Practice Test - 0

1 Adda247 | No.
1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

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Directions (1-5): Study the information and answer the given questions:
Ten friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such a way that there is an
equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1 – A, B, C, D, and E are seated (but not necessarily
in the same order) and all of them are facing south. In row 2 – P, Q, R, S and T are seated (but not
necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating
arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. All of them
belong to different states like Bihar, Punjab, Kerela, Odisha, Tripur, Manipur, Assam, Rajasthan,
Gujrat, and Nagaland but not necessarily in the same order.
A sits third to left of one who belongs to Punjab. Either A or one who belongs to Punjab sits on the
extreme end of the row. Immediate neighbor of A faces T, who belongs to Tripura. Only one person
sits between T and Q, who belongs to Odisha. Q does not sit any extreme end of the row. E belongs to
Bihar and faces Q. Immediate neighbor of Q faces the person who belongs to Kerela. There are two
persons sit between B and the person who belongs to Kerela. R belongs to Gujrat and faces B.
Immediate neighbor of C faces the person who belongs to Nagaland. Immediate neighbor of Q does
not face the person who belongs to Manipur. P belongs to Assam.
Q1. Who sit at the extreme ends of the row?

(a) B, C, R, S
(b) B, C, P, Q
(c) T, R, B, C
(d) T, R, E, A
(e) R, C, D, T
Q2. D belongs to which of the following state?

(a) Bihar
(b) Tripura
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
(e) Manipur
Q3. B faces which of the following person?

(a) P
(b) R
(c) Q
(d) S
(e) T
Q4. Which of the following information is NOT true regarding D?

(a) D is immediate neighbor of B.
(b) D sits second to left of E.
(c) D sits second to right of A.
(d) D faces P
(e) D belongs to Rajasthan
2 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q5. Who belongs to Kerela?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) P
(e) Q
Directions (6-10): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Q6. Statements:
Some stones are rocks.
All rocks are brick.
Some brick are marble.
All hills are marble.
Conclusions
I. Some stones are marble
II. Some hills are brick
III. Some brick are stones
IV. All marble are hills
(a) None follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) II and III follow
(d) Only III follows
(e) None of these
Q7. Statements:
All arrows are bows.
All bows are swords.
Some swords are gun.
All gun are knives.
Conclusions
I. All knives are bows
II. Some swords are knives
III. all bows are arrows
IV. All arrows are swords

(a) Only II follows
(b) II and IV follow
(c) III and IV follow
(d) I and III follow
(e) None of these
Q8. Statements:
Some pianos are violins.
Some violins are drums.
All drums are song.
No song is a flute.
Conclusions
I. Some song are pianos
II. Some drums are flutes
III. Some pianos are drums
IV. No flute is a drum
(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Either II or IV follows
(d) Only IV follows
(e) None of these
Q9. Statements:
Some air are tree.
All tree are green.
All green are kites.
All kites are ball.
Conclusions
I. Some tree are ball
II. All kites are air
III. All ball are green
IV. All tree are kites.
(a) Only IV follows
(b) Either II or III follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only I follows
(e) None of these
Q10. Statements:
All kings are queen.
All soldiers are queen.
All senators are queen.
Some senators are soldiers.

Conclusions:
I. Some senators are kings
II. All queen are soldiers
III. Some queen are senators
IV. Some soldiers are kings
(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows
(d) Only II and III follow
(e) Only III follows
Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
There are eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table. All are facing
towards the center. No two successive friends are sitting together according to alphabetical order. For
Example: A does not sit with B; similarly B does not sit with C and so on. All of them also like
different colour like orange, yellow, red, blue, green, white, pink and violet but not necessarily in the
same order.
There is one person sits between the one who likes white colour and F, who likes violet colour. E is
not immediate neighbor of G. The one who likes pink colour sits second to right of E. There is one
person sits between the one who likes pink colour and green colour. Immediate neighbor of E does
not like blue colour. B does not like blue colour. G sits third to right of one who likes white colour. A
likes yellow colour and sits second to right of G.B is not immediate neighbor of E. Immediate
neighbor of E does not like red colour.
Q11.Who among following likes red colour?

