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E Pre-1998 1 of 14
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. The open-loop transfer function of the 5. The first element of each of the rows of a
control system shown in the figure is Routh-Hurwitz stability test showed the
sign as follows:
Rows I II III IV V VI VIII
Sings + – + + + - +
The number of roots of the system lying in
the right half of s plane is
a. 2
b. 3
10 c. 4
a.
s s 1 s 2 d. 5
b. 0.6 6. The performance specifications for unity
6 feed control system having an open-loop
c.
s s 1 s 2 transfer function
K
10 G s are
d. s s 1 s 2
s 3s 2 2s 6
3
2. If the single flow graph shown in the given 1. Velocity error coefficient
1
figure has M number of forward paths and KV 10sec
P number of individual loops, then 2. Stable closed-loop operation
The value of K, satisfying the above
specification is
a. K>6
b. 6<K<10
c. K>10
a. M = 6, P = 6 d. None of the above
b. M = 6, P = 4 7. The effect of phase-lead compensator on
c. M = 4,P = 6 gain cross-over frequency Weg and the
d. M = 4, P = 4 bandwidth Wb is that
3. The impulse response of a system is given
a. Both increase
1
by c(t) e t /2 Which one of the b. Both decrease
2 c. Weg increase while Wb decrease
following is it’s unit step response?
a. 1 e 1/2t d. Weg decreases while Wb increases
b. 1 e t 8. A liner 2nd order single input continuous
c. 2 e t time system is described by the following
ser of differential equations:
d. 1 e 2t
X 1 2 x1 4 x2
4. If the open-loop transfer function of a
feedback system is given by X 2 2 X1 X 2 u t
K
G s H s the Where X 1 and X 2 are state variables and
s s 2 s 2 2s 5 u(t) i9s the input. The system is
centroid of the as motes will be a. Controllable and stable
a. -1,0 b. Controllable but unstable
b. 1.0 c. Uncontrollable and unstable
c. 0,-1 d. Uncontrollable but stable
d. 0,1 9. For
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s6 1 Select the correct answer using the codes
s 2 6s 5 s 2 6s 5 given below:
s a. 1,2 and 3
5 s b. 1 and 2
s 2 6s 5 s 2 6s 5
c. 2 and 3
The coefficient matrix A is d. 1 and 3
6 5 14. When 30V dc is applied to the vertical
a.
6 0 deflecting plates of a cathode ray tube, the
bright spot moves 1cm away from the
5 5
b. centre. If 30V (rms) ac is applied, then the
0 6 movement of the spot will be nearly
6 0 a. 1 cm
c. b. 1.5 cm
5 6 c. 2 cm
0 1 d. 3 cm
d.
5 6 15. A spectrum analyzer can be described as
10. Which of the following quantities are- a. Voltage selective frequency meter
analogous in a force-current analogy? b. Correct selective frequency meter
1. Displacement and inductance c. Frequency selective voltmeter
2. Velocity and voltage d. A filter
3. Mass and capacitance dM
16. Let be the rate of change of mutual
Select the correct answer using the codes d
given below: inductance between the fixed and moving
a. 1,2 and 3 coils with respect to the angular deflection
b. 1 and 2 in an electrodynamics spring controlled
c. 2 and 3 ammeter. Which one of the following is
d. 1 and 3 the correct condition for obtaining a liner
11. If R and X are the resistance and indicative scale in the ammeter?
respectively D and L are the diameter and dM
a. is constant
length respectively of the rotor of a two- d
phase ac servomotor, then the ratio D/L 1 dM
and X/R will be respectively b. is constant
a. Large and large
d
dM
b. Large and small c. 2 is constant
c. Small and large d
d. Small and small 1 dM
d. is constant
12. In the case of an armature controlled de 2 d
motor, if the equivalent moment of inertia 17. A current
of the motor and load is made small and 1 2 sin 314t 30 2sin 1570t 20
the armature resistance is reduced, then the
motor tends to act like armature resistance amperes is measure with a thermocouple
is reduced, then the motor tends to act like typw ammeter. The meter will read
a. A differentiating circuit a. 2A
b. An integrating circuit b. 2A
c. A PID controller
d. A second order critically damped
c. 3 2 A
system d. 4A
13. To detect the error between a reference 18. A thermocouple produces a voltage of
shaft position and an output shaft position 50mV. Its internal resistance is 10 . The
which of the following error detectors can output is read by a PMMC meter having
be used? an internal resistance of 120 . Output
1. A pair of tachogenerators voltage indicated will be
2. A pair of potentiometer a. 50mV
3. A synchrony pair b. 40mV
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c. 33.3mV B. Coulomb
d. 25.0mV C. Farad
19. The three impedances of an ac bride List II
shown below re 1. Ampere-second per volt
Z1 200 60 2. Volt-second
Z 2 400 90 3. Ampere-second
4. Volt per second
Z 3 300 0 A B C
The value of Z4 for the balanced bridge is a. 1 2 3
b. 2 3 1
c. 2 3 4
d. 3 1 4
23. A special purpose diode which uses metals
like gold, silver or platinum on one side of
the junction, n-type doped selicon on
another side and has almost no charge
storage in the junction, is a
a. 150 150 a. Schottky diode
b. 150 30 b. Tunnel diode
c. 600 30 c. Varactor diode3
d. 600 150 d. Zener diode
24. Consider the following statements
20. Match List I (Type of instrument) with
1. BJT needs bias stabilization because its
List II (Suitability for measurement) and
I CO increase with increase in VBE and
select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists: temperature.
List I 2. Thermal runaway may be avoided by
A. Moving iron choosing VCE 1/ 2VCC
B. Electrodynamics 3. FET and BJT both need bias
C. Induction stabilization because both ate
D. Electrostatic semiconductor devices.
List II 4. By increasing RE bias stabilization
1. ac/dc voltage only improves.
2. ac/dc voltage/current/power only Of these statements
3. ac voltage/current/power a. 1 and 2 are correct
4. ac/dc voltage/current/power b. 3 and 4 are correct
5. de voltage/correct c. 2 and 3 are correct
A B C D d. 2 and 4 correct
a. 2 4 3 1 25. The overall voltage gain in a small single
b. 2 4 1 3 transistor CE amplifier is given by
c. 1 2 3 5
h fe R1
d. 1 2 5 3 a. AV
21. In a Wheatstone bride3, the known hie Rs
resistances are correct to within 0.1%. h fe R1
the accuracy to which an unknown b. AV
hie Rs
resistance can be measured is
a. 0.4% h fe Rt
c. AV
b. 0.3% hie Rs / RL
c. 0.2% h fe RL
d. 0.1% d. AV
22. Match List I (unit) with List II (Equivalent hie RL / Rs
unit) and select the correct answer using 26. A feedback amplifier has a closed-loop
the codes given below the lists: gain of -200. it should not vary more than
List I 50%, despite 25% variation in amplifier
A. Weber gain A without feedback. The value of A is
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a. 800 32. A 10MHz carrier of peak value 10V is
b. -800 amplitude modulated by a 10kHz single of
c. 1000 amplitude 6V. The amplitude of each side
d. -1000 band frequency is
27. Match List I (Device) with List II a. 3V
(Property) and select the correct answer b. 4V
using the codes given below the lists: c. 5V
List I d. 6V
A. Planar monolithi9c BJT 33. Consider the following statements:
B. Thick film Delta Modulation has some significant
C. Thiin film advantages over PCM as
D. Opt coupler 1. It provides greater channel capacity for
List II a given bit-rate
1. Low-cost resistors 2. It does not inherently require
2. Resistors suitable for high frequency synchronization.
use 3. It is more tolerant to system noises
3. Isolator Of these statements
4. High frequency transistors a. 1,2 and 3 are correct
A B C D b. 1 and 2 are correct
a. 2 3 1 4 c. 2 and 3 are correct
b. 4 1 2 3 d. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 4 1 3 2 34. Consider the following statements:
d. 2 3 4 1 Equipment is available to enable carrying
28. Assuming that only the X and Y logic more than one voice channel on
inputs are available and their complements 1. A pair of wires
X and Y are not available, what is the 2. A coaxial cable
minimum number of two-input NAND 3. A radio link
gates require to implement X Y ? 4. An optic fiber
29. In 8085 microprocessor , H,L register pair Of these statements:
is used for storing a. 1,2 and 3 are correct
a. Address of memory b. 2,3 and 4 are correct
b. Data c. 1 and 4 are correct
c. Address of next instruction d. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
d. Current instruction 35. consider the following statements
30. The RMS thermal noise voltages of three regarding noise in pulse communication
resistors individually are E1, E2 and E3. If systems:
these resistors are connected in series, the 1. Those forms of pulse modulation
total noise voltage is given by which transmit constant amplitude
a. E1 E2 E3 singles can be made to have good
single-to-noise ratio.
2
b. E1 E2 E3 2. For PWM and PPM, improved single-
to-noise requires higher bandwidth.
c. E
1
2
E22 E32 3. In PCM, quantizing noise goes up if
the number of standard levels is
E1E2 E3
1/3
d. increased.
31. For three links in tandem, each of the first Of these statements
tow has S/N ratio of 60dB while the third a. 1 and 2 are correct
has the same 40dB.The overall S/N ratio b. 1 and 3 are correct
(approx) is c. 2 and 3 are correct
a. 30dB d. 1,2 and 3 are correct
b. 40dB 36. Control of dats flow within networks to
c. 50dB ensure maximum efficiency and minimum
d. 60dB interference between users, is achieved
a. Through the isolation of usere
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b. Through magic-T networks d. Two B channels (64kbps) and one D
c. By address coding channel (64kbps)
d. By using system protocol 41. Which of the following circuits need to be
37. consider the following statements: checked to rectify a colour TV receiver
The advantages of KU band for satellite showing no colour, monochrome picture
communication are that and normal sound?
1. Heavy rainfall does not attenuate the 1. Colour killer
single 2. 3.58 sub-carrier oscillator
2. Frequencies are not shared with 3. Chrome amplifier
terrestrial microwave radio system. 4. Brightness control
3. It has wide footprint Select the correct answer using the codes
4. It has smaller antennas. given below:
Of these statements Codes:
a. 3 and 4 are correct a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4 are correct b. 1,2 and 3
c. 2 and 4 are correct c. 1,3 and 4
d. 1,3 and 4 are correct d. 2,3 and 4
38. Match List I (Data comm.. schemes) with 42. A disadvantage of CW Doppler radar is
List II (Applications) and select the correct that
answer using the codes given below the a. It does not given the target position
lists: b. It does not give the target velocity
List I c. It requires a taransponder at the target
A. Parallel synchronous d. It des not give the target range
B. Parallel asynchronous 43. In a decca chain of Decca navigation
C. Serial synchronous system, for a sub harmonic frequency ‘f’
D. Serial asynchronous what is the frequency of rhe master
List II station?
1. Commuter to computer a. 8f
2. Computer to printer b. 5f
3. Buses within computer c. 6f
4. Telephone central office d. 7f
intercommunication 44. In microwave communication, the
5. Short distance data communication antennas of one repeater must be
A B C D accurately aligned with the next repeater in
a. 1 2 3 5 the link, because
b. 5 3 2 4 a. There are at least four carries with 600-
c. 5 3 4 2 2700 channels per carrier
d. 1 2 5 3 b. A repeater must amplify the single
39. The autocorrelation function of a received
rectangular pulse of duration T is c. The antenna beam widths are less than
a. Another rectangular pulse of duration 20
T d. The antennas are small in size
b. Another rectangular pulse of duration 45. A dc shunt generator is running at rated
2T speed developing its rated voltage. Match
c. A triangular pulse of duration T List I (Condition of operation) with List II
d. A triangular pulse of duration 2T (Effect) and select the correct answer
40. The ISDN basic rate interface specified as using the codes given below the lists;
per CCITT standards is List I
a. One B channel (64kbps) and one D A. The direction of rotation, residual
channel (16kbps) magnetism and field connections are
b. Two B channels (64kbps) reversed
c. Two B channels (64kbps) and one D B. The direction of residual magnetism
channel (16 kbps) and field connections are reversed
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C. The direction of ration and connection List I
of the field winding are reversed 1. Shunt
D. The direction of rotation and residua; 2. Cumulative compound
magnetism are reversed 3. Series
List II 4. Differential compound
1. The generator will build up with same A B C D
polarity a. 4 2 1 3
2. The generator will build up with b. 4 1 2 3
reversed polarity c. 3 1 2 4
3. The generator will not build up d. 3 2 1 4
A B C D 49. When starting a differentially connected
a. 1 2 3 5 compound motor it is describable to short-
b. 5 3 2 4 circuit the series field winding to
c. 5 3 4 2 a. Avoid very high starting time
d. 1 2 5 3 b. Avoid excessive starting speed
46. In a dc machine, the armature mmf is c. Prevent the motor form starting in the
a. Rectangular and directed along the reverse direction
inter-polar axis d. Avoid heavy in-rush of current
b. Triangular and directed along the inter- 50. For a uniformly distributed winding of an
polar axis alternator with a phase spread of
c. Triangular and directed along the brush degrees, the distribution factor is
axis sin
d. Rectangular and directed along the a.
brush axis
47. A shunt motor is running at its rated speed 2sin / 2
b.
on rated load. If the field circuit fets
suddenly opened. sin / 2
c.
a. Torque developed by the motor will be
almost zero and the motor will stop sin / 2
without causing any damage to the d.
motor 2
b. The motor will draw very high 51. A single-phase alternator has a
armature correct but it will continue to synchronous reactance of 2 ohms and
drive the load at a reduced speed. negligible resistance. If supplies 10A to a
c. The motor would tend to race to a purely capacitive load at 200V, then the
high speed while driving the load generated emf will be
d. The motor would draw very high a. 240 volts
armature current and will stall with b. 220 volts
consequent damage to the armature c. 200 volts
48. The torque vs armature correct d. 180 volts
characteristics (A,B,C and D) of different 52. Suppose a synchronous generator
types of dc motor are shown in the given connected to an infinite bus is supplying
diagram. electrical power at unity PF to the bus. If
its field correct is now increased.
a. Both the active and reactive power
output of the generator will remain
unchanged
b. The active power supplied will remain
unchanged but the machine will also
supply lagging reactive power
c. The active power supplied will
increase and he machine will draw
Match the curves A,B,C and D with the dc leading reactive power
motors given in List I and select the codes
given below the list:
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d. The active power supplied will d. The current division between the main
decrease and the machine will supply and auxiliary windings to be
leading reactive power conductive for the development of
53. In the phasor-diagram of a round-rotor large starting torque
synchronous generator the voltage 57. If the load of a synchronous motor is
equation is Et Vt I a ra jX s , where increased while keeping the field
excitation constant, then
E t = excitation voltage, Vt terminal a. Power factor will increase and power
voltage; Ia= armature current at lagging angle will decrease
power factor ra=armature resistance; Xs = b. Power factor will decrease and power
synchronous reactance. While remaining angle will increase
synchronized to the bus-bars (infinite bus), c. Both power factor and power angle
if the power input from the prime mover is will increase
gradually decreased and finally stopped, it d. Both power factor and power angle
will result in will decrease
a. Reversal of Ia, and Et lagging Vt 58. a synchronous motor operates as a
b. Reversal of Ia, but Et leading Vt synchronous condenser when it is
c. The sign of Ia remaining unchanged, a. Operated at unity power factor
but Et leading Vt b. Under-excited
d. The sign of Ia remaining unchanged, c. Over-excited
but Et lagging Vt d. Connected in parallel with condensers
54. A3-phase induction motor has a full-load 59. An equipment has 0.8 per unit impedance
slip of 3 percent at normal voltage. Which on base on 66KV, 100MVA. Its per unit
one of the following will be the value or impedance on a base of 33KV, 100MVA
the slip of the motor if it de3velops the will be
same torque theoretically while operating a. 0.4
at 110 per cent of its normal voltage? b. 0.8
a. 2.48% c. 1.6
b. 0.248% d. 3.2
c. 0.483% 60. In a 3-phase power transformer, 5-timbed
d. 4.83% construction is adopted to
55. A-6-pole, 3-phase, 60Hz induction motor a. Suppress the 5th and 7th harmonics
runs at 1000 rpm developing maximum b. Suppress the 3rd and its multiple
torque. Rotor resistance per phase is1.2 harmonics
ohms. Neglecting stator impedance, then c. Suppress all the orders of harmonics
for developing maximum torque, the d. Increase the capacity of the
external resistance to be connected in transformer
series with each rotor phase will be 61. A transformer has a resistance of 2% and
a. 7.2 ohms reactance of 4%. Its regulations at 0.8
b. 6ohms power factor lagging a leading respectively
c. 1.44 ohms are
d. 1.2 ohms a. 4 percent and -0.8 percent
56. The capacitor-start single-phase induction b. -4 percent and 0.8 per cent
motor develop much larger starting torque c. -0.8 percent and 4 percent
in comparison with the “spilt-phase” d. 0.8 percent and -4 percent
motor, because the use of capacitors in the 62. Consider the following statements:
auxiliary Winding enables The use of Delta-connected tertiary
a. Provision of larger number of turns in windings in star-star connected power
the auxiliary winding transformers
b. A larger starting current to be drawn 1. Makes available supply for single-
from the supply phase loads.
c. The torque-slip characteristic in 2. Suppresses harmonic voltages.
general to get a shape to give a large 3. Allows flow of earth fault current for
starting torque operation of protective devices.
