6101 HW 2

Conner Herndon September 2, 2014

Ch. 1, Derivation 9: The electromagnetic field is invariant under a gauge transformation of the scalar
and vector potential given by

~→A
A ~ + ∇ψ(~r, t)
1 ∂ψ (1)
φ→φ−
c ∂t
where ψ is arbitrary (but differentiable). What effect does this gauge transformation have on the
Lagrangian of a particle moving in the electromagnetic field? Is the motion affected?

The Lagrangian for a particle in the electromagnetic field is

1 q ~ 
L = mv 2 − qϕ + A · ~v . (2)
2 c

Under the gauge transformation, our new Lagrangian is

 
0 1 1 ∂ψ q h~ i
L = mv − q ϕ −
2
+ A + ∇ψ · ~v
2 c ∂t c
  (3)
q ∂ψ
L0 = L + + ∇ψ · ~v .
c ∂t

We can see that

dψ ∂ψ X ∂ψ ∂xi ∂ψ
= + = + ∇ψ · ~v . (4)
dt ∂t ∂xi ∂t ∂t
i

If we define ψ 0 ≡ qc ψ,

dψ 0
L0 = L + . (5)
dt

This Lagrangian is of the form of equation 1.570 in Goldstein. When ψ 0 is a differentiable function of the
generalized coordinates and time, the new Lagrangian L 0 results in the same equations of motion as L .
Hence the gauge transformation has no effect on the motion of the particle.

Ch. 1, Exercise 21: Two mass points of mass m1 and m2 are connected by a string passing through
a hole in a smooth table so that m1 rests on the table surface and m2 hangs suspended. Assum-
ing m2 moves only in a vertical line, what are the generalized coordinates for the system? Write
the Lagrange equations for the system, and if possible, discuss the physical significance any of them
might have. Reduce the problem to a single second-order differential equation and obtain a first inte-
gral of the equation. What is its physical significance? (Consider the motion only until m1 reaches the hole.

Let the total length of the string be ` and the distance from the hole to m1 is r1 ≡ r. Then the
distance from the hole to m2 is r2 = (` − r). The potential energy will be taken to be zero at a distance `
below the hole. Then the potential energy of m1 is V1 = m1 g` and the potential of m2 is V2 = m2 gr. The ki-
netic energy of m1 is just circular motion about the hole given by T1 = 12 m1 r2 θ̇2 + 12 m1 ṙ2 , where θ will be the
angle on the table measured from the initial location of m1 to its later position. The kinetic energy of m2 is
the rate at which r is changing, T1 = 12 m2 ṙ2 . Our generalized coordinates are (r, θ). Then our Lagrangian is
1 1
L = m1 r2 θ̇2 + (m1 + m2 ) ṙ2 − m2 gr − m1 g`. (6)
2 2

Then for r we have equations

∂L
= m1 rθ̇2 − m2 g
∂r (7)
d ∂L d
= (m2 ṙ) = (m1 + m2 ) r̈
dt ∂ ṙ dt
which we set equal to give

(m1 + m2 ) r̈ − m1 rθ̇2 + m2 g = 0. (8)

We can interpret this equation as force balance. The force on the masses is equal to gravity (−m2 g) and
the pull from m1 . For θ we have equations

∂L
=0
∂θ
(9)
d ∂L d  
= m1 r2 θ̇ ,
dt ∂ θ̇ dt

which we set equal to give

d  
m1 r2 θ̇ = 0. (10)
dt

This means we conserve the quantity m1 r2 θ̇. This may be interpreted to be the conservation angular mo-
mentum. Let’s define L ≡ m1 r2 θ̇. Then we may rewrite our earlier equation in terms of this quantity:

L2
(m1 + m2 ) r̈ − + m2 g = 0. (11)
m1 r3

Now we multiply by ṙ,

L2 ṙ
(m1 + m2 ) ṙr̈ − + m2 g ṙ = 0
m1 r 3
(12)
L2
   
d 1 1
(m1 + m2 ) ṙ2 + + m2 gr = 0.
dt 2 2m1 r2

So this inner quantity is held constant. We may interpret this quantity to be the energy of the system.

Ch. 1, Exercise 22: Obtain the Lagrangian and equations of motion for the double pendulum illustrated
in Fig 1.4, where the lengths of the pendula are `1 and `2 with corresponding masses m1 and m2 .

