MCQs NDAEB

To manage xerostomia and its oral effects, all of the followings can be beneficial
EXCEPT:
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Mouthrinses containing sodium laurel sulfate

B. Gum/mints containing xylitol
C. Fluoridated toothpaste
D. Rinsing the mouth frequently with water
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding fluoride varnishes?
A. They are not easily washed away by saliva

B. Application requires less cooperation from the patient
C. Usually contains sodium fluoride
D. Application requires light curing
When giving care for a patient with autism, the clinician should do all the following
EXCEPT:
A. Create a routine
B. Provide a quiet environment
C. Look directly into the patient’s eyes
D. Instruct caregiver in oral hygiene
Pilocarpine hydrochloride is indicated for:
A. Tooth remineralization
B. Dry mouth
C. Herpetic lesions
D. Periodontitis
A patient has severe arthritis and her hands are affected. What would you suggest to
help the patient with her oral home care?
A. Use an electric toothbrush

B. Use an interproximal toothbrush
C. Use chlorhexidine
D. Use a fluoride rinse
The following statements regarding fluoride varnish are true EXCEPT:
A. It is the fluoride of choice for dentinal hypersensitivity

B. It is increasingly popular with clinicians due to ease of use and efficacy
C. It is administered as a two-part system
D. The Fluoride uptake is greater in deminer
When providing oral care to a patient who has Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
(ADHD), the clinician should:
A. Schedule short appointments

B. Never leave the patient unattended in the room
C. Use the ”tell-show-do” approach
D. All of the above
In which area of the mouth is plaque harder to remove?
A. Supragingival
B. Subgingival
C. Occlusal
Which fluoride should be avoided with composite and porcelain restorations?
A. Sodium fluoride
B. Hydrogen fluoride
C. Acidulated phosphate fluoride
D. Stannous fluoride
If a patient has a three-unit bridge, what type of device can BEST help clean this
prosthetic?
A. Interproximal brush
B. Waxed floss with floss threader
C. Wood stick
D. Toothpick
What is the MOST widely accepted method of tooth brushing?
A. Stillman
B. Charter
C. Bass
When instructing a patient on how to care for dentures, which of the following must be
avoided to prevent damage to the new dentures?
A. Remove the dentures at least once per day and rinse the oral cavity
B. Use a denture brush to clean all areas of the denture
C. Use hot water to soak the denture for one hour per day
D. Store the dentures in a moist container to prevent them from drying out
Furcations are BEST cleansed with:
A. Dental floss and interdental brushes

B. Dental floss and toothpicks
C. Interdental brushes and toothpicks
D. Interdental brushes, toothpicks, and end-tuft brushes
Which one of the following is INCORRECT regarding fluoride?
A. Creates hydroxyapatite from fluorapatite

B. Inhibits acid production in dental biofilm
C. Prevents demineralization of the enamel
D. Decreases adherence of dental biofilm
Attrition can occur with:
A. Plaque accumulation
B. Grinding
C. Stomach acid
D. Aggressive tooth brushing
Which of the following is NOT true regarding fluoride gel?
A. It is applied to a tray that is inserted into the patient’s mouth

B. The patient should avoid eating and drinking after fluoride application
C. 2% neutral sodium fluoride is most commonly used
D. The gel dries upon contact with saliva
Over-the-counter toothpaste usually contains:
A. No fluoride
B. 0.24% sodium fluoride
C. 1.1% sodium fluoride
D. 5% fluoride
After the application of topical fluoride foam, the patient should not eat or drink for:
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 3 hours
A 25-year-old male presents with pain and insists on having his tooth extracted. What
should the clinician do?
A. Educate the patient on other alternatives and possible results of his choice
B. Refer the patient to another dentist
C. Respect the patient's demands
D. Take another set of radiographs
A 25-year-old male presents with pain and insists on having his tooth extracted. What
should the clinician do?
A. Educate the patient on other alternatives and possible results of his choice
B. Refer the patient to another dentist
C. Respect the patient's demands
D. Take another set of radiographs
How can calculus be removed from a denture surface?
A. Soak in bleach and water

B. Rub with toothpaste
C. Rub with sodium bicarbonate
D. Soak in household detergent
Which of the following additive agents found in some toothpastes is known to be

effective in reducing calculus formation?
A. Sodium fluoride
B. Zinc citrate
C. Sodium lauryl sulfate
D. Silica
At which concentration is chlorhexidine prescribed?
A. 0.02%
B. 0.12%
C. 1%
D. 11%
Which precaution should be followed when treating a hearing-impaired patient?
A. Ask the patient to turn off and take off his/her hearing aids
B. Do not wear a mask when communicating
C. Allow the patient to use his/her sense of touch
D. All of the above
Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding pregnant patients?
A. Dental treatment is recommended during the first trimester

B. If local anesthetic is needed, lidocaine should be used
C. Patient may experience hormone-induced gingivitis
D. Patient should be educated on early childhood dental health
If a patient who suffered from congestive heart failure encounters difficulty breathing,
how can the patient’s positioning be modified?
A. Seat the patient upright at a 45° angle

B. Put the patient in a supine position
C. Move the patient to a wheelchair
D. Raise the chair at a 20° angle
Xerostomia occurring as a result of radiation therapy or medication puts the patient at a

higher risk for:
A. Oral cancer
B. Calculus
C. Angular cheilitis
D. Caries
In which area of the mouth is plaque harder to remove?
A. Supragingival
B. Subgingival
C. Occlusal
Which of the following statements best describes how the dental assistant should use a
surgical suction tip during a procedure?
A. The dental assistant should use the surgical suction tip to focus on extracting
excess water from the patient’s oral cavity during a surgical procedure
B. The surgical suction tip is best used by the dental assistant to retract the lip
during a surgical procedure
C. The surgical suction tip should be introduced into the patient’s oral cavity only at
the end of the procedure to prevent the suction from allowing the dentist to view
the surgical site during the procedure
D. The dental assistant should place the opening of the surgical suction tip directly
at the location of the procedure to remove any blood, tissue, or debris that is
produced at the surgical site
Which measurements are reviewed when selecting the proper dental dam clamp size?
A. The facial width of the dental enamel junction

B. The faciolingual width at the cementoenamel junction
C. The faciolingual width at the cementoenamel junction and the faciolingual width
of the dental enamel junction
D. The faciolingual width at the cementoenamel junction and the mesiodistal width
at the cementoenamel junction
What is the static position for left-handed clinicians?
A. 7-12 o’clock
B. 10-12 o’clock
C. 12-2 o’clock
D. 12-5 o’clock
If the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of the
maxillary first molar, and if the maxillary anterior teeth protrude, what type of occlusion
does the patient have?
A. Class I
B. Class II, Division I
C. Class II, Division II
D. Class III
In which category does a blood pressure of 142/85 mmHg fall into?
A. Pre-hypertension
B. Hypertension stage 1
C. Hypertension stage 2
D. None of the above
What is the normal respiration rate of an adult?
A. 10-12 breaths per minute

B. 12-20 breaths per minute
C. 18-25 breaths per minute
Which of the following is the largest hole size on the rubber dam keyhole punch?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 6
When the dental assistant is picking up the instrument from the tray using the thumb,
index finger, and middle finger from the left hand while retrieving the instrument using
the same hand, he is using the:
A. Single-handed transfer technique

B. Two-handed transfer technique
C. Three-finger transfer technique
D. Palm transfer technique
Which of the following statements is NOT a reason why the dental assistant will use the
high-volume evacuator during a dental procedure?
A. To keep the mouth free from saliva, blood, water, and any debris produced
during a dental procedure
B. To keep the tongue and cheek retracted and to keep the field of operation clear
C. To remove all water from the patient’s mouth after a full-mouth rinse by having
the patient close the lips around the high-volume evacuator
D. To reduce the amount of aerosol released into the air by the high-speed
handpiece
What can be placed in the static transfer zone?
A. Dental materials to be exchanged

B. Instrument cart
C. Moveable cabinet
Cotton pliers should be received by the assistant with:
A. An open palm
B. The little fingers
C. The working ends
D. The non-working ends
Which of the following teeth is non-succedaneous?
A. Incisors
B. Canines
C. Premolars
D. Molars
The operating zone for the right-handed clinician is:
A. 11-12 o’clock
B. 5-7 o’clock
C. 7-10 o’clock
D. 7-12 o’clock
The clinician is measuring the distance between the maxillary anteriors and mandibular
anteriors using the probe horizontally. Which type of occlusal evaluation is the clinician
performing?
A. Overjet
B. Overbite
C. Crossbite
D. Classes of occlusion
The operating zone for the left-handed clinician is:
A. 11-12 o’clock
B. 12-5 o’clock
C. 5-7 o’clock
D. 7-10 o’clock
Which term describes the maxillary incisors overlapping the mandibular incisors in a
centric occlusion?