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4. Provides low-reactance paths for zero- 67. In the chopper circuit given below, E=220
sequences corrects. V, L=1mH, R = 0.25 , EL= 22V,T =
Of these statements: 2500 sec Ton 1000 sec. The value of
a. 1,2 and 3 are correct Ton for which the current becomes
b. 1,3 and 4 are correct discontinuous is
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
dv
63. If occurring across a thyristor exceeds
dt
its permissible value then the thyristor will
a. Remain in the forward blocking state
without and damage a. 332.5 sec
b. Turn of only to get damaged b. 33.25 sec
c. Turn on but whether it gets damaged or c. 665 sec
not will depend on the final follow up
currents d. 66.5 sec
d. Not turn of but get damaged 68. A single-phase voltage controller is
64. Which one of the following is necessary employed for controlling the power flow
for a triggering system for thyristors in a form 260 V, 50Hz source into a load
line commentator converter? consisting of R = 5 and L=12 . The
a. It must use separate power supply value of maximum rms load current and
b. It should provide a train of pulses the firing angle are respectively
c. It should be synchronized with the 260
a. A and 0°
mains supply providing a singe pulse 10.9
of suitable value b. 20 A and 0°
d. It should be synchronized with mains c. 20A and 90°
providing a train of pulses 260
65. The average load current of a dc chopper d. A and 90°
10.9
feeding a pure resistive load is I amps. If a 69. In sinusoidal PWM, there area m cycles of
variable inductance connected in the load the triangular carrier wave, in the half
circuit is progressively increased form zero cycle of reference sinusoidal single. If the
value, keeping the duty ratio unchanged, zero of the reference sinusoid coincides
then the average load current will with the zero of the triangular carrier
a. Increase starting from I wave, then the number of pulse of
b. Decrease with a starting Value of I generated in each half cycle is
c. Remain the same at I a. m/(m-1)
d. Increase to some highest value of b. (m+1)/(m-1)
current and then decrease again to I c. 1
66. Consider the following statements: d. (m-1)/m
The source inductance of an ac to dc line 70. The number of thyristors required for
commutated phase controlled converter single phase to single phase cycloconverter
dv of the mid-point type and for three phase
1. Limits compatibility of thyristors.
dt phase to three-phase 3- pulse type
2. Causes a voltage drop in the dc cycloconverter are respectively
terminal voltage. a. 4 and 6
3. Improves the line side power factor b. 4 and 4
4. Limits the range of firing angles. c. 4 and 18
5. Reduced the line side power factor. d. None of the above
Of these statements: 71. Match List I (Drive) with List II (Speed
a. 1,3 and 4 are correct control range) and select the correct
b. 1,2 and 4 are correct answer using the codes given below the
c. 2 and 5 are correct lists:
d. 2,4 and 5 are correct List I
9 of 14
a. Square wave inverter-fed induction resistive, the maximum value of the
motor sending end power P1max and the
b. PWM inverter-fed induction motor maximum receiving –end power P2 max will
c. Slip energy recovery scheme with occur at power angle ( ) in such a manner
cycloconverter in the rotot circuit that
d. Cycloconverterfed induction motor a. Both P1max and P2 max occur at <90°
List II b. Both 1 max and P2 max occur at >
1. 50% of synchronous speed to 90°
synchronous speed c. P1 max occur at >90° and P2 max <
2. 10% of base speed to beyond base 90°
speed (1:20) d. P1 max occur at < 90° and P2 max at
3. 0 to 1/3 base speed < 90°
4. 67% of synchronous speed to 133% of 77. Consider the following expression:
synchronous speed zero to 150% of V f1 x rt f 2 x rt
base speed (1:infinity)
Codes: Where f1 and f2 represent two traveling
A B C D waves on a transmission line. In this case
a. 2 5 4 3 a. Both waves travels in the positive
b. 2 5 3 4 direction of x
c. 3 2 4 1 b. Both waves travel in the negative
d. 3 2 1 4 direction of x
72. In which one of the following models of c. Wave f2 travels in the positive
transmission lines, is the full charging direction of x but wave f2 travels in the
current assumed to flow over half the negative direction of x
length of the line only? 78. For reducing tower foot in resistance, it is
a. Equivalent- better to employ
b. Short line a. Chemical and counterpoise
c. Nominal - b. Chemical and ground rods
c. Ground rots and counterpoise
d. Nominal -T
73. If the receiving-end voltage and current d. Chemical, gou8nd rods and
are numerically equal to the corresponding counterpoise
sending-end values, that is |Vs|=|VR+| and 79. A suspension type insulator has three units
|Is|=|IR|, then such a line is called with self-capacitance
C and ground capacitance of 0.2 C having
a. An infinite line
b. A natural line a string efficiency of
c. A tuned line a. 78%
d. A loss-less line b. 80%
74. The convergence characteristics of the c. 82%
Newton-Rophson method for solving a d. 84%
load flow problem is 80. A bulled conductor line compared to a
a. Quadratic single conductor line (With same
b. Liner conductor cross-sectional area and same
c. Geometric meant distance between conductors) has
d. Cubic Self GMD Mutual GMD Per phase
75. If |Vs|=|VR| = 66kV for three –phase inductance
transmission and reactance is 11 a. Lower Nearly same Higher
ohms/phase, then the maximum power b. Higher Lower Nearly same
transmission per phase would be c. Higher Nearly same Lower
a. 132MW d. Lower Higher Higher
b. 396MW 81. In a 14-bus power system network, three
c. 66MW are 5 voltage controlled buses. The size of
d. None of above the jacobiam matrix useful for power flow
76. For a two-machine system with losses, analysis will be
with the transfer impedance being a. 16 × 16
b. 23 × 23
10 of 14
c. 21 × 21
d. 8 × 8
82. A thyrite lighting arrester has
a. Inverse resistance characteristics
b. A gap
c. Efficient earthling
d. A combination of inverse resistance P1 P2
characteristics and gap a. 300MW 50MW
83. Differential protection of a generator b. 240MW 20MW
makes use of the principal that under c. 130MW 130MW
normal conditions, the current/currents d. 220MW 60MW
a. At the neutral end of a phase winding 88. Assertion (A): The system with transfer
is zero function
10 s 12
G s
b. In each of the phase winding is
identical s s 2 s 3
c. At both ends of the phase winding are
Reason (R): It has a zero on the right half
equal
of the s-plane.
d. At the two ends of the phase winding
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
are unequal the reactance relay is
correct explanation of A
essentially
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
84. The reactance realy is essentially
correct explanation
a. An over-voltage realy with current
c. A is true bur R is false
restraint
d. A is false but R is true
b. An over-current realy with
89. Assertion (A): The closed-loop system
directionally restraint
represented in the given figure is a type -1
c. A directional realy with voltage
system.
restraint
d. A directional realy with current
restraint
85. Severe over-voltages are produced during
arcing faults in a power system with the
neutral
a. Isolated Reason (R): Number of poles at the origin
b. Solidly Earthed possessed by the feedback path decides the
c. Earthed through a low resistance type of the closed-loop system
d. Earthed through an inductive coil a. Both A and R are true and R is the
86. In HVCD transmission system, rectifier correct explanation of A
firing angle is kept near b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
a. 0° correct explanation
b. 15° c. A is true bur R is false
c. 30° d. A is false but R is true
d. 90° 90. Assertion (A): Data acquisition systems
87. A two-bus system is shown in the given are widely used in a variety industrial and
figure. When 100 MW is transmitted from scientific areas.
plant 1 to the load, the transmission loss is Reason (R): Data acquisition systems
10MW. The incremental; fuel costs of the often use magnetic tape recorders.
dc1 a. Both A and R are true and R is the
two plants are 0.02 P1 16 and
dP1 correct explanation of A
dc 2 b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
0.04 P2 20 . correct explanation
dP2 c. A is true bur R is false
The optimum distribution of total load of d. A is false but R is true
260 MW between the two plants when 91. Assertion (A): In fivre optic
losses are included but not coordinated is communication, the 1,3 m , window is
11 of 14
preferred over the 0.85 m window for 95. Assertion (A): A BJT amplifier needs
long distance communication. very good bias stabilization circuit as
Reason (R): At 1.3 m not only the compared to that of an FET amplifier
attenuation of silica fiber is lower than that circuit.
at 0.85 m , the pulse broadening at the Reason (R): The input p-n junction of
FET amplifier is reverse biased and that of
long wavelength window is also minimum.
the BJT amplifiers forward biased.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
correct explanation
correct explanation
c. A is true bur R is false
c. A is true bur R is false
d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true
92. Assertion (A): For transmitting audio
96. Assertion (A): A monostable
frequency signals, antennas of several
multivibrator can be used as a counter.
hundred kilometers length would be
Reason (R): The pulse width of the
required.
monostable multivibrator is a function of
Reason (R): For efficient radiation of
its input dc voltage.
electromagnetic energy to occur from an
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
antenna, the wavelength of the radiated
correct explanation of A
signal must be comparable with the
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
physical dimensions of the antenna.
correct explanation
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. A is true bur R is false
correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
97. Assertion (A): For a periodic inpu8t
correct explanation
voltage whose amplitude is large enough
c. A is true bur R is false
to pass through the trip points, a Schmitt
d. A is false but R is true
trigger produces a rectangular wave-form
93. Assertion (A): In a high frequency
at the output.
transmission line, when a voltage is placed
Reason (R): A Schmitt trigger is a
across the line at the sending end, the
comparator with positive feedback and
voltage and current in the line change with
hence prevents noise triggering.
distance.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
Reason (R): A transmission line consists
correct explanation of A
of continuous conductors with a cross-
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
sectional configuration that is content
correct explanation
throughout their lengths.
c. A is true bur R is false
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A
98. Assertion (A): The multistage
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
intermediate frequency amplifier of
correct explanation
superheteroyne radio receiver is always
c. A is true bur R is false
staggered tuned.
d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R): A very sharp tuned high gain
94. Assertion (A): MOSFET RAMs are
amplifier is obtained maximizing the gain
usually slower than bipolar RAMs.
and increasing the fidelity of the receiver.
Reason (R): MOSFET RAMs in
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
comparison with bipolar RAMs can be
correct explanation of A
fabricated in much larger capacity in a
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
single IC and consume much less power.
correct explanation
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. A is true bur R is false
correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
99. Assertion (A): Three-phase transformers
correct explanation
of different vector groups should not be
c. A is true bur R is false
operated in parallel.
d. A is false but R is true
12 of 14
Reason (R): Transformers belonging to C. Signal flow graph
different vector groups will not have the D. Complex frequency
same phase sequence on the secondary List II
side. 1. Current source
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 2. linearity
correct explanation of A 3. s-plane
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a 4. mason’s gain formula
correct explanation 5. Voltage source
c. A is true bur R is false A B C D
d. A is false but R is true a. 2 1 4 5
100. Assertion (A): In a 3-phase induction b. 1 2 4 5
motor, the stator is to be wound for 4 poles c. 2 5 3 4
but by mistake, the rotor is wound for 2 d. 2 5 4 3
poles only. When the stator is fed from a 104. Thevenin’s equivalent resistance Rth for
50Hz, 3-phase supply with rotor winding the network shown in the given figure is
shorted, the motor does not start up. When known to be 2 . The value of R in ohms
however, the wound rotor is replaced by a is
squirrel-cage rotor, the machine operates
without any problem.
Reason (R): Rotor of an induction motor
should not have any poles.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a a. 1
correct explanation b. 2
c. A is true bur R is false c. 3
d. A is false but R is true d. 4
101. The current I1 through the 5 resistor in 105. The driving-point impedance of the
the network shown in the figure, is network shown in the figure is given by
a. 8.58 A 4 s 3 / 2
a.
b. 7.54 A s 5 / 4
c. 11.66 A
d. 14 A. b.
s 3 / 2
102. A lamp rated at 10watts, 50 volts is s 5 / 4
proposed to be used in 110 volts, system.
c.
s 5 / 4
The wattage and resistance of the resistor
to be connected in series with lamp should
s 3 / 2
be 1 s 3 / 2
d.
a. 15 watts, 350 ohms 4 s 3 / 2
b. 1o watts, 250 ohms 106. The correct value of the current I (t) at any
c. 12 watts, 300ohms instant when K is switched on at t = 0 in
d. 15 watts, 250 ohms the network in the given figure is
103. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below:
List I
A. Superaposition theorem
B. Thevenin theorem
13 of 14
+90° as frequency varies from zero to
infinity
c. The amplitude and phase plots will be
consent at all frequencies
d. The amplitude plot will be constant but
the phase plot will vary form +180° to
0° s the frequency varies from zero to
E E R / L t infinity
a. e
R R 110. In a series resonant circuit, which one of
E E the following will increase on increasing
b. e R / L t the inductance to four times its value and
R R
E E R / L t reducing the capacitance to one-fourth of
c. e its value?
R R
a. Resonant frequency
E E R / L t
d. e b. Current at resonant frequency
R R c. Impedance at resonant frequency
107. For the given tow-port network, Z21 will d. Selectivity of the circuit
be 111. A series RLC circuit draws current at
leading power factor at
a. The resonant frequency
b. Frequency less than the resonant
frequency
c. Frequencies more than the resonant
frequency
a. 2/5 d. Frequencies both less and more than
b. 3/5 the resonant frequency
c. 1/5 112. One of the two wattmeter has read zero in
d. 4/5 the two-wattmeter method of power
108. If the driving-point admittance function of measurement. This indicated that the load
Ks
a 1-port network is Y s , it can be phase angle is
s a. 0°
realized using b. 30°
a. Series combination R,L c. 60°
b. Parallel combination of R,L d. 90°
c. Series combination of R,C 113. In the circuit shown in the given figure,
d. Parallel combination of R,C three-phase supply is connected to a star-
connected load. If ammeters A1, A2, A3
109. The pole-zero plot of a network function read 12.5 A, what will be the reading of
H(s) is shown in the given figure. Which ammeter AN?
one of the following will be the correct
nature of its frequency response plots?
a. 37.5A
37.5
b. A
a. The amplitude plot will decay with 3
frequency but the phase plot will be c. 37.5 3A
constant at all frequencies d. Zero
b. The amplitude plot will be constant but 114. For the circuit shown in the given figure, if
the phase plot will vary from +180° to R = 10 , XL=0.1 and Xc=0.1 , then
the fur rent through R is
14 of 14
1
c. 0 cEm /
2
1
d. 0 c 2 Em /
2
a. 0 119. Match List I (Antemma) with List II
b. 10I (Application/Characteristics) and select the
c. I correct answer using the codes given
d. 0.11 below the lists:
115. Two coupled coils have L1 = 0.6 H, List I
L2=0.6H and coupling coefficient = 0.25. A. A quarter wave monopole over ground
coil 2 has 800 turns. If current I1 in coil is plane
6sin 100t amps, then the voltage across B. A vertical half-wave dipole
coil 2 is C. Folded dipole
a. 90cos 100t volts D. Hertzian dipole (length< 100)
b. 9cos 100t volts
List II
c. 0.9cos 100t volts
1. radiation resistance <<1
d. 0.09cos 100t volts
2. radio broadcast
116. If a charge of one coulomb is to be brought
3. omni directional pattern
to a distance of one meter from a charge of
4. TV reception
2 coulomb, then the work required is
Codes:
1
a. N m A B C D
2 0 a. 2 3 4 1
1 b. 2 3 1 4
b. N m
4 0 c. 3 4 1 2
d. 3 4 2 1
c. 2 0 N m
120. In respect of a rectangular wave-guide of
d. 4 0 N m dimension a × b, match List I (Mode) with
117. A small permanent magnet makes small List II (Cut-off wavelength) and select the
oscillations in a uniform magnetic field as correct answer using the codes given
shown in the given figure. The period of below the lists:
oscillations is T. if the strength of the List I
magnetic field is doubled, the period of A. TE0,1
oscillations will be B. TE1,0
C. TE2,0
D. TE1,1
List II
1. 2a
2. 2b
a. 2T 2ab
3.
b. T 2 a 2 b2
c. T / 2 4. a
d. T/2 5. b
118. A uniform plane electromagnetic wave A B C D
with electric component E = Em cos a. 2 1 3 4
t px propagates in vacuum along the b.
c.
2
4
1
5
4
3
3
1
positive x-direction. The mean pointing d. 4 5 1 3
vector is given by
1
a. 0 c 2 Em2 /
2
1
b. 0 c 2 Em2 /
2
C.S.E Pre-2000 1 of 15
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. The mean square value of the shot noise c. OOK
current d. PSK
a. Varies inversely as average current 7. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is
b. Is independent of average current increased by a factor of 4, the maximum
c. Varies as average current range will be increased by a factor of
d. Varies directly as average current a. 2
2. The characteristic impedance of an air b. 2
dielectric coaxial line is 77 . If the air is c. 4
replaced by a dielectric with r =2.28, the d. 8
8. Consider the following features regarding
characteristic impedance will be
satellite communication:
a. 33.8
1. Height of satellite.
b. 51
2. Downlink frequency
c. 116
3. Gain of transmitting antenna
d. 175
4. Gain of receiving antenna
3. In India, the maximum frequency
The free space transmission loss depends
deviation in commercial FM broadcasting
on
signals is about
a. 1 and 3
a. 5 kHz
b. 1 and 2
b. 15 kHz
c. 2 and 3
c. 75kHz
d. 3 and 4
d. 200kHz
4. The core diameter of a step index optical 9. The magnetic field intensity H in A/m, at
fibre rages form the point (0,0,2) due to a current sheet K =
a. 300 m to 500 m 8 ax A/m lying in the z = 0plane is
b. 300 m to 500mm a. 2a y
c. 300 nm to 40 nm
d. 2 m to 200 m b. 8a y
5. In a Mesh topology of communication c. 4a y
network. If there are N stations, the total
number of possible full duplex links is d. a y
a. N – 1 10. An infinitely long dielectric cylinder of
b. N (N – 1) relative permittivity, r is placed in air in a
N N 1 uniform electric field of magnitude E
c.
2 directed perpendicular to its axis. The
d.
