Test 1 - Indian Polity - I-Answer Key

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
PRESTORMINGTM
TEST 1 – INDIAN POLITY - I - EXPLANATION KEY
1. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Traditional direct legislation comes in three different varieties: the initiative, the referendum and the recall. In
modern times, the oldest of these is the referendum, which often lead almost directly to the later introduction
of the initiative and the recall.
2. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
 Under Art. 332(1), seats are to be reserved for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (excluding the
tribes in the autonomous districts of Assam) in the State Legislative Assemblies. No reservation recruitment
of Judges.
3. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
 The recently enacted Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013
gives a detailed definition of ‘manual scavenger’ as:
 “a person engaged or employed, at the commencement of this Act or at any time thereafter, by an individual
or local authority or an agency or a contractor, for manually cleaning, carrying, disposing of, or otherwise
handling in any manner, human excreta in an insanitary latrine or in an open drain or pit into which the
human excreta from the insanitary latrines is disposed of, or on a railway track or in such other spaces or
premises, as the Central Government of a State Government may notify, before the excreta fully
decomposes in such manner as may be prescribed…”
 In practice, these definitions are incomplete. It is important, therefore, to turn to other social and historical
materials to understand what manual scavenging really means
 Section 2 (1) (d) of the Act says that “hazardous cleaning” by an employee, in relation to sewer or septic
tank, means its manual cleaning by such employee without the employer fulfilling his obligations to provide
protective gear and other cleaning devices and ensuring observance of safety precautions, as may be
prescribed or provided in any other law, for the time being, till the rules to fully implement the Act come
into force.
 Section 2 (1) (e) of the Act says that “insanitary latrine” means a latrine which requires human excreta to be
cleaned or otherwise handled manually, either in situ, or in an open drain or pit into which the excreta is
discharged or flushed out, before excreta fully decomposes in such manner as may be prescribed. At the
same time, it says that a water flush latrine in a railway passenger coach, when cleaned by an employee with
the help of such devices and using such protective gear, as the Central government may notify, shall not be
deemed to be an insanitary latrine.
 The Indian Railways is one of the major promoters of manual scavenging, and by this Act it is exempted from
the definition of insanitary latrines. So, the Indian Railways will continue to practice manual scavenging.
Water flush latrine in a railway passenger coach at railway stations will make someone to clean manually
human excreta, and the practice will continue to prevail like before.
4. Ans: (b)
Explanation: Article 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 is available only for citizens. Rest of Fundamental Rights available for
foreigners also.
5. Ans: (b)
Explanation: Self Explanatory
6. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The grounds for Preventive detention are:
1. Security of state,
2. Maintenance of public order,
3. Maintenance of supplies and essential services and defense,
4. Foreign affairs or security of India.
A person can appeal against his prevent detention.
7. Ans: (c)
Explanation: RTE act doesn’t require ratification by the states.
8. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The scheme will be implemented through Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) during the current financial
year to provide social security during old age and protect elderly persons aged 60 years and above against a
future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions. The scheme will provide an assured
pension based on a guaranteed rate of return of 8% per annum for ten years, with an option to opt for pension
on a monthly / quarterly / half yearly and annual basis. The differential return, i.e., the difference between the
return generated by LIC and the assured return of 8% per annum would be borne by Government of India as
subsidy on an annual basis.
9. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
10. Ans: (d)
11. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The legal rights are protected by an ordinary law, but they can be altered or taken away be the legislature by
changing that law. Fundamental Rights are protected and Guaranteed by the Constitution and they cannot be
taken away by an ordinary law enacted by the legislature. If a legal right of a person is violated, he can move to
an ordinary court, but if a fundamental right is violated the Constitution provides that the affected person may
move to High court or Supreme Court. Here we should note that the Rights to Property was a fundamental right
before 1978. The Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978, taken away the Right to property (Article
31) as a Fundamental Right and was made a legal right under new Article 300 A.
 An ordinary right generally imposes a corresponding duty on another individual (and, state in some cases)
but a fundamental right is a right which an individual possess against the state.
 Fundamental rights are protected against invasion by the executive, legislature and the judiciary. All
fundamental rights are limitations on legislative power. Laws and executive actions which abridge or are in
conflict with such rights are void and ineffective.
 Our constitution guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental
rights. Thus the remedy itself is a fundamental right. This distinguishes it from other rights.
 The Supreme Court is the guardian of fundamental rights.
Further, all constitution rights not fundamental rights e.g. right not to be subjected to taxation without authority
of law (art. 265), right to property (art. 300a), and freedom of trade (art. 301). A fundamental right cannot be
waived. An ordinary legal right can be waived by an individual.
12. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
 First schedule contains the list of states and union territories and their territories
 Second schedule contains provisions of the President, Governors of States, Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
of the House of the People and the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the
Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of
the Legislative Council of a State, the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts and the
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India the list of states and union territories and their territories.
 Third Schedule contains the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations.
 Fourth Schedule contains provisions as to the allocation of seats in the Council of States.
 Fifth Schedule contains provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled
Tribes.
 Sixth Schedule contains provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
 Seventh Schedule contains the Union list, State list and the concurrent list.
 Eighth Schedule contains the list of recognized languages.
 Ninth Schedule contains provisions as to validation of certain Acts and Regulations.
 Tenth Schedule contains provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection.
 Eleventh Schedule contains the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats.
 Twelfth Schedule contains the powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities
13. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
 The Railway Ministry had requested the Union Finance Ministry to create ‘Rashtriya Rail Sanraksha Kosh’, a
‘non-lapsable’ safety fund of Rs. 20,000 crore over five years. Its request was based on the
recommendations of a high-level safety review committee headed by Dr. Anil Kakodkar, former Chairman
Atomic Energy Commission. The Committee, in its report submitted in 2012, had projected an investment
requirement of Rs. 1 lakh crore on safety over five years.
14. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
 Mercosur has five full member countries (Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, Venezuela), and two
associate members (Bolivia and Chile). The purpose of Mercosur is to promote free trade and the fluid
movement of goods, people, and currency.
 Mercosur has suspended Venezuela indefinitely in a symbolic show of force following President Nicolás
Maduro’s decision to push ahead with an election for an all-powerful constituent assembly, which critics fear
will crush the last vestiges of democracy in the crisis-ridden nation.
15. Ans: (a)
16. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
According to Supreme Court's 1969 ruling any settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another
country does not require a constitutional amendment
17. Ans:(a)
Explanation:
 Article 12 defines the “state” which includes:
 Government and Parliament of India
 Government and the Legislature of each of the States
 All local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
 The words “other authorities” and “under the control” are ambiguous and led to numerous litigations in the
Supreme Court. Thus, this article has been subject to judicial interpretation from time to time. Various
Supreme Court judgments have established that:
 Definition of state is inclusive and may include other bodies than executive, legislature of union and states
which have been enumerated explicitly in the article 12.
 Any such authority which has power to make any law, pass any order, make an regulation, bye-laws etc.
come under definition of state. Thus Panchayats, municipalities, district boards and other statutory,
constitutional bodies come within the definition of state.
 Statutory and non-statutory bodies that get financial resources from government, have deep pervasive
control of government and with functional characters as such as ICAR, CSIR, ONGC, IDBI, Electricity Boards,
NAFED, Delhi Transport Corporation etc. come under the definition of state.
 Statutory and Non-statutory bodies which are not substantially generally financed by the government don’t
come under definition of state. Examples are autonomous bodies, Cooperatives, NCERT etc.
 Judiciary is NOT state. Many opine that the judiciary should be included in the definition of the state.
18. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
 The purpose of instituting a formal service in Group ‘A’ category was initiated almost two years back when
the Ministry was formed and the union cabinet approved its creation on October 7, 2015. With notification
of this service the skill ecosystem is expected to get strengthened and modernised in line with the current
scientific and industrial development in the country.
 ISDS will be a Group ‘A’ service where induction will take place through Indian Engineering Service
Examination conducted by UPSC. It is an attempt to attract young and talented administrators for Skill
Development. The knowledge acquired by the engineers recruited will give new impetus to the initiative of
the government to the skill development and also efficient and effective implementation of the schemes. In
years to come the ministry will be able to create a workforce of trained skill administrators who will enable
us to achieve the goal of increased skilled youths. Administered training is paramount to face big challenge
of skilling Indians. Under the leadership of Prime Minister skill development has taken a priority with a hope
that Skill India mission will supply huge human resource not only in India but also Internationally. This is a
step forward to meet the target of skilling 500 million people by 2022.
 The Training Directorate is involved in implementation of various schemes like Craftsmen Training Scheme
(CTS) covering 126 trades, Apprenticeship Training Scheme (ATS) covering 259 trades and Skill Development
Initiative Scheme (SDIS) for the Modular Employable Skill (MES) covering 578 modules. The Training
Directorate also conducts examinations and awards certificates under National Council of Vocational
Training (NCVT), they also organise advance skill training supervisory training staff training through its
various field institutes spread across country.
 The Indian Skill Development Service (ISDS) will have 263 all India posts. The cadre shall comprise of 3 posts
at Senior Administrative Grade, 28 posts at Junior Administrative Grade, 120 posts at Senior Time Scale and
112 posts at Junior Time Scale. The Academy for training of the cadre will be National Institute of Skill
Development.
19. Ans: (b)