A. Overbite
B. Crossbite
C. End to end
Attrition can occur with:
A. Plaque accumulation
B. Grinding
C. Stomach acid
D. Aggressive tooth brushing
Which of the following items must be included in the tray setup for a dental dam
A. Dental dam punch, dam forceps, dental dam clamp, and dental floss
B. Towel clamp, dental dam napkin, dental dam clamp, and U-15
C. Dental adhesive, mouth mirror, scissors, and plastic instrument
D. Dental dam clamp with ligature, dental dam napkin, dental hatchet, and dental
spoon
The high-volume oral evacuator should be positioned:
A. With the beveled edge 1 cm away from the tooth

B. With the beveled edge as close to the tooth as possible
C. With the beveled edge on the occlusal surface
D. With the beveled edge behind the tooth being prepared
When the dental assistant is delivering the instrument with the right hand while
recovering the used instrument with the left hand, he is using the:
A. Single-handed transfer technique

B. Two-handed transfer technique
C. Four-handed transfer technique
D. Six-handed transfer technique
The anatomical curvature of occlusion forming an upward smile line seen from the
buccal aspect is called:

A. Internal resorption
B. Overbite
C. Curve of Spee
D. Curve of Wilson
frontal aspect is called:
B. Overbite
C. Curve of Spee
D. Curve of Wilson
If the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary 1st molar is behind the buccal groove of the
mandibular molar, the patient has which of the following malocclusions?
A. Class I
B. Class II, Division I
C. Class II, Division II
D. Class III
An underbite is another name for which of the following malocclusions?
A. Mesioclusion
B. Distoclusion
C. Neutroclusion
When the dental assistant is punching the holes for the dental dam, what can happen if
the dental assistant punches holes that are too small for the patient’s teeth?
A. The dam is not going to fit tightly around the teeth

B. Saliva is going to easily leak through the teeth during the procedure
C. The dam is not going to slip easily over the teeth, and this will lead to tearing of
the dental dam
D. Excess material is going to bunch together
Which of the following teeth are mostly used for grinding food?

A. Incisors
B. Canines
C. Premolars
D. Molars
When using the Universal numbering system, the maxillary left first molar is tooth
number:
A. 30
B. 3
C. 14
D. 19
Which tooth has 3 buccal, 2 lingual lobes?
A. Mandibular 1st molar

B. Mandibular 2nd molar
C. Maxillary 1st molar
D. Maxillary 2nd molar
If the patient’s anterior teeth do not overlap in a normal bite, the patient has a(n):
A. Overbite
B. Class 1 occlusion
C. Open bite
D. Crossbite
Which of the following teeth have two roots?
A. Maxillary first molars

B. Maxillary second premolars
C. Maxillary first premolars
D. Maxillary third molars
Which tooth structure is found on both permanent anterior and posterior teeth?
A. Marginal ridge
B. Oblique ridge
C. Cingulum
D. All of the above
The mixed dentition starts when:
A. The primary mandibular central incisor erupts

B. The first permanent tooth erupts
C. The last primary tooth exfoliates
D. The third molar erupts
How many teeth are there in a full permanent dentition?
A. 16 teeth
B. 20 teeth
C. 28 teeth
D. 32 teeth
Which tooth is MOST likely to have a deeper lingual pit that is prone to caries?
A. Maxillary first molar

B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Maxillary central incisor
D. Maxillary lateral incisor
How many erupted primary teeth are usually present in a 4-year-old child?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 16
D. 18
E. 20
Occlusal evaluation defines the contact relationship between the maxillary and
mandibular teeth when the:
A. Anterior teeth are contacting end to end

B. The jaw is fully closed
C. Contact occurs only on posterior teeth
D. Tongue touches the back of the anterior teeth
Which of the following premolars often has three cusps?
A. Maxillary first
B. Maxillary second
C. Mandibular first
D. Mandibular second
Which of the following premolars has two roots?
A. Mandibular first premolar

B. Mandibular second premolar
C. Maxillary first premolar
D. Maxillary second premolar
The chemical destruction of teeth is called:
A. Attrition
B. Abrasion
C. Abfraction
D. Erosion
Which tooth has 3 facial and 2 lingual cusps?
A. Mandibular first molar

B. Maxillary first molar
C. Mandibular second molar
D. Maxillary second molar
Which of the following teeth are mostly used for grinding food?

A. Incisors
B. Canines
C. Premolars
D. Molars
Cingulums are generally most pronounced on:
A. Maxillary central incisors

B. Maxillary lateral incisors
C. Mandibular central incisors
D. Mandibular lateral incisors
Which tooth has a buccal pit that is susceptible to caries?
A. Mandibular first molar

B. Maxillary first molar
C. Mandibular second molar
D. Maxillary second molar
Which of the following describes a lack of one or more teeth in the primary or
permanent dentition?
A. Anodontia
B. Hypodontia
C. Supernumerary teeth
D. Mesiodens
When two teeth are fused by cementum only, it is called:
A. Fusion
B. Gemination
C. Anodontia
D. Concrescence
The following terms describe an anatomical position in the tooth. Which of the following
terms is matched with the INCORRECT definition?
A. Apical: towards the root part of the tooth

B. Coronal: towards the crown of the tooth
C. Lingual: towards the tongue side of the oral cavity
D. Buccal: towards the palatal side of the oral cavity
More supplemental grooves and pits are present on a maxillary second molar than on a
maxillary first molar.
A. True
B. False
C. It depends on the individual
buccal aspect is called:
B. Overbite
C. Curve of Spee
D. Curve of Wilson
Which of the following terms describes a single tooth that divides to form two teeth only
at the crown?
A. Macrodontia
B. Microdontia
C. Twinning
D. Fusion
The maxillary left molar is lingual to the left mandibular molar, and the maxillary right
molar is buccal to the mandibular right molar. What type of occlusion is this?
A. Overjet
B. Overbite
C. Crossbite on both sides
D. Crossbite on the left side only
E. Crossbite on the right side only
How many permanent premolars will an 8-year-old usually have?
A. None
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Which condition increases the setting time of alginate?
A. Warmer water temperatures

B. Cooler water temperatures
C. Thicker materials
The periodontal dressing is pushed in between the teeth for?
A. Retention
B. Repair
C. Soothing effect
D. Restorations
According to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, what is the
recommended exposure limit (REL) of mercury?
A. 0.05 g/m3 up to 10-hour workday and 40-hour workweek

B. 0.05 mg/m3 up to 10-hour workday and 40-hour workweek
C. 5 mg/m3 up to 10-hour workday and 40-hour workweek
D. 0.5 mg/m3 up to 10-hour workday and 40-hour workweek
Which would be the BEST base material to use to achieve a sedative effect on the
pulp?
A. Zinc oxide-eugenol
B. Glass ionomer
C. Polycarboxylate
D. Calcium hydroxide
In dentistry, the obtundent effect refers to the:

A. Sedation to the pulp

B. Mechanical mixing of alloy and mercury
C. Discoloration due to oxidation
D. Loss of water by evaporation
The discomfort experienced when a fork touches a metal restoration is an example of:
A. Thermal conductivity
B. Retention
C. Galvanic shock
D. Percolation
When preparing and placing a provisional crown, which of the following should be
avoided by the dental assistant?
A. Take a pre-operative impression and use this impression as a matrix to form the
temporary crown
B. Fill the impression matrix with the provisional material and place the impression
after the tooth has been prepped
C. Allow the impression and the provisional material to remain in the mouth for a
minimum of seven minutes to allow the material to set properly
D. Cement the provisional restoration onto the tooth using zinc oxide
Methyl methacrylate is used to fabricate:
A. Temporaries
B. Cement
C. Porcelain crown
D. Composite restorations
Which type of wax would be used to temporarily hold parts of a denture together during
denture repair?
A. Utility wax
B. Sticky Wax
C. Baseplate wax
D. Casting wax
The following materials are generally included in the amalgam EXCEPT:
A. Copper
B. Tin
C. Gold
D. Zinc
The major organic resin matrix used in a composite restoration is called:
A. Coloring agent
B. Dimethylglyoxime
C. Silica
D. Bisphenol-A glycidyl methacrylate (bis-GMA)
Which of the following describes agar-agar?
A. Irreversible hydrocolloid
B. Reversible hydrocolloid
C. Silicone
D. Vinyl
Which of the following options for light curing devices produces the least amount of
heat?
A. Halogen
B. LED
C. Iodine
For which of the following situations are the finishing and polishing of amalgam
restorations indicated?
A. Opened contacts between two adjacent teeth

B. Opened margins between tooth and amalgam
C. Presence of fractures
D. Presence of scratches
A well-triturated amalgam will appear:

A. Dull
B. Shiny
C. Crumbly
D. Dry
Which of the following is TRUE regarding copper in amalgams?
A. Decreases setting expansion

B. Increases setting expansion
C. Minimizes corrosion
D. B and C
E. A and C
An onlay:
A. Covers the entire chewing surface of a tooth

B. Lies within a cusp of the tooth
C. Covers one or more cusp tip(s)
D. Is bonded to the facial surface of anteriors
Increasing the water ratio in the gypsum mix will:
A. Decrease setting time

B. Increase setting time
C. Create a stronger cast
What is the dental implant screw typically made of?
A. Gold
B. Amalgam
C. Composite
D. Titanium
Which base material is capable of stimulating reparative dentin?

A. Polycarboxylate
B. Porcelain
C. Glass ionomer
D. Calcium hydroxide
Which of the following is a negative reproduction?
A. Impression
B. Replica
C. Stone model
Which of the following materials releases fluoride?
A. Glass ionomer
B. Resin
C. Zinc oxide-eugenol (ZOE)
D. Durelon
Which of the following mistakes can create overhangs?
A. Matrix band is not placed properly

B. Rubber dam breaks during procedure
C. Amalgam is not triturated properly
A higher content of which metal will make the amalgam stronger and less corrosive?
A. Copper
B. Zinc
C. Silver
D. Tin
Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the use of porcelain as a

dental material?
A. It does not create a natural appearance for the restoration

B. It is used in PFM crowns
C. It is weak
D. It appears fully radiopaque
The following materials can all be used as final impression materials EXCEPT:
A. Condensation silicone
B. Polyether
C. Polysulfide
D. Polystyrene
Which type of gypsum has the highest compressive strength?
A. Plaster
B. Diestone
C. Stone
Patients who wear porcelain crowns should avoid:
A. Sodium fluoride
B. Acidulated fluoride
C. Fluoride varnish
The type of replica in dentistry that models multiple teeth and soft tissues is:
A. Model
B. Die
C. Negative reproduction
D. Pumice
What is the best method for removing an alginate impression from the mouth?
A. Remove the tray slowly

B. Remove the tray right before the alginate is fully set
C. Have the patient remove the tray
D. Use a quick snap motion when breaking the seal
Which restoration type is commonly used on the facial surface of anteriors and mimics
the appearance of a normal tooth?
A. Gold
B. Veneer
C. Porcelain-fused-to-metal
D. Amalgam
Which material appears the MOST radiopaque?
A. Amalgam
B. Cement
C. Porcelain
D. Liner
The shallow depression that usually houses the arteries and nerves is called a:
A. Sulcus
B. Fossa
C. Notch
D. Crest
Which of the following landmarks are important to locate when administrating an inferior
alveolar nerve block?
A. Coronoid notch
B. Mandibular notch
C. Condyle process
D. Internal oblique ridge
The sternocleidomastoid muscle (SCM) attaches to the clavicle of the sternum on one
end, and to the mastoid process on the other end. The mastoid process is part of which
cranial bone?
A. Temporal
B. Occipital
C. Frontal
D. Parietal
Which of the following is the only freely-movable bone of the skull?
A. Maxilla
B. Zygomatic
C. Mandible
D. Lacrimal
Which muscle is most likely to become enlarged with bruxism or other parafunctional
habits?
A. Temporalis
B. Risorius
C. Masseter
D. Orbicularis oris
Which of the following bones of the skull is considered a facial bone?
A. Occipital
B. Parietal
C. Sphenoid
D. Zygomatic
E. Frontal
Which of the following nerves supplies the muscles of mastication?
A. Hypoglossal
B. Vagus
C. Facial
D. Trigeminal
Which of the following is a muscle of mastication?

A. Buccinator
B. Mentalis
C. Temporalis
D. Risorius
What are lingual tonsils?
A. Depression located on the midline of the tongue

B. Irregular masses of lymphoid tissue in the back of the tongue
C. Groove separating the body and base of the tongue
D. Larger papillae lined along the sulcus terminalis
Which of the following landmarks of the temporomandibular joint is located on the

mandible?
A. Articular eminence
B. Condylar process
C. Articular fossa
Which of the following structures divides the tongue into the body and the base?
A. Circumvallate papilla
B. Sulcus terminalis
C. Foramen cecum
D. Plica fimbriata
Where are the genial tubercles located?
A. Between the coronoid and condyle process

B. In the midline, on the inner side of the mandible
C. On the anterior side of the ramus
D. On the lateral walls of the nasal cavity
Which of the following is NOT a muscle of mastication?
A. Orbicularis oris
B. Masseter
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
The parotid papilla can be described as a(n):
A. Elevation behind the most posterior maxillary molar

B. Small elevation opposite the maxillary second molar on the buccal mucosa
C. Papilla between the teeth
D. Papilla on the dorsal aspect of the tongue
Which of the following structures is part of the temporal bone?
A. Styloid process
B. Coronoid process
C. Glenoid fossa
D. Condyle
If the clinician was not vaccinated for HBV and became contaminated, it is
recommended that the clinician is injected with:
A. HCV vaccine
B. Anti-HCV
C. HBV vaccine
D. HBIG
Putting the patient into the Trendelenburg position is advised for which of the following
medical emergencies?
A. Asthma
B. Allergic reaction
C. Syncope
D. Bleeding
Which of the following is NOT a sign of a stroke?

A. Shortness of breath
B. Confusion
C. Slurred speech
D. Fruity breath
Which of the following can cause syncope?
A. Dehydration
B. Anxiety
C. Postural hypotension
D. Heart abnormalities
E. All of the above
The Heimlich maneuver can be used when:
A. The patient is conscious

B. The patient is unconscious
C. As soon as the patient turns blue
D. After a minute of choking
Which of the following is related to slight local anesthetic toxicity?
A. CNS excitation
B. CNS depression
C. Cardiac arrest
D. Respiratory arrest
The patient is experiencing tremor, numbness in the extremities after receiving local
anesthetics. The patient also is very talkative, and then suddenly lost consciousness.
Which of the following conditions did the patient most likely experience?
A. Allergy
B. Overdose
C. Anxiety
When a patient is experiencing a sudden seizure attack,

A. The clinician should hold the patient
B. The clinician should leave the patient in a supine position
C. The clinician should move away dental instruments
D. A and B
E. B and C
The following gingival characteristics are related to gingivitis EXCEPT:
A. Spontaneous bleeding on probing

B. Shiny red appearance
C. Blunted interdental papillae
D. Stippling of tissue
Which of the following is an early sign of local anesthetic overdose?
A. Drowsiness
B. Loss of consciousness
C. Respiratory arrest
D. Twitching
What is bronchospasm?
A. Lack of oxygen
B. Contraction of the lungs
C. Reduced airflow
D. Continuous gag reflex
Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the management of an avulsed tooth?
A. Transport it in cold water