Let θ1 be the angle from vertical to mass m1 and θ2 be the angle from vertical starting from mass m1
and ending at mass m2 . The kinetic energy of m1 is T1 = 12 m1 `21 θ̇2 . To find the kinetic energy of m2 , we
need to find its velocity. Breaking into components, we have

~r2 = [`1 sin θ1 + `2 sin θ2 ] î − [`1 cos θ1 + `2 cos θ2 ] ĵ

h i h i
˙ 2 = `1 θ̇1 cos θ1 + `2 θ̇2 cos θ2 î + `1 θ̇1 sin θ1 + `2 θ̇2 sin θ2 ĵ
~r (13)
ṙ2 = `21 θ̇12 + `22 θ̇22 + 2`1 `2 θ̇1 θ̇2 [cos θ1 cos θ2 + sin θ1 sin θ2 ] ,

so the kinetic energy of the second mass is

1 n o
T2 = m2 `21 θ̇12 + `22 θ̇22 + 2`1 `2 θ̇1 θ̇2 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) . (14)
2

Our potential energy of mass m1 is V1 = −m1 g`1 cos θ1 , and the potential energy of mass m2 may be found
by the ĵ component of the r2 vector: V2 = −m2 g (`1 cos θ1 + `2 cos θ2 ). Thus the Lagrangian only a mother
could love is
1 1 n o
L = m1 `21 θ̇2 + m2 `21 θ̇12 + `22 θ̇22 + 2`1 `2 θ̇1 θ̇2 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) + m1 g`1 cos θ1 + m2 g (`1 cos θ1 + `2 cos θ2 ) .
2 2
(15)

Taking some partials gives us

∂L
= −m2 `1 `2 θ̇1 θ̇2 sin(θ1 − θ2 ) − m1 g`1 sin θ1 − m2 g`1 sin θ1
∂θ1
(16)
∂L
= m1 `1 `2 θ̇1 θ̇2 sin(θ1 − θ2 ) + g`1 sin θ1 (m1 + m2 ),
∂θ1

∂L 1 1
= m1 `21 θ̇1 + m2 `21 θ̇1 + m2 `1 `2 θ̇2 cos (θ1 − θ2 )
∂ θ̇1 2 2
(17)
d ∂L  
= −m1 `21 θ̈12 + m2 `21 θ̈1 + m2 `1 `2 θ̈2 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) − m2 `1 `2 θ̇1 θ̇2 sin (θ1 − θ2 ) θ̇1 − θ̇2 .
dt ∂ θ̇1

We may subtract these quantities to yield zero (our first equation of motion):

d ∂L ∂L
− = m1 `21 θ̈1 + m2 `21 θ̈1 + m2 `1 `2 θ̈1 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) + g`1 sin θ1 (m1 + m2 ) + m2 `1 `2 θ̇22 sin (θ1 − θ2 ) = 0
dt ∂ θ̇1 ∂θ1
(m1 + m2 ) `1 θ̈1 + m2 `2 θ̈1 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) + g sin θ1 (m1 + m2 ) + m2 `2 θ̇22 sin (θ1 − θ2 ) = 0
  h i
(m1 + m2 ) `1 θ̈1 + g sin θ1 + m2 `2 θ̈1 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) + θ̇22 sin (θ1 − θ2 ) = 0.
(18)

We can do the same fun-filled procedure for θ2 . This gives us

∂L
= −m2 `1 `2 θ̇1 θ̇2 sin (θ1 − θ2 ) − m2 g`2 sin θ2 (19)
∂θ2

and

d ∂L  
= m2 `22 θ̈2 + m2 `1 `2 θ̈1 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) − m2 `1 `2 θ̇1 sin (θ1 − θ2 ) θ̇1 − θ̇2 . (20)
dt ∂ θ̇2

Then Euler-Lagrange gives the second equation of motion

 d ∂L ∂L
− = m2 `22 θ̈2 + m2 `1 `2 θ̈1 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) − m2 `1 `2 θ̇12 sin (θ1 − θ2 ) + m2 g`2 sin θ2 = 0
dt ∂ θ̇2 ∂θ2 (21)
`2 θ̈2 + `1 θ̈1 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) − `1 θ̇12 sin (θ1 − θ2 ) + g sin θ2 = 0.

Oh man that was not fun at all.

Ch. 2, Derivation 3: Prove that the shortest distance between two points in space is a straight line.

In Euclidean space, we have the infinitesimal arc length

s
dx2 2 dxn 2
   
ds = 1 + + ... + dx1 (22)
dx1 dx1

for all coordinates xi in n dimensions. We may restate this as

v
u n " 2 #
uX dx i
ds = t dx1 . (23)
dx1
i=1

Name f (x1 , ..., xn , dx dxn

dx1 , ... dx1 , x1 ) to be the square root quantity. Then
1

∂f 1 dxi
dxi
=
∂ dx1 f dx1
(24)
∂f
= 0.
∂xi

Then
!
dxi d (1/f ) 1 d2 xi
 
d ∂f d 1 dxi
= = +
dx1 dxi
∂ dx dx1 f dx1 dx1 dx1 f dx21
1 (25)
d2 xi
 
1 1 dxi df
= − +
f f dx1 dx1 dx21
df ∂f dxi ∂f
but dx1 = ∂xi dx1 and ∂xi = 0, so
!
d ∂f 1 d 2 xi
= . (26)
dx1 dxi
∂ dx f dx21
1

