CODE

JEE MAIN TEST-3 (JMT-3)

TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2014 0
COURSE : VIJETA (JP) REVISION TEST
Date : 22-12-2013 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 270

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 270.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
having 30 questions. Mathematics & Physics part consists of Two sections and Chemistry consists
One Section.
6. For each question in Section 1, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s)
corresponding to only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other
cases, (–1) marks will be awarded.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING

INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR
For each question in Section 2 , you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to only the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be
awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly
as per instructions 6 above.
Filling the Top-half of the ORS :
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ORS.
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the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS
in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball
point pen.
10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while
darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
12. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the
ORS.
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be taken as final.

Name of the Candidate Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information
shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.

-------------------------------- --------------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
 x
PART-A 2
4. Let f(x) =
 e (1 t ) dt and g(x) = f(h(x)) where
–2
h(x) is defined for all x  R. If g(2) = e4 and
SECTION - I
h(2) = 1 then absolute value of sum of all
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 24 questions. Each possible values of h(2) is

question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) (1) 2

for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is (2) 3

correct. (3) 4
(4) 0
1. The area bounded by the curves
21
x  y  1 and x + y = 1 is 5. = 693, where a1, a2, ......, a21 are in A.P.,
a
j 1
j

10
1 1 then a 2i 1 is
(1) (2)
3 6 i 0
(1) 330

1 5 (2) 363
(3) (4)
2 6 (3) 1386
(4) 333

2. If a, b, c, d  R then the equation

(x2 + ax – 3b)(x2 –cx + b)(x2 – dx + 2b) = 0 has sin 2x
6.  sin 5x sin 3x dx =
(1) 6 real roots (2) At least 2 real roots
(3) 4 real roots (4) 3 real roots (1) n sin 3x – n sin5x + c

1 1
100  (2) n sin 3x + n sin5x + c
3. The value of –1
x ]  [tan –1 x ] dx is (where 3 5
 [cot
0

[.] denotes greatest integer function)
1 1
(1) 100 + 1cot1 (2) 100 + 2cot2 (3) n sin 3x – n sin 5x = c
3 5
(3) 2cot2 (4) 100 – 2cot2
(4) 3 n sin 3x – 5 n sin 5x + c

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 1
7. The general solution of differential equation
(x6 y4 + x2)dy = (1–x5y5–xy)dx, is  x h x 
lim 1  4 4
10. h0 sin
 t dt  sin
 t dt  =
h  
x4y4  a a 
(1) ln |x| = xy + +C
4
(1) sin4x
x4y4
(2) ln |y| = xy + +C (2) 4 sin3x cosx
4
(3) 0
x5y5
(3) ln |x| = xy + +C
5
sin5 x
5 5
x y
(4)
5
(4) ln |y| = xy + +C
5

8. A spherical acetone drop evaporates at a rate 11. If ,  be the roots of x2 – x – 1 = 0 and

proportional to its surface area at that instant. An = n +  n, then A.M. of An–1 and An is

The radius of this drop initially is 3mm and after (1) 2An+1

one hour it is found to be 2 mm. If r(t) represents (2) (1/2)An+1

radius of the drop at time 't', Then (3) 2An–2

1
(1) r(t) = 3 – t (4) ( A n– 2 )
2
(2) r(t) = t – 3
(3) r(t) = 3 + t2 – 2t 12. Solution of the differential equation
3
(4) r(t) = 3 – t
dy
(2x – 10y3) + y = 0 is
dx
9. If x 1 , x 2 , x 3 ,....., x 2008 are in HP and
(1) (x - 2y3) . y2 = c
2007

 xx i i 1   x1x 2008 , then  is

3
i 1  2y 
(2)  x  5  y2 = c
 
(1) 2008
(2) 1998 (3) (x + 2y3) . y2 = c
(3) 1863
3
(4) 2007  2y 
(4)  x  5  y2 = c
 

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 2
13. If 2nd, 5th, and 9th terms of an A.P. are in G.P., 16. The sum to n terms of the series
then the sum of all possible ratios of the first 11 + 103 + 1005 + .......... is
term to the common difference of A.P.
1 1
(1) (10n – 1) + n2 (2) (10n – 1) + 2n
9 9 9
(1)
8