B. Avoid placing the tooth roots against dry tissue
C. Replant the permanent tooth if possible
D. Do not touch the root surfaces
When a patient has been in a supine position and suddenly rises to an upright position,
a sudden decrease in blood pressure may occur. This effect is called:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Myositis
C. Xerostomia
D. Hemostasis
E. Orthostatic hypotension
If the patient is unconscious due to an obstructed airway:
A. The clinician should check the inside of the throat with his/her finger
B. Tilt the head and lift the chin of the patient
C. Call Emergency
D. A and C
E. B and C
The condition in which there is too much sugar and too little insulin in the blood is
called:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Adrenal crisis
If the patient is experiencing an anaphylactic shock, what is the emergency procedure?
A. Administer epinephrine
B. Put the patient in a seated position
C. Provide nitroglycerine
D. All of the above
Which of the following positions is most appropriate for patients suffering from
anaphylaxis?
A. Supine position
B. Semi-supine position
C. Seated position
A periodontal condition characterized by inflammation only is:

A. Periodontitis
B. Pericoronitis
C. Gingivitis
D. Caries
Symptoms related to a stroke include:
A. Sudden unilateral weakness

B. Dysarthria
C. Loss of balance
D. All of the above
Which of the following symptoms is NOT related to excessive fluoride ingestion?
A. Nausea
B. Abdominal pain
C. Diarrhea
D. Fruity breath
What is the appropriate emergency procedure to follow when fluoride ingestion is

excessive?
A. Induce vomiting
B. Activate EMS system
C. Visit the hospital
D. All of the above
Acute asthma attacks are usually treated with:
A. Albuterol
B. Salmeterol
C. Formoterol
D. Flovent
What is the procedure for an emergency related to hyperventilation?

A. Make the patient sit up
B. Cup hands over the nose and slowly breathe into them
C. Provide oxygen
D. A and B
E. A and C
Which of the following conditions can occur soon after the consumption of medications
that treat diabetes?
A. Fainting
B. Hunger
C. Headache
D. Irritability
E. All of the above
The medical term for heart attack is:
A. Angina
B. Cerebrovascular accident
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Convulsion
Blood pressure of 140-159/90-99 mmHg is categorized as:
A. Pre-hypertension
B. Hypertension stage 1
C. Hypertension stage 2
D. Normal
Which media should NOT be used for transporting an avulsed tooth?
A. Milk
B. Saline
C. Water
Which of the following instruments will be used to pack in the amalgam material after it
is placed within a preparation?

A. Enamel hatchet
B. Amalgam condenser
C. Football burnisher
D. Walls 3 carver
When the pre-measured amalgam capsule is undertriturated, the result of the triturated
mass appears:
A. Choose only ONE best answer.

B. Crumbly and difficult to condense into the amalgam carrier
C. Crumbly and easily removed from the amalgam capsule
D. Mushy and difficult to remove from the amalgam capsule
E. Watery and clear
Overtriturated amalgam looks?
A. Dry
B. Wet
C. Crusty
D. Powdery
Which type of bur is used to make undercuts in a tooth preparation?
A. A round bur
B. An inverted cone bur
C. An end-cutting bur
D. A plain fissure straight bur
The initial stage of demineralization has a higher concentration of:
A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Viridans streptococci
C. Lactobacilli
Patients who wear porcelain crowns should avoid:
A. Sodium fluoride
B. Acidulated fluoride
C. Fluoride varnish
When assisting with root canal therapy, what is the first instrument the dentist will need
to enter the coronal portion of the tooth?
A. Carbide round bur

B. Endodontic explorer
C. Reamer files
D. Dental broach
In sealant application, acid etch creates surfaces that allow _______ bonds to form.
A. Chemical
B. Mechanical
C. Thermal
Which restoration type is commonly used on the facial surface of anteriors and mimics
the appearance of the normal tooth?
A. Gold
B. Veneer
C. Porcelain-fused-to-metal
D. Amalgam
Which bacteria is more actively involved in the progression of decay?
A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Viridans streptococci
C. Lactobacilli
Which instruments should the dental assistant transfer to the dentist during the removal
of calculus from supragingival surfaces?
A. Scalers
B. Carver
C. Hatchets
D. Explorers
Transillumination is achieved when?

A. Light bounces from the face of the mirror

B. Light passes through the desired area
C. Light is absorbed
D. Light is carried away
Which of the following interdental items is used to clean areas in the oral cavity that are
difficult to reach with a toothbrush?
A. End-tuft brush
B. Bridge threaders
C. Perio-Aid
D. Rubber-tipped stimulator
According to G.V. Black’s caries classification, a Class VI lesion can be found on:
A. The cusp tip of a molar

B. The lingual surface of a molar
C. The occlusal surface of a premolar
D. The mesial surface of an incisor
What type of instrument is used to remove the enamel during the placement of a
veneer?
A. Condenser
B. Diamond bur
C. Evacuator
D. Carver
A facebow:
A. Determines the positional relationship of the maxillary arch to the

temporomandibular joints
B. Determines the positional relationship of the mandibular arch to the
temporomandibular joints
C. Determines the positional relationship of the maxillary arch to the mandibular
arch
D. Determines the occlusal relationship
During an amalgam restoration, the axial surfaces of adjacent posterior teeth are
removed. What dental instrument will be required to assist in restoring these axial
surfaces?
A. A hemostat
B. A matrix band
C. An elevator
D. A temporary acrylic material
The complex community of microorganisms found on the tooth surface is called a?
A. Biofilm
B. Spirochete
C. Slime layer
D. Material alba
When assisting with an amalgam procedure, which of the following steps comes first?
A. Place the amalgam into the amalgam well

B. Place the amalgam capsule into the amalgamator
C. Twist open the amalgam capsule and discard the scrap amalgam
D. Load the amalgam onto the amalgam carrier
In periodontics, what is the hoe scaler used for?
A. To remove supragingival calculus

B. To remove restorations
C. To smooth the margins
D. To smooth the root surface
“T-Bands” are used during which dental procedure?
A. A pulpectomy
B. An adult restorative procedure
C. A restorative procedure of the deciduous teeth
When viewing a Tofflemire matrix retainer, which knob on the retainer is responsible for
initially securing the band?
A. The inner knob

B. The outer knob
C. The guide channels
D. The spindle of the retainer
Which of the following statements is true about lubricant for the dental hand pieces?
A. It is universal in the use of all handpieces

B. It is only available for slow speed handpieces
C. It is universal for use only in high-speed handpieces
D. It should not be a universal product, and should only be utilized for the specific
dental hand piece it was manufactured for
In a Tofflemire matrix retainer, which knob on the retainer is responsible for adjusting
the size of the matrix band loop?
A. The outer knob

B. The inner knob
C. The guide channels
D. The spindle of the retainer
Which of the following is NOT true about dental sealants?
A. They are only indicated for occlusal surfaces

B. The material is retained through pores
C. Saliva contamination should be avoided
D. They are resin-based materials
In endodontic therapy, which material fills the pulp space?
A. Porcelain
B. Pumice
C. Gutta-percha
D. Cement
Which part of the standard needle penetrates the mucous membrane?
A. Shaft
B. Harpoon
C. Hub
D. Bevel
How long should topical anesthetics be applied for?
A. 1-2 mins
B. 2-4 mins
C. 4-6 mins
D. 8-10 mins
The volume of nitrous oxide should never exceed:
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 90%
Ultra-short needles are _____ long.
A. 30-35 mm
B. 20-25 mm
C. 10-15 mm
D. 5-10 mm
Which of the following needles should be selected for an inferior alveolar nerve block?
A. Long needle with smaller gauge

B. Short needle with larger gauge
C. Long needle with larger gauge
D. Short needle with smaller gauge
Sodium bisulfite is added in dental cartridges to:
A. Create vasoconstriction effect

B. Make the solution isotonic with the tissues
C. Prevent oxidation of the vasoconstrictor
D. Dilute the anesthetic
A scavenger system is used for which of the following gases in the dental office?
A. Mercury vapor
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide
Which part of the standard syringe penetrates the rubber stopper of the dental
cartridge?
A. Needle adapter
B. Harpoon
C. Finger grip
D. Thumb ring
Topical anesthetic ointments are used primarily to:
A. Reduce the pain when the needle penetrates the tissue

