GS Removal of all tumor with periphery intact

Removal with involved soft tissue

1. Minimum oxygen that can be administered in
analgesia machine
A. 10
10. A patient presented with a 4cm tumor in left
B. 20
parietal lobe for which he underwent surgery and
C. 30 radiotherapy .After 2 months he presented with
D. 40% headache and vomiting .which of the following best
characterize the lesion in this patient?
2. Most common mode of spread of retinoblastoma? 1-Gd enhanced Mri
A. Hematogenous 2- 99tcHMPAO Spect brain
B. Lymphatogenous 3-digital subtraction angiography with dual source ct
C. Optic nerve (neural) 4- 18- Fdg pet scan
D. Trans scleral

3. A hemophilia person going for major oral surgery. 11. Test used to differentiate between chromosomal
Blood unit will be given? pattern of Normal cell and cancer cell?
A. 80-100 unit/12hr FISH
B. 80-100 unit/24hr comparative genomic hybridisation
C. 60-80 unit/6hr Pcr
D. 60-80 unit/12hr
12. A 78 yr old male presents with headache, visual
4. Potential for transformation into malignancy disturbances and tenderness over his right temporal
A. Syphilitic Glossitis, Mikulicz's Disease region. Biopsy taken from right temporal artery
B. Plummer Vinson Syndrome, Hepatitis A
likely shows:(A). Acute abscess(B). Granulomatos
C. Plummer Vinson Syndrome, Syphilitic Glossitis
inflammation with giant cell(C). Luminal
D. Hepatitis A, Mikulicz's disease
thrombosis(D). Aneurysmal dilatation with sub
acute inflammation
5. Lymph nodes most difficult to examine?
A. Neck
B. Axilla 13. 3. Leucocyte common antigen is used for the
C. Abdomen diagnosis for
D. Groin A. Lymphoma
B. ewing's sarcoma
c. embryonal retinoblastoma
6. 58) false about management of hyperkalemia.
a) iv calcium is contra indicated
14. 4. A 78 yr old male presents with headache, visual
b) loop diuretics can be used in d managemnt
disturbances and tenderness over his right tempiral
c) insulin n glucose enhance potassium intake into cells
region. A biopsy taken from his right temporal
d) albuterol is an effective alternativ
artery is most likely to show
A. Acute organizing thrombus formation
B. granulomatous inflammation with giant cells
7. Nt True about oropharyngeal pack during surgery C. Luminal thrombosis
A) gvn when pt is under ga D. Aneurysmal dilation with sub-intimal inflammation
B) prevents fluid aspiratn n contaminatn
C) prevent blood aspirastions 15. 5. An eldery male with uncontolled hypertension
into oesophagus and signs of renal failure. A renal biopsy reports
D) given when pt is awake fibrinoid necrosis of the walls n onion skinning. The
diagnosis is
8. Which disease involves bone and intervertebral disc A. Thromboangitis obliterans
space radiographically: B. hyaline arteriosclerosis
C. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
(A). Multiple myeloma
D. Arteriosclerosis obliterans
(B). TB
(C). Lymphoma
16. Q1 Riga fede disease is due to a)natal teeth
(D). MetastaseS
b)taurodontism c)pink tooth of mummery d)???

9. Composite Resection concept According to Gold

17. Test for diagnosis of neuromuscular blockade
and ....?
Wide resection of the tumour GM
Removal of all the involved bone only
 18. AMPLE history involves all except
a)personal history 28. A child presented with unilateral proptosis which
b)medical history was compressible and increased on bending
c)family history forwards. No thrill or bruit was present. MRI shows
retro-orbital mass with enhancement with
d)last meal taken
echogenic shadows. What is the most probable
condition? (AIPG 2009)
19. Most common malignancy seen in AIDS
a)BCC A Orbital A V malformation.
b)SCC B Orbital varix
c)hodgkins tumour C Orbital encephalocele
d)Kaposi sarcoma D Neurofibromatosis
Ans. B Orbital varix
Orbital varices are uncommon vascular malformations that
20. Cooleys anemia is
produce intermittent proptosis, diplopia and venous
a)beta thallesemia major
hypertension, increases on bending forward, coughing,
b)alpha thallesemia
straining etc. They may be simple, consisting of a single
c)thallesemia minor
tubular venous structure or complex when multiple varices
d)??????
are present. They are usually congenital.

