Booklet Code No.

:- 814972
Question Booklet Series :–
ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %& ↑
Candidate must fill the above
number correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120

vuqer le; % 90 feuV~l Code- D01MYX6ARCS01 (P–I) ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120
Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. :
vuqØekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : _______________________

Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________

vH;FkÊ dk uke %
Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature
vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj _____________________ d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj _____________________

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question
booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process.
1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be
in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and
Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting
and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your
room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later
stage.
IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series
and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in
filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet
series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the
candidate.
2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal
mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.
3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be
liable to be rejected.
4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4).
Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per
the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are
to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.
6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold
or staple it.
7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference
material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet.
No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.
9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not
take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a
punishable offence.
10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any
question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question
paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as
final for evaluation purposes.
fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA
DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 1 to 5) Read the given information
and answer the questions based on it.
Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V have taken
admissions in three different streams – Arts, Science and
Commerce. At least two students are admitted in each
stream. Each one is in a different college A, B, C, D, E, F
and G.
• R is admitted to college C in Commerce.
• The one who studies in college A does not study
Science.
• P studies in college G but not in Arts or Science.
• Q and U study in the same stream but not in Arts.
• V studies in college F in the same stream as R.
• S studies in college B.
• Q does not study in college E
1. Three students study in which of the following streams?
(1) Arts (2) Commerce
(3) Science (4) Science or Commerce
funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 1 ls 5½ uhps nh xbZ lwpukvksa dks i<+sa ,oa mu ij
vk/kkfjr ç”uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
lkr fe= P, Q, R, S, T, U ,oa V rhu fofHké fo’k;ksa esa ços”k ysrs
gSa& dyk] foKku ,oa okf.kT;A de ls de nks fo|kFkÊ çR;sd fo’k; esa
ços”k ysrs gSaA çR;sd fHké fo|ky;ksa A, B, C, D, E, F ,oa G esa gSaA
• ^R* dk ços”k fo|ky; ^C* esa okf.kT; esa gksrk gSA
• tks fo|ky; ^A* esa v/;;u djrk gS og foKku ugha i<+rk gSA
• ^P* fo|ky; ^G* esa i<+rk gS ijUrq dyk ;k foKku ugha i<+rkA
• ^Q* ,oa ^U* ,d gh fo’k; i<+rs gSa ijUrq dyk ughaA
• ^V* fo|ky; ^F* esa i<+rk gS vkSj mldk fo’k; ogh gS tks ^R*
dk gSA
• ^S* fo|ky; ^B* esa i<+rk gSA
• ^Q* fo|ky; ^E* esa ugha i<+rk gSA
1. rhu fo|kFkÊ fuEufyf[kr dkSu&lk fo’k; i<+rs gS\
(1) dyk
(2) okf.kT;
(3) foKku
(4) foKku ;k okf.kT;

2. Who studies in college ‘A’? 2. fo|ky; ^A* esa dkSu i<+rk gS\
(1) Q (2) U (1) Q (2) U
(3) T (4) T or Q (3) T (4) T ;k Q

3. Which of the following streams is opted by T? 3. ^T* }kjk dkSu&lk fo’k; fy;k tkrk gS\
(1) Commerce (2) Arts (1) okf.kT; (2) dyk
(3) Science (4) Cannot be determined (3) foKku (4) fu/kkZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk

4. The two students opting for Science are: 4. nks fo|kFkÊ ftUgksaus foKku pquk gS%
(1) Q, U (2) G, D (1) Q, U (2) G, D
(3) A, B (4) Cannot be determined (3) A, B (4) fu/kkZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk
5. Which among the following is a correct combination of 5. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fo’k; fo|kFkÊ ,oa fo|ky; dk ,d lgh ;qXe gS%
stream, student and college? (1) E – U – okf.kT; (2) A – T – foKku
(1) E – U – Commerce (2) A – T – Science (3) D – Q – dyk (4) B – S – dyk
(3) D – Q – Arts (4) B – S – Arts

6. Starting from point A, Arun walked 40 m towards 6. fcUnq ^A* ls çkjEHk djds] v:.k 40 ehVj nf{k.k dh rjQ pyrk gS]
south, then he turned left and walked 60 m. He again rRi”pkr og cka, eqM+dj 60 ehVj pyrk gSA og iqu% cka, eqM+dj
turned left and walked 40 m. He once again turned left 40 ehVj pyrk gSA og iqu% cka, eqM+dj 80 ehVj pyrk gS ,oa
and walked 80 m and reached point B. How far and in fcUnq ^B* ij igq¡prk gSA fdruh nwj ,oa fdl fn”kk esa fcUnq ^B* gS
which direction is the point B from point A? fcUnq ^A* ls\
(1) 20 m East (1) 20 ehVj iwjc
(2) 40 m West (2) 40 ehVj if”pe
(3) 20 m West (3) 20 ehVj if”pe
(4) 20 m South (4) 20 ehVj nf{k.k

7. Which of the given figures best represents the 7. fuEufyf[kr fp=ksa esa loZJs’B :i ls dkSu çnf”kZr djrk gS & p;fur
relationship of elected body, Member of Parliament fudk;] laln lnL; ,oa fo/kku lHkk lnL;\
and member of Legislative assembly?

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

D01MYX6ARC [ A–1 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 8 to 10) In each of the questions funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 8 ls 10½ uhps fn;s x, çR;sd ç”u esa ;fn fn;s x,
given below, if the given mathematical symbols are changed xf.krh; fpUgksa dks ‘+’ ls ‘÷’, ‘–‘ ls ‘×’, ‘÷’ ls ‘–‘ rFkk ‘×’ ls ‘+’ esa cny
from ‘+’ to ‘÷’, ‘–‘ to ‘×’, ‘÷’ to ‘–‘ and from ‘×’ to ‘+’, then choose fn;k tk, rks vius mÙkjksa dk pquko fodYiksa ls djsaA
your answers from the following options.
8. 67 × 119 + 17 – 27 ÷ 259 = \
8. 67 × 119 + 17 – 27 ÷ 259 = ?
(1) –13 (2) –3
(1) –13 (2) –3 (3) 4 (4) 7
(3) 4 (4) 7

9. 21 – 12 × 299 + 23 ÷ 327 × 109 = ? 9. 21 – 12 × 299 + 23 ÷ 327 × 109 = \

(1) –47 (2) 37 (1) –47 (2) 37
(3) 47 (4) 57 (3) 47 (4) 57

10. 96 × 1053 + 39 ÷ 347 – 35 + 7 = ? 10. 96 × 1053 + 39 ÷ 347 – 35 + 7 = \

(1) –1612 (2) –612 (1) –1612 (2) –612
(3) 1421 (4) 1612 (3) 1421 (4) 1612

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 11 & 12) Each of the Questions
below consists of a question and two statements numbered I
and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and give answer as.
A. If the data in the statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
alone are sufficient to answer question.
D. If the data in both statement I and II even together are
not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both statements together are necessary
to answer the question.
11. What is the population of town after 3 year, if its
present population is 1 lakh?
I. During first year the population increased by 10%
II. During the second year the population decreased but
again increased by 5% in third year.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 11 ,oa 12½ fn;s x, çR;sd ç”u ds uhps ,d ç”u ,oa
nks dFku I ,oa II fn;k x;k gSA vkidks ;g fu.kZ; ysuk gS fd dFku esa fn;s
vk¡dM+s ç”u ds mÙkj ds fy, i;kZIr gSaA
nksuksa dFkuksa dks i<+s ,oa bl çdkj mÙkj nsaA
A. ;fn dFku I esa fn;k x;k vk¡dM+k vdsys ç”u dk mÙkj nsus ds
fy;s i;kZIr gS tcfd dFku II esa fn;k vk¡dM+k vdsys mÙkj nsus
ds fy;s i;kZIr ugha gSA
B. ;fn dFku II esa fn;k x;k vk¡dM+k vdsys ç”u dk mÙkj nsus ds
fy;s i;kZIr gS ysfdu dFku I esa fn;k vk¡dM+k vdsys mÙkj nsus ds
fy;s i;kZIr ugha gSA
C. ;fn ;k rks dFku I esa vdsys ;k dFku II esa vdsys fn;k x;k
vk¡dM+k ç”u dk mÙkj nsus ds fy;s i;kZIr gSA
D. ;fn dFku I rFkk II nksuksa esa feykdj fn;s x, vkdM+s ç”u dk
mÙkj nsus ds fy;s i;kZIr ugha gSA
E. ;fn nksuksa dFkuksa fn;s x, vk¡dM+s ç”u dk mÙkj nsus ds fy;s
vko”;d gSaA
11. 3 o’kZ i”pkr~ dLcs dh tula[;k D;k gS] ;fn bldh orZeku tual[;k
1 yk[k gS\
I. çFke o’kZ ds nkSjku tula[;k 10% c<+ xbZ gSA
II. nwljs o’kZ ds nkSjku tula[;k ?kVh ijUrq rhljs o’kZ esa 5% iqu%
c<+ xbZA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

12. Find the radius (r) of the circle. 12. o`Ùk dh f=T;k ¼r½ Kkr djsaA
I. Area of the circle is 154 sq.cm. I. o`Ùk dk {ks=Qy 154 oxZ lseh- gSA
II. Circumference of the circle is 2/r times of the area of II. o`Ùk dh ifjf/k o`Ùk ds {ks=Qy dk 2/r xquk gSA
the circle.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