B. Reduce the pain when the needle is retrieved from the tissue
C. Reduce fainting incidences
D. Provide better taste
Which type of injection most efficiently provides hemostasis?
A. Nerve block
B. Field block
C. Infiltration
D. All of the above
What type of needle should be used for an inferior alveolar nerve block?
A. 27-gauge short
B. 25-gauge short
C. 27-gauge long
D. 30-gauge short
Which of the following injections is needed to anesthetize the maxillary posterior teeth?
A. Inferior alveolar nerve block

B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block
C. Middle superior alveolar nerve block
D. Greater palatine nerve block
Nitrous oxide anesthesia mixes which of the following two gases?
A. Nitrous oxide and oxygen

B. Nitrous oxide and carbon dioxide
C. Nitrous oxide and nitrous dioxide
D. Nitrous oxide and sulfite
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Needles should be changed for every patient

B. Needles should be changed after 3-4 insertions
C. Dispose needles in a specific sharps container
D. Contaminated needles should be discarded into open trash containers
The nitrous oxide safe mechanism should stop when the oxygen volume falls below:
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 70%
D. 90%
If the mandibular right first molar is being anesthetized with a nerve block, the topical
anesthetic should be applied on:

A. The inside of the ramus
B. The outside of the ramus
C. Around the tooth
D. Around the apex of the tooth
How deep can a topical anesthetic be effective on tissues?
A. 2-3 mm
B. 3-4 mm
C. 4-5 mm
D. 6 mm and more
Topical anesthetics target which of the following nerves?
A. Trunk
B. Root
C. Peripheral
D. Branch
What is the recommended needle recapping technique?
A. One-hand scoop technique

B. Two-hands scoop technique
C. There is no specific technique
The 25-gauge needle has a ______ lumen compared to the 30-gauge needle.
A. Larger
B. Smaller
C. Equal
The description "We have a primary role in promoting the well-being of individuals and
the public by engaging in health promotion/disease prevention activities" is consistent
with which of the seven core values?
A. Societal trust
B. Beneficence
C. Confidentiality
D. Justice
Any correction on a paper chart should be done by:
A. Crossing out the incorrect statement

B. Using white-out to keep the record clean
C. Crossing out the error using a single line
D. Rewriting the page
Several days after performing scaling and root planing, the assistant realizes that
pertinent data regarding the administration of local anesthesia was not entered in the
patient's permanent record. What should the assistant do in this case?
A. Pertinent information should be recorded and signed as a new entry, reflecting

the date the revision was made
B. Relevant information should be entered within the notes previously recorded on
the day of treatment
C. Relevant information should be recorded and initialed as a new entry, reflecting
the date the revision was made
D. Pertinent information should be entered within the notes previously recorded,
initialed and dated to indicate the date of the revision
In a dental office, a patient’s health information may be released without her direct
permission in which of the following situations?
A. To a company who is looking for a target group of patients to complete research

on
B. To a family friend who has made a verbal request on the patient’s behalf
C. To a healthcare provider or specialist involved in providing care to that specific
patient
D. To an insurance company that is seeking to complete an insurance estimate form
Disclosing sensitive information to someone other than the patient is in violation of

HIPAA.

A. True
B. False
C. It depends on the region
Which of the following concepts applies to a situation where a dental hygienist does
NOT perform a procedure that was included in the contract with a patient?
A. Technical battery
B. Breach of contract
C. Criminal law
D. Negligence
A patient routinely refuses to undergo the recommended diagnostic dental x-rays. He

agrees to sign a disclaimer stating his refusal. What are the legal implications in this
case?
A. A release form or disclaimer is not legally binding but may hold up in a court of
law
B. A release form or disclaimer is not legally binding. The dental professional will
most likely be found negligent for an undiagnosed dental disease
C. A release form or disclaimer is legally binding. The dental professional cannot be
found negligent for an undiagnosed dental disease
D. A release form or disclaimer is legally binding, but the dental professional may
still be found negligent for an undiagnosed dental disease
A healthcare provider is responsible for providing truthful and adequate information to

allow decisions regarding treatment. This is referred to as:
A. Societal trust
B. Beneficence
C. Confidentiality
D. Veracity
A clinician presents a treatment plan that includes the diagnosis, prognosis, fees, etc. of
the proposed procedure. The client and provider both sign the treatment plan. What
type of consent was made in this case?

A. Expressed
B. Implied
C. Verbal
D. Tort
An agreement to a treatment by the patient in the absence of any action is:
A. Expressed consent
B. Written consent
C. Implied consent
"Patients have the right to be provided with a full disclosure of all relevant information so
that they can make informed choices about their case” is related to which core value?
A. Societal trust
B. Beneficence
C. Autonomy
D. Confidentiality
How often should the patient’s health history be updated?
A. Yearly
B. Biannually
C. Only when the patient reports changes
D. At each office visit
Against the clinicians’ advice, the patient has declined the procedures because she
could not afford them at the moment. This is called:
A. Informed consent
B. Neglect consent
C. Uninformed consent
D. Informed refusal
Which of the following is incorrect regarding patient records?

A. Include radiographs
B. Are kept for 2 years
C. Should be registered in ink
D. Electronic records are valid
Drug allergies should be clearly written on the outside of the patient chart.
A. True
B. False
C. It depends on the region
An informed consent is valid if:
A. All options have been given to the patient

B. All risks have been explained to the patient orally and in writing
C. The patient is allowed to ask questions
D. All of the above
An informed refusal is valid only if:
A. The refusal is signed

B. The plan is explained verbally
C. The patient understands the results of no treatment
D. Alternative treatments are presented
E. All of the above
Which of the following is correct in regards to the HIPAA-required privacy notice?
A. It is a document explaining patient privacy practices and is given out to new

patients only
B. It has the primary intention of providing patient health information to be used in
public health research studies
C. It is used to protect the patient’s clinical records only
D. It is a document that is used to set standards for the way patient information is
handled and recorded in a dental practice
If a dental office treats every patient in a fair manner, the office is practicing:
A. Justice
B. Paternalism
C. Non-maleficence
D. Beneficence
What should be done when signs of physical abuse present on a patient that you are
treating?
A. Make notes and wait until the same signs appear at the next appointment
B. It is not the responsibility of the clinician to raise any concerns
C. Offer help
D. Report the case
When is a package considered to be contaminated?
A. It drops on the floor.

B. It is punctured.
C. It is wet.
D. All of the above
Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus?
A. AIDS
B. Oral candidiasis
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis B
Clinical gloves should be changed when:
A. They are torn

B. They are punctured
C. A new patient is examined
D. All of the above
Which of the following is the only proven method for monitoring the sterilization process?
A. Mechanical monitoring
B. Biological monitoring
C. Chemical monitoring
Which of the followings is a critical item?
A. Mouth mirror
B. Blood pressure cuff
C. Films
D. Scaler
Which of the following organisms is used for biological testing?
A. Bacillus aereus
B. Bacillus thermoglucosidasius
C. Geobacillus stearothermophilus
D. Geobacillus thermoglucosidasius
Hepatitis B vaccine should be given in months:
A. 0, 1, 2
B. 0, 1, 3
C. 0, 1, 6
D. 1, 2, 3
OSHA’s hazard communication program includes?
A. SDS
B. HIPAA
C. NIOSH
D. Ecological information
The disinfection process on clinical surfaces begins with:
A. Removal of debris and matter

B. Use of low-level disinfectant
C. Use of high-level disinfectant
In a dental setting, what precautions should be taken for patients with tuberculosis (TB)?
A. If the condition is active, postpone non-emergency dental treatments.

B. All patients with a history of tuberculosis should be treated in a secluded hospital
setting.
C. Use universal precaution.
Sterilization is defined as:
A. Destruction of pathogenic microorganisms

B. Destruction of all microorganisms
C. Destruction of bacteria
D. Destruction of bacteria and virus
How long should the waterlines in dental units be flushed in between patients?
A. 2-3 seconds
B. 20-30 seconds
C. 2-3 minutes
D. 20-30 minutes
Before sending the spore test to the lab, the test should be performed:
A. In an empty cycle
B. In a normal cycle
C. In double cycles
D. In special cycles
In a clinical setting, what is the recommended percentage of alcohol concentration for hand rubs?
A. 6-10%
B. 10-20%
C. 20-50%
D. 60-95%
Items that contact the mucous membranes but do not penetrate soft tissue are categorized as:
A. Critical items
B. Non-critical items
C. Semi-critical items
D. Clinical surfaces
The barrier on the x-ray receptor should cover:
A. The receptor and the wire.