21. western blot test is for

a) RNA 29. carbamazepine is contraindicated in..(a)absence
b) DNA seizures.(b)-generalized tonic clonic(c)medial
c) protein temporal lobe epilepsy..??
d)???
30. Vertibral disc involvment?
22. Daily dietary allowance of iodine in a pregnant lady -Tb
a) 250 mg -Multiple myeloma
b) 100 mg
c) 150 mg
31. Which vaccine should not be administered to
d) 50 mg
pregnant lady????????
a) diptheria
23. The mesurement of Hba1c level can be used for?(a)
b) MMR
Asymptomatic diabetic screening(b) Symptomatic
c) hepatitis B
diabetic screening(c) Monitering diabetic case(d)
d) rabies
Diagnosis of diabetes

32. Dermal & oral manifestation are seen most common

24. 14) Done for coronary aretery except? in which type of leukemia-
a) Echocardiograph a.Monocytic
b) ultrasonography b.Myelocytic
c) angiography c.Lymphocytic
d.Aleukemia
25. 79) which is true
a) JVP can be examined on both sides 33. 2) fever blister occurs due to
b) BP can b measured simultaneously with cuffs on both Ans reactivation of hsv1
arms
c) radial and ulnar artery should not be examined together
d) carotid pulses should be palpated n both sides together
PATHOLOGY

26. 86) was..true atatement about chr malig induced 34. In a specimen of kidney, fibrinoid necrosis is seen
anemia..... and onion peel appearance is also present. Most
a) serum ferritin reduced probable pathology is:-(A). Hyaline
b) retixulocyte normal degeneration(B). Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis(C).
c)
Glomerulosclerosis(D). Fibrillary
glomerulonephritis
27. Test to diagnose dubin johnson syndrome
Bromisulphein test
35. Cell differentiation by surface markers
Alanine transferase
a) G banding
GGT
b) electrophoresis
Hippuric test
c) spectrometry
d) PCR 44. 53)which of following is least likely to cause
seizure in children
36. Leucocyte common antigen is used for the a) ibuprofen
diagnosis for b) lidocaine
A. Lymphoma c) mannitol
B. ewing's sarcoma
c. embryonal retinoblastoma 45. 77) like Ach wich one is ultra short acting
a) rucurorioum
b) teubrocurorium
c)
PHARMA d)
37. An epileptic lady taking phenytoin &
Ans. A
phenobarbitone comes to pregnancy &
contraception department . What is the best advice
46. 78) iv drug injection wats most important criteria..
for her with current medication a) vol of distribution
a )there will be no abnormality in the new born b) age of pt
b )contraception is effective in both epileptic & nonepileptic c) plasma clearance
women
c)fits are increased during pregnancy 47. Cytotoxic and expired drugs should be disposed by
d) stop current medication before planning pregnancy a) autoclaving
b) secure landfill after 10 years
c) secure landfill
38. Maximum dose of articaine in a healthy patient
d)incineration?????
a ) 7 mg/kg
b ) 4 mg/kg
c) 2 mg/kg 48. which shory actin muscle relaxant shud be used
d) 1.3 mg/kg after succinyl co a--
(a)rocucurium.
39. Q. Patient admistered Penicillin has reaction after 2 (b)atracurium.
days..he also has auto hemolytic (c)pancurium
anaemia...circulating antibodies are present...what
is the type of allergic reaction?
49. All of the following true for phenytoin except
a)it causes hirsutism
type
b)it is teratogenic
a. I c)blood plasma level required to be monitored
b. II d)has narrow therapeutic index
c. III
d. IV 50. methemoglobinemia is caused by procaine
,prliocaine
40. minimal inhibitory concentrations for antibiotics in
head and neck infections
51. Which of the following drug is not associated with
seizures in children?
41. 16) true about metformin Mannitol
a) excreted unchanged in urine Brufen
b) contraindicated in decompensated heart failure Ciprofloxacin
c) decrease hepatic glucose production Lidocaine
d)
52. Most preferred drug in hypertensive emergency
42. 36) Factor 8 dose case:(A). Na nitroprusside(B). Hydralazine(C).
a) 80-100 mg every 24 hour Dopamine(D). Diazoxide(E). Nitroglycerin
b) 80-100 mg in 12 h
c)
53. Q) how erythromycin benefits in decreased
intestinal motility a)by incrreasing bacterial load b)
43. 37) not a second generation antihistamine
by decreasing bacterial load c)¿??????
a) cyclizine
b)
c)
OMFS
 54. Paraesthesia of lower lip is caused by fracture of
a)body 64. nasal intubation contraindicated in..??
b)angle (a)maxillary fracture
(b)ethmoid
c)symphysis
d)condyle
65. normal dental care under LA usually usually
feasible in ?
55. Transient paralysis during IAN block is caused by a) Mentally retarded
injection into b) adults
a)buccinator c) Pscycological pt
b)parotid d) children

