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UM0-401

OMG OCRES-Intermediate Exam

Version 1.0
QUESTION NO: 1
An example of a module exhibiting temporal cohesion is a combination of--------

A. the control and management of two onboard hardware clocks


B. a 40 millisecond periodic navigation function and a 40 millisecond periodic display
update function
C. several mathematical functions such as the sine, cosine, and arctangent functions
D. the vehicle speed and acceleration management functions

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
What two actions must occur in systems that use overlaying with a disk drive backing
store? (Choose two.)

A. Only data is stored on the disk and code is stored in RAM.


B. A task executing in RAM can also execute code that is stored on the disk.
C. The operating system must prevent each task in RAM from accessing RAM outside
the area reserved for it.
D. The code for the currently executing tasks is stored in RAM and that for the currently
inactive tasks is stored on the disk, as managed by the operating system.

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two statements about static memory allocation are true? (Choose two.)

A. Garbage collection is not required.


B. Memory fragmentation does not occur.
C. Memory allocation units are always the same fixed size.
D. Tasks must inform the run-time (e.g., operating system) the total amount of memory
they will need before they begin requesting memory.

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 4
POSIX -----------------------

A. is the same as UNIX


B. is not designed for real-time systems
C. does not support asynchronous I/O
D. is an operating system interface standard

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
A scheduler runs tasks to completion instead of pre-empting tasks by time slicing or
according to priority. What two actions will occur? (Choose two.)

A. Maximize the number of completed tasks per unit of time


B. Minimize the task scheduling and context switching overheads
C. Honor the commitment made to complete the task once it has begun executing
D. Share the processor time fairly among ready tasks

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which two statements are true of a monitor for synchronization? (Choose two.)

A. No concurrent access by tasks is allowed to any resource(s) within a monitor.


B. One monitor may encapsulate any number of resources and their synchronization
functions.
C. If a requesting task enters a monitor but finds the resource isn't available, the task exits
the monitor and is placed at the end of the monitor's external queue.
D. If two tasks are waiting in a monitor's queues for separate resources, when the task
that has been accessing a resource finishes doing so, all the queues with waiting tasks are
served round-robin.

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 7
Which two are POSIX real-time extensions? (Choose two.)

A. suspend / resume API's


B. direct cyclic executive support
C. task synchronization
D. priority-based preemptive task scheduling

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 8
Which two of these techniques would successfully avoid mutual exclusion deadlocks?
(Choose two.)

A. Set up a circular dependency of tasks and resources


B. Allow a task's use of a resource to be pre-empted
C. Require tasks to acquire and use only one resource at a time
D. Require tasks to acquire resources in order of the tasks' priorities

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 9
The priority of a runnable task blocked on a resource request is temporarily changed to be
the same as the priority of another task. Which two phrases could describe the new
priority? (Choose two.)

A. The priority of the highest priority task


B. The priority of the lowest priority task which uses the resource
C. The priority of the higher priority task being blocked by the lower priority one
D. The ceiling priority of the resource on which the lower priority task is blocked

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 10
What two results occur by changing priorities dynamically? (Choose two.)

A. Reduces overhead
B. Increases overhead
C. May starve lower priority tasks
D. Avoids the need for priority queues

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 11
A representative benchmark differs from a synthetic benchmark in that a--------------

A. representative benchmark models a representative ideal application


B. synthetic benchmark precisely predicts specific application performance
C. representative benchmark models a real application's execution characteristics
D. synthetic benchmark must be developed by the same team that will build the
application

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
Network protocol models are described as layers that---------------

A. permit separation of concerns of lower layers (e.g., hardware) from higher layers
(e.g., application)
B. add increasing efficiency to higher layers (e.g., application) than lower layers
(e.g., hardware)
C. are highly consistent in number and function among different protocols
D. provide efficient application access to network hardware addresses

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 13
The primary requirement for an RTOS is to---------------
A. maximize application speed and minimize memory utilization
B. enable fast control and data transfer to critical system devices
C. enable the application to meet both its functional and temporal requrements
D. permit the application to efficiently access all resources (e.g., I/O and memory)

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14
A strictly conforming POSIX application-----------

A. uses all POSIX functions and standard options


B. uses only IEEE tested conforming operating systems
C. uses only POSIX required API's for its OS functionality
D. runs on all operating systems whose vendors claim POSIX conformance

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 15
Which statement accurately describes where a "mark" exists in the MDA model
hierarchy?

A. as part of the PSM


B. as part of the PIM
C. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PIM
D. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PSM

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 16
In MDA practice, transformations from PIM to PSM---------------- (Choose TWO.)

A. may be automated
B. are required for all systems
C. may be hand generated
D. always produce executable code
E. are always implemented in the QVT action language

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 17
What does the term "Platform independence" mean?

A. The application model can be moved to every other platform that is available.
B. The application model is independent of the features of any particular platform from
some class of platforms.
C. The application is written in a high-level programming language such as Java or C++.
D. The application model is independent of the hardware platform where the application
may be deployed.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 18
What is an "implementation model"?

A. A PIM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into
operation.
B. A model that includes C++ source code for all classes in the model.
C. A PSM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into
operation.
D. A file that is executable on some computer system.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
What two functions does the Model transformation specification provide? (Choose
TWO.)

A. Always prescribes a one-to-one mapping from input model elements to output model
elements.
B. Prescribes the transformations that merge a set of models to produce another set of
models.
C. Are implemented using the OMG standard Model Transformation language.
D. Prescribes the transformation of one model to another model.