B. The receptor and the BID.
C. The receptor and the PID.
D. The receptor and the collimator.
It is recommended (but not essential) that dental unit waterlines are kept free from bacterial
contamination because most microorganisms are not pathological to all patients.
A. True
B. False
C. It depends
How should sharp instruments be disposed of?
A. In a biohazard bag
B. In a puncture-resistant container
C. In a puncture-resistant container with a biohazard label
D. With ordinary waste
Sharps injuries can be prevented with which type of gloves?
A. Overgloves
B. Latex
C. Nitrile
D. Utility
For how long can the hepatitis B virus (HBV) survive in the environment?
A. At least 1 month
B. At least 7 days
C. Up to 8 hours
How many months after the first vaccine should the third vaccine be administered for hepatitis
B?
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
The clinician reviews the patient’s health history and notices the patient is HIV positive. Which
of the following precautions should the clinician take when treating the patient?
A. Use standard precaution

B. Use double gloves
C. Do not treat the patient and refer to a hospital
D. Use single-use disposable instruments
Which of the following is TRUE of ultrasonic scalers?
A. The insertion tips cannot be heat sterilized.

B. It is sufficient for the insertion tip to be wiped with disinfecting wipes.
C. The insertion tips should be sterilized using the same method as other hand
instruments.
D. It is not necessary to sterilize insertion tips if plastic coverings are used.
Which of the following routes CANNOT spread HIV?
A. Blood
B. Breast milk
C. Vaginal fluids
D. Saliva
Which type of microorganism causes Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease?
A. Bacteria
B. Prion
C. Virus
D. Fungi
Mechanical and chemical monitoring provide information regarding the time, temperature, and
pressure of the sterilizing machine. However, they cannot provide proof of sterilization. Which
of the following results can create a positive spore test in a properly-functioning sterilizer?
A. Overloading
B. Failure of adequate package separation
C. Excessive packaging material
D. All of the above
Which of the following is the only proven method for monitoring the sterilization process?
A. Mechanical monitoring
B. Biological monitoring
C. Chemical monitoring
Which condition cannot be caused alone?
A. HBV
B. HBC
C. HBD
D. HBE
Which of the following items used in radiography should be heat sterilized?
A. Film-holding device
B. Tube head
C. Headrest
D. Position-indicating device
When using a suction, the patient should not completely seal the lips around the tube because:
A. Too much blood can be lost

B. A backflow from the suction and dental unit is possible
C. The saliva will contaminate the dental unit
What is the sequence of donning personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A. Clothing → mask → eyewear → handwashing → gloves

B. Handwashing → gloves → mask → clothing → eyewear
C. Clothing → handwashing → gloves → mask → clothing → eyewear
D. Handwashing → gloves → clothing → mask → eyewear
According to the CDC (Center for Disease Control) guidelines, instruments that contact but do
not penetrate soft tissue or bone are classified as:
A. Non-critical instruments
B. Semi-critical instruments
C. Critical instruments
D. Crucial instruments
Standard precautions should be used when treating:
A. Healthy patients
B. Patients with AIDS
C. Patients with Hepatitis C
D. All the above
An assistant is recapping a used needle after a treatment procedure. What is the appropriate
method the assistant should use when re-capping?
A. A single-handed recapping technique

B. Bend or break the needle after use
C. Wear gloves during removal
D. Remove excess needles from disposable containers
If the sterilizer tape turns brown, it indicates:

A. Sterilization is achieved
B. High temperature was reached
C. Chemicals were used
D. Instruments are clean
Which of the following methods of sterilization generates the most heat?
A. Steam autoclave
B. Dry heat
C. Chemical vapor
D. Cold sterilization
During ultrasonic scaling, the clinician is BEST protected by wearing which of the
following PPE?
A. Protective eyewear and face mask

B. Protective eyewear and face shield
C. Protective face shield and face mask
D. Face shield only
In the case of a needle-stick exposure incident, which of the following is the proper protocol to
follow?
A. Wash the injured area with antimicrobial soap and water

B. Flush the mucous membrane with water
C. Immediately report the exposure to the infection control coordinator
D. All of the above
Which of the following is NOT true regarding steam sterilization?
A. It generates moist heat at high temperatures.

B. Distilled water prevents the formation of deposits on instruments.
C. A vacuum is created to allow the steam to penetrate faster.
D. Chemicals are heated.
PPE gowns should be:

A. Water-resistant
B. Reusable
C. Washable
D. Perforated
How often should biological monitoring be performed?
A. At least daily
B. At least weekly
C. At least monthly
D. At least yearly
Chemical indicator tapes are used on the outside of a package to be sterilized. A color change of
the tape indicates:
A. Sterilization has been successfully achieved

B. Target temperature has been reached
C. Target time has been reached
D. Sterilizer is not functioning properly
Which of the following disinfection and sterilization techniques applies to instruments used on
an HIV-positive patient?
A. Clean instruments with bleach first

B. Sterilize the instruments twice
C. Use the standard sterilization process
D. Use two chemical indicators inside the package
A. Spores
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Virus
Tuberculosis transmission can be prevented with which type of masks?

A. N92
B. N95
C. Surgical
D. Sterile
Both eyewear and protective shields protect the clinician’s eyes from spatter or debris generated
during procedures. The protective shield can be an alternative to eyewear.
A. Both statements are true.

B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, and the second is false.
D. The first statement is false, and the second is true.
Dental units should be flushed with water in between patients for:
A. 1-2 seconds
B. 20-30 seconds
C. 1-2 minutes
D. 2-3 minutes
A. Spores
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Virus
Which method of sterilization is LEAST recommended if the clinician needs to keep the
instruments sharp?
A. Chemical vapor
B. Steam autoclave
C. Dry heat
Which extraoral imaging technique is best for finding abnormalities in the soft tissues?
A. Water’s projection
B. MRI
C. Cephalometric projection
D. Panoramic radiograph
The bisecting technique uses two structures to create the “bisecting line”. Those two structures
are:
A. Choose only ONE best answer.

B. X-ray and long axis of the tooth
C. Film and long axis of the tooth
D. Occlusal plane and long axis of the tooth
E. Film and tube
Which of the following is true regarding the darkroom?
A. Turn on the safelight before turning off the white light

B. Turn off the white light before turning on the safelight
C. The safelight should always stay on during work hours
The barrier on the x-ray receptor should cover:
A. The receptor and the wire.

B. The receptor and the BID.
C. The receptor and the PID.
D. The receptor and the collimator.
The cathode is composed of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Tungsten filament
B. Molybdenum cup
C. Tungsten target
Which of the following explains the type of error made in a panoramic exposure if the image
demonstrates a “flat” smile?
A. The lead collar is placed above the line.

B. The chin is tipped down too far.
C. The chin is tipped up too far.
D. The patient’s head is twisted.
The clinician should stay at a ____-degree angle away from the source of radiation.
A. 45-90
B. 90-135
C. 145-180
D. 180-190
If the fixing time is 10 minutes, the developing time is:
A. 2 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 20 minutes
Processing tanks should be cleaned when the:
A. Solution levels become low.

B. Radiographs become too dark.
C. Radiographs become too light.
D. Solutions are changed.
The clinician should stay ____ feet away from the source of radiation.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
When the patient is experiencing gagging reflexes, which of the following methods can best help
place the receptor?
A. Begin with posterior exposures

B. Slide the receptor along the teeth
C. Slide the receptor with light touch
D. Ask the caregiver to place the receptor
What is the processing order that films undergo in an automatic processor?
A. Developer, fixer, water, dry chamber

B. Water, developer, water, fixer, dry chamber
C. Developer, water, fixer, dry chamber
D. Developer, water, fixer, water, dry chamber
Which of the following errors result in a film darker than desired?
A. Longer development time

B. Shorter development time
C. Exhausted developing solution
D. Light leak
The clinician changed the 16-inch PID to an 8-inch PID. How will the beam intensity change?
A. The beams will be twice stronger.