13. Complete the following series. 13. Js.kh dks iw.kZ djsaA
9, 11, 15, 23, 39, ? 9, 11, 15, 23, 39, ?
(1) 71 (2) 64 (3) 42 (4) 56 (1) 71 (2) 64 (3) 42 (4) 56

14. Complete the following series. 14. Js.kh dks iw.kZ djsaA
2, 2, 4, 4, 6, 8, 8, ? 2, 2, 4, 4, 6, 8, 8, ?
(1) 12 (2) 10 (1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 16 (4) 20 (3) 16 (4) 20

D01MYX6ARC [ A–2 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

15. Complete the following series. 15. Js.kh dks iw.kZ djsaA
XYQ, ZAR, BCS, DET, ? XYQ, ZAR, BCS, DET, ?
(1) FHV (2) PVD (1) FHV (2) PVD
(3) FGU (4) CFI (3) FGU (4) CFI

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 16 to 18) In each of the following funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 16 ls 18½ fuEufyf[kr çR;sd ç”u esa pkj la[;k,a nh
questions, four numbers are given out of which three are alike in xbZ gSa ftlesa ls 3 dqN ekeys esa ,d gh rjg ds gSa tcfd ,d fHké gSA mls
some manner while one is different. Choose the one which is pqusa tks ckdh rhuksa ls fHké gSA
different from the rest three.
16.
16. (1) 289 (2) 360
(1) 289 (2) 360 (3) 256 (4) 169
(3) 256 (4) 169

17. 17.
(1) 396 (2) 462 (1) 396 (2) 462
(3) 427 (4) 561 (3) 427 (4) 561

18. 18.
(1) 648 (2) 573 (1) 648 (2) 573
(3) 375 (4) 732 (3) 375 (4) 732

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 19 & 20) Answer the following
questions based on the given information.
In a class of 30 students, all members are involved in at
least one of the three sports: Archery, Cricket and Discus
throwing.
• 3 students play only discus throwing.
• 2 students play only cricket.
• 15 students are involved with archery.
• 2 students are into archery and cricket but not in discus.
• 5 students play all the three sports.
• 6 students are involved only in archery.
19. How many students in the class play discus throwing
and cricket but not archery?
(1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 5 (4) None of these
funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 19 ,oa 20½ nh xbZ lwpuk ds vk/kkj ij fuEufyf[kr
ç”uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
30 fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh ,d d{kk esa lHkh lnL; rhuksa [ksyksa esa de ls de
,d [ksy esa lfEefyr gSa% rhjankth] fØdsV ,oa fMLdl FkzksbZ±xA
• 3 fo|kFkÊ dsoy fMLdl FkzksbZ±x [ksyrs gSaA
• 2 fo|kFkÊ dsoy fØdsV [ksyrs gSaA
• 15 fo|kFkÊ rhjankth esa lfEefyr gSaA
• 2 fo|kFkÊ rhjankth ,oa fØdsV esa gSa ijUrq fMLdl FkzksbZ±x esa ugha
• 5 fo|kFkÊ lHkh rhu [ksy [ksyrs gSaA
• 6 fo|kFkÊ dsoy rhjankth esa lfEefyr gSaA
19. d{kk esa fdrus fo|kFkÊ fMLdl FkzksbZ±x vkSj fØdsV [ksyrs gSa ijUrq
rhjankth ugha\
(1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 5 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

20. How many students play cricket? 20. fdrus fo|kFkÊ fØdsV [ksyrs gSa\
(1) 19 (2) 17 (1) 19 (2) 17
(3) 13 (4) None of these (3) 13 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
DIRECTIONS: The pie chart, given here, represents the number funsZ”k% fn;s x, ikbZ pkVZ esa pkj fo|kfFkZ;ksa }kjk çkIr oS/k erksa dh la[;k
of valid votes obtained by four students who contested election n”kkZ;h xbZ gS ftUgksaus Ldwy ds usr`Ro ds fy;s pquko yM+kA Mkys x;s dqy oS/k
for school leadership. The total number of valid votes polled was erksa dh la[;k 720 FkhA pkVZ dk voyksdu djsa ,oa bl ij vk/kkfjr ç”u
720. Observe the chart and answer the question based on it. dk mÙkj nsaA

21. By how many votes did the winner defeat his nearest 21. fotsrk us vius fudVre çfr}Unh dks fdrus erksa ls gjk;k\
rival? (1) 35 (2) 45
(1) 35 (2) 45 (3) 40 (4) 50 (3) 40 (4) 50

D01MYX6ARC [ A–3 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 22 & 23) Answer the following funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 22 ,oa 23½ uhps nh lwpukvksa ds vk/kkj ij
questions based on the given information. fuEufyf[kr ç”uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’. ^A + B* dk rkRi;Z gS& ^A*] ^B* dk iq= gSA
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’. ^A – B* dk rkRi;Z gS& ^A*] ^B* dh iRuh gSA
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’. ^A ÷ B* dk rkRi;Z gS& ^A*] ^B* dh ekrk gSA
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’. ^A × B* dk rkRi;Z gS& ^A*] ^B* dk HkkbZ gSA
‘A = B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’. ^A = B* dk rkRi;Z gS& ^A*] ^B* dh cgu gSA
22. What does P + Q – R mean? 22. P+Q–R dk rkRi;Z gS\
(1) R is the mother of P (2) P is the son of R (1) ^R*] ^P* dh ekrk gS (2) ^P*] ^R* dk iq= gS
(3) P is the uncle of R (4) None of these (3) ^P*] ^R* dk pkpk gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
23. What does P × Q ÷ R mean? 23. P×Q÷R dk rkRi;Z gS\
(1) P is the father of R (2) P is the nephew of R (1) ^P*] ^R* dk firk gS (2) ^P*] ^R* dk Hkrhtk gS
(3) P is the maternal uncle of R (4) None of these (3) ^P*] ^R* dk ekek gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
24. What is the obtuse angle between the minute hand and 24. feuV dh lwb± ,oa ?kaVs okyh lwb± ds e/; vf/kd dks.k gksxk tc le;
the hour hand when the time is 15:45 hours? 15:45 ?kaVs ct jgs gSaA
1o 1o 1o 1o
(1) 150 (2) 157 (1) 150 (2) 157
2 2 2 2
(3) 120° (4) 150° (3) 120° (4) 150°

25. What was the day of the week on 15 August, 1947? 25. 15 vxLr] 1947 dks lIrkg dk dkSu&lk fnu Fkk%
(1) Saturday (2) Friday (1) “kfuokj (2) “kqØokj
(3) Thursday (4) Wednesday (3) o`gLifrokj (4) cq/kokj

26. Pointing towards the photograph of a person, Alka 26. ,d O;fä dh rLohj dh rjQ bafxr djrs gq, vydk us dgk ßog
said, “He is the only son of the father of my sister’s esjh cgu ds HkkbZ ds firk dk ,d ek= iq=Þ gSA ml O;fä dk vydk
brother”. How is that person related to Alka? ls D;k lEcU/k gS\
(1) Uncle (2) Mother (1) pkpk (2) ekrk
(3) Father (4) Brother (3) firk (4) HkkbZ

27. In a certain code, 98602 is coded as MANGO, 0139867 27. ,d fuf”pr dksM esa 98602 dks ^MANGO* dksM fd;k tkrk gS]
as GERMANY, then how is 9868013 coded as? 0139867 dks ^GERMANY* dksM fd;k tkrk gS] rks 9868013 dks
(1) MANEGER (2) MENEGER D;k dksM djsaxs\
(3) MENAGAR (4) MANAGER (1) MANEGER (2) MENEGER
(3) MENAGAR (4) MANAGER

28. The calendar for the year 2009 will be the same as that 28. 2009 o’kZ dk dSysUMj ogh gksxk tks fuEufyf[kr o’kZ dk%
of the year (1) 2013 (2) 2014
(1) 2013 (2) 2014 (3) 2015 (4) 2017 (3) 2015 (4) 2017

29. Fill the correct number at the sign of interrogation? 29. ç”uokpd fpUg ds LFkku ij lgh la[;k pqusa\

(1) 70 (2) 68 (3) 56 (4) 92 (1) 70 (2) 68 (3) 56 (4) 92

30. A clock is displaying correct time at 9 am on Monday. 30. ,d ?kM+h lkseokj dks 9 cts çkr% lgh le; n”kkZ jgh gSA ;fn ?kM+h
If the clock loses 12 minutes in 24 hours, then the 24 ?kaVs esa 12 feuV dk le; [kks nsrh gS rks mlh lIrkg esa cq/kokj
actual time when the clock indicates 08:30 pm on dks 08:30 cts lk;¡ ?kM+h dk okLrfod le; D;k gksxk\
Wednesday of the same week is: (1) 8 pm (2) 9 am
(1) 8 pm (2) 9 am (3) 9 pm (4) 8:59:45 pm
(3) 9 pm (4) 8:59:45 pm