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 20
A metamodel is a--------

A. set of UML templates for drawing system models


B. special kind of model that specifies a modeling language
C. collection of stereotypes and classes that define a set of architectural patterns
D. conceptual pattern for a class of application systems

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 21
Which example is NOT one of the MDA standard specification categories?

A. Service specification
B. Application specification
C. Data model specification
D. Language specification
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 22
In the MDA Foundation Model, a Transformation Record ___

A. is one entry in a Transformation Specification


B. is the aggregation of all Transformation Specification Elements
C. provides a record of the inverse mapping transformation used to recover a model
D. traces groups of input model items to the groups of model items into which they are
transformed

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 23
What is an "implementation" in MDA practice?

A. the complete set of models (PIM, PSM, Transformations) that express the design of a
system
B. a PSM that contains all the information needed to construct a system and place it into
operation
C. the executable binary code that is generated by the Implementation
Transformation
D. the source code for the application

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 24
What are the two correct attributes of ExecutionEngine? (Choose two.)

A. Utilization
B. scheduler
C. loadAverage
D. numThreads

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 25
In the UML Profile for Schedulability, Performance, and Time, usage demand is
described as-------------------

A. an event occurrence that causes a resource usage


B. resource usages, with corresponding densities, and the set of resource instances that
are used by resource usages
C. QoS values of a system associated with a specific resource usage
D. a pattern describing how clients use resources and services
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 26
What is the name of the ActiveResource that is responsible for executing actions in the
system?

A. Agent
B. Thread
C. Engine
D. ConcurrentUnit

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 27
What is the maximum absolute time difference in relative frequencies of the clock and its
reference clock between two successive time ticks?

A. drift
B. offset
C. maximal value
D. maximum stability

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 28
What is the schedulable resource that an action executes on?

A. Host
B. Scheduler
C. SResource
D. Scheduling job

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 29
Dynamic scheduling includes utility based or-------------- scheduling.

A. value based
B. variable based
C. economic based
D. continuous based

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 30
In the Dynamic Usage Model, the usage of resources is represented by a scenario
instance. What is an ordered series of steps called?

A. Action
B. ActionItem
C. ActionInstance
D. ActionExecution

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 31
What is the general concurrency model based on?

A. event model
B. scenario model
C. causality model
D. resource model

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 32
Which two elements are part of the Causality Model Package? (Choose two.)

A. EffectGeneration
B. EventOccurence
C. ScenarioInstance
D. StimulusReception

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 33
The basic time model consists of six (6) entities. Five of the six are Physical Time, Clock,
PhysicalInstant, TimeValue, Duration. What is the sixth one?

A. Timer
B. Deadline
C. TimeInterval
D. TimeInstance

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 34
What is the base class of stereotype <<QoSContext>>?

A. Classifier
B. Template
C. Package
D. Category

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 35
Which QoS model element is represented by the UML model element
InstanceSpecification?

A. QoSSlot
B. QoSValue
C. QoSParameter
D. QoSCharacteristic

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 36
The main difference between a QoS Category and a QoS Characteristic is that QoS
Characteristics are directly _____.

A. qualifiedly
B. specifiable
C. justifiable
D. quantifiable

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 37
A grouping of QoS characteristics through classification by quality attributes is referred
to as _____.

A. QoS value group


B. QoS category
C. QoS context
D. QoS dimension

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 38
A processing entity that includes a group of concurrent units of execution with facets,
receptacles, and event sinks/sources is referred to as a _____.

A. QoS constraint
B. Quality characterization
C. QoS-aware specification function
D. Resource consuming component
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 39
A general QoS modeling language must provide support for the specification of
_____.

A. QoS Analysis
B. QoS Dimension
C. QoS Levels of Instantiation
D. QoS Adaptation and Monitoring

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 40
Performance, Dependability, Latency, Reliability, Security are all examples of
_____.

A. QoS Values
B. QoS Categories
C. QoS Constraints
D. QoS Characteristics

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 41
Which two are valid dimensions of the QoSCharacteristic 'availability'? (Choose two.)

A. time-to-repair
B. cost-to-repair
C. failure-reason
D. time-between-failures

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 42
When "isQoSObservation identifies QoS monitoring" is taking place, QoSContext
identifies the collection of quality _____.

A. Values
B. Contracts
C. Constraints
D. Characteristics

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 43
If the ORB cannot map the configured range of priorities, CORBA::ORB_init will raise
_____.

A. INITIALIZE with minor code 1


B. MARSHAL with minor code 4
C. BAD_INV_ORDER with minor code 18
D. DATA_CONVERSION with minor code 2

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 44
At which two points can a Priority Transform affect the CORBA priority associated with
an invocation? (Choose two.)

A. at the establishment of a connection


B. at the time of making the onward CORBA invocation
C. before the server side ORB issues a return message
D. during an invocation upcall before the servant code is invoked

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 45
What is the range of RT CORBA priorities?

A. 0 to 127
B. 0 to 255
C. 0 to 32767
D. 0 to 65535

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 46
Which two of these are standard extensions provided by IIOP to support the mechanisms
prescribed in Real-time CORBA? (Choose TWO.)

A. Service Contexts
B. Bi-directional IIOP
C. LOCATION_FORWARD
D. IOR Tagged Components

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 47
Real-time CORBA------------------

A. is based on POSIX Real-time extensions


B. extends POSIX Real-time extensions
C. is compatible with POSIX Real-time extensions
D. requires a POSIX operating system

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 48
What is the maximum RT CORBA priority value?

Answer: 32767

QUESTION NO: 49
In RT CORBA, CORBA Priorities------------------

A. can be set from -32767 to 32767 using a signed short


B. can be mapped to C, C++, Ada, and Java using IDL interfaces
C. raise a BAD_PARAM system exception when the priority mapping fails
D. are mapped to native priorities using to_native and to_CORBA operations

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 50
Max_buffered_requests or max_request_buffer_size has been reached, and new requests
are incoming. What two actions occur? (Choose two.)