N 1 stress within the cylinder is
2
2 a. E
6. 1 r
2
b. E
1 2 r
3
c. E
2 r
2 r
d. E
1 r
The type of modulation of the arrangement
11. If the E field in a plane electromagnetic
shown in the above figure is
wave traveling along the z-axis is given by
a. ASK
b. FSK
2 of 15
E a x a y f t z a x a y f t z c. 1
d. Zero
The H field associated with the wave is (z0 16. Match List I (Pole position) with List II
is the characteristic impedance) (Response) and select the correct answer
a. ax a y f t bz z0 ax a y f t bz z0 using the codes given below the lists:
List I
b. a x a y f t z / z0 a x a y f t z / z0
c. a y a x f t z / z0 a y a x f t z z0
d. a x a y f t z / z0 a y a x f t z / z0
List II
1. Darlington
2. Cascade
3. Parallel
4. Casocode The op-amp circuit shown in the above
A B C D figure is a
a. 4 3 1 2 a. Precision half-wave rectifier
b. 3 4 2 1 b. Precision full-wave rectifier
c. 3 4 1 2 c. Peak detector
d. 4 3 2 1 d. Level shifter
35. The op-amp shown in the above circuit has 39.
an imput impedance of 1M and an
open-loop gain of 105. The input
impedance seen by the source vs is
List II
P
1.
1 Q
Q
2.
1 PQ
Q
3.
1 PQ
PQ
4.
1 P2 55. Type of a system depends on the
A B C D a. Number of its poles
a. 2 3 4 1 b. Difference between the number of
b. 2 3 1 4 poles and zeros
c. 3 2 1 4 c. Number of its real poles only
d. 3 2 4 1 d. Number of poles its has at the origin
52. The unit step response of a second order 56.
Imear system with Zero initial states is
given by
The damping ratio and the undraped
natural frequency of oscillation of the
system are respectively
a. 0.6 and 10 rad/s
b. 0.6 and 12.5 rad/s The above figure shows root-loci of open
c. 0.8 and 10 rad/s loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a
d. 0.8 and 12.5 rad/s system. Consider the following inferences
53. drawn from this figure
1. It has no zero.
2. It is a stable system.
3. It is a second order system.
Which of these inferences are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
Consider the following statements d. 1 and 3
regarding the transfer function G(s) plotted 57. The Nyquist plot of a closed-loop system
in the above figure. is shown in the above figure. The plot
1. G(s) has corner frequencies at =0.1,1 Indicates that the
and 10.
100 s 1
2. G s
s s 10
3. The magnitude of 20 log10 | G j | at
=1000 is -20 dB.
8 of 15
c. 2 mH
d. Dependent on supply frequency
62. Two sinusoidal signals of frequency f and
3f are applied as x and y inputs
respectively to an oscilloscope. Which one
of the following patterns could be
observed on the screen?
58. Which one of the following statements
regarding the state transition matrix is
correct?
a. 0 0
1
b. 1 t
t
63. In measuring the distributed capacitance
c. t1 t2 t1 t2 Cd’ of a certain coil using Q-meter, initial
d. t2 t1 t1 t0 t2 t0 resonance at frequency 2 MHz is obtained
by tuning the capacitance set to 430 pE. If
59. The final value of function
resonance at 4 MHz is obtained by tuning
5
F s is equal to the capacitance set to 100 pE. then the
s s s 2
2
value of ‘Cd’ would be
a. Zero a. 10 pF
2 b. 20 pF
b. c. 100 pF
5
5 d. 200 pF
c. 64.
2
d. 5
60. Consider the following statements:
1. P-D controller is equivalent to a high
pass filter.
2. For better performance, integral action
is initiated before derivative action.
3. High proportional gain s an alternative
to derivative action.
4. A practical PID controller uses a high
gain amplifier in the forward path.
Which of these statements are Not correct?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4 Above figure shows the input attenuation of a
c. 2 and 3 millimeter. If the meter reads full-scale with 10 V
d. 1 and 4 at M with the range switch at position p’. then the
61. required voltage at M to obtain full-scale
deflection with the range switch at position r will
be
a. 10 V
b. 200 V
c. 100 V
d. Undeterminable because resistance of
the dc probe is not known.
65. Match List I (Measurements) with List II
If the bridge shown in the above figure is (Transduction principles) and select the
balanced, then the value of the inductance correct answer using the codes given
‘L’ will be below the List:
a. 100 mH List I
b. 20 mH A. rpm
9 of 15
B. Temperature 70. Consider the following statements in
C. Static pressure respect of Y Ba2Cu3O7-x superconductor
D. Current 1. It has poor formability.
List II 2. Its superconducting property is very
1. Variable resistance sensitive to humidity and temperature.
2. Hall effect 3. Its application requires a constant
3. Piezoelectric effect supply of liquid helium.
4. Variable reluctance Which of these are the difficulties in the
5. Variable capacitance exploitation of the given superconductor
A B C D for engineering use?
a. 4 1 5 2 a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1 4 5 2 b. 1 and 2
c. 2 1 3 5 c. 2 and 3
d. 4 1 2 5 d. 1 and 3
66. A resistance strain gauge with a gauge 71. In a ferromagnetic material, the magnetic
factor of 2 is fastened to a steel member field is increased gradually from zero. The
subjected to a stress of 10.5 × 104 kN/ m2. first process which sets in the material to
The modulus of elasticity of steel is give net magnetization is the
2.l× 108 kN/m2. The change of resistance a. Growth of favorably oriented domains
due to stress in the strain gauge is at the cost of other domains by
a. 0.1% reversible domain wall movement
b. 0.2% b. Growth of favorably oriented domains
c. 1% at the cost of other domains by
d. 10% irreversible domain wall movement
67. How many comparators are there in an c. Alignment of domain walls with the
ADC with 0–5 V input and 8 bit output grain boundaries
assuming a flash converter? d. Rotation of domains in the direction of
a. 5 the applied field
b. 8 72. If two semiconductor specimen have
c. 40 carrier concentration ‘n1’ and n2’ and their
d. 255 Hall coefficients are ‘R1 and ‘R2
68. Given that respectively, then
= Polaris ability R1 n1
1/2
d. Power factor is high and system is less 89. The average value of dc voltage of a
expensive single-phase semi converter under
85. If the fault current is 3000 A for a relay continuous conduction is
with a plug setting of 50% and CT ratio of 2V 2 cos
1000:1, the plug setting multiplier would a.
be
a. 1.5 2V 1 cos
b.
b. 3
c. 4.5 2V 1 cos
d. 6 c.
86. Match List I (Protective schemes) with 2
List II (Equipment) and select the correct 2V 1 cos
d.
answer using the codes given below the 2
lists: 90.
List I
A. Mho relays
B. Inverse time over current relays
C. Differential relays
List II
1. Generators
2. Transmission lines
3. Motors
A B C
a. 2 1 3 The sinusoidal distributed balanced three
b. 2 3 1 phase windings shown in the above figure
c. 3 2 1 are supplied with balanced three- phase
d. 1 3 2 currents,
12 of 15
5 south pole on the stator near the damper
iA I m sin t ), iB I m sin t bars labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4 as shown in the
6 6
above figure, the direction of induced
and
force on conductor 3 is
5
iC Im sin t a. F1
6 b. F2
c. F3
At the angular instant t , the value of
6 d. F4
angular position ‘ ’ of the rotating mmf 94. A 3-phase synchronous motor with
‘F’ with respect to phase A axis will be negligible losses is connected to the supply
at rated frequency and constant terminal
a. voltage ‘V. The induced emf of the motor
2
is designated as E. If the motor is now
b. gradually loaded to its rated power,
2 adjusting its excitation to obtain, say 0.8
leading power factor operation, then E-
c.
6 pharos would
a. Be less than V-pharos and also lead V-
d.
6 pharos
91. In a loaded dc generator. if the brushes are b. Be greater than V-pharos and also lead
given a shift from the interpolar axis in the V-pharos
direction of rotation, then the commutation c. Be less than V-pharos and also lag V-
will pharos
a. Improve with fall of terminal voltage. d. Be greater than V-pharos and also lag
b. Deteriorate with fall of terminal V-pharos
voltage 95. An alternator of 400 kW is driven by a
c. Improve with rise in terminal voltage prime mover of speed regulation 4% and
d. Deteriorate with rise in terminal another alternator of 200 kW is driven by a
voltage prime mover of speed regulation 3%. The
92. A dc shunt motor is required to drive a total load they can take, without
constant power load at rated speed while overloading either of the machines is
drawing rated armature current. Neglecting a. 600 kW
saturation and all machine losses, if both b. 500 kW
the terminal voltage and the field current c. 450 kW
of the machine are halved, then d. 400 kW
a. The speed becomes 2 pu (per unit) but 96. Consider the following statements
armature current remains at 1 pu Modem alternators are designed for large
b. the speed remains at 1 Pu but armature air-gap to have
current becomes 2 Pu 1. Large inherent regulation.
c. Both speed and armature current 2. Very stable parallel operation.
become 2 pu 3. Higher stability limit.
d. Both speed and armature current 4. Sinusoidal mmf distribution,
remain at 1 pu Which of these statements are correct?
93. a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
97. When a single-phase capacitor start
induction motor is running at a steady
speed delivering a fixed torque, then
a. Peak of forward rotor mmf is equal to
A synchronous motor having a the peak of backward rotor mmf
synchronous speed of 1500 rpm slows b. Peak of forward startor mmf is equal to
down to 1490 rpm due to sudden increase the peak of backward stator mmf
in load on the motor shaft. Assuming a
13 of 15
c. Net forward rotating flux is equal to For the system shown in the above figure,
the net backward rotating flux the phase relations of current ‘I’ with respect to
d. Forward flux produced by rotor current the voltage VAB is
is equal to backward flux produced by a. Zero
rotor current
b. 90° lead
98. A 3-phase delta connected squirrel cage
induction motor has a starting current of c. 90° log
I and a starting torque of T at rated d. 180°
voltage. If the starting current and starting 102. A-3phase Y/ transformer has per phase
torque while the motor is started through turn ration K and line voltage ratio ‘K1’. If
star-delta starter and auto-transformer the voltage of winding lags the voltage
(with 60% voltage) starter alternatively, of Y winding by a angle , then K, K1 and
are I.,, and Ty and Iauto and Tauto are related as
IY I auto Ty Tauto
respectively, then : : : is a. K1 K and 30
I I T T
K
equal to b. K1 and 30
1 1 3
a. : 0.6 : : 0.6
3 3 c. K1 3K and 30
1 1
b. : 0.6 : : 0.36 d. K1 3K and 30
3 3
1 1 103. Two transformers X and Y with identical
c. : 0.36 : : 0.6 ratings and dimensions have 0.8 mm and
3 3
1.2 mm thick laminations respectively. If
1 1
d. : 0.36 : : 0.36 Rm and Xm are the magnetizing branch
3 3 parameters in the equivalent circuit, then
99. If a 3-phase induction motor and a 1-phase a. Rm values in both are likely to be
induction motor of the same kW rating and equal, but X of Xm is likely to be
same winding voltage are compared, then higher than Xm of Y
a. Bth will be of same size and efficiency
b. The 3-phase induction motor will be b. Xm values in both are likely to be
bigger in size and less efficient equal, but Rm of X is likely to higher
c. The 3-phase induction motor will be than Rm of Y
smaller in size and more efficient c. Xm values in both are likely to be
d. The 3-phase induction motor will be equal, but Rm of X is likely to be lower
bigger in size and more efficient than Rm of Y
100. In the slip power recovery method of d. Rm values in both are likely to be
speed control of a 3-phase wound rotor equal, but Xm of X is likely to be lower
induction motor, to operate it in the sub than Xm of Y
synchronous region of speed, a voltage has 104. Consider the following statements in
to be injected across the rotor terminals respect of important features of IGBT:
a. In phase with the rotor induced emf
b. In phase opposition to the rotor 1. It has a high impedance gate as that of
induced emf a MOSFET.
c. Leading the rotor induced emf by 90° 2. It has a low ON State voltage as that of
d. Lagging the rotor induced emf by 90° a BIT.
101. 3. It can block negative voltages as in the
case of GTO.
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
14 of 15
d. 1, 2 and 3 c.
105. Opto couplers are used in transistor base d. ranges form 0° to 180°
drive circuit for 110. Assertion (A): In dc to do step down
a. Amplification of base drive signal chopper, freewheeling diode is mandatory
b. Isolation between control and power for RL loads.
circuits Reason (R): A part of energy fed to the
c. Fast switching of power transistor RL load is dissipated in the resistance.
d. Protection against over current a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
106. A single-phase circulating current dual
converter is supplying a load, If the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
triggering angle of one converter is 30°, the correct explanation of A
then the other converter operates at a c. A is true but R is false
triggering angle of d. A is false but R is true
a. 30° 111. Assertion (A): In the slip test for
b. 60° determining the daxis and q axis
c. 90° synchronous reactance’s ‘Xd’ and ‘Xq’
respectively of a salient pole machine, the
d. 150°
stator has to be fed with suitable reduced
107. The purpose of free-wheeling in a thyristor voltage at the rated frequency and the rotor
controlled ac to dc converter is to (with the field circuit open) has to be
a. Reduce the current of its associated rotated at a speed slightly different from
thyristor to zero so that commutation the synchronous speed, and the fluctuating
can take place terminating voltage and armature current
b. Share the load current of its associated are to be recorded for computing ‘Xd’ and
thyristor Xq
c. Conduct the load current when its Reason (R): During the slip test, a slip
associated thyristor is turned off frequency voltage is indicated across the
open field circuit terminals that could be
d. Maintain voltage across load at
measured by connecting a voltmeter across
constant value
these terminals.
108. Consider the following statements
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
Phase-controlled converters correct explanation of A
1. Do not provide smooth variation of b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
output voltage. the correct explanation of A
2. Inject harmonics into the power c. A is true but R is false
system.
d. A is false but R is true
3. Draw non-unity power factor (pf)
112. Assertion (A): Phase comparison pilot
current for finite triggering angle.
relaying for the protection of a
Which of these statements are correct? transmission line is a blocking point.
a. 1, 2 and 3 Reason (R): The pilot signal is not
b. 1 and 2 required form the other end to permit
c. 2 and 2 tripping.
d. 1 and 3 a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
109. A single-phase thyristorised voltage
controller with triggering angle ‘ ’ is b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
supplying an RL load of pf angle ‘ ’. The the correct explanation of A
output voltage can be controlled if c. A is true but R is false
a. d. A is false but R is true
b.
15 of 15
113. Assertion (A): Thyristorised current Reason (R): Using two instructions
source inverters do not operate at high instead of one provides flexibility in
switching frequency. implementing a pipeline.
Reason (R): Thyrised current source a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
inverter is capable of four-quadrant correct explanation of A
operation. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT d. A is false but R is true
the correct explanation of A
118. Assertion (A): Surface charge density is
c. A is true but R is false considered a physical possibility for either
d. A is false but R is true dielectrics or perfect conductors.
114. Assertion (A): A piezoelectric crystal is Reason (R): Surface current density is
used for measurement of varying force assumed only in conjunction with perfect
only. conductors.
Reason (R): The equivalent circuit of a a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
piezoelectric transducer has a shunt correct explanation of A
capacitor at its output. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT d. A is false but R is true
the correct explanation of A
119. Assertion (A): For continuous
c. A is true but R is false communication purposes, satellites are
d. A is false but R is true normally placed in geostationary orbit.
115. Assertion (A): Lag compensation permits Reason (R): In satellite communication,
a high gain at low frequencies. uplink and downlink frequencies are
Reason (R): Lag compensation is different.
basically a low pass filter. a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true 120. Consider an SSB signal where the
116. Assertion (A):Stability is major problem modulating signal is a speech signal.
in closed loop control systems. Assertion (A): Its envelope detection will
Reason (R): Introduction of feedback not recover the modulating signal.
affects the location of poles of open-loop Reason (R): The envelope of an SSB is
system. constant.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
117. Assertion (A): The auto increment at auto
decrement modes are seldom found in
modern processors.
C.S.E Pre-2001 1 of 14
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. The value of electric field at a distance of d. a0
1 m from an infinite line charge of density
4. A cubical cavity resonator measures 3 cm
1 C/m is
on each side. The lowest resonant
1 frequency is nearly
a.
