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BUNDA CAMPUS

2018 FIRST SEMESTER FINAL EXAMINATIONS

BACHELOR OF VETERINARY MEDICINE YEAR 3

VET 313: VETERINARY PHARMACOLOGY I

Date: WEDNESDAY, 11 APRIL 2018 Time: 14:00 – 17:00 hrs. Venue: RM4

INSTRUCTIONS

 All answers should be written in neat and clear hand writing.

 This exam has two sections:

o Section I, multiple choice questions.
o Section II, short answers.

 All questions should be answered on the answer sheet provided.

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SECTION I MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 POINT EACH)

1. The same dose of a drug is given by two different routes of administration (A, B) and the
plasma concentration is followed over time as shown in the drawing.

a. Curve A results from intramuscular ad- ministration

b. Curve B results from intravenous administration
c. Curve A results from oral administration
d. Curve A results from intravenous administration
e. The bioavailability of the drug in curve B is the greatest

2. The first-pass effect is most apt to occur after which route of drug administration?

a. Intravenous
b. Intramuscular
c. Subcutaneous
d. Oral
e. Inhalation

3. All of the following statements about the therapeutic index (TI) are true EXCEPT

a. a high TI suggests that the drug is safe to use.

b. a low TI suggests that the drug is dangerous to use therapeutically.
c. a high TI indicates that the ED50 far exceeds the LD50.
d. the standard safety margin is a better measure of the drug’s safety than is TI.
e. Quantal dose–response curves are used in the calculation of the TI.

4. Which of the following statements concerning drug receptors is true?

a. Drug receptors play an important role in the bioavailability of a drug.

b. Drugs cannot act unless they are first released from a drug receptor.
c. A drug can act as an antagonist even if it is bound to a drug receptor.
d. Drugs cannot act unless they are first bound to a receptor.
e. Most drugs combine with their receptor by forming covalent bonds.

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5. The maximum effect (Emax) achieved by a drug is a measure of

a. the drug’s potency.

b. the drug’s efficacy (intrinsic activity).
c. the drug’s antagonistic magnitude.
d. the drug’s therapeutic index.
e. the drug’s lipid solubility.

6. A drug is eliminated by first-order processes. Assume 50 mg of the drug is administered

intravenously and at 6 hours, 25mg remain in the body. How much drug will remain in the
body at 24 hours.

a. 18 mg
b. 15 mg
c. 10 mg
d. 6 mg
e. 3 mg

7. A 20-kg dog is dosed with 5 mg of drug X. If the half-life of drug X is 30 minutes, how long
will it take for the animal to have less than 1 mg of the drug remaining in the body?

a. 90 minutes
b. 120 minutes
c. 150 minutes
d. 180 minutes
e. 210 minutes

8. You are presented with a severely dehydrated dog in renal failure. Its glomerular filtration
rate is one fourth normal. The antibiotic you want to administer is cleared solely by
glomerular filtration. Assume the drug’s volume of distribution is only in the extracellular fluid
and that Vd is one half normal. In a normal animal the antibiotics half-life is 60 minutes, what
would it be in this animal?

a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 120 minutes
e. 240 minutes

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9. The plasma concentration of drug X in a dairy cow is 5 μg/mL. Assume drug X is a weak base
with a pKa of 8.4, and the milk pH is 6.4 and the pH of plasma is 7.4. What is the concentration
of drug X in the milk?

a. 5 μg/mL
b. 30 μg/mL
c. 45 μg/mL
d. 55 μg/mL
e. 500 μg/mL

10. The mechanism by which most drugs are absorbed following an intramuscular injection is

a. simple diffusion.
b. active transport.
c. pinocytosis.
d. facilitated diffusion.

11. Drug X is a weak acid with a pKa of 4. Approximately, what percent of the drug is ionized
in a pH 2 environment?

a. 10%
b. 5%
c. 1%
d. 0.1%
e. 0.5%

12. The mechanism by which pretreatment with phenobarbital for several days decreases the
duration of action of pentobarbital involves

a. stimulation by phenobarbital of the synthesis of microsomal enzymes in the liver.

b. neutralization by phenobarbital of naturally occurring inhibitors.
c. acceleration of the excretion of pentobarbital.
d. competition for receptor sites in the CNS.
e. increased binding of pentobarbital to plasma proteins.

13. The renal clearance of a drug (weak organic base) is favored if the drug

a. has low solubility in water.

b. reduces renal blood flow.
c. has a high degree of binding to plasma protein.
d. is put in the ionized form by acidifying the urine.
e. is put in the nonionized form by alkalinizing the urine.