A. oldest requests are discarded


B. newer requests are discarded
C. exception NO_RESOURCES is raised
D. exception NO_RESOURCES is raised after a timeout

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following can be controlled using RT CORBA? (Choose two)

A. threadpools
B. memory addresses
C. transport connections
D. number of CORBA objects

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 52
For the Server Declared Priority Model, which statements are true? (Choose two)

A. The value of server_priority cannot be overridden.


B. The value of server_priority is passed in each reply message.
C. The value of server_priority is published in its object reference.
D. The value of server_priority indicates the priority that will be assigned by default to
CORBA objects managed by the POA.

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 53
What two phrases are true about the Real-time CORBA specification scope?
(Choose two.)

A. includes static scheduling only


B. includes both static and dynamic scheduling
C. includes threadpool management for server side only
D. includes threadpool management for both client and server side

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 54
In RT CORBA, PriorityModelPolicy set to SERVER_DECLARED causes priority to be
_____.

A. propagated from the server and subject to being over-ridden


B. declared by the server and threads to run at the native priority
C. declared by the client and applied to invocations of non-RT ORBs
D. propagated from the client and the priority_model_policy_type to be set to 40

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 55
In RT CORBA, what happens when the Priority Model is applied to a RT POA on the
client side?

A. The client's CORBA priority is published in its object reference.


B. The client's CORBA priority is made available to the server-side ORB.
C. The client's CORBA priority is applied to executing threads after mapping to the
native priority.
D. The client's CORBA priority is unaffected by the priority inheritance policies of the
underlying RTOS.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 56
When using a threadpool with lanes, and borrowing has been allowed, a lane which
exhausts its maximum number of threads can borrow what? (Choose TWO)

A. It can borrow a static thread of an upper priority lane


B. It can borrow a dynamic thread of an upper priority lane
C. It can borrow a static thread of a lower priority lane
D. It can borrow a dynamic thread of a lower priority lane

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 57
Which two of these correctly characterise "end to end" predictability in a fixed priority
CORBA system? (Choose TWO)

A. minimizing the latencies of operation invocations


B. respecting thread priorities between CORBA clients and servers
C. bounding the duration of memory access times
D. bounding the duration of thread priority inversions during end-to-end processing

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 58
What occurs when using SERVER_DECLARED priority model on a RT POA?

A. Objects must be activated with a priority on this RT POA.


B. Client thread must run at the declared priority to send requests to objects.
C. All objects registered with this RT POA will execute their requests at same priority.
D. The declared priority is published in references of objects registered with this RT
POA.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 59
All OMG IDL specified by real-time extensions of CORBA/e is contained in ---------
(Choose ONE)

A. RT CORBA and RT Portable Server


B. RT CORBA Priority and RT Priority Mappings
C. RT CORBA Current and RT Thread Scheduling
D. RT CORBA Mutexes and RT Priority Inheritance

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 60
What two specific profiles does the CORBA/e specification define? (Choose two.)

A. Micro Profile
B. Compact Profile
C. Fault Tolerant Profile
D. High Performance Profile
E. CORBA Component Model Profile
F. Real Time (Static Scheduling) Profile

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 61
An operation declaration must contain which two of these? (Choose two.)

A. A raises expression
B. An identifier to name the operation
C. An indication of the operation's return result data type
D. An operational attribute to specify the invocation semantics

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 62
What are two reasons to use Exception Declarations? (Choose two.)

A. to handle standard system exceptions only


B. to provide a structure to indicate that an error has occurred
C. to provide a mechanism to determine the nature of an error
D. as a simple flag to indicate that an error occurred during an operation

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 63
What are the four components of a real-time CORBA/e system to support end-to-end
predictability? (Choose four.)

A. application(s)
B. real-time ORB
C. portability of the ORB
D. communication transport
E. interoperability of the ORB
F. scheduling mechanisms in the OS

Answer: A, B, D, F

QUESTION NO: 64
The NamingContext interface---------------------

A. binds a name to an object where names are case insensitive strings


B. resolves naming exceptions where matching does not have to be exact
C. creates a context for a name so that they can be grouped by binding types
D. supports building and iterating through a list of bindings contained in a naming
context

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 65
An object reference is-----------------

A. a server's response to a client


B. a client's call to a service object
C. an operation that denotes the primitive service
D. a value that reliably denotes a particular object

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 66
Which two statements apply to interface inheritance? (Choose two.)

A. Inherited interface elements can be rescoped.


B. Interfaces are derived from one or more base interfaces.
C. Ambiguous references to base interface elements are tolerated.
D. Direct base interfaces can be associated with a derived interface more than once.

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 67
Which statement is true about CORBA/e interoperability?

A. Individual systems cannot mix CORBA/e and non-CORBA/e ORBs.


B. CORBA/e systems can successfully interoperate with non-CORBA/e CORBA
systems.
C. Applications written for a CORBA/e ORB will run without modification on a non-
CORBA/e ORB.
D. CORBA/e ORBs in a system with non-CORBA/e ORBs will cause the entire system
to behave in a real-time manner.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 68
Which one is a constructed type?

A. any
B. string
C. sequence
D. enumerated

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 69
What time scales does the Lightweight Time Service support? (Choose two.)
A. Ephemeris time
B. Global Positioning System Time
C. Terrestrial Dynamical Time
D. International Atomic Time

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 70
What are three valid operations on the Lightweight Naming Service NamingContext?
(Choose three.)