c)massetor
66. To diagnose CSF rhinorrhea which of the following
cannot be used as a criteria ?(A). High glucose
56. Hanging Drop sign in fracture of content(B). High protein content(C). Tram line
a)maxilla pattern(D). BETA-2 Transferrin
b)mandible
c)blow out fracture of orbit 67. Patient with prosthetic valve is under surgery to
avoid sub-acute endocarditis which regimen should
d)zygomatic
be given(A). 2 mg amoxicillin 1hour before
surgery(B). 2 gm amoxicillin 1hour before
57. CSF rhinorrhoea occurs from surgery(C). 500 gm penicillin 1 hour before
a) Frontal sinus surgery(D). 1 gm amoxicillin 2 hour before surgery
b) Ethmoidal sinus
c) Maxillary sinus
d) ???????????? 68. Young individual reported with fluctuant swelling
infection of left lateral incisor. On clinical
58. Not a theory of TMJ ankylosis examination, entire left side of face is swollen and
a) condylar burst tooth is tender on percussion. The patient is unable
b) fusion with zygomatic arch due to increased condylar to chew and as well as he has a fever of 102 degree.
distance What should be the treatment plan:-(A). Incision
c) synovial fluid attracting Ca ions and drainage(B). Antibiotic,heat and fluid(C).
d) calcification around joint Extraction(D). Antibiotics and heat production

59. following bilateral mandibular fracture in the

69. Infection spreading via lymphatics from lower lips
canine region the following muscles will tend to
first enter the blood stream at? (a) Branchiocephalic
pull the mandibular back- Geniglossus and anterior
vein(b) Inferior labial vein(c) Inferior labial
belly of digastric artery(d) Pterygoid venous plexus

60. 25) Which z most commonly seen in cleft lip

patient? 70. About lidocaine all are true, except :(a) It acts on
a) post cross bite sodium channels in both active and inactive state(b)
b) ant open bite It is most cardiotoxic local anesthetic(c) It is given
I.V. in cardiac arrhythmias
61. 69) True for lidocaine is?
a) Most cardiotoxic na channel blocker
b) Acts on both active and inactive Na channel 71. patients on steroids therpy came fo extraction
given- antibiotics

62. 88) facial nerve damaged in 72. Techniques not used in cleft lip repair-Von-
a) longitudinal fracture of petrous temple Langenback flap technique
b) transverse fracture of petrous temple

73. A patient with extract ed 3rd molar complains of

63. Patient with ludwigs angina reports to emergency loss of blood clot ; pain with no fever and swelling
deptt .Treatment???(options may vary from best treated by- irrigation of socket with sedative
original) placement and analgesic
a)Incision & drainage
b)tracheostomy?????????? 74. orthognathic procedure for anterior open bite
c)nasotracheal intubation???????? correction- Lefort1 osteotomy
d)start antibiotics
 75. following bilateral mandibular fracture in the B. Boric acid
canine region the following muscles will tend to C. Iron oxide
pull the mandibular back- Geniglossus and anterior D. Calcium carbonate in alcohol
belly of digastric

