = ?
4p´10-7 2 ´ 8 ´ 1022
= ´
cot d = cot 2 d1 + cot 2 d2 = cot 2 40º + cot 2 30º 4p (6.4 ´ 106 )3
@ 0.6 Gauss
cot d = 1.192 + 3 = 2.1
\ d = 25º i.e. d < 40º. 44. (c) Magnetic field in solenoid B = m0n i
38. (d) In magnetic dipole B
Þ = ni
Force µ
1 m0
r4 (Where n = number of turns per unit length)
In the given question, B Ni
Force µ x– n Þ =
Hence, n = 4 m0 L
m0 C
39. (b) According to Curie's law, cm = 3 ´ 103 =
100i
T Þ
where C is Curie constant, T = temperature 10 ´ 10-2
Þ i = 3A
1
\ cma 45. (a) As length of each part also becomes half, therefore
T magnetic moment M = pole strength × length
cm1 T2 273 + 333 606
= = = =2
c m2 T1 273 + 30 303 1 1 1
Þ ´ = th i.e. M/4.
2 2 4
EBD_7156
S-86 DPP/ CP20
1. (b) Induced emf produced between the centre and a point Emf induced in side 2 of frame e2 = B2 Vl
on the disc is given by moI
B2 =
1 2p (x + a/ 2)
e= wBR 2
2
x
Putting the values,
I
w = 60 rad/s, B=0.05 Wb/m 2 1 2
and R = 100 cm = 1m a v
x–
2
1
We get e = ´ 60 ´ 0.05 ´ (1) 2 = 1.5V a
2 a
x+
2. (a) According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic 2
df Emf induced in square frame
induction, e =
dt e = B1Vl – B2Vl
Also, e = iR m0 I m0 I
df = lv – lv
\ iR = Þ ò d f = R ò idt 2p (x – a / 2) 2p (x + a/ 2)
dt 1
Magnitude of change in flux (df) = R × area under current vs or, e µ
(2x – a)(2 x + a)
time graph
9. (a) When a north pole of a bar magnet moves towards the
1 1 coil, the induced current in the coil flows in a direction
or, df = 100 ´ ´ ´ 10 = 250 Wb
2 2 such that the coil presents its north pole to the bar
3. (a) If a wire , l meter in length, moves perpendicular to a magnet as shown in figure (a). Therefore, the induced
magnetic field of B weber/meter2 with a velocity of v current flows in the coil in the anticlockwise direction.
meter/second, then the e.m.f. induced in the wire is When a north pole of a bar magnet moves away from
given by the coil, the induced current in the coil flows in a
V = B vl volt. direction such that the coil presents its south pole to
Here, B = 0.30 × 10-4 weber/meter 2, the bar magnet as shown in figure (b).
v = 5.0 meter/second and l = 10 meter.
\ B = 0.30 × 10–4 × 5.0 × 10 = 0.0015 volt.
4. (d) The magnetic field is increasing in the downward
direction. Therefore, according to Lenz’s law, the current N N
I1 will flow in the direction ab and I2 in the direction dc. (a) (b)
5. (a) Self inductance of a solenoid, Therefore induced current flows in the coil in the
m N2 A m0 N2 pr 2 clockwise direction.
L= 0 =
l l 10. (d) Given : f = 4t 2 + 2t + 1 wb
2
L1 æ r1 ö æ l2 ö
\ = [Q N1 = N2] df d
L 2 çè r2 ÷ø çè l1 ÷ø \ = (4t 2 + 2t + 1) = 8t + 2 =| e |
dt dt
l 1 r 1
Here, 1 = , 1 = | e | 8t + 2 8t + 2
l2 2 r2 2 Induced current, I = = = A
2 R 10W 10
L1 æ 1 ö æ 2 ö 1 At t = 1 s,
\ =ç ÷ ç ÷=
L2 è 2 ø è 1 ø 2
8 ´1+ 2
I= A = 1A
6. (b) l = 1m, w = 5 rad/s, B = 0.2 ´ 10 T -4
10
Bwl 0.2 ´ 10 -4 ´ 5 ´ 1 m0 N1 N2 A
e= = = 50mV 11. (d) M=
2 2 l
7. (c)
8. (c) Emf induced in side 1 of frame e1 = B1Vl 4p ´ 10-7 ´ 300 ´ 400 ´ 100 ´ 10 -4
=
mo I 0.2
B1 =
2p (x – a/ 2)
DPP/ CP20 S-87

m0 N1 N2 A - df
M= 19. (b) The individual emf produced in the coil e =
l dt
= 2.4p ´ 10 -4 H
|e| 1 df
Df -D ( LI ) DI \ The current induced will be i = Þi=
R R dt
12. (d) e = - = = -L
Dt Dt Dt
dq dq 1 df 1 BA
DI 4 But i = Þ = Þ ò dq = ò df Þ q =
\ | e |= L Þ 8= L ´ dt dt R dt R R
Dt 0.05
20. –5
(c) Induced emf = vBH l = 1.5 × 5 × 10 × 2
8 ´ 0.05 = 15 × 10–5
Þ L= = 0.1H
4 = 0.15 mV
13. (c) Total number of turns in the solenoid, N = 500 df dB
21. (b) e= =nA
Current, I = 2A. dt dt
Magnetic flux linked with each turn
= 4 × 10–3 Wb \ e = 10 ´ (10 ´10 -4 )(10 4 ) [108 Gauss/sec=10 4 T/s]
Nf = 100 V.
As, f = LI or N f = LI Þ L =
1 Ι = (e/R) = (100/20) = 5amp.
500 ´ 4 ´ 10-3 22. (a)
= henry = 1 H. W E
2 eind = Bvl
14. (d) Electric field will be induced, as ABCD moves, in both
AD and BC. The metallic square loop moves in its own = 0.3 ´ 10-4 ´ 5 ´ 20
plane with velocity v. A uniform magnetic field is
imposed perpendicular to the plane of the square loop. = 3 × 10–3 V = 3 mV.
AD and BC are perpendicular to the velocity as well as 23. (d) The self inductance of a long solenoid is given by
perpendicular to applied field so an emf is induced in
L = m r m 0 n 2 Al
both, this will cause electric fields in both.
Self inductance of a long solenoid is independent of
A B the current flowing through it.
24. (d) Here, induced e.m.f. w l
2l
v 3l dx
x
e= ò (wx) Bdx
D C 2l
ur ur [(3l) 2 – (2l)2 ] 5Bl 2 w
df d(NB.A) = Bw =
15. (d) E.M.F. generated, e = - =- 2 2
dt dt
d 25. (b)
= - N (BA cos wt ) = NBAw sin wt
dt 26. (b) Induced e.m.f. in the ring opposes the motion of the
Þ e max = NBAw magnet.
16. (c) L = 2mH, i = t2e–t 27. (a)
28. (b)
di
-L = - L[ -t 2e -t + 2te - t ] 29. (d) Magnetic flux, fB = BA cos q
E= dt
Induced emf, e = BA sinq
when E = 0, Here, q = 0º
–e–t t2 + 2te–t = 0
\ Magnetic flux is maximum and induced emf is zero.
or, 2t e–t = e–t t2
1 1
Þ t = 2 sec. 30. (c) e.m.f. induced = B R 2 w = BR 2 (2 p n)
2 2
17. (b)
1 2
df (W2 - W1 ) = ´ (0.1) ´ (0.1) ´ 2 p ´ 10 = (0.1)2 p volts
18. (b) = R tot = (R + 4R)W = 5R W 2
dt t
d dI NM I
31. (a) E = ( NMI ) Þ E = NM Þ E =
ndj - n(W2 - W1 ) dt dt t
i= = .
R tot dt 5Rt E MI
emf induced per unit turn = =
(Q W2 & W1 are magnetic flux) N t
EBD_7156
S-88 DPP/ CP20
32. (d) According to Lenz's law, when switch is closed, the W W
flux in the loop increases out of plane of paper, so 39. (a) x= Þ V= Þ W = QV
Q Q
induced current will be clockwise. 40. (b) Mutual inductance depends on the relative position
Ndf df and orientation of the two coils.
33. (a) Since e = – if is fast, so e is large. 41. (c)
dt dt
34. (d) The e.m.f. is induced when there is change of flux. As 42. (a) As the magnetic field increases, its flux also increases
in this case there is no change of flux, hence no e.m.f. into the page and so induced current in bigger loop
will be induced in the wire. will be anticlockwise. i.e., from D to C in bigger loop
and then from B to A in smaller loop.
35. (b) Given, B = 0.01 T, A = pR2 = p × (1 m)2 = pm2
w = 100 rads–1 43. (c) As I increases, f increases
\ Ii is such that it opposes the increases in f.
\ The maximum induced emf emax= BAw
Hence, f decreases (By Right Hand Rule). The induced
= 0.01×p×100 V = pV current will be counterclockwise.
- (f 2 - f1 ) -( 0 - NBA ) NBA 44. (d) According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic
36. (b) e= = =
t t t induction,
NBA 50 ´ 2 ´10 –2 ´10 –2 Induced emf, e =
Ldi
t= = = 0.1 s
e 0. 1 dt
Df æ 5–2 ö
37. (c) = e = iR Þ Df = (iDt )R = QR 50 = L ç ÷
Dt è 0.1sec ø
Df 50 ´ 0.1 5
ÞQ= Þ L= = = 1.67 H
R 3 3
38. (d) f = BA cos q = 2.0 ´ 0.5 ´ cos 60º 45. (d) Mutual inductance between two coil in the same plane
with their centers coinciding is given by
2.0 ´ 0.5
= = 0.5 weber. m 0 æ 2p2 R22 N1 N 2 ö
2 M=
4p çè R1 ÷ henry.
ø

