Test Booklet Code: A

ENTRANCE TEST FOR EEC

Marks: 100 Time: 120 minutes

ROLL NO.__________________________ NAME: _________________________

SIGNATURE: ____________________ DATE/TIME: _________________________

INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES

1 Do not open this booklet unless you are instructed to do so.
2 Before attempting the paper, carefully read out all the Instructions and Examples given
on Side 1 of the Answer Sheet (OMR Sheet) supplied separately.
3 At the start of the examination, please ensure that all the pages of your Test booklet are
properly printed; your Test booklet is not damaged in any manner and contains 100
questions. In case of any discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter
to the invigilator for replacement of Test booklet. No claim in this regard will be entertained
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it will be deemed to be an incorrect booklet code & Answer Sheet will not be evaluated.
The candidate himself/herself will be solely responsible for all the consequences arising
out of any error or omission in writing the test booklet code.
6 The Test Booklet consists of Fourteen (14) pages containing 100 questions. Against
each question four alternatives A, B, C, D are given, out of which only one is correct.
Indicate your choice of answer by darkening suitable circle with BLACK/BLUE pen in the
OMR Answer Sheet supplied to you separately. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited. More
than one answer indicated against a question will be deemed as incorrect response.
7 The maximum marks are 100. Each question carries one mark. There will be negative
marking and each wrong answer will carry minus one by four (1/4) mark. The total
time allocated is 120 minutes.
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smudge on the OMR sheet may be taken as wrong answer. Any damage to OMR Answer
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with the QUESTION PAPER to the invigilator on duty in the examination room/hall.
10 Use of mobile phones, any other electronic gadget and calculators etc. are not
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11 Keep all your belongings outside the examination hall. Do not retain any paper
except the ADMIT CARD, prior to entry into the Examination Hall.

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 1. Who amongst the following Sikh Gurus died in 1574 after having reigned as a Guru for a
period of 22 years?
A) Guru Angad Dev Ji B) Guru Amar Das Ji
C) Guru Ram Das Ji D) Guru Arjan Dev Ji
2. Which one amongst the following books has been authored by famous former Indian
actress Twinkle Khanna?
A) The Return of the Young Prince B) My Life My Story – The Bollywood
Angle
C) The Legend of Lakshmi D) The Girl of My Dreams
Prasad
3. Who amongst the following has been awarded the Noble Prize for Literature for the year
2016?
A) Bob Dylan B) Alice Munro
C) Dorris Lessing D) Mo Yan
4. The ‘Kabir Puruskar Award’ is given for which one of the following?
A) Creative writing in Sanskrit B) Recognizing acts of physical and
moral courage
C) Contribution to Indian Culture D) Contribution to Indian Literature
and fine arts
5. Who amongst the following gave Vallabh bhai Patel the title of ‘Sardar’?
A) C. Rajgopalachari B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
C) Gopal Krishan Gokhale D) Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi
6. Which one of the following Indian state hosted a three-day bird festival from November 11
to 13, 2016?
A) Goa B) Rajasthan
C) Tamil Nadu D) Himachal Pradesh
7. Which one amongst the following countries has won the Davis Cup team tennis
tournament for the year 2016?
A) Croatia B) Argentina
C) Serbia D) Switzerland
8. ‘The Purple Moonlight (Kashni Vehra)’ – a famous semi-autobiographical novel is credited
to which one of the following famous Punjabi author?
A) Gurdial Singh Phul B) Balwant Gargi
C) Sant Singh Sekhon D) Gurbux Singh Preetlari
9. Which one amongst the following is the capital of Portugal?
A) Warsaw B) Lisbon
C) Oslo D) Bucharest
10. The ‘Hazaribagh Sanctuary’ is situated in which one of the following states of India?
A) Jharkhand B) Uttarakhand
C) Uttar Pradesh D) Tripura
11. Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph:
A. Will developing countries be left behind?
B. For decades, vying for the world’s low-cost manufacturing business seemed to be
the most promising way for low-income countries to climb the development ladder.