B. The beams will be four times stronger.
C. The beams will be weaker by half.
D. The beams will be weaker by a quarter.
Shortened teeth on a radiographic image is caused by:
A. Underangulation
B. Overangulation
C. Overlap
D. Long teeth
A teenage patient has an impacted mandibular third molar. The clinician is trying to determine
whether the impacted tooth is in the lingual or buccal aspect. Which of the following intraoral
techniques will help assess the position of the tooth?
A. Bisecting technique
B. Panoramic imaging
C. Buccal object rule
D. A radiograph cannot help identify the buccal or lingual orientation of the tooth.
In order of least sensitive to most sensitive, which one is correct?
A. Muscle, blood, oral mucosa, bone marrow

B. Muscle, bone marrow, skin, blood
C. Bone marrow, skin, blood, muscle
D. Skin, blood, muscle, bone marrow
When the caregiver is required to assist the patient during a radiographic exposure, the caregiver
should wear a:
A. Lead apron
B. Thyroid collar
C. Lead apron and thyroid collar
D. Neither a lead apron nor thyroid collar is needed
Among the following options, which dental restoration material appears the MOST radiopaque?
A. Porcelain
B. Base material
C. Gold
D. Composite
The dental hygienist noticed that all of the teeth on the radiographs she just took looked
abnormally short. What can the clinician do to prevent this error from happening again?
A. Increase horizontal angulation

B. Decrease horizontal angulation
C. Increase vertical angulation
D. Decrease vertical angulation
When testing for the proper functioning of automatic processing, one film should be exposed to
light and another film should be unexposed. The exposed film should:
A. Appear gray
B. Appear dark
C. Appear white
D. Appear blue
Which processing order do films undergo in an automatic processor?
A. Developer, fixer, water, dry chamber

B. Water, developer, water, fixer, dry chamber
C. Developer, water, fixer, dry chamber
D. Developer, water, fixer, water, dry chamber
What is the total limit for occupational exposure to radiation per year?
A. 0.5 rem
B. rem
C. 50 rem
D. 500 rem
According to the CDC (Center for Disease Control) guidelines, receptors are classified as:
A. Non-critical instruments.
B. Semi-critical instruments.
C. Critical instruments.
D. Crucial instruments.
Which of the following is NOT true about patient positioning for a panoramic exposure?
A. The chin should be tilted down slightly.

B. The patient should bend the back slightly.
C. The patient should hold onto the handles and lean back.
D. The mid-sagittal plane should be perpendicular to the floor.
The lead diaphragm in the tube head is referred to as the:
A. PID
B. Filtration
C. Collimator
The clinician has processed all the films, and she is seeing a moon-shaped artifact. That could be
related to:
A. Double exposure
B. Backward placement of film
C. Bent film
D. Fingernail
Less gray scale contrast is caused by:
A. Lower kVp
B. Higher kVp
C. Lower mA
D. Higher mA
In the fixing process, which solution clears the unexposed silver halide crystals?
A. Elon
B. Sodium sulfite
C. Potassium alum
D. Sodium thiosulfate
Which of the following cell types is MOST sensitive to radiation?
A. Bone marrow
B. Blood
C. Sclera
D. Liver
An informed consent is valid if:
A. All options have been given to the patient.

B. All risks have been explained to the patient orally and in writing.
C. The patient is allowed to ask questions.
D. All of the above.
Which of the following radiographs are most useful for periodontal assessments?
A. Periapicals
B. Bitewings
C. Occlusal images
D. Panoramic images
If the clinician knows the patient will need a copy of the radiograph in advance, she should use a:
A. Double film packet

B. Single film packet
C. F-speed films
D. Copier
The dental hygienist notied that all of the teeth on the radiographs she just took looked
abnormally long. What can the clinician do to prevent this error from happening again?
A. Increase horizontal angulation

B. Decrease horizontal angulation
C. Increase vertical angulation
D. Decrease vertical angulation
The x-ray beams that leave the x-ray tube from the tungsten target create:
A. Primary radiation
B. Secondary radiation
C. Tertiary radiation
D. Quaternary radiation
When placed backward, a film exposed in the mouth will exhibit a:
A. Reversed tooth image.

B. No image.
C. Waffle pattern.
D. Fogginess.
When treating a pregnant patient, it is recommended that radiographic exposures:

A. Be avoided during the entire pregnancy.
B. Be avoided during the first trimester.
C. Be avoided during the second trimester.
D. Should not be altered.
The most appropriate receptor size for a full-mouth series on a six-year-old patient is:
A. Size 0
B. Size 1
C. Size 3
D. Size 4
Which structure can further restrict the size of x-ray beams?
A. PID
B. Collimation
C. Filtration
D. Anode
The fixing time should be ________________ the developing time.
A. The same as
B. Double
C. Triple
D. Half
Which of the following radiographs are most useful for caries detection?
A. Periapicals
B. Bitewings
C. Occlusals
D. Panoramic exposure
Which of the following structures are radiolucent on anteriors?
A. External oblique ridge

B. Mandibular canal
C. Mental foramen
D. Lingual foramen
A healthy 16-year-old patient has not been to the dentist in two years and describes throbbing
pain in the back of the jaw on both sides. Which type of radiographic images would BEST assess
the patient’s chief complaint?
A. Panoramic radiograph
B. Posterior horizontal bitewings
C. Posterior periapicals
D. Water’s projection
When should radiographs be taken?
A. After clinical exam by the dentist

B. At every appointment
C. Every 6 months
D. Every year
All of the following may result in radiographic images that are too light EXCEPT:
A. Light exposure
B. Cold developer solution
C. Longer PID
D. Decreased kVp
Using the buccal object rule, a clinician takes two images. For the second exposure, the clinician
moves the tube head horizontally towards the anteriors. Compared to the first image, the object
on the second image appears more posterior. The object is located:
A. Lingual
B. Buccal
C. Anterior
D. Posterior
A molar bitewing should be centered on the:

A. First molar
B. Second molar
C. Distal of second molar
D. Third molar
Which of the following describes the proper positioning of the tongue during a
panoramic radiograph?
A. The tongue should be moved back.

B. The tongue should be moved to one side.
C. The tongue should be touching the mandibular incisors.
D. The tongue should be touching the roof of the palate.
The white side of a film should be positioned towards the:
A. Tongue
B. Tooth
C. Palate
D. Throat
Which image can help the clinician understand whether the root tip is positioned buccally or
lingually?
A. Periapicals
B. Bitewings
C. Occlusal images
D. Panoramic images
Which of the following explains the type of error made if the right condyle is bigger than the left
condyle on a panoramic exposure?
A. The right side was towards the sensor.

B. The left side was towards the sensor.
C. The chin was lifted.
D. The chin was tilted down.
Which of the following is true regarding pulp stones?

A. Appear radiolucent on radiographs
B. Are found on the root surface
C. Are found in the furca
D. May only be detected with radiographs
If the anterior teeth appear “skinny” in a panoramic survey, it is because:
A. The face was placed towards the back.