V 100 Vrms
1. (c) Across resistor, I = = = 0.1 A Also, Irms =
R 1000 Z
At resonance, 200
1 1 \ 1=
X L = XC = = = 2500 100 + (2 p50.L) 2
2
wC 200 ´ 2 ´ 10-6
Voltage across L is 3
L=
H
I X L = 0.1 ´ 2500 = 250 V p
2. (a) The phase angle between voltage V and current I is 8. (a) At angular frequency w, the current in RC circuit is given
p/2. Therefore, power factor cos f = cos (p/2) = 0. Hence by
the power consumed is zero. Vmax
3. (c) The current drawn by inductor and capacitor will be in imax = .......(i)
2
opposite phase. Hence net current drawn from generator 2 æ ö
1
R +
= IL – IC = 0.9 – 0.4 = 0.5 amp. è w Cø
4. (c) Capacitive reactance, X = 1 = 1
wC 2 pfC i rms Vrms Vmax
Also = = .....(ii)
1 2 2 9 2
Þ Xµ R +
æ 1 ö 2 R +
2 2
fC çw ÷ w C
çè C ÷ø
X' f C f C 1 X 3
\ = ´ = ´ = Þ X' =
X f ' C' 2f 2C 4 4 From equation (i) and (ii) we get
5. (a) The charging of inductance given by,
1
æ - ö
Rt
2 5 wC 3 XC 3
i = i0 ç1 - e L ÷ 3R =
2 2
Þ = Þ =
çè ÷ø w C R 5 R 5
9. (c)
Rt Rt
i0 - - 1 10. (c) Growth in current in LR2 branch when switch is closed
= i0 (1 - e L ) Þ e L = is given by
2 2
Taking log on both the sides, E
i= [1 - e - R2t / L ]
Rt R2
- = log1 - log 2
L R2t
di E R2 - R2t / L E -
Þ = . .e = e L
L 300 ´ 10 -3 dt R2 L L
Þ t= log 2 = ´ 0.69
R 2 Hence, potential drop across L
Þ t = 0.1 sec.
æ E -R t / L ö -R t / L
wL X L = ç e 2 ÷ L = Ee 2
èL ø
6. (c) tan f = =
R R 2t
-
Given f = 45°. Hence XL = R. 400´10 -3
= 12e = 12e–5tV
7. (d) 200V,50Hz æ - tö
R
1A
~ 11. (a) I = I o ç1 - e L ÷
çè ÷ø
(When current is in growth in LR circuit)
æ - ´2 ö
5
Eæ - tö
R
5
L = ç1 - e L ç
÷ = 1- e 10 ÷
R çè ÷ø 5 çè ÷ø
From the rating of the bulb, the resistance of the bulb
can be calculated. = (1 – e–1)
2
Vrms 12. (d) Power, P = Ι r.m.s ´ Vr.m.s ´ cos f
R= = 100W In the given problem, the phase difference between
P
For the bulb to be operated at its rated value the rms voltage and current is p/2. Hence
current through it should be 1A P = Ι r.m.s ´ Vr.m.s ´ cos( p / 2) = 0.
EBD_7156
S-90 DPP/ CP21
13. (c) When the capacitor is completely charged, the total V 4V0
energy in the LC circuit is with the capacitor and that 20. (d) V = 0 t Þ V = t
T/4 T
1/ 2
1 Q2 ìT/4 2 ü
energy is E = ï ò t dt ï
2 C 4V0 4V0 ï 0 ï V0
When half energy is with the capacitor in the form of Þ Vrms = < V2 > = 2
<t > = í ý =
T T ï T /4 ï 3
electric field between the plates of the capacitor we get
ï ò dt ï
î 0 þ
E 1 Q '2
= where Q ' is the charge on one plate of the 21. (a) L = 10 mHz = 10–2 Hz
2 2 C
capacitor f = 1MHz = 106 Hz
1
1 1 Q 2 1 Q '2 Q f=
\ ´ = Þ Q' = 2p LC
2 2 C 2 C 2
1 2 1
14. (a) Energy stored in magnetic field = Li f2 = 2
2 4p LC
1 q2 1 1 10 -12
Energy stored in electric field = ÞC= = = = 2.5 pF
2 C
4p 2 f 2 L 4 ´ 10 ´ 10 -2 ´ 1012 0.4
2 22. (d) Current is maximum when XL = XC
1 2 1q
\ Li =
2 2 C 1 1 1
Þ wL = Þ w= =
1 wC
Also q = q0 cos wt and w = LC 0.5 ´ 8 ´ 10-6
LC
1
p = = 500 rad/s.
On solving t = LC
2 ´10-3
4
15. (c) The circuit will have inductive nature if 23. (a) If w = 50 × 2p then wL = 20W
If w¢ = 100 × 2p then w¢L = 40W
1 æ 1 ö Current flowing in the coil is
w> çè wL > ÷
LC LC ø 200 200 200
I= = =
Hence (a) is false. Also if circuit has inductive nature Z 2 2
R + (w¢L) (30)2 + (40) 2
the current will lag behind voltage. Hence (d) is also
false. I = 4A.
24. (a) At resonance impedance is minimum (\ XL = XC )
1 æ 1 ö
If w = çè wL = ÷ the circuit will have resistance current is maximum, because VLand VC are equal in
LC w Cø magnitude
nature. Hence (b) is false. \ VLC = VL – VC = 0
Power factor Hence, voltmeter V2 read 0 volt.
R 1 25. (b)
cos f = = 1 if wL =
2 wC Pi 4000
æ 1 ö 26. (d) As E p Ι p = Pi \ Ιp = = = 40 A.
R 2 + ç wL - ÷ Ep 100
è wC ø
27. (c) The phase angle is given by
(T / 2)V0 2 + 0 V w L 2 p ´ 50 ´ 0.21
16. (b) Vrms = = 0 . tan f = = = 5. 5
T 2 R 12
17. (d) Option (d) is false because the reason why the voltage
f = tan -1 5.5 = 80º
1
leads the current is because > Lw and if the 28. (c)
Cw
voltage lags, the inductive reactance is greater than 29. (a) Since Vs = N s
the capacitive reactance. Vp N p
1 Where
18. (b) P = V0i 0 cos f Þ P = Ppeak .cos f
2 Ns = No. of turns across primary coil = 50
1 1 p Np = No. of turns across secondary coil
Þ (Ppeak ) = Ppeak cos f Þ cos f = Þ f = = 1500
2 2 3
df d
E I 110 ´ 9 and V p = = (f 0 + 4t ) = 4
19. (c) h = s s \ h = = 0.9 ´ 100% = 90% dt dt
Ep I p 220 ´ 5
1500
Þ Vs = ´ 4 = 120 V
50
DPP/ CP21 S-91

38. (b) V= V0 sin w t
Es n æn ö
30. (a) = s or E s = E p ´ ç s ÷ Voltage in r.m.s. value
Ep np ç np ÷
è ø V0 = 2 ´ 234 V = 331 volt
æ 200 ö and w t = 2 p n t = 2 p ´ 50 ´ t = 100 p t
\ E s = 120 ´ ç ÷ = 240 V
è 100 ø Thus, the equation of line voltage is given by
V = 331 sin (100 p t)
Ιp ns æ np ö æ 100 ö 39. (a) The resistance in the middle plays no part in the charging
= or Ι s = Ι p ç ÷ \ Is = 10 ç = 5 amp
Ιs np è ns ø è 200 ÷ø process of C, as it does not alter either the potential
difference across the RC combination or the current
dI through it.
31. (b) R Þ I ¯ Þ ® (- ve) ® e = ( + ve)
40. (a) Here, C = 100 mF = 100 × 10–6 F, R = 40 W,
dt
Vrms = 110 V, f = 60 Hz
é dI ù Peak voltage,
ê As e = - L dt ú
ë û
V0 = 2 . Vrms = 100 2 = 155.54 V
Supporting ® I net Circuit impedance,
32. (b) We know that, i = i0 (1 - e-t / t )
1
3
i0 = i0 (1 - e -4 / t ) Z= R2 +
or 2 2
w C
4
1 1
or e -4 / t = 40 2 +
4 =
(2 ´ p ´ 60 ´ 100 ´ 10 -6 ) 2
4/ t
or e =4
= 1600 + 703.60 = 2303.60 = 48 W
4
\ = ln 4 hence, maximum current in coil,
t
2
V0 155.54
or t= s I0 = = = 3.24 A
ln 2 Z 48
41. (a) Laminated core provide less area of cross-section for
1 the current to flow. Because of this, resistance of the
33. (d) At resonance, wL = . The circuit behaves as if it
wC core increases and current decreases thereby
contains R only. So, phase difference = 0 decreasing the eddy current losses.
At resonance, impedance is minimum Zmin = R and 42. (b) V = 200V; r = 10W
current is maximum, given by R¢ = 10 + 100W = 110W
E E V 220
I max = = I= = = 2A
Z min R R¢ 100
It is interesting to note that before resonance the current P = I2R = 4 × 100 = 400 W
leads the applied emf, at resonance it is in phase, and 43. (b) For step-down transformer,
after resonance it lags behind the emf. LCR series circuit
VP IS
is also called as acceptor circuit and parallel LCR circuit = Q VP > VS \ IS > IP
is called rejector circuit. VS IP
34. (d) Condition for which the current is maximum in a series 44. (b) At t = 0 , no current will flow through L and R1
LCR circuit is, V
1 \ Current through battery = R
w= 2
LC
1
At t = ¥ ,
1000 = RR
L(10 ´ 10-6 ) effective resistance, Reff = 1 2
R1 + R2
Þ = L = 100 mH
35. (c) When a circuit is broken, the induced e.m.f. is largest. V
So the answer is (c). \ Current through battery = R
eff
36. (b) V= 50 × 2 sin 100 p cos 100 pt = 50 sin 200 pt
Þ V0 = 50Volts and n = 100 Hz V ( R1 + R2 )
=
R1R2
37. (d) di
V = -L
dt 45. (d) These three inductors are connected in parallel. The
di T equivalent inductance Lp is given by
Here is + ve for time and
dt 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3
= + + = + + = =1
di T L p L1 L2 L3 3 3 3 3
is – ve for next time
dt 2 \ Lp = 1
EBD_7156
S-92 DPP/ CP22
1. (b) Q The E.M. wave are transverse in nature i.e., 7. (b) For electromagnetic waves we know that,
r r
k É r E
= =H …(i) =c
mw B
r
r
where H = B 9 ´10-4
m \ = 3 ´108 ms -1
B
r r
k ´H r B = 3 × 10–12 T.
and = -E … (ii)
we 2p
r r r r 8. (b) Here, k = , w = 2pu
l
k is ^ H and k is also ^ to E
r r r r r k 2p / l 1 1
or In other words X || E and k || E ´ B \ = = = (Q c = u l)
2. (a) Erms = 720 w 2pu pu c
The average total energy density where c is the speed of electromagnetic wave in
1 1 vacuum. It is a constant whose value is 3 × 106 m s–1
= Î0 E 20 = Î0 [ 2E rms ]2 =Î0 E rms
2
9. (a) E.M. wave always propagates in a direction
2 2 perpendicular to both electric and magnetic fields. So,
= 8.85 ´ 10-12 ´ (720)2 electric and magnetic fields should be along + X– and
+ Y–directions respectively. Therefore, option (a) is
= 4.58 ´ 10-6 J / m3 the correct option.
3. (d) Id = 1 mA = 10–3 A 1
C = 2mF = 2 × 10–6 F 10. (d) e 0 E 02 is electric energy density..
2
d dV
ID = IC = (CV) = C B2
dt dt is magnetic energy density..
2m 0
dV I D 10 -3
Therefore, = = = 500 Vs–1
dt C 2 ´ 10-6 1 B2
So, total energy = e 0 E 20 + 0
Therefore, applying a varying potential difference of 2 2m 0
500 V s–1 would produce a displacement current of
desired value. E
11. (c) Incident momentum, p =
1 c
4. (c) E0 = CB0 and C = For perfectly reflecting surface with normal incidence
m0 e 0
1 2E
Electric energy density = e 0 E0 2 = m E Dp = 2p =
2 c
1 Bo 2 Dp 2E
Magnetic energy density = = mB F= =
2 m0 Dt ct
Thus, mE = mB
F 2E
Energy is equally divided between electric and magnetic P= =
field A ctA
5. (c) In an electromagnetic wave electric field and magnetic 12. (a) E x and By would generate a plane EM wave travelling
field are perpendicular to the direction of propagation r r r
of wave. The vector equation for the electric field is in z-direction, E , B and k from a right handed system
r r
æ
E = E0 cos ç wt -
2p ö
y zˆ k is along z-axis. As î ´ ˆj = kˆ
è l ÷ø Þ E î ´ B ˆj = Ckˆ i.e., E is along x-axis and B is along
x y
6. (a) Frequency remains constant during refraction
y-axis.
1 c
vmed = = 13. (b) From question,
µ0 Î0 ´4 2 B0 = 20 nT = 20 × 10–9T
(Q velocity of light in vacuum C = 3 × 108 ms–1)
l med vmed c / 2 1 r r r
= = = E0 = B0 ´ C
l air vair c 2
r r r
\ wavelength is halved and frequency remains | E 0 |=| B | . | C |= 20 ´ 10 -9 ´ 3 ´ 108
unchanged.
= 6 V/m.
DPP/ CP22 S-93