86. To avoid fatigue to eyes, shade matching should be

done within
PERIO
A. 10 sec
B. 15 sec
76. diameter of bristles of soft toothbrush C. 20 sec
0.07 D. 5 sec
0.10
0.12 87. Metallic oxides in porcelain
0.14 A. Increase strength
B. Improve bonding with metal
C. Impart color
D. All
77. Which of these is the best method to check
perfusion of free flap:(A). Prick test(B). Pulse
88. Ceramic containing Lithia disilicate crystals
oxymetry(C). Laser Doppler flowmetry(D).
A. IPS impress 1
Fluroscopy
B. IPS impress 2
C. Captek
D. Cerestore
78. Localised Juvenile Periodontitis caused by
a) A. actinomycetumcomitans 89. Incomplete casting in centrifuging machine is due to
b) P. gingivalis A. Narrow sprue diameter
c) P. intermedia
B.
d) Actinomyces
C.
D.
79. 89) change in color texture of gingiva seen in what
stage of gingivitis
a) stage -1, Kindly build up the other options
b) 2
c) 3 90. Non shrinkage type ceramic is
d) 4 A. Dicor
B. IPS empress
80. Hiv associated gingivitis also called
C. -
A.anug
D. -
B.linear gingiva erythma
C.ulcerative gingivitis
D.,,?? 91. Metallic taste after application of stannous fluoride
varnish is due to
81. aggressive periodontitis associated bacteria- A. Stannous trifluorophosphate
Actinomycetemcomitans B. Stannic trifluorophosphate
C. Calcium trifluorostannate
82. gingival lesion in HIV termed- necrotisig ulcerative D. Tin hydroxyl phosphate
gingivitis
92. Shrink free ceramic
83. coloured toot Caused by bacteria called- A. Cerestore
chlorodontia B.
C.
84. Dose of predlisolone in desquamative gingivitis D.

Kindly build up the other options

DM

85. Which of the following is not an antiflux?

A. Graphite
 102. Most radioresistant among the following:
RADIOLOGY a)RBC,nerve ,muscle
b)RBC,bone,nerve
93. exposure dose in IOPA for normal adults? c)???
5 microsV d)???
200 microsV PROSTHO
26 microsV
103. Kennedys major connector is
500 microsV
a)lingual bar
b)lingual plate
c)labial bar
94. Halo effect around root is seen in
d)continuous clasp
a) horizontal root fracture
b ) widened pdl
c ) acute periostitis 104. 65) most active component of denture cleanser..?
d) acute periapical abscess a) h2o2
b) detergent
c) perborates
95. absorved dose for diagnosing tumor is measured in
d) alkylating agents?
A.gray
B.sievert
C.qurie
D.hertz 105. Dimensions of inner bow of facebow are
O.45inch and o.125 inch

96. 60) best method to reduce radiation caries is

aplication of ORTHO
a) .5%neutral sodium flouride gel
b) 1%neutral sodium flouride gel 106. Increased interincisal angle is seen in:-(A).
c) .5% stannous flouride gel Bimaxillary protrusion(B). Class II div I(C). Class II
d) 1%stannous flouride gel div II(D). Mandibular retrusion

97. 68) with widening of mandibular canal and

endosteal sclerosis..diagnosis is.? 107. A child aged 5 years and 4 months is referred to
a) Chr. Sclerizng osteomyelitis orthodontist for unusually small chin. Distal step
b) Garres osteomyelitis?
molar relation, SNA normal, SNB lowered & FMA
DECREASED.What is the treatment of choice?(A).
98. 83) Onion skin appearance-
Wait & observe till 6 yrs age(B). Headgear(C). Twin
a) Periosteal periostitis
block(D). Functional Regulator
b) hyaline degenaration
c) hyperplastic arteriosclerosis

99. 113) about X rays what is True ? 108. 39) whats the ratio of nose length and nose width
A) x rays do not affect all biological tissues a) 70%
B) For normal adult the effects are temporary and reversible b) 65%
C) Only primary central beam is of importance potentially c) 66%
hazardous? d) 62.5%

100. Rda of iodine in pregnant ladies 109. After surgical correction of cleft palate which of the
A.100 following is seen?(A). Anterior open bite(B).
B.50 Anterior deep bite(C). Unilateral/Bilateral posterior
C.150 cross bite(D). Rotated anteriors
D.250

110. maximum amount of neural growth is completed

by
101. Medical linear accelerator produces a) 6-7 years
Photon n electron b) 10-12 years
Photon n neutron c) 18 years
Photon n proton d) 13-16 years
Electron n proton

111. Tone of upper lip in mouth breathers is

a ) Inceased c)4
b) Decreased d)5
c) Unaffected
d) Lip becomes hypertrophic
123. Calcification of permanent teeth starts
a) at birth
112. 2) Adams is made up of which wire ?? b) at 1 year
a. 22 c) at 5 years
b. 23 d) in utero
c. 24
d. 25 124. Tonicity Upper lip in Mouth breather
-increased
113. 18) Skeletal clasificatn -decreased
A) Kartz -not affected
B) salzman slightly affected
C) angle
ANATOMY