D01MYX6ARC [ A–4 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 31 to 34) In each of the following funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 31 ls 34½ uhps fn;s x, ç”uksa esa nks dFkuksa ds i”pkr~
questions, two statements are followed by two conclusions nks fu’d’kZ I ,oa II fn;s x, gSaA vkidks nks fn;s x, dFkuksa dks lR; ekuuk gS
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to ;|fi og lkekU;r;k ekus tkus okys rF;ksa ls vyx gS ,oa lkekU; tkudkjh
be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly okys rF;ksa dh vogsyuk djrs gq, ;g fu.kZ; ysuk gS fd fn;k x;k
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow from the given statements disregarding
dFku@dFkuksa ls fdl fu’d’kZ dk rkfdZd :i ls vuqlj.k gksrk gS&
commonly known facts-
vius mÙkj dks bl çdkj fpfUgr djsaA
Mark your answer as 1. ;fn dsoy fu’d’kZ I dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
1. If only conclusion I follows 2. ;fn dsoy fu’d’kZ II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
2. If only conclusion II follows 3. ;fn u rks I ,oa u gh II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
3. If neither I nor II follows 4. ;fn nksuksa I ,oa II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
4. If both I and II follow 31. dFku%
31. Statements: lHkh VªDl efD[k;k¡ gSa
All trucks are flies. dqN LdwVlZ efD[k;k¡ gSa
Some scooters are flies. fu’d’kZ%
Conclusions: I. lHkh VªDl LdwVlZ gSa
I. All trucks are scooters. II. dqN LdwVlZ efD[k;k¡ ugha gSa
II. Some scooters are not flies. (1) ;fn dsoy fu’d’kZ I dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(1) If only conclusion I follows (2) ;fn dsoy fu’d’kZ II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(2) If only conclusion II follows (3) ;fn u rks I ,oa u gh II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(3) If neither I nor II follows (4) ;fn nksuksa I ,oa II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(4) If both I and II follow

32. Statements: 32. dFku%

All poets are authors. lHkh dfo ys[kd gSa
All singers are authors. lHkh xk;d ys[kd gSa
Conclusions: fu’d’kZ%
I. All singers are poets. I. lHkh xk;d dfo gSa
II. Some authors are not singers. II. dqN ys[kd xk;d ugha gSa
(1) If only conclusion I follows (1) ;fn dsoy fu’d’kZ I dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(2) If only conclusion II follows (2) ;fn dsoy fu’d’kZ II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(3) If neither I nor II follows (3) ;fn u rks I ,oa u gh II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(4) If both I and II follow
(4) ;fn nksuksa I ,oa II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS

33. Statements: 33. dFku%

All planets are moons. lHkh xzg pUæek gSa
All moons are suns. lHkh pUæek lw;Z gSa
Conclusions: fu’d’kZ%
I. All moons are planets. I. lHkh pUæek xzg gSa
II. All planets are suns. II. lHkh xzg lw;Z gSa
(1) If only conclusion I follows (1) ;fn dsoy fu’d’kZ I dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(2) If only conclusion II follows (2) ;fn dsoy fu’d’kZ II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(3) If neither I nor II follows (3) ;fn u rks I ,oa u gh II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(4) If both I and II follow (4) ;fn nksuksa I ,oa II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS

34. Statements: 34. dFku%

All flowers are stems.
All stems are roots
Conclusions:
I. All roots are flowers. II.
(1) If only conclusion I follows
(2) If only conclusion II follows
(3) If neither I nor II follows
(4) If both I and II follow
All stems are flowers.
lHkh Qwy rus gSa
lHkh rus tM+ gSa
fu’d’kZ%
I. lHkh tM+ Qwy gSa II. lHkh rus Qwy gSa
(1) ;fn dsoy fu’d’kZ I dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(2) ;fn dsoy fu’d’kZ II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(3) ;fn u rks I ,oa u gh II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS
(4) ;fn nksuksa I ,oa II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS

D01MYX6ARC [ A–5 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

35. Pawan drives 10 km straight ahead in east direction 35. iou iwjc dh fn”kk esa lh/ks 10 fdeh- ;k=k djrk gS ,oa rRi”pkr
and then 10 km to the right. Then every time turning to 10 fdeh- nkfguh rjQA rRi”pkr çR;sd ckj og ck;sa eqM+dj Øe”k%
his left he drives 5 km, 15 km and 15 km respectively. 5 fdeh-] 15 fdeh- ,oa 15 fdeh- dh ;k=k djrk gSA og çkjfEHkd
How far is he from the starting point? fcUnq ls fdruh nwjh ij gSA
(1) 10 km (2) 15 km (1) 10 fdeh- (2) 15 fdeh-
(3) 5 km (4) 20 km (3) 5 fdeh- (4) 20 fdeh-

36. If ROAD = 152 and MAP = 90, then RAIL = ? 36. ;fn ROAD = 152 vkSj MAP = 90, rks RAIL = \
(1) 120 (2) 140 (1) 120 (2) 140
(3) 160 (4) 180 (3) 160 (4) 180

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 37 to 39) Answer these questions on the basis of the information available in the graph below
providing GDP and the percentage of GDP for education in the given years.

funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 37 ls 39½ uhps fn;s x, xzkQ esa miyC/k lwpukvksa ds vk/kkj ij ç”u dk mÙkj nsaA fn;s x, o’kks± esa xzkQ GDP ,oa f”k{kk gsrq GDP
dk çfr”kr n”kkZrk gSA

GDP in Rs. Thousand Crore ¼GDP gtkj djksM+ esa½ Percentage of GDP for Education ¼f”k{kk ij GDP dk çfr”kr½
37. In how many years has actual educational spending 37. xro’kZ dh rqyuk esa fdrus o’kks± esa okLrfod f”k{kk [kpZ ?kVk gS%
reduced as compared to that of the previous year? (1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) None of these (3) 2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
38. Between the given years, both inclusive, what 38. fn;s x, o’kks± ds e/;] nksuksa lfEefyr] ns”k dh dqy GDP dk fdruk
percentage of the country’s total GDP has gone into çfr”kr f”k{kk ij [kpZ gqvk gS%
education: (1) 4.3% (2) 3.6%
(1) 4.3% (2) 3.6% (3) 5.4% (4) 4.9% (3) 5.4% (4) 4.9%

39. If due to an HR ministry report it is obligatory for the 39. ;fn ekuo laLkk/ku ea=ky; ds fjiksVZ ds dkj.k ljdkj ds fy;s f”k{kk
government to allocate at least Rs. 3200 Crore for ij 2013 esa de ls de #i, 3200 djksM+ vkoafVr djuk gS] c”krsZ
education in 2013, provided educational spending, as fd f”k{kk [kpZ GDP ds 6.5% ls T;knk u gks rks o’kZ 2013 ds fy;s
a percentage of GDP does not exceed 6.5% then what de ls de GDP dh fdruh jde okafPNr gksxh\ ¼#i, esa djksM+
is the least desirable GDP for the year 2013? (in Rs. 000½
000 Crore) (1) 51.52 (2) 48.24
(1) 51.52 (2) 48.24 (3) 49.23 (4) 42.72 (3) 49.23 (4) 42.72

DIRECTIONS: In a classroom, there are 5 rows, and 5 children funsZ”k% ,d d{kk esa] 5 drkj gSa] vkSj 5 cPps A, B, C, D ,oa E gSa tks
A, B, C D and E are seated one behind the other in 5 separate ,d&nwljs ds ihNs 5 i`Fkd drkjksa esa cSBs gSaA
rows as follows.
40. A] C ds ihNs cSBk gS] ijUrq B ds lkeus gSA C] E ds ihNs cSBk gSA
40. A is sitting behind C, but in front of B. C is sitting D, E ds lkeus cSBk gSA çFke drkj ls vfUre rd os fdl Øe esa
behind E. D is sitting in front of E. The order in which cSBs gSaA
they are sitting from the first row to the last is.
(1) DCEAB (2) DECBA
(1) DCEAB (2) DECBA
(3) DECAB (4) DCEBA
(3) DECAB (4) DCEBA

D01MYX6ARC [ A–6 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

41. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the 41. Hkkjrh; lkoZtfud foÙk ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dk voyksdu
following statements: djsa%
1. Disbursements from public accounts of India are 1. Hkkjr dh lkoZtfud ys[kksa ls Hkqxrku laln ds ernku ds v/khu
subject to vote of parliament. gksrk gS
2. The Indian constitution provides for the establishment 2. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku lekesfyr fuf/k] ,d lkoZtfud [kkrk rFkk
of a consolidated fund, a public account and a çR;sd jkT; ds fy, vkdf’ed fuf/k dh LFkkiuk dk çko/kku
contingency fund for each state djrk gS
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the railway 3. jsyos ctV ds vUrZxr fu;kstu ,oa Hkqxrku mlh lalnh; fu;a=.k
budget are subject to the same form of Parliamentry ds Lo:i ds v/khu gSa tks nwljs fu;kstuksa ,oa Hkqxrkuksa ds fy;s
control as other appropriations and disbursements gksrk gS
which of the statements given above are correct. Åij fn;s gq, dFkuksa esa dkSu&lk lgh gSA
(1) 1 & 2 (2) 2 & 3 (1) 1 ,oa 2 (2) 2 ,oa 3
(3) 1 & 3 (4) 1, 2 & 3 (3) 1 ,oa 3 (4) 1, 2 ,oa 3