(a) E
(b) A
(c) H
(d) G
(e) B
Q12. Who among following sits opposite to C?

(a) G
(b) F
(c) D
(d) B
(e) H

Q13. Who among following sits second to left of D?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) B
(e) G
Q14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one
of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) F
(b) H
(c) D
(d) E
(e) C
Q15. Who among following likes blue colour?

(a) D
(b) B
(c) F
(d) A
(e) H
Directions (16-20): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which
follow.
There are eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are living on eight storey building. The ground floor
is numbered one and next floor is numbered two and so on. They all belong to different city of Uttar
Pradesh viz. Noida, Agra, Jhansi, Lucknow, Kanpur, Varanasi, Jaunpur and Sultanpur but not
necessarily in the same order. They also like different colour viz. Red, Blue, White, Black, Pink, Violet,
Yellow and Green but not necessarily in the same order.
There are three floors between the person A and who likes green colour, both of them living on even
number floor but none of them living on top floor. F lives on 3 rd floor and belongs to Varanasi. H
belongs to Noida and live immediately below A. B belongs to Agra. There are gap of two floors
between B and H. There is only one floor between B and G, who belongs to Jhansi. C lives
immediately above D, who likes Yellow colour. There are gap of two floors between the person who
like yellow colour and violet colour. The one who likes pink colour belongs to Sultanpur but he does
not live on odd number floor. The one who belongs to Kanpur lives on of the below floor on which
the person who likes red colour. There are as many as person lives between the one who belongs to
Varanasi and the person who likes black colour and as between the person who likes black colour
and the person who likes white colour. The one who likes green color lives above A. The one who
likes blue colour lives below the floor on which the person who belongs to Kanpur lives. There are as
many as floor between C and E, who belongs to Lucknow and as between A and who like red colour.

Q16. Who among following lives on top floor?
(a) B
(b) E
(c) G
(d) D
(e) C
Q17. Who among following likes blue colour?

(a) E
(b) B
(c) F
(d) A
(e) H
Q18. Who among following belongs to Jaunpur?

(a) E
(b) A
(c) G
(d) D
(e) None of these
Q19. If C is relate to red colour and E is related to black colour, then in the same way B is related
to?
(a) Red
(b) Yellow
(c) Green
(d) Blue
(e) None of these
Q20. E lives on which of the following floor?

(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
(e) Second
Q21. Sharwan went in his car to his coaching center. He drove 30m towards North and then turned
his left and moves 40m. He then turned to left and covered 80m. Further he turned to his left and
moved 50m. Finally he turned left and drove 10m and then turned left to travel 10m. How far is he
from the starting point?
(a) 40m.
(b 25m.
(c) 30m.
(d) 35m
(e) None of these

Directions (22-23): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which
follow.
Point H is 6 km towards the East of point G. Point R is 8 km North of point G. Point Q is exactly
midway between point R and point G. Point K is 10 km to the South of point Q. Point L is 3 km
towards the East from point Q. Point S is exactly midway between point G and point H.
Q22. What is the distance between Point L and Point S?

(a) 3km
(b) 4km
(c) 5km
(d) 6km
(e) Cannot be determined
Q23. Point L is in which direction from point K?

(a) North
(b) South
(c) North-east
(d) South-east
(e) None of these
Directions (24-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
(i) P × Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’.
(ii) P + Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’.
(iii) P ÷ Q means ‘P is the father of Q’.
(iv) P – Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’.
Q24. Which of the following means ‘M is niece of R’?

(a) M – T ÷ J – R
(b) T ÷ M – K
(c) K– T ÷ M – R
(d) R + T ÷ M + K
(e) None of these
Q25. Which of the following means ‘J is maternal grandfather of W’?