10 10
(2) 9 (3) (10n – 1) + n2 (4) (10n – 1) + 2n
9 9
(3) 8
(4) 1
 /2
 a – sin  
17. The value of the integral  log   d,
–  /2
 a  sin  
14. If ,  are the roots of the equation

  a > 1 is -
ax2 + bx + c = 0, then a  b + =
a  b (1) 0

2 2 (2) 1
(1) (2) –
c a (3) 2
2 2 (4) – 2
(3) (4)
a b

18. The set of values of p for which both the

15. Let S1, S2, ......Sn be squares such that for each
roots of the quadratic equation,
n  1, the length of a side of Sn equals the
length of a diagonal of Sn+1. If the length of a 4x2  20 px + (25p2 + 15p  66) = 0 are less

side of S1 is 10 cm, then for which of the than 2 will be

following values of n is the area of Sn less than (1) (4/5, 2)

1 sq. cm ? (2) (2, )
(1) 7 (3) ( 1, 4/5)
(2) 8
(4) (,  1)
(3) 6
(4) 5

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 3
19. Find the area covered by the curve 22. The area bounded by parabola y2 = x, straight
line y = 4 and y-axis is
y = max. {2 – x, 2, 1 + x} with x-axis from
x = –1 to x = 1 is 16
(1)
3
(1) 1/2

(2) 5/2 64
(2)
3
(3) 7/2
(3) 7 2
(4) 9/2
32
(4)
3
/2
20. The value of  x cot x dx is
0
23. The ratio in which the area bounded by the

(1) n2 curves y2 = 12x and x2 = 12y is divided by the

(2) – n2 line x = 3 is

(3) (n2)/2 (1) 15 : 49

(4) 2 n2 (2) 13 : 480

(3) 13 : 37
(4) 1 : 1
21. The degree and order of differential equation
of family of all parabolas whose axis is x-axis

are respectively 
n dx
24. The value of  f (x  x – n ) log x is
x
0
(1) 1,2

(2) 2,1 (1) 

(2) 1
(3) 1, 1
(3) –1
(4) 2, 2 (4) 0

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 4
 Paragraph for Question Nos. 27 to 28
SECTION - II A differential equation of the form
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based dy f ( x, y )
= g( x, y ) where f and g are homogeneous
open each paragraph, there are 2 questions. dx
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. function of x and y, and of the same degree,
is called homogeneous differential equaiton
Paragraph for Question Nos. 25 to 26
and can be solved easily by putting y = vx.

1 kn f  r 
If S = nlim    , (for k  N), then
n
27. The solution of the differential equation
 n r 0  

k r
dy x 2  xy  y 2
S =  f ( x ) dx . In this process transforms to = is
n
dx x2
0
1
x,  transforms to  and transforms to dx. x
n
(1) tan–1  y  = ny  c
 

1  2  2 n 
25. nlim  sin  sin 2  ......  sin 2  is y
 n  2n 2n 2n  (2) tan–1  x  = ny  c
 

equal to y
(3) tan–1  x  = nx  c
 
2 
(1) (2) y
 2 (4) sin–1  x  = nx  c
 

1
(3) (4) 1 28. The solution of the differential equation,
2

dy x( x 2  3 y 2 )
1 1/ n   0 is
26. nlim (n 2
 12 ) (n2  22 )(n2  32 ) ....... (n2  4n2 )  dx y( y 2  3 x 2 )
 n4

is equal to (1) x4 + y4 + x2y2 = c

2 tan 1 2
25e (2) x4 + y4 + 3x2y2 = c
(1) 2 n 5 + 2(tan–12) – 4 (2)
e4
(3) x4 + y4 + 6x2y2 = c
 2e  / 2 (4) x4 + y4 + 9x2y2 = c
(3) + (n 2) – 2 (4) 2
2 e

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 5
Paragraph for Question Nos. 29 to 30 29. If a, b be positive and a + b = 1 (a  b)

and If A = 3
a3b then the correct
We are giving the concept of arithmetic
statement is
mean of m th power. Let a, b > 0 and a  b
(1) A > 2 2/3
and let m be a real number. Then
22/3
m (2) A =
am  bm  a  b  3
2
  , if m  R ~ [0, 1]
 2 
(3) A < 2 2/3
However if m  (0, 1), then
(4) A = 2 2/3
m
am  bm  a  b 
 