Explanation:BRIDGE
 It is the Indo-Oman Air Exercise.
 he fourth edition of BRIDGE was held at Air Force Station at Jamnagar.
 The Royal Air Force of Oman (RAFO) participated with its F-16 Air defence fighters and this is the first time
that RAFO F-16s are participating in an air exercise outside the Gulf Countries.
20. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
 Organizing the All India Whips Conference is one of the functions assigned to the Ministry of Parliamentary
affairs, under Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 made under article 77(3) of the
Constitution. However, in view of the important role played by Whips in the smooth running of the
Parliament, the first All India Whips Conference was held, in September, 1952 at Indore – in the first year
after the first general elections in the country. 13 Whips Conferences have been held so far. The 14th All
India Whips Conference is now being organised on 4-5 February, 2008 in the Central Hall of Maharashtra
Legislature, Mumbai.
 In the parliamentary form of Government, Whips of various political parties are the vital links of the internal
organization of parties, inside the legislatures. The efficient and smooth functioning of Parliament and State
Legislatures depends, to a considerable extent, upon the office of the Whip. The Whips can be rightly said to
be the managers of the parties within the legislatures.
21. Ans: (a)

Explanation: SALIENT FEATURES OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS IN INDIA CONSTITUTION
1. Integral part of the Constitution: Fundamental Rights have been made an integral part of the Constitution
and hence cannot be taken away by ordinary legislation. Any law passed by any legislature in the country
would be declared null and void if it is derogatory to the rights guaranteed by the Constitution.
2. Comprehensive and detailed: The rights enumerated in the Part III of the Constitution are very elaborate.
Each Article has been described with its scope and limitations.
3. Lack of social and Economic Rights: The Constitution guarantees only civil rights and freedoms. Rights like
Rights to work, Right to Health, and Right to Social Security have not been included in the Fundamental
Rights.
4. Rights are qualified: The fundamental rights of the people are not absolute except the right against
untouchability. They are qualified with limitations and reasonable restrictions in the collective interest of the
society. While describing the scope of each right, the Constitution also describes its limitations. These have
been laid down for protecting public health, public order, morality and security of India. Some exceptions are
also provided to Fundamental Rights through their non-applicability to members of security and law and
order related forces, during martial law and, for certain laws necessary for socio-economic reforms.
5. Enforceability of Rights: Fundamental Rights have been made Justiciable. Justiciable rights means if any of
these rights are violated by the government or anyone else, the individual has the right to approach the
Supreme Court or High Courts for the protection and enforcement of his/her Fundamental Rights. Thus, the
Constitution not only grants but also guarantees these rights. There are elaborate instruments to protect
these rights, such as Right to Constitutional remedy, Public Interest Litigation, Human Rights Commissions.
6. Fundamental Rights are amendable: Fundamental Rights are not sacrosanct and permanent. Parliament has
the power to amend any part of the Constitution including Fundamental Rights. The Fundamental Rights,
despite having inviolable nature, can be amended by the Parliament, subject to the ‘basic structure’ of the
Constitution. The Parliament has, in practice, exercised this power on several occasions.
7. Provision for the Suspension of Rights: The Constitution provides for suspension of all or any of the
Fundamental Rights during an emergency. However, such a suspension automatically ends when the
emergency ceases or when the President withdraws it.
8. Constitutional superiority of Fundamental Rights: The Fundamental Rights of the citizens are superior to
ordinary laws and the Directive Principals of State when the President withdraws it.
9. Special Rights for the minorities: The Fundamental Rights guarantee some special rights to the minorities of
various kinds. This is apart from the guarantee of the secular nature of the Constitution. Cultural and
educational rights have been granted to them. It abolishes untouchability and makes it a crime. It has also
granted special protections to women, children and the weaker sections of society.
10. No natural rights: The chapter on Fundamental Rights is not based on theory of ‘natural rights’. Natural
rights are said to belong to man by ‘nature’ and are inalienable from him. It is claimed that man possessed
these rights even before the (concept of) State came into existence. Accordingly, natural rights do not owe
their existence to their enumeration in the constitution. The Constitution of India does not give any
recognition to natural or un-enumerated rights. People of India are guaranteed only those rights which are
mentioned in Part III of the Constitution.
11. Right to Property not a Fundamental Rights: Right to property which is a feature of particularly liberal
democracies is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India. Actually, the original Constitution as in 1949
granted to the citizens the fundamental right to property. However, because of the hindrances posed by this
rights in the way of implementation of some socio-economic reforms, right to property was deleted from the
list of Fundamental Rights. It was made a legal right under Article 300A. Thus, now right to property is a legal
right and not a Fundamental Right of the people.
Now, we shall see the provisions in Part III of Constitution in the sequence of articles.
22. Ans:(b)
Explanation:
 At first glance, the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016, passed in Parliament,
seems progressive. It prohibits “the engagement of children in all occupations and of adolescents in
hazardous occupations and processes” wherein adolescents refers to those under 18 years; children to those
under 14. The Act also imposes a fine on anyone who employs or permits adolescents to work. However, on
careful reading, the new Act suffers from many problems. One, it has slashed the list of hazardous
occupations for children from 83 to include just mining, explosives, and occupations mentioned in the
Factory Act. This means that work in chemical mixing units, cotton farms, battery recycling units, and brick
kilns, among others, have been dropped. Further, even the ones listed as hazardous can be removed,
according to Section 4 — not by Parliament but by government authorities at their own discretion.
 Two, section 3 in Clause 5 allows child labour in “family or family enterprises” or allows the child to be “an
artist in an audio-visual entertainment industry”. Since most of India’s child labour is caste-based work, with
poor families trapped in intergenerational debt bondage, this refers to most of the country’s child labourers.
The clause is also dangerous as it does not define the hours of work; it simply states that children may work
after school hours or during vacations. Think of the plight of a 12-year-old coming home from school and
then helping her mother sow umpteen collars on shirts to meet the production deadline of a contractor.
23. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
 The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) is an office within the Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology. It is the nodal agency to deal with cyber security threats like hacking and phishing.
 To combat cyber security violations and prevent their increase, Government of India’s Computer Emergency
Response Team (CERT-in) in February 2017 launched ‘Cyber Swachhta Kendra’ (Botnet Cleaning and
Malware Analysis Centre) a new desktop and mobile security solution for cyber security in India.
 The centre is operated by CERT-in under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The solution,
which is a part of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology’s Digital India initiative, will detect
botnet infections in India and prevent further infections by notifying, enable cleaning and securing systems
of end-users. It functions to analyze BOTs/malware characteristics, provides information and enables citizens
to remove BOTs/malwar and to create awareness among citizens to secure their data, computers, mobile
phones and devices such as home routers.
 The Cyber Swachhta Kendra is a step in the direction of creating a secure cyber ecosystem in the country as
envisaged under the National Cyber Security Policy in India. This centre operates in close coordination and
collaboration with Internet Service Providers and Product/Antivirus companies to notify the end users
regarding infection of their system and providing them assistance to clean their systems, as well as industry
and academia to detect bot infected systems. The centre strives to increase awareness of common users
regarding botnet, malware infections and measures to be taken to prevent malware infections and secure
their computers, systems and devices
24. Ans: (d)
25. Ans: (a)
26. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
 The AFSPA was enacted in 1958 to bring ‘disturbed’ areas declared under it under control. It empowers both
state and central government to declare areas as ‘disturbed’ due to differences or disputes between
members of different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities.
 Declaration of Disturbed area: The section (3) of the Act empowers governor of State/UT to issue an official
notification in Gazette of India, following which Centre has authority to send in armed forces for civilian aid.
Once declared ‘disturbed’, the region has to maintain status quo for a minimum of three months.
27. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
 The DTTI is not a treaty or a law. It is a flexible mechanism to ensure that senior leaders from our nations are
persistently focused on the opportunities and challenges associated with growing our defense partnership.
The DTTI aims to:
 Transform the bilateral defense relationship into one that is limited only by independent strategic decisions,
rather than bureaucratic obstacles or inefficient procedures.
 Strengthen India’s defense industrial base by moving away from the traditional “buyer-seller” dynamic
toward a more collaborative approach.
 Explore new areas of technological collaboration from science and technology cooperation through co-
development and co-production.
 Expand U.S.-Indian business ties.
28. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
 Andhra Pradesh is well known globally for variety of rocks & minerals and called as ‘Ratna Garbha’, A State
endowed with variety of minerals.
 After the death of Potti Sriramulu, the state of Andhra was created in 1953 so that it was the first linguistic
state of India
 On 1 November 1956 Andhra State and the Telangana region of Hyderabad State were merged to form the
united Telugu-speaking State of Andhra Pradesh. Non-Telugu-speaking parts of Hyderabad State were
merged with Maharashtra State and Karnataka State.
 Chhattisgarh is historically called the “Rice Bowl of India”.
 Mineral heartland of India is Chota Nagpur region.
29. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The expanded scope of Article 21 has been explained further in the case of Unni Krishnan v. State of A.P.[viii] In
the case the court provided the list of some of the rights covered under Article 21. Some of them are listed
below:
 The right to go abroad
 The right to privacy
 The right to education
 The right against solitary confinement
 The right against hand cuffing
 The right against delayed execution
 The right to shelter
 Right to livelihood
 Right to health and medical aid
 The right against custodial death
 The right against public hanging
 Doctors assistance
The Right against Phone tapping is covered under Right to Freedom of speech and thought under Article 19.
30. Ans: (c)
31. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
A hyperloop is a proposed mode of passenger and/or freight transportation, first named as such in an open-
source vactrain design released by a joint team from Tesla and SpaceX. Drawing heavily from Robert Goddard's
vactrain, a hyperloop comprises a sealed tube or system of tubes through which a pod may travel free of air
resistance or friction conveying people or objects at optimal speed and acceleration.
32. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
 The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has notified the Graded Response
Action Plan to combat air pollution in NCR Delhi region.
 In this regard, MoEFCC amended laws and formally tasked a Supreme Court-appointed panel with
implementing a graded action plan for pollution control.
33. Ans: (b)