114. Baker's anchorage is also known as(A).

Intramaxillary anchorage(B). Intraoral 125. Muscle responsible for opening of mandible
anchorage(C). Extraoral anchorage(D). a) lateral pterygoid
Intermaxillary anchorage b) medial pterygoid
c) temporalis
115. A 14 year old boy with Class II Div I malocclusion. d) buccinators
Which model analysis method is used to decide,
whether to do extraction or not?(A). Bolton’s(B). 126. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is due to infection of
Peck and peck(C). Ashley Howe’s(D). Pont’s a) pterygoid plexus
b) submental space
116. 75) most steble procidure for orthodontic corection
c) maxillary space
a) le fort 1
d) submandibular space
b) segital split ostiotomy
c) invart L otiotomy
127. Lymphatic drainage of tongue by all except
117. 84) inter incisal angle incres in a) ventral vessal
b) central vessal
a) class 2 div 2
c) lateral vessal
b) class 2 div 1
d) dorsal vessal

118. Spheno occipital synchondrosis closes at

128. All are true for facial N.except
Ans 16yrs
a) carries parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to nasal n
palatine glands
119. In case of Orthodontically treated midline b) carries a large motor root n a small sensory root
diastemma which retainer should be used?(A). c) supplies ant belly of digastric n mylohyoi
Hawley appliance for 6 months(B). Hawley
appliance for 12 months(C). No need of retainer as
it is self corrected(D). Lingual bonded retainer 129. 87) Not a branch of cavernous part of ICA
A) oph. artery
120. Lip thickness of males is maximum at which age?(a) B) meningeal artery
21 years(b)18 years(c) 16 years(d) 25 years C) inf. hypophyseal artery

121. Orthodontics problem associated with proximal

caries-loss of arch length 130. which of d following muscle spared in accessory
nerve Injury

a.stylopharyngeus
DADH b
palatopharyngrus
122. Minimum number of lobes for tooth development
c
a)2 d
b)3
131. Facial nerve supply all are true accept-
a. Ant belly of diagastric c) partial veneer preparation
b. Post belly of diagastric d) full crown preparation
c. Buccinator
d. Stapedius 140. 52) Nt seen in caoh repair for root perforation
a) zone of necrosis
132. Which is the Dangerous area of scalp?(A). Skin(B). b) zone of calcification
Connective tissue(C). Aponeurosis(D). Loose c) proliferation zone
areolar tissue
141. The most phisiologic media for tooth whch cn not
133. Lymph from tongue not drained by following be reimplantd immediately??
-Hbss
vessels(a) Posterior vessels(b) Central vessels- (c)
-Vispan
Marginal vessels(d) Ventral vessels
-Saline
-Cold milk

CONS & ENDO 142. which of the following is true about etching in case
of flurosis affected teeth?
134. A child (age=5yrs???)suffers trauma which causes
a. etching with phosphoric acid
lateral luxation of the primary central incisor. C I is b. etching with citric acid
not in occlusion & does not causes interference. c. etching with HCL
Treatment? d. no need of etching
a) repositioning & splinting
b) reduce the opposite tooth 143. If biocompatible filling material fill in perforated
c) reduce both the traumatized & opposite tooth root canal which histologically not seen-
d) no treatment required ,will reposition itself a.Zone of proliferation
b.Zone of calcification
c.Zone of necrosis
d.Zone of stimulation
135. The cotton applied in gluteraldehyde pulpotomy to
the pulpal stumps should be kept for
144. The most important criteria in children using
a)5 mins
b)10 mins irrigation solution is?(A). Volume of irrigant(B).
c)15 mins Thickness of syringe used(C). Concentration of
d)2 mins irrigant(D). None of above

136. A patient comes with history of oral injury,metallic 145. wavelength of ND:YG laser is- 1.06micron
sound on percussion of the affected tooth.Based
onexamination,What would be the most likely
diagnosis after oral examination?(a) Lateral PEDO
luxation(b) Subluxation(c) Concussion(d) Extrusive
146. Overhanging margins of a stainless steel crown on a
luxation
primary molar is causing pain & inflammation in
gingiva because of
A. Cement in excess
137. Intracanal irrigating solution for an acute periapical
abscess B. Accumulation of plaque
a) sod hypochlorite C. Irritation by crown margins
b) EDTA D. Engaging undercut
c) hydrogen peroxide
d) saline 147. In a 4 year old child, primary central incisor has
undergone intrusion injury. Treatment is
138. 5) second generation apex locator A. Wait & watch
a) resistance B. Extract primary central incisor
b)impedence C. Will resorb on its own
c) frequency D. Reposition & splint
d) conduction
148. In Glutaraldehyde pulpotomy procedure, cotton pellet
139. 27) the highest incidence of pulp necrosis is kept on pulp stem for
associated with? A. 2 min
a) classV prepratn on root surface B. 4 min
b) inlay preparation C. 5 sec
 D. 30 sec