2  2 
30. If x, y be positive real numbers such that
Obviously if m  {0, 1}, then x 2 + y 2 = 8, then the maximum value of
x + y is
m
am  bm  a  b 
  (1) 2
2  2 
(2) 4
If a = b then equality comes in all cases. (3) 6
On the basis of above information, (4) 8
answer the following questions :

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 6
 PART-B
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 24 multiple choice
questions. Each question has choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
32. An N-P-N transistor is connected in common
emitter configuration in which collector supply
is 9V and the voltage drop across the load
resistance of 1000 connected in the collector
circuit is 1 V. If current amplification factor is
(25/26), If the internal resistance of the transistor
is 200, then which of the following options is
incorrect :

31. In a Kundt’s tube distance between two IC

consecutive heap is  for air, while it is C

IB B
increased by 50% for a gas in the same tube VCE RL 1 V

with same resonite if speed of sound in air is RB E

+ – – +

1000 VBB VCC = 9V

m / s 1 then speed of sound in gas at same
3
(1) VCE = 8 V
temperature :
(2) collector current is 1.0 mA

50
(3) voltage gain , and power gain is 4.6
23

(4) emitter current is 2.04 mA

(1) 1500 m/s 33. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first

(2) 500 m/s becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow
(3) 1000 m/s and finally turns to white hot. The correct

(4) To calculate speed in gas degree of freedom explanation for the above observation is possible

and molecular mass of the gas is required by using :

(1) Wein’s displacement Law
(2) Kirchoff’s Law
(3) Newton’s Law of cooling
(4) Stefan’s Law

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 7
34. In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a 37. The half life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20 years.
voltage gain G, the transistor used has It decays into another stable element ‘Y’. The
transconductance 0.03 mho and current gain two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the
25. If the above transistor is replaced with ratio 1 : 7 in a sample of a given rock. Then age
another one with transconductance 0.02 mho of the rock is estimated to be :
and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be : (1) 60 years
(2) 80 years
1
(1) 1.5 G (2) G (3) 100 years
3
(4) 40 years
5 2
(3) G (4) G
4 3
38. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a
gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
35. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both Cp
temperature. The ratio of C for the gas is :
ends, then the following statement is not true: v

(1) Fundamental frequency will be inversely (1) 2

proportional to the length of pipe 5
(2)
( 2) All har m onics of t he f undamental 3
frequency will be generated
3
(3) Pressure change will be maximum at both (3)
2
ends
(4) Open end will be displacement antinode 4
(4)
3

36. If photon of energy E and an electron have same

energy E (kinetic energy), and De-Broglie 39. Vernier constant of the Vernier callipers is :
wavelength of an electron is e and De-Broglie
(1) least count of Vernier callipers
wavelength of photon is P. Then correct relation
(2) value of 1 division of main scale
between e and P is :
(3) value of 1 division of vernier scale
(1) P  e (2) P  e (4) None of these

1
(3) P  e (4) P  e2

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 8
40. The output(X) of the logic circuit shown in 42. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via
figure will be : three different processes as indicated in the
P-V diagram :

(1) X = A . B

(2) X = A . B If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat a absorbed by the

(3) X = A  B gas along the three processes and U1, U2,
U3 indicate the change in internal energy along
(4) 2X = A . B the three processes respectively , then
(1) Q1> Q2> Q3 and U1= U2= U3
41. A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2 and thickness (2) Q3> Q2> Q1 and U1= U2= U3
0.1 m is exposed on the lower surface to steam (3) Q1= Q2= Q3 and U1> U2> U3
at 100°C. A block of ice at 0°C rests on the upper (4) Q3> Q2> Q1 and U1> U2> U3
surface of the slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is
melted. The thermal conductivity of slab is 43. The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given
approximately : (Given latent heat of fusion of by
5
ice = 3.36 × 10 J kg ) –1

y  3 sin (50 t  x )
(1) 1.24 J/m/s/°C 2
Where x and y are in meters and t is in seconds.
(2) 1.29 J/m/s/°C
The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the
(3) 2.05 J/m/s/°C
wave velocity is
(4) 1.02 J/m/s/°C
(1) 2