Explanation: Each province/princely states were allocated seats based on their Population
34. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
 It imposes restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of
India. Empower the Parliament to indemnify any government servant or others for any act done by him in
connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in any area where martial law was in force. So, Act
of Indemnify made by the Parliament beyond Judicial Review only on violation of the fundamental rights.
 Martial Law: (military rule) not described in Indian Constitution. Civil administration is run by the military
authorities according to their own rule and regulations framed outside the ordinary law, implying suspension
of ordinary law and the government by military tribunals. It is imposed under the extraordinary
circumstances like war, invasion, insurrection, rebellion, riot or any violent resistance to law to repel force by
force for maintaining or restoring order in the society.
 Abnormal powers including imposing restrictions and regulations on the rights of the civilians can punish the
civilians and even condemn them to death. The Supreme Court held that the declaration of martial law does
not ipso facto result in the suspension of the writ of habeas corpus.
35. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
 Outer Space Treaty. The Outer Space Treaty, formally the Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of
States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies, is a treaty
that forms the basis of international space law.
 India was one of the 18 members that formed an ad-hoc Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space at
the United Nations.
36. Ans: (a)

Explanation: The central government is persuading the state government to enact the model land leasing law
proposed by NITI Aayog.
What is the objective?
The bill aims to protect the interest of farmers by enabling farmers and farming groups to lease their land for
cultivation through a legal document, without dilution of ownership.
Since Land is a state subject, the model law should be enacted by all states.
What is the need of this bill?
 Land is not only the state subject but also an emotive issue in our country. Thus the legislation on land
should satisfy all the stakeholders.
 The need for new law arises after the government failed to amend the land acquisition law, 2015. The
amendment was criticized for facilitating the corporate to acquire any land.
What are the provisions?
 The bill legalizes land leasing and terms of lease to be determined mutually by landowner and tenant farmer.
 It allows automatic resumption of land on expiry of agreed lease period, without requiring any minimum
area criteria.
 The bill entitles and facilitates tenants access to short–term credit and crop insurance, based on a simple
lease agreement
 At present, in a natural calamity, the entire compensation amount is deposited in the name of the
landowner and farmers do not get anything. But the model law ensures the tenants get access to
institutional credit, insurance and compensation, without impacting the legal ownership right of the holder.
 The Bill would allow leasing in and leasing out of land for agriculture without any restrictions.
 It is also likely to propose setting up of tribunals for disputes, if local settlement mechanisms like Panchayats
fail.
 The model law remove clause of adverse possession of land in the land laws of various states.
 The bill also has provisions for termination of leasing based on certain conditions.
 NITI Aayog had consulted the states on the basis of land leasing laws enacted by respective states to make
the draft legislation adoptable to all states. Thus it fosters co-operative federalism.
37. Ans:(d)
Explanation:
Under UIP, Government of India is providing vaccination free of cost against ten vaccine preventable diseases i.e.
Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Measles, severe form of Childhood Tuberculosis, Hepatitis B and Meningitis
& Pneumonia caused by Hemophilus Influenza type B across the country; Japanese Encephalitis in JE endemic
districts and Rotavirus diarrhoea in selected states.
38. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
Biligirirangana Hills are located in Karnataka.
39. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
Accordingly under Article 19 (2), the state may make a law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of
the right to freedom of speech and expression ‘in the interest of’ the security of the State, public order, decency,
morality, sovereignty, and integrity of India, or ‘ in relation to contempt of Court, defamation or incitement to an
offence’. Sedition is not given explicitly.
40. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
Army Act and Navy Act etc. restrict mainly civil liberties under Article 19.
Article 33 curtails the following 4 fundamental rights -
 Freedom of speech.
 Right to form associations.
 Right to be a member of trade unions or political organizations.
 Right to communicate with the press, and attend public meetings or demonstrations.
The power to make laws with respect to Armed Forces is confined to only parliament
41. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The writ of certiorari issued to quash a decision after the decision is taken by a lower tribunal while prohibition is
issuable before the proceedings are completed. The law has always been, that a writ of certiorari is issued
against the acts or proceedings of a judicial or quasi-judicial body conferred with power to determine question
affecting the rights of subjects and obliged to act judicially. Since the Writ of certiorari is directed against the act,
order or proceedings of the subordinate Court, it can issue even if the lis is between two private parties. The
grounds for the issue of certiorari have been succinctly stated by the Supreme Court in Syed Yakoo v. K.S.
Radhakrishnan. The writ of certiorari or prohibition is issued, inter alia on the following grounds:
 When the body concerned proceeds to act without, or in excess of, jurisdiction, or
 fails to exercise its jurisdiction; or
 there is an error of law apparent on the face of the record in the impugned decision of the body; or
 the findings of fact reached by the inferior tribunal are based on no evidence; or
 it proceeds to act in violation of the principles of natural justice; or
 it proceeds to act under a law which is itself invalid, ultra vires or unconstitutional, or
 it proceeds to act in contravention of the Fundamental Rights.
Writ of certiorari is both preventive as well as curative
42. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The main federal features of the Indian Constitution are as follows:
 Written Constitution
 Supremacy of the Constitution
 Rigid Constitution
 Division of Powers
 Independent Judiciary
 Bicameral Legislature
 Dual Government Polity
43. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Second schedule lists the emoluments for holders of constitutional offices such as salaries of President, Vice
President, Judges and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
44. Ans:(b)
Explanation:
When is a drought declared?
The four indicators viz., rainfall deficiency, the extent of area sown, normalized difference vegetation index and
moisture adequacy index are usually applied in combination for drought declaration. The information on these
indicators is available at the level of Taluka / Tehsil / Block. Drought may be declared by the State Government at
these levels.
 Reiterating that the onus is entirely on the States to declare a drought, the Centre on Tuesday informed
the Supreme Court that it has released over Rs. 19,000 crore to States under the MNREGA scheme to
handle the crisis.
 In a hearing before a Bench of Justices Madan B. Lokur and N.V. Ramana, Additional Solicitor General
P.S. Narasimha said the duty of the Centre was to provide immediate relief to the States once the latter
exercises its authority to declare drought.
 Mr. Narasimha said it was for the States concerned to explain the delay in declaring drought and not on
the Centre to shoulder that burden in the Supreme Court.
 The Centre centred his response to this on the federal structure of governance in which a democratically
elected State government should take on the responsibility of analysing the ground situation in its
drought-hit areas, sounding the alarm and implementing relief works if necessary.
 He said that the provisions of the Disaster Management Act cannot be applied to all events of tragedy or
loss.
 On the issue of restructuring of crop loans to farmers, Mr. Narasimha said farmers suffering from the
drought are entitled to get their loans restructured in order to reschedule their payments.
 He submitted that to prevent leakages in the MGNREGA scheme, the government has introduced a
system for electronic transfer of wages directly to the beneficiaries in their bank account in 11 States.
 The hearing also saw The court express its dissatisfaction at the reply filed by Gujarat government and
directed it to file a detailed affidavit containing rainfall data.
 In the previous hearing on the PIL filed by NGO Swaraj Abhiyan to declare drought as a national
emergency, the court had slammed the Gujarat and Haryana governments for “hazy” presentation of
facts and outdated charts on rainfall data. Recently, the desert State of Rajasthan and 256 villages in
Gujarat had declared drought.
 The PIL had listed Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Maharashtra,
Gujarat, Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar, Haryana and Chhattisgarh as drought-hit.
 It had requested the court to examine the rainfall data in these States for the purpose of declaring
drought-affected areas, districts and taluks. It asked the court to intervene to find out about the
implementation of the National Food Security Act of 2013 and the availability of food grains, rice, dal,
edible oil, eggs and milk for children, etc, in these areas.
Source: The Hindu, April 20, 2016
45. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The Union Cabinet has given its approval to exclude State Governments States/UTs (with Legislature) except
Arunachal Pradesh, Delhi, Kerala and Madhya Pradesh from NSSF investments from 01.04.2016.
It also approved providing a one-time loan of Rs. 45,000 crore from NSSF to Food Corporation of India (FCI) to
meet its food subsidy requirements.
What is NSSF?
 Prior to April 1999, the disbursement of loans against small savings made to the States and repayment of
such loans were recorded in the capital account of the Consolidated Fund of India.
 The on-lending to States from the small savings collections was treated as part of Central Government‘s
expenditure and added to Central Government‘s fiscal deficit.
 Therefore an increase in small savings collections led to an increase in fiscal deficit.
 Hence National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) in the Public Account of India was established with effect from
1999.
 All small savings collections are credited to this Fund.
 Similarly, all withdrawals under small savings schemes by the depositors are made out of the accumulations
in this Fund.
46. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
 The Banks Board Bureau has its genesis in the recommendations of The Committee to Review Governance of
Boards of Banks in India, May 2014. Thereafter, on February 28, 2016, the Government of India, announced
the constitution and composition of the Bureau. The Bureau started functioning from April 01, 2016 as an
autonomous recommendatory body.
 As part of its mandate, and guided by a spirit of collaboration, the Bureau is engaging with various
stakeholders. The objective of such engagement being to help prepare the banks in the public sector
universe to take on the competition, have the ability to appropriately manage and price risk across business
cycles, develop resilience to generate internal capital and have the capacity to generate external capital
warding off the moral hazard in counting on the scarce budgetary resources of tax payers. The Bureau is also
engaging with the Public Sector Banks (PSBs) to help build capacity to attract, retain and nurture both talent
and technology - the two key differentiators of business competencies in the days to come. In its endeavour,
the Bureau is mindful of the need to have a fully empowered board in each and every PSB. While the Bureau
is working towards attracting the best personages on the boards, it is these boards which should drive the
overall strategy of a bank within its risk capacity and also act as custodians who should reconcile the diverse
interests of various stakeholders.
 The Banks Board Bureau is a public authority as defined in the Right to Information Act, 2005. As such, Banks
Board Bureau is obliged to provide information to members of public.
47. Ans: (a)
48. Ans: (d)

Explanation: The following are the basic or essential features of the Constitution according to the observations
of Judges of Supreme Court in different cases. There is no exact list of as to what these basic features are.
Kesavananda Bharati case
Chief Justice Sikri, C.J:
 Supremacy of the Constitution
 Republican and democratic form of government
 Secular character of the Constitution
 Separation of powers between the legislature, executive and the judiciary
 Federal character of the Constitution
Justices Shelat, J. and Grover, J.:
 The mandate to build a welfare state contained in the Directive Principles of State Policy.
 Unity and integrity of the nation
 Sovereignty of the country
Justices Hegde, J. and Mukherjea, J.:
 Democratic character of the polity
 Unity of the country
 Essential features of the individual freedoms secured to the citizens
 Mandate to build a welfare state Unity and integrity of the nation
Justice Jaganmohan Reddy, J.:
 Equality of status and the opportunity
 Sovereign democratic republic
 Justice – social, economic and political
 Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain, 1975:
Justice H.R. Khanna:
 Democracy is a basic feature of the Constitution and includes free and fair elections.
Justice K.K. Thomas:
 Power of judicial review is an essential feature.
Justice Y.V. Chandrachud:
 Sovereign democratic republic status
 Equality of status and opportunity of an individual
 Secularism and freedom of conscience and religion
 Government of laws and not of men i.e. the rule of law
Nachane, Ashwini Shivram v. State of Maharashtra, 1998:
 The doctrine of equality enshrined in Art.14 of the Constitution, which is the basis of the Rule of Law, is the
basic feature of the Constitution.
Raghunath Rao v. Union of India case, 1993:
 The unity and integrity of the nation and Parliamentary system.
R. Bommai v. Union of India,1994 and Poudyal v.Union of India, 1994:
 Secularism and “Democracy and Federalism are essential features of our Constitution and are part of its
basic structure.”
P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India (1987), L.Chandrakumar v. Union of India (1997), Waman Rao v. Union of
India(1981), Subhesh Sharma v. Union of India (1991), Minerva Mills v.Union of India(1980):
 “Judicial review is a part of the basic constitutional structure and one of the basic features of the essential
Indian Constitutional Policy.” Several Articles in the Constitution, such as Arts.32, 136, 226 and 227,
guarantee judicial review of legislation and administrative action.
Kihoto hollohan Vs. Zachillhu, 1992:
 Democracy is a part of thebasic structure of our Constitution, and rule of law; and free and fair elections
are basic features of democracy.
Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997):
 Chief Justice Sikri
 The supremacy of the constitution.
 A republican and democratic form of government.
 The secular character of the Constitution.
 Maintenance of the separation of powers.
 The federal character of the Constitution.
Justices Shelat and Grover
 Maintenance of the unity and integrity of India
 The sovereignty of the country
 The sovereignty of India
 The democratic character of the polity
 The unity of the country
 Essential features of individual freedoms
 The mandate to build a welfare state
In a plethora of various other cases:
 Independence of judiciary is a basic feature of the Constitution as it is the sine qua non of democracy
49. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Sixth Schedule, Tribal Areas and Autonomous District / Regional Councils. The Constitution of India makes special
provisions for the administration of the tribal dominated areas in four states viz. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram.
50. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction is an international treaty that
establishes procedures that provide for the prompt return of children wrongfully retained or removed from their
habitual residence.
51. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
The two-state solution refers to a solution of the Israeli–Palestinian conflict which calls for "two states for two
groups of people." The two-state solution envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of
Israel, west of the Jordan River.
52. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Chit funds in India are governed by the Chit Funds Act, 1982. Under this Act, the chit fund businesses can be
registered and regulated only by the respective State Governments.
53. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
 Ex-post-facto law, which is prohibited under Fundamental rights of the constitution, is applicable to criminal
law only.
 A person convicted by the court of law can be punished under departmental proceedings for the same
offence
54. Ans : (a)
55. Ans: (b)
56. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
Four Directive Principles were added by 42nd amendment as follows:
 To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39)
 To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A)
 To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A)
 To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
44th Amendment 1978
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added article 38(2) which said that state shall, in particular, strive to
minimize the inequalities in income, and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and
opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or
engaged in different vocations.
97th amendment 2011
 Article 43-B inserted by 97th amendment act in 2011 says that state shall endeavour to promote voluntary
formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative
societies.
 Further, the 86th amendment changed the subject of article 45 and brought it among fundamental rights as
article 21-A for children of 6-14 age. The same article was now a directive principle to state to take care of
the children below 6 years.
57. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016, which mandates that when the government gives subsidy, benefit or service
from the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI), an individual can be asked to undergo authentication or furnish proof
of possession of Aadhaar
58. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
 Tenualosa ilisha (ilish, hilsa, hilsa herring, or hilsa shad) is a species of fish in the herring family (Clupeidae),
and a popular food fish in South Asia. The fish contributes about 12% of the total fish production and about
1% of GDP in Bangladesh. About 450,000 people are directly involved with the catching for livelihood;
around four to five million people are indirectly involved with the trade. It is also the national fish of
Bangladesh. Hilsa fish ( Ilish in Bengali), has been accorded geographical identification (GI), which has tagged
the fish as a Bangladeshi product from August 2017.
 In Bangladesh and West Bengal during Poila Boishakh (the first day of the Bangali New Year), it is customary
to have ilish with panta bhat (Fermented Rice) typically at breakfast. The meal is the traditional way to
celebrate the Bengali New Year. It is the National Fish of Bangladesh.
59. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Pattiseema Lift Irrigation Project is a river interlinking project which connects Godavari River to Krishna River.
This project has thereby become the first of such irrigation type projects in the country to be completed in time
without any budget enhancements. It also holds a record in Limca Book of Records.
60. Ans: (d)