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 C. Propelled by demand and outsourcing from advanced economies, emerging
markets won a growing share of the soaring trade in goods; by 2014, they
accounted for more than half of global trade flows.
D. Global trade in goods rose from 13.8% of world GDP in 1985 ($2 trillion) to 26.6%
of GDP ($16 trillion) in 2007.
E. Globalization is entering a new era, defined not only by cross-border flows of
goods and capital, but also, and increasingly, by flows of data and information.
F. This shift would seem to favor the advanced economies, whose industries are at
the frontier in employing digital technologies in their products and operations.
A) EFABDC B) ABDCEF
C) FABDCE D) BDCEFA
12. Select the correct antonym of the underlined word.
Akbar the great was a sagacious ruler.
A) Canny B) Cunning
C) Rude D) Unwise
13. Fill in the blank with the correct word:
Given the current hostile situation at the India and Pakistan border and in the wake of
surgical strikes, security at army ________________ should have been sufficiently
ramped up.
A) inert B) deposition
C) laggard D) installations
14. Select the correct synonym of the underlined word.
He is an indefatigable worker.
A) tired B) tireless
C) brave D) negligent
15. Which part of the sentence has an error?
The Ministry had given time till September 30 to stakeholders for registering its responses
to the proposal.
A) The Ministry had given time B) till September 30 to stakeholders
C) for registering its responses D) to the proposal
16. Fill in the blank with the correct set of words to make a meaningful sentence:
The novelist brings out the ______________ of human beings time and time again
by_________ their lives to the permanence of the vast landscape.
A) Absurdity; relating B) Transience; likening
C) Evanescence; contrasting D) Complexity; comparing
17. Give one word substitute of: ‘Bitter and violent attack in words’
A) Diatribe B) Destitute
C) Diehard D) Desertion
18. Fill in the blank with the correct option:
The school _________ in July every year.
A) will open B) reopens
C) is going to happen D) reopened
19. Fill in the blank with the correct option:
Ram agreed to___________ my orders.
A) carry away B) carry on
C) carry out D) carry off

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 20. Fill in the blank with the correct option:
He worked with so much ____________ that no one could __________ with him.
A) laziness; criticize B) competition; zeal
C) zeal; compete D) zeal; praise
21. The average monthly expenditure of Ramesh for the January to June month’s period is
Rs.4200. If Ramesh spends Rs.1200 in the month in January and Rs.1500 in the month
of July, then what would be the average monthly expenditure of Ramesh for the February
to July month’s period?
A) Rs.4060 B) Rs.4250
C) Rs.4520 D) Rs.4560
22. The LCM and HCF of any two given numbers are 84 and 21, respectively. If the ratio of
the two numbers is 1 : 4, then what would be the larger of the two numbers?
A) 12 B) 48
C) 84 D) 108
23. Two men and 7 children complete a certain piece of work in 4 days, whereas, 4 men and
4 children complete the same work in only 3 days. What would be the number of days
required by 1 man to complete the same work?
A) 6 days B) 15 days
C) 51 days D) 60 days
24. In a given month Rakesh consumes 25 kg of Rice and 9 kg of Wheat. Considering that
the price of Rice is 20% of the price of Wheat, Rakesh spends a total of Rs.350 per month
on Rice and Wheat together. If the price of Wheat is increased by 20%, then what is the
percentage reduction of rice consumption in a month for the same combined expenditure
of Rs.350 per month? Given that the price of Rice and consumption of Wheat is constant.
A) 24% B) 25%
C) 36% D) 40%
25. Anil and his friend Karun appear in an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The
probability of Anil’s selection is 1/7, whereas the probability of selection of his friend,
Karun, is 1/5. What is the probability that only one of them gets selected?
A) 5/7 B) 1/5
C) 2/7 D) 2/35
26. There are 15 students in a class. When the ages of a teacher and a new boy are added,
the average age of the class increases by 10 percent while it remains the same when only
the age of the boy is added. If the teacher’s age is eight years more than twice the age of
the new boy, then what would be the initial average age of the class?
A) 11.4 years B) 15.4 years
C) 16.5 years D) 17.6 years
27. A bookseller procures 40 books for Rs.3200 and sells them at a profit equal to the selling
price of 8 books. What would be the selling price of one dozen books if the price of each
book is the same?
A) Rs.720 B) Rs.960
C) Rs.1200 D) Rs.1440
28. A tower is 61.25 m high. A rigid body is dropped from its top and at the same instant a
second body is thrown upwards from the bottom of the tower with such a velocity that they
met in the middle of the tower. What is the velocity of the projection of the second body?
A) 20 m/s B) 24.5 m/s