2 0 a. 6 GHz
b. 2 0 b. 7 GHz
c. 0 / 2 c. 8 GHz
d. 9 GHz
d. 0 / r
5. Electrons in a completely filled band
2. In the given figure, if the magnetic flux a. Take part in the process of conduction
through the rectangular loop ‘pqrsp’, due b. Take part in the process of conduction
to the infinite line current I is ,, the flux at low temperature only
linked with double rectangular loop c. Do not take part in the process of
pqtuvwrsp’ will be conduction
d. Take part in the process of conduction
at high temperatures only
6. The cooking of the food in a microwave
oven is based on the principle of
a. Magnetic hysteretic loss
b. Dielectric loss
c. Both magnetic hysteretic loss and
dielectric loss
d. Evaporation of water
a. 3 7. Manganese ferrite is a 1 : 1 mixture of
b. 2 a. MnO and CdO
c. b. MnO and Fe2O3
c. MnCl2 and Fe2O3
d. Zero
d. MnCl2 and CdO
3. An electric dipole (— Q, Q) revolved with
8. Match List I with List II and select correct
a uniform angular velocity ‘ in a circle
answer:
about its centre ‘O’. When the dipole is in
the position shown in the given figure. the List I
direction of the displacement current A. Diffusion
density at ‘O’ is B. Drift
C. Free electrons
D. Holes
List II
1. Conduction band
2. Valence band
3. Fick’s law
4. Electric field
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
a. ar b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 4 1 2
b. ar
d. 4 3 1 2
c. a0
2 of 14
9. An IC structure is shown in the given
figure. The device that can be realized
between terminals labeled (1) and (2) is a
a. Rc / RE
b. RE / Rc
Rc hie
a. Resistor c.
b. Capacitor R1 R2 / R1 R2
c. Bipolar transistor d. Always <1
d. MOS transistor 15. In the CE configuration of a transistor
10. The contact between aluminum (Al) and amplifier, there is
moderately doped silicon (Si) will be a. No phase change between input and
a. Al – pSi Ohmic and Al — nSi output voltages
Schottky b. 180° phase change between input and
b. Al — pSi Ohmic and Al — nSi Ohmic output currents
c. Al — pSi Schottky and Al — nSi c. No phase change between input and
Ohmic output currents and no phase change
d. Al pSi Schottky and Al — nSi between input and output voltages
Schottky d. No phase change between input and
11. The peak input-voltage to a full-wave output currents and 180° phase change
bridge rectifier is 1000 V at 50 Hz. The dc between input and output voltages
output voltage and ripple respectively are 16. The load current IL in the given circuit is
a. 318 V and 50 Hz
b. 318 V and 100 Hz
c. 636 V and 50 Hz
d. 636 V and 100 Hz
12. For a JEET, gm = 1mA/V and
Cgs+Cgd+Cgss = 5pF. The symbols have
their usual meaning. The ft of the JFET is
nearly equal to
a. 1 MHz
b. 5 MHz a. 10 mA
c. 30 MHz 40
d. 190MHz b. mA
3
13. A zener diode has a zener resistance of
5 . If the current through the Zener diode c. 15 mA
changes form 10mA to 20mA, the change d. 20 mA
of voltage across the zener diode will be 17. An emitter coupled differential amplifier
a. 0.05 V behaves as an excellent double - ended
b. 0.075 V clipper if the magnitude of the input
differential voltage exceeds
c. 0.1 V
a. 8VT
d. 0.5 V
b. 4VT
14. The CE amplifier is shown in the given
figure. The voltage gain of the amplifier is c. 2 VT
d. VT
18. The technique of polarization diversity is
used
3 of 14
a. In satellite communication 23. For the Hamming block code, if ‘n’ be
b. In troposcatter communication total word length of the block and ‘k’ be
c. To combat fading in microwave the number of information bits, then an
communication allowable code of this (n, k) family of
d. To increase repeater spacing in Hamming code is
microwave link a. (7, 5)
19. Smiths charts are used to obtain the b. (15. 11)
impedance relations along a c. (31, 25)
a. Lossless transmission line for different d. (129, 120)
load conditions 24. consider the following statements:
b. Lossy transmission line for different In comparison to PCM, a DM system
load conditions suffers from the disadvantages of
c. Lossy transmission line terminated at a 1. Slope overload distortion.
load equal to line characteristic 2. Larger bandwidth
impedance 3. more complex circuitry
d. Lossless transmi3sion line terminated 4. Inferior performance
at a load equal to line characteristic Which of these statements is/are correct?
impedance a. 1 alone
20. A frequency-modulated voltage wave is b. 1 and 2
given as V = 10 sin 2 5sin 400 t . The c. 2 and 3
carrier frequency and maximum deviation d. 4 alone
of the signal are respectively 25. If the distance ‘d’ between the radar nad
a. 10 MHz and 10 kHz the target is reduced to ‘d/2’ then the
b. 100 MHz and 1 kHz reviewed the received power becomes ‘N’
c. 10 MHz and 1 kHz times the power received earlier. The value
d. 100 MHz and 10 kHz of ‘N’ is
21. A DSB — SC signal is being detected a. 2
synchronously. The phase error in the b. 8
locally generated carrier will c. 4
a. Cause phase delay d. 16
b. Cause phase distortion only 26. In a TV receiver, if the picture is rolling,
c. Have the effect of reducing the output this may be due to
and causing phase distortion also a. Problem in vertical synchronization
d. Reduce the detected output only b. Problem in horizontal Synchronization
22. Match list I (RM I 051 layer) with list II c. No vertical deflection
(Function) and select the correct answer: d. No horizontal deflection
List I 27. The circuit with inputs A and B shown in
A. Network layer the given figure performs the
B. Transport layer
C. Data link layer
D. Presentation layer
List II
1. Control of packets
2. Data compression
3. Breaks input bit into frames
4. Breaks data into smaller units
A B C D a. AND operation
a. 1 4 3 2 b. Or operation
b. 4 1 3 2 c. NAND operation
c. 1 4 2 3 d. NOR operation
d. 4 1 2 3
4 of 14
28. For the product-of-sums expression c. 2 and 4
L X Y X Z the equivalent sum
34.
d. 1 and 3
Which one of the following difference
of-products expression will be equations will satisfy the JK flip-flop truth
a. XY X Z table?
b. X Y XY a. Qn 1 J n Qn K n Qn
c. XY X Z
b. Qn 1 J n Qn K n Qn
d. X Y X Z
29. If the input to a 5 bit ladder type DAC is c. Qn 1 J nQn K nQn
11101 (where ‘0’ and ‘1’ represents 0 V d. Qn 1 J n Qn K n Qn
and 10 V respectively), the output voltage 35. An overflow occurs in integer binary
will be approximately arithmetic when
a. 1 V a. A carry comes form the most
b. +9 V significant bit
c. -9 V b. The sign of the first operand is
d. +10 V different form the sign of the result
30. Static RAM is preferred over dynamic c. Exclusive NOR of carry from the most
RAM when the requirement is of significant but and carry form the next
a. Slow speed of operation most significant but is ‘1’
b. Larger storage capacity 36. The advantages of immediate addressing is
c. Lower access time a. To decode the operand easily
d. Lower power consumption b. To execute the instruction immediately
31. Four memory chips of 16 × 4 size have c. Not to fetch operand from memory
their address buses connected together. d. To allow both positive and negative
The resulting memory system will be of operands
size 37. To construct a 210 input multiplexer, the
a. 64×4 requited number of 2 input multiplexers is
b. 16×16 a. 31
c. 32×8 b. 63
d. 256×1 c. 127
32. In which one of the following modes of d. 1023
operation, shift register ceases to work as a 38. The 4 bit ripple counter which is
shift register? composed of flip-flops with a propagation
a. SISO delay of 20 ns, would have the maximum
b. SIPO counting speed of
c. P150 a. 1MHz
d. PIPO b. 4MHz
33. Consider the following expression: c. 10 MHz
1. Y f A, B, C , D 1, 2, 4, 7,8,11,13,14 d. 100 MHz
39. The cache memory has a high-speed of
2. Y f A, B, C , D 3,5,10,11,12,13,14 4Onsandahit ratio of 80%. The regular
memory has an access time of 100 ns. The
average effective time for CPU to access
3. Y f A, B, C , D 0,3,5, 6,9,10,12,15 memory is equal to
a. 52ns
4. Y f A, B, C , D 0,1, 2, 4, 6,8,9,15 b. 6Ons
c. 70 ns
Which of these expression are
d. 80 ns
equivalent to the expression,
Y A B C D ? 40. Match List I (Power Electronic Devices)
with List II (Symbols) and select the
a. 2 and 3
correct answer:
b. 1 and 4
5 of 14
List I
A. GTO thyristor
B. Triac
C. IGBT
D. BJT
List II
a. 5 cos 10t
b. 5 cos 100t
c. 5 cos 1000t
d. 5 cos 10000t
a. 5 A 91. For the circuit shown in the given figure,
steady state is reached with switch ‘S
b. 20A
open. At t = 0, when switch S is closed,
c. 25A
then the values of v (in V) and dv/dt (in
d. 30A V/s) respectively at t = 0+ will be
87. In the given circuit, if the inductor is
initially relaxed, then the current in the
circuit will be
a. 1 and 0
b. 2 and 1
a. Zero c. 2 and 0
b. L / R t d. 1 and 1
1 Rt 92. Input impedance of a CR0 measured at 10
c. e kHz is Z1 and at 10 MHz is Z2. Which one
L L
of the following relations is correct?
1 Rt
d. 1 e a. | Z1 || Z 2 |
L L
b. | Z1 || Z 2 |
88. In a two-port network, the output short-
circuit current was measured while the c. | Z1 | | Z 2 |
source voltage at the input was 1 V; the d. | Z1 | 1000 | Z 2 |
value of the output current would provide
93. The quality factor of a series circuit
the parameter
consisting of 20 resistance, 0.05 H
a. B inductance and 1 F capacitance is
b. y12
12 of 14
a. 20.15 c. X 1 x 0
b. 11.2
d. X 1 x n
c. 8.7
d. 4.5 98. The function x(t) is shown in the given
94. The voltage v0 for the circuit shown in the figure. If X j is the fourier transform
given figure will be of the x(t), then | X j | at = 0 will be
M
a. Vs 1 a. 0.5
L1 b. 1.5
M c. 2
b. Vs 1 d. 3
L1
99. The function 2n is equal to
M
c. Vs 1 a. n
L1
M b. 1/ 2 n
d. Vs 1
L2 c. 2 n
95. The dc component of the function it sin t is d. 2 n / 2
a. 0 100. A band pass signal having the frequency
b. 1 contents in the range of 1 MHz to 2 MHz
c. 2 is to be sampled. The original signal can
d. 2 / be reconstructed, if the minimum sampling
96. Consider the following statements: rate is
If the differential equation for the circuit a. 106 samples/s
shown in the given figure is v(t) = – 4 v(t) b. 2 ×106 samples/s
+ 4. Then the set of values of E, R and C c. 4 × 106 samples/s
are, respectively d. 6 × 106 samples/s
101. For the feedback system shown in the
given figure, the forward path does not
affect the system output when KG is
G1 s G2 s a. 500
a. b. 100
1 G1 s G2 s H s
c. 20
G1 s G2 s d. 4
b.
1 G1 s G2 s H s 110. The transfer function for a system is
G2 s K s 2
c.
1 G1 s G2 s H s G s ,K 0
s 1 s 3 s 4
G2 s Two branches (loci) of the plot directed
d.
1 G1 s G2 s H s along asymptotes are centered at a point
105. The response of a system to a unit ramp a. –3
input is ½ t-1/8 u(t)+1/8e-4t. Which one of b. –4
the following is the unit impulse response
of the system? c. –2
a. 1 e 4t d. –1
b. 2 1 e4t 111. The number of roots in the left-half of s-
plane for the equation s3 — 4s2 + s + 6 = 0,
c. e4t would be
d. 2e 4t a. 1
106. If a second order system has poles at —1 ± b. 2
j, then step response of the system will
exhibit a peak value at c. 3
a. 4.5 s d. 4
b. 3.5 s 112. Consider the following features:
14 of 14
1. Squirrel-cage or drag-up type rotor. multimeter is used to measure dc voltage
2. Nearly linear torque -speed in a circuit. The true voltage compared to
characteristics. the measured value is
3. High X / R ratio. a. 10% higher
Which of these features are possessed by a b. 20% higher
two-phase ac servomotor? c. 20% lower
a. 1,2 and 3 d. Same
b. 1 and 2 117. Which one of the following causes the disc
c. 2 and 3 in an induction type of energy meter to
rotate in the opposite direction?
d. 1 and 3
a. The breaking magnet is faulty
113. The current ‘I’ flowing through a
resistance of value 100 0.2% is b. Both current coil and voltage coil are
4 A 0.5% wrongly connected
The uncertainty in measurement of power c. Either current coil or voltage coil is
is wrongly connected
a. 1600 W ± 0.01% d. The load is highly reactive
b. 1600 W ± 0.02% 118. In a semiconductor strain gauge, the
change in resistance on application of
c. 1600 W ± 0.05% strain is mainly due to the change in its
d. 1600 W ± 1.2% a. Length
114. The impedances of a basic ac bridge arms b. Diameter
are
c. Resistively
Z AB 250
d. Length and diameter
ABC 10060
119. In a digital voltmeter, the oscillator
Z CD 40030 frequency is 400 kHz and the ramp voltage
Z DA Unknown falls from 8 V to 0 V in 20 ms. The
number of pulses counted by the counter
If 1000 radian/s, the components of would be
the unknown arm has the resistance a. 4000
500 3 in
b. 8000
a. Series with a capacitor of 2. F c. 16000
b. Parallel with a capacitor of 2 F d. 32000
c. Series with an inductor of 2 H 120. The following units are used in a data-
d. Parallel with an inductor of 2 . H acquisition system
1. Central Processing Unit
115. In a low power-factor wattmeter.
compensating coil is employed in order to 2. Memory
a. Neutralize the capacitance effect of 3. Transducer
pressure coil 4. ADC
b. Compensate for the inductance of The sequence of placement of these units
pressure coil from input to output is
c. Compensate for the error caused by a. 4, 3, 1, 2
power loss in the pressure coil b. 3, 4, 1, 2
d. Reduce the error caused by the eddy - c. 3, 4, 2, 1
currents
d. 4, 3, 2, 1
116. The battery voltage of an analog multimetr
drops by 20% of its original value. The
C.S.E Pre-2002 1 of 13
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. Match List I (Powers system components) 3. Saves the reactive power
with List II (Relaying schemes) and select 4. Is responsible for voltage regulation on
the correct answer: the d.c. side of the converter
List I Which of these statements are correct?
A. Power Transformer a. 1, 2 and 3
B. Transmission Lines b. 2, 3 and 4
C. Alternator c. 1, 3 and 4
List II d. 1, 2 and 4
1. Differential relaying 5. The converter transformer interposed
2. Distance relaying between the a.c. source and midpoint (star
A B C point) converters have special construction
a. 1 1 2 a. Because the load currents are non-
b. 2 1 1 sinusoidal
c. 1 2 1 b. In order to improve the converter
d. 2 1 2 performance
2. Match List I (Feature) with List II c. In order to strengthen them
(Device) and select the correct answer: d. In order to avoid d.c. magnetization of
List I the core
A. Low on-state resistance 6. A single phase a.c. voltage controller feeds
B. High input impedance a pure resistive load. At a firing angle a,
C. Improved di /dt behavior thyristor conducts for an angle . If the
D. Good turn-off gain load is replaced by a pure inductance
List II keeping the firing angle constant, the
1. Thyristor conduction angle of the thyristor would be
2. BJT a. 2
3. MOSFET b.
4. Triac c. /2
5. Amplifying gate thyristor d. /3
A B C D 7. The feedback diodes in a d.c. to a.c.
a. 5 3 4 1 thyristor inverter
b. 2 1 5 3 a. Freewheel the load current
c. 5 1 4 3 b. Provide reverse bias effectively to the
d. 2 3 5 1 thyristors for turnoff
3. A d.c. chopper is operating at a frequency c. Improve the switching properties of the
of 2 kHz from a 96 V d.c. source to supply inverter
a load resistance of 8 . The load time d. Improve the harmonic distortion of the
constant is 6 ms. If the average load inverter output current
voltage is 57.6 V, on time Ton of the 8. Match List I (Fabrication process step)
chopper is with list II (Associated problem) and select
a. 30ms the correct answer:
b. 3ms List I
c. 0.3 ms A. CMOS fabrication
d. 0.3 s B. IOM implantation
4. Consider the following statements: C. LOCOS
Overlapping communication in a phase D. Electron beam lithography
controlled a.c. to d.c. converter List II
1. Increase the reverse bias duration of a 1. Bird’s beak
thyristor 2. Channeling
2. Reduces the displacement factor 3. Latch-up
2 of 13
4. Proximity effect 13. Assertion (A): When one tries to control
A B C D the majority carrier concentration in an
a. 3 4 1 2 extrinsic semiconductor, its minority
b. 1 2 3 4 carrier concentration automatically gets
c. 3 2 1 4 changed.
d. 1 4 3 2 Reason (R): Einstein relation holds good
9. The purpose of providing n + buried layer in case of doped semiconductor.
in a bipolar junction transistor fabrication a. Both A and R are true and R is the
process is to correct explanation of A
1. Reduce collector resistance b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
2. Reduce base resistance the correct explanation of A
3. Provide isolation between adjacent c. A is true but R is false
transistors d. A is false but R is true
Which of these statements is/are correct? 14. Assertion (A): Negative feedback in
a. 1, 2 and 3 amplifiers improves performance.
b. 1 and 2 Reason (R): Gain of the amplifier is
c. 1 only reduced by use of negative feedback.
d. 3 only a. Both A and R are true and R is the
10. Assertion (A): Two wires of same length correct explanation of A
with different cross-sectional areas are b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
connected in series. The heat produced by the correct explanation of A
the current is more in the thicker wire. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): The thicker wire has low d. A is false but R is true
resistance. 15. Assertion (A) : ECL is a very high speed
a. Both A and R are true and R is the logic gate.
correct explanation of A Reason (R): Bipolar transistors are used to
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT realize ECL gates.
the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
11. Assertion (A): The continuous time the correct explanation of A
differentiator is an unstable system in the c. A is true but R is false
bounded-input. bounded-output (BIBO) d. A is false but R is true
sense. 16. Assertion (A): Any I3oolean function can
Reason (R): The bounded input x(t) sin t2 be realized by using a suitable multiplexer.
would result in an unbounded output. Reason (R): A multiplexer can be realized
a. Both A and R are true and R is the using NAND and NOR gates, which are
correct explanation of A universal gates.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. A is false but R is true the correct explanation of A
12. Assertion (A): Introducing negative c. A is true but R is false
feedback in an amplifier results in a d. A is false but R is true
reduced bandwidth. 17. Assertion (A): Indexed addressing mode
Reason (R): The gain bandwidth product is never used in a computer.
of an amplifier is a constant. Reason (R): The address of the operand is
a. Both A and R are true and R is the obtained by adding the base address and
correct explanation of A the index in the indexed addressing mode.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. A is false but R is true the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
3 of 13
d. A is false but R is true and a 2 resistor at time = 0. The initial
18. Assertion (A): Fiquently used subroutines current in the inductor is zero.
are called by the RST instruction. Match List I (Parameter) with List II
Reason (R): RST instruction is a single (Value) and select the correct answer:
byte instruction whereas the regular CALL List I
instruction is a 3 byte instruction. A. The initial current through the circuit
a. Both A and R are true and R is the B. The steady-state value of current
correct explanation of A through the circuit
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT C. The value of the current through the
the correct explanation of A circuit at time = 1/2 s
c. A is true but R is false D. The initial slope of the current
d. A is false but R is true List II
19. Assertion (A): Laboratory Cathode Ray 1. 1/2A
Oscilloscopes employ electrostatic 2. 2A
deflection system. 3. zero
Reason (R): Electrostatic deflection 4. 1 e 1
systems are most suitable for small
screens. 5. 1/ 2 1 e1
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 6. 0A/s
correct explanation of A A B C D
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. 3 2 5 6
the correct explanation of A b. 4 1 7 5
c. A is true but R is false c. 3 1 5 6
d. A is false but R is true d. 4 2 7 5
20. 23. Consider the following statements with
reference to RC impedance function
1. All poles and zeros of the function are
located on the positive real axis
2. Poles and zeros are interlaced
3. The lowest critical frequency is a zero
4. The lowest critical frequency is a pole
Referring to the circuit shown above the The properties of RC impedance function
current in 18 resistors is are
a. 2A a. 1 and 2
b. 1.5A b. 2 and 3
c. 1A c. 2 and 4
d. 0.5 A d. 1 and 4
21. 24.