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14. The major organ for drug excretion is the

a. brain.
b. liver.
c. kidney.
d. spleen.
e. gastrointestinal tract.

15. Biotransformation of drugs usually results in the

a. formation of metabolites which are usually more polar.

b. formation of metabolites which are less polar.
c. formation of substances which are more active than the drug itself.
d. liver toxicity.
e. formation of a carcinogen.

16. Which of the following drug characteristics will tend to favor a low apparent volume of
distribution?

a. Extensive plasma protein binding

b. A large molecular weight
c. High water solubility
d. All of the above are correct
e. None of the above (A, B, C)

17. The two curves below were obtained for drug A and drug B. The ordinate represents the
percent of animals responding to the beneficial effect of the drug. Which of the following
statements is most correct?

a. Drug A is more potent than Drug B.

b. Drug B is more potent than Drug A.
c. Drug A is 30 times more potent than Drug B.
d. Drug A is 300 times more potent than Drug B.
e. Drug B is 30 times more potent than Drug A.

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18. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding a partial agonist?

a. It is a drug that is able to produce the full cell/tissue response.

b. It is a drug that induces a response, but the maximum response is less than the
maximum response to a full agonist.
c. It is a drug that binds to the receptor, suppressing the receptor’s basal intrinsic
activity.
d. It is the drug that has high affinity for the receptor, but has no intrinsic activity.

19. Activation of which of the following G protein-coupled receptors will mostly likely cause
an increase in Ca2+ release from the endoplasmic reticulum?

a. Gs
b. Gi/o
c. Gq

20. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding species variation in

pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics?

a. In the dog, glucuronidation of drugs is only present at a low rate.

b. Xylazine is a much more potent sedative in horses than cattle.
c. Horses have higher levels of plasma esterases than cattle to break down
succinylcholine.
d. Nonherbivores have a more complete GI absorption of a benzimidazole anthelmintic
than herbivores.
e. Most of lipophilic organic bases have smaller volumes of distribution in ruminants
than monogastric animals.

21. Acidifying the urine would be expected to increase the rate of elimination for

a. a weak acid with a pKa of 7.

b. a weak base with a pKa of 6.
c. both (A) and (B) are correct.
d. neither (A) nor (B) is correct

22. α1-Receptors are associated with which one of the following effects?

a. Cardio-acceleration
b. Vasodilation
c. Pupillary dilation
d. Bronchodilation
e. Pupillary constriction

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23. Which of the following adrenergic agonists at clinical doses produces dilation of vessels in
muscle, constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive inotropic and chronotropic effects on
the heart?

a. Phenylpropanolamine
b. Isoproterenol
c. Isoxsuprine
d. Epinephrine
e. Dobutamine

24. Which of the following drugs produces pupillary dilation (mydriasis) without causing
cycloplegia?

a. Scopolamine
b. Pilocarpine
c. Isoproterenol
d. Tropicamide
e. Phenylephrine

25. Which of the following bronchodilators is considered the safest for use in an animal with
cardiac disease?

a. Isoproterenol
b. Terbutaline
c. Ephedrine
d. Epinephrine

26. Nicotinic receptor sites are found in all of the following locations, except

a. parasympathetic ganglia.
b. sympathetic ganglia.
c. skeletal muscle.
d. bronchial smooth muscle.

27. Which of the following autonomic drugs would be most likely to increase myometrial
contractility?

a. Atropine
b. Phenoxybenzamine
c. Ractopamine
d. Xylazine

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28. Which of the following is the sign of bethanechol stimulation of muscarinic receptors?

a. Skeletal muscle twitching

b. Urination
c. Constipation
d. Dry mucous membranes

29. Which of the following muscarinic receptor subtype mediates the bethanechol-induced
decrease in heart rate and contractility?

a. M1
b. M2
c. M3
d. M4
e. M5

30. Which of the following adrenergic receptors subtype mediates the phenylpropanolamine-
induced contraction of the trigone and sphincter muscle of the urinary bladder? This effect is
useful to treat urinary incontinence.

a. α1
b. α2
c. β1
d. β2
e. β3

31. Metoprolol is used in a cat with hyperthyroidism showing cardiac arrhythmia. The use of
metoprolol in this cat will most likely cause

a. hypersalivation.
b. mydriasis.
c. bronchoconstriction.
d. hyperglycemia.
e. decreased renin secretion.