A. bind()
B. restore()
C. resolve()
D. destroy()
E. context_bind()

Answer: A, C, D

QUESTION NO: 71
The Lightweight Event Service raises--------------------

A. an exception if a supplier is disconnected from the event channel without its


knowledge
B. a CORBA UserException when attempting to transfer an event if no
EventChannel exists to handle it
C. an exception if any objects directly or indirectly connected to an EventChannel still
exist after the EventChannel is destroyed
D. an exception after an attempt to connect a consumer or supplier to a proxy where a
connection already exists

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 72
The Lightweight Event Services EventChannel interface ----------------

A. can be used to add consumers and suppliers and destroy itself


B. requires manual invocation of the disconnect operation after a channel is destroyed
C. can be associated with multiple SupplierAdmin or ConsumerAdmin objects
D. can interface directly or through a proxy with a PushConsumer

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 73
In the Lightweight Time Service, what is the resolution of clocks?
A. The clock resolution shall be 100 nanoseconds.
B. The clock resolution shall be 100 nanoseconds or less.
C. The clock resolution shall be at least 100 nanoseconds.
D. The clock resolution is implementation-defined.
E. The clock resolution shall be equal to the CPU clock cycle rate.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 74
The Lightweight Time Service Periodic interface-------------

A. assumes that a periodic object is always "ready to execute"


B. executes the do_work operation invoked by the Controller
C. initiates periodic execution when using an unsigned integer params set to 0
D. does not require that a periodic object be registered with a clock beforehand

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 75
What does the resolve operation on the Lightweight Naming Service NamingContext do?
(Choose two.)

A. may raise "NotFound", "InvalidName", or "AlreadyBound" exceptions


B. retrieves an object bound to a name
C. deals with names traversing multiple contexts
D. can resolve differences between a given name and an object name

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 76
In the Lightweight Time Service, a value of type "TimeT" indicates--------------

A. the number of seconds (tv_sec) and nanoseconds (tv_nsec) passed since the beginning
of the POSIX epoch
B. a relative time, with the "tv_sec" field containing the number of elapsed seconds, and
"tv_usec" containing elapsed microseconds
C. a 64-bit value of relative elapsed or absolute time, in units of 100 nanoseconds
D. the number of seconds passed since midnight, January 1, 1970, UTC

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 77
What are two instances when the Lightweight Naming Service NamingContext raises
Exceptions? (Choose two.)

A. when a name is not bound to a context


B. when an object is bound to a scoped name
C. when the operation applied to the binding type is incorrect
D. when an attempt is made to destroy an empty NamingContext

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 78
The Lightweight Event Service provides an interface for ___.

A. event consumers to request (poll) events from event suppliers


B. an asynchronous, one-to-one, first-in, first-out (FIFO) event channel
C. storing events in an event channel, from which they are polled by listeners
D. suppliers to push events to an event channel, which in turn pushes events to consumers

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 79
Which classes are DDS Entities? Select TWO.

A. WaitSet
B. Publisher
C. DataReader
D. SubscriberListener
E. ContentFilteredTopic

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 80
Which class acts as the factory used to construct DataReader objects?

A. Publisher
B. Subscriber
C. DomainParticipant
D. DomainParticipantFactory

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 81
Choose the three valid return codes for class operations at the PIM level.

A. ERROR
B. NOT_ENABLED
C. INVALID_KEY
D. OUT_OF_RESOURCES

Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION NO: 82
Which of these classes extends the Entity class?

A. Listener
B. Topic
C. QosPolicy
D. DataInstance

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 83
Which two conditions allow the value offered for the PRESENTATION QoS to be
considered compatible with the value requested? (Choose two.)

A. requested ordered_access is FALSE and offered ordered_access is TRUE


B. requested ordered_access is TRUE and offered ordered_access is FALSE
C. requested coherent_access is FALSE and offered coherent_access is TRUE
D. requested coherent_access is TRUE and offered coherent_access is FALSE

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 84
Which scenarios could cause a DataReader to get a sample with instance_state
NOT_ALIVE_NO_WRITERS? Select THREE

A. deletion of a matched DataWriter


B. call to write() on a matched DataWriter
C. call to dispose() on a matched DataWriter
D. call to unregister_instance() on a matched DataWriter
E. loss of communications (e.g. network outage) with a matched DataWriter

Answer: A, D, E

QUESTION NO: 85
Click on Exhibit. Given this configuration, select the statement that is true.
A. The QoS of DataWriter 1 is compatible with that of DataReader 1
B. The QoS of DataWriter 1 is compatible with that of DataReader 2
C. The QoS of DataWriter 2 is compatible with that of DataReader 1
D. The QoS of DataWriter 2 is compatible with that of DataReader 2

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 86
Which of these QoS is "changeable”?

A. DURABILITY
B. PRESENTATION
C. OWNERSHIP
D. PARTITION

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 87
The RELIABILITY QoS concerns which one of the following entities?

A. DomainParticipant
B. Topic
C. Publisher
D. Subscriber

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 88
Which TWO events can cause the creation of a Built-in Topic?
A. A DomainParticipant object is created
B. A Topic object is created
C. A Subscriber object is created
D. A Listener object is created

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 89
Which of these parameters is from the DataReader read_w_condition operation?

A. InstanceHandle_t [] instances
B. SampleStateKind [] sample_states
C. SampleInfos [] sample_infos
D. InstanceStateKind [] instance_states

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 90
Which "attach" operation on a WaitSet is used to attach one or more objects to the
WaitSet?