a. 16
3. 1/s b. 8
1 c. 2
4.
s 1 d. 4
U(t) denotes the unit step function. 35. Loop gain vs. phase plot is known as
5 of 13
a. Nyquist plot 1. It is directly proportional to the
b. Bode plot product of the magnitudes of the
c. Nichol’s chart currents
d. Inverse Nyquist plot 2. It satisfies Newton’s third law
36. A closed -loop system is stable when all its 3. It is attracting if the currents are in the
poles in the s - plane lie same direction
a. On the positive real axis Which of these statements are correct?
b. On the imaginary axis a. 1 and 2
c. In the left half b. 2 and 3
d. In the right half c. 1 and 3
1 0.5s d. 1, 2 and 3
37. The transfer function represents a
1 s 43. An isotropic antenna is radiating 3 kW.
a. Lead network The field at 3 km distance is
b. Lag network a. 0.1 V/m
c. Lag -lead network b. 10 V/m
d. PID controller c. 0.01 V/m
38. A. C. Servomotor is a d. 0.2 V/m
a. 3-phase induction motor 44. A cubical cavity of dimension 2.36 cm is
b. 2- phase induction motor resonating in TE101 mode. The resonant
c. 1 - phase induction motor frequency for the mode is
d. 2-phase synchronous motor a. 10 GHz
39. Amplifying is a type of b. 9 GHz
a. Magnetic amplifier c. 8.5 GHz
b. Rotating amplifier d. 12 GHz
c. Electronic amplifier 45. If the cut-off frequency of a parallel plate
d. Synchro transformer wave guide for TE10 mode is 2000 MHz,
40. sampled signal has z-transform the cut-off frequency for TE20 mode will
Tz be
R z Which of the following a. 1000 MHz
z 1
2
b. 2000 MHz
time-domain signals does it represent? c. 3000 MHz
a. Exponential d. 4000 MHz
b. Step 46. A lossless line length / 4 and
c. Ramp characteristic impedance Z0 transforms a
d. Sinusoidal resistive load R into an impedance
41. A circular disc of radius R carries a
uniform surface charge density. When it
Z02 / R .
revolves at a uniform angular velocity When the line if / 2 long, the
about its centre and in its own plane, the transformed impedance will be
magnetic flux density at the centre of the a. Z 02 / R
b. 2 Z 02 / R
disc is B.
If the radius of the disc is doubled and the
original charge spread out uniformly on c. Z0
the extended area, the magnetic field at the d. R
centre would be 47. The divergence of a vector
a. B/4 A ix j 6 y kz at point P in space
2 2 3
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. A single phase fully controlled b ridge is 3. Gate polysilicon deposition and
supplied at 120V rms. What will be the patterning
average load voltage for a delay angle of 4. Gate oxidation
90° assuming continuous load current? Select the correct answer using the codes
a. 0 V given below:
b. 70.4 V a. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 102 V b. 1, 4, 3, 2
d. 170 V c. 2,4,3, 1
2. A single-phase ac. voltage controlled feeds d. 2, 1,4,3
a pure inductive load. The conduction 7. The CZ method in crystal growth provides
period of a thyristor for a firing angle of a a. A polycrystalline ingot
(in the range 90 180 ) is b. A single crystal ingot with controlled
a. impurities
b. 2 c. An ingot with irregular arrangement of
c. 2 atoms
d. 2 d. A single crystal ingot with unwanted
impurities
3. A 3-phase inverter is fed from a 600 V
8. Which of the following are the valid
source. For a star-connected resistive load
reasons for polishing silicon wafer used
15 Q/phase, the rms load current for 120°
for IC fabrication?
conduction is
1. To make the surface clean
a. 32.66 A
2. To remove the surface damaged silicon
b. 16.33A
layers
c. 8.16A
3. To make the surface flat
d. 12.33A
4. To improve conductivity of the surface
4. Which one of the following pairs is not
layers
correctly matched?
5. To make both sides more parallel
a. Oxidation : Masking
Select the correct answer using the codes
b. Ion-implantation : Doping
given below:
c. Metallization : Isolation
a. 1,2 and 3
d. Photolithography: Pattering
b. 2,3 and 5
5. Following methods are used for isolation
c. 1, 4 and 5
in IC fabrication:
d. 2, 3 and 4
1. Oxide isolation
9. 30% KQH solution is used to etch (100)
2. Resistive isolation
oriented silicon through a 100 m × 100
3. P-n junction isolation
The correct sequence in the descending m square window. The other regions of
order of the magnitude of isolation silicon (outside the window) are protected
obtained is by a mask and do not get etched. The etch
a. 3,1,2 profile will have
b. 1,3,2 a. Isotropic contour
c. 1,2,3 b. Vertical side wall
d. 3,2,1 c. Severe undercut
6. What is the correct sequence of process d. AV – groove shape
steps given below during the fabrication of 10. Consider the following statements
a polysilicon gate MOSFET? 1. Lou-implantation is less prone to
1. Source and drain diffusion contamination compared to diffusion.
2. Field oxidation and active area 2. In diffusion, the peak impurity
definition concentration is always located at the
2 of 13
surface while in ion-implantation peak B. Poisson’s equation
position can be tailored. C. Einstein’s equation
3. Ion-implantation is a simpler and less D. Diffusion current equation
expensive process than diffusion. List II
4. The substrate is damaged after ion- 1. Electric field intensity with charge
implantation. density
Which of these statements are correct? 2. Minority carrier diffusion constant
a. 1 and 2 with mobility
b. 2 and 3 3. Minority carrier concentration gradient
c. 1,2 and 4 4. Time rate of change of minority carrier
d. 1,3 and 4 density
11. The main advantage of plasma-assisted A B C D
chemical vapour deposition process over a. 4 3 2 1
ordinary chemical vapour deposition is b. 2 1 4 3
a. Plasma-assisted deposition is faster c. 4 1 2 3
b. Plasma-assisted deposition results in d. 2 3 4 1
films with better stoichiometry 15.
c. Deposition rate is controlled better in a
plasma- assisted process
d. The deposition temperature is much
less in a plasma- assisted process
12. After the circuit elements are fabricated in
an IC and the surface is passivated , a
pattern of Al film is deposited using
photolithography to
a. Connect the various terminals of For the given circuit, 3rad / s if V is
circuit components in a predetermined taken as reference, the phasor of I is given
way by
b. Protect the surface form oxidation due a. 190
to atmospheric exposure b. 390
c. Protect a metal surface to be used as c. 560
heat sink d. 2 45
d. Provide a metal surface for bonding 16.
the chip
13. Consider the following statements about
Fermi energy in a metal:
1. It is the energy of the highest occupied
electron state at zero Kelvin.
2. It is the energy level of electrons at
which probability of occupation is one For the given a.c. circuit if the value of C
half at any temperature. is chosen such that V and I are in phase,
3. At temperature above zero Kelvin, then I1 lead I2 by an angle given by
some of the energy states above Fermi a. 0°
energy are occupied and some states b. 45°
below it are empty. c. 90°
Which of these statements is/are correct? d. 135°
a. 1, 2 and 3 17.
b. Only 2
c. Only 1
d. 2 and 3
14. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Continuity equation For the given circuit, if
3 of 13
v t 160sin t 10 and d. 100V
22.
i t 5sin t 20 , then the reactive
power absorbed by the black box N is
given by8
a. 50 Vars
b. 100 Vars
c. 400 Vars
d. 200 Vars
18. The frequency response for a network
function H(s) is given above H(s) is given
by
s
a.
s 1
10 s
b.
s 1
The switch in the circuit is closed at t = 0.
10
The current through the battery at t = 0+ c.
and t is, respectively s 1
a. 10A and 10A 1
d.
b. 0A and 10A s s 1
c. 10A and 0A 23. Consider the signals
d. 0A and 0A X 1 t 2sin t cos 4 t and
19. The Laplace transform of the voltage
across the capacitor of 0.5F is X 2 t sin 5 t 3sin13 t
s 1
V s 3 2
a. Both the signals are periodic
s s s 1 b. Both the signals are not periodic
Then the value of the current through the c. X1 is periodic, but X2 is not periodic
capacitor at (t=0+ is give4n by d. X1 is not periodic, but X2 is periodic
a. 0A 24. Which one of the following pairs is not
b. 0.5 A correctly matched?
c. 1.0 A (System attribute of {System Description with
d. 1.5 A the Discrete-Time input ×(n) and output
20. If u(t) and (t) are the step function and system) y{n}
the impulse function respectively at t = 0, a. Causal : Y n X n 1
then the Laplace transform of the function b. Linear : Y n 3 n 2
f(t) = u(t –1) (t) is equal to
a. 1 c. Stable : Y n 2 n 5 n 1
b. 1/s d. Time-invariant : Y n X n 1
2
c. 0
1 25. The step response of a system is
d.
s 1 C t 1 5e t 10e 2t 6e 3t . The impulse
21. An ac. sinusoidal voltage source is response of the system is
connected across a series circuit consisting a. 5e t 20e 2t 18e 3t
of a resistor and a capacitor. The rms value
b. 5et 20e 2t 18e 3t
of the voltage across the resistor and
capacitor are 100 V and 200V c. 5e t 20e 2t 18e 3t
respectively. The rms value of the voltage d. 5e t 20e 2t 18e 3t
of the source is 26. Which one of the following is a linear
a. 300V system?
b. 100 5V a. y t 2u t
c. 100 3V b. y t 2u t 5
4 of 13
c. y t 2u 2 t b. 16
c. 4
d. y t 2u 2 t 5 d. 2
0.8
The system G s
31. A unity feedback control system has
27. is excited by
s s2 2
forward path transfer function G(s) given
a unit step input. The steady state output is 10 1 s
by G s 2
a. 0.8 s s 12 s 5
b. 0.4
The steady-state error due to unit parabolic
c. -0.4
input r(t) = t2/2U (t) is
d. Unbounded
a. Zero
28. The Laplace transform of e t cos t is b. 0.1
a.
s c. 1.0
s 2
2
d. Infinite
32. For the control system with
b.
s K s 2
s 2
2
G s H s
s s 2 2 s 3
c.
s The type number is
s 2
2
a. 1
d.
s b. 2
c. 3
s 2
2
d. 4
29. Match List I with List II and select the 33. The root locus plot of a system having
correct answer: open loop transfer function
List I (Function) K s 10 s 70
G s H s 3 will
A. te at s s 100 s 200
B. x at have angle of asymptotes as
C. Z Y t Z dz a. 60°, 100°
b. 60°,180°,300°
d t c. 60°,120°,180°
D.
dt d. 60°,90°,120°
List II (Laplace Transform) 34. Consider the
1. sX s equation: 2 s s 3s 5s 10 0
4 3 2
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. There are two time functions g1(t) and g2(t) 7. Work function is
with Fourier transforms G1(f) and G2 (f) a. Minimum temperature at which
repetitively. Fourier transform of thermion emission occurs
a.g1 (t) + b.g2 (t) will be (a and b in the b. Minimum excess energy needed for
expression are constant) thermion emission
a. The convolution of a G1 (f) and bG2 (f) c. Maximum temperature up to which
b. The product of a G1 (f) and bG2 (f) thermion emission occurs
c. The sum of a. G1 (f) and bG2 (f) d. Optimum energy for thermion
G f G f emission
d. The product of 1 and 2 8. For a p-type semiconductor. Fermi level
a b
lies
2. Bandwidth of a frequency modulated
signal is a. In the middle of the energy gap
a. Zero b. Close to the bottom of the conduction
band
b. The frequency of the modulating signal
c. Close to the top of the conduction band
c. Twice the frequency of modulating
signal d. Close to the top of the valence band
d. Infinity 9. The force between a charge q and a
grounded infinite conducting place kept ay
3. The balance equation
a distance d form it is given by
Z A.B A.B can be realized using only q
a. AND gates a.
4 0 d 2
b. OR gates
c. NAND gates q2
b.
d. NOT gates 4 0 d 2
4. Current drain form the power supply is q
c.
lowest in which one of the following 16 0 d 2
digital IC logic family?
a. TTL q2
d.
b. ECL 16 0 d 2
c. MOS 10. In a source-free imperfect dielectric
d. CMOS medium (specified by loss tangent tan ),
5. A MOSFET with poly silicon gate is Maxwell’s curl equation can be written as:
preferred to a MOSFET with aluminum a. H j E 1 j tan
gate since in the first case the
a. Device becomes more resistant to b. H j E 1 j tan
radiation c. H j E 1 j tan
b. Gate can be self-aligned to source and
drain d. H j E 1 j tan
c. Isolation between adjacent devices is 11. If we have a control system which is
better actually unstable of has too low gain or
d. Gate leakage current is smaller phase-margins, then for a more
6. In semiconductor wafer cleaning, satisfactory performance of the system, we
trichloroethylene is used to remove should report to which of the following?
a. Dust particles from the surface 1. reduce the gain of the amplifier
b. Grease from the surface 2. Incorporate the phase advance circuit
c. Impurities from within the crystal in the system
d. Moisture from the surface
2 of 14
3. Use integral error compensation in the
system
Select the correct answer using the codes
given by
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 In the figure shown, the box N contains
c. 1 and 3 resistors only E=1 volt and 0 volt; I = 0A
d. 2 and 3 and 2AV=3 volts and 2 volts; respectively.
12. For a fixed choice of steady-state velocity- If E =1 volt, and I is replaced by R 2 ,
error, the use of derivative output V is equal to
compensation in a proportional second a. 1 volts
order control system increases which of b. 2 volts
the following? c. 3 volts
1. Setting time d. 4 volts
2. Undraped natural frequency 16.
3. Damping ratio
Select the correct answer using the codes
given belo9w:
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3 In the circuit shown, the initial voltage on
13. If z re j , then which of the following is the capacitor v(0) =2 V and I is a unit step
not correct? current source. The voltage across the
capacitor, v(t) for t > 0 is
z z*
a. r a. 1 E 2T
2 cos
b. 1 E 2T
z z*
b. r c. 2 E T
2 j cos
d. 2 e t
c. r zz * 17. The main reason for connecting a pulse
z transformer at a output stage of a thyristor
d. r triggering circuit is to
z*
a. Amplify the power of the triggering
14.
pulse
b. Provide electrical isolation
c. Reduce the turn-on time of the
thyristor
d. Avoid spurious triggering of the
thyristor due to noise
What is the fundamental frequency of the 18. Resonant converters are basically used to
discrete-time square wave shown in the a. Generate large peaky voltages
figure? b. Reduce the switching losses
a. radian c. Eliminate harmonics
b. /2 radian d. Convert a square wave into a sine
c. /4 radian wave
d. 0 radian 19.
15.
3 of 14
1. / n 1 2 answer:
List I
2. 4 / n A. Dual converter
B. DC chopper
3. exp / 1 2 C. Cyclo converter
D. Inverter
4. cos 1 / n 1 2
List II
1. Cement klin drive
A B C D
2. Induction heating
a. 3 2 4 1
3. Rolling mill drive
b. 4 1 3 2
4. Electrical vehicle
c. 3 1 4 2
5. Sugar mills
d. 4 2 3 1
A B C D
33. The average value of the waveform
a. 2 1 5 3
x(t) = 4 cos 4t — 5 sin 5t is
b. 3 4 1 2
a. 0
c. 2 4 1 3
b. 2 / d. 3 1 5 2
c. 2 / 38. Consider the following statements:
d. 20 / Biasing of electronic devices is done
34. A reciprocal two port network is 1. To Whom It May Concern: establish
symmetrical if the operating point
a. Z11 = z22 2. To make the operating point stable
b. A 1 3. To use the devices as switches rather
c. A D than amplifiers
Which of the statements given above is/are
d. y 1
correct?