(a) W ÷ T ÷ J
(b) J ÷ T × W
(c) J × T × W
(d) J × T ÷ W
(e) None of these

Directions (26-30): Study the information and answer the given questions:
There are eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. They all were born on different years viz 1947, 1953,
1958, 1967, 1974, 1982, 1994 and 2002 but not necessarily in same order. But the date and month of
birth of all these persons are same. Calculation is done with respect to the present year 2017 and
assuming months and date to be same. The difference between the age of A and C is perfect cube. D’s
age is multiple of 5 but D is not the oldest person. The difference of age between D and A is equal to
age of D. Age of F is equal to the difference between the age of D and G. B is second youngest among
all of them. Difference of age between B and H is perfect square.
Q26. What is the age of E?

(a) 64
(b) 23
(c) 43
(d) 70
(e) None of these
Q27. How many persons are younger than C?

(a) Four
(b) More than four
(c) Three
(d) One
(e) Two
Q28. Who among following is oldest?

(a) H
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) A
Q29. C was born in which of the following year?

(a) 1953
(b) 1974
(c) 1994
(d) 1958
(e) None of these
Q30. What is the age of H?

(a) 64 year
(b) 59year
(c) 43year
(d) 23year
(e) None of these

Directions (31-35): In the following questions, δ, @, ©, % and * are used with the following
meaning as illustrated below.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find of the four
conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give answer accordingly.
Q31.Statements:
D δ T, T @ R, R © M, M % K
Conclusions:
I. R @ D
II. R % D
III. K * T
IV. M δ T
(a) Either I or II is true
(b) III and IV are true
(c) Either I or II and III are true
(d) Either I or II and IV are true
(e) Either I or II and III and IV are true
Q32. Statements:
J @ F, F δ N, N % H, H © G
Conclusions:
I. G * N
II. N © J
III. F * J
IV. J δ G
(a) I and II are true
(b) I, II and III are true
(c) II, III and IV are true
(d) All are true
(e) None of these
Q33. Statements:
R * K, K % D, D @ V, V δ M
Conclusions:
I. R * D
II. V * R
III. D @ M
IV. M % D

(a) None is true
(b) Only III is true
(c) Only IV is true
(d) Either III or IV is true
(e) Either III or IV and II are true
Q34. Statements:
B © T, T * R, R % F, F @ K
Conclusions:
I. B % R
II. F * T
III. R % K
IV. K * T
(a) None is true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(d) Only III is true
(e) Only IV is true
Q35. Statement:
F % N, N © W, W δ Y, Y * T
Conclusions:
I. F % W
II. T % N
III. N % Y
IV. T % W
(a) I and III are true
(b) I and IV are true
(c) I, II and IV are true
(d) I, II are true
(e) None of the above
Direction (36 – 40): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of Orders cancelled by five different e-commerce companies in six different years
e-Com
P Q R S T
Years
2011 240 405 305 365 640
2012 420 600 470 446 258
2013 600 680 546 430 610
2014 160 208 708 550 586
2015 140 640 656 250 654
2016 290 363 880 195 483

Q36. What was the difference between the highest number of Order cancelled by Company-Q and
the lowest number of Order cancelled by Company-T out of all the six years?
(a) 325
(b) 422
(c) 596
(d) 416
(e) None of these
Q37. What was the approximate percentage increase in number of Order cancelled by Company-S
in the year 2014 as compared to previous year?
(a) 57
(b) 44
(c) 125
(d) 28
(e) 95
Q38. What was the average number of Order cancelled by the Companies P,R, S and T in the year
2014?
(a) 405
(b) 551.5
(c) 501
(d) 488
(e) None of these
Q39. In 2016, 40% Order are cancelled by Company-R due to bad weather and others by packaging
fault. How many orders are cancelled by Company-R due to packaging fault?
(a) 548
(b) 468
(c) 568
(d) 528
(e) None of these
Q40. What is the approximate percentage of cancelled Order by

Companies P and R in 2013 to cancelled orders by Company-S in
2011?
(a) 340
(b) 314
(c) 280
(d) 265
(e) 384

Directions (41–45): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number
series?
Q41. 796, 200, 52, 16, 8, ?