149. When should a child be first exposed for using a tooth 156. 26) A nursing lady refused to take influenza
brush vaccine. Later she developed pnuemonia after
A. At eruption of the first tooth contracting flu. she died of acute pneumonia after a
B. 1 year week.the causative agent is -
C. 2 years a) staph aureus,
D. Primary school year b) cmv,
c) measles
150. Localization of pain is not possible in acute pulpitis in d) leiognella
children. Because
A. Proprioceptors not present in pulp 157. Immunisation of 5 year old by NIS(a) Pentavalent
B. vaccine – Vitamin A(b) Booster DT(c) DT, OPV,
C. vitamin A(d) DPT, vitamin AAns. (c) DT, OPV,
D. vitamin A

Kindly build up remaining options

158. 74) In angular cheilitis organism that can be
151. Preventive resin restoration is placed on cultured from corner of mouth ?????
A. Cavitated pit and fissures a) candida
b) tubercular bacilli
B.
C.
159. 80) nocardia
D.

A diarrhoea
Kindly build up remaining options B disseminated infection

152. A pregnant lady uses fluoridated drinking water. All

of the following are true regarding exposure of the
fetus to fluoride except
A. Placenta acts as a regulator and reduces the
concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus
B. Placenta acts as a regulator and increases the
concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus
C. Placenta has no role in fluoride regulation to fetus
D. Placenta acts as a barrier to fluoride ions
MICRO
160. 81) staining true?
a) gm+ve black
b) gm-ve red
c) g. gormethamine silver stain fungi green
d) calcaflour stainung white sumthing
161. In an experiment, a scientist injected myeloid stem
cells in an abalated animal. At the end of incubation
period he found colonies of:-(A). Erythrocytes(B). T
lymphocytes(C). Fibroblasts(D). Hematopoetic stem

153. Not true about leptospirosis cells

a) Man is dead end host

b) Lice is a vector 162. True about endemic typhus- Flea is a vector of

c) It is zoonosis disease

d) Man is accidental host

163. herpes causing chicken pox is associated with-
varicella group

154. 6) not a component of PCR

a) DNA template 164. 9) true about conjugation in bacteria
b) dideoxynucleotide a) sex pili is used
c) deoxynucleotide b) double strands f dna transferred
d) dna polymerase c)?
d)?

155. 12) swab taken one was regarding cystic fibrosis,

and mucoid colonies of organism (psedomonas nt BIOCHEM
sure) form, which indicates
a) the organism has formed layer on the respiratory 165. NAD is reduced by following except (not sure
tract of the patient ..... about options)
b) was sumthing regarding toxin a) alpha keto-gluterate dehydrogenase
c) was resistant to bacteriocin.. b) malonyl transferase
c) transketolase C.
d) branched chain keto acids ??????? D.

166. Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by 174. Neonatal teeth are
which of the following regulating pathways?
A. Teeth that erupt within 30days after birth
A. Hypoxia Stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by
B. Teeth that erupt after the 120 days
increased 2,3 DPG
B. Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase C. Teeth that erupt within 45 days
C. Hypoxia stimulates release of all Glycolytic enzymes from D. Teeth appearing in 180 days
Band 3 on RBC membrane
D. Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high PH 175. Lesion with finger like projections on lip and index
Correct answer : C. Hypoxia stimulates release of all finger?
Glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane A. Pemphigus
Hypoxia stimulates RBC glycolysis by promoting release of B. Papilloma
all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane. C.
D.