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 C) 25 m/s D) 26.5 m/s
29. 1/2
√5+1
If 𝑥 = ( ) , then what would be the value of the expression 5𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 1?
√5−1
A) 0 B) 3
C) 𝟒 D) 5
30. 11 persons decide to spend an evening in two groups. A group of them decided to go to
watch a movie and the remaining decide to go swimming. In how many ways can the
group of people going for swimming be formed, if there must be at least four persons in
each group?
A) 1584 B) 1682
C) 1782 D) 1884
31. In the series given below, all the numbers follow a particular pattern. Find the number
which will replace the question mark (?) in the series:
2, 8, 26, ?, 242
A) 72 B) 78
C) 80 D) 82
32. In a certain code language 765 means ‘Man illness Hard-working’; 478 means ‘Illness
Hard Blood-pressure’; whereas 826 means ‘Blood-pressure Lazy Hard-working’, then for
which word the code ‘8’ has been used?
A) Illness B) Man
C) Hard D) Blood-pressure
33. If ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’; ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’; ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is
father of Q’; and ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’, then which of the following represents
‘W is grandmother of H’?
A) W ÷ T + H B) W ÷ T – H
C) W × T + H D) W + T – H
34. Given below is a pair of words that have a certain relationship to each other. Choose the
alternative from the choices given that has the same relationship.
KNIFE : CHOPPER
A) WALKING : FITNESS B) LUNCH : DINNER
C) SCISSORS : CLOTH D) QUILT : BLANKET
Directions (Questions 35-36): Read the information given below carefully and answer the
questions 35 and 36.
Rohit, Kunal, Ashish and John are students of a school. Three of them stay far from the school and
one near it. Two students study in class IV, one in class V and one in class VI. They all study Hindi,
Mathematics, Social Science and General Science. One is good at all the four subjects and another
is weak in all of these. Rohit stays far from the school and is good at Mathematics only, while Kunal
is weak in Mathematics only and stays near to school. Neither of these two nor Ashish studies in
class VI. One who is good at all subjects studies in class V.
35. Name the boy who is good at all the subjects?
A) Rohit B) Kunal
C) Ashish D) John
36. Which two boys are good in the subject of Hindi?
A) Rohit and Kunal B) Kunal and Ashish
C) Ashish and John D) John and Rohit

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 37. Davinder walks towards the East and then towards North and then turning 1350 towards
right walks for a while and lastly turns towards left. In which direction is he walking now?
A) North B) East
C) South-East D) North-East
38. A clock is set to show the correct time at 7.00 AM on Monday. Then clock loses 15 minutes
every 24 hours. What will be the true time when the clock indicates 6.00 AM on the
following Friday?
A) 6.15 AM Friday B) 6.30 AM Friday
C) 7.00 AM Friday D) 7.15 AM Friday
Directions (Questions 39-40): Read the information given below carefully and answer the
questions 39 and 40.
In the Bournvita Quiz contest held last year, the participants were given the freedom to choose their
respective area from which they were asked questions. Out of a total of 880 participants, 224 chose
Mythology, 240 chose Science and 336 chose Sports. 64 chose both Sports and Science; whereas
80 chose both Mythology and Sports, 40 chose Mythology and Science and 24 participants chose
all the three areas.
39. What is the percentage of participants who did not choose any area?
A) 9.09% B) 27.27%
C) 30.25% D) 37.46%
40. What was the total number of participants who chose at least two areas?
A) 24 B) 112
C) 136 D) 240
41. Calculate the minimum design value of the safe stopping sight distance (in metres), as
per IRC: 73-1980 guidelines, for a vehicle travelling at a speed of 30 km/h?
Given: The coefficient of longitudinal friction as 0.40 and perception & brake reaction time
as 2.5 seconds.
A) 20 B) 30
C) 40 D) 50
42. In the design of plain jointed rigid pavements, the flexural stress due to the axle load of 16
tonnes is 10.45 kg/cm2. The concrete mix for the slab is designed for the modulus of
rupture of 45 kg/cm2. Calculate the number of allowable repetitions of a given axle load
in a cement concrete slab of 320mm thickness with modulus of subgrade reaction of 8
kg/cm2/cm?
A) 62700000 B) 52000000
C) Unlimited D) 0
43. The desirable length of the overtaking zone, as per IRC guidelines, is
A) 3 times the overtaking sight B) 5 times the overtaking sight
distance distance
C) 7 times the overtaking sight D) 9 times the overtaking sight distance
distance
44. As per IRC:37-2012 guidelines, for the calculation of equivalent cumulative standard axle
load repetitions in a four lane single carriageway road, the design should be based upon:
A) 40 per cent of the total number B) 50 per cent of the total number of
of commercial vehicles in both commercial vehicles in both directions
directions