42. “ARIES Telescope” is Asia’s largest and first of its 42. ßARIES VsyhLdksiÞ ,f”k;k dk lcls cM+k ,oa vius çdkj ds igys
kind optical telescope, recently unveiled at: vkWIVhdy VsyhLdksi dk vHkh gky gh esa dgk¡ ij vukoj.k fd;k x;k%
(1) Himachal Pradesh (1) fgekpy&çns”k
(2) Jammu & Kashmir (2) tEew ,oa d”ehj
(3) Uttrakhand (3) mÙkjk[k.M
(4) Telengana (4) rsyaxkuk

43. India’s first river linking project viz “Patti Seema Lift 43. Hkkjr dh ufn;ksa dks tksM+us okyh igyh ifj;kstuk] ßiêh lhek fy¶V
Irrigation Project” connects: bfjxs”ku ifj;kstukÞ] tksM+rh gS%
(1) Godavari river with Krishna river (1) xksnkojh unh ls Ñ’.kk unh
(2) Ganga river with Yamuna river (2) xaxk unh ls ;equk unh
(3) Brahmaputra river with Ganga river (3) czãiq= unh ls xaxk unh
(4) Sutlej river with Beas river (4) lryt unh ls C;kl unh

44. 8th BRICS summit would be organised in? 44. 8oha BRICS f”k[kjokrkZ dgk¡ ij vk;ksftr gksxh%
(1) New Delhi, India (1) ubZ fnYyh] Hkkjr
(2) Mumbai, India (2) eqEcbZ] Hkkjr
(3) Goa, India (3) xksok] Hkkjr
(4) Shimla, India (4) f”keyk] Hkkjr
45. The union government has launched CB–NAAT 45. la?k ljdkj us vHkh CB–NAAT ¼cartridge based Nucleic
(cartridge based Nucleic Acid Amplification Test) Acid Amplification Test½ Mk;xksfufLVd e”khu fdl jksx dh
diagnostic machines for the quick diagnosis of: Rofjr igpku ds fy;s “kqHkkjEHk fd;k gS%
(1) Dengue (2) Swine Flue (1) Msaxw (2) LokbZu ¶yw
(3) Cancer (4) Tuberculosis (3) dSalj (4) Vh-ch-

46. 2016 Australian Grand Prix of formula one was won by: 46. 2016 vkWLVªsfy;u xzkUM çh QkewZyk ou fdlds }kjk thrk x;k%
(1) Lewis Hamilton (2) Nico Rosberg (1) yqbZl gsfeYVu (2) fudks jkstcxZ
(3) Sebastian Vittal (4) Daniel Ricciardo (3) lsclfV;u foêy (4) Msfu;y fjdh;kMksZ

47. 2016 Abel prize was won by: 47. 2016 vcsy iqjLdkj fdlds }kjk thrk x;k%
(1) R. Srinivasa Varadhan (1) vkj- Jhfuokl o/kZu
(2) John F. Nash Jr. (2) tkWu ,Q- us”k twfu;j
(3) Louis Nirenberg (3) Y;wbl fujsucxZ
(4) Andrew Wiles (4) ,UMª;w foYl
48. Recently which nuclear plant was shut down after 48. vHkh gky gh esa dkSu&lk U;wfDy;j IykUV Hkkjh ty ds fjlko ds
leakage of heavy water: dkj.k cUn dj fn;k x;k%
(1) Kundankulam Nuclear Power Plant (1) dqUnudqye U;wDyh;j ikWoj IykUV
(2) Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant (2) dSxk U;wDyh;j ikWoj IykUV
(3) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant (3) rkjkiqj U;wDyh;j ikWoj IykUV
(4) Kakrapar Atomic Power Stations (4) dkdjkikj ijek.kq ikWoj LVs”ku

D01MYX6ARC [ A–7 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

49. Which one of the following is the correct chronological 49. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dkyØekuqlkj lgh gS%
order? (1) f[kyth jktoa”k & rqxyd jktoa”k & lkbZn jktoa”k & yks/kh
(1) Khilji Dynasty – Tughlaq Dynasty – Sayyid Dynasty – jktoa”k
Lodhi Dynasty (2) yks/kh jktoa”k & lkbZn jktoa”k & f[kyth jktoa”k & rqxyd
(2) Lodhi Dynasty – Sayyid Dynasty – Khilji Dynasty – jktoa”k
Tughlaq Dynasty (3) f[kyth jktoa”k & lkbZn jktoa”k & yks/kh jktoa”k & rqxyd
(3) Khilji Dynasty – Sayyid Dynasty – Lodhi Dynasty – jktoa”k
Tughlaq Dynasty (4) yks/kh jktoa”k & rqxyd jktoa”k & f[kyth jktoa”k & lkbZn
(4) Lodhi Dynasty – Tughlaq Dynasty – Khilji Dynasty – jktoa”k
Sayyid Dynasty

50. Recently IBSAMAR 2016 trilateral naval exercise was 50. vHkh gky gh esa IBSAMAR 2016 f=i{kh; ukSlsuk vH;kl fdlds
between? e/; gqvk%
(1) Brazil, South Africa and India (1) czkt+hy] nf{k.k&vÝhdk ,oa Hkkjr
(2) Britain, South Africa and India (2) fczVsu] nf{k.k&vÝhdk ,oa Hkkjr
(3) Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and India (3) caXykns”k] Jhyadk ,oa Hkkjr
(4) India, South Africa, Myanmar (4) Hkkjr] nf{k.k&vÝhdk] E;kuekj

51. Who won 2016 Hockey Indian League? 51. 2016 Hkkjrh; gkWdh yhx dkSu thrk\
(1) Delhi Waveriders (1) fnYyh osojkbZMlZ
(2) Punjab Warriors (2) iatkc okWfj;lZ
(3) Kalinga Lancers (3) dfyaxk ySalj
(4) Ranchi Rays (4) jk¡ph jst
52. Who amongst the following Hindu Kings is known as 52. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk Hkkjrh; jktk Hkkjr ds usiksfy;u ds :i esa
the Napoleon of India? tkuk tkrk gS\
(1) Ashoka (1) v”kksd
(2) Harshvardhana (2) g’kZo/kZu
(3) Samudragupta (3) leqæxqIr
(4) Chandragupta Vikramaditya (4) pUæxqIr foØekfnR;

53. The women cricket world cup T20–2016 final was 53. efgyk fØdsV fo”odi Vh20–2016 dk QkbZuy vHkh gky gh esa ----
recently played in ___ between ___: esa --- ds e/; [ksyk x;k%
(1) Bangladesh, West Indies & Australia (1) ckaXykns”k] osLVbaMht ,oa vkWLVªsfy;k
(2) India, West Indies & Australia (2) Hkkjr] osLVbaMht ,oa vkWLVªsfy;k
(3) India, West Indies & Newzeland (3) Hkkjr] osLVbaMht ,oa U;wt+htS.M
(4) India, West Indies & England (4) Hkkjr] osLVbaMht ,oa baXyS.M

54. FIFA World Cup 2018 will be organised in which of the 54. FIFA fo”odi 2018 fdl ns”k esa vk;ksftr fd;k tk;sxk\
following countries? (1) :l (2) teZuh
(1) Russia (2) Germany (3) czkt+hy (4) Ýk¡l
(3) Brazil (4) France

55. The total internal reflection occurs when the angle of 55. dqy vkarfjd çfrfcEc ?kfVr gksrk gS tc ØkfUrd dks.k vkur dks.k
incidence is ___ than critical angle. Fill in the blank ls ---- gksrk gSA [kkyh LFkku ij lgh fodYi HkjsaA
with options given: (1) de
(1) Lower (2) T;knk
(2) Greater (3) cjkcj
(3) Equal (4) nqxquk
(4) Double

56. Which is generally known as United Nations Refugee 56. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdls la;qä jk’Vª “kj.kkFkÊ ,tsalh ds :i esa tkuk
Agency? tkrk gS\
(1) UNODC (1) UNODC
(2) UNHSP (2) UNHSP
(3) UNHCR (3) UNHCR
(4) UNFIP (4) UNFIP

D01MYX6ARC [ A–8 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

57. Consider the following events during India’s freedom 57. Hkkjr ds Lora=rk la?k’kZ esa fuEufyf[kr ?kVukvksa dk voyksdu djsa%
struggle: 1. pksjhpkSjk dk.M
1. Chauri Chaura outrage 2. feUVks&eksysZ lq/kkj
2. Minto – Morley reforms 3. nk.Mh ekpZ
3. Dandi March 4. eksUVsxw&psElQksMZ lq/kkj
4. Montagu – Chelmsford reforms fuEufyf[kr esa ls ?kVukvksa dk dkSu&lk dkyØekuqlkj lgh gSA
Which one of the following is the correct chronological (1) 1–3–2–4
order of events given above? (2) 2–4–1–3
(1) 1–3–2–4 (2) 2–4–1–3 (3) 1–4–2–3
(3) 1–4–2–3 (4) 2–3–1–4 (4) 2–3–1–4

58. Which of the following is typically used as a fuel in a 58. FkeZy czhMj fj;sDVj esa fof”k’Vr;k b±/ku ds :i esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls
thermal breeder reactors? dkSu&lk ç;qä gksrk gS
(1) Thorium–232 (1) Fkksfj;e&232
(2) Plutonium (2) IywVksfu;e
(3) Deuterium (3) MhVsfj;e
(4) Uranium–238 (4) ;wjsfu;e&238