(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 7
(d) 2
(e) 3
Q42. 1430 714 ? 177 87.5 42.75

(a) 356
(b) 365
(c) 346
(d) 364
(e) 350
Q43. 5, 6, 16, 57, ?, 1245

(a) 244
(b) 281
(c) 226
(d) 240
(e) None of these
Q44. 42, 48, 36, 54, ?

(a) 34
(b) 38
(c) 40
(d) 30
(e) None of these
Q45. 6, 4, 8, 23, ?, 385.25

(a) 82.5
(b) 98
(c) 84.5
(d) 78.6
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 46-50): What approximate value should come in place of question marks (?) in the
following questions?
𝟑
Q46. √𝟒𝟓𝟔𝟓𝟎𝟎 =?
(a) 72
(b) 75
(c) 77
(d) 79
(e) 81
𝟐 𝟑 𝟓
Q47. 𝟗 × 𝟕 × 𝟖 × 𝟏𝟕𝟖𝟎 =?
(a) 103
(b) 106
(c) 109
(d) 112
(e) 115
Q48. 2.55% of 440 + 0.366% of 4880 = ?

(a) 23
(b) 25
(c) 27
(d) 29
(e) 31
Q49. (3537.988 ÷ 18.005) × 1.999 = ?

(a) 389
(b) 393
(c) 397
(d) 401
(e) 407
𝟕 𝟑 𝟐
Q50. 𝟏𝟏𝟑𝟓 ÷ (𝟓 × 𝟕 × 𝟗) =?
(a) 8500
(b) 8510
(c) 8520
(d) 8530
(e) 8540

Q51. In a public library, there are 110,000 books, 40% of which are science books. It was decided to
add 20,000 new books to the library. How many of the new books should be science books in order
to bring the percentage of science books in the library up to 45%?
(a) 15000
(b) 1500
(c) 1450
(d) 14500
(e) None of these
Q52. An inspector rejects 0.08% of the meters as defective. How many meters will he examine to
reject 2 meters?
(a) 200m
(b) 250 m
(c) 2500m
(d) 3000m
(e) None of these
Q53. Vijay decides to leave 100 acres of his land to his three daughters Vijaya, Sunanda and
Ansuya in the proportion of one-third, one-fourth, and one-fifth respectively. But Vijaya suddenly
expires. Now how should Vijay divide the land between Sunanda and Anusuya?
500 400
(a) ,
9 9
320 381
(b) ,
7 7
(c) 60, 40
450 350
(d) ,
8 8
(e) None of these
Q54. Given that 24 carat gold is pure gold. 18 carat gold is 3/4 pure gold and 20 carat gold is 5/6
pure gold. What will be The ratio of the pure gold in 18 carat gold to the pure gold in 20 carat gold
(a) 3 : 8
(b) 9 : 10
(c) 15 : 24
(d) 8 : 5
(e) None of these
Q55. 10 horses and 15 cows eat grass of 5 acres in a certain time. How many acres will feed 15
horses and 10 cows for the same time, supposing a horse eats as much as 2 cows?
(a ) 40/7 acres
(b) 39/8 acres
(c) 40/11 acres
(d) 25/9 acres
(e) None of these