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 C) 60 per cent of the total number of D) 75 per cent of the total number of
commercial vehicles in both commercial vehicles in both directions
directions
45. What would be the design value of the curve lead (in metres) for a 1-in-8.5 turnout taking
off from a straight broad gauge track, with 90 R rails, using Cole’s method?
A) 20.6 B) 22.6
C) 24.6 D) 28.6
46. The removal of parallax, in a theodolite, can be achieved by which one of the following
processes?
A) By refocusing the objective B) By refocusing the eyepiece
C) By properly levelling the D) By permanent adjustment
instrument
47. The bearing of the sun at local noon, observed with a prismatic compass, was 184030’. If
the bearing of a line, measured with the compass, was found to be 15030’, then what
would be the true bearing of the line?
A) 11000’ B) 15030’
C) 20000’ D) cannot be estimated with given data
48. Which of the following errors can be eliminated by taking the mean of both the faces of
theodolite?
A) Error due to imperfect graduation B) Errors due to imperfect leveling
C) Errors due to imperfect veniers D) Errors due to line of collimation not
being perpendicular to the
horizontal axis
49. Reciprocal levelling in surveying eliminates which one of the following errors?
A) Errors due to earth’s curvature, B) Errors due to earth’s curvature, line of
atmospheric correction and collimation and mistakes in recording
mistakes in recording staff staff readings
readings
C) Errors due to atmospheric D) Errors due to earth’s curvature,
correction, line of collimation and atmospheric correction and line of
mistakes in recording staff collimation
readings
50. In solving a three point problem, using trial and error method, the strength of fix is good
under which one of the following situations?
A) The station occupied by the B) The station occupied by the plane
plane table lies within the circle table lies within the triangle formed
passing through the three points by three points.
C) The station occupied by the D) None of the above
plane table lies near the circle
passing through the three points
51. In two-way slabs, reinforcement is provided in both directions i.e. along the shorter span
as well as the longer span, one above the other. Of these two, the reinforcement which
will be at bottom
A) is the reinforcement along the B) is the reinforcement along the longer
shorter span span