A. Topic
B. Condition
C. Subscriber
D. DataReader
E. DomainParticipant

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 91
RTOS benchmarking is used to---------------

A. measure the RTOS overall API overhead


B. define the RTOS worst case response time for each interface
C. determine the optimal scheduling for an application running on a particular RTOS
D. measure the RTOS features most suitable for an application that must meet real-time
requirements

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 92
Why was POSIX developed?

A. to make UNIX available for the embedded systems domain


B. because of the extensive use of standards in RTOS design
C. to improve the portability, maintenance, and reuse of application code
D. to improve the ability of embedded systems to meet their real-time response time
requirements

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 93
Which two phrases are true of a binary semaphore?

A. has higher overhead than a monitor


B. has a queue for each task priority level
C. WAIT and SIGNAL can occur in either order
D. need not be associated with any specific resource

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 94
Which two actions occur with event flag groups? (Select two.)

A. Flags must be single bits within a single word.


B. A task can broadcast signals to multiple tasks.
C. Signal senders and receivers must wait for signals to arrive.
D. A task can wait on any combination of more than one signal.

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 95
TCP/IP is used in many real-time applications because it------------------

A. is so pervasive that it has achieved very high efficiency


B. is implemented directly in networked hardware devices
C. is ubiquitous in Internet applications and is therefore widely available
D. readily supports the bounded time constraints imposed on real-time applications

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 96
What are two ideal characteristics of a good module? (Choose two.)

A. contains a clearly defined task


B. encapsulates efficient data structures
C. maximizes visibility of data to other modules
D. minimizes tight coupling to other modules

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 97
A scheduler runs tasks to completion instead of pre-empting tasks by time slicing or
according to priority. What two actions will occur? (Choose two.)

A. Maximize the number of completed tasks per unit of time


B. Minimize the task scheduling and context switching overheads
C. Honor the commitment made to complete the task once it has begun executing
D. Share the processor time fairly among ready tasks

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 98
What two actions must occur in systems that use overlaying with a disk drive backing
store? (Choose two.)

A. Only data is stored on the disk and code is stored in RAM.


B. A task executing in RAM can also execute code that is stored on the disk.
C. The operating system must prevent each task in RAM from accessing RAM outside
the area reserved for it.
D. The code for the currently executing tasks is stored in RAM and that for the currently
inactive tasks is stored on the disk, as managed by the operating system.

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 99
Which two of these requirements can be used to prevent deadlock using fixed-order
resource allocation? (Choose two.)

A. Always requires calculation of the time when tasks will acquire all their resources
B. Requires that resources be requested by all tasks in a fixed order assigned to the
resources
C. Requires that resources be requested in a fixed order assigned to the tasks, such as
according to their priorities
D. Requires that a task which requests a locked resource must release all the other
resource locks it holds and be suspended

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 100


Why would a real-time application be designed to be POSIX conformant?

A. to meet the tight memory requirements of a small embedded processor


B. to enhance the probability that the application could be moved to other platforms
C. because the POSIX interfaces guarantee meeting application time constraints
D. because the application is being developed on a POSIX-compliant Windows system,
so debugging is easy

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 101
A strictly conforming POSIX application

A. uses all POSIX functions and standard options


B. uses only IEEE tested conforming operating systems
C. uses only POSIX required API's for its OS functionality
D. runs on all operating systems whose vendors claim POSIX conformance

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 102


As the clock tick period is reduced, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Context switch times are reduced.


B. Task reaction time jitter is reduced.
C. Timer and clock resolution is decreased.
D. The available time for processing tasks is reduced.

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 103


A general purpose RTOS

A. has a simple organization


B. optimizes system service request speed
C. minimizes memory utilization
D. supports networked real-time applications

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 104


Which two statements are true about a FIFO scheduler? (Choose two.)

A. A shorter task can pre-empt a longer one.


B. A new task goes to the end of the queue of tasks.
C. System performance is affected mostly by longer rather than shorter tasks.
D. Longer and shorter tasks can be interleaved to make better use of system resources.

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 105


Which statement is NOT true?

A. A view is a representation of a system from the perspective of a related set of


concerns.
B. The views in a correct system model do not have model elements in common (i.e. the
views do not overlap).
C. A model of a system from a given viewpoint is a view of the system from that
viewpoint.
D. If the views of a system are consistent they can all be satisfied by the same system.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 106


What two functions does the Model transformation specification provide? (Choose
TWO.)

A. Always prescribes a one-to-one mapping from input model elements to output model
elements.
B. Prescribes the transformations that merge a set of models to produce another set of
models.
C. Are implemented using the OMG standard Model Transformation language.
D. Prescribes the transformation of one model to another model.

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 107


Which statement describes the concept that MDA calls a "platform"?

A. A platform is the set of hardware that where the application executes.


B. A platform is the application's execution environment that is comprised on the
hardware devices and the operating system software.
C. A platform is that part of the system that is not the application, and is comprised of
hardware devices and software execution environments that support the execution of the
application.
D. A platform is a thin interface layer between an application and a system's underlying
hardware.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 108


What is an "implementation" in MDA practice?

A. the complete set of models (PIM, PSM, Transformations) that express the design of a
system
B. a PSM that contains all the information needed to construct a system and place it into
operation
C. the executable binary code that is generated by the Implementation
Transformation
D. the source code for the application

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 109
In MDA Practice ----------

A. a model may serve as a PSM and a PIM


B. the models are always expressed in the UML
C. there is only a single PSM produced by the process
D. there is always a transformation model to transform the PIM to the PSM

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 110


What are the two primary MDA viewpoint models? (Choose TWO.)

A. platform models
B. platform specific models
C. implementation models
D. platform independent models

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 111


In MDA practice, transformations from PIM to PSM-------------------- (Choose TWO.)