B. The face was placed towards the front
C. The head was twisted.
D. The chin was tipped too far down.
Indications of sealants for adults include:
A. Radiation therapy
B. Good oral hygiene
C. Flossing habits
D. Interproximal decay
If the sealant has holes, it is because:
A. The material overflowed

B. The material was placed too high
C. The material flowed inside the pits
D. Bubbles were incorporated when placing the sealant
The acid concentration of the etching material is:
A. 10-30%
B. 30-50%
C. 50-60%
D. 60-70%
Which teeth can usually benefit the most from sealants?
A. Maxillary first molars

B. Maxillary third molars
C. Maxillary canines
D. Maxillary first premolars
If a sealant fails, it will usually come off within:
A. 1-3 months
B. 3-6 months
C. 6-12 months
D. 12-24 months
Which of the following is a contraindication for sealant placement?
A. Occlusal caries
B. Interproximal caries
C. Deep grooves
D. Deep pits
If the tooth has interproximal caries, should sealant be placed?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends
The most common reason for sealant failure is:
A. Inappropriate moisture control during placement

B. Inappropriate moisture control after placement
C. Inappropriate moisture control before placement
Fillers in the sealant material affect the:
A. Hardness
B. Color
C. Thickness
D. Flow
Etching will create enamel that looks:

A. Dark
B. Gray
C. Yellow
D. Chalky white
Glass ionomers give out:
A. Heat
B. Bubbles
C. Acid
D. Fluoride
The enamel at the bottom of the pit is:
A. Thin
B. Thick
C. The same thickness as the enamel at the top of the cusp
D. Round
if the clinician would like more time for sealant application, which type of sealant should be
used?
A. Self-curing
B. Light-curing
C. Etch-curing
D. Instant-curing
Sealants that are placed properly are effective at preventing caries by:
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 100%
The etched enamel will become:

A. Dark
B. Gray
C. Yellow
D. Frosty
What instrument can help remove the extra sealant material?
A. Dental tape
B. Diamond bur
C. Scaler
D. Explorer
The hardness of the sealant material is determined by the presence of:
A. Fillers
B. Coloring agents
C. Transparency
D. All of the above
Before curing the sealant material with light, it is important to make sure that:
A. The material has set

B. The material has flowed to all areas
C. The material is up to the tip of the cusps
D. Patient can swallow
Which of the following ingredients is BEST for tough stain?
A. Fine grit pumice

B. Medium grit pumice
C. Coarse grit pumice
D. Fine silex
The polishing cup or the bristle should be activated first, then positioned onto the tooth.
A. True
B. False
C. It depends on the tooth
Coronal polishing can be performed before which of the following procedures?
A. Crown cementation
B. Sealant application
C. Ortho brackets cementation
D. All of the above
Coronal polishing should be performed when:
A. There is light extrinsic stain

B. There is light intrinsic stain
C. There is tough extrinsic stain
D. There is tough intrinsic stain
To remove debris from the occlusal groove, which of the following tools should be used?
A. Rubber cup
B. Bristle brush
C. High-speed handpiece
D. All of the above
The rubber cup should move from the ___ towards the ___.
A. Cervical area, coronal area

B. Coronal area, cervical area
C. Mesial area, cervical area
D. Mesial area, coronal area
Coronal polishing should be performed on the:
A. Crown
B. Root
C. Both A and B
Coronal polishing should be performed:

A. Every 6 months
B. Every year
C. At every dental visit
D. When indicated
Coronal polishing is indicated when:
A. Sensitivity is present
B. Crown is being cemented
C. Calculus is present
D. Temporary crown came off
Surface roughness can be created by prolonged polishing.
A. True
B. False
C. It depends on the pumice used
The polishing cup is attached to a:
A. High-speed handpiece
B. Slow-speed handpiece
C. Suction
Coronal polishing removes:
A. Pellicle
B. Plaque
C. Material alba
D. All of the above
The following options are adverse effects of polishing EXCEPT:
A. Removes the surface layer of enamel where the fluoride content is most
protective
B. Generates heat which could possibly damage the tooth
C. Removes stain
D. Removes cementum
Coronal polishing can substitute prophylaxis:
A. True
B. False
C. It depends on the case
Which of the following is a contraindication for coronal polishing?
A. Removal of cement
B. Placement of orthodontic bands
C. No obvious stain
D. Placement of bridge
Which type of grasp is used when polishing?
A. Modified-pen
B. Open-palm
C. Modified-palm
D. Two-hands
What is the reason why patients with infectious diseases should NOT receive polishing?
A. The polishing agent can aggravate the condition

B. The condition can be transmitted through aerosol
C. The polishing pumice can create allergies
D. Infectious diseases are a pre-disposition for fainting
Polishing should NOT be performed on which of the following restorations?
A. Gold
B. Porcelain
C. Acrylic
D. Composite
E. All of the above
Which of the followings is NOT correct about bristle polishing?
A. Direct the brush from the central fossa first, toward the mesial buccal cusp tip
B. Direct the brush from the central fossa first, toward the distal buccal cusp tip
C. For the anterior teeth, position the brush in the lingual pit above the cingulum, and then
toward the incisal edge
D. For anterior teeth, start at the gingival margin
Which of the following tools can help the dental professional assess the location of the bacterial
cluster?
A. Pumice
B. Mouthrinse
C. Disclosing solution
D. Fluoride rinse
Which concept describes the use of coronal polishing only on certain teeth/surfaces for the
preservation of natural teeth structures?
A. Selective polishing
B. Selective prophylaxis
C. Stain removal
D. Scaling
Which of the following types of stains is coronal polishing less likely to remove?
A. Black line stain

B. Coffee stain
C. Tobacco stain
D. Orange stain
Coronal polishing is used to:
A. Remove extrinsic stain

B. Remove intrinsic stain
C. Remove calculus
D. Provide patient satisfaction
What type of stroke is used when performing polishing?
A. Heavy
B. Intermittent
C. Long
D. Circular
Which of the following is NOT a component of a pumice?
A. Fluoride
B. Water
C. Flavoring agent
D. Silicone dioxide
E. Cement
Which of the following abrasives should be used for tough stains?
A. Fine grit
B. Medium grit
C. Coarse grit
D. Any of the above
Each tooth should be polished for ____ seconds.
A. 1-2
B. 3-5
C. 5-7
D. 7-10
Coronal polishing can do all the following EXCEPT:
A. Smooth surfaces
B. Remove intrinsic stain
C. Remove extrinsic stain
D. Prepare for cementation of crown
When using air polishing, the tip should be placed ___ degrees to the facial surfaces of
anterior teeth.
A. 45
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
Which of the following tooth structures is more susceptible to destruction?
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Cementum
D. All layers are equally destructible
Smooth teeth surfaces are less likely to retain:
A. Plaque
B. Calculus
C. Stain
D. Fluoride
Which of the following dentition is most sensitive to polishing?
A. Permanent
B. Mixed
C. Primary
Coronal polishing can remove:
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Cementum
D. All of the above
Which of the following rules do NOT apply to coronal polishing?
A. Apply heavy pressure

B. Use slow speed
C. Wet surfaces
D. Use bristle for occlusal surfaces
The polishing bristle is used on the:
A. Occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth

B. Lingual surfaces of posterior teeth
C. Buccal surfaces of posterior teeth
D. Root surface of posterior teeth
Coronal polishing is indicated when:
A. Placing orthodontic bands

B. Placing implants
C. Endodontic procedures are needed
D. Stain is tough
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for coronal polishing?
A. Tooth sensitivity
B. Absence of stain
C. Recession
D. Orthodontics

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To manage xerostomia and its oral effects, all of the followings can be beneficial

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. Mouthrinses containing sodium laurel sulfate

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding fluoride varnishes?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. They are not easily washed away by saliva

Choose only ONE best answer.

Pilocarpine hydrochloride is indicated for:

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. Use an electric toothbrush

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. It is the fluoride of choice for dentinal hypersensitivity

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. Schedule short appointments

In which area of the mouth is plaque harder to remove?

Choose only ONE best answer.

Which fluoride should be avoided with composite and porcelain restorations?

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

Furcations are BEST cleansed with:

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. Dental floss and interdental brushes

Which one of the following is INCORRECT regarding fluoride?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. Creates hydroxyapatite from fluorapatite

Attrition can occur with:

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. It is applied to a tray that is inserted into the patient’s mouth

Over-the-counter toothpaste usually contains:

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. Soak in bleach and water

Which of the following additive agents found in some toothpastes is known to be

Choose only ONE best answer.

At which concentration is chlorhexidine prescribed?

Choose only ONE best answer.

Which precaution should be followed when treating a hearing-impaired patient?

Choose only ONE best answer.

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding pregnant patients?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. Dental treatment is recommended during the first trimester

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. Seat the patient upright at a 45° angle

Xerostomia occurring as a result of radiation therapy or medication puts the patient at a

Choose only ONE best answer.

In which area of the mouth is plaque harder to remove?

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. The facial width of the dental enamel junction

What is the static position for left-handed clinicians?

Choose only ONE best answer.

Choose only ONE best answer.

In which category does a blood pressure of 142/85 mmHg fall into?

Choose only ONE best answer.

What is the normal respiration rate of an adult?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A. 10-12 breaths per minute