Directions (56-60): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below.
Number of TV sets sold over the years
60 Type X Type Y
50
Number of TV sets sold
(in thousands)
40
30
20
10
0
2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015
Year
Q56. What was the average number of Y-type TV sets sold by the company in 2011, 2012, 2014 and
2015 together?
(a) 32869
(b) 36250
(c) 35600
(d) 39827
(e) 42686
Q57. The number of X-type TV sets sold in 2011 was exactly what
percent of the number of Y-type TV sets sold in 2015?
1
(a) 33 2 %
1
(b) 32 %
3
1
(c) 372%
1
(d) 452%
1
(e) 532%
Q58. What is the percentage increase in the sale of Y-type TV sets from 2011 to 2014?
(a) 25%
2
(b) 623%
1
(c) 533%
2
(d) 663%
(e) 49%
Q59. In which of the following years was the percentage increase/decrease of sale of X-type TV
sets the maximum from the previous year?
(a) 2014
(b) 2012
(c) 2015
(d) 2011
(e) 2010
Q60. In which of the following years was the difference between the sales of X-type TV sets and Y-
type TV sets the maximum?
(a) 2010 and 2012
(b) 2013 and 2014
(c) 2011 and 2012
(d) 2014 and 2013
(e) 2012 and 2013
Q61. A bag contains 3 red balls, 4 green balls and 3 yellow balls. Three balls are randomly
selected, find the probability that all the three balls are not of the same colour.
1
(a) 20
19
(b) 20
1
(c) 10
1
(d)
2
(e) None of these
Q62. A box contains 10 balls out of which 3 are red and the rest are blue. In how many ways can a
random sample of 6 balls be drawn from the bag so that at the most 2 red balls are included in the
sample and no sample has all the 6 balls of the same colour?
(a) 105
(b) 168
(c) 189
(d) 120
(e) None of these
Q63. A large solid metallic cylinder whose radius and height are equal to each other is to be
melted and 48 identical solid balls are to be recast from the liquid metal so formed. What is the
ratio of the radius of a ball to the radius of the cylinder?
(a) 1 : 16
(b) 1 : 12
(c) 1 : 8
(d) 1 : 4
(e) None of these

Q64. Q is as much younger than R as much R is older than T. If the sum of the ages of R and T is 50
years, what is the difference between R and Q’s age?
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 25 years
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Q65. 10 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days and 15 women can complete the same work
in 12 days. If all the 10 men and 15 women work together, in how many days will the work get
completed?
(a) 6
(b) 19/3
(c) 20/3
(d) 23/3
(e) None of the above
Directions (66-70): In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and
Give answer (a) if x > y
Give answer (b) if x ≥ y
Give answer (c) if x < y
Give answer (d) if x ≤ y
Give answer (e) if x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
Q66. I. x 2 − x − 12 = 0
II. y 2 + 5y + 6 = 0
Q67. I. x 2 − 8x + 15 = 0
II. y 2 − 3y + 2 = 0
Q68. I. x 2 − 32 = 112
II. y − √169 = 0
Q69. I. x − √121 = 0
II. y 2 − 121 = 0
Q70. I. x 2 − 16 = 0
II. y 2 − 9y + 20 = 0