14. (c) Microwave oven acts on the principle of giving 24. (b) The average energy stored in the electric field
vibrational energy to water molecules.
1
15. (a) Displacement current is set up in a region where the UE = e0 E 2
electric field is changing with time. 2
16. (a) On comparing the given equation to The average energy stored in the magnetic field = UB =
r
E = a0iˆ cos (wt – kz) 1 B2
w = 6 × 108z, ,
2 m0
2p w
k= = According to conservation of energy UE = UB
r c
w 6 ´ 108 B2
k= = = 2 m -1 e 0m 0 =
c 3 ´ 108 E2
17. (b) Displacement current, ID = conduction current, IC B 1
= e0m0 =
dq d E c
\ = [q0 cos2put] = – q0 2pu sin2put
dt dt 25. (b) EM waves carry momentum and hence can exert
E pressure on surfaces. They also transfer energy to the
18. (a) Momentum of light falling on reflecting surface p = surface so p ¹ 0 and E ¹ 0.
C
As surface is perfectly reflecting so momentum reflect 26. (b)
27. (a) The decreasing order of the wavelengths is as given
E
p1 = – E E below :
C =P microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays.
So, momentum transferred C C
28. (b) Infrared causes heating effect.
E æ E ö 2E 1
= P – P1 = – ç – ÷ = 29. (c) Speed of EM waves in vacuum = = constant
C è Cø C
m 0 Î0
19. (d) (1) Infrared rays are used to treat muscular strain
because these are heat rays. 30. (b)
(2) Radio waves are used for broadcasting because 31. (a) Ι D = e o d fE / dt .
these waves have very long wavelength ranging
from few centimeters to few hundred kilometers 32. (d) n g- rays > n visible radiation > ninf rared > nRadio waves
(3) X-rays are used to detect fracture of bones 33. (b)
because they have high penetrating power but 34. (d) Wave is uv rays.
they can't penetrate through denser medium like 35. (b)
dones. 36. (c) Electromagnetic waves are the combination of mutually
(4) Ultraviolet rays are absorbed by ozone of the
perpendicular electric and magnetic fields.
atmosphere.
r 37. (b) Audible waves are not electromagnetic wave.
ˆ
20. (d) Given : B = 1.2 ´ 10-8 kT
r m0
E=? 38. (b) Wave impedance = Z = = 376.6 W
From formula, e0
E = Bc = (1.2 ´ 10-8 T)(3 ´ 108 ms -1 ) = 3.6 Vm -1 39. (b)

r 40. (b) Depends on the magnitude of frequency
B is along Z-direction and the wave propagates along
r E 0 9 ´ 10 3
X-direction. Therefore E should be along Y-direction. 41. (d) B0 = = = 3 ´ 10 -5 T.
c 8
r 3 ´ 10
Thus, E = 3.6ˆj Vm-1 42. (d) To generate electromagnetic waves we need
21. (d) accelerating charge particle.
hc hc 43. (d)
22. (a) E= Þ l= 44. (d) For an E.M. wave power is transmitted in a direction
l E perpendicular to both the fields.
6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´108 1
Þ l= = 12.4 Å 45. (c) Speed of light of vacuum c = and in another
11´1000 ´ 1.6 ´10 -19 m 0 e0
Increasing order of frequency
1
x-rays u-v rays visible Infrared medium v =
23. (a) Velocity of light me
E E 9.3 me
C= ÞB= = = 3.1 ´ 10-8 T \
c
= = mr K Þ v =
c
.
B C 3 ´ 108 v m 0 e0 mr K
EBD_7156
S-94 DPP/ CP23
sin 41°
1 æ 1 1 ö w
mg = ... (iii)
= (1.5 - 1) ç - sin q
è R1 R 2 ÷ø
1. (b) fR a
mw × wmg = amg
1 æ 1 1 ö sin 60° sin 41° sin 60°

= (1.45 - 1) ç - ´ =
fv è R1 R 2 ÷ø sin 41° sin q sin 35°
(Using (i), (ii) and (iii))
fv 0.5 10
= = = sinq = sin35° q = 35°
f R 0.45 9
5. (d) r
9 9
fR = f v = ´ 20 cm = 18 cm. h = 12 cm
10 10
2. (a) We have, C
æ A + dm ö 1 1 3
sin ç sin C = = =.
è 2 ÷ø m 4/3 4
m=
æ Aö Now r = h tan C
sin ç ÷
è 2ø 3 36
= 12 ´ = cm
æ A + dm ö 7 7
sin ç
A è 2 ÷ø
Þ cot = 1 æ 1 1 ö
2 æ Aö 6. (a) = (m - 1) ç -
sin ç ÷
è 2ø f è R1 R2 ÷ø
According to Cauchy relation
A A æ A + dm ö
or sin × cot = sin ç
2 2 è 2 ÷ø B C
m = A+ +
... Hence f µ l .
A l 2
l4
cos
A
or sin × 2 = sin æ A + d m ö Hence, red light having maximum wavelength has
çè ÷
2 A 2 ø maximum focal length.
sin
2 \ f v < f r and also Fv > Fr as focal length is negative for
A é p æ A + dm ö ù a concave lens.
or cos = cos ê - ç ÷ú
2 ë2 è 2 øû 7. (c) To minimise spherical aberration in a lens, the total
A p æ A + dm ö deviation should be equally distributed over the two
Þ = -ç ÷
2 2 è 2 ø surfaces.
or A = p - A - d m Þ dm = p - 2A . 8. (d) f = 10 cm
3. (a) Let the distance between the lenses be d.
Then, equivalent power is
B A
P = P1 + P2 – d P1 P2
Given P1 = P2 = + 5 D –10 cm –20 cm
\ P = (10 – 25d) D
For P to be –ve,
2 The focal length of the mirror
10 – 25d < 0 Þ d > m
5 1 1 1
or, d > 0.4 m or d > 40 cm – = +
f v u
sin 60°
4. (b) amg = ... (i) For A end of the rod the image distance
sin 35°
sin 60° When u1 = – 20 cm
a
mw = sin 41° ... (ii) -1 1 1
Þ 10 = v - 20
1
DPP/ CP23 S-95
1 -1 1
= + -2 + 1 or i = tan -1 (m) i.e., i = tan -1 (1.62)
v1 10 20 = 20
v1 = – 20 cm
For when u2 = – 30 cm 13. (b) f0 = 100 cm, fe = 5 cm
When final image is formed at least distance of distinct
1 1 1
= - vision (d), then
f v2 30
f æ f ö 100 æ 5ö
1 -1 1 M = 0 ç1 + e ÷ = ç 1 + ÷ [Q D = 25 cm]
= + - 30 + 10 -20 fe è dø 5 è 25 ø
=
v2 10 30 = 300 300 6
v2 = – 15 cm M = 20 ´ = 24
5
L = v2 – v1 = – 15 – (– 20) 14. (b) Secondary rainbow is formed by rays undergoing
L = 5 cm
internal reflection twice inside the drop.
9. (a) Magnification
h
15. (b) tan 45° = Þ h = 60 m
Angle subtended by 60
f0 final image on the eye
= = Tower
f e Angle subtended by
the object on eye (or objective) h
0.3m b 30 cm b 45°
Þ = Þ = 45° 60 m
3cm 0.5° 3cm 0.5°
Þ b = 5° Image
10. (b) Due to difference in refractive indices images obtained
will be two. Two media will form images at two different
points due to difference in focal lengths. m 1 m -1
16. (c) Using, - =
11. (c) For reading purposes : v u R
u = – 25 cm, v = – 50 cm, f = ? 2 1 2 -1
or - =
1 1 1 1 1 1 v ¥ R
= - =- + = ; \ v = 2R
f v u 50 25 50
17. (a) anl = 1.6, anw = 1.33
100 f = 20 cm
P= = +2 D
f We have,
For distant vision, f' = distance of far point = –3 m 1 æ 1 1 ö
= ( a nl - 1) ç - ÷
1 1 f è R1 R 2 ø
P= = - D = -0.33 D
f¢ 3 1 æ 1 1 ö
= (1.6 - 1) ç - ..... (1)
12. (a) Clearly, 20 è R1 R 2 ÷ø
i + r + 90° = 180° æ 1
1 1 ö
Also, = ( w n l - 1) ç - ÷
Þ i + r = 90° … (i) f' è R1 R 2 ø
A C æ n öæ 1 1 ö
i i = ç a l - 1÷ç - ÷
B è a nw ø è R1 R 2 ø
r
m = 1.62 D 1 æ 1.6 öæ 1 1 ö
=ç - 1÷ ç -
f ' è 1.33 ø è R1 R 2 ÷ø ..... (2)
Dividing equation (1) by (2)

sin i
Now, =m f' 0.6
sin r Þ =
sin i 20 (1.2 - 1)
Þ = m, from (1)
sin (90° - i )
0.6 ´ 20
sin i f'= = 60 cm.
or = m Þ tan i = m 0.2
cos i Hence it's focal length is three times longer than in air.
EBD_7156
S-96 DPP/ CP23
v0 æ dö x æ m2 + m1 ö x (m1 + m 2 )
18. (a) m= ç 1 + ÷ = 20 æç1 + 20 ö÷ = ç
2 è m1m 2 ø
÷ =
| u 0 | è fe ø 5 è 10 ø 2m1m2
23. (d) As r1 < i1 i.e., the incident ray bends towards the
æ 10 + 20 ö 4 ´ 30 normal Þ medium 2 is denser than medium 1.
= 4ç ÷= = 12
è 10 ø 10 Or r2 < i1 Þ medium 3 is denser than medium 1.
19. (a) Given i = 60° Also, r2 > r1 Þ medium 2 is denser than medium 3.
A=d=e 24. (d) Here, vA = 1.8 × 108 m s–1
vB = 2.4 × 108 m s–1
d = i + e – A Þ d = i (Q e = A)
Light travels slower in denser medium. Hence medium
A is a denser medium and medium B is a rarer
æ A + dm ö
sin ç medium. Here, Light travels from medium A to
è 2 ÷ø
m= medium B. Let C be the critical angle between them.
A 1
sin \ sinC = AmB = B
2
mA
Here angle of deviation is min. (Q i = e) Refractive index of medium B w.r.t. to medium A is
æ 60° + 60° ö Velocity of light in medium A v
sin ç ÷ø
A
mB = = A
è 2 Velocity of light in medium B vB
m= = 1.73
60° vA 1.8 ´ 108 3
sin \ sin C = = = or C = sin–1 æç 3 ö÷
2 vB 2.4 ´ 108 4 è 4ø
20. (b) u = –50 cm = –0.5 m 25. (a) For a thin prism, D = (m – 1) A
v = –30 cm = –0.3 m Since lb < lr Þ mr < mb Þ D1 < D2
26. (b) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
1 1 1 -1 1 -0.2
P= = - = + = = -1.33 D . is due to the refraction of light, not due to the total
f v u 0.3 0.5 0.15 internal reflection. Other three phenomena are due to
21. (b) Object distance u = – 40 cm the total internal reflection.
Focal length f = – 20 cm 1 1 1
According to mirror formula 27. (b) Using the lens formula = -
f v u
1 1 1 1 1 1
+ = or = - Given v = d, for equal size image v = u = d
u v f v f u
1 1 1 1 1 By sign convention u = –d
or + - = +
v -20 ( -40 ) -20 40 1 1 1 d
\ = + or f =
1 -2 + 1 1 f d d 2
= =- or v = -40 cm.
v 40 40 28. (a) Due to covering the reflection from lower part is not
Negative sign shows that image is infront of concave there so it makes the image less bright.
mirror. The image is real. 29. (b) From the fig.
Magnification, m =
-v
=-
( -40 ) = -1 Angle of deviation,
u ( -40 ) d = i+e- A A
The image is of the same size and inverted. Here, e = i d
i e
m1 3
Oil and e = A
4
22. (a)
Water m2 3 3 A
\d= A+ A– A =
4 4 2
Real depth
As refractive index, m = For equilateral prism, A = 60°
Apparent depth
\ Apparent depth of the vessel when viewed from 60°
\ d= = 30°
above is 2
x x xæ 1 1 ö 30. (a) Power of lens, P (in dioptre)
dapparent = + = ç + ÷
2m1 2m 2 2 è m1 m 2 ø
DPP/ CP23 S-97
\ B mA
= 1.5
100
= Apparent depth 1
focal length f (in cm) 35. (b) Since =
Realdepth m
100 Þ Apparent depth = d/m
\ f= = 10 cm So mark raised up = Real depth – Apparent depth
10
d æ 1 ö æ m -1 ö
1 æ 1 1 ö = d- = d çç1 - ÷÷ = çç ÷÷d
By lens maker's formula, = (m – 1) ç – m è m ø è m ø
f ÷
è R1 R 2 ø mV - m R dm
36. (b) Dispersive power of a prism w = = ,
For biconvex lens, R1 = + R, and R2 = – R my -1 m -1
mV + mR
1 æ1 1ö where m = m y =
\ = (m – 1) ç + ÷ 2
f èR Rø
37. (a) Considering refraction at the curved surface,
1 æ2ö u = – 20, µ2 = 1
= (m – 1) ç ÷
f èRø µ1 = 3/2 , R = + 20
m 2 m1 m 2 - m1
1 æ 2 ö Applying - =
= (m – 1) ç ÷ v u R
10 è 10 ø
1 3 / 2 1- 3/ 2
Þ - = Þ v = -10
1 1 3 v -20 20
(m –1) = or m = + 1 = i.e., 10 cm below the curved surface or 10 cm above the
2 2 2
actual position of flower.
31. (d) In the later case microscope will be focussed for O'. So, it is
required to be lifted by distance OO'. 360 360
38. (b) When q = 90° then = =4
OO' = real depth of O – apparent depth of O. q 90
is an even number. The number of images formed is