Explanation: Functions performed by Constituent Assembly:-
 Enacting of ordinary laws
 Adopted national flag- 22-07-1947
 Adopted national anthem- 24-01-1950
 Adopted national song- 24-01-1950
 Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad first President of India: 26-01-1950
61. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
If you're a citizen of India either by Birth, Descent or Registration or even by Naturalisation. You are eligible to
run for the office of the President of India.
62. Ans: (B)

Explanation:
Mandamus means “we command”. This writ is a command issued by court to a public official, public body,
corporation, inferior court, tribunal or government asking them to perform their duties which they have refused
to perform. Due to this, Mandamus is called a “wakening call” and it awakes the sleeping authorities to perform
their duty. Mandamus thus demands an activity and sets the authority in action. Mandamus cannot be issued
against the following:
 a private individual or private body.
 if the duty in question is discretionary and not mandatory.
 against president or governors of state
 against a working chief justice
 to enforce some kind of private contract.
63. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
 The Chagos Archipelago is a group of seven atolls comprising more than 60 islands in the Indian Ocean about
500 km south of the Maldives.
 It had been part of Mauritius till the 18th century
 Before Mauritian independence, in 1965, the UK split the archipelago from the territory of Mauritius to form
the British Indian Ocean Territory and permitted the US to use it for defence purposes for 50 years (until
December 2016) followed by a 20-year optional extension.
 Following this US Military Base was setup in Diego Garcia, the largest of the islands.
 2,000 inhabitants were resettled in Mauritius and the Seychelles.
 The UN resolutions banned the dismemberment of colonial territories before independence.
 Therefore Mauritius claims sovereignty over the islands and states that Britain’s claim is a violation of law
and of UN resolutions.
 The resettled inhabitants now number around 10,000 including their descendants and they wish to resettle.
 UK declared Marine Protected Area around Chagos in 2010, which prohibits fishing and extractive industry
and has the effect of preventing any resettlement.
 In 2015, the Permanent Court of Arbitration ruled this move as illegal under the United Nations Convention
on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
 According to PCA, Mauritius holds legally binding rights
 to fish in the waters surrounding the Chagos.
 to the eventual return of the Chagos to Mauritius when no longer needed for defence purposes
 to the preservation of the benefit of any minerals or oil discovered in the Chagos Archipelago pending its
eventual return
 In November 2016, the U.K. ruled out the resettlement of the islanders on the grounds of feasibility,
defence, security interests and the cost.
 UK also renewed the lease for Diego Garcia with US, up until 2036.
 Subsequently, Mauritius warned that it would push to take the matter to the International Court of Justice
(ICJ).
64. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
The vadose zone, also termed the unsaturated zone, is the part of Earth between the land surface and the top of
the phreatic zone, the position at which the groundwater (the water in the soil's pores) is at atmospheric
pressure.
65. Ans:(d)
Explanation: Corrupt practices. - The following shall be deemed to be corrupt practices for the purposes of this
act:-
[(1) "Bribery", that is to say-
(A) Any gift, offer or promise by a candidate or his agent or by any other person with the consent of a candidate
or his election agent of any gratification, to any person whomsoever, with the object, directly or indirectly of
inducing-
a. a person to stand or not to stand as, or [to withdraw or not to withdraw] from being a candidate at an
election, or
b. an elector to vote or refrain from voting at an election, or as a reward to-
i. a person for having so stood or not stood, or for [having withdrawn or not having withdrawn] his
candidature; or
ii. An elector for having voted or refrained from voting:
(B) the receipt of, or agreement to receive, any gratification, whether as a motive or a reward
(a) by a person for standing or not standing as, or for [withdrawing or not withdrawing] from being, a candidate;
or
(b) by any person whomsoever for himself or any other person for voting or refraining from voting, or inducing
or attempting to induce any elector to vote or refrain from voting, or any candidate [to withdraw or not to
withdraw] his candidature.
66. Ans: (a)