35. If an RC impedance function, Z(s), has a. 1 only
equal number of poles and zeros at finite b. 2 only
locations, then
c. 1 and 2
a. Z 0 Z d. 1, 2 and 3
b. Z 0 Z 39. A differential amplifier is basically a/an
a. DC amplifier
c. Z 0 Z
b. AC amplifier
d. Z 0 Z c. Chopper amplifier
36. A single-phase full-bridge, voltage source d. Mixer amplifier
inverter, feeds a pure inductive load L and 40. The number of flags affected when a data-
the inverter input voltage is Vs. The transfer instruction is executed by 8085 is
current through L, with a period of T a. 0
second, would be a b. 1
a. Triangular wave with peak value Vs/L . c. 3
T/2 d. 5
b. Triangular wave with peak value VS/L 41. The Program Counter in a computer is a
T/4 special purpose register which contains
c. Square wave with peak value Vs/L T/2 a. The instruction being executed
d. Pulsed wave with peak value Vs/L . b. The address of the instruction being
T/2 executed
c. The next instruction to be expected
6 of 14
d. The address of the next instruction to a. Serial to parallel converter, cos 0t and
be executed 90° phase lead
42. A 5-h.p., 3-phase, 400 V, 4-pole, 50 Hz b. Serial to parallel converter, sin 0t
squirrel-cage induction motor has a full-
load speed of 1440 r.p.m. At half full-load, and 900 phase lead
the speed of this motor would be c. Serial to parallel converter, sin 0t
a. 1480rp.m. and 90° phase lag
b. 1470rpm. d. Parallel to serial converter, sin 0t and
c. 1460r.p.m. 90° phase lag
d. 1450rpm. 47. Correctly sequence the blocks for an
43. For a repulsion-type single-phase integrating digital voltmeter from the list
induction motor four configurations of the given below:
brush-axis in relation to the stator-field 1. Integrator
axis at an instant are considered. 2. Reference voltage
The brush-axis is: 3. Converter
A. In line with the stator field-axis 4. Control logic
B. In quadrate with the stator field-axis Select the correct sequence out of the
C. Shifted forward by an angle following
, 0 90 a. 1-2-4-3
D. Shifted backward by an angle b. 2-1-3-4
, 0 90 c. 1-2-3-4
Indicate from the following code the d. 2-1-4-3
correct values of developed torque the 48. When a time varying signal has to be
above motioned positions: digitized using an ADO, it is necessary to
use before digitization a/an
a. Time division multiplexer
b. Frequency division multiplexer
c. Sample and hold circuit
d. Instrumentation amplifier
44. The output of a diode detector contains 49. Consider the following statements:
a. The modulating signal 1. Flash AID converter is the fastest.
b. The DC voltage 2. Minimum hardware is used in
c. The RF ripple implementing the Flash A/D converter.
d. All of the above Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
45. Which one of the following does not give
a digital output? a. 1 only
a. Pulse amplitude modulation b. 2 only
b. Pulse code modulation c. Both 1 and 2
c. Differential pulse code modulation d. Neither 1 nor 2
d. Delta modulation 50. Copper has a much lower resistively than
aluminum. SiO2 has a dielectric constant
46.
of 3.9 and Xerogel has a dielectric
constant of 2.1. In order to reduce the
interconnect delay in VLSI circuits, what
should be the best combination of metal
and dielectric layer?
a. Copper with SiO2
b. Aluminum SiO2
c. Aluminium with Xerogel
In QPSK modulator shown above, the
blocks 1, 2 and 3 are, respectively d. Copper with Xerogel
7 of 14
51. Consider the following statements 3. There is spontaneous polarization of
concerning the ferromagnetic materials the material when it is in the
1. There are easy and hard magnetization ferroelectric state.
directions in the ferromagnetic crystal. Which of the statements given above are
2. Eddy current losses are smaller for correct?
materials having low electrical a. 1,2 and 3
conductivity values. b. 1 and 2
3. All ferromagnetic materials can be c. 2 and 3
used at high frequencies. d. 1 and 3
Which of the statements given above are 56. If N = number of atroms/m3
correct? = Polaris ability
a. 1,2 and 3
0 absolute permittivity of free space
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3 Then the relative permitted of a gas
subjected to a homogeneous electric field
d. 1 and 3
is
52. The E-field of a uniform plane wave
N
propagating in a dielectric medium is a. r 1
given by 0
z 8 z
2
N
E t , z a x 2 cos 108 t a y sin 10 V / m b. r 1
3 3 0
What is the dielectric constant of the medium? N
c. r
a. 1/ 3 0
b. 3 2
N
c. 3 d. r 1
d. 9 0
53. How long (in terms of wavelength) should 57. Consider The Following Statements:
the short- circuited lossless line be so as to The roots of the characteristic equation of
appear as an open circuit at the input a control system lead to its instability if
terminals? they lie
a. t / 4 1. On the imaginary axis of the s-plane
b. l / 2 2. On the negative real axis of the S-plane
c. l / 3 3. In the right-half of the S-plane
d. l Which of the above are correct?
54. Which one of the following is the capacity 58. A plane wave with an instantaneous
of standard telephone channel occupying expression for the electric field
the frequency range of 300 to 3400 Hz for E z , t a x E sin t kz a y E sin t kz
10 20
an actual S/N ratio of 1023? is
a. 31000 bits per second a. Linearly polarized
b. 306900 bits per second b. Circularly polarized
c. 3478200 bits per second c. Elliptically polarized
d. 17500 bits per second d. Horizontally polarized
55. Consider the following statements related 59. Additional inductance in the local circuit
to the ferroelectric materials: of a phase- controlled connection feeding a
1. Ferroelectric state occurs below a separately-excited DC motor is used to
particular temperature which is a. Limit the possible ripple content
different for each material.
b. Avoid the possibility of discontinuous
2. In the ferroelectric state dielectric conduction
constant is much larger than those of
c. Improve the line power factor
ordinary dielectric materials.
8 of 14
d. Increase the rising angle limit during 1. Increase the useful flux
inverter operation 2. Educe the leakage flux
60. 3. Reduce the useful flux
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 only
64. A single-phase diode-bridge rectifier is
Which one of the following is the connected to a load resistor of 50ohms.
minimum phase transfer function that The source voltage is v 200sin t ,
corresponds to Bode magnitude plot where 2 50 radians per second. The
shown in figure? power dissipated in the load resistor is
1 400
a. a. w
2s 1
b. 2 s 1 3200
b. W
1 2
c.
1 c. 400W
s 1
2 800
d. W
1
d. s 1
2 65. A single-phase AC voltage controller has
61. Consider the LTI system with impulse input voltage of 300 V and runs at 50 Hz.
response h t e at u t , a 0, which one The controller switch remains ON for four
cycles and OFF for five cycles. The rms
of the following gives the response to the value of output voltage would be
signal x t e at u t ? a. 133.33 V
a. y t e at u t b. 166.67 V
c. 200V
b. y t t e at
d. 300V
c. y t te at u t 66. If both the inputs to a half adder are 1, the
d. y t t e u t
2 at sum and carry outputs are, respectively
a. 0,0
62. b. 0,1
c. 1,0
d. 1,1
67. The number of non-trivial logic functions
in a 2-variable logic family is
a. 4
b. 10
c. 12
In the circuit shown in the figure, the d. 16
ammeter (which gives deflection 68. a
proportional to the current through it)
reading is
a. 0A
b. 10A
c. Oscillates between 0 and 10A
d. Oscillates between – 10A and 10A
63. Consider the following statements
In a transformer, an iron core is used to
9 of 14
A sinusoidal oscillator is buit using an 74. Band-limited White Gaussian Noise means
amplifier of real gain A, infinite input that the spectral density of the noise
impedance and the feedback network a. Is constant over a given band and has
shown in the figure. If Z jX , then Z 0 is any value elsewhere
b. Is constant over a given band and has
equal to
zero value elsewhere
a. -2jX
c. Is zero over the given band and
b. –jX constant elsewhere
c. iX d. Varies over a given band and has zero
d. 2jX value elsewhere
69. The only 16-bit long instruction in a 75. In a communication system, the
machine code that uses immediate probabilities of message occurrences are
addressing mode in 8085 is 1/8, 3/8, 1/8 and 3/8. The source entropy
a. LX1,HXXXX will be
b. LDAXXXX a. 1 .8 bits/message
c. LHLDXXXX b. 2.8 bits/message
d. LMPXXXX c. 3.4 bits/message
70. Which of the following memory units d. 5.6 bits/message
needs periodic refreshing? 76. An average response rectifier type
a. ROM electronic AC voltmeter has a DC voltage
b. EPROM of 10 V applied to it. The meter reading
c. Static RAM will be
d. Dynamic RAM a. 7.1 V
71. Two 3-phase alternators are synchronized b. 10.0 V
so that their no-load voltages E1 and E2 are c. 11.1 V
equal. If the excitation of machine 1 is d. 22.2 V
now increased, then 77. Consider the following statements
1. A local circulating current I is set up. pertaining to strain gauges:
2. Ic magnetizing in nature for machine 2. 1. In metal strain gauge, the basic effect
3. Ic tends to reduce E11. is a change of resistance with strain.
4. The terminal voltages does not change. 2. Gauge factor of metal strain gauges is
Which of the statements given above are larger than that of semiconductor strain
correct? gauges.
a. 2 and 3 3. Gauge factor of semiconductor strain
b. 1,2 and 4 gauges varies with strain.
c. 1, 3 and 4 4. Metal strain gauges are insensitive to
d. 1, 2 and 3 temperature.
72. A string insulator has 5 units. The voltage Which of the statements given above is/are
across the bottom-most is 25% of the total correct?
voltage. The string efficiency is a. 1 and 2
a. 25% b. 2 only
b. 50% c. 1 and 3
c. 80% d. 3 and 4
d. 75% 78. One example of combinational circuit is
73. In load flow studies of a power system, a a. Adder
voltage control bus is specified by b. Counter
a. Real power and reactive power c. Shift register
b. Real power and voltage magnitude d. Flip-flop
c. Voltage and voltage phase angle 79. A three input multiplexer will require
d. Reactive power and voltage magnitude a. A minimum of two select lines and one
output line
10 of 14
b. One select line and one output line in Electrical Network) and select the
c. Three select lines and one output line correct answer:
d. Two select lines and two output lines List I
80. Ion-implantation is a superior process to A. Mass
diffusion because of which of the B. Spring
following reasons? C. Damper
1. It is a high temperature process. D. Displacement
2. It results in precise control of depth List II
and profile. 1. Inductance
3. Lattice damage due to high energy ion 2. Capacitance
beam can be annealed. 3. Resistance
Select the correct answer using the codes 4. Charge
given below
5. Current
a. 1,2 and 3
A B C D
b. 1 and 2
a. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 and 3
b. 4 3 5 1
d. 1 and 3
c. 1 3 5 4
81. Consider the following process steps used
d. 4 2 3 1
in photolithography:
84. Three blocks G1, G2 and G3 are connected
1. Alignment and Exposure
in some fashion such that overall transfer
G G3 1 G1G2
2. Pre-bake
3. Spinning functions is 1 . The blocks
1 G1G 2
4. Development
5. Oxide etching are connected in the following manner:
6. Post-bake a. G1, G2 with negative feedback and
7. Photo resist stripping combination parallel with G3
The correct sequence of these process b. G1, G3 with negative feedback and G2
steps is in parallel
a. 3,2, 1, 5,6,4, 7 c. G1, G2 is cascade and combination in
parallel with G3
b. 2,3, 1,4, 5, 7, 6
d. G1,G3 in cascade and combination in
c. 3,2, 1,4,6,5,7
parallel with G2
d. 2,7, 1,4,3, 5,6
85. The unit impulse response of the system
82. Which of the following properties does the described by
SiO2 layer exhibit for use in IC
fabrication? y n y n 1 X n X n 1
1. It provides a protective conducting a. n
layer on the silicon surface.
b. U(n)
2. It provides surface passivation
c. 1
3. It serves as an insulator on the silicon
d. 0
surface.
86. The 3-dB cutoff frequency of a first order
4. It provides support for all IC
components to be fabricated over it. low pass filter is c . If the input signal is
Select the correct answer using the codes 0.5 sin c t , the output will have a phase
given below: shift of
a. 2 and 3 a. -45°
b. 3 and 4 b. -90°
c. 1 and 4 c. 45°
d. 1 and 2 d. 90°
83. Match List I (Element of Mechanical 87.
System) with List H (Analogous Element
11 of 14
91. An electric field in a charged medium with
a time-varying magnetic field has
a. .E 0; E 0
b. .E 0; E 0
c. .E 0; E 0
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. P
c.
1 P
1 P
d.
P
5. On the basis of equal carrier powers, the
ratio of ‘signal-noise ratio of FM and
If the input to the digital circuit consisting signal-noise ratio of AM’ can be expressed
of a cascade of 20 XOR gates is X, then as (assume that detector/ discriminator
the output Y is equal to losses are zero)
a. X’ S / N 0 FM
a. 0 3mt
b. X S0 / N 0 AM
c. 0 S0 / N 0 FM
b. 3mt2
d. 1 S0 / N 0 AM
2.
S0 / N 0 FM
c. 4.5mt3
S0 / N 0 AM
S0 / N 0 FM
d. 3mt3
The minimal products-of-sums function S0 / N 0 AM
described by the K-map given above is 6. To transmit N signals, each band limited to
a. A+C fm bny TDM, will require a minimum
b. A’+C’ bandwidth of
c. AC a. f m Hz
d. A’C’ b. 2 f m Hz
3. c. Nf m Hz
d. 2 Nf m Hz
7. In a DM system, the granular noise occurs
when the modulating signal
a. Increases linearly
b. Increases exponentially
For the circuit show above, the Boolean c. Remains constant
expression for the output Y in terms of
inputs P, Q, R and S is d. Decreases rapidly
a. P’+Q’+R’+S’ 8. Consider the following statements in
connection with PCM system:
b. P+Q+R+S
1. PCM is much better for noise immunity
c. (P’+Q’) (R’+s’) as it depends only on the pressure or
d. (P+Q) (R+S) absence of the pulses at any given
4. If all the messages of a source have the time.
same probability P, then the source 2. PCM requires a small bandwidth
entropy H (m) is given by compared to analog systems.
a. –log P 3. PCM requires very complex encoding
b. +log P and quantizing circuitry.
2 of 18
4. PCM has all advantages of frequency
modulation when it comes to noise
performance.
Which of the statement given above are
correct:
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
9. The frequency spectrum of an amplitude- List II
modulated signal contains
a. Carrier frequency only
b. Sideband frequencies only
c. Modulating frequency only
d. Carrier and sideband frequencies
10. An amplitude-modulated analog waveform
has a maximum amplitude Amax and a
minimum amplitude Amin (a positive
value), then the modulation index is given
by
A
a. min
Amax
2Amin
b.
Amax Amin
Amax Amin
c.
Amax Amin
Amax Amin
d.
2 Amax Amin A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
11. In connection with properties of the
b. 2 1 4 3
Fourier transform, match List-I (Function
of Time) with List— II (Spectral Density c. 1 3 4 2
Function) and select the correct answer d. 2 1 3 4
using the code given below the Lists: 12.
List I
a. 2 1 e s e 2 s
c. 2 and 3 1 1
d. 1,2 and 3 s s
b. 2 1 e s e 2 s
33. the transfer function 1 1
C s A s s s
R s 1 B s c. 2 1 e s e 2 s
1 1
Is the simplification of which one of the s s
d. 2 1 e s e 2 s
following diagrams? 1 1
(a) s s
36. If f(t) and F(s) form the Lap lace transform
pair, then what is the Lap lace transform of
f t / t0 ?
a. t0 F t0 s
1
b. F t0 s
t0
1
c. t0 F s
t0
1 1
d. F s
t0 t0
37. What is the steady-state response of a
R s 1
system 2
R s s 3s 2
34. Which one of the following figure When unit step input is applied?
represents the magnitude plot of the a. 0.5
1 e j
transfer function H ? b. 1.0
2 c. 1.5
d. 0
7 of 18
38. The forward voltage transfer function of a
s
two-port network is 2
s 2
What will be the output voltage if the input
voltage is t ?
a. 2 sin t / 4
b. cos t sin t
c. cos t
d. 2 sin t / 4 List II
39. Which of the following characteristics of
the system are defined by y(t) = x(t) cos
(100 t )?
1. It is linear.
2. It is time invariant.
3. It is causal.
4. It is a stable
5. It is memory less.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 2,3 and 5
c. 4 and 5
d. 1,2,3, 4 and 5
40. Match List I (Pole Location) with List II
(Time response due to initial condition)
and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists:
List I (Pole Location) A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 1 3 2 4
41.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the In an energy meter, the braking device is
correct answer using the code given below provided to produce braking torque so that
the lists: the
List I (Character) a. Energy meter can be brought to a
A. Colon (:) standstill
B. Blank ( ) b. Meter creeping be checked
C. Comma (,) c. Moving system of the instrument (disc)
D. Semicolon (;) rotates at a speed for a particular rate
List II (Interpretation) of energy consumption at 4. any
1. Separates operation and operand fields. time
2. Separates operands d. Shunt field flux lags behind voltage by
3. Beginning of comment field exactly 90°
4. End of label field 6. Three voltmeter method used for power
factor measurement gave the following
A B C D
readings
a. 2 3 4 1
V1 = 200 Volts across an inductive load,
b. 4 1 2 3
V2 = 180 Volts across a non-inductive
c. 2 1 4 3
resistor, and
d. 4 3 2 1
V3 = 300 Volts across the two in series.
2. In a memory map the lowest address of an
What is the power factor of the inductive
8 k byte RAM is 1000 H. what is the
load?
highest address?
a. 0.244
a. 8192 H
b. 0.30
b. 2 F F F H
c. 0.75
c. 7 F F F H
d. 080
d. 3000 H
7. Which one of the following is the correct
3. Which one of the following statements is
statement?
correct?
Chopper stabilized d.c. amplifier type
In 8085 p , the READY signal is useful
electronic voltmeter overcomes the effect
when the CPU communicates with of
a. A PPI chip a. Amplifier CMRR
b. A DMA controller chip b. Amplifier drift
c. A slow peripheral chip c. Amplifier sensitivity
d. A fast peripheral chip d. Electromagnetic interference
4. A current of 8. Which one of the following is the correct
2
2 sin 314t 30 2 2 cos 952t 45 statement?
is measured with a thermocouple type, 5 A In an LVDT, the two secondary voltages
full scale meter. a. Are independent of the core position
What is the meter reading? b. Vary unequally depending on the core
a. 2A position
b. 3A c. Vary equally depending on the core
position
c. 5A
2 3 2 A
d. Are always in phase quadrate
d. 9. A strain gauge has a nominal resistance of
5. Which one of the following statements is 500 2. When a strain of 2 × 10-4 is applied,
correct? the change in resistance is 0.5 . What is
the gauge factor for the strain gauge?
a. 1
2 of 14
b. 2.5 14. Which one of the following statements is
c. 5 correct?
d. 10 The peak inverse voltage rating of a
10. Which of the following is/are essential thyristor in a McMurray inverter
sub-system (s) of a data acquisition a. Can be as small as the forward voltage
system? drop of diode, i.e., equal to 1 to 1.5 V
1. ADC b. Should be the same as forward break
2. DAC over voltage
3. RAM c. Should be much greater than the
4. Processor forward break over voltage.
5. Network Card d. Is a very significant factor in the
Select the correct answer using the codes design of the inverter.
given below 15.
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 3 and 5
c. 4 only
d. 1, 3 and 4, only
11. A 3-phase fully controlled a.c. to d.c.
converter feeds a ripple free average
current of 200 A to a d.c. load. What is the For a random variable ‘x’ following the
rms value of current carried by each probability density function P(s) shown in
thyristor? the figure given above, what are the mean
a. 200 A and variance, respectively?