A. may be automated
B. are required for all systems
C. may be hand generated
D. always produce executable code
E. are always implemented in the QVT action language

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 112


Which example is NOT one of the MDA standard specification categories?

A. Service specification
B. Application specification
C. Data model specification
D. Language specification

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 113


In the MDA Foundation Model, a Transformation Record-------------

A. is one entry in a Transformation Specification


B. is the aggregation of all Transformation Specification Elements
C. provides a record of the inverse mapping transformation used to recover a model
D. traces groups of input model items to the groups of model items into which they are
transformed

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 114


Which notion is at the core of the General Resource Modeling (GRM) framework?

A. deadline monotonic analysis


B. quality of service
C. rate monotonic analysis
D. stimulus / response

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 115


Since physical time is incorporeal, it is typically measured by counting the number of
expired cycles, starting from some origin, of some strictly periodic _____?

A. click
B. virtual clock
C. reference clock
D. simulated clock

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 116


A ConcurrentUnit must contain at least one StimuliQueue and is a specialization of
_____.

A. Stimulus
B. ActiveResource
C. ActionExecution
D. ResourceService

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 117


What is the schedulable resource that an action executes on?

A. Host
B. Scheduler
C. SResource
D. Scheduling job
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 118


Which two elements are part of the Causality Model Package? (Choose two.)

A. EffectGeneration
B. EventOccurence
C. ScenarioInstance
D. StimulusReception

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 119


What are the two correct attributes of ExecutionEngine? (Choose two.)

A. Utilization
B. scheduler
C. loadAverage
D. numThreads

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 120


Which service, in the Resource Management Package, is responsible for the allocation
and deallocation of a set of resource instances to clients according to a specific access
control policy?

A. ResourceBroker
B. ResourceInstance
C. ResourceManager
D. AccessControlPolicy

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 121


The StimuliQueue is a __________ resource that is used to store stimuli whose
processing has been deferred by the concurrent unit.

A. empty
B. selected
C. protected
D. implicit

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 122


Dynamic scheduling includes utility based or _____ scheduling.

A. value based
B. variable based
C. economic based
D. continuous based

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 123


What is the maximum absolute time difference in relative frequencies of the clock and its
reference clock between two successive time ticks?

A. drift
B. offset
C. maximal value
D. maximum stability

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 124


A processing entity that includes a group of concurrent units of execution with facets,
receptacles, and event sinks/sources is referred to as a _____.

A. QoS constraint
B. Quality characterization
C. QoS-aware specification function
D. Resource consuming component

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 125


Which statement describes role of QoS in modeling the requirements of a component?

A. QoS is used to model the functional requirements offered by the component.


B. QoS is used to model the non-functional requirements on the behavior or use of a
component.
C. QoS is used to model the non-quantifiable requirements of the component behavior.
D. QoS is used to model the functional requirements required by the context in which a
component will execute.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 126


Of these classes, which three are part of the QoS meta-model? (Choose three.)

A. QosConstraint
B. QoSParameter
C. QosDimension
D. QoSAssessment
E. QoSCharacteristic

Answer: A, C, E

QUESTION NO: 127


When "isQoSObservation identifies QoS monitoring" is taking place, QoSContext
identifies the collection of quality _____.

A. Values
B. Contracts
C. Constraints
D. Characteristics

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 128


What is the base class of stereotype <<QoSContext>>?

A. Classifier
B. Template
C. Package
D. Category

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 129


Which two phrases are true?

A. QoSDimension associates one or more QoSParameter classes


B. QosCharacteristic associates one or more QosCategory classes
C. QosCharacteristic associates one or more QoSDimension classes
D. QosCategory is associated with one or more QoSCharacteristic classes

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 130


Which QoS model element is represented by the UML model element
InstanceSpecification?

A. QoSSlot
B. QoSValue
C. QoSParameter
D. QoSCharacteristic
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 131


Performance, Dependability, Latency, Reliability, Security are all examples of
_____.

A. QoS Values
B. QoS Categories
C. QoS Constraints
D. QoS Characteristics

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 132


Which two are valid dimensions of the QoSCharacteristic 'availability'? (Choose two.)

A. time-to-repair
B. cost-to-repair
C. failure-reason
D. time-between-failures

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 133


Which three methods does the RTCORBA::Mutex interface offer? (Choose three.)

A. lock
B. ceiling
C. unlock
D. try_lock
E. is_locked
F. lock_interruptible

Answer: A, C, D

QUESTION NO: 134


Which two enumeration values of the priority model below are supported by RT
CORBA? (Choose two.)

A. NATIVE
B. PER_OBJECT
C. SERVER_DECLARED
D. CLIENT_PROPAGATED

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 135


Which two configuration properties are common to both Threadpools with Lanes and
Threadpools without Lanes? (Choose two.)

A. stacksize
B. static_threads
C. dynamic_threads
D. allow_request_buffering

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 136


How are resources in RT CORBA categorized? (Choose two.)

A. object
B. memory
C. process
D. communication

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 137


Which two ways does a RT POA differ from a standard CORBA POA? (Choose two.)

A. does not support child POAs


B. supports specific RT policies
C. does not support implicit servant activation
D. provides operations to support object level priority

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 138


Under the Server Declared Priority Model, server priority can be over-ridden but will
raise a BAD_PARAM system exception when:

A. the servant code does not run at the native priority corresponding to the CORBA
priority provided
B. an invalid CORBA priority is applied or does not match the priority configuration of
the POA
C. the semantics for name extensions to PortableServer::POA are not observed
D. the POA does not support the IMPLICIT_ACTIVATION option for the
ImplicitActivationPolicy

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 139


RTCORBA::Current provides access to-------------------
A. the current Thread
B. the current ORB
C. the current CORBA Object
D. the CORBA priority of the current Thread

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 140


Which of the following can be controlled using RT CORBA? (Choose two)

A. threadpools
B. memory addresses
C. transport connections
D. number of CORBA objects

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 141


Which two of these are standard extensions provided by IIOP to support the mechanisms
prescribed in Real-time CORBA? (Choose TWO.)