Explanation: The Indian Independence Act was based upon the Mountbatten plan of 3rd June 1947 and was
passed by the British parliament on July 5, 1947. It received royal assent on July 18, 1947.
Salient features
 It provided for two dominion states : India and Pakistan
 The boundaries between the two dominion states were to be determined by a Boundary Commission which
was headed by Sir Cyril Radcliff.
 It provided for partition of Punjab & Bengal and separate boundary commissions to demarcate the
boundaries between them.
 Pakistan was to comprise the West Punjab, East Bengal, Territories of the Sind, North West frontier
provinces, Syllhat divisions of Assam, Bhawalpur, khairpur, Baluchistan and 8 other princely states of
Baluchistan.
 The authority of the British Crown over the princely states ceased and they were free to join either India or
Pakistan or remain independent.
 Both the dominions of India and Pakistan were to have Governor Generals to be appointed by the British
King. The act also provided for a common Governor general if both of them agreed.
 The constituent assemblies of both the states were free to make constitutions of their respective countries.
 For the time being till the constitution was made, both of them would be governed in accordance with the
Government of India act 1935.
 Any modification or omission could be done by the Governor General.
 British Government would not continue any control on any dominion.
 The Governor General was invested with adequate powers until March 1948 to issue orders for effective
implementation of the provisions of the Indian independence act 1947.
 Those civil servants who had been appointed before the August 15, 1947, will continue in service with same
privileges.
67. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
 Indian Constitution is a federal Constitution. An ideal federation is one in which the constituent units enjoy
maximum autonomy consistent with the notions of unity of the nation. Moreover, such a federation is the
result of a contract among the States which are independent. This happened in the United States of America.
Thus, the federation in the USA was formed by the representatives of independent States. The Constitution
thus formed was also later ratified by the legislators of the States, which were parties to the contract. In
India, however, the makers of the Constitution merely picked up the idea from the Government of India Act,
1935 and introduced it in the Indian Constitution. It is an irony in India's constitutional history, that the
Government of India Act of 1935 (which was passed by the British Parliament), which the leaders of the
Indian National Congress wanted to destroy, became the foundation of many of the articles of the
Constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly. According to the Government of India Act, 1935, the idea
of federation was, to bring the British Indian Provinces and the Princes of Indian States together for a
Constitution for the whole of India. The Princes accepted the idea because they believed that in such a
federation, their interests would be safeguarded, as against popular revolt in their own States. The British
Government accepted the idea as it believed that as against the elected representatives of the Indian
National Congress, the Princes would vote with the British interest. Moreover, Indian Federation under the
Government of India Act 1935, was imposed upon the States from above. It was not evolved from bottom to
top as it happened in the United States of America. The framers of the Indian Constitution imposed the
federation of Indian people.
 A federal Constitution regulates the relations of the federal Government and the constituent units in
administrative, legislative and financial spheres. Such regulations have to take care of the legitimate interest
both of the federal Government and the constituent units and safeguard the limited autonomy of the
constituent units. This is not an easy task. The impression that an impartial reader of the Constitution of
India, gets, is that these provisions have conferred more powers on the federal Government at the cost of
the constituent units. Some provisions of the Constitution have gone to the extent of even destroying the
limited autonomy of the constituent units, in administrative sphere. This has happened in Article 356, which
provides for President's rule in the States. The background for the use of Article 356 is provided by Article
355 which reads as under:
 "It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance
and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this
Constitution."
 Thus, a duty is cast on the Union Government to protect every State. In jurisprudence, the concept of duty is
linked with the concept of power or authority. No organ of a State or any individual would be able to fulfil
the constitutional obligation cast on it, unless the Constitution also confers adequate powers on it for
fulfiling the obligation. Dr. Ambedkar explained the basis of Article 355 as under:
 "Now I come to Article 277-A present Article 355. Some people might think that Article 277-A is merely a
pious declaration that it might not to be there. The Drafting Committee has taken a different view and I
should therefore like to explain why it is that the Drafting Committee feels that Article 277-A ought to be
there."
 Under this act, the executive authority of the centre was vested in the Governor
 General on behalf of the Crown. The federal subjects were divided into two fold categories of Reserved and
Transferred subjects. The Reserved list comprised of subjects such as administration of defence, external
affairs, ecclesiastical affairs and matters related to tribal areas. These subjects were to administered by
Governor General in his discretion with the help of three counsellors appointed by him. They were not
responsible to legislative.
 The administration of the transferred subjects was to be done by Governor General on advice of the Council
of Ministers whose number could not exceed 10. The council of ministers had to command the confidence of
legislature. However, the Governor General could act on contrary to the advice of the Council of Ministers if
any of his ‘special responsibilities’ was involved in such act. However, in that case {when an act involved
special responsibilities}, the Governor General would work under the control and direction of the Secretary
of State.
 Further, the Governor General was also responsible for the coordination of work between the two wings and
for encouraging joint deliberations between the counsellors and the ministers.
68. Ans: (a)
69. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
 The judiciary has managed to increase the ambit of Article 21 of the constitution of India, through various
judicial pronouncements, to include the Right to healthy and clean environment to be a fundamental right
under right to life.
 Some of the Directive Principles of State Policy showed a slight inclination towards environmental protection
i.e. Art 39(b), Art 47, Art 48 and Art 49 individually and collectively impose a duty on the State to create
conditions to improve the general health level in the country and to protect and improve the natural
environment. Later through constitutional amendment two specific provisions i.e. Article 48-A and Article
51-A (g), have been added which imposes duty on state as well as the citizens of the state to protect and
conserve the environment.
 The Constitution of India originally adopted, did not contain any direct and specific provision regarding the
protection of natural environment. Perhaps, the framers of the Indian Constitution, at that time, considered
it as a negligible issue.
70. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
 Under the 1944 Convention on International Civil Aviation, articles 17–21, all aircraft have the nationality of
the state in which they are registered, and may not have multiple nationalities. For births, the law of the
aircraft's nationality is applicable, and for births that occur in flight while the aircraft is not within the
territory of any state, it is the only applicable law. However, if the aircraft is in or flying over the territory of
another state, that state may also have concurrent jurisdiction, and the locus in quo principle may apply to
the exact position of the aircraft when the birth occurred.
 There are still very few Member States that are party to the 1961 Convention. Furthermore, conflicts of laws
still exist, in particular between the laws of North and South American states, which typically adhere to the
jus soli principle, and the laws of European states, which usually adhere to the jus sanguinis principle.
 The U.S. exception:
 U.S. law holds that natural persons born on foreign ships docked at U.S. ports or born within the limit of U.S.
territorial waters are U.S. citizens
71. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
 In May 2015, Government approved the National Smart Grid Mission (NSGM) -an institutional mechanism
for planning, monitoring and implementation of policies and programs related to Smart Grid activities.
 What is Smart grid?
 A smart grid is an electrical grid with automation, communication and IT systems that can monitor power
flows from points of generation to points of consumption and control the power flow or curtail the load to
match generation on real-time basis. It involves two-way communication among the generating units, the
control centres of distribution utilities and the consumers.
 The smart grid enables increased, predictability and control of generation and demand through consumer
involvement, thus bringing flexibility in both generation and consumption, enabling the utility to better
integrate intermittent renewable generation and reducing costs of peak power. A smart grid is cost-
effective, responsive, and engineered for reliability of operations.
 At the apex level, NSGM has a Governing Council headed by the Minister of Power. Members of the
Governing Council are Secretary level officers of concerned Ministries and departments. Role of Governing
Council is to approve all policies and programme for smart grid implementation.
 At the second level, the NSGM has an Empowered Committee headed by Secretary (Power). Members of the
Empowered Committee are Joint Secretary level officers of concerned Ministries and departments. Role of