O'
Image given by
}
O 360 360
n= -1 = -1 = 4 - 1 = 3
3 é real depth ù q 90
= 3- êµ = ú
1.5 ë apparent depth û 39. (b) The critical angle of incidence is that angle at which
é1 . 5 - 1 ù 3 ´ . 5 angle of refraction is 90°.
= 3ê ú= = 1 cm n1
ë 1. 5 û 1. 5
32. (d) The cause of chromatic aberration is that lens ic n2
focusses different colours at different points.
33. (c) For the prism as the angle of incidence (i) increases, n1
sin i c = where n 2 > n1
the angle of deviation (d) first decreases goes to n2
minimum value and then increases. velocity (air)
As, refractive index =
34. (d) dA : dB = 6 : 4 velocity (medium)
Q Time taken µ thickness
2.2 ´ 108 m / sec 11
1 \ sin i c = =
and time taken µ 8
2.4 ´ 10 m / sec 12
velocity
æ 11ö
\ Thickness µ
1 Þ i C = sin -1 ç ÷
è 12 ø
velocity
d A vB æ mg ö
\ = ç - 1÷÷
d B vA ç
Pa è m a +5
40. (b) = ø= = -5
c m v P1 æ m g ö - 100 / 100
\ A = B ç ÷
Also, m =
v m B vA ç m - 1÷
è 1 ø
d A mA 6 3
\ = = = = 1.5 æ m g ö mg
dB mB 4 2 - 5 çç - 1÷÷ = -1
è m1 ø m a
EBD_7156
S-98 DPP/ CP23
1 .5 -1 Applying Snell’s law on face AB.
1 .5 5
-1 = (1 .5 - 1) = -0 .1 ; m1 = =
m1 5 0.9 3 sin i1 = µ sin r 1
1 1 æ 1 ö 1 3
41. (d) sin C = = \ C = sin -1 çç ÷÷ = 45 º Þ sin i1 = Ö 3 sin 30° = 3 ´ =
m 2
2 2
è 2ø \ i1 = 60°
sin C 1 sin 45º 1 Similarly, i2 = 60°
Now = or =
sin r m sin r 2 In a prism, deviation
sin r = 1 or r = 90º d = i1 + i2 – A = 60° + 60° – 60° = 60°
42. (d) 3 cm r = 90°
1 æ mg öæ 1 1 ö
44. (a) =ç - 1÷ ç - ÷
f è m m ø è R1 R2 ø
i
4 cm i 1 æ 1 1ö
If mg = mm, then = (1 - 1) ç - ÷
f è R1 R2 ø
coin
Hypotenuse comes out to be 5 cm. 1
Þ =0
1 sin i f
Since, =
m sin 90°
1
1 5 f = =¥
m= = 0
sin i 3
This implies that the liquid must have refractive index
c 3 ´ 108 equal to glass.
Speed, v = = = 1.8 ´ 108 m/s
m 5/3 45. (b) Minimum deviation of the prism when it is dipped in
43. (a) A water = d m ' = ( w m g - 1)A
60°
Q d æ 3 ö
R æ a mg ç
i1 i2
=ç
ö
- 1÷ A = ç 2 - 1÷ A 1 A
r1 r2 ÷ =
è a mw ø 4 ÷ 8
çç ÷
è 3 ø
Minimum deviation of the prism with respect to air
B C
Given AQ = AR and ÐA = 60° æ3 ö 1
= d m = (m - 1)A = ç - 1÷ A = A
è2 ø 2
\ ÐAQR = ÐARQ = 60° 1
A
\ r1 = r2 = 30° dm ' 8 1
= =
dm 1 4
A
2
DPP/ CP24 S-99

1. (b) For path difference l, phase æ d ö
\ A 2 = 2a 2 (1 + cos d) = 2a 2 ç1 + 2cos 2 - 1÷
æ 2p 2p ö è 2 ø
difference = 2p ç Q = x = .l = 2p ÷
è l l ø d
Þ A 2 µ cos 2
Þ I = I0 + I0 + 2I0 cos 2p 2
Þ I = 4I0 (\ cos 2p = 1) 2 d
Now, I µ A \ I µ A 2 µ cos 2
2
l p
For x = , phase difference = d
4 2 \ I µ cos 2 .
2
p Dx1 = (m1 - 1)t = (1.5 - 1)t = 0.5t
\ I' = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos 8. (b)
2
æ4 ö 2
and Dx2 = (m2 - 1) ´ 2t = ç - 1÷ ´ 2t = t .
I I è 3 ø 3
If I1 = I2 = I0 then I ' = 2I0 = 2. =
4 2 As Dx2 > Dx1 , so shift will be along –ve y-axis.
2. (c) Here Angle of incidence, i = 57 9. (d) Given: D = 2m; d = 1 mm = 1 × 10– 3 m
tan 57° = 1.54 l = 600 nm = 600 × 10– 6 m
uglass = tan i Width of central bright fringe (= 2b)
It means, Here Brewster’s law is followed and the
reflected ray is completely polarised. 2lD 2 ´ 600 ´ 10 - 6 ´ 2
Now, when reflected ray is analysed through a polaroid = = m = 2.4 mm
d 1 ´ 10 - 3
then intensity of light is given by malus law.
i.e. I = I0 cos2q 10. (d) Conditions for diffraction minima are
on rotating polaroid ‘q’ changes. Due to which intensity Path diff. Dx = nl and Phase diff. df = 2np
first decreases and then increases. Path diff. = nl = 2 l
3. (b) Let nth fringe of 2500 Å coincide with (n – 2)th fringe
of 3500Å. Phase diff. = 2np = 4p (Q n = 2)
\ 3500 (n – 2) = 2500 × n 11. (c) When the wavelength of light used is comparable
1000 n = 7000, n = 7 with the separation between two points, the image of
\ 7th order fringe of 1st source will coincide with 5th the object will be a f diffraction pattern whose size
order fringe of 2nd source. will be
4. (a) When incident wavefronts passes through a prism, 1.22l
then lower portion of wavefront (B) is delayed q=
D
resulting in a tilt. So, time taken by light to reach A’
where l = wavelength of light used
from A is equal to the time taken to reach B’ from B.
aµ = tan q where q = polarising angle. D = diameter of the objective
5. (b) g P P Two objects whose images are closer than this
or, aµg = tan 60°
distance, will not be resolved.
c 12. (d) The waves reflected from the top layer of oil interfere
or, = 3 with the wave train reflected from the lower surface of
vg
thin oil film producing light and dark coloured pattern.
c 3 ´ 108 2p
or, vg = = = 3 ´ 108 ms -1 13. (d) Phase difference, f = × Path difference
3 3 l
l 2p l p
6. (c) Angular width = = 10 -3 (given) f= ´ = = 60°
d l 6 3
\ No. of fringes within 0.12° will be f
As, I = Imax cos 2
0.12 ´ 2p 2
n= = [2.09]
360 ´10-3 2
I 3
60° æ 3ö 3
\ The number of bright spots will be two. I = I0cos2 = I0 ´ ç ÷ = I0 I = 4
2 è 2 ø 4 0
7. (c) Here A 2 = a12 + a 22 + 2a1a 2 cos d
14. (b)
Q a1 = a2 = a
EBD_7156
S-100 DPP/ CP24
15. (a) We know that for maxima Dq 10
Give, =
l q 100
b sin q = (2n + 1) So, from eq. (1),
2
Dl Dq 10
2n + 1 æ l ö = = = 0.1
or sin q = ç ÷ l q 100
2 èbø
Þ Dl = 0.1l = 0.1 ´ 5890Å = 589Å (increases)
So on decreasing the slit width, ‘b’, keeping l same, sin
q and hence q increases. Note : Since, q µ l , as q increases, l increases.
16. (b) If the angular limit of resolution of human eye is R then l 589 ´ 10-9 1
23. (c) sin q = = = 10-3 = = 0.001
1.22l 1.22 ´ 5 ´10 -7 d 0.589 ´ 10-3 1000
R= = rad
a 2 ´10 -3 24. (c) In Fraunhoffer diffraction, for minimum intensity,
1.22 ´ 5 ´ 10 -7 180 l
= ´ ´ 60 mi nute = 1 minute Dx = m
2
2 ´ 10 -3 p
For first minimum, m = 1
17. (c) m = tan i
l
\ Dx =
Þ i = tan -1 (m) = tan -1 ( 3) = 60°. 2
18. (d) Order of the fringe can be counted on either side of the 25. (d) Optical path difference
central maximum. For example, no. 3 is first order bright Dx = (m 2 – m1)t .
fringe. 26. (b) Separation between slits are (r1=) 16 cm and (r2=) 9 cm.
l Actual distance of separation
DX C = l, DX A =
2 = r1r2 = 16 ´ 9 = 12cm
l
DX C - DX A = = 300nm p
2 27. (b) f= , a = 4, a2 = 3
19. (a) For a circularly polarised light electric field remains 3 1
constant with time.
So, A = a12 + a 22 + 2a1a 2 cos f » 6
Dl
28. (c) b= , where D is the distance between the slits &
|E| d
screen and d is the separation between the slits.
2Dl 4 Dl
t b' = = = 4b
d/2 d
b 0.133 29. (b) For first minima at P
20. (b) b¢ = = = 0.1 cm
m 1.33 AP – BP = l
21. (b) l
22. (d) Let l be wavelength of monochromatic light incident AP – MP =
2
on slit S, then angular distance between two
consecutive fringes, that is the angular fringe width
is
l
q= P
d
where d is distance between coherent sources.
A f
S1 M f O
x
B
S q
d
2p l
So phase difference, f = ´ = p radian
S2 l 2
D
DPP/ CP24 S-101
D b 37. (d) : Resultant amplitude,