59. A green coloured leaf kept in a dark room is 59. va/ksjs dejs esa ,d gjs jax okyh iÙkh ij yky çdk”k Mkyk tkrk gSA
illuminated by red light. What will be the colour of leaf bl n”kk esa iÙkh dk jax D;k gksxk\
in this condition: (1) gjk
(1) Green (2) yky
(2) Red (3) ihyk
(3) Yellow (4) dkyk
(4) Black

60. Planet that rotates clockwise: 60. og xzg tks nf{k.kkorZ ?kw.kZu djrk gS%
(1) Earth (1) i`Foh
(2) Venus (2) “kqØ
(3) Mars (3) eaxy
(4) Pluto (4) IywVks

61. Computer does mathematical tasks in: 61. dEI;wVj xf.krh; dk;Z fdlesa djrk gS%
(1) ROM (1) ROM
(2) RAM (2) RAM
(3) EPROM (3) EPROM
(4) Registers (4) jftLVlZ

62. A program written in assembly language converts the 62. ,lsEcyh Hkk’kk esa fy[kk x;k ,d çksxzke lzksr çksxzke dks fdl Hkk’kk esa
source program into: ifjofrZr djrk gS%
(1) Assembly program (1) ,lsEcyh çksxzke
(2) Machine language program (2) e”khu Hkk’kk çksxzke
(3) Object program (3) vkWctsDV çksxzke
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

63. Which is the purest form of iron? 63. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ykSg dk lcls “kq) Lo:i gS\
(1) Steel (1) LVhy
(2) Cast iron (2) <yok¡ ykSg
(3) Pig iron (3) fix vk;ju
(4) Wrought iron (4) fiVokW ykSg

64. In vulcanization process, the rubber can be hardened 64. oYdukbZts”ku çfØ;k esa] jcj dks fdls feykdj dBksjhÑr fd;k tkrk
by adding: gS%
(1) Nitrogen (1) ukbZVªkstu
(2) Silicon (2) flfydkWu
(3) Sulphur (3) lYQj
(4) Alcohol (4) ,Ydksgy

D01MYX6ARC [ A–9 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

65. Which of the following statements regarding red soils 65. Hkkjr ds yky e`nk ds ckjs esa dkSu&lk dFku lR; gS\
of India is/are correct? A. e`nk dk yky jax blds Qsfjd vkWDlkbZM rRo ds dkj.k gS
A. Red color of soil is red due to ferric oxide content. B. yky e`nk esa pwuk] º;wel ,oa iksVk”k dh çpqjrk gksrh gS
B. Red soils are rich in lime, humus & potash C. ;s lja/kz ,oa HkwjHkjs lajpuk okys gksrs gSa
C. They are porous and have friable structure dksMks dk ç;ksx djrs gq, lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsaA
Select the correct answer using codes.
(1) A dsoy
(1) A only
(2) A ,oa C dsoy
(2) A & C only
(3) B ,oa C dsoy
(3) B & C only
(4) A, B & C lHkh
(4) A, B & C all

66. Which of the following statements is not correct: 66. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh ugha gS%
(1) The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam (1) Hkkjr dk lcls cM+k cq) eB vle esa gS
(2) The language Konyak is spoken in Nagaland (2) dksu;d Hkk’kk ukxkyS.M esa cksyh tkrh gS
(3) The river island Majuli is in Assam (3) unh }hi etwyh vle esa gS
(4) Sikkim is the least populated state of the Indian union (4) 2011 dh tux.kuk ds vuqlkj] Hkkjrh; la?k dk lcls de
according to 2011 census tula[;k okyk jkT; flfôe gS
67. Consider the following statements. 67. fuEufyf[kr dFku dk voyksdu djsaA
1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body 1. ekuo “kjhj dh lcls yEch gìh Qhej gS
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria 2. gStk jksx cSDVsfj;k tfur gS
3. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus 3. ^,FkyhV QwV* jksx ok;jl tfur gS
Which of the statements given above is correct fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (1) 1 ,oa 2 (2) 2 ,oa 3
(3) 1 and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3 (3) 1 ,oa 3 (4) 1, 2 ,oa 3

68. Select the smallest (computer) memory size? 68. Le`fr vkdkj ¼dEI;wVj½ ds fglkc ls lcls NksVs dk p;u djsa%
(1) Terabyte (1) VsjkckbZV
(2) Gigabyte (2) fxxkckbZV
(3) Kilobyte (3) fdyksckbZV
(4) Megabyte (4) esxkckbZV

69. Firefly gives us cold light by virtue of the phenomenon 69. twxuw gesa “khr çdk”k çnku djrk gS fdl lao`fÙk ds dkj.k
of: (1) ¶yksjslsUl (2) QkWlQksjslsUl
(1) Florescence (2) Phosphorescence (3) dSfeY;wfeulsUl (4) bQjoslsUl
(3) Chemiluminescence (4) Effervescence

70. Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the eyes 70. fdldh fo|ekurk ds dkj.k] I;kt dkVus ,oa Nhyus ij vk¡[kksa esa
because of the presence of: vk¡lw vkrk gS%
(1) Sulphur in the cell (1) dksf”kdkvksa esa lYQj dh fo|ekurk
(2) Carbon in the cell (2) dksf”kdkvksa esa dkcZu dh fo|ekurk
(3) Fat in the cell (3) dksf”kdkvksa esa olk dh fo|ekurk
(4) Amino acid in the cell (4) dksf”kdkvksa esa vehuks vEy dh fo|ekurk
71. What is the main constituent of pearl? 71. eksrh dk eq[; vo;o D;k gS\
(1) Calcium carbonate & magnesium carbonate (1) dSfY”k;e dkcksZusV ,oa eSxusf”k;e dkcksZusV
(2) Calcium sulphate only (2) dSfY”k;e lYQsV dsoy
(3) Calcium oxide and calcium sulphate (3) dSfY”k;e vkWDlkbZM ,oa dSfY”k;e lYQsV
(4) Calcium carbonate only (4) dSfY”k;e dkcksausV dsoy

72. Which one among the following is not an important 72. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d {ks= ds tyok;q dk ,d egRoiw.kZ
factor of climate of an area? dkjd ugha gS\
(1) Latitude (1) v{kkarj
(2) Longitude (2) ns”kkarj
(3) Altitude (3) rqaxrk
(4) Distance from the sea (4) leqæ ls nwjh

D01MYX6ARC [ A–10 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

73. Match List–I (Sea) with List–II (Country) and select the 73. lwph&I ¼leqæ½ dks lwph&II ¼ns”k½ ls esy djk,a ,oa uhps fn;s x, dksMks
correct answer using codes given below the lists. dk ç;ksx djrs gq, lgh mÙkj pqusaA
List–I (Sea) List–II (Country) lwph&I ¼leqæ½ lwph&II ¼ns”k½
A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria A. CySd lh 1. cqyxkfj;k
B. Red Sea 2. China B. jsM lh 2. phu
C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea C. ;syks lh 3. ,fjVsfj;k
D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan D. dSfLi;u lh 4. dt+kdLrku
(1) A1, B4, C2, D3 (1) A1, B4, C2, D3
(2) A2, B3, C1, D4 (2) A2, B3, C1, D4
(3) A1, B3, C2, D4 (3) A1, B3, C2, D4
(4) A2, B4, C1, D3 (4) A2, B4, C1, D3

74. Arrange the following oil refineries of India from West 74. Hkkjr dh fuEufyf[kr rsy fjQkbZufj;ksa dks if”pe ls iwjc dh rjQ
to East: yxk,a%
1. Koyali 2. Bongaigaon 1. dks;yh 2. cksaxbZxk¡o
3. Mathura 4. Haldia 3. eFkqjk 4. gfYn;k
(1) 1–2–3–4 (1) 1–2–3–4
(2) 1–3–4–2 (2) 1–3–4–2
(3) 3–1–2–4 (3) 3–1–2–4
(4) 2–4–3–1 (4) 2–4–3–1

75. The Montagu–Chelmsford report formed the basis of: 75. eksUVsxw&psElQksMZ fjiksVZ fdldk vk/kkj rS;kj fd;k%
(1) The Indian councils Act 1909 (1) n bafM;u dkmflYl ,DV 1909
(2) The Government of India Act 1919 (2) n xouZesaV vkWQ bafM;k ,DV 1919
(3) The Government of India Act 1935 (3) n xouZesaV vkWQ bafM;k ,DV 1935
(4) The India independence Act 1947 (4) n bafM;k bufMisUMsUl ,DV 1947

76. Which one of the following four Vedas is divided in 76. fuEufyf[kr pkj osnksa esa ls dkSu&lk osn rSrhfj;k ,oa otklusbZ esa
Taittiriya and Vajasaneyi: foHkä gS%
(1) Rig ved (2) Yajurved (1) _Xosn (2) ;tqZosn
(3) Atharva ved (4) Sama ved (3) vFkoZosn (4) lkeosn

