SPACE MECHANICS

(Multiple Choice Questions and Answers)

1. A satellite is in orbit around a planet. The orbital radius is 29.0 km and the gravitational
acceleration at that height is 3.7 m/s2. What is the satellite's orbital speed?
a. 330 m/s
b. 100 m/s
c. 33 m/s
d. 10 m/s

Answer Hints: 330 m/s

mv*v/r=mg,
v=330 m/s

2. What is the force responsible for maintaining a satellite's orbital motion around another
body?
a. Normal force
b. Frictional force
c. Centripetal force
d. Perpendicular force

Answer Hints: Centripetal force

An orbit tends to have a circular or elliptical path.

Centripetal force prevents an object from moving away from the orbital path.

3. The orbital velocity is determined by what two variables?

a. Mass of the orbited object and distance between the two objects.
b. Masses of the orbited and orbiting objects.
c. Mass of the orbiting object and the distance between the two objects.
d. The universal constant and the mass of the orbiting object.

Answer Hints: Mass of the orbited object and distance between the two objects.

Refer to the orbital velocity formula.

Besides G, the only variables are mass of the orbited object and distance between the two
objects.

4. What happens to the orbital velocity as a comet, in an elliptical orbit, comes closer to the
sun?
a. The orbital velocity remains the same.
b. The orbital velocity decreases.
c. The orbital velocity increases.
d. The orbital velocity becomes random.

Answer Hints: The orbital velocity increases.

As the comet comes closer to the sun, the distance becomes smaller, therefore increasing the
velocity of the comet.

5. If the distance between two objects doubles, the gravitational force is

a. reduced to 25% of its original magnitude.
b. reduced to 50% of its original magnitude.
c. unaffected by the distance.
d. doubled.

Answer Hints: reduced to 25% of its original magnitude.

If the distance doubles, the force must be reduced by four to make the equation work.

6. The mass of an object is doubled, yet the mass and the distance between the two objects
remains the same. Determine the impact on the gravitational force.
a. The gravitational force remains the same.
b. The gravitational force doubles.
c. The gravitational force is quadrupled.
d. The gravitational force is cut in half.

Answer Hints: The gravitational force doubles

If the mass is doubled, the force must be doubled to make the equation work.

7. What is the purpose of "G" in the Universal Gravitation formula?

a. G" is a universal gravitational constant. It does not change.
b. G" is a universal gravitational constant, but fluctuates depending upon the planet an
object is on or is orbiting
c. "G" is used to emphasize that the force is a gravitational force and not a strong or weak
force.
d. "G" represents whether the gravitational force would be positive or negative.

Answer Hints: G" is a universal gravitational constant. It does not change.

The "G" is simply a constant that makes the formula work.

8. Consider a hypothetical planet X with mass 5×1025 kg, orbiting the Sun in a circular orbit with
radius 3 AU. The orbital plane coincides with the ecliptic (i.e., the orbital plane of the Earth).
Compute the maximum perturbing acceleration due to this planet X, acting on a
geostationary satellite (radius orbit is 42200 km). Data: G = 6.673 10-20 km3/kg/s2; 1 AU =
149.6 106 km, μ=G×M.

a. 2.0516 10-11 m/s2

b. 1.0516 10-11 m/s2
c. 1.0516 10-6 m/s2
d. 2.0516 10-6 m/s2
 Answer Hints: 1.0516 10-11 m/s2
Effective acceleration = direct acceleration – acceleration on Earth -> accmax= 1.0516 10-11
m/s2

9. Consider the various high-thrust options for a transfer from Earth to Jupiter: a minimum-
energy Hohmann transfer, or a faster transfer (demanding more energy). Compute the value
for the true anomaly θ, when arriving at Jupiter. Data: μSun=1.3271 1011 km3/s2; distance
Earth-Sun = 1 AU; distance Jupiter-Sun = 5.2 AU; 1 AU = 149.6 106 km.
a. 41.12°
b. 12.40°
c. 113.40°
d. 141.40°

Answer Hints: 141.40°

r = a(1-e2) /(1+e cosθ); θ=141.40°

10. The following equation describes an arbitrary Earth-repeat orbit:

Consider the situation where the semi-major axis has a value of 7300 km, j = 478 and k= 35.
What is the required inclination for the satellite to be in a circular Earth-repeat orbit?
Data: μEarth = 398600.4415 km3/s2; TE = 23h56m4s; Re = 6378.137 km; J2 = 1082×10-6.

a. 11.2°
b. 17.4°
c. 12.4°
d. 10.2°

Answer Hints: 17.4°

From the above equation i = 17.4°

11. In Newton's Law of Universal Gravity, the "G" constant changes solar system to solar system
like "g" change from planet to planet.
a. True
b. False