30. (a) Shift = (m - 1) t = (m - 1) t = 4b
d l A= ( A1 )2 + ( A2 )2 + 2 A1 A2 cos q
4l 4 ´ 6000 ´ 10-10 Here, A1 = A2 = 1 cm, f = 3p rad
t= = = 4.8 µm
m -1 1.5 - 1 \ A= 12 + 12 + 2 ´1´ 1´ cos 3p
31. (c) The fringe width is given by, b = lD = 2 + 2 ´ (-1) = 0
d 38. (c)
The angular width of fringe is given by
39. (c)
d l 6 ´ 10-7 40. (c)
= = = 5 × 10–3 rad.
D b 0.12 ´ 10-3 Plane WF
D µ increases
32. (c) Distance of nth maxima, x = nl µl 41. (b) (Light bends Vel decreases
d upwards)
As l b < l g \ x blue < x green Refracted
lD WF
33. (a) As b = and l b < l y ,
d 2
æ sin f ö p
\ fringe width b will decrease 42. (a) I = I 0 çç ÷÷ and f = ( b sin q )
34. (c) At Brewster’s angle, only the reflected light is plane è f ø l
polarised, but transmitted light is partially polarised. When the slit width is doubled, the amplitude of the
35. (b) Dxmax = 2 l. wave at the centre of the screen is doubled, so the
So there are five maxima. intensity at the centre is increased by a factor 4.
These are for Dx = 0, ± l , ± 2l. 43. (a)
44. (a) Where n is equivalent number of fringe by which the
36. (c) The nearest white spot will be at P, the central maxima. centre fringe is shifted due to mica sheet
2d d d
\ y= - = (m - 1) t (1.5 - 1) 6 ´10 -6
3 2 6 l= =
n 5
= 6 ´ 10-7 m = 6000 Å
2d/3 d/2
P 45. (c) Suppose intensity of unpolarised light = 100.
y O \ Intensity of polarised light from first nicol prism
Ι0 1
= = ´ 100 = 50
2 2
According to law of Malus,
2
æ1ö
Ι = Ι0 cos 2 q = 50 (cos 60º )2 = 50 ´ ç ÷ = 12.5
è2ø
EBD_7156
S-102 DPP/ CP25
4. (b) lmin = 1 Å (given)
h h
1. (d) Wavelength of particle (l1) = =
mv (1 ´ 10-3 ) ´ v 1240
Q lmin = (eV) (nm)
where v is the velocity of the particle. E
Wavelength of electron
h 1240(eV)(nm)
(l2 ) = Thus, E = = 12400 eV
(9.1 ´ 10 ) ´ (3 ´ 10 )
-31 6 0.01(nm)
But l1 = l2
E = 12.4 KeV
h h 5. (a) The maximum kinetic energy of an electron accelerated
\ =
(
1 ´ 10 -3
) ´v (9.1 ´ 10 -31
) ´ (3 ´ 106 )
1
through a potential difference of V volt is mv2 =eV
2
9.1 ´ 10-31 ´ 3 ´ 106
Þv =
10-3
2eV
= 2.73×10–21 ms–1 \ maximum velocity v =
m
2. (a) For electron De-Broglie wavelength,
h 2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 15000

le = v=
2mE 9.1 ´ 10-31
v = 7.26 × 107 m/s
For photon E = pc
6. (b) Photoelectrons are emitted in A alone. Energy of
Þ De-Broglie wavelength, l Ph =
hc hu
electron needed if emitted from A = eV
E e
\
le
=
h E æ E ö
´ =ç ÷
1/2
1
\ EA =
( 6.6 ´10-34 ) ´ (1.8 ´ 1014 )
= 0.74 eV
l Ph 2mE hc è 2m ø c 1.6 ´10-19
3. (d) The electron ejected with maximum speed vmax are

stopped by electric field E =4N/C after travelling a EB =
( 6.6 ´10-34 ) ´ ( 2.2 ´1014 ) = 0.91 eV
distance d =1m 1.6 ´10-19
1 Incident energy 0.825 eV is greater than EA (0.74 eV)

mv2max = eEd = 4eV but less than EB (0.91 eV).
2
1
1240 7. (a) According to relation, E = mv 2
The energy of incident photon = = 6.2 eV 2
200
2E
From equation of photo electric effect =v
m
1 h
mv 2max = hn - f0 l=
2 2mE
Because m1 < m3 < m2
\ f0 = 6.2 - 4 = 2.2 eV
So for same l, E1 > E 3 > E 2 .
DPP/ CP25 S-103
8. (a) Emission of electron from a substance under the action 15. (c) Applying Einstein's formula for photo-electricity
of light is photoelectric effect. Light must be at a
sufficiently high frequency. It may be visible light, U.V, 1 2
hn = f + mv ; hn = f + K
X-rays. So U.V. cause electron emission. 2
c 3 ´ 108 f = hn - K
9. (b) l0 = = = 6 ´ 10-7 m = 6000Å
v0 5 ´ 1014 If we use 2n frequency then let the kinetic energy
becomes K'
h m0
10. (c) l= ,v= , v ® c, m ® ¥ So, h . 2n = f + K'
mv 2
æ vö 2hn = hn – K + K'
1- ç ÷
è cø K' = hn + K
hence, l ® 0 . hc
11. (a) Give that, only 25% of 200W converter electrical energy 16. (a) Q l0 = f
into light of yellow colour
æ hc ö 25 6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
çè ÷ø ´ N = 200 ´ \ (l0)sodium= = 6188 Å
l 100 2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19
Where N is the No. of photons emitted per second, h 1 (l ) (f) copper
Q l0 µ Þ 0 sodium =
is planck’s constant and c is speed of light. f (l 0 )copper (f)sodium
200 ´ 25 l 2
N= ´
100 hc Þ (l0)copper = × 6188 = 3094 Å
4
200 ´ 25 ´ 0.6 ´ 10-6 To eject photo-electrons from sodium the longest
= = 1.5 × 1020 wavelength is 6188 Å and that for copper is 3094 Å.
100 ´ 6.2 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
12. (d) For photon E = hn Hence for light of wavelength 4000 Å, sodium is
suitable.
hc hc
E= Þ l2 = ...(i) 1 hc 2( hc - lf )
l E 17. (c) mv 2 = -f Þ v =
2 l lm
1 2 18. (d) de-Broglie wavelength,
for proton E = m p vp
2 h h
2 2 l= =
1 mp vp p 2. m.(K.E)
E= Þ p= 2mE
2 m 1
From De Broglie Eqn. \ lµ
K. E
h h h l
p= Þ l1 = = ...(ii) If K.E is doubled, wavelength becomes
l1 p 2mE
2
λ2 hc 1
= ¥ E –1/2 19. (b) m n12 = 2 W0 - W0 = W0 and
λ1 E× h 2
2mE
1
13. (a) hn = W0 + Ek = 3.5 + 1.2 = 4.7 eV m n 22 = 10 W0 - W0 = 9W0
2
14. (a) f = 6.2 eV = 6.2 ´ 1.6 ´10 -19 J
n1 W0 1
V = 5 volt \ = =
n2 9 W0 3
hc
- f = eV0 20. (a) The work function has no effect on photoelectric current
l
so long as hn > W0. The photoelectric current is
hc
Þl= proportional to the intensity of incident light. Since there
f + eV0 is no change in the intensity of light, hence I1 = I2.
21. (c) n ® 2 – 1
6.6 ´ 10 -
34 8
´ 3 ´ 10 -7
= -19
» 10 m E = 10.2 eV
1.6 ´ 10 (6.2 + 5) kE = E – f
This range lies in ultra violet range. Q = 10.20 – 3.57
h u0 = 6.63 eV
EBD_7156
S-104 DPP/ CP25
28. (d) hu – hu0 = EK, according to photoelectric equation,
6.63 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 when u = u0, EK = 0.
u0 = = 1.6 × 1015 Hz
6.67 ´ 10-34 Graph (d) represents EK – u relationship.
1 2 hc 1 hc hc
22. (d) hn = W + mv or = W + mv 2 29. (d) Kmax = -W = - 5.01
2 l 2 l l
Here l = 3000 Å = 3000 × 10–10 m 12375
and W = 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 joule = l (in Å) - 5.01
(6.6 ´ 10-34 )(3 ´ 108 )

\ 12375
3000 ´10-10 = –5.01 = 6.1875 – 5.01 = 1.17775
2000
1 ; 1.2 V
= (1.6 ´ 10 -19 ) + ´ (9.1´ 10 -31 )v 2
2 30. (b)
Solving we get, v @ 10 6 m/s 1