77. The resolution for removing the vice president of India 77. Hkkjr ds mi&jk’Vªifr dks gVkus dk çLrko dgk¡ yk;k tk ldrk gS%
can be moved in the: (1) dsoy yksd&lHkk esa
(1) Lok Sabha alone (2) laln ds fdlh Hkh lnu esa
(2) Either house of parliament (3) laln ds la;qä cSBd esa
(3) Joint Sitting of parliament (4) dsoy jkT;&lHkk esa
(4) Rajya Sabha alone

78. Which one of the following does not border Panama? 78. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu iukek ds lhek ls ugha lVk gqvk gS\
(1) Costa Rice (1) dksLVk jkbZl
(2) Pacific ocean (2) ç”kkUr egklkxj
(3) Colombia (3) dksyfEc;k
(4) Venezuela (4) osust+q,yk

79. Cinnabar is an ore of: 79. flUukckj fdldk ,d dPpk /kkrq gS%
(1) Calcium (2) Copper (1) dSfY”k;e (2) rkez
(3) Lead (4) Mercury (3) lhlk (4) ikjk

80. Which Article of the constitution of India says, ‘No 80. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dh dkSu&lk vuqlwph dgrh gS ^pkSng o’kZ ls de
child below the age of fourteen years shall be vk;q ds cPps dks fdlh Hkh m|ksx ;k [kku ;k fdlh nwljs [krjukd
employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in fu;kstu esa ugha j[kk tk;sxk*
any other hazardous employment? (1) vuqlwph 24
(1) Article 24 (2) vuqlwph 45
(2) Article 45 (3) vuqlwph 330
(3) Article 330 (4) vuqlwph 368
(4) Article 368

D01MYX6ARC [ A–11 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

81. An outlet pipe can empty a cistern in 3 hrs. In what 81. ,d fudkl ikbZi ,d Vadh dks 3 ?kaVs esa [kkyh dj ldrk gSA rks bl
2
time will the pipe empty part of the cistern? Vadh ds 2 fgLls dks ikbZi fdruh nsj esa [kkyh djsxk%
3 3
(1) 3 hours (1) 3 ?kaVs
(2) 5 hours (2) 5 ?kaVs
(3) 2 hours (3) 2 ?kaVs
(4) 4 hours (4) 4 ?kaVs
82. Reena can do a piece of work in 16 days. Ragini can 82. jhuk ,d dk;Z dks 16 fnu esa dj ldrh gSA jkfxuh mlh dk;Z dks
4 4
do the same work in 12 days while Gudia can do in 12 fnu esa dj ldrh gS tc fd xqfM+;k mldks 32 fnuksa esa dj
5 5
32 days. All of them started to work together but ldrh gSA rhuksa us ,d lkFk dk;Z djuk vkjEHk fd;k ysfdu jhuk 4
Reena leaves after 4 days. Ragini leaves the Job 3 fnu ckn dk;Z NksM+ nsrh gSA jkfxuh dk;Z [kRe gksus ls 3 fnu iwoZ dk;Z
days before the completion of the work. How long NksM+ nsrh gSA fdrus fnu dk dk;Z cpsxk\
would the work last? (1) 9 fnu (2) 6 fnu
(1) 9 days (2) 6 days (3) 18 fnu (4) 5 fnu
(3) 18 days (4) 5 days

83. Two pipes can fill up a tank in 30 minutes and 40 minutes 83. nks ikbZi ,d Vadh dks Øe”k% 30 feuV ,oa 40 feuV esa Hkj ldrs gSa
respectively and another pipe can empty the full tank in rFkk nwljk ikbZi iwjh Vadh dks 20 feuV esa [kkyh dj ldrk gSA ;fn
20 minutes. If all the pipes are opened when the tank is lHkh ikbZi ,d lkFk [kksys tkrs gSa tc Vadh vk/kh Hkjh gqbZ gS] rks Vadh
half full then time required to fill the tank will be: dks Hkjus esa fdruk le; yxsxk%
(1) 1 hour (1) 1 ?kaVk
(2) 2 hours (2) 2 ?kaVs
(3) 3 hours (3) 3 ?kaVs
(4) 2 hours & 30 minutes (4) 2 ?kaVs ,oa 30 feuV

84. Ramesh is walking at a speed of 10 kilometers per 84. jes”k 10 fdyksehVj çfr ?kaVs dh pky ls py jgk gSA çR;sd
hour. After every kilometer he takes rest for 5 minutes. fdyksehVj ds i”pkr og 5 feuV dk foJke ysrk gSA 5 fdyksehVj
The time taken to cover a distance of 5 kilometers by dh nwjh r; djus esa jes”k }kjk fdruk le; yxsxk%
Ramesh is: (1) 30 feuV
(1) 30 minutes (2) 35 feuV
(2) 35 minutes (3) 50 feuV
(3) 50 minutes (4) 55 feuV
(4) 55 minutes

85. A bag contains 3 blue, 2 green and 5 red balls. If four 85. ,d FkSys esa 3 uhyh] 2 gjh ,oa 5 yky xsans gSaA ;fn pkj xsans
balls are picked at random, what is the probability that ;kn`fPNd :i esa fudkyh tkrh gSa] rks bldh D;k laHkkfork gS fd nks
two are green and two are blue? gjh ,oa nks uhyh xsans gksaxh%
(1) 1/18 (2) 1/70 (1) 1/18 (2) 1/70
(3) 3/5 (4) 1/2 (3) 3/5 (4) 1/2
m m–1 m
86.
m
If 2 – 2
m–1 m
– 4 = 0, then the value of m will be? 86. ;fn 2 –2 – 4 = 0] rks m dk eku D;k gksxk\
(1) 4 (2) 27 (1) 4 (2) 27
(3) 6 (4) 3 (3) 6 (4) 3

87. An officer was appointed on maximum daily wages on 87. ,d vf/kdkjh #- 4,956/- ds lafonk jde ij vf/kdre nSfud
a contract money of Rs. 4,956/-. But on being absent etnwjh ij fu;qä fd;k x;kA dqN fnu vuqifLFkr jgus ds ckn mls
for some days, he was paid Rs. 3894/-. For how many #- 3,894/- Hkqxrku fd;k x;kA fdrus fnuksa rd og vuqifLFkr Fkk\
days was he absent? (1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) 2 (4) None of these

88. If the difference of the squares of two natural numbers 88. ;fn nks çkÑfrd la[;kvksa ds oxZ dk vUrj 19 gS] rks bu la[;kvksa
is 19, find the sum of the squares of these numbers? ds oxZ dk ;ksx D;k gksxk\
(1) 189 (2) 190 (1) 189 (2) 190
(3) 181 (4) None of these (3) 181 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

D01MYX6ARC [ A–12 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

 5 5
89. of a number is equal to twenty five percent of 89. ,d la[;k dk nwljh la[;k ds 25% ds cjkcj gSA nwljh la[;k
9 9

second number. Second number is equal to

1
of third rhljh la[;k ds 1 cjkcj gSA rhljh la[;k dk eku 2960 gSA
4 4
number. The value of third number is 2960. What is igyh la[;k dk 30% D;k gS\
30% of first number? (1) 99.9 (2) 88.8
(1) 99.9 (2) 88.8 (3) 77.7 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) 77.7 (4) None of these

90. Two vessels A and B contain acid and water mixed in 90. A ,oa B nks ik= esa vEy vkSj ikuh 2:3 ,oa 4:3 ds vuqikr esa
the ratio 2:3 and 4:3. In what ratio must these mixtures fefJr gSaA fdl vuqikr esa muds feJ.k dks fefJr fd;k tk, ftlls
be mixed to form a new mixture containing half acid ,d u;k feJ.k cus ftlesa vk/kk vEy ,oa vk/kk ikuh gks\
and half water? (1) 3:5 (2) 5:7
(1) 3:5 (2) 5:7 (3) 1:2 (4) 7:3
(3) 1:2 (4) 7:3

91. Five years ago, the age of a man was seven times the 91. ik¡p o’kZ iwoZ ,d O;fä dh mez mlds iq= ds mez dk lkr xquk FkkA
age of his son. The age of the man will be three times vc ls ik¡p o’kZ ckn mldh vk;q mlds iq= dh vk;q dh frxquh gSA
the age of his son in five years from now. The present orZeku esa O;fä ,oa mlds iq= dh vk;q Øe”k% gS%
age of the man and his son, respectively are: (1) 56 o’kZ] 14 o’kZ
(1) 56 years and 14 years (2) 68 o’kZ] 16 o’kZ
(2) 68 years and 16 years (3) 40 o’kZ] 10 o’kZ
(3) 40 years and 10 years (4) 50 o’kZ] 15 o’kZ
(4) 50 years and 15 years

92. If a 30 m ladder is placed against a 15 m wall such that 92. ;fn ,d 30 ehVj lh<+h dks ,d 15 ehVj nhokj ds lgkjs bl rjg
it just reaches the top of the wall, then the elevation of ls j[kk tkrk gS fd ;g Bhd nhokj ds “kh’kZ rd igq¡prk gS] rks nhokj
the wall is equal to: dk ,yhos”ku cjkcj gksxk%
(1) 45° (2) 30° (1) 45° (2) 30°
(3) 60° (4) 50° (3) 60° (4) 50°