200 2 a. ½ and 2/3
b. A b. 1 and 4/3
3
c. 1 and 2/3
200
c. d. 2 and 4/3
3 16. If a signal f(t) has an energy ‘E what is the
200 energy of the signal f(2t) ?
d. A
3 a. E (b)
12. A single phase diode bridge rectifier with b. E/2
finite value of source inductance feeds on c. 2 E
R-L load. The load current can be assumed d. 4 E
to be ripple free. What is the source 17. To transmit N signals, each band limited to
current wave form? ‘f’ Hz, using PCM and time division
a. Sinusoidal multiplexing over a channel, what is the
b. Triangular minimum bandwidth required for
c. Square wave distortion less transmission?
d. Nearly trapezoidal a. f Hz
13. Which one of the following is the correct b. NfHz
statement? c. f/N Hz
In a d.c. chopper the free wheeling diode d. 2 N f Hz
across the load 18. The local oscillator in a BPSK signal
a. Improves the efficiency of power detector has a fixed phase error of 30°.
conversion of the chopper This phase error deteriorates the SNR at
b. Causes high voltage across the main the output by what factor?
thyristor a. 0.87
c. Causes high voltage across the b. 0.75
auxiliary thyristor c. 0.5
d. Avoids high voltage when the main d. 0.25
thyristor is turned off 19. In a PCM system with uniform
quantization, increasing the number of bits
3 of 14
from 8 to 9 will reduce the quantization 26. Any computer uses three different
noise power by which factor? memories called:
a. 9 1. Cache memory
b. 8 2. Virtual memory
c. 4 3. Main memory
d. 2 Moving from the CPU outwards, which is
20. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is the correct order in which they appear?
increased by a factor of 2, the maximum a. 1,2,3
range will be increased by what factor b. 1,3,2
a. 2 c. 3,1,2
b. 4 d. 2,3,1
c. 8 27. What is the function of a program counter
d. 16 in an 8-bit microprocessor?
21. Given 224) r 13) r . a. To store the op-code of the instruction
being executed
What is the value of the radix r?
b. To store the op-code of the next
a. 10 instruction
b. 8 c. To store the address of the instruction
c. 6 being executed
d. 5 d. To store the address of the next
22. Which one of the following statements is instruction
correct? 28. An 8085 P is executing the program
If a computer has a “uni-bus” organization given below:
it means that the computer has only one
MVI A, 10 H
a. Data bus
MVI B, 10 H
b. Address bus
BACK: NOP
c. Control bus
ADD B
d. Internal bus
RLC
23. IC is the instruction count, CPI is the
JNC BACK
average number of system clock periods to
execute per instruction and is the HLT
duration of a clock period. Then which one How many times the instruction NOP will
of the following expresses the execution be executed?
time? a. 1
a. IC * CPI* b. 2
b. IC*CPI/ c. 3
c. IC* /CPI d. 4
d. CPI* /IC 29. What is the effect of a DAD H instruction?
24. Four 8-input multiplexers drive a single 4- a. To shift each bit one position to the
input MUX. What is the result? right with a zero inserted in MSB
position
a. 4-input MUX
b. To shift each bit one position to the left
b. 8-input MUX
with a zero inserted in LSB position
c. 12-input MUX
c. To shift each bit one position to the
d. 32-input MUX right
25. There are N processes in the memory. A d. To shift each bit one position to the
process spends a fraction 1 of its time in right
I/O wait state. Which one of the following
30.
expresses the CPU utilization?
a. P
b. 1– P
c. PN
d. 1–PN
4 of 14
In the circuit shown in the figure above, d. 1 e 2t
the switch S is closed at t = 0. Which one 34. Which is the correct sequence of the
of the following gives expression for the devices in the increasing order of turn-off
voltage across the inductance as a function times?
of time? a. MOSFET–IGBT–BJT–SCR
a. e t / 2 b. IGBT–MOSFET–BJT–SCR
b. 1 e t / 2 c. SCR–BJT–MOSFET–IGBT
1 e
t
d. MOSFET–BJT–IGBT–SCR
c. 35.
t
d. e
31.
0.858 n P / h
106. Match the relationship of items given in 5/4
List-I (Medium) with the List-Il b. ns
1.165 n P / h
(Expression for Intrinsic Impedance) and 5/4
c. ns
select the correct answer using the code
given below: d. None of the above
All symbols have their usual meanings. 109. Which one of the following is the correct
List I statement?
A. Free space The electric field in a cylindrical
B. Perfect dielectric conductor of a transmission line for
C. Partially conducting medium electric power
D. Conducting Medium a. Is a non-zero constant from centre to
List II conductor radius R
b. Is zero at the centre but rises very high
1. .45 at the conductor outer surface
c. Undergoes a linear rise from zero at
j centre to a finite value at the conductor
2.
j radius
d. Undergoes a linear decline from a
finite value at the centre to zero at the
3.
conductor radius
0 110. If the power transmission line is modeled
4. so as to relate the sending end voltage Vs
0
and current Is to the receiving end voltage
A B C D Vr and current Ir by the relationship
a. 1 2 3 4 Vs AVr BI r ' I s CVr DI r ;
b. 1 3 4 2 Then which one of the following expresses
c. 4 2 1 3 the output impedance of the transmission
d. 4 3 2 1 line?
107. Match List-I with List-Il and select the a. DVs BI s / CVs AI s
correct answer using the code given below
the lists: b. CVs AI s / DVs AI s
List I (Parameters) c. DVs CI s / DVs BI s
A. Reflection coefficient at input
B. VSWR d. DVs BI s / AVs DI s
C. Input impedance 111. In the load-flow study of a power system,
D. Phase shift magnitude one node is selected as a “slack” or
List II (Range of values) floating bus-bar which supplies the losses
1. 0 to in the network.
2. 1 to
14 of 14
Which one of the following is the correct c. Both 20%
statement? d. 20% and 5%, respectively
The characteristic of the “slack-bus” is that 116. Which one of the following is correct
this node statements?
a. Is known by the magnitude of its In HVDC systems the converter station
voltage only and inverter stations are under
b. Is known by the phase of its voltage a. Constant current control individually
only b. Constant extinction angle control
c. Is known by both the magnitude and individually
the phase of its voltage c. Constant extinction angle control and
d. Has power constraints constant current control respectively
112. Which one of the following is the correct d. Constant current control and constant
statement? extinction angle control respectively
The receiving end voltage of a three-phase 117. Hardness of a magnetic material is
50 Hz single circuit long power measured in what terms?
transmission line may exceed the sending a. Saturation magnetization
end voltage during b. Magnetic induction
a. Peak load conditions c. Retentively
b. Intermediate load conditions d. Coercive field
c. Light load conditions 118. In the case of an insulator-like diamond,
d. None of the above what is the value of band-gap?
113. Consider the following statements stating a. Zero
reasons for keeping strict limits on system b. 0.72 eV
frequency variations c. 1.22 eV
1. The under frequency operation of the d. 6 eV
power transformer is not desirable. 119. Three materials (semi-conductors) are to
2. The accuracy of electric clocks is not be arranged in order of increasing band-
only a function of frequency error but gap.
also a function of integral of frequency Which one of the following is the correct
error. sequence?
Which of the statements given above is/are a. Ge-GaP-Si-Ca As
correct? b. Si-Ge-Ca As-GaP
a. 1 only c. Ge-Si-Ca As-GaP
b. 2 only d. Ca As-Si-GaP-Ge
c. Both 1 and 2 120. Match List-I with List-II and select the
d. Neither 1 nor 2 correct answer using the code given below
114. An unloaded three-phase star-connected the lists:
alternator is shorted by a three-phase fault List I (Material)
at its terminals. The generator neutral is A. CdS
earthed through impedance. Which of the B. Ga As
following groups correctly represents the C. Si
relationships among positive, negative and D. Ga As P
zero sequence components of voltages and List II (Applications)
currents? 1. VLSI
a. Va1 1/ 2Va 2 , Va 0 0; I a 2 , I a 0 0 2. Gunri diode
b. Va1 2Va 2 , Va 0 0; I a 1/ 2 I a 2 , I a 0 0 3. Visible LED
4. Photo conductive cell
c. Va1 Va 2 , Va 0 0; I a I a 0 0 5. Thermistor
d. V a1 Va 2 'Va 0 o; I a1 I a 0 0 A B C D
115. What are the typical values of percentage a. 2 1 3 5
bias of differential values used for b. 2 3 4 5
generator and transformer protection? c. 4 2 1 3
a. 5% and 20%, respectively d. 1 2 3 4
b. Both 5%
C.S.E Pre-2007 1 of 14
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. What is the Hall voltage in Hall Effect c. 1.0 m
experiment for an intrinsic semiconductor? d. 0.5 m
a. Finite and positive
6. Which one of the following statements is
b. Finite and negative riot true for soft magnetic materials?
c. Zero a. Soft magnetic materials have high
d. Finite and the sign (positive or eddy current losses
negative) depends upon the strength of b. Soft magnetic materials have low
the applied magnetic field. hysteresis losses
2. On what factor does the ratio of electrical c. In soft magnetic materials domain wall
mobility to the diffusion coefficient motion is easy
(D) in a doped (n or p) semiconductor at a d. Soft magnetic materials are used in
given temperature (T) depend? transformers
a. The carrier concentration 7. Consider the following important
b. The life time of the carriers characteristics of a frequency counter
c. Is independence of the carrier 1. Time base accuracy
concentration and life time of the 2. Least significant bit count
carriers 3. Gain of the input amplifier
d. On the doping density and the type of The most important characteristics
doping (n or o) responsible for the overall accuracy of
3. Consider the following statements for a frequency measurement using the counter
super conductor: would include which of the characteristics
1. A super conductor is a perfect given above?
diamagnetic a. 1 and 2
2. A super conductor has bound electron b. 2 and 3
pair within it. c. 1 and 3
3. A super conductor has bound electron d. 2 only
pairs within it. Current above a critical 8. Which one of the following is the
value passes though it. definition of the dead zone of an
Which of the statements given above are instrument?
correct? a. The time required by an instrument to
a. 1,2 and 3 warm up initially
b. 1 and 3 only b. The largest change of input quantity
c. 2 and 3 only for which there is no output of the
d. 1 and 2 only instrument
4. Which one of the following materials has c. The time required by the instrument to
the highest value of dielectric strength? begin to respond to a change in the
a. Rubber measurement
b. Nylon d. The unmeasured quantity which
c. Mica exceeds the maximum range of the
d. Glass instrument
5. The transition between two levels having 9. Why guard circuit is used in the
energy difference of 1.6×10-19j produces measurement of high resistance?
light of wavelength 1240 nm. What would a. To eliminate the capacitive effect
be the wavelength if the energy difference b. To eliminate the error owing to
is 2.48eV? (1eV = 1.6×1019) leakage current over insulation
a. 2.48 m c. To guard the resistance against stray
electrostatic field
b. 1.24 m
2 of 14
d. To avoid damage caused by high full load torque, Then what is the starting
voltage used in measurement current?
10. Which one of the following is the main a. Equal to the full load current
advantage of bridge balanced TVM? b. Four times the full toad current
a. It offers low input impedance c. Five times the full load current
b. Accuracy of calibration is maintained d. Twenty five times the full load current
over a wide range of temperature and 16.
fluctuations in power supply do not
influence its performance
c. It offers high input impedance
d. It is cheaper than VTVM
11. For measuring the signal level of
individual harmonics in an unknown
waveform, which of the following
instruments are useful?
1. Distortion analyzer
2. Wave analyzer
3. Spectrum analyzer A 2200 V/220V auto-transformer, shown
Select the correct answer using the, code in the figure above has its primary coil AS
given below: connected to the common line at point C.
The secondary side is between D and C.
a. 1. and 2 only
Now, if there is a disconnection between
b. 2 and 3 only the terminals B and C, while the
c. 1 and 3 only transformer is energized at the primary
d. 1, 2 and 3 side with. 2200 V, neglecting internal
12. Two strain gauges are employed for the impedances of the transformer, what is the
measurement of strain in a cantilever. One voltage V2 on the secondary side?
gauge is mounted on top of the cantilever a. 2200 V plus 220 V
and the other is placed at the bottom. The b. 2200 V minus 220 V
two .strain gauges form two arms of a c. 2200 V
voltage sensitive Wheatstone bridge, What
d. 220 V
is this bridge configuration?
17. A differentially compounded d.c. motor
a. Full bridge
drives a constant horse power load, if the
b. Half bridge series field winding is short circuited then
c. Quarter bridge which one of the following will happen?
d. Null bridge a. Armature current will decrease and
13. Under which condition (s) are digital data speed will increase
acquisition systems used? b. Armature current will increase and
a. Physical quantity being monitored has speed will also increase
a narrow bandwidth c. Armature current will decrease and
b. High accuracy is required speed will decrease
c. Per channel cost is low d. Armature current will decrease and
d. All of the above speed will also decrease
14. Among single - phase induction motors 18. Consider the following statements
which one of the following motors has the Dual - slope integration type Analog -to-
least starting torque in per unit terms? Digital converters provide
a. Split- phase motor 1. Higher speeds compared to all other
b. Capacitor motor types of A/D converters
c. Capacitor start motor 2. Very good accuracy without putting
d. Shaded-pole motor extreme requirements on component
15. An induction motor has a slip of 4% at full stability
load. If its starting torque is equal to the 3. Good rejection of power supply hums.
3 of 14
Which of the statements given above is/are b. 1 kW/km per phase
correct? c. 1.13 kW/km per phase
a. 2 and 3 d. 1.2 kW/km per phase
b. 1 and 2 25.
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 only
19. Consider a multiplexer with X and Y as
data inputs and Z as control input. Z = 0
selects inputs X and Z = 1 selects inputs
Y. What are the connections required to
realize the 2- variable Boolean function f =
The distribution system shown in the
T + R, without using any additional
above figure is to be protected by over-
hardware?
current system of protection. For proper
a. R to X, 1 to Y, T to Z fault discrimination, directional over -
b. T to X, R to Y, T to Z current relays will be required at which
c. T to X, R to Y, 0 to Z location?
d. R to X, 0 to Y, T to Z a. 1 and 4 only
20. What voltage is used to operate ECL b. 2 and 3 only
gates? c. 1, 4 and 5
a. +5V d. 2, 3 and 5
b. -5V 26. Consider the following statements
c. +15V The purpose of compensating a
d. Varies between 0 and 30V transmission line is
21. When a time varying signal has to be 1. To improve the system stability.
digitized using an ADC, which one of the 2. To improve the efficiency
following is necessary to use before 3. To reduce the Ferranti effect
digitization?
Which of the statements given above are
a. A time division multiplexer correct?
b. A frequency division multiplexer a. 1, 2 and 3
c. A sample and hold circuit b. 1 and 3 only
d. An instrumentation amplifier c. 1 .and 2 only
22. A 10 bit ND converter is used to digitize d. 2 and 3 only
an analog signal in the 0 to 5 V range.
27. What is the structure of an ACSR
What is the maximum peak to peak ripple
conductor?
voltage (approximate) that can be allowed
in the D.C. supply voltage? a. Steel strands forming central core,
around which are aluminum strands
a. 200 my
b. Aluminum strands forming central
b. 50 mV
core, around which are steel strands
c. 25 mV
c. Aluminum and steel strands are
d. 5 mV alternately placed and formed into a
23. How is a voltage control bus specified in conductor
load flow studies of a power system? d. Aluminum and copper alloy are
a. By real power and reactive power stranded to form the conductor
b. By real power and voltage magnitude 28. What is the purpose of the moderator in a
c. By voltage and voltage phase angle nuclear power plant?
d. By reactive power and voltage a. To control the, flow of water inlet
magnitude b. To control the amount of nuclear fuel
24. The corona loss on a particular system at into the reactor
50 Hz is 1 kW/km per phase . What would c. To control the nuclear fission or fission
be the corona loss at 60 Hz? rate by slowing down the neutrons
a. 0.83 kW/km per phase
4 of 14
d. To control the steam flow to the is the average value of the thyristor
turbine current?
29. If Iai is the positive sequence current of an a. 009375 A
alternator and Z1, Z2 and Z0 are the b. 0.1875 A
sequence impedances of the alternator. c. 0.3750 A
What is the drop produced by the current d. 0.625 A
Ia1? 35. When does a fully controlled line
a. I ai Z1 commutated converter operate as an
b. I a1 Z1 Z 2 inverter?
a. In the range of firing angles
c. I a1 Z1 Z 2 Z 0 0 90
d. None of the above b. In the range of firing angles
30. Which property of SF6 gas makes it most 90 180
suitable for use in circuit breakers? c. In the range of firing angles
a. Higher dielectric strength 90 180 when there is a suitable
b. Higher molecular weight d.c. source in the load
c. Higher dielectric strength and higher d. When it supplies a back e.m.f. load
molecular weight 36.
d. Lower molecular weight
31. A 3-phase full-bridge diode rectifier is fed
from delta-star transformer. The voltage
fed to the rectifier has a maximum value of
V2 from line to neutral so that the voltage
of phase ‘a’ IS Va = Vm sin t. The phase
sequence is a-b-c. At the instant the phase
‘a’ voltage is passing through zero, what What is the encoding format for digital
will be the rectifier output voltage? data shown in the above figure?
a. Zero a. NRZ-L
b. Vm b. NRZ-I
c. Manchester
c. 2Vm
d. Bipolar-AMI
d. 3Vm 37. A spherical volume of radius ‘a’ has a
32. When compared with a common emitter uniform charge density . What is the
connection what does the common base electric displacement 0 on the surface of
connection of B)T have? the sphere?
a. Lower output impedance a. 4 / 3 a 3
b. Higher input impedance b. a 2
c. Higher current gain
c. 1/ 3 a
d. Lower current gain
33. In an armature voltage controlled d. 4 / 3 a 2
separately excited d.c. motor drive with 38. An electromagnetic field in free space
closed loop speed control, why is an inner 0 , 0 is given by:
current loop useful?
a. It limits the speed of the motor to a E a x E0 cos t k 0 zV / M
safe value
b. It helps in improving the drive energy H a y E0 0 cos t k0 z A / m
0
efficiency
c. It limits the peak current of the motor Where k0 0 0 . What is the average
to the permissible value power per unit area associated with this
d. It reduces the steady state speed error wave?