32. Which of the following would be most likely to increase airway resistance in a dog with
pulmonary obstruction?

a. Albuterol
b. Atenolol
c. Isoproterenol
d. Phenoxybenzamine
e. Propranolol

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33. Which of the following β2-adrenergic agonists can be used legally as a repartitioning agent
in cattle and swine and use of it does not require preslaughter withdrawal?

a. Albuterol
b. Clenbuterol
c. Ractopamine
d. Terbutaline

34. Which of the following is not a pharmacological effect of yohimbine?

a. CNS excitation.
b. Hyperglycemia.
c. Hypertension.
d. Increased GI motility.
e. Tachycardia.

35. Which of the following is a major effect of angiotensin II?

a. Stimulation of thirst and vasopressin secretion.

b. Vasodilation.
c. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion.
d. Tachycardia.

36. Which of the following is a function of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)?

a. Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.

b. Converts bradykinin to inactive metabolites.
c. Directly promotes aldosterone secretion.
d. Converts angiotensin II to angiotensin III.

37. Which one of the following is the most frequently associated side effect of H1-
antihistamines?

a. Anti-androgenic activity in males.

b. Sedation.
c. Inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes.
d. Constipation.

38. How does diphenhydramine work to relieve the symptoms of hypersensitivity?

a. It competitively antagonizes the effect of histamine at H1 -receptors.

b. It stabilizes mast cells to inhibit histamine release.
c. It inhibits the binding of allergens to IgE.
d. It promotes the endocytosis of H1 - receptors.
e. It promotes the shift of active H1- receptors to the inactive state.

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39. Which of the following statements is in- correctly associated with prostacyclin (PGI2)?

a. PGI2 is a vasoconstrictor.
b. PGI2 is formed from platelet endoperoxides.
c. PGI2 inhibits platelet aggregation.
d. PGI2 is spontaneously hydrolyzed into inactive 6-keto-PGF1α.

40. Which of the following statements regarding histamine H2 -antihistamines is correct?

a. Nizatidine may cause drug interactions because of its inhibition of the cytochrome
P450 enzyme system.
b. Ranitidine is more potent than cimetidine.
c. Ranitidine is a potent CNS depressant.
d. Famotidine has a plasma half-life much longer than that of cimetidine.

41. Which of the drugs listed below inhibits the release of histamine?

a. Betazole
b. Cimetidine
c. Dimenhydrinate
d. Cromolyn sodium

42. Which of the following statements regarding serotonergic receptors is incorrect?

a. All serotonergic receptors are G protein- coupled receptors, except 5-HT3 receptors.
b. There are more classes of serotonergic receptors than any other receptors of biogenic
amines.
c. Stimulation of 5-HT1 receptors increases GI motility.
d. Stimulation of 5-HT2 receptors evokes severe vasoconstriction, which accounts for
fescue grass toxicity.

43. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Arachidonic acid is the precursor for the synthesis of the leukotrienes.

b. Aspirin inhibits the formation of PGF2α.
c. PGE2 increases body temperature.
d. Leukotrienes are potent relaxants of bronchiolar smooth muscle.

44. Which of the following autacoid inhibitors/antagonists is a leukotriene (LT) receptor

antagonist that blocks LT-induced bronchoconstriction?

a. Cetirizine
b. Lisinopril
c. Montelukast
d. Zileuton

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45. Why doesn’t fexofenadine cause sedation?

a. It is a drug that blocks H2 receptors in the CNS.

b. It is not effective blocking cerebral H1 receptors.
c. It is an excellent substrate for P-glycoprotein, which pumps drugs including
fexofenadine out of the CNS efficiently.
d. It is ionized at pH 7.4 and does not cross the blood–brain barrier.

46. Pharmacology is:

a. A science it was born in mid 19th century, one of a host of biomedical sciences based
on experimentation.
b. Is the study of effects of drugs on the function on living systems.
c. Pharmacology came from the need to improve on the outcome of therapeutic
intervention by doctors who were at that time skilled with clinical observation and
diagnosis but broadly interactive when it came to treatment.
d. Only a and b are true.
e. a, b and c are true.

47. Which of the following statements are true:

a. Pharmacology in the 21st Century all come into being by birth of synthetic chemistry.
b. 20th Century early biochemistry was distinctive in dry biochemistry pathways.
c. Biochemistry provided a framework of understanding of dry effects.
d. All the above are true.
e. Only c is true.

48. General Anesthesias:

a. Are drugs used to render patient unaware of, and unresponsive to painful stimulation
during surgical procedures.
b. They are given systematically and exert their effects on central nervous system in
contrast to local anesthetics.
c. Alcohols and opiates were used for centuries to suppress pain as general anesthetics.
d. In mid 1800 use of volatile liquids suck as chloroform and diethyl ether began to be
used.
e. All the above are true about them.
f. Only A and B are true.