31. (b) lµ
23. (b) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, hv = V
f0 + Kmax
l1 V2 100keV
We have Þ = = =2
l2 V1 25keV
hv = f0 + 0.5 ...(i)
and 1.2hv = f0 + 0.8 ...(ii) l1
Therefore, from above two equations f0 = 1.0 eV. Þ l2 =
2
2d sin q 2 ´15 ´ sin 90º 32. (a) In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity
24. (c) l max . = = = 30Å of electrons emitted from the electron gun can be
n min . 1 increased by increasing the potential difference
between the anode and filament.
25. (d) W0 = hn1 – eV1 33. (b) According to Einsten’s photoelectric effect, the K.E.
= h n2 – e V2 of the radiated electrons
eV2 = h(n2 – n1) + eV1 K.Emax = E – W
h ( n 2 - n1 ) 1
mv 2 = (1 – 0.5) eV = 0.5 eV
V2 = + V1 2 1
e
1
26. (b) KEmax = hn – f mv 2 = (2.5 – 0.5) eV = 2 eV
2 2
1eV = hn – 1.9eV Þ hn = 2.9 eV
v1 0.5 1
hc = = = 1/ 2
Now threshold wavelength (maximum wavelength), l 0 = v2 2 4
E 34. (b) By using hv – hv0 = Kmax
Þ h (v1 – v0) = K1 ..... (i)
6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
Þ l0 = = 6513 Å And h(v2 – v0) = K2 ..... (ii)
1.9 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 v1 - v0 K1 1 kv - v 2
Þ = = , Hence v 0 = 1 .
And threshold frequency v 2 - v0 K 2 K K -1
35. (b) Cathode rays get deflected in the electric field.
c 3 ´ 108 36. (c) As we know
n0 = = = 4.6 × 1014Hz
l 0 6513 ´ 10-10 1
lµ
27. (b) E = W0 + Kmax ...(i) V
Þ hf = WA + KA ...(ii) 1 1 1 1 1
\ : : = 1: :
100 200 300 2 3
æ W 1ö
and 2hf = WB + KB = 2WA + KB çQ A = ÷ 37. (d) Number of emitted electrons NE
è WB 2 ø µ Intensity
Dividing equation (i) by (ii) 1
µ
(Distance)2
1 WA + K A K 1
= Þ A = Therefore, as distance is doubled, NE decreases by
2 2WA + K B KB 2 (1/4) times.
DPP/ CP25 S-105
38. (d) Photoelectrons are emitted if the frequency of incident According to de Broglie's concept
light is greater than the threshold frequency.
39. (a) K.E. = hn – hnth = eV0 (V0 = cut off voltage) h
l=
mv
h
Þ V0 = (8.2 ´ 1014 - 3.3 ´ 1014 )
e h
Þl=
-34 14 2e(100)
6.6 ´ 10 ´ 4.9 ´ 10
= » 2V. m
1.6 ´ 10 -19 m
hc h
40. (d) - f = eV0 = = 1.2 ´ 10 -10 = 1.2Å
l 2me(100)
hc f 43. (d) Since p = nhn
v0 = -
el e
For metal A For metal B p 2 ´ 10-3 = 5 ´ 1015
Þn= = -
hn 6.6 ´ 10 34
´ 6 ´ 1014
fA 1 fB 1
= = 44. (a) From formula
hc l hc l
h
1 l=
As the value of (increasing and decreasing) is not 2 mKT
l
6.63 ´10 -34
specified hence we cannot say that which metal has = m
comparatively greater or lesser work function (f). 2 ´ 1.67 ´10 -27 ´1.38 ´10 -23 T
[By placing value of h, m and k)
41. (c)
42. (d) Potential difference = 100 V 30.8
= Å
K.E. acquired by electron = e (100) T
45. (c) The photoelectric equation
1 2 2e(100) Kmax = hn – f0
mv = e(100) Þ v =
2 m Explains that the intensity of incident radiation will
increase photocurrent only beyond the threshold
frequency.
EBD_7156
S-106 DPP/ CP26
- Ze 2 mz 2 e5
1. (b) P.E. = . Negative sign indicates that revolving i n = eVn =
4pe 0 r 4e02 n 3 h 3
electron is bound to the positive nucleus.
So, it decreases with increase in radii of orbit. n2h2 æ 1 ö
rn = çk = ÷
é 1
2
4p kzme è 2 4p Î0 ø
1 ù
2. (b) E = Rhc ê 2 - 2 ú Solving we get magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom
êë n1 n2 úû
for nth excited state
E will be maximum for the transition for which
æ e ö nh
Mn ' = ç ÷
é 1 1 ù è 2m ø 2p
ê - ú is maximum. Here n2 is the higher energy
êë n12 n2 2 úû hc hc 6.62 ´10-34 ´ 3 ´108
6. (a) E= Þl= =
level. l E 12.5 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
= 993 A°
é ù
Clearly, ê 1 - 1 ú is maximum for the third transition, 1 æ 1 1 ö
2
ëê n1
2
n2 ûú = Rç - ÷
l çn 2 n 2 ÷
è 1 2 ø
i.e. 2 ® 1. I transition represents the absorption of
(where Rydberg constant , R = 1.097 × 107)
energy.
3. (a) Number of emission spectral lines 1 æ1 1 ö
or, = 1.097 ´ 107 ç - ÷
n(n - 1) 993 ´ 10 -10 ç 2
n 2 2 ÷ø
N= è1
2 Solving we get n 2 = 3
n (n - 1) Spectral lines
\3 = 1 1 , in first case. Total number of spectral lines = 3
2
Two lines in Lyman series for n1 = 1, n2 = 2 and n1 = 1,
Or n12 - n1 - 6 = 0 or (n1 - 3)(n1 + 2) = 0 n2 = 3 and one in Balmer series for n 1 = 2 , n2 = 3
Take positive root.
\ n1 = 3 n=3
Balmer
n=2
n (n - 1)
Again, 6 = 2 2 , in second case. Lyman Lyman
2
n=1
2
Or n 2 - n 2 - 12 = 0 or (n 2 - 4)(n 2 + 3) = 0.
nh
Take positive root, or n 2 = 4 7. (b) l= ,| E |µ Z 2 / n2 ; n = 3
2p
2pKZe 2 Þ lH = lLi and |EH| < |EL i|
Now velocity of electron u =
nh
u n2 4 8. (b) r µ n2
\ 1 = = .
u2 n1 3 radius of final state
4
\ = n2
1 N 2 sin (q1 / 2) radius of initial state
4. (c) Nµ ; =
4 N1 sin 4 (q2 / 2)
sin q / 2 21.2 ´ 10 -11
= n2
N2 sin 4 (60° / 2) 5.3 ´ 10 -11
or = \ n2 = 4 or n = 2
5 ´ 106 sin 4 (120° / 2)
N2 sin 4 30° R0 n 2
or = 9. (a) R=
Z
5 ´ 106 sin 4 60° R0
4 4 Radius in ground state =
or N 2 = 5 ´ 106 ´ æç 1 ö÷ çæ 2 ÷ö = 5 ´ 10 6 Z
è 2ø è 3 ø 9 R0 ´ 4
Radius in first excited state = (Q n =2)
5. (c) Magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom, when the Z
electron is in nth excited state, i.e., n¢ = (n + 1) Hence, radius of first excited state is four times the
As magnetic moment Mn = InA = in(prn2) radius in ground state.
DPP/ CP26 S-107
10. (a) Speed of electron in nth orbit r0 52 1

2
\ rm = = nr0 (given) Þ n = 4
2p KZe 100
Vn = 16. (a) Energy of electron in n th orbit is
nh
Z Z2
V = (2.19 × 106 m/s) En = - (Rch) = -54.4 eV
n n2
2 For He+ is ground state
V = (2.19 × 106) (Z = 2 & n = 3)
3 (2) 2
E1 = - (Rch) = -54.4 Þ Rch = 13.6
V = 1.46 × 106 m/s (1)2
11. (b) KEmax = 10eV \ For Li++ in first excited state (n = 2)
f = 2.75 eV (3)2
Total incident energy E' = – 13.6 × = -30.6 eV
(2) 2
E = f + KEmax = 12.75 eV
17. (a) Angular momentum = mrv = J
\ Energy is released when electron jumps from the
J
excited state n to the ground state. \ v=
Q E4 – E1 = {– 0.85 – (–13.6) ev} mr
= 12.75eV 2
1 2 1 æ J ö
\ value of n = 4 K. E. of electron = mv = m ç ÷
2 2 è mr ø
12. (a) As the electron comes nearer to the nucleus the
potential energy decreases J2
=
æ – k .Ze 2 ö 2mr 2
çQ = P.E. and r decreases÷
k k mv
2
è r ø 18. (b) When F = = centripetal force, then =
r r r
é 1 1 kZe2 ù Þ mv2 = constant Þ kinetic energy is constant
The K.E. will increase êQ K.E. = | P.E. | = ú
ë 2 2 r úû Þ T is independent of n.
é 1 kZe2 ù 1 1 c–v
The total energy decreases êT.E. = – ú 19. (b) =
êë 2 r úû l' l c+v
13. (d) When one e– is removed from neutral helium atom, it Here, l ' = 706 nm, l = 656 nm
becomes a one e– species.
For one e– species we know c–v æ l ö
2
æ 656 ö
2
\ =ç ÷ =ç ÷ = 0.86
–13.6Z 2 c+ v è l'ø è 706 ø
En = eV/atom
n2 v 0.14
Þ =
For helium ion, Z = 2 and for first orbit n = 1. c 1.86
–13.6 Þ v = 0.075 × 3 × 108 = 2.25 × 107m/s
\ E1 = ´ 22 = – 54.4 eV
2
(1) m0 I e
\ Energy required to remove this e– = + 54.4 eV 20. (d) Q B = and I =
\ Total energy required = 54.4 + 24.6 = 79 eV 2r T
14. (b) For 2nd line of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum m 0e
B= [ r µ n 2 , T µ n5 ] ; 1
2rT Bµ
1 æ 1 1ö 3 n5
= R (1) ç 2 - 2 ÷ = R
l è2 4 ø 16 21. (a) 53 electrons in iodine atom are distributed as 2, 8, 18, 18, 7
é1 æ 1 1 ö 3R ù \n=5
For Li2+ ê l = R ´ 9 çè 2 - 2 ÷ø = 16 ú n2
ë x 12 û rn = (0.53 ´ 10 –10 )
which is satisfied by n = 12 ® n = 6. Z
15. (d) For an atom following Bohr’s model, the radius is given 0.53 ´ 10 –10 ´ 52
by = = 2.5 ´ 10–11 m
53
r m2 22. (a) At closest distance of approach, the kinetic energy of
rm = 0 where r0 = Bohr’s radius and m = orbit
Z the particle will convert completely into electrostatic
number. potential energy.
For Fm, m = 5 (Fifth orbit in which the outermost electron
1
is present) Kinetic energy K.E. = mv 2
2
EBD_7156
S-108 DPP/ CP26
KQq 30. (b) The smallest frequency and largest wavelength in
Potential energy P.E. = ultraviolet region will be for transition of electron from
r
orbit 2 to orbit 1.
1 KQq 1
mv 2 = Þ rµ 1 æ 1 1ö
2 r m \ = Rç 2 – 2 ÷
l è n1 n2 ø
n(n – 1)
23. (c) =6
2 1 é1 1ù é 1 ù 3R
Þ = R ê – ú = R ê1 – ú =
–9 2 2
122 ´ 10 m ë1 2 û ë 4û 4
4
3 Þ R= 4
m –1
2 3 ´ 122 ´ 10–9
1 The highest frequency and smallest wavelength for
infrared region will be for transition of electron from ¥
n2 – n – 12 = 0 to 3rd orbit.
(n – 4) (n + 3) = 0 or n = 4 æ 1
1 1ö 1 4 æ 1 1ö
24. (c) The wavelength of spectrum is given by \ = Rç 2 – 2 ÷ Þ = ç – ÷
l è n1 n2 ø l 3 ´ 122 ´ 10 è 32 ¥ ø
–9
æ 7
1 2 1 1ö where R =
1.097 ´ 10
3 ´ 122 ´ 9 ´ 10 –9
= Rz ç - ÷ m \ l= = 823.5nm
l çè n 2
n2 ÷ø
2
1+ 4
1
M
1 æ 1 1ö
where m = mass of electron 31. (c) = Rç - ÷ where R = Rydberg constant
M = mass of nucleus. l è n12 n22 ø
For different M, R is different and therefore l is different. 1 æ 1 1ö 5
=ç - ÷ =
25. (a) Q T µ n 3 l32 è 4 9 ø 36
Tn1 = 8 Tn2 (given) 36
Þ l 32 =
Hence, n1 = 2n2 5
Similarly solving for l31 and l21
26. (d) DE = hv
9 4
DE é 1 1 ù k(2n - 1) l 31 = and l 21 =
n= =kê 2
- 2ú = 2 8 3
h ë (n - 1) n û n (n - 1)2
l32 l
\ = 6.4 and 21 ; 1.2
2k 1 l31 l 31
» 3
or n µ 3
n n æ qö
27. (c) A spectrum is observed, when light coming directly Ze 2 cot ç ÷
è 2ø æ qö
from a source is examined with a spectroscope. 32. (d) b = = 0 Þ cot ç ÷ = 0
4p Î0 ki è 2ø
Therefore spectrum obtained from a sodium vapour
lamp is emission spectrum. q
Þ = 90° or q = 180°
28. (a) Energy of ground state 13.6 eV 2
Energy of first excited state 33. (a) Speed of electron in nth orbit
13.6 2 p KZe 2
=- = -3.4 eV Vn =
4 nh
Energy of second excited state Z
V = (2.19 × 106 m/s)
13.6 n
=- = -1.5 eV 2
9 V = (2.19 × 106)(Z = 2 & n = 3)
Difference between ground state and 2nd excited state 3
6
V = 1.46 × 10 m/s
= 13.6 – 1.5 = 12.1 eV
So, electron can be excited upto 3rd orbit 34. (d) E = E4 – E3
No. of possible transition 13.6 æ 13.6 ö
=- -ç- ÷ = -0.85 + 1.51
1 ® 2, 1 ® 3, 2 ® 3 4 2 è 32 ø
So, three lines are possible. = 0.66 eV
29. (b) In Bohr’s model, angular momentum is quantised i.e
1
æ h ö 35. (d) Q The frequency of the transition v µ 2 , when
l = nç ÷ n
è 2p ø
n = 1, 2, 3.
DPP/ CP26 S-109
36. (c) According to Bohr's theory, the wave number of the Thus energy of the projectile is directly proportional
last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum, to Z1, Z2
For hydrogen atom z = 1 é1
1 1ù
43. (a) We know that = RZ 2 ê 2 - 2 ú
1 æ 1 1 ö l
= RZ2 ç - êë n1 n2 úû
l 2 2÷
è n 2 n1 ø The wave length of first spectral line in the
æ 1 1 ö Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 6561Å . Here n2 = 3
= 107 × 12 ç 2 - 2 ÷ and n1 = 2
è2 ¥ ø
1 æ 1 1 ö 5R
1 \ = R(1) 2 ç - ÷ = ...(i)
Þ wave number = 0.25 × 107 m–1 6561 è 4 9 ø 36
l
37. (a) Velocity of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is For the second spectral line in the Balmer series of
given by : singly ionised helium ion n2 = 4 and n1 = 2 ; Z = 2
2pKZe2 1 2 é1 1 ù 3R
Vn = \ = R (2) ê - ú = ...(ii)
nh l ë 4 16 û 4
Substituting the values we get,
Dividing equation (i) and equation (ii) we get
2.2 ´ 106 1
Vn = m/s or Vn µ l 5R 4 5
n n = ´ =
As principal quantum number increases, velocity 6561 36 3 R 27
decreases. \ l = 1215 Å
1 é 1 1 ù 44. (a) For Lyman series
38. (c) = Rê 2 - 2ú
l ë n1 n 2 û é1 1 ù
u = RC ê 2 - 2 ú
1 é1 1 ù ë1 n û
Þ -10
= 1.097 ´ 107 ê 2 - 2 ú Þ n 2 = 4 where n = 2, 3, 4, .......
970.6 ´ 10 ë1 n 2 û
For the series limit of Lyman series, n = ¥
n(n - 1) 4 ´ 3
\ Number of emission line N = = =6 é1 1 ù
2 2 \ u1 = RC ê - ú = RC ...(i)
ë1 ¥ 2 û
2
-2p 2 mK 2 Z 2 e 4 For the first line of Lyman series, n = 2