Directions (71-80): Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of
the questions.
PASSAGE – I
Despite the economic crunch worldwide that saw pulverization of some of the largest banking and
finance giants, Indian banking houses have managed to show positive growth this quarter. Some of
India’s leading national banks have posted a net profit rise of more than 40% over the last quarter
amid global turmoil. This would come as a big shot in the arm for the investors and consumers of
these banks even though apprehension is mounting on other banking and broking firms worldwide.
One of the main reasons behind the success of these banks this quarter would be their direct banking
by the Government India. People take solace in their investments in public sector watching the
bailout packages being cashed out by governments all over the world to save big business houses.
PASSAGE – II
Other private banks in India have also reported a substantial net profit over the last quarter. Given
the international and domestic scenario, one cannot put this down as a mundane achievement. While
others are on a cost cutting spree and firing employees, Indian Companies are actually working on
boosting staffing in banking and broking sectors. This can be seen as a big boon in the days to come
when the current recession eases and the economy gradually comes back on to the fast track. The
finance minister has assured Indian public about the sound health of all Indian banks. This could also
be evident from the fact that there have been no mergers and takeovers in Indian Banking sector in a
contrast to world scenario where finance houses are looking for mergers to cut costs on operations.
We definitely are not looking to thrive; rather we are looking for growth, It is just that the pace of
growth is a little slow now as compared to a year or two before. These are hard times of test the hard.
The weak in business and career will be weeded out and it is sometimes very beneficial for business
on the long run.
Q71. What, according to the author, is the reason for the success for Indian national banks in this
quarter?
(a) Indian national banks do not have any commitments in troubled foreign markets
(b) These banks can never face the financial crisis because of their sheer size
(c) These banks are ready to give loans at a very low rate of interest
(d) The public is ready to invest in these banks because of the knowledge that these banks get strong
support from the Government.
(e) None of these
Q72. What does the phrase ‘shot in the arm’ as used in the passage mean?
(a) Shock
(b) Fear
(c) Encouragement
(d) Anxiety
(e) None of these
Q73. How, according to the author, is the current recession beneficial?
(a) Worldwide, companies have realized that India is a strong power to reckon with
(b) India is surging ahead of the other companies throughout the world
(c) After the recession is over international companies will turn to India for investments
(d) Recession is bringing down the prices of essential commodities
(e) None of these
Q74. What, according to the author, will be a big boon in the days to come?
(a) The economy coming back on the fast track
(b) The slowing down of the economy
(c) Increased hiring in Indian financial sector in times of economic slowdown
(d) The cost cutting carried out by all the companies
(e) None of these
Q75. Which of the following statements is definitely true in the context of the passage?
(A) India has not been affected by the economic slowdown.
(B) Indian Banks are showing growth in this quarter despite the recession.
(C) While banking industry in the West was severely affected by the recession in the past, it is now
gradually recovering and showing a positive growth.
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) and (B)
(e) Only (B) and (C)
Q76. Which of the following strengthens the finance minister’s statement about the sound health
of Indian Banks with respect to the passage?
(A) There have been no acquisitions and mergers of Indian Banks.
(B) The Indian Banks are recording a positive growth.
(C) Layoffs have been observed worldwide.
(a) Only (A) and (B)
(b) Only (A) and (C)
(c) Only (A)
(d) Only (B)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

Directions (77-78): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the
word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q77. TURMOIL
(a) danger
(b) shock
(c) sadness
(d) fear
(e) chaos
Q78. PULVERIZATION
(a) polarization
(b) mashing
(c) debasement
(d) fall
(e) crushing
Directions (79-80): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the
word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q79. THRIVE
(a) succeed
(b) deteriorate
(c) worry
(d) tremble
(e) strive
Q80. MUNDANE
(a) extraordinary
(b) regular
(c) severe
(d) visionary
(e) routine
Directions (81-85): Rearrange the following seven sentences A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A. To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about -
NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either
or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
B. Contrastingly, the CRM, such at; a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute
performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is

theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the pre-specified material or
conversely, all students may fail the test.
C. In most of these books the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm-referenced
(NRM) or criterion-referenced (CRM).
D. Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative
performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve
distribution.
E. Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
F. CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used
for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the taught
or learned material.
G. One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the
categories of “test characteristics” and “logistical dimensions.”
Q81. Which of the following should be the first sentence after rearrangement?
(a) G
(b) C
(c) D
(d) D
(e) E
Q82. Which of the following should be the seventh (Last) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q83. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E
Q84. Which of the following should be the second sentence after

rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q85. Which of the following should be the third sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) G
(d) D
(e) E
Direction (86-90): In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines
in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Pick out the option which when used to start a
sentence combines both the above sentences in one. Select the best out of the five answer choices
given, to make the passage complete and coherent.
Q86.____________. Our society is still deeply mired in propagating caste and religious prejudices;
rather than take up the issue in isolation, we need to strike at the root cause — caste prejudice. I
wonder how this marginalized community will be able to attain some kind of social mobility even
with reservation when there is a growing anti-reservation sentiment. We need to do something for
them which is sustainable and helps them in achieving a social status on their own.
(a) Because there is no support by society to eliminate the most inhuman of professions, manual
scavenging still persist which is the basic reason
(b) Because there is despicable practice of manual scavenging which still persist in India, society
support inhuman profession
(c) The basic reason why the despicable practice of manual scavenging still persists in India is
because there is negligible or no support by society to eliminate this most inhuman of professions.
(d) No support by society to eliminate this most inhuman of professions manual scavenging still
persist in India which is a despicable practice
(e) Why the despicable practice of manual scavenging still persists in India is negligible and no
support by society.
Q87. ___________. More than half of the are under cultivation does not have access to irrigation.
Agriculture income generated at average size of land holding is not adequate to meet farmers’
needs.
Modern agriculture requires investment in farm machinery and use of purchased inputs like seed,
fertiliser, agri-chemicals, diesel and hired labor. Most often, savings generated from
unremunerative crop enterprise are inadequate for such investments. Rising expenses on health,
education, social ceremonies and non-food items put additional financial demand on farm
families.
(a) Indian agriculture low scale and low productivity. About 85% of the operational land-hold the
country below 5 acre and 67% farm house hold one acre.
(b) Indian agriculture is known by low scale and productivity. Operational land –holding in country
below 5 acre and 67% farm households survive average.

(c) About 85% of the operational land-holding is below 5 acres and 67% households Indian survive on
average landholding on one acre.
(d) About 85% of the operational land-holding in country are below 5 acre and 67% average
landholding on one acre.
(e) Indian agriculture is characterized by low scale and low productivity. About 85% of the
operational land-holdings in the country are below 5 acres and 67% farm households survive on an
average landholding of one acre.
Q88___________. However, with the declaration of peace, there was a need to do something about
the installed capacity. And so, in 1946, Tupperware company came into being.
At present, the use of plastic has become so ubiquitous that even birds, animals and fish have
unwittingly made it part of their diet. Disposed plastic degrades slowly, its chemicals getting
leached into surroundings. Further, it breaks down into smaller components over time, entering
our food chain and landing up on our plates.
(a) The first synthetic plastic was called Bakelite and was derived from fossil fuels. Large scale
production during Second World War, was directed for war effort.
(b) Plastics had their origin in cellulose derivatives. The first synthetic plastic was called Bakelite and
was derived from fossil fuels. During the Second World War, large-scale production of plastic was
directed towards the war effort.
(c) Plastic originates from derivatives. Bakelite was derived from fossil fuels. Large-scale production
of plastic was directed towards war effort.
(d) During the Second World War, large-scale production of plastic was for war effort. The first
plastic Bakelite.
(e) During Bakelite was call first synthetic plastic, was derived from fossil fuel. Plastic had origin in
cellulose derivatives. Large-scale production of plastic towards war.
Q89. _____________. The concept, credited to British economist John Maynard Keynes, has been
heavily criticized for its assumption that people are naïve. The theory of rational expectations,
which among other things states that people learn from experience and can reset their earlier
beliefs, was a response to the idea of money illusion.
(a) The people care about the nominal value money rather than its real value. Workers, for instance,
would be impressed if their wages double in a year if real money drop more than half
(b) The notion that people care about drop by more than half during the same period. According to
this idea, workers, for instance, would be impressed if their wages gets double.
(c) The notion that people care more about the nominal value, would be impressed if their wages
double than its real value. Real values of their money were to drop by more than half during the
same period.
(d) The notion that people care more about the nominal value of money rather than its real value.
According to this idea, workers, for instance, would be impressed if their wages double in a year
even if the real value of their money were to drop by more than half during the same period.
(e) The notion were to drop by more than half during the same period. According to this idea,
workers, for instance, would be impressed if its wages double.