34. In a chopper circuit, given that Edc = 50 V, a. az E02 /
R = 80 Ohm and duty cycle = 30%. What
5 of 14
b. az E / 120
2
0
0
Given 120
c. az E / 240
2
0 0
d. az E02 / 300 42. What is the variation of near - zone
electric field of a Hertz Ian dipole with
0 radial distance R from the dipole?
Given 120
0 a. 1/R
b. 1/R2
39. An infinitely long line charge of density .
c. 1/R3
lies along z - axis. What is the electric
field at a point (R, 0, 0)? d. 1/R5
43. For a parallel plate transmission line with
a. aˆ z / 4 R perfectly conducting plates of. width and
b. aˆ y / 2 0 R separated by a lossless dielectric slab of
thickness d, the characteristic impedance
c. aˆ x / 2 0 R zo is p times the intrinsic impedance of
d. aˆ x / 2 R the dielectric medium where
40. Match List-I with List-Il and select the a. p d /
correct answer using the code given below b. p / d
the lists: c. p d /
List I
P d. p / d
A. . j 0 44. For similar field distribution (not identical)
t
the highest Q factor can be obtained from
D
B. H j 0 which one of the following cavities?
t a. Rectangular cavity
B b. Circular cavity
C. E
t c. Spherical cavity
D. .D P d. Co-axial cavity
List II 45. Which one of the following is correct?
1. Modified Kirchhoff’s Current Law A particular mode in a cavity resonator can
2. Modified Ampere’s Law be excited by introducing a probe inside
3. Faraday’s Law the cavity at a location where
4. Gauss’ Law a. The electric field is a maximum
A B C D b. The electric field is a minimum
a. 1 2 3 4 c. The magnetic field is a maximum
b. 4 3 2 1 d. The magnetic field is a minimum
c. 1 3 2 4 46. Which one of the following is correct?
d. 4 2 1 3 Flat-top sampling of low pass signals
41. A wave propagating in a lossless dielectric a. Gives rise to aperture effect
has the field components: b. Gives rise to impulse over sampling
c. Leads to abasing
E 500 cos 107 t z axV / m and
d. Introduces delay distortion
500
H cos 107 t z a y A / m 47. Match List-I with List-II and select the
180 correct answer using the code given below
If the wave velocity is 1.5×108 m/s, the the lists:
medium has List I (Dicrete-time LTI system
a. r 4, r 1 Description with input x[n] and output
u[n]
b. r 3, r 4 / 3
A. y[n] = x[n] + x[n—1]
c. r 1, r 4 B. y[n)= x[n]
d. r 2.25, r 1 C. y[n] = y[n –1] + x[n]
6 of 14
D. y[n] = x[n] –y[n –1] List I
List II (System Transfer function) A. SID,SOD
1. 1/ 1 z 1 B. READY
C. TRAP
2. 1/ 1 z 1 D. ALE
3. 1 z
1 List II
1. Wait state
4. 1 2. Interrupt
A B C D 3. Serial data transfer
a. 4 3 2 1 4. Memory of I/O read/write
b. 3 4 1 2 5. Address latch control
c. 4 3 1 2 A B C D
d. 3 4 2 1 a. 3 1 5 2
2 s 1 b. 3 1 2 5
48. If F s 2 , then what are values
s 2s 5 c. 4 3 2 5
of f 0 and f respectively? d. 4 3 1 2
a. 0,2 53. A memory system of size 16 K bytes is
required to be designed using memory
b. 2,0
chips which have 12 address lines awl 4
c. 0,1 data lines each. What is the number of
d. 2/5,0 such chips required to design the memory
49. The lengths of two discrete time sequences system?
x1 (n) and x2 (n) are 5 and 7, respectively. a. 2
What is the maximum length of the b. 4
sequence x1 (.n) * x2 (n)?
c. 8
a. 5
d. 16
b. 6
54. Consider an N - bit carry look ahead adder.
c. 7 As N increases, the number of gates
d. 11 required grows in proportion to which one
50. Which one of the following statements is of the following?
correct? a. N
Spectral density of a real valued random b. N2
process has c. N
a. An even symmetry d. N4
b. An odd symmetry 55. Consider the following statements
c. A conjugate symmetry Microcontrollers support “embedded”
d. No symmetry applications because
51. Which of the following are correct for a 1. The control software is so small that it
semiconductor SRAM? can be embedded within the
1. It is volatile microcontroller’s ROM.
2. It needs refreshing 2. Since minimum external circuitry is
3. It is built using flip-flops. required, the microcontroller can be
Select the correct answer using the code embedded within a product.
given below: 3. A hard disc can be embedded within
a. 1,2 and 3 the computer system supporting the
b. 1 and 2 only application.
c. 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
d. 1 and 3 only correct?
52. Match List-I with List - II and select the a. 1, 2 and 3
correct answer using the code given below b. 2 and 3 only
the lists: c. 1 and 2 only
7 of 14
d. 3 only 61. Assertion (A): Bulk Si ingots are purified
56. How many locations of memory space are by the vertical zone refining process
there between locations B 123 and C 122 without using a crucible
inclusive? Reason (R): The vertical process of zone
a. 4K refining avoids the contamination of the
b. 8K material by the impurities which could be
c. 12K in the crucible material, if used.
d. 16K a. Both A and R are individually true and
57. Which one of the following statements is R is the correct explanation of A.
correct? b. Both A and R are individually true but
The ALE line of Intel 8085 R is not the correct explanation of A.
microprocessor is used to c. A is true but R is false
a. Latch the output of an I/O instruction d. A is false but R is true
into an external latch 62. Assertion (A) : A 16-bit data contained in
b. Deactivate the chip - select signal from a certain location of a computer memory
memory devices can be expressed in terms of four
c. Latch the 8 bits of address lines AD7- hexadecimal digits only
ADO into an external latch Reason (R): The hexadecimal number
d. Find the interrupt enable status of the system has a base that is four times the
TRAP interrupt base of binary number system.
58. In 8085 with 2 MHz clock frequency, what a. Both A and R are individually true and
is the time delay obtained after execution R is the correct explanation of A.
of 4 NOP instructions? b. Both A and R are individually true but
a. 4 s R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false
b. 10 s
d. A is false but R is true
c. 8 s 63. Assertion (A): Interstitial diffusion
d. 6 s decreases the life - time of minority
59. Match List-I with List-Il and select the carriers in the Si-wafer as compared to
correct answer using the code given below substitution diffusion process.
the lists: Reason (R): Interstitial diffusion does not
List I (Functional Unit) affect the lattice structure to the extent as
A. ALU the substitution diffusion process affects
B. I/O a. Both A and R are individually true and
C. Primary Memory R is the correct explanation of A.
List II (Technique /Function) b. Both A and R are individually true but
1. Interleaving R is not the correct explanation of A.
2. Boolean operations c. A is true but R is false
3. DMA d. A is false but R is true
A B C 64. Assertion (A): A universal motor is
essentially a d. c. series motor which can
a. 1 3 2
also be operated from a. c. source of same
b. 2 1 3 voltage, but needs certain modifications to
c. 1 2 3 counter the ill - effects of alternating
d. 2 3 1 fluxes in the yoke and poles, and the
60. Let A = 1111 1010 and B = 0000 1010 be transformer e.m.f. induced in the armature
two 8-bit 2’s complement numbers. What coils.
is their product n 2’s complement? Reason (R): The yoke and the main field
a. 1100 0100 of a universal motor are laminated, and,
b. 1001 1100 compensating and interlope windings are
c. 1010 0101 required to be placed in the quadrate-axis
d. 1101 0101 of the stator.
8 of 14
a. Both A and R are individually true and tooth, all of them having the same
R is the correct explanation of A. periodicity, the minimum bandwidth
b. Both A and R are individually true but corresponds to which one of the
R is not the correct explanation of A. following?
c. A is true but R is false a. Sinusoidal
d. A is false but R is true b. Rectangular
65. Coherent demodulation of FSK signal can c. Triangular
be effected using which one of the d. Saw-tooth
following? 72. Which one of the following statements is
a. Band pass filters correct?
b. Discriminatory detection Compared to a FDM system, a TDM
c. Correlation receiver system
d. Envelope detector a. Needs lower bandwidth
66. The Minimum Shift Keying (MSK) is b. Gives lower signal to noise ratio
special case of which one of the c. Gives higher signal to noise ratio
following? d. Uses simpler circuits
a. Amplitude Shift Keying 73. Which one of the following statements is
b. Phase Shift Keying correct?
c. Frequency Shift Keying Power spectral dentistry, appropriately
d. QAM normalized, has the properties usually
67. A super heterodyne receiver with an LF. of associated with a/an
450 kHz is tuned to a signal of 1200 kHz. a. Ergodic process
What is the image frequency? b. Autocorrelation
a. 750 kHz c. Profanity density function
b. 900 kHz d. Cumulative distribution function
c. 1650 kHz 74. What is the period of the function
d. 2100 kHz f t cos t 1 / 4 ?
68. In a PCM system, the signal to a. 8s
quantization noise ratio is to be held to a
b. 4s
minimum of 40 dB. The number of
c. 1/4s
quantization levels to achieve this, should
be close to which one of the following? d. 1/8s
a. 65 75.
b. 85
c. 105
d. 130
69. If AM index changes from 0.5 to 0.7, what
would be the change in ratio of the
transmitted power to carrier power?
a. 0.05 Which one of the following conditions
b. 0.08 must be satisfied by the optimal value of
c. 0.12 the time constant RC, if in the envelope
detector circuit shown above, the output e0
d. 0.15
of the detector follows the envelope of the
70. What is the autocorrelation function of a
modulating signal without clippings?
rectangular pulse of duration T?
a. A rectangular pulse of duration 2T 1 m 2
a. RC m
b. A rectangular pulse of duration T m
c. A triangular pulse of duration 2T
1 m 2
d. A triangular puise of duration T b. RC 1/ m
71. Out of the four signal waveforms - m
sinusoid, rectangular, triangular and saw-
9 of 14
m d. 1 and 3 only
c. RC 1/ m 80. What does a single bit magnitude
1 m
2
comparator have?
1 m 2 a. Two inputs and one output
d. RC 1/ m
m b. One input and two outputs
(Symbols have usual meaning) c. Two inputs and three outputs
76. An FM signal with sinusoidal modulation d. Three inputs and two outputs
is considered. The modulation frequency is 81.
6 kHz and the maximum deviation is 10
kHz. What is the band width (using
Carson’s rule)?
a. 8 kHz
b. 16 kHz
c. 32kHz
d. 64 kHz
On a 1 out of 4 selector, the signals w
77. What is the purpose of television through z have been connected as
interlacing? described above.
a. To produce motion of the picture The circuit realizes the logic function S in
b. To scan all the lines on the screen the variables w through z. In a Karnaugh
c. To avoid flicker map of four variables, the function S gives
d. To simplify synchronizing pulses what number of ones?
78. What is the purpose of Instrument Landing a. Six
System (ILS)? b. Seven
a. To pick up the radio transmission from c. Eight
one or more control centers to d. Nine
determine the course of the vehicle 82. Given that m denote midterm and M
b. To determine the delay in arrival of denotes maxterm, if
back scattered echo to calculate the
f x, y, z m0 , m2 m7
range of the vehicle
c. To guide vehicle in the runway by Which of the following statements are
beaming special radio single from the correct?
airport 1. f ' x, y, z M 0 M 2 , M 7
d. To measure the distance from the
2. f ' x, y , z M 0 M 2 , M 7
control centre using special equipment
using radio signals 3. f ' x, y , z M 1 M 3 , M 4 , M 5 , M 6
79. Consider the following statements about 4. f ' x, y, z m1 , m3 , m4 , m6
conductivity of a metal
1. Conductivity of divalent metals is Select the correct answer using the code
more than that for monovalent metals given below:
because the number of free electrons in a. 2 and 3
the former is more b. 3 and 3
2. Conductivity of metals decreases with c. 1 and 2
increasing temperature. d. 1 and 4
3. Mean free path of free electrons 83.
decreases with the addition of impurity
atoms leading to a decrease in
conductivity. V
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
10 of 14
A zener diode regulator given in the above For the OP-AMP circuit shown above,
figure is designed to meet the what is the value of the
specifications: amplification Av Vout / Vin ?
IL = 10mA, V0=10V and Vin varies from (Assume ideal OP-AMP)
30V to 50V. The zener diode has Vz=10V a. + 1
and Izk (knee current) = 1mA.
b. + 10
Which one of the following conditions is
c. + 11
approximately required for satisfactory
operation? d. – 10
a. R ≤ 1800 Ohms 87. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
b. 2000 Ohms ≤ R ≤ 2200 Ohms
the lists:
c. 3700 Ohms ≤ R ≤ 4000 Ohms
List I (COM positive devices)
d. R > 4000 Ohms
A. Parallel connection
84. Match List I with List II and select the
B. Cascode connection
correct answer using the code given below
the lists: C. Darlington connection
D. Cascade connection
List I (Biasing Circuit)
A. Base bias List II (Diagram)
B. Emitter-feedback
C. Collector-feedback bias
D. Voltage divider bias
List II (Characteristics)
1. Not used in linear circuits
2. Needs very large resistance
3. Universal bias
4. Self bias
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 2 1 4 3 A B C D
85. Consider the following: a. 4 3 2 1
External frequency compensation is used b. 1 2 3 4
in an OP-AMP to increase which of the c. 4 2 3 1
following? d. 1 3 2 4
1. Open-loop gain 88. Match List I with List II and select the
2. Stability correct answer using the code given below
3. Input impedance the lists:
4. CMRR List I (Amplifier)
Select the correct answer using the code A. RC-coupled amplifier
given below: B. Differential amplifier
a. 1 and 2 C. Cascade amplifier
b. 2 only D. Tuned amplifier
c. 4 only List II (Type of signals Amplified)
d. 3 and 4 1. Video
86. 2. Audio
3. Dc
4. Dc and audio
5. Narrow band
A B C D
a. 5 3 1 2
11 of 14
b. 2 1 4 5 B. Enables synchronous and
c. 5 1 4 2 asynchronous serial communication
d. 2 3 1 5 C. Has I/O ports which can be configured
89. Consider the following statements Proper as input ports, output ports or can be
biasing used to produce control signals
1. Stabilizes the operating point of the D. Can be programmed to handle all I/O
transistor tasks as well as carry out some data
2. Increases the dynamic range of the processing
transistor List II (Chip)
3. Changes the transistor into a linear 1. 8255
device 2. 8089
4. Reduces the distortion 3. 8259
Which of the statements given above are 4. 8251
correct? A B C D
a. 1, 2 and 3 a. 4 3 1 2
b. 1, 2 and 4 b. 3 1 2 4
c. 1, 3 and 4 c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2, 3 and 4 d. 3 4 1 2
90. A Silicon BJT has a leakage current 1cac 94.
of 10 nA at 300 C. If the temperature rises
to 600 C, what is the leakage current?
a. 20 nA
b. 40 nA
c. 80 nA
d. It shall remain unchanged
91. Which one of the following statement is A part of an electrical network has the
not correct? configuration shown in the figure above.
a. Horizontal microinstructions have long The voltage drops across the resistances
formats are 20 V, 30 V and 65 V with respective
b. Horizontal microinstructions have the polarities shown in the figure. Which one
ability to express a high degree of of the following gives the correct value of
parallelism the resistance R3?
c. Horizontal microinstructions are a. 13
broadly similar to RISC instructions b. 5
d. Horizontal microinstructions involve c. 65
little encoding of the control d. 65/17
information 95.
92. A computer takes 100 ns to access main
memory and 20 ns to access an associative
cache memory. With a 90% hit ratio, what
is the average access time?
a. 28 ns
b. 30 ns
c. 92 ns
d. 100 ns What is the current I in the circuit given
93. Match List-I with List-IT and select the above?
correct answer using the code given below a. 0
the lists: b. 1A
List I (Function) c. 2A
A. Continues to block lower priority d. 3A
interrupts until it receives an EOJ 96.
command
12 of 14
In the circuit shown above, the inductor
current is initially zero. The switch is
closed at t = 0. Which one of the following
gives the correct expression for the current
i(t) for t > 0?
a. 10 e – 0.5t
b. 10 (1– e –20t)
In the circuit given above when R is c. 10 (1– e – 05.t)
infinite, V= 4 volts and when R = 0, the d. 10
current through R is 4A. if R = 3 what is 100.
the current through it?
a. 4A
b. 3A
c. 2A
d. 1A
97.
b. 1.33 A 10
d. 2
c. 1.66 A s 2s 10
d. 2A 102. The transfer function of a phase-lead
99. 1 3Ts
compensator is given by G s
1 Ts
where T > 0
What is the maximum phase-shift provided
by such a compensator?
a. 30°
b. 45°
13 of 14
c. 60° 108. Consider the unit step response of a unity
d. 90° feedback control system whose open loop
103. The system matrix of a continuous time 1
transfer function is given by
0 1 s s 1
system is given by A
3 5 What are values of the natural frequency
What is the characteristics equation? of oscillation and the damping ratio?
a. s 2 5s 3 0 a. n 1, 1
b. s 2 3s 5 0 b. n 1, 0.5
c. s 2 3s 5 0 c. n 0.5, 1
d. s 2 s 2 0 d. n 0.5, 0.5
104. Which one of the following is correct? 109. What is the necessary and sufficient
A system with gain margin close to zero condition to guarantee the stability of a
dB or a phase margin close to zero degree discrete-time LTI system?
is
a. Highly stable a. | h K |
k
b. Oscillatory
c. Relatively stable
d. Unstable
b. | h K | 1
k
equation given by c. | h K |
k 0
s 3 4 s 2 K 10 s 5 K 0