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 C) can be any of the two i.e. either D) is the reinforcement along the shorter
along shorter or longer span span if span ratio is less than 1.5 and
along the longer span if span ratio is
more than 1.5.
52. In over reinforced RCC sections, strain in extreme compression fibre will be equal to
______________.
A) Strain in steel B) 0.35%
C) (0.87 fy/Es) + 0.002 D) Zero
Where fy and Es have usual meanings.
53. An RCC beam is hanging from the slab with the help of tie rods. If the beam is subjected
to a UDL of intensity ‘w’ kN/m, then the critical section for shear in the beam will be located
at _______________.
A) the centre of the beam B) a distance ‘d’ from the face of the
support, where ‘d’ is effective depth of
the beam
C) the face of the support D) the centre of the support
54. An RCC column of 600 mm x 600 mm is subjected to an axial load of 2000 kN and a
moment of 50 kN.m about any one of its axis. If the unsupported length of the column is
5m, then the column will be designed for which one of the following?
A) Axial load of 2000 kN only B) Axial load of 2000 kN & a moment of
50 kN.m
C) Axial load of 2000 kN & a D) Axial load of 2000 kN & a moment 200
moment of 60 kN.m kN.m
55. A footing 3 m x 3 m in plan and 600 mm thick (500 mm effective depth) is provided under
a column carrying a load of 900 kN. If the size of the column is 300 mm x 300mm, then
the punching stress (neglect self-weight of the footing) in the footing would be
_______________.
A) 0.522 N/mm2 B) 0.662 N/mm2
2
C) 1.50 N/mm D) 1.80 N/mm2
56. Bolts made by forming hexagonal mild steel rods, which are finished by turning to a circular
shape, are called ____________.
A) Black bolts B) Turned bolts
C) HSFG bolts D) Unfinished bolts
57. Maximum effective slenderness ratio allowed in tension members in which a reversal of
direct stress occurs due to loads other than wind or seismic is __________.
A) 180 B) 350
C) 400 D) No limit
58. For a buckling compression member in the plane perpendicular to the plane of truss, the
effective length may be taken as __________.
A) 0.7 times actual length B) 0.85 times actual length
C) actual length D) 2.0 times actual length
59. If the moment of resistance of an ISMB mild steel beam (fy=250 N/mm2) as calculated by
the working stress method of design is 100 kN.m, then tentatively its plastic moment of
resistance will be ____________.
A) 100 kN.m B) 114 kN.m
C) 150 kN.m D) 172 kN.m

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 60. The limiting width to thickness ratio for the outstanding element of a compression flange
of rolled compact section (fy=250 N/mm2) is __________.
A) 9.4 B) 10.5
C) 13.6 D) 15.7
61. The soil deposits which are transported by wind are known as _________.
A) Alluvial deposits B) Lacustrine deposit
C) Aeolian deposit D) Marine deposit
62. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. A partially saturated soil sample is an example of three-phase system.
2. The submerged density of a soil sample is equal to the saturated density divided
by (1+ water content expressed as a fraction)
3. Void ratio of a soil sample is defined as the ratio of volume of voids to the volume
of soil solids.
A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3
63. The y-intercept of Mohr-Coulomb’s failure envelope is equal to __________.
A) Cohesion B) maximum shear stress
C) maximum normal stress D) angle of shearing resistance
64. In the hydrometer method, the hydrometer when inserted into the cylinder containing soil-
water suspension gives which one of the following?
A) Density of soil suspension at the B) Density of soil suspension at the top of
bottom of bulb bulb
C) Cumulative percent finer at top of D) Density of soil suspension at the
bulb centre of bulb
65. The foundation or footing in which a beam is provided to join the two independent footings,
is known as _____________.
A) strip footing B) strap footing
C) raft footing D) isolated footing
66. Vicat mould used in the Vicat’s apparatus for determination of the consistency of standard
cement paste, has a height of _____________.
A) 40±0.2 mm B) 50±0.2 mm
C) 60±0.2 mm D) 70±0.2 mm
67. It is required to irrigate a strip of land from a tube well with a discharge of 0.01 cumecs. If
the infiltration capacity of soil is 5cm/hour and the average depth of flow on field is 15cm,
then what would be the maximum area (in square meter) that can be irrigated from this
tube well?
A) 360 B) 720
C) 1440 D) 2880
68. The provision of suitable breaching section in tank is considered as a desirable precaution
against their failure by breaching in tank irrigation for the case of which one of the
following?
A) Isolated tank B) Grouping of tanks
C) Both A) and B) D) Breaching never occurs