A. Service Contexts
B. Bi-directional IIOP
C. LOCATION_FORWARD
D. IOR Tagged Components

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 142


An RT Root POA reference is retrieved via a call to _____.

A. ORB::resolve_initial_references("RootPOA")
B. ORB::resolve_initial_references("RootPOART")
C. ORB::resolve_initial_references("RootRTPOA")
D. ORB::resolve_initial_references("RTRootPOA")

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 143


When using Priority Banded Connections, which set of rules apply?

A. PriorityBand must contain a range of priority values


B. complete set of PriorityBands must form a contiguous range of priorities
C. no priority must be covered more than once by a given set of PriorityBands
D. entire range of CORBA Priority values must be covered by a given set of
PriorityBands
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 144


Which two of these correctly characterise "end to end" predictability in a fixed priority
CORBA system? (Choose TWO)

A. minimizing the latencies of operation invocations


B. respecting thread priorities between CORBA clients and servers
C. bounding the duration of memory access times
D. bounding the duration of thread priority inversions during end-to-end processing

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 145


How are exceptions managed in Real-time CORBA?

A. not specified
B. managed using specific RTCORBA Exceptions
C. managed entirely using CORBA Standard System Exceptions
D. managed using CORBA Standard System Exceptions with minor codes specialized for
Real-time CORBA

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 146


What is the function of the RT POA?

A. can support multiple RT ORBs


B. is an extension of the POA and supports a subset of POA semantics
C. provides operations for setting object level priorities and real-time policies
D. raises a BAD_RESOURCES exception if the priority configuration of its assigned
resources is invalid

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 147


When using a threadpool with lanes, and borrowing has been allowed, a lane which
exhausts its maximum number of threads can borrow what? (Choose TWO)

A. It can borrow a static thread of an upper priority lane


B. It can borrow a dynamic thread of an upper priority lane
C. It can borrow a static thread of a lower priority lane
D. It can borrow a dynamic thread of a lower priority lane

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 148


Which two of these can be configured using Server Side RT CORBA policies?
(Choose two.)

A. priority model
B. thread configuration through threadpools
C. definition of priority-banded sets of connection
D. creation of non-multiplexed connections to a server

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 149


CORBA/e compliance is defined as _____.

A. conformant to all profiles in the specification


B. Minimum CORBA and CORBA/e are considered equivalent
C. CORBA/e sets the maximum requirements for a compliant implementation
D. compliance to a profile means conformance with every prescription of the profile.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 150


Which statement is true about an object's interface?

A. It can support inheritance.


B. It provides a semantic description of the services.
C. The principal interface is the least-specific interface the object supports.
D. The principal interface consists of all operations in the associative closure of its
inheritance graph.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 151


An operation declaration must contain which two of these? (Choose two.)

A. A raises expression
B. An identifier to name the operation
C. An indication of the operation's return result data type
D. An operational attribute to specify the invocation semantics

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 152


A goal of the real-time portion of the CORBA/e specification-----------------

A. supports both fixed priority and dynamic scheduling


B. provides for capabilities to accomplish real-time debugging
C. addresses the general needs of both "hard" and "soft" real time requirements
D. relies on the RTOS to provide POSIX Real-time extensions to RT-CORBA
implementations.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 153


CORBA/e -----------------------

A. is the new name for Minimum CORBA


B. is designed for use on enterprise-tier servers
C. is the OMG's umbrella term representing a family of specifications
D. incorporated and replaced the OMG's RT CORBA 1.2 specification

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 154


The RT CORBA Priority Scheme --------------

A. uses a simple inheritance protocol to schedule MUTEX's


B. supports priority banded connections to reduce priority inversions
C. uses the local node priority for consistency in RT CORBA applications
D. defines Native Priority as the priority scheme 'native' to the system at large

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 155


Which statement is true about one of the Object Request Broker foundational concepts?

A. There is a data-centric perspective of the model.


B. Interaction occurs when a client makes a request.
C. Brokers provide service by passing on parameters to specific function calls.
D. A client is an identifiable, encapsulated entity that provides one or more services.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 156


What are two reasons to use Exception Declarations? (Choose two.)

A. to handle standard system exceptions only


B. to provide a structure to indicate that an error has occurred
C. to provide a mechanism to determine the nature of an error
D. as a simple flag to indicate that an error occurred during an operation

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 157


The NamingContext interface--------------------

A. binds a name to an object where names are case insensitive strings


B. resolves naming exceptions where matching does not have to be exact
C. creates a context for a name so that they can be grouped by binding types
D. supports building and iterating through a list of bindings contained in a naming
context

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 158


Which two sets of rules apply to an interface declaration? (Choose two.)

A. The interface header is comprised of four elements.


B. The interface body includes constant, type, and operation declarations.
C. Multiple forward declarations of an interface can be performed using aliases.
D. A derived interface can redefine inherited type, constant, and exception names.

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 159


In the Lightweight Naming Service, bindings are retrieved using what operation on the
NamingContext interface?