93. A piece of wire when bent to form a circle will have a 93. rkj dk ,d VqdM+k ,d o`Ùk cukus ds fy;s eksM+s tkus ij 84 lseh-
radius of 84 cm. If the wire is bent to form a square, dh f=T;k j[ksxkA ;fn rkj dks ,d oxZ cukus ds fy;s eksM+k x;k] rks
the length of a side of the square is: oxZ ds Hkqtk dh yEckbZ gksxh%
(1) 216 cm (2) 133 cm (1) 216 lseh- (2) 133 lseh-
(3) 132 cm (4) 168 cm (3) 132 lseh- (4) 168 lseh-

94. For an equilateral triangle, the ratio of the in – radius 94. leckgq f=Hkqt ds fy;s vkUrfjd f=T;k ls ckgjh f=T;k dk vuqikr
and the outer radius is: gksxk%
(1) 1:√2 (2) 1:2 (1) 1:√2 (2) 1:2
(3) √2:1 (4) None of these (3) √2:1 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
95. Ajay can do a certain job in 12 days. Vinay is 60% 95. vt; fdlh dk;Z dks 12 fnu esa dj ldrk gSA fou;] vt; ls
more efficient than Ajay. To do the same job Vinay 60% T;knk n{k gSA mlh dk;Z dks djus ds fy;s fou; vdsyk fdruk
alone would take: fnu ysxk%
1 1
(1) 8 days (2) 4 days (1) 8 fnu (2) 4 fnu
2 2
1 1
(3) 7
2
days (4) None of these (3) 7 fnu (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
2

96. The marks of six boys in a group are 48, 59, 87, 37, 78 96. ,d leqnk; esa N% yM+dks ds vad 48, 59, 87, 37, 78 ,oa 57 gSaA
and 57. What are the average marks of all six boys? lHkh N% yM+dksa dk vkSlr vad D;k gS\
(1) 61 (1) 61
(2) 65 (2) 65
(3) 69 (3) 69
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

D01MYX6ARC [ A–13 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

97. The profit earned by selling a chair for Rs. 752 is 1.2 97. 752 #- esa ,d dqlÊ cspus ij vftZr ykHk mlh dqlÊ dks 400 #-
times the loss incurred when the same chair was sold esa cspus ij gqbZ gkfu dk 1.2 xquk gSA dqlÊ dk ykxr ewY; D;k gS%
for Rs. 400. What is the cost price of the chair? (1) 540 #i,
(1) Rs. 540 (2) 592 #i,
(2) Rs. 592 (3) 560 #i,
(3) Rs. 560 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(4) None of these

98. 14% of 14+28% of 28+92% of 96–15% of 85 = ? 98. 14% of 14+28% of 28+92% of 96–15% of 85 = \
(1) 80.37 (1) 80.37
(2) 85.37 (2) 85.37
(3) 89.37 (3) 89.37
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
99. A swimming pool 9m wide and 12m long is 1m deep on 99. ,d fLofeax iwy 9 ehVj pkSM+k ,oa 12 ehVj yEck 1 ehVj xgjk
the shallow side and 4 m deep on the deeper side. Its mFkys rjQ gS ,oa 4 ehVj xgjk xgjs rjQ gSA bldk vk;ru gS%
volume is: (1) 360 m
3
(2) 270 m
3
3 3 3
(1) 360 m (2) 270 m (3) 420 m (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
3
(3) 420 m (4) None of these

100. Dev can hit a target 3 times in 6 shots, Pawan can hit 100. nso ,d y{; dks 6 “kkWV~l esa 3 ckj ekj ldrk gS] iou ml y{;
the target 2 times in 6 shots and Lakhan can hit the dks 6 “kkWV~l esa 2 ckj ekj ldrk gS ,oa y[ku mlh y{; dks 4
target 4 times in 4 shots. What is the probability that at “kkWV~l esa 4 ckj ekj ldrk gSA bldh D;k laHkkfork gS] dh y{; dks
least 2 shots hit the target: de ls de 2 “kkWV~l yxrs gSa%
(1) 2/3 (2) 1/3 (1) 2/3 (2) 1/3
(3) 1/2 (4) None of these (3) 1/2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
101. A shopkeeper marks an item 30% above the cost price 101. ,d nqdkunkj ,d oLrq dks ykxr ls 30% vf/kd ewY; vafdr djrk
and gives 20% discount to a customer. If the customer gS ,oa xzkgd dks 20% dh NwV nsrk gSA ;fn xzkgd oLrq ds fy;s #i,
pays Rs. 832 for the item, what is its cost price? 832 Hkqxrku djrk gS] rks bldh ykxr ewY; D;k gS\
(1) Rs. 850 (1) 850 #i,
(2) Rs. 900 (2) 900 #i,
(3) Rs. 800 (3) 800 #i,
(4) Rs. 950 (4) 950 #i,

102. The ratio of Alka’s and Palak’s age is 7:5 and the sum 102. vydk ,oa iyd dh vk;q dk vuqikr 7:5 gS ,oa mudh vk;q dk
of their ages is 36 years. What will be the ratio of their ;ksx 36 o’kZ gSA 9 o’kZ i”pkr~ mudh vk;q dk vuqikr D;k gksxk\
ages after 9 years? (1) 5:6 (2) 4:3
(1) 5:6 (2) 4:3 (3) 6:5 (4) 5:4
(3) 6:5 (4) 5:4

103. The marked price of an article is Rs. 2400. The 103. ,d oLrq dk vafdr ewY; 2400 #i, gSA nqdkunkj xzkgd dks X%
shopkeeper gives successive discounts of x% and ,oa 15% çfr”kr dh Øfed NwV nsrk gSA ;fn xzkgd oLrq ds fy;s
15% to the customer. If the customer pays Rs. 1876.8 1876.80 #i, Hkqxrku djrk gS] rks x dk eku Kkr djsa%
for the article, find the value of x: (1) 9% (2) 8%
(1) 9% (2) 8% (3) 12% (4) 11%
(3) 12% (4) 11%

104. A shopkeeper had stock worth Rs. 1000 and Rs. 100 in 104. ,d nqdkunkj ds ikl lqcg ds le; 1000 #i, ewY; dk LVkWd ,oa
cash in the morning. He gave Rs. 20 to his son and 100 #i, gSA mlus vius iq= dks 20 #i, fn;s ,oa 11 #i, dk
contributed Rs. 11 for fete. At the end of the day, he ;ksxnku esys ds fy;s fd;kA fnu ds vUr esa og ik;k fd mlds ikl
found that he had stock of Rs. 750 and Rs. 450 in cash. 750 #i, dk LVkWd ,oa 450 #i, udn FksA iwjs fnu dk “kq) vk;
What is his net revenue for the day? D;k gS\
(1) Rs. 169 (1) #i, 169
(2) Rs. 321 (2) #i, 321
(3) Rs. 131 (3) #i, 131
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

D01MYX6ARC [ A–14 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

105. Out of a total of 85 children playing Badminton or
Table Tennis or both. Total number of girls in the
group is 70% of the total number of boys in the group.
The number of boys playing only Badminton is 50% of
the number of boys and total number of boys playing
Badminton is 60% of the total number of boys. Number
of children only playing Table Tennis is 40% of the
total number of children and a total of 12 children play
Badminton and Table Tennis both. What is the number
of girls playing only Badminton?
(1) 16 (2) 14
(3) 17 (4) None of these
105. dqy 85 cPpksa esa ls cSMfeUVu ;k Vscy Vsful ;k nksuksa [ksy jgs gSaA
leqnk; esa yM+fd;ksa dh dqy la[;k leqnk; esa yM+dksa dh dqy la[;k
dk 70% gSA dsoy cSMfeUVu [ksyus okys yM+dksa dh la[;k dqy yM+dks
dh la[;k dk 50% gS ,oa cSMfeUVu [ksyus okys yM+dksa dh la[;k
dqy yM+dksa dh la[;k dk 60% gSA dsoy Vsfcy Vsful [ksyus okys
dqy cPpksa dh la[;k dk 40% gS ,oa dqy 12 cPps cSMfeUVu ,oa
Vsfcy Vsful nksuksa [ksyrs gSaA yM+fd;ksa fd og la[;k D;k gS tks dsoy
cSMfeUVu [ksy jgh gSa\
(1) 16 (2) 14
(3) 17 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

106. The sum of the cubes of two numbers is 793. The sum 106. nks la[;kvksa ds ?kuksa dk ;ksx 793 esa gSA la[;kvksa dk ;ksx 13 gSA
of the numbers is 13, Then the difference of the two nksuksa la[;kvksa dk vUrj gS%
numbers is: (1) 5 (2) 6
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) 7 (4) None of these
5 3 3 5 3 3
107. 14 2 × 42 2 × 212 ÷ 7? = 432 107. 14 2 × 42 2 × 212 ÷ 7? = 432
7 11 7 11
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2
9 9
(3) (4) None of these (3) (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
2 2

108. 10 + 2 6 + 2 10 + 2 15 is equal to: 108. 10 + 2 6 + 2 10 + 2 15 ds cjkcj gS%

(1) (√2 + √3 + √5) (2) (√2 + √3 – √5) (1) (√2 + √3 + √5) (2) (√2 + √3 – √5)
(3) (√2 + √5 – √3) (4) None of these (3) (√2 + √5 – √3) (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