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 69. The question consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these items using the options given below.
Assertion (A): Lacey’s regime theory is applicable to channels in both initial regime and
final regime
Reason (R): The channels which have achieved only a working stability due to rigidity of
their banks are known as channels of initial regime.
A) Both A and R are true and R is B) Both A and R are true and R is not the
the correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false D) A is false but R is true
70. The question consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these items using the options given below.
Assertion (A): Whenever waterlogging occurs in an area the salinity also occurs in that
area.
Reason (R): Poor aeration of plant occurs due to waterlogging.
A) Both A and R are true and R is B) Both A and R are true and R is not
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false D) A is false but R is true
71. In a Newtonian fluid, which of the following statement(s) is correct?
I) Shear stress is directly proportional to shear strain.
II) Shear stress is directly proportional to time rate of shear strain.
III) Shear stress is directly proportional to velocity gradient.
IV) Shear stress is inversely proportional to velocity gradient.
A) Only I) B) Only IV)
C) Both I) and III) D) Both II) and III)
72. A rectangular tank, 1.5 m wide and 6.0 m high contains water up to a height of 5.0 m. If
the pressure measured at a certain point below the free surface is 19.62 kN/m2, then what
would be the pressure at a height 2.0 m below the measured point, in kN/m2?
A) 19.62 B) 39.24
C) 29.43 D) 49.05
73. If a tank, having an orifice of diameter 30 mm contains oil of specific gravity 0.8 flowing
under a pressure of 0.80 bar (gauge), then what would be the theoretical velocity of oil, in
m/sec, at venacontracta?
A) 8.14 B) 14.14
C) 19.28 D) 28.28
74. When all the air under the nappe of weir is removed by dynamic action of liquid, then that
the type of nappe is known as _______________.
A) Free nappe B) Drown nappe
C) Adhering nappe D) Separated nappe
75. For the case of the water hammer in a pipe of length L and velocity of pressure wave C,
the slow closure of the valve is defined as the one in which the time of valve closure is
greater than __________.
A) 2L/C B) 2C/L
C) L/2C D) C/2L
76. If a liquid flowing in a pipe of cross-sectional area A1 with velocity V1 gets suddenly
expanded to cross-sectional area A2 with velocity V2, then the head loss due to sudden
expansion of pipe can be expressed as _____________.

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 𝒗𝟐𝟐 𝑨 𝟐 𝑣22 𝐴 2
A) 𝒉𝒍 = ( 𝟐 − 𝟏) B) ℎ𝑙 = ( 1 − 1)
2𝑔 𝐴
𝟐𝒈 𝑨 𝟏 2
𝑣22 𝐴2 2 𝑣22 𝐴 2
C) ℎ𝑙 = 2𝑔
(1 + 𝐴 ) D) ℎ𝑙 = 2𝑔
(1 + 𝐴1 )
1 2
77. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to a venturimeter?
A) Length of the diverging B) Length of the diverging section of
section of venturimeter is venturimeter is less than length of the
more than length of the converging section of the
converging section of the venturimeter.
venturimeter.
C) Length of the diverging section of D) Length of the diverging section of
venturimeter is equal to length of venturimeter is always equal to the
the converging section of the length of the throat of the venturimeter.
venturimeter.
78. The total head in a flow is the sum of ________________.
A) Piezometric head + datum head B) Piezomteric head + pressure head
C) Piezometric head + velocity D) Piezometric head + velocity head+
head datum head
79. A 2% solution of a sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 degree centigrade. If the
depletion of oxygen is found to be 4 ppm, then what would be the BOD5 of the sewage?
A) 100 ppm B) 200 ppm
C) 400 ppm D) 800 ppm
80. The ball test is conducted in a newly laid sewer pipes for the testing of which one of the
following?
A) Strength of the pipe B) Obstruction present in the pipe
C) Straightness of the pipe D) Pressure testing of pipe.
81. At the bottom of the bowl shaped urinal vessel, an outlet horn is provided for connecting
the urinal vessel to the soil pipe through a ___________.
A) P trap B) S trap
C) Nahni trap D) Cistern
82. Following are the different types of method of irrigation
I. Furrow irrigation.
II. Sprinkler irrigation
III. Drip irrigation.
Arrange the above irrigation methods in decreasing order of their wetting area of the soil
surface.
A) I, II, III B) II, III, I
C) III, I, II D) II, I, III
83. Which of the following are the methods of subsurface exploration for a newly planned
irrigation project?
I. Test pits
II. Drifts
III. Bore holes
IV. Electrical resistivity methods
A) I and III only B) I, II and III only
C) I, III and IV only D) I, II, III and IV