49. Balanced anesthesia provides;

a. Minimum danger to vital body systems.

b. Sufficient depth and duration.
c. No smooth induction.
d. Increased tracheobronchial secretion.
e. Only A and B are true.
f. All of the above are true.

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50. Objective of General anesthesia are:

a. To depress the central nervous system and bring irreversible loss of pain sensation
and consciousness.
b. Only to kill the pain.
c. To maintain the muscle tone.
d. To act as drug of choice in epileptic cases.
e. Only A is true.
f. All the above are true.

51. In fungal and mycoses infections treatment is usually different because:

a. Limited selective toxically.

b. Antifungal drugs are more toxic than antibacterial agents.
c. Opportunistic fungi infections are not a problem.
d. Immunodeficiencies is not a problem.
e. a and b are the only true ones.
f. All the above are true.

52. Mycotic infection can be divided in to two groups namely:

a. Dorsal and Ventral infections.

b. Adult and young animal infections.
c. Superficial and deep mycoses.
d. Avian and bovine mycoses.
e. Natural and experimental mycoses.

53. Mycoses may be treated with:

a. Broad spectrum antibiotics.

b. Antifungal agents like ketaconazole.
c. Glucocorticosteriods.
d. Antineoplastic drugs.
e. All the above are true.
f. Only B above is true.

54. Suramin is a drug of choice in treatment of:

a. Tapeworms.
b. Actinomycin bovis.
c. Candida albicans.
d. Trypanasomiasis.
e. East coast fever

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55. Coccidiosis can be treated with:

a. Greseofulvin.
b. Oxytetracycline 5%.
c. Sulphonamides.
d. Amprolium.
e. All above are true.
f. Only C and D are true.

56. On General anaesthesia, the following are true:

a. It is categorized in four stages.

b. Stage 1 is called analgesia stage.
c. Stage 2 is called Excitement stage.
d. D Stage 3 is called Surgical Anaesthesia.
e. Death occurs in plane 2.
f. All the above are true except for E.

57. On Minimum Alveolar Concentration – MAC

a. Is the most frequently used measure of anaesthesia potency.

b. Is the concentration of anaesthesia in alveoli which prevents response to painful
stimuli, e.g. incision in 50% of the patients.
c. The lower the MAC, the more potent is the anaesthetic drug.
d. Most Surgery is conducted between 0.8 ND 1.2 times MAC.
e. It is a measure of anaesthetic in the brain.
f. D. All are true except for E above.

58. Volatile liquid, Ether or Diethyl Ether

a. Has a good safety margin.

b. Has an excellent skeletal muscle relaxant ability
c. Has minimum effect on cardiovascular system.
d. Has substantial anaesthetic effect.
e. Has a pleasant odour.
f. All are true above except for D and E.

59. Ketamine:

a. Is also known as a Dissociative anaesthesia.

b. Is rapid acting.
c. Produce profound anaesthesia.
d. Normal skeletal muscle tone is maintained.
e. Patient appears awake but does not respond to pain.
f. All above are true except for B.
g. All above are true except for B and C.

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60. Ketamine:

a. Has a wide safety margin.

b. Is compatible with other local and general anaesthesias.
c. Its actions are presumed to result from an interruption of association pathways in the
brain.
d. Is used in diagnostic and short surgical procedures requiring muscle relaxation in
treatment of burns.
e. Not used as induction anaesthesia.
f. All above are true.
g. All above are true except for E.

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SECTION II SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

61. Antibiotics

a) What are antibiotics? (2 marks)

b) What do they do? (2 marks)

c) Where do they come from? (2 marks)

d) What are the modes of action of Penicillins and tetracyclines. (2marks)

e) What is the basis of penicillin action? Use a diagram to explain (4 marks)

f) What is the difference between Penicillin G and Ampicillin or Amoxicillin? Use

diagram a to explain. (4 marks)

g) What would be the best alternative to penicillin in case patient is sensitive to it and
why this choice? (4 marks)

62. Acaricides

a) What are they? What is their use and why are they important in livestock production
industry in Malawi. (6marks)

b) Briefly describe any 2 categories or classes with their mode of action. Which ones are
commonly used in Malawi? (8 marks).

c) What is the one common danger and common one problem associated with all
acaricides and what should be done to avoid these problems? (6 marks)

END OF EXAM

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