39. (a) We have En = . For helium Z = 2. Hence
n 2 h2
u2 = RC éê - ùú = RC
1 1 3
requisite answer is 4En \ ...(ii)
2 2
40. (c) As a-particles are doubly ionised helium He++ i.e. ë1 2 û 4
For Balmer series
Positively charged and nucleus is also positively
charged and we know that like charges repel each other. é1 1 ù
u = RC ê 2 - 2 ú
æ 1 1ö ë2 n û
41. (b) n = R ç - , where n1 = 2, n2 = 4
2 2÷ where n = 3, 4, 5 .....
è n1 n2 ø
For the series limit of Balmer series, n = ¥
æ1 1 ö
n = Rç - ÷
u3 = RC éê -
è 4 16 ø 1 1 ù RC
\ ú= 4 ...(iii)
2
1 æ 12 ö 16 ë2 ¥2 û
= Rç Þ l= From equation (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
l è 4 ´ 16 ÷ø 3R
u1 = u2 + u3 or u1 - u2 = u3
42. (a) The kinetic energy of the projectile is given by
1 1
1 Ze (2e) 45. (d) As r µ \ r0¢ = r0
mv 2 = m 2
2 4πε 0 r0
As E µ m \ E ' = 2(–13.6) = –27.2 eV
0
Z1 Z2
= 4πε r
00
EBD_7156
S-110 DPP/ CP27
1. (b) B.E. = 0.042 × 931 ; 42 MeV 8. (a) Mass defect = ZMp + (A –Z)Mn–M(A,Z)
Number of nucleons in 37 Li is 7. B.E.
or, = ZMp + (A–Z) Mn–M(A,Z)
c2
42
\ B.E./ nucleon = = 6 MeV ; 5.6 MeV B.E.
7 \ M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A–Z)Mn–
c2
A A A A–4 *
2. (d) Z X ¾¾
® Z+1Y : b, Z + 1Y ¾¾
® Z -1B :a 9. (d) BE/A
A –4 * -4
Z -1 B ®A
¾¾ Z -1 B : g
(b, a, g) ( Q b = -01 e, a = 42 He, mass number and

charge number of a nucleus remains unchanged during
g decay)
3. (c) The radius of the nuclears is directly proportional to A
cube root of atomic number i.e. R µ A1/3
Þ R = R 0 A 1/3 , where R 0 is a constant of From the graph of BE/A versus mass number A it is
proportionality clear that, BE/A first increases and then decreases with
increase in mass number.
1/ 3 1/ 3
R2 æ A2 ö æ 64 ö 4 10. (c) The range of energy of b-particles is from zero to some
= çè ÷ø =
R1 çè A1 ÷ø 27 3 maximum value.
180 a b
where R 1 = the radius of 27 Al, and 11. (a) 72 A ® 70 A1176 ¾¾
¾¾ ® 71 A 2176
A1 = Atomic mass number of Al g
R2 = the radius of 64Cu and A2 = Atomic mass number a
®69 A3172 ¾¾®69 A 4172
¾¾
of C4
dN
4 12. (c) = KN
R2 = 3.6 ´ = 4.8m dt
3
9750 = KN0 .... (1)
4. (c) Nuclear forces are short range attractive forces which
975 = KN ..... (2)
balance the repulsive forces between the protons inside
the nucleus. Dividing (1) by (2)
N 1
A 1 5000 =
1 N0 10
5. (a) l = log e o = log e
t A 5 1250 2.303 N 2.303
K= log 0 = log10
2 t N 5
= log e 2 = 0.4 log e 2 = 0.4606 = 0.461 per minute
5
13. (d)
6. (d) Radioactivity at T1 , R1 = l N1 14. (d) Extremely high temps needed for fusion make K.E. large
Radioactivity at T2, R2 = l N2 enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei.
\ Number of atoms decayed in time 15. (c) Binding energy
(T1 – T2) = (N1 –N2) = [ZMP + (A – Z)MN – M]c2
= [8MP + (17 – 8)MN – M]c2
(R 1 - R 2 ) (R1 - R 2 ) T
= = µ (R1 - R 2 ) T = [8MP + 9MN – M]c2
l 0.693 = [8MP + 9MN – Mo]c2
7. (c) 2
and 13 H requires a and b amount of energies for
16. (c) In this reaction mass is not conserved.
1H
their nucleons to be separated. ln 2 ln 2
17. (a) T1/ 2 = \l =
l T1/ 2
4
2 He
releases c amount of energy in its formation i.e.,
In2 ln 2 l T
in assembling the nucleons as nucleus. Þ lA = ,lB = Þ A = B.
TA TB l B TA
Hence, Energy released =c – (a + b) = c – a – b
DPP/ CP27 S-111
18. (d) N1 = N0 e -10lt , N 2 = N 0 e -lt TaTb

29. (c) Tav =
N1 Ta + Tb
= e -9lt = e -1 ; 9lt = 1 Þ t = 1
N2 9l If a and B are emitted simultaneously.
19. (d) Let at time t1 & t2, number of particles be N1 & N2. So, 30. (a) Due to irradiation of a-rays on end A will make it
(positive) and irradiation of b-rays on end B will make
dN1 dN 2
R1 = = -lN1 ; R2 = = -lN 2 it (negative) hence current will flow from A to B (or
dt dt from positive to negative).
R1 lN1 N1 31. (b) Momentum
= = = e l ( t2 -t1 ) E hn
R2 lN 2 N1e (t2 -t1 )
-l
Mu = =
c c
R1 = R2 e l (t2 -t1 ) = R2 e -l (t1 -t2 ) Recoil energy
20. (c) Average life of the nuclei is 2
1 1 M2u 2 1 æ hn ö
Mu 2 = =
1 2 2 M 2M çè c ÷ø
tav = ....(i)
l h 2 n2
Half life of the nuclei =
2Mc2
0.693
t1/2 = ....(ii) 32. (c) No. of nuclide at time t is given by N = Noe–lt
l Where No = initial nuclide
from (i) and (ii) This equation is equivalent to y = ae–kx
t1/2 Thus correct graph is
tav =
0.693 N
21. (d) Nuclear force is not the same between any two
nucleons.
22. (a)
æ Eö n ´ 200 ´ 106 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
23. (a) P = n ç ÷ Þ 1000 = t
è tø t
33. (b) By conservation of energy,
n
Þ= 3.125 ´ 1013. 2.M 2 1 2M 2
t ( M + Dm ) c2 = c + . v ,
2 2 2
24. (c) Binding energy per nucleon for fission products is
where v is the speed of the daughter nuclei
higher relative to Binding energy per nucleon for parent
nucleus, i.e., more masses are lost and are obtained as 2 M 2 2 Dm
kinetic energy of fission products. So, the given ratio Þ Dmc = v \v=c
2 M
<1.
34. (a) Suppose that,
my
25. (b) We have K a = .Q The number of 10B type atoms = x
m y + ma and the number of 11B type atoms = y
A-4 A-4 Weight of 10B type atoms = 10x
Þ Ka = .Q Þ 48 = .50 Þ A = 100
A A Weight of 11B type atoms = 11y
26. (b) Using the relation for mean life. Total number of atoms = x + y
æ 1ö æ 1ö 10 x + 11y
Given : t = 2t = 2 ç ÷ ç\ t = ÷ = 10.81
è lø è lø \ Atomic weight =
x+ y
2 Þ 10x + 11y = 10.81x + 10.81 y
- l´
Then from M = M 0 e- lt = 10e l
x 19
Þ 0.81x = 0.19 y Þ =
2 y 81
æ1ö
= 10ç ÷ = 1.35g 35. (b) Applying law of conservation of momentum,
èeø m1v1 = m2v2
27. (d) Because radioactivity is a spontaneous phenomenon. v1 m2
4
=
28. (a) a-particle = 2 He. It contains 2 p and 2 n. As some v2 m1
mass is converted into B.E., therefore, mass of a particle 4
is slightly less than the sum of the masses of 2 p and 2 As m = p r 3r Þ m µ r 3
3
n.
EBD_7156
S-112 DPP/ CP27
m2 r23 40. (b) The order of density of uranium nucleus is 1017 kg/m2.
Hence, m = 41. (b)
1 r13
1
v r3 r2 æ 1 ö 3 2.22
\ 1 = 23 Þ =ç ÷ 42. (a) B.E H = = 1.11
v2 r1 r1 è 2 ø 2
36. (d) In an explosion a body breaks up into two pieces of 28.3
B.E He = = 7.08
unequal masses both part will have numerically equal 4
momentum and lighter part will have more velocity.
492
U ® Th + He B.E Fe = = 8.78 = maximum
56
P2 P2
KETh = , KEHe = 1786
2m Th 2m He B.E U = = 7.6
235
since mHe is less so KEHe will be more.
56 is most stable as it has maximum binding energy
37. (a) As we know, R = R0 (A)1/3 26 Fe
where A = mass number per nucleon.
RAI = R0 (27)1/3 = 3R0 43. (d) Neutrons can’t be deflected by a magnetic field.
5 44. (b) –1 e 0 is known as b-particle & n is known as
RTe = R0 (125)1/3 = 5R0 = R antineutrino. Since in this reaction n is emitted with
3 AI
–1e (b-particle or electron), so it is known as b-decay.
0
38. (a) Given : Mass of neutron = Mn
Mass of proton = Mp; Atomic mass of the element = M; 45. (a) Given, l A = 8l, l B = l
Number of neutrons in the element = N and number of NA
protons in the element = Z. We know that the atomic NB =
e
mass (M) of any stable nucleus is always less than the
e -l A t
sum of the masses of the constituent particles. Þ N o e -l B t = No
Therefore, M < [NMn + ZMp]. e
X is a neutrino, when b-particle is emitted. e -lt = e -8lt e-1
39. (a) Activity decreases e -lt = e -8lt -1
5000 dps to 2500 dps in 150 days Comparing both side powers
\ Half life period T1/2 = 150 days -lt = -8lt - 1
–1 = 7lt
\ 300 days = 2T1/2
1
Therefore, initial activity = 5000 × 2T1/2 = 5000 × 2 × 2 t=–
= 20000 dps 7l
1
The best possible answer is t =
7l
DPP/ CP28 S-113