A. Object resolve (in Name n);


B. Object get_binding (in string s);
C. Object get_binding (in string id, in string kind);
D. Object find (in NameComponent n);

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 160


The Lightweight Event Service provides an interface for ---------------

A. event consumers to request (poll) events from event suppliers


B. an asynchronous, one-to-one, first-in, first-out (FIFO) event channel
C. storing events in an event channel, from which they are polled by listeners
D. suppliers to push events to an event channel, which in turn pushes events to consumers

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 161


In the Lightweight Time Service, a value of type "TimeT" indicates ___.

A. the number of seconds (tv_sec) and nanoseconds (tv_nsec) passed since the beginning
of the POSIX epoch
B. a relative time, with the "tv_sec" field containing the number of elapsed seconds, and
"tv_usec" containing elapsed microseconds
C. a 64-bit value of relative elapsed or absolute time, in units of 100 nanoseconds
D. the number of seconds passed since midnight, January 1, 1970, UTC

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 162


In the Lightweight Time Service, what is the resolution of clocks?

A. The clock resolution shall be 100 nanoseconds.


B. The clock resolution shall be 100 nanoseconds or less.
C. The clock resolution shall be at least 100 nanoseconds.
D. The clock resolution is implementation-defined.
E. The clock resolution shall be equal to the CPU clock cycle rate.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 163


In the Lightweight Naming Service, the "id" and "kind" attributes that make up a
NameComponent are ___.

A. arbitrary octet sequences


B. strings up to a maximum length of 255 characters
C. arbitrary-length strings in the service's local character set
D. strings of ISO Latin-1 characters, excluding the NUL character
E. arbitrary-length Unicode strings of type "Istring", excluding the NUL character

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 164


What time scales does the Lightweight Time Service support? (Choose two.)

A. Ephemeris time
B. Global Positioning System Time
C. Terrestrial Dynamical Time
D. International Atomic Time

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 165


Names in the Lightweight Naming Service are --------------

A. absolute if they start with a slash "/" name component, else they are relative
B. always absolute to the service's root naming context
C. always relative to a naming context
D. always local to a naming context; clients must iteratively traverse any hierarchy one
step at a time

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 166


In the Lightweight Event Service the interactions between consumers and the event
channel is one where consumers _____.

A. connect to an EventChannel via a ProxyPushSupplier


B. share a connection to an EventChannel through a common ProxyPushSupplier
C. receive event data from a supplier where the data is passed as a character string
D. use the ConsumerAdmin interface to access any subset of Event Service operations

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 167


The Lightweight Time Service Periodic interface----------------

A. assumes that a periodic object is always "ready to execute"


B. executes the do_work operation invoked by the Controller
C. initiates periodic execution when using an unsigned integer params set to 0
D. does not require that a periodic object be registered with a clock beforehand

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 168


In the Lightweight Event Service, a single event contains what type of data?

A. An event is of type string, to a maximum of 255 characters.


B. An event is limited to fixed-length data types.
C. An event is limited to CORBA's primitive data types.
D. An event can contain data of any IDL type.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 169


The RELIABILITY QoS concerns which one of the following entities?

A. DomainParticipant
B. Topic
C. Publisher
D. Subscriber

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 170
A Topic associates what three things?

A. A name unique to the domain


B. A data type
C. A key to identify the instances
D. The QoS related to the data itself

Answer: A, B, D

QUESTION NO: 171


Which of these classes extends the Entity class?

A. Listener
B. Topic
C. QosPolicy
D. DataInstance

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 172


Which class acts as the factory used to construct WaitSet objects?

A. Subscriber
B. DataReader
C. DomainParticipant
D. DomainParticipantFactory
E. There is no factory for WaitSet objects

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 173


Which two conditions allow the value offered for the PRESENTATION QoS to be
considered compatible with the value requested? (Choose two.)

A. requested ordered_access is FALSE and offered ordered_access is TRUE


B. requested ordered_access is TRUE and offered ordered_access is FALSE
C. requested coherent_access is FALSE and offered coherent_access is TRUE
D. requested coherent_access is TRUE and offered coherent_access is FALSE

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 174


Which one of these items is a valid value for the LIVELINESS QoS policy?

A. MANUAL_BY_PARTICIPANT
B. MANUAL_BY_PUBLISHER
C. MANUAL_BY_SUBSCRIBER
D. MANUAL_BY_LISTENER

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 175


Which class acts as the factory used to construct DataReader objects?

A. Publisher
B. Subscriber
C. DomainParticipant
D. DomainParticipantFactory

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 176


Which "attach" operation on a WaitSet is used to attach one or more objects to the
WaitSet?

A. Topic
B. Condition
C. Subscriber
D. DataReader
E. DomainParticipant

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 177


Which classes are DDS Entities? Select THREE.

A. Topic
B. Condition
C. DataWriter
D. PublisherListener
E. DomainParticipant

Answer: A, C, E

QUESTION NO: 178


Which TWO events can cause the creation of a Built-in Topic?

A. A DomainParticipant object is created


B. A Topic object is created
C. A Subscriber object is created
D. A Listener object is created
Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 179


What are the two transitions of a WaitSet?

A. becomes "Unblocked" when at least one attached condition has trigger_value ==


TRUE
B. becomes "Unblocked" when all attached conditions have trigger_value == TRUE
C. becomes "Blocked" when at least one attached condition has trigger_value ==
FALSE
D. becomes "Blocked" when all attached conditions have trigger_value == FALSE

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 180


Click on Exhibit. Given this configuration, select the statement that is true.

A. The QoS of DataWriter 1 is compatible with that of DataReader 1


B. The QoS of DataWriter 1 is compatible with that of DataReader 2
C. The QoS of DataWriter 2 is compatible with that of DataReader 1
D. The QoS of DataWriter 2 is compatible with that of DataReader 2

Answer: B

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