Q90. ___________. Down the ages, man has tried to discover life’s meaning, the purpose of living,
whether there is a God or release from suffering… and to attain to some spiritual state where all
the questions are understood by some experience, a transcendent mystical union with the
ultimate.
(a) Trying to be something that you are not is not possible. The very want is no different than any
other want that we might have.
(b) The very want is no different than any other want. It is not possible.
(c) Trying to be something that you are not is possible. The vary want is not different.
(d) We might have, something that we are not, is not possible. The very want is no different.
(e) No different than any other want that they might have.
Directions (91-95): In the questions given below there is an error in one or both the statement.
Mark your answer accordingly from the given options. If the given sentence is grammatically
correct or does not require any correction, choose (d) i.e.) if there is no error in either of the
sentence.
Q91
I. When he returned from America, he informed me that he had come here to do urgent work.
II. I bought a pair of trousers yesterday.
(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.
Q92.
I. It is nothing else but fatigue.
II. She seldom or ever has sweet talks with her son.
Q93.
I. I read the proof yesterday meticulously at home.
II. The petrol price hike issue has been debated more hotly than the
urea scam.

Q94.
I. You will not be allowed to go anywhere else to play outdoor games.
II. She behaved in a cowardly manner before the headmaster and hesitated to do the work
Q95.
I. The slaughter of pandas for their pelts have caused panda population to decline Drastically.
II. Neither she nor I am going to the festival
Directions (96-100): In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by a word given
in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (a), (b),(c) and (d). You have to tell
which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (e) as your answer if the word given in bold
after the blank is your answer i.e “No change ”.
Brazil, Latin America’s largest economy, 26. ________ (has) coasting along comfortably with record
low inflation for a decade and healthy foreign direct investment 27. ________ (and) the path of
recovery from a recent recession. But the “Lava Jato” anti-corruption movement that 28. ________
(banned) it three years back seems to 29. ________ (distance) a long way from delivering on the
promise of democratic and transparent governance. Inquiries into public fraud by politicians and
captains of business have 30. ________ (brought) skeletons tumbling out of the cupboard.
Q96. has
(a) have
(b) has had
(c) has been
(d) had
(e) No change
Q97. and
(a) in
(b) so that
(c) that
(d) to
(e) No change
Q98. banned
(a) bans
(b) rocked
(c) rocks
(d) escalates
(e) No change
Q99. distance
(a) made
(b) had
(c) be
(d) become
(e) No change
Q100. brought
(a) grew
(b) emptied
(c) contained
(d) grown
(e) No change


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1 Adda247 | No.

1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q1. Who sit at the extreme ends of the row?

Q2. D belongs to which of the following state?

Q3. B faces which of the following person?

Q4. Which of the following information is NOT true regarding D?

2 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

3 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

4 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q11.Who among following likes red colour?

Q12. Who among following sits opposite to C?

5 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q15. Who among following likes blue colour?

6 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q17. Who among following likes blue colour?

Q18. Who among following belongs to Jaunpur?

Q20. E lives on which of the following floor?

7 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q22. What is the distance between Point L and Point S?

Q23. Point L is in which direction from point K?

Q24. Which of the following means ‘M is niece of R’?

Q25. Which of the following means ‘J is maternal grandfather of W’?

8 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q26. What is the age of E?

Q27. How many persons are younger than C?

Q28. Who among following is oldest?

Q29. C was born in which of the following year?

Q30. What is the age of H?

9 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

10 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

11 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q40. What is the approximate percentage of cancelled Order by

12 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q41. 796, 200, 52, 16, 8, ?

Q42. 1430 714 ? 177 87.5 42.75

Q43. 5, 6, 16, 57, ?, 1245

Q44. 42, 48, 36, 54, ?

Q45. 6, 4, 8, 23, ?, 385.25

13 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q48. 2.55% of 440 + 0.366% of 4880 = ?

Q49. (3537.988 ÷ 18.005) × 1.999 = ?

14 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

15 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

17 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

18 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

20 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

21 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q84. Which of the following should be the second sentence after

22 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

23 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

24 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

25 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

27 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

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