3
(2) 
2

(3) 3

(4) 2 
3

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 9
44. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is
100 . Base current is changed by 40 A which
results in a change in collector current by 2mA.
This transistor is used as a common emitter
amplifier with a load resistance of 4 K. The
voltage gain of the amplifier is :
(1) 2000 (2) 3000
(3) 4000 (4) 1000
45. Figure shows isosceles triangle frame ABC of
two different material shown in figure. Thermal
expansion cofficient of the rod ADB is 1 and
for rod ACB is 2. End C is fixed and whole
system is placed on smooth horizontal surface
and D is midpoint of rod AB and CD is
perpendicular to the AB. If temperature of the
system is increase such as it is found that
distance CD remain fixed then.
46. The positron is the anti-matter counterpart of the
electron. It has the same mass as an electron
but the opposite charge. A photon is a particle of
light. It has no charge, but has non-zero energy
and momentum, proportional to the lights
frequency. Away from all other matter an electron
and positron moving towards each other with
equal and opposite velocities.
(1) can annihilate into one photon, conserving
both energy and momentum.
(2) can annihilate into one photon because
energy and momentum are not conserved in
quantum mechanics.
(3) cannot annihilate into one photon because
energy cannot be conserved.
(4) cannot annihilate into one photon because
momentum cannot be conserved.
47. If refractive index and dielectric constant of the
3
material of a glass slab is and 3 respectively
2
then magnetic permeability of the glass is (In SI
system)
(1) 5.32 × 10–7 (2) 3.94 × 10–7
(3) 10–7 (4) 9.42 × 10–7

48. Choose the correct statements from the following

(1) Good reflectors are good emitters of thermal
radiations
(2) Burns caused by water at 100ºC are more
severe than those caused by steam at 100ºC.
1 2 1 1
(1)   2  (2)   2  (3) All bodies emit thermal radiations at all
2 1 2 2

1 1 1 2 temperatures greater than 0 K.

(3)   (4)  
2 2 2 1 (4) It is possible to construct a heat engine of
100% efficiency.
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 10
49. In a decay process A decays to B, 51. A source emit sound waves of frequency
1000 Hz. The source moves to the right with a
A  B
speed of 32 m/s relative to ground. On the right
Two graphs of number of nucli of A and B versus
a reflecting surface moves towards left with a
time is given then, which of the following options
speed of 64 m/s relative to ground. The speed
is incorrect :
of sound in air is 332 m/s, then which of the
following options is incorrect :
(1) wavelength of sound in ahead of source is
0.3 m
(2) number of waves arriving per second which
meets the reflected surface is 1320
(3) speed of reflected wave is 268 m/s
(4) wavelength of reflected waves is nearly
(1) t2 – t1 = 4
0.2 m
(2) t2 – t1 = 2
(3) t1 = 2 log25 a  t2
52. p = :
bx
(4) t2 = log2100
p = pressure
50. Select correct statement regarding waves on a x = distance
string [all symbols have their usual meanings] : t = time
(1) Power transfer through any point in standing
a
wave is vVp2 find the dimensions of :
b
(2) Energy is not conserve between consecutive
(1) [M2 L T–3]
node and antinode
(2) [M T–2]
(3) Two travelling waves of same frequency
(3) [M L3 T–1]
which are moving in opposite direction must form
standing wave. (4) [L T–3]

(4) Speed of particle in travelling wave is

maximum where slope is maximum

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 11
53. Two longitudinal sinusoidal pressure waves one
having lower frequency of 2Hz & both travelling
in same direction through the same medium as
shown in figure are superimposed. Then the
difference in frequency of the two waves is -
(1) 1 Hz
(2) 2 Hz
(3) 3 Hz
(4) 4 Hz
54. Three samples of a radioactive substance have
activity in a ratio 2:5:7 , then after two half lives
the ratio of their activities will be :
(1) 2:5:7
(2) 1:3:5
(3) 7:5:2
(4) data insufficient
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based open
each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each
question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
RESONANCE
Paragraph for Question Nos. 55 to 56
A U–tube, open from both the ends, contains two
arms, arm–1 and arm–2 each of having equal
cross–section and height of each arm is 1m.
Water of density w and an unknown liquid of
density  is filled as shown.
A tuning fork of frequency 300 Hz is vibrated on
arm–1, then a loud sound of fundamental tone
is produced. If the same tuning fork is vibrated
on arm–2, again a loud sound of 1st overtone is
produced. (Vsound = 300 m/sec., g = 10 m/sec2,
density of water w = 103 kg/m3, atmospheric
pressure = 105 Pa). Neglect the effect of surface
tension and end correction.
55. Density of the unknown liquid () is :
(1) 2w (2) 2.5 w
(3) 3w (4) 3.5 w
56. Now we use a tuning fork of frequency 302 Hz,
instead of 300 Hz, with how much velocity should
we move the tuning fork, so that resonance is
created with the air column in any arm ?
(1) 2 m/sec. towards the tube
(2) 2 m/sec. away from the tube
(3) 4 m/sec. towards the tube
(4) 4 m/sec. away from the tube
JPJMT3221213C0 - 12
 Paragraph for Question Nos. 57 to 58 59. How many times maximum sound can be
A message signal of 12 kHz and peak voltage observed on line AB :
20 V is used to modulate a carrier wave of (1) 7
frequency 12 MHz and peak voltage 30 V. Then (2) 6
using the above information answer the following (3) 5
questions : (4) None of these

57. The modulation index in the given amplitude

modulation is : 60. If power of sources are same and equal to
(1) 1/5 (2) 2/3 7200  watt. Resultant intensity (in watt/m2) at

(3) 3/2 (4) 1 point B will be :

(1) ( 50  18 )2
58. The lower side band (LSB) frequency of
(2) ( 30  18 )2
modulated wave is :
(1) 11 MHz to 12 MHz (3) ( 50  18 )2
(2) 10 MHz to 12 MHz
(4) None of these
(3) 12.012 MHz to 12 MHz
(4) 11.988 MHz to 12 kHz

Paragraph for Question Nos. 59 to 60

Two coherent point sound sources S1 and S2

are placed as shown in the figure. Both are
emitting sound of frequency 165 Hz. S1 is ahead
of S2 in phase by -radian. (Speed of sound is
330 m/s)

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RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 13
 PART- C
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,
Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 questions. Each question has five choices (1), (2), (3), and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. Which of the following MO has lowest energy 64. Which of the following has been named
for B2 molecule ? correctly ?
(1) 2px (2) 2px (1) S2O32– thiosulphite ion
(3) 2py (4) 2py
(2) N3– nitride ion

62. Unequal bond lengths are present in : (3) HAsO3–2 monohydrogenarsenite ion
(1) BF3
(4) H2PO4– dihydrogenphosphite ion
2–
(2) CO 3
(present in CaCO3)
(3) HNO3
65. The oxide of an element which is stored
(4) SO42– under water and which exhibits allotropy is
a powerful ----------------.
63. In which of the following species, each atom
(1) dehydrating agent
carries same number of lone pair of
electrons on it? (2) reducing agent
(1) XeO42– (2) XeF2 (3) Fumigant
(3) XeO64– (4) O3
(4) Oxidizing agent

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RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 15
66. W hich of the following statements is 70. Which is not correctly matched ?
INCORRECT ? (1) Basic strength of oxides
(1) Complex [Co(NH 3) 4(H 2O)Cl]Br 2 can Cs2O<Rb2O< K2O < Na2O < Li2O
show both hydrate as well as ionization (2) Stability of peroxides
isomerism. Na2O2 < K2O2 < Rb2O2 < Cs2O2
(2) Complex [Co(NH3)5(H2O)](NO 3) 3 can (3) Stability of bicarbonates
show hydrate isomerism. LiHCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < RbHCO3 <
(3) Complex [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6] cannot show CsHCO3
coordination isomerism. (4) Melting point
(4) [Co(NH3) 4(NO 2)Cl]Cl can show both NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI
ionization as well as linkage isomerism. (1) 1 and 4 (2) 1 and 3
(3) 1 and 2 (4) 2 and 3
67. Usually a disilicate share only one oxygen
71. A substance X when heated with Y produces
of silicate unit. But if in the disilicate, two O
residue and odourless, gas which turns lime
atoms are shared, then formula of its salt
water milky. The silver nitrate is added to
with potassium is :
residue yellow precipitate is formed. X and Y
(1) K6Si2O7 (2) K4Si2O6
could be
(3) K2Si2O6 (4) K8Si2O8
X Y X Y
(1) MnO2 S (2) NaBrO3 C
68. Bubbling CO2 through which of the following
(3) KI S (4) Na2SO4 C
will produce a white precipitate :
(1) NaAlO2 (2) Na2CO3 72. An aqueous solution contains Al3+ & Zn2+
(3) NaOH (4) MgSO4 both. To this solution NH4OH is added in
excess.
69. When conc. HNO3 is treated with P4O10 it (1) only Al(OH)3 will be precipitated
forms (2) only Zn(OH)2 will be precipitated
(1) N2O (2) NO (3) both will be precipitated
(3) NO2 (4) N2O5 (4) no precipitate will appear

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RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 16
73. (I) When copper ore is mixed with silica, in
a reverberatory furnace copper matte is
produced. The copper matte contains
sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II).
(II) Zone refining is based on the principle
that impurities are more soluble in molten
metal than in solid metal.
(III) In the metallurgy of aluminium, graphite
anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and
carbon dioxide.
Correct statements amongs the following
are-
76. (I) V2O5, Cr2O3 are amphoteric oxides.
(1) I, II (2) II, III
(3) I, III (4) I, II
74. Among the following statements which is
INCORRECT :
(1) In the preparation of compounds of Xe,
Bartlett had taken O 2 PtF 6 as a base
compound because both O2 and Xe have
almost same ionisation enthalpy.
77. Na2S2O3. 5H2O Sodium thiosulphate is used
(2) Nitrogen does not show allotropy.
(3) A brown ring is formed in the ring test for
NO 3– ion. It is due to the formation of
[Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+
(4)On heating with concentrated NaOH
solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2, red
phosphorus gives PH3 gas.
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RESONANCE
75. W hich of the following statement is
incorrect.
(1) Be dissolves in alkali forming
[Be(OH)4 ]–2
(2) LiCl is soluble in pyridine.
(3) Alkaline earth metal Ion, because of their
much larger charge to size ratio exert a
much stronger electrostatic attraction on the
oxygen of water molecule surrounding them.
(4) BeF2 form complex ion with NaF in which
Be goes with cation.
(II) Interstitial compounds are very reactive
(III) In its higher oxidation states, manganese
forms stable compounds with oxygen and
fluorine.
Correct statements amongs the following
are-
(1) I, II (2) II, III
(3) I, III (4) I, II
in photography to :
(1) remove reduced silver
(2) remove undecomposed AgBr as soluble
silver thiosulphate complex
(3) convert the metallic silver to silver salt
(4) reduce the silver bromide grains to
metallic silver
JPJMT3221213C0 - 17
78. H2S reacts with lead acetate forming a black 81. Which of the following ions does not have
compound which reacts with H2O2 to form S–S linkage ?
another compound. The colour of the (1) S 2O 28 – (2) S 2O 26 –
compound is :
(3) S 2O 25 – (4) S 2O 23 –
(1) pink (2) black
(3) yellow (4) white
82. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct ?
79. (I) [ MnCl6 ]3 – , [ FeF6 ]3 – and [ CoF6]3 – are
(1) Chlorine dioxide (ClO 2) is powerful
paramagnetic having four , five and four
oxidising agent but bleaching action is lower
unpaired electrons respectively.
than Cl2
(II) Valence bond theory gives a quantitative
(2) ClO 2 in alkaline solution undergoes
interpretation of the thermodynamic
disproportionation.
stabilities of coordination compounds.
(3) SF4 has a square planar shape with S
(III) The crystal field splitting o , depends
having two lone pair of electrons.
upon the field produced by the ligand and
(4) Sulphur tetrafluoride hydrolysed by water
charge on the metal ion.
to give SO2 and HF
Amongs the following correct statements
are :
H O Solution
(1) I, II (2) I, III 83. Fe3+ + [Fe(CN)6]3– X 2 2  
 Z

(3) I, II, III (4) II, III

80. When [K]+ [AgF4]– is reacted with BF3 a red Y

solid is formed. This red solid on reaction Correct observation is
with Xe forms a brown solid and a fluoride (1) X : White Y and Z are same (blue)
(2) X : Brown Y and Z are same (blue)
of Xenon. This fluoride is
(3) X : Brown Y is blue, Z white
(1) XeF2 (2) XeF4 (4) X : White Y is brown, Z white
(3) XeF6 (4) XeF8

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RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 18
84. Which one is incorrect statement among the 87. When haematite ore is burnt in air with coke
following ? along with lime at 200°C, the process not
(1) PH5 , SCl6 and FCl3 do not exist. only produces steel but also produces an
important compound (A), which is useful in
(2