Answer Hints: False

12. Which force is NOT considered an inverse square law?

a. Magnetism between two permanent magnets
b. The repulsion force between two electrons
c. The attractive force between two planets
 d. Sound "volume" from the rock star's on stage and the audience

Answer Hints: Magnetism between two permanent magnets

13. Which is statement is Kepler's 2nd Law of planetary motion?

a. All orbits are ellipses. (Because there is no second law.)
b. Equal areas between the satellite the and object begin orbited are swept out in equal
time intervals
c. T2/r3=Kepler's constant for an object being orbited
d. T3/r2=Kepler's constant for an object being orbited

Answer Hints: Equal areas between the satellite the and object begin orbited are swept out
in equal time intervals

14. Calculate the velocity of an artificial satellite orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit at an
altitude of 200 km above the Earth's surface.
a. 5,712 m/s
b. 6,784 m/s
c. 7,784 m/s
d. 7,234 m/s

Answer Hints: 7,784 m/s

v = SQRT[ GM / r ]
v = SQRT[ 3.986005×1014 / 6,578,140 ]
v = 7,784 m/s

15. An artificial Earth satellite is in an elliptical orbit which brings it to an altitude of 250 km at
perigee and out to an altitude of 500 km at apogee. Calculate the velocity of the satellite at
both perigee and apogee.
a. 6,826 m/s, 6,542 m/s
b. 7,826 m/s, 7,542 m/s
c. 5,826 m/s, 5,542 m/s
d. 8,826 m/s, 8,542 m/s

Answer Hints: 7,826 m/s, 7,542 m/s

Rp = (6,378.14 + 250) × 1,000 = 6,628,140 m

Ra = (6,378.14 + 500) × 1,000 = 6,878,140 m
Vp = SQRT[ 2 × GM × Ra / (Rp × (Ra + Rp)) ]
Vp = 7,826 m/s
Va = SQRT[ 2 × GM × Rp / (Ra × (Ra + Rp)) ]
Va = 7,542 m/s

16. Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles have a range of

a. 500 to 1,000 miles
b. over 10,000 miles
c. 1,000 to 5,000 miles
 d. over 5,000 miles

Answer Hints: over 5,000 miles

17. A satellite of mass m is in orbit around a planet of mass M at an altitude a above the planet’s
surface. The radius of the planet is r. The speed of the satellite is
a. SQRT(GM/r)
b. SQRT(Gm/r)
c. SQRT(GM/r+a)
d. SQRT(Gm/r+a)

Answer Hints: SQRT(GM/r+a)

18. What is the kinetic energy of a satellite of mass m which is in a circular orbit of radius 3Re
about the earth?
a. GMe m/3Re
b. GMe m/6Re
c. mgRe
d. GMe m/Re

Answer Hints: GMe m/6Re

K=1/2*mv2 = GMe m/6Re

19. Heliocentric longitudes and latitudes are observed from

a. The earth
b. The moon
c. The sun
d. None of these

Answer Hints: The sun

20. The backward motion of a planet is known as

a. Direct motion
b. Angular motion
c. Retrograde motion
d. None of these

Answer Hints: Angular motion

21. The interval between two successive heliocentric conjunction in longitude is called
a. Synodic period
b. Orbital period
c. Conjunction
d. None of these

Answer Hints: Synodic period

22. The angular distance of the planet from the sun is called
 a. Conjunctions
b. Elongation
c. Direct
d. None of these

Answer Hints: Elongation

23. The winter solstice is the position of the sun on

a. 21 June
b. 21 September
c. 21 December
d. 21 March

Answer Hints: 21 December

24. The point on the surface of the celestial sphere vertically above it’s centre is called
a. The zenith
b. The nadir
c. The north pole
d. None of these

Answer Hints: The zenith

25. Colatitude is defined as the arc of the observer’s meridian between the
a. South pole and the observer
b. North pole and the observer
c. Equator and observer
d. None of these

Answer Hints: North pole and the observer

26. Vernal equinox is the position of the sun on

a. 21 March
b. 21 June
c. 21 December
d. 21 October

Answer Hints: 21 March

27. The angle between the equator and ecliptic is known as the _______ of the ecliptic.
a. Obliquity
b. Altitude
c. Longitude
d. Nadir

Answer Hints: Obliquity

28. Spacecraft is in a circular orbit around the Earth at 519 km altitude and an inclination of 30
degrees. What is the maximum time per orbit that the spacecraft spends in the Earth’s
 shadow expressed as a percentage of the orbital period? Assume the Sun is at infinite
distance.
a. 18.8 percent
b. 37.6 percent
c. 62.4 percent
d. 50.0 percent

Answer Hints: 37.6 percent

29. A spacecraft with a starting mass of 1000 kg is launched from the surface of Mars on a
vertical trajectory. Assume a homogeneous (constant) gravity field with a gravitational
acceleration at the surface of Mars of 3.70 m/s^2. The initial thrust-to-weight ratio of the
spacecraft is 1.5. Specific impulse (Isp) of the rocket engine is 300 s. What is the burn-out
altitude of the spacecraft?
a. 520.2 km
b. 196.3 km
c. 98.6 km
d. 5881.3 km