OP 176. Lc tumor marker

A. Lymphoma
167. Presence of sclerotic bone in medullary cavity & B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
periosteal new bone formation
C.
A. Chronic non-suppurative osteomyelitis
B. Garre's osteomyelitis D.
C. Acute osteomyelitis
D. Osteopetrosis 177. True about exfoliative cytology
A. Transepithelial cell can be obtained
168. Burning sensation of tongue is not seen in? B. Hindrance by excess keratinization
A. Ranula C. After applying toluidine blue, wash with saline
B. Diabetes mellitus D. After applying toluidine blue, wash with water
C. Pernicious anemia E. Just apply toluidine blue & take the scrapings with
D. a swab

169. Decalcification and fixing of bone tissue can be done 178. Gingival lesions not found in
by?
A. Herpes
A. Formic acid + formaline
B. Recurrent aphthae
B. Nitric acid + formaline
C. EDTA + formic acid C. Erythema Multiforme
D. Nitric acid + EDTA D. Pyogenic granuloma

170. Tooth within a tooth is seen in? 179. Osteosarcoma can arise from?
A. Lateral incisor max A. Paget and Cherubism
B. Mandibular lateral and central incisors B. Cherubism and osteopetrosis
C. Mandibular 1st premolar C. Paget and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
D. Maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors
D. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and Cherubism

171. How to differentiate between unilateral fibrous

180. Bilateral mandibular involvement is seen in
dysplasia of jaws and facial hemi hypertrophy
A. Cherubism
A. Shape of face
B. Shape of palate B.
C. Shape of tooth and supporting structures C.
D. Distance of soft tissue landmarks from midline D.

172. Most common cleft lip defect is 181. A man presents with hyperkeratotic lesion with
A. Isolated bilateral deformities papillary projection on lower lip & also in thumb,
B. Isolated left unilateral deformities diagnosis is
C. Bilateral cleft lip with palate A. Papilloma
D. Unilateral cleft lip with palate B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C.
173. Tooth discoloration due to hyperbilirubinemia is D.
A. Chlorodontia
B.
182. Which tooth is commonly involved in twinning? a)first in right arm & than left arm
A. b) in both the arms simultaneously
B. c)only in right arm
d)??????????
C.
D.

193. The nerve impulse which leads to initiation of

183. Diagnostic histologic feature of Langerhans cell
muscle contraction
histocytosis
1-Causes opening of the calcium channels which leads to
A. Histocytes
increase in calcium concentration with use of sarcomere
B. Lymphocytes
2-inhibit Na entry in sarcomere
C. Plasma cells
3 -cause both plasma membrane and t tubules to undergoes
D. Birbeck granules
hyperpolarization
4-is initiated by bonding of Ach.to receptors in sarcoplasmic
COMMUNITY reticulum
184. Observational Study
-community trials
-randomized controlled trials 194. Peripheral resistance is best given by(a) Mean
-case control study arterial pressure as it remains constant(b) Diastolic
pressure as it decreases at mid thoracic aorta(c)
185. Malocclusion in a population relatd to Systolic pressure as it increases in descending
Ans prevalance rate aorta(d) Pulse pressure as it relates to stroke
volume and aortic compliance
186. Filter used in biological safety cabinet
High efficiency particulate filter
195. Broca area is associated with- Word formation
Seitz filter
Berkfield filter
Millipore 196. the blood brain barrier is present in all except-
Habernacular Trigone
187. Space maintainer is an example if
Health promotion
Specific protection 197. Christmas disease is caused due to deficiency of
Rehabilitation a)plasma thromboplastin component
Disability limitation b)plasma thromboplastin antecedent
c)antihaemophilic globulin
188. Power of a statistical test...
d)????
A.ability of a test to reject null hypothesis is false
B.ability of test to reject null hypothesis when alternate
hypothesiis is AVAILABLE

198. Regarding ESI ACT WHICH IS CORRECT(a)

Funeral benefit is Rs. 50,000(b) The state
PHYSIOLOGY
Government’s share of expenditure on medical care
189. 70) Which of the following does not affect oxygen is 1/8; the ESI Coorporation’s share of expenditure
saturation ofHb? on medical care is 7/8 of total cost(c) Person with
a) skin color daily wages of Rs 70 has to contribute Rs300
b) Temperature
towards ESI(d) Employee has to contribute 4.75%
c) fetal hb
and employer contributes 8.75%
d) 2,3 dpg

190. 82) enzymes faund in csf

(a) GGT +ALP(b) ALP+CK-MB(c) CK+LDH(d) Deaminase
and peroxidase

191. 2.which indicates obstruction of airway?

Ans sternous breathing

192. Ideal way of measuring B.P.