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 84. The ratio of the depth below full supply level of the crest of an outlet to the full supply depth
of the channel at that point is known as _______________.
A) Setting B) Minimum modular head ratio
C) Drowning ratio D) Modular limits
85. The discharge required at the head of the canal for an irrigation project is 3.6 cumecs. If
the capacity factor is 0.8 and the time factor is 0.6, then what would be the design
discharge, in cumecs, of the canal?
A) 1.73 B) 2.70
C) 4.80 D) 7.50
86. The following data were recorded from an irrigation field.
Field capacity of soil = 20 percent.
Permanent wilting point = 13 percent.
Permissible depletion of available moisture = 60 percent.
Dry density of the soil = 1.30 g/cc
Effective depth of root zone = 70 cm.
What would be the available moisture for the plant, in percentage, for that field?
A) 4.20 B) 7.0
C) 15.80 D) 17.20
87. As per IS 1077: 1992, for a brick of class designation 30 (average compressive strength
not less than 30 N/mm2), when tested for water absorption in accordance with IS 3495
(Part 2): 1992, after immersion in cold water for 24 hours, the water absorption (% by
mass of brick) shall not be more than ______.
A) 15% B) 20%
C) 25% D) 30%
88. The Le Chateliers method, as per IS: 4031 (Part 3)-1988, is used for determining which
one of the following properties of cement?
A) Setting times B) Soundness
C) Abrasion resistance D) Fineness
89. What is the top diameter (internal dimension, in mm) of the mould used for measuring the
slump value of concrete, as per Indian Standards?
A) 100 B) 150
C) 200 D) 300
90. The Marshall Method is used for the mix design of which one of the following?
A) Concrete mixes B) Granular mixes
C) Bituminous mixes D) Cement mortar mixes
91. “mYN Pu~tbwl Kyfdw hW” vwk ivc ivAwkrn Anuswr ‘Pu~tbwl’ Sbd kI hY?
A) nWv B) ikirAw
C) ivSySx D) krqw kwrk
92. “mYN Gry hI rhWgw” vwk dI ikirAw dw kwl ikhVw hY?
A) BUqkwl B) vrqmwn kwl
C) Biv~Kq kwl D) Ainsicq kwl
93. Su~D Sbd-joV cuxo:
A) suMJ B) suMg
C) suMG D) suMZ

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 94. “is~kw jMmxw” muhwvry dw shI ivklp ikhVw hY?
A) pYsy joVny B) is~ky iek~Ty krny
C) is~ky dw jnm hoxw D) rohb pY jwxw
95. “sO isAwxy ie~ko m~q ………..” AKwx nUM pUrw krn leI Fu~kvW vwk-AMS cuxo:
A) ie~ko mUrK mwry g~p B) mUrK Awpo AwpxI
C) mUrK mwry AwpxI D) mUrK mwry ie~ko l~q
96. ijhVy Sbd do SbdW, do vwkW jW do vwkWSW nMU Awps ivc joVn dw kMm krn auhnW nMU kI kihMdy hn:
A) sMbMDk B) Xojk
C) ivsmk D) ivSySx
97. hNY! hNY! Sbd ivsmk dI ikhVI iksm hY?
A) hYrwnI-vwck ivsmk B) pRSMsw-vwck ivsmk
C) sMboDnI-vwck ivsmk D) Sok-vwck ivsmk
98. 'mYnUM GVI-GVI qMg nw kr' vwk ivclw 'GVI-GVI' iks pRkwr dw ikirAw-ivSySx hY?
A) kwl-vwck ikirAw-ivSySx B) sMiKAw-vwck ikirAw-ivSySx
C) sQwn-vwck ikirAw-ivSySx D) inScy-vwck ikirAw-ivSySx
99. ‘ic~tw', 'kwlw' Sbd ivAwkrn Anuswr kI hY?
A) ivSySx B) pVnWv
C) nWv D) ikirAw
100. ikhVw ju`t Anunwisk ivAMjnW dw hY?
A) k, p, c, t, T B) |, \, x, n, m
C) G, r, F, q, Q D) X, r, l, v, V

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