Answer Hints: 520.2 km

30. Kepler’s third law states?

a. T2 ∝ a3
b. b. T3 ∝ a3
c. c. T3 ∝ a2
d. d. T2 ∝ a2

Answer Hints: T2 ∝ a3

31. The time interval between two successive occurrences of a specific type of alignment of a
planet (or the moon) with the sun and the earth is referred to as
a. a conjunction
b. an opposition
c. a sidereal period
d. a synodic period

Answer Hints: a synodic period

32. According to Kepler's Laws, all orbits of the planets are:

a. Ellipses
b. Parabolas
c. Hyperbolas
d. Square

Answer Hints: Ellipses

33. The environment of which of the following planets presents a serious trapped radiation
hazard?
a. Mercury and Earth
 b. Venus and Mars
c. Earth and Jupiter
d. Jupiter and Mars

Answer Hints: Earth and Jupiter

34. A Hohmann transfer orbit

a. is always a Type-II orbit.
b. always uses gravity assist.
c. is always a Type-I orbit.
d. permits efficient use of propellant.

Answer Hints: permits efficient use of propellant

35. During a gravity assist boost, the spacecraft

a. departs the planet faster than it arrives, as seen from the planet.
b. must fly slower than the planet's escape velocity.
c. tugs on the planet via gravity.
d. changes the planet's orbital energy.

Answer Hints: tugs on the planet via gravity

36. To send a spacecraft from Earth to the orbit of Venus

a. Remove energy from its existing solar orbit.
b. Add energy to its existing solar orbit.
c. Place it in solar orbit.
d. Change its aphelion.

Answer Hints: Remove energy from its existing solar orbit

37. The sun and all its neighboring stars orbit the center of:
a. The universe.
b. The solar system.
c. A spiral galaxy.
d. Intergalactic space.

Answer Hints: A spiral galaxy

38. What is an object from interplanetary space called after it strikes the Earth?
a. Meteor
b. Meteorite
c. Meteoroid
d. Meteorate

Answer Hints: Meteorite

39. The use of epoch references is required mostly because of

a. stars' proper motion
b. Earth's axial precession
 c. Earth's nutation
d. Earth's orbital motion

Answer Hints: Earth's axial precession

40. The point directly overhead an observer is the

a. Zenith.
b. Hour Angle.
c. Azimuth.
d. Declination

Answer Hints: Zenith.

41. Half the maximum diameter of an ellipse, the distance from the center to one end, is called
the _________________
a. Major axis
b. Semi-major axis
c. Eccentricity
d. Elongation

Answer Hints: Semi-major axis

42. A circle is an ellipse with _____________________

a. Major axis equal to its semi-major axis
b. Zero elongation
c. Zero eccentricity
d. Two different foci

Answer Hints: Zero eccentricity

43. To move in a circular path, a planet must experience a constant acceleration toward the star
it orbits. This is its___________________
a. centrifugal force caused by motion.
b. motion caused by centrifugal force.
c. centripetal acceleration caused by gravity.
d. centripetal force caused by centrifugal acceleration.

Answer Hints: centripetal acceleration caused by gravity.

44. The ascending node can be defined as where

a. 90° true anomaly always occurs.
b. an orbiting spacecraft crosses the planet's equatorial plane going north.
c. 180° true anomaly always occurs.
d. an orbiting spacecraft crosses the semimajor axis going north.

Answer Hints: an orbiting spacecraft crosses the planet's equatorial plane going north.

45. A halo orbit is

a. always a polar orbit.
 b. never a precessing orbit.
c. associated with a Lagrange point.
d. associated with a Laplace point.

Answer Hints: associated with a Lagrange point.

46. A geostationary orbit is

a. retrograde.
b. sychronous.
c. prograde.
d. high inclination.

Answer Hints: prograde

47. A sun-synchronous orbit is

a. always a polar orbit.
b. always a walking orbit.
c. never a precessing orbit.
d. more a controlled drift than a classical orbit.

Answer Hints: always a walking orbit.

48. The decreased strength of gravity proportional to the square of distance is responsible for
a. gravity waves.
b. gravity graduates.
c. gravity oscillations.
d. gravity gradients.

Answer Hints: gravity gradients.

49. Which of the following statement is true?

a. Adding energy at apogee will increase perigee altitude.
b. Removing energy at periselene will decrease apselene altitude.
c. Removing energy at apochron will decrease perichron altitude.
d. All of the above

Answer Hints: All of the above

50. What is the initial phase of ballistic trajectory?

a. Ballistic phase
b. Boost phase
c. Re-entry phase
d. Terminal phase

Answer Hints: Boost phase