109. A man saves Rs. 100 in a certain year and in each year 109. ,d O;fä 100 #i, ,d fuf”pr o’kZ esa cpr djrk gS ,oa mlds
thereafter he saves Rs. 40 more than the preceding ckn çR;sd o’kZ esa iwoZ o’kZ ls 40 #i, vf/kd cpkrk gSA fdrus o’kks±
year. In how many years will his total savings amount esa mlds }kjk dqy cpr jde 15,600 #i, gks tk;sxh%
to Rs. 15,600? (1) 22 o’kZ (2) 26 o’kZ
(1) 22 years (2) 26 years (3) 24 o’kZ (4) 28 o’kZ
(3) 24 years (4) 28 years

110. The diameter of a copper sphere is 6 cm. It is beaten 110. ,d rkez ds xksys dk O;kl 6 lseh- gSA bldks ihVdj 0.2 lseh-
and drawn into a wire of diameter 0.2 cm. The length of O;kl okys ,d rkj esa [khapk tkrk gSA rkj dh yEckbZ D;k gS\
wire is? (1) 3600 lseh- (2) 260 lseh-
(1) 3600 cm (2) 260 cm (3) 360 lseh- (4) 2600 lseh-
(3) 360 cm (4) 2600 cm

111. Perimeters of a square and a rectangle are same. If the 111. ,d oxZ ,oa vk;r dk ifjeki ,d gh gSA ;fn vk;r 10 lseh- ,oa
rectangle is 10 cms and 8 cms, by what percentage area 8 lseh- dk gS] rks oxZ {ks=Qy dk vk;r dk {ks=Qy ls fdrus
of the square will be more than that of the rectangle? çfr”kr T;knk gksxk\
(1) 1.00 (2) 0.80 (1) 1.00 (2) 0.80
(3) 1.25 (4) None of these (3) 1.25 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
112. Kamal and Vimal can do piece of work in 12 days, 112. dey ,oa foey dk;Z ds ,d VqdM+s dks 12 fnu esa dj ldrs gSa]
Vimal and Bharat in 15 dyas and Bharat and Kamal in foey ,oa Hkjr 15 fnuksa esa rFkk Hkjr ,oa dey 20 fnuksa esa dj
20 days. If Kamal, Vimal and Bharat work together, in ldrs gSaA ;fn dey] foey ,oa Hkjr ,d lkFk dk;Z djrs gSa] rks
how many days will they complete the work? fdrus fnuksa og dk;Z iw.kZ djsaxs\
(1) 12 days (2) 10 days (1) 12 fnu (2) 10 fnu
(3) 15 days (4) 16 days (3) 15 fnu (4) 16 fnu

D01MYX6ARC [ A–15 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

113. Two trains, 121 m and 99 m long, are running in 113. nks Vªsusa] 121 ehVj ,oa 99 ehVj yEch Øe”k% 40 fdeh- çfr?kaVk ,oa
opposite directions at the speeds of 40 kmph and 32 32 fdeh- çfr?kaVk dh pky ls foifjr fn”kk esa py jgha gSaA fdrus
kmph respectively. In what time will they completely le; og iw.kZr% ,d nwljs dks ikj djsaxh ftl {k.k og fey jgh gSa\
cross each other from the moment they meet? (1) 10 lsd.M (2) 9 lsd.M
(1) 10 seconds (2) 9 seconds (3) 11 lsd.M (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) 11 seconds (4) None of these

114. 20 men can cut 30 trees in 4 hours. If 4 men leave the 114. 20 O;fä 4 ?kaVs esa 30 isM+ dkV ldrs gSaA ;fn pkj O;fä NksM+dj
job, how many trees will be cut in 12 hours? pys tkrs gSa rks 12 ?kaVs esa fdrus isM+ dVsaxs\
(1) 65 (2) 72 (1) 65 (2) 72
(3) 80 (4) 84 (3) 80 (4) 84

115. A statue of 80 kg contains 60% copper, 15% zinc and 115. 80 fdyksxzke okys ,d ewfrZ esa 60% rkez] 15% tLrk ,oa ckdh
remaining aluminium. After melting, if 5% aluminium is ,Y;qfefu;e gSA xykus ds i”pkr~ ;fn 5% ,Y;qfefu;e gVk;k tkrk
removed, find the quantity of aluminium required to gS] rks ewfrZ dks cukus esa ,Y;qfefu;e dh fdruh ek=k dh vko”;drk
make the statue? gksxh\
1 1 1 1
(1) 21
19
kg (2) 13
17
kg (1) 21 fdxzk- (2) 13 fdxzk-
19 17
1 1
(3) 19 kg (4) None of these (3) 19 fdxzk- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
17 17

116. Sanjeev began a business with Rs. 2,100 and is joined 116. latho us ,d O;kikj 2100 #i, ls vkjEHk fd;k ,oa mlds i”pkr~
afterwards by Manish with Rs. 3,600. After how many 3600 #i, yxkdj euh’k mlesa ços”k djrk gSA ;fn o’kZ ds vUr esa
months did Manish join, if the profits at the end of the ykHk dks cjkcj ck¡Vk tkrk gS] rks euh’k fdrus eghus ds ckn ços”k
year are divided equally? fd;k\
(1) After 4 months (2) After 6 months (1) 4 eghus ds ckn (2) 6 eghus ds ckn
(3) After 5 months (4) After 7 months (3) 5 eghus ds ckn (4) 7 eghus ds ckn

117. The average weight of a group of 75 girls was 117. 75 yM+fd;ksa ds lewg dk vkSlr Hkkj 47 fdyksxzke ifjdfyr fd;k
calculated as 47 kgs. It was later discovered that the tkrk gSA ckn esa ;g irk pyk fd ,d yM+dh dk Hkkj 45 fdyksxzke
weight of one of the girl was read as 45 kgs. Whereas i<+k x;k tcfd mldk okLrfod Hkkj 25 fdyksxzke FkkA 75 yM+fd;ksa
her actual weight was 25 kgs. What is the actual ds lewg dk okLrfod vkSlr Hkkj D;k gS\ ¼n”keyo ds ckn nks vad
average weight of the group of 75 girls? (Rounded off rd½
to two digits after decimal): (1) 45.25 fdxzk- (2) 39.86 fdxzk-
(1) 45.25 kg (2) 39.86 kg (3) 46.73 fdxzk- (4) 48.9 fdxzk-
(3) 46.73 kg (4) 48.9 kg

118. The area of a circle is 324 π square cm. The length of 118. o`Ùk dk {ks=Qy 324 π oxZ lseh- gSA bldh lcls yEch thok dh
its longest chord (in cm) is: yEckbZ ¼lseh- esa½ gksxh%
(1) 34 (2) 36 (1) 34 (2) 36
(3) 30 (4) None of these (3) 30 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
119. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 119. 25,000 #i, dh ,d jde ij vftZr ljy C;kt pkj o’kZ ds vUr
25,000 at the end of four years is Rs. 8,000. What esa 8,000 #i, gSA mlh jde ij mlh nj ls mlh dky ds fy;s
would be the compound interest accrued on the same vftZr pØo`f) C;kt dh jde fdruh gksxh\ ¼fudVre½
amount at the same rate in the same period? (Nearest) (1) 11,120 #i,
(1) Rs. 11,120 (2) 10,012 #i,
(2) Rs. 10,012 (3) 9,012 #i,
(3) Rs. 9,012 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(4) None of these

120. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 and 32 min, 120. A ,oa B nks ikbZi ,d Vadh dks Øe”k% 24 ,oa 32 feuV esa Hkjrs
respectively. If both the pipes are opened together, gSaA ;fn nksuksa ikbZi ,d lkFk [kksys tkrs gSa] rks fdrus le; ds i”pkr~
after how much time pipe B should be closed so that ikbZi B dks cUn fd;k tkuk pkfg, rkfd Vadh 9 feuV esa iwjh rjg
the tank is full in 9 minutes: Hkj tk;s%
(1) 30 minutes (2) 20 minutes (1) 30 feuV (2) 20 feuV
(3) 25 minutes (4) None of these (3) 25 feuV (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

D01MYX6ARC [ A–16 ] (SET-01) PAPER – I [ 8 1 4 9 7 2 ]

egRoiw.kZ% fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh ik=rk oafpr dj nh tk;sxhA
1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké
gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k
fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zos{kd dks lwfpr djsa
vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA
egRoiw.kZ uksV% vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj-
mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh ,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk
fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k
tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA
2. xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1/3 _.kkRed vadu gksxkA çR;sd ç”u ds vad leku gSaA foLr`r tkudkjh ds fy, mÙkj i=d dk voyksdu djsaA
3. d{k&fujh{kd ls vius ços”k&i= ij gLrk{kj vo”; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrk{kj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk jí dj nh tk,xhA
4. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijh{kk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSAa vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJ"s B gS mldks
vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funs'Z k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A
5. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy
Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA
6. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA
7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijh{kk d{k esa oftZr gSA
8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU; dkx+t ij bls djus dh
vuqefr ugha gSA
9. ijh{kk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh ç'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mÙkj&if=dk i;Zos{kd dks okil dj nsaA ç'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx vFkok OMR mÙkj if=dk
dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA
10. gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsAa ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh dfVax ;k vksojjkbZfVax ekU;
ugha gksxhA iqu% ç'u i= f}Hkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxtsz h½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxtsz h laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk tk;sxkA
dPps dk;Z ds fy,