To minimize the arc length we need

d ∂f ∂f
dxi
= (27)
dx1 ∂ dx ∂xi
1

which means

1 d2 xi
= 0. (28)
f dx21
dxi
If we assume f 6= 0, then the solution is that dx1 is constant. Then the slope of the curve xi (x1 ) is constant.
Then it is a straight line.
Ch. 2, Exercise 14: A uniform hoop of mass m and radius r rolls without slipping on a fixed cylinder of
radius R as shown in the figure (page 66). The only external force is that of gravity. If the smaller cylinder
starts rolling from rest on top of the bigger cylinder, use the method of Lagrange multipliers to find the
point at which the hoop falls off the cylinder.

According to equation 2.23 in Goldstein, for m equations of constraint fα , coordinates qk and time, and
undetermined Lagrange multipliers λα , the Euler-Lagrange equation for a lagrangian L is
  m
d ∂L ∂L X ∂fα
− + λα . (29)
dt ∂ q̇k ∂qk ∂qk
α=1

If we require the hoops to touch, then we may constrain this length to a variable D ≡ r + R. From the
no-slipping condition we have rϕ = (R + r)θ, where ϕ is the angle in the smaller hoop and θ in the larger.
Then we have two equations of constraint:

f1 = D − r − R = 0
(30)
f2 = rϕ − (R + r)θ = 0.

The total kinetic energy is that of mass m rotating about the large hoop and the smaller hoop’s own rota-
tional energy. Our potential energy is only from gravity. Then our Lagrangian is
1  
L = m Ḋ2 + D2 θ̇2 + r2 ϕ̇2 − mgD cos θ. (31)
2

Using equation 29 above with qk = D, θ, ϕ we have

  m
d ∂L ∂L X ∂fα
− + λα =0
dt ∂ Ḋ ∂D ∂D (32)
α=1
2
mD̈ − mDθ̇ + mg cos θ − λ1 = 0,

  m
d ∂L ∂L X ∂fα
− + λα =0
dt ∂ θ̇ ∂θ ∂θ (33)
α=1
2
mD θ̈ + 2mDḊθ̇ − mgD sin θ − λ2 (R + r) = 0,
and
  m
d ∂L ∂L X ∂fα
− + λα =0
dt ∂ ϕ̇ ∂ϕ ∂ϕ (34)
α=1
2
mr ϕ̈ + λ2 r = 0

R+r
Since we know from our slipping constraint that ϕ̈ = r θ̈, equation 34 gives

R+r
λ2 = −mr θ̈ = −m(R + r)θ̈, (35)
r

or

λ2
θ̈ = − . (36)
m(R + r)
We also know from D = R + r and Ḋ = D̈ = 0 that equation 33 has

m(R + r)2 θ̈ − mg(R + r) sin θ = λ2 (R + r) (37)

or

λ2 + mg sin θ
θ̈ = . (38)
m(R + r)

We may then combine equations 36 and 38 to give

λ2 λ2 + mg sin θ
− =
m(R + r) m(R + r)
(39)
1
λ2 = − mg sin θ
2
which means we may eliminate λ2 by inserting into equation 36:

g sin θ
θ̈ = (40)
2(R + r)

If we multiply both sides by θ̇ we have

d 2 g d g θ̇ sin θ
θ̇θ̈ = θ̇ = (− cos θ) = . (41)
dt 2(R + r) dt 2(R + r)

Thus
 
d 2 g cos θ
θ̇ + =0 (42)
dt 2(R + r)

meaning the inside of the brackets is constant. Let this constant be K. Then

g cos θ
θ̇2 = K − , (43)
2(R + r)

but since the hoop starts at rest, we need θ̇ = 0 when θ = 0. which means
g
K= (44)
2(R + r)

and therefore
g
θ̇2 = [1 − cos θ] . (45)
2(R + r)

From equation 32 we have the undetermined coefficient λ1 we may now find:

g
λ1 = 0 − m(R + r) · [1 − cos θ] + mg cos θ
2(R + r)
= mg − 2mg cos θ (46)
= mg(1 − 2 cos θ).

The constraint that tells us when the hoop has detached is f1 . When this coefficient goes to zero, then
there is no “force" done by the constraint. We find this by setting λ1 = 0. The value of θ for this angle is
θf all = π/3. Since we now know the angle, we mayh compute the actual i location
√ in reference
 to the center of
R
the cylinder in Cartesian coordinates ~rf all = R sin θf all î + cos θf all ĵ = 2 3î + ĵ .