Empowered Committee is to provide policy input to Governing Council and approve, monitor, review specific
smart grid projects, guidelines / procedures etc.
 In a supportive role, NSGM has a Technical Committee headed by Chairperson (CEA). Members of the
Technical Committee are Director level officers of concerned Ministries & departments, representatives
from industries and academia. Role of Technical Committee is to support the Empowered Committee on
technical aspect, standards development, technology selection guidelines etc.
 For day-to-day operations, NSGM has a NSGM Project Management Unit (NPMU) headed by the Director
NPMU. Director NPMU is a Member of the Governing Council and Empowered Committee, and Member
Secretary of Technical Committee. NPMU is the implementing agency for operationalising the Smart Grid
activities in the country under the guidance of Governing Council and Empowered Committee.
 Grant up-to 30% of the project cost is available from NSGM budget. For selected components such as
training & capacity building, consumer engagement etc, 100% grant is available.
 Corresponding to the NSGM, State Level Mission chaired by the Power Secretary of the State has also been
proposed. Support for training & capacity building to State Level Project Monitoring Units (SLPMUs) for
smart grid activities is provided by NSGM.
Smart Grid Knowledge Centre
 The Smart Grid Knowledge Centre (SGKC) being developed by POWERGRID with funding from MoP.
 It will act as a Resource Centre for providing technical support to the Mission in all technical matters,
including development of technical manpower, capacity building, outreach, suggesting curriculum changes in
technical education etc.
 Expenditure on civil works is being borne by POWERGRID. The SGKC will maintain adequate training
infrastructure facilities and a cumulative support of Rs 10 crore in 12th Plan is proposed to be provided to it
from NSGM budget.
 Possibility will also be explored for bilateral and multi lateral financial support from various national and
international agencies in this regard.
 The SGKC shall undertake programs and activities envisaged for it as per the guidance from NPMU. The Head
of SGKC will report to Director NPMU.
72. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
 Bharat Stage emission standards, introduced in 2000, are emission standards that have been set up by the
Central government to regulate the output of air pollutants from internal combustion engine equipment,
including motor vehicles.
 The different norms are brought into force in accordance with the timeline and standards set up by the
Central Pollution Control Board which comes under the Ministry of Environment and Forests and Climate
Change.
73. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
 Fertilizers - Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers
 Pharmaceuticals - Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers
 Jammu and Kashmir - Ministry of home affairs
 Land resources - Ministry of rural development
74. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
Even though India has been the home for a large number and variety of refugees throughout the past, India has
dealt with the issues of ‘refugees’ on a bilateral basis. India, as explained in the earlier pages, has been observing
a ‘refugee regime’ which generally conforms to the international instruments on the subject without, however,
giving a formal shape to the practices adopted by it in the form of a separate statute. Refugees are no doubt
‘foreigners’. Even though there may be a case to distinguish them from the rest of the ‘foreigners’, the current
position in India is that they are dealt with under the existing Indian laws, both general and special, which are
otherwise applicable to all foreigners. This is because there is no separate law to deal with ‘refugees’. For the
same reason, cases for refugee ‘status’ are considered on a case-by-case basis. UNHCR often plays a
complementary role to the efforts of the Government, particularly in regard to verification about the individual’s
background and the general circumstances prevailing in the country of origin. That agency also plays an
important role in the resettlement of refugees etc.
75. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
 After independence, zamindari abolition and land reforms laws were passed as a move towards more
egalitarian society, but the Government efforts of social engineering faced several problems, the land
legislations were challenged in the courts. The first case challenging the land law was Kameshwar Singh V
State of Bihar, in this case the Bihar Land Reforms Act 1950 was challenged on the ground that the
classification of zamindars made for the purpose for giving compensation was discriminatory and denied
equal protection of laws guaranteed to the citizen under Article 14 of the Constitution. The Patna High Court
held this piece of legislation as violative of Article 14 as it classified the zamindars for the purpose of
payments of compensation in a discriminatory manner.
 As a result of these judicial pronouncements, the Government got apprehensive that the whole agrarian
reform programmes would be endangered. To ensure that agrarian reform legislation did not run into heavy
weather, the legislature amended the Constitution in the year 1951 which inserted Ninth Schedule.
 Article 31-B was inserted by the First Constitutional (Amendment) Act 1951 which states that without
prejudiced to the generality of the provisions contained in Article 31-A, none of the Acts and Regulations
specified in the Ninth Schedule nor any of the provisions thereof shall be deemed to be void, or ever to have
become void, on the ground that such Act, Regulation or provisions is inconsistent with, or takes away or
abridges any of the rights conferred by , any provisions of this part, and notwithstanding any judgment ,
decree or order of any court or tribunal to the contrary, each of the said Acts and Regulations shall, subject
to the power of any competent legislature to repeal or amend it, continue in force.
 Thus Article 31-B of the Constitution of India ensured that any law in the Ninth Schedule could not be
challenged in courts and Government can rationalize its programme of social engineering by reforming land
and agrarian laws.
 In other words laws under Ninth Schedule are beyond the purview of judicial review even though they
violate fundamental rights enshrined under Part III of the Constitution. On the one hand considerable power
was given to legislature under Article 31-B and on the other hand the power of judiciary was curtailed, this is
the starting point of tussle between legislature and judiciary.
 The other feature of Article 31-B is that it is retrospective in nature that is when a statute is declared
unconstitutional by a court and later it is included in the Ninth Schedule, it is to be considered as having
been in that Schedule from its commencement. Thus it provides blanket protection to all laws under the
Schedule. In case of Jeejeebhoy V Asst. Collector, Thane, the Supreme Court held that Article 31-B
represents novel, innovative and drastic technique of amendment. Legislative enactments are incorporated
into the Constitution and immunized against all attacks on the grounds of breach of any of the Fundamental
Rights.
 Since 1951, the Ninth Schedule has been expanded constantly so much that today 284 Acts are included
therein.
 By the First Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1951 13 laws were added to the Ninth Schedule.
 All the laws that are included in the Ninth schedule are subject to judicial review if they violated the basic
structure doctrine only after 1973.
76. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
International Vaccine Institute (IVI), Seoul, South Korea, established in 1997 on the initiatives of the UNDP, is an
international organization devoted to developing and introducing new and improved vaccines to protect the
people, especially children, against deadly infectious diseases. In the year 2007, with the approval of Cabinet,
India joined IVI. India is a long-term collaborator and stake-holder of IVI. In December, 2012 the Board of
Trustees (BOT) of IVI approved the formation of its new governance structure. As per the new governance
structure of IVI, a member State has to contribute to the IVI by paying a portion of its core budget. Since India is
classified in Group-I, it has to pay an annual contribution of US $ 5,00,000.
77. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
Under this project, the Indian Navy intends to acquire 6 diesel-electric submarines, which will also feature
advanced Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) systems to enable them to stay submerged for longer duration and
substantially increase their operational range.
78. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
What is a H1-B visa?
 Generally, a citizen of a foreign country who wishes to enter the United States must first obtain a visa. It
must either be either a non-immigrant visa for temporary stay or an immigrant visa for permanent
residence.
 Temporary worker visas are for persons who want to enter the US for employment lasting a fixed period of
time, and are not considered permanent or indefinite.
 The US H-1B visa is a non-immigrant visa that allows US companies to employ graduate level workers in
specialty occupations that require theoretical or technical expertise in specialized fields for a certain period
of time.
 H-1B visa holders can bring immediate family members/spouse under the H-4 visa category as dependents.
 Some spouses of H-1B visa holders, who are in line for a green card, are allowed to apply for eligibility to
work.
 65,000 H-1B visas be awarded every year to foreign nationals working in “specialty” areas including
computer programmers, scientists and engineers.
 An L1 Visa is an Intra-Company Transferee Visa. It specifies no education requirement and a maximum of 7
years stay is allowed.
 It is initially for three years but can be extended for additional three years
79. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, temporary and
transitional provisions, and short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7; 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392
and 393 came into force on November 26, 1949 itself. The remaining provisions (the major part) of the
Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950.
80. Ans: (b)
81. Ans: (c)

82. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
 Art 48. Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry.-
 The State shall endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and
shall, in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter, of
cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle
83. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
 India’s first Law Commission was established in 1834 via Charter Act of 1833 under the Chairmanship of Lord
Macaulay. This law commission had recommended codification of the Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure
Code and a few other matters.
 After that, three more law commissions were established in British Era. The Indian Code of Civil Procedure,
the Indian Contract Act, the Indian Evidence Act, the Transfer of Property Act. etc. are products of the works
of Law Commissions of British Era.
 The chairman of second (1853) and third (1861) law commissions of British era was Sir John Romilly, while
that of fourth (1879) was Dr. Whitley Stokes.
 The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 for a three year term. The Chairman
of this Commission was Mr. M. C. Setalvad, who was also the First Attorney General of India. The term of this
Commission was established as three years (which by convention has been followed till date).
84. Ans: (b)
85. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act 1861 was passed by British Parliament on 1st August 1861 to make substantial changes
in the composition of the Governor General’s council for executive & legislative purposes. The most significant
feature of this Act was the association of Indians with the legislation work.
86. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
Constitution of India did not codify permanent laws for citizenship and put this onus on parliament. Using the
powers of article 10 and 11, the parliament enacted Citizenship Act 1955 which has been amended from time to
time. This act mentions four ways in which a person may be Indian citizen viz. by birth, by descent, by
registration and by naturalization. Citizenship by birth and descent are called natural citizens. Summary of these
provisions are as follows:
Citizenship by Birth
Every person born in India on or after Jan 26, 1950 is a citizen of India provided his / her father is not an enemy
alien or representative of a diplomatic mission.
Citizenship by Descent
A person born outside India on or after Jan 26, 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent if his father or mother
is a citizen of India at the time of his birth; provided such birth is registered in any of Indian consulates.
Citizenship by Registration
 A person can acquire citizenship by registering themselves with prescribed authority. Such categories of
persons are:
 Persons of Indian origin residing outside the territories of undivided India
 Those persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily residents in India and have been so resident for 6 months
immediately before making application for registration
 Women who are married to citizens of India
 Children of Indian citizens
 Adult citizens of commonwealth country or republic of Ireland
Citizenship by Naturalization
 A foreign citizen not covered by any of the above methods can get Indian citizenship on application of
Naturalisation to the Government of India; with the following conditions
 Belongs to a country where the citizens of India are allowed to become subjects or citizens of that country by
naturalization.
 Renounces the citizenship of his country and intimated the renunciation to the Government of India.
 Has been residing in India or serving the government for 12 months before the date of making application
for naturalization.
 Possess a good character
 Posses working knowledge of Indian Languages
Intends to reside in India after naturalization.
Further, Government of India can waive any or all of the above conditions in case of a person who has rendered
distinguished service in the cause of Philosophy, science, literature, arts, world peace etc.
Citizenship by incorporating a new territory
If a new territory becomes a part of India, the government of India specifies the persons of that territory who
shall be citizens of India.
Commonwealth Citizenship
Every person who is born in commonwealth country, by virtue of that citizenship enjoys the status of
Commonwealth Citizenship in India. The act empowers the government of India to make provisions of
reciprocity for the enforcement of all or any rights of Citizens of India on citizens of commonwealth countries.
87. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
 Sec 141 and Sec 144 - Reasonable restrictions on freedom of assembly.
88. Ans: (b)
89. Ans: (c)

Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:-
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9)
Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu,
(18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
90. Ans: (a)

Explanation:
There are various factors responsible for the long size of the constitution. Firstly, the main input was
Government of India Act 1935; and it was reproduced almost in entirety to provide administrative detail.
Secondly, it was necessary to make provisions for peculiar problems of India like scheduled castes, Scheduled
Tribes and backward regions. Thirdly, provisions were made for elaborate centre-state relations in all aspects of
their administrative and other activities. This was very much necessary because these provisions were reverse of
what were provided in GOI Act 1935 {GOI Act had provided for a federation with weak centre}. Fourthly, the size
of the constitution became bulky, as provisions regarding the state administration were also included. Further, a
detail list of individual rights, directive principles of state policy and the details of administration procedure were
laid down to make the Constitution clear and unambiguous for the ordinary citizen. Thus, the Constitution of
India became an exhaustive and lengthy one.
91. Ans: (b)
92. Ans: (b)
93. Ans: (c)

Explanation: Self Explanatory
94. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
Certain fundamental rights like art 21 can be applicable to all foreign nationals excluding enemy nationals.
95. Ans: (a)
96. Ans: (c)

Explanation: Though the Indian Councils Act of 1892 had introduced limited representation with indirect
elections, it failed to placate the Indians who were much more conscious of their rights by now. There was a lot
of resentment against reign of Lord Curzon, who had already irked the public by the foolish idea of partition of
Bengal. There was a rise of extremism in the congress. Government, on one hand wanted to suppress the
extremists but on other hand wanted to pacify the moderates. Meanwhile, Gopal Krishna Gokhale went to
England and met Mr. Morley, the Secretary of State for India. Viceroy Lord Minto also emphasised the need of
making some reforms. Both the Viceroy and the Secretary of State for India decided to work out some scheme to
reform the Legislative councils. This culminated as Indian Councils act 1909. The idea was to give locals some
more power in the legislative affairs. A provision was made for the expansion of legislative councils at the both
the levels viz. central as well as provincial.
Salient Provisions
Expansion of the Legislative Councils
 The act enlarged the size of the legislative council both Central and Provincial. The number of members in
the Central Legislative Council was raised from 16 to 60. The number in Provincial legislative council was not
uniform. Legislative councils of Bengal, Bombay and Madras was increased to 50 members each. The
provincial legislature of U.P. was to have 50, of Assam, Burma and Punjab 30 each.
 Communal Representation
 For the first time, the Indian Councils act gave recognition to elective principle for the appointment of
nonofficial members to the councils. However, it introduced separate and discriminatory electorate. The
electorate was decided on the basis of class & community. For the provincial councils a provision of three
categories was made viz. general, special and chambers of commerce. However, for the central council, a
fourth category Muslims was added. This was for the first time that, the seats in the legislative bodies were
reserved on the basis of religion for Muslims. Separate constituencies were marked for the Muslims and
only Muslim community members were given the right to elect their representatives.
 The separate electorate for Muslims had a long lasting impact on India’s polity. It recognized the Muslim
community as a separate section of the India and triggered the cancer of Hindu-Muslim disharmony which
ultimately culminated in the partition.
 Under the separate electorates, Muslims could vote exclusively for the Muslim candidates in constituencies
specially reserved for them. The idea was to establish that the political, economic and cultural interests of
the Hindus and Muslims were distinct. The unity between Hindus and Muslims is a illusion and this act
sowed the seeds of the Muslim Communalism.
97. Ans: (a)
98. Ans:(d)
99. Ans: (d)

Explanation:
The right against exploitation is one of the most vital fundamental rights given by the Indian Constitution. These
rights aim at protecting citizens from being subjugated to environmental, domestic and work hazards. Articles 23
and 24 of the Indian Constitution safeguard women and children and others against exploitation of various
forms. Article Against Human Trafficking and Forced Labour The first provision in the Article that mentions the
Right against exploitation, states the ‘eradication of human trafficking and forced labour (beggar)’. Article 23
declares slave trade, prostitution and human trafficking a punishable offence. There is, however, an exception
here in the form of employment without payment for compulsory services for public purposes. Compulsory
military conscription is covered by this provision.
100. Ans: (b)

Explanation:
 Locus Standi means the ability of a party to demonstrate to the court sufficient connection to and harm from
the law or action challenged to support that party's participation in the case. It covers three cases
 The party is directly subject to an adverse effect by the statute or action in question.
 The party is not directly harmed by the conditions by which they are petitioning the court for relief but asks
for it because the harm involved has some reasonable relation to their situation, and the continued
existence of the harm may affect others who might not be able to ask a court for relief.
 The party is granted automatic standing by act of law (In cases pertaining to environmental issues etc)
 Article 32 deals with right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights. Locus
Standi is mandatory for most of the provisions under Article 32 while in few cases, Locus standi is not
necessary.
Examples:
 Certiorari , Prohibition, Mandamus - Locus Standi is mandatory
 Habeas Corpus, Quo Warranto - Locus Standi is not necessary.

Test 1 - Indian Polity - I-Answer Key

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Test 1 - Indian Polity - I-Answer Key

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM

10. Ans: (d)

11. Ans: (a)

12. Ans: (a)

13. Ans: (a)

14. Ans: (b)

15. Ans: (a)

16. Ans: (a)

18. Ans: (b)

19. Ans: (b)

21. Ans: (a)

23. Ans: (b)

24. Ans: (d)

25. Ans: (a)

26. Ans: (c)

27. Ans: (a)

28. Ans: (c)

29. Ans: (a)

30. Ans: (c)

31. Ans: (d)

32. Ans: (a)

33. Ans: (b)

34. Ans: (b)

35. Ans: (b)

36. Ans: (a)

38. Ans: (b)

39. Ans: (a)

40. Ans: (a)

41. Ans: (b)

43. Ans: (c)

46. Ans: (c)

47. Ans: (a)

48. Ans: (d)

50. Ans: (a)

51. Ans: (d)

52. Ans: (d)

53. Ans: (d)

54. Ans : (a)

55. Ans: (b)

56. Ans: (b)

58. Ans: (c)

59. Ans: (c)

60. Ans: (d)

61. Ans: (a)

62. Ans: (B)

63. Ans: (b)

64. Ans: (a)

66. Ans: (a)

67. Ans: (d)

68. Ans: (a)

69. Ans: (c)

70. Ans: (d)

72. Ans: (d)

74. Ans: (b)

75. Ans: (c)

76. Ans: (b)

77. Ans: (a)

78. Ans: (d)

79. Ans: (c)

80. Ans: (b)

81. Ans: (c)

83. Ans: (a)

84. Ans: (b)