1. (d) DIE = 8.0 mA 8. (a) Current gain (a) = 0.96
DIC = 7.9 mA Ie = 7.2 mA
DI 7.9 Ic
a= C = = 0.9875 ; 0.99 = a = 0.96
DIE 8.0 Ie
a 0.9875 I c = 0.96 ´ 7.2 mA = 6.91 mA
Also, b = = = 79
1 - a (1 - 0.9875) Ie = Ic + Ib
2. (d) Here, ni = 1016 m–3, nh = 5 × 1022 m–3
Þ Ib = Ie – Ic = 7.2 – 6.91 = 0.29 mA
As nenh = n2i
9. (c) No. of electrons reaching the collector,
n 2 (1016 m -3 )2
\ ne = i = = 2 ´ 109 m -3 nC =
96
´ 1010 = 0.96 ´ 1010
n h 5 ´ 1022 m -3 100
3. (d) Energy band gap range is given by,
n é
hc Emitter current, IE = E
Eg = t
l
For visible region l = (4 × 10–7 ~ 7 × 10–7)m nC ´ e
Collector current, IC =
t
6.6 ´10-34 ´ 3 ´108 \ Current transfer ratio,
Eg =
7 ´ 10-7
IC n C 0.96 ´ 1010
19.8 ´10-26 a= = = = 0.96
= IE n E 1010
7 ´ 10-7 10. (c) Here diode is forward biased with
2.8 ´ 10-19
= voltage = 2 – 0 = 2 V.
1.6 ´ 10-19
VB = Vknee+ IR
Eg = 1.75 eV
2 = 0.7 + I× 200
4. (b) Voltage gain = b × Impedance gain
(\ Total resistance = 180 + 20 = 200W)
200
50 = b × = 2b Þ b = 25 1.3
100 \ I= = 6.5mA
200 200
and power gain = b2 × = 1250. 11. (b) I ® ON
100
5. (b) When either of A or B is 1 i.e. closed then lamp will II ® OFF
glow. In IInd state it is used as a amplifier it is active region.
In this case, Truth table 12. (b) In half wave rectifier only half of the wave is rectified.
13. (c) V' = V + IR = 0.5 + 0.1 × 20 = 2.5 V
Inputs Output
0.5V 20W
A B Y
0.1A
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1 V
1 1 1 Vo R 5 ´103 ´ 62
14. (b) = o ´b = = 10 ´ 62 = 620
This represents OR gate. Vin R in 500
6. (c) In p-region of p-n junction Vo = 620 × Vin= 620 × 0.01 = 6.2 V
holes concentration > electrons concentration and in n-
\ Vo = 6.2 volt.
region electrons concentration > holes concentration.
7. (c) Peak value of rectified output voltage 15. (b) Conductivity s = n i em e = 1017 ´ (1.6 ´10 -19 ) ´ 3800
= peak value of input voltage – barrier voltage = 60.8 mho/cm
= 2 – 0.7 = 1.3 V.
EBD_7156
S-114 DPP/ CP28
16. (d) Negative feedback is applied to reduce the output 24. (b) D2 is forward biased whereas D1 is reversed biased.
voltage of an amplifier. If there is no negative feedback, So effective resistance of the circuit
the value of output voltage could be very high. In the R = 4 + 2 = 6W
options given, the maximum value of voltage gain is 100. 12
Hence it is the correct option. \i = = 2 A.
6
17. (a) In the given system all four gate is NOR gate 25. (d) In common emitter configuration current gain
Truth Table
-hf e -50
Ai = =
A B (y ' = A + B) y '' = (A + y ') y ''' = (A + y '') y = y ''+ y '''
1 + hoe RL 1 + 25 ´ 10-6 ´ 1 ´ 103 = –48.78
0 0 1 0 0 1
26. (c)
0 1 0 1 0 0
27. (b) It is a p-n-p transistor with R as base.
1 0 0 0 1 0
28. (c) Here P-N junction diode rectifies half of the ac wave
1 1 0 0 0 1
i.e., acts as half wave rectifier. During + ve half cycle
Diode ® forward biased output across will be
A B y
i.e., 5V
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
During –ve half cycle Diode ® reverse biased output will
1 1 1
not obtained.
1 29. (d) Due to heating, when a free electron is produced then
18. (a) Conductivity, σ = = e(n eμ e + n h μ h ) simultaneously a hole is also produced.
ρ
2.13 = 1.6 × 10–19(0.38 + 0.18) ni 30. (b) I = nA evd or I µ nvd
(Since in intrinsic semi-conductor, ne = nh= ni) Ie n v n e Ie v h 7 4 7
\ = e e = ´ = ´ =
\ density of charge carriers, n i I h n h v h or n h Ih v e 4 5 5
2.13 (c) Electronic configuration of 6C
= -19
= 2.37 ´ 1019 m -3 31.
1.6 ´ 10 ´ 0.56 6C = 1s2, 2s2 2p2
The electronic configuration of 14Si
19. (d) Here Y = ( A + B ) = A.B = A × B . Thus, it is an AND 14Si = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2
gate for which truth table is
As they are away from Nucleus, so effect of nucleus is low
A B Y for Si even for Sn and Pb are almost mettalic.
0 0 0 V V2
32. (d) 1
0 1 0 In forward bias, V1 > V2 i.e., in figure (d) p-type semicon-
1 0 0 ductor is at higher potential w.r.t. n-type semiconductor.
1 1 1 33. (a) A positive feed back from output to input in an amplifier
provides oscillations of constant amplitude.
20. (d) ni2 = nenh 34. (b) The power gain in case of CE amplifier,
(1.5 × 1016)2 = ne (4.5 × 1022) Power gain = b2 × Resistance gain
Þ ne = 0.5 × 1010 R
= b2 ´ o
or ne = 5 × 109 Ri
= (10)2 × 5 = 500.
Given nh = 4.5 × 1022
35. (c) Given : Voltage gain AV = 150
Þ nh >> ne
p
\ Semiconductor is p-type and Vi = 2cos æç 15t + ö÷ ; V0 = ?
è 3ø
ne = 5 × 109 m–3.
21. (c) In n-type semiconductors, electrons are the majority For CE transistor phase difference between input and output
charge carriers. signal is p = 180°
Eg V0
-
22. (d) For semiconductor, n = AT e ; 3/ 2 2KT Using formula, AV = V
i
so n µ T3/2 Þ V0 = AV × Vi
23. (d) When PN junction diode is forward biased both
depletion layer width W and barrier height V0 decrease æ pö
= 150 × 2cos ç 15t + ÷
and current due to molarity carrier increases. è 3ø
DPP/ CP28 S-115
p
or V0 = 300 cos æç 15t + + p ö÷ A B C
è 3 ø 1 1 1
æ 4 ö 1 0 1
V0 = 300 cos ç 15t + p ÷
è 3 ø 0 1 1
36. (a) To use a transistor as an amplifier the emitter base 0 0 0
junction is forward biased while the collector base junction
This truth table follows the boolean algebra C = A + B
is reverse biased.
which is for OR gate
37. (d) Copper is a conductor, so its resistance decreases on
decreasing temperature as thermal agitation decreases; DV 2.1 - 2 1
41. (b) R= = = = 0.25 W
whereas germanium is semiconductor therefore on DI (800 - 400) ´ 10 -3 4
decreasing temperature resistance increases.
38. (b) In forward biasing, the diode conducts. For ideal 42. (c) P(0) 0 X(0)
Q(1)
junction diode, the forward resistance is zero; therefore,
entire applied voltage occurs across external resistance R Z(0)
i.e., there occurs no potential drop, so potential across R is R(0) 0 1 Y(1)
V in forward biased. S(1)
39. (a) Current gain (a) = 0.96 43. (b) A Y1
Ie = 7.2 mA B
Ic Y
= a = 0.96
Ie
Y2
I c = 0.96 ´ 7.2 mA = 6.91 mA
Y1 = A + B, Y2 = A . B
Ie = Ic + Ib
Y = (A + B)gAB = A g A + A g B + Bg A + Bg B
Þ Ib = Ie – Ic = 7.2 – 6.91 = 0.29 mA = 0 + AgB + BgA + 0 = AgB + BgA (XOR gate)
44. (b) E g = 2.0 eV = 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
40. (d) A Eg = hv
Eg 2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 J
\ v= =
C h 6.62 ´ 10-34 Js
= 0. 4833 × 10 s–1 = 4.833 × 1014 Hz
15
B
; 5 ´ 1014 Hz
The truth table for the above logic gate is :
45. (d) The average value of output direct current in a full
wave rectifier = (average value of current over a cycle)
2I 0
= (2I0/p) =
π
EBD_7156
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Daily Practice Problem (DPP) Sheets PHYSICS for

KEY DIFFERENTIATING FEATURES OF THE DPP SHEETS

• As per latest pattern & syllabus of NEET/AIIMS JIPMER exam.

Part B : Chapter-wise DPP Sheets

DPP-1 PHYSICAL WORLD, UNITS & DIMENSIONS P1 - P 4

DPP-2 MEASUREMENTS (ERRORS) P1 - P 4

DPP-6 MOTION IN A PLANE-1 (Projectile Motion) P1 - P 4

DPP-7 MOTION IN A PLANE-2 (Horizontal Circular Motion) P1 - P 4

DPP-8 MOTION IN A PLANE-3 (Vertical Circular Motion, Relative Motion) P1 - P 4

DPP-9 LAWS OF MOTION-1 (Newton's laws, momentum, pseudo force concept) P1 - P 4

DPP-10 LAWS OF MOTION-2 (Blocks in contact, connected by string, pulley arrangement) P1 - P 4

DPP-11 LAWS OF MOTION-3 (Friction) P1 - P 4

DPP-14 CENTRE OF MASS AND ITS MOTION P1 - P 4

DPP-20 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS P1 - P 4

DPP-21 FLUID MECHANICS P1 - P 4

DPP-22 THERMAL EXPANSION, CALORIMETRY AND CHANGE OF STATE P1 - P 4

DPP-23 HEAT TRANSFER & NEWTON’S LAW OF COOLING P1 - P 4

DPP-24 THERMODYNAMICS-1 (Thermal equilibrium, zeroth law of thermodynamics, concept of temperature,

DPP-26 KINETIC THEORY P1 - P 4

DPP-31 PRACTICAL PHYSICS - 1 P1 - P 4

DPP-34 ELECTROSTATICS -3 (Electrostatic Potential energy, conductors) P1 - P 4

DPP-35 ELECTROSTATICS-4 (Capacitors, dielectrics) P1 - P 4

DPP-44 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION-1 (Magnetic flux, Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction,

DPP-49 RAY OPTICS-1 (Reflection on plane mirrors and curved mirrors) P1 - P 4

DPP-51 RAY OPTICS - 3 (Refraction on curved surface lens, Optical instrument) P1 - P 4

DPP-52 WAVE OPTICS - I (Interference of Light) P1 - P 4

DPP-53 WAVE OPTICS - II (Diffraction and polarisation of light) P1 - P 4

DPP-57 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS - 1 (Semiconductors, LED, Photodiode, Zener diode) P1 - P 4

DPP-58 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS-2 (Junction transistor, transistor action, characteristics of a transistor,

DPP-59 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS, LASER P1 - P 4

DPP-60 PRACTICAL PHYSICS - 2 P1 - P 4

Solutions to Topic-wise DPP Sheets (1-60) 1-158

DPP - Daily Practice Problems

Start Time : End Time :

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

Space for Rough Work

RESPONSE 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

Space for Rough Work

RESPONSE GRID 28. 29. 30.

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM SHEET 1 - PHYSICS

Space for Rough Work

DPP - Daily Practice Problems

Start Time : End Time :

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

Space for Rough Work

1 Q.22 In the context of accuracy of measurement and significant

RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

Space for Rough Work

RESPONSE GRID 27. 28. 29. 30.

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM SHEET 2 - PHYSICS

Space for Rough Work

DPP - Daily Practice Problems

Start Time : End Time :

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice 1 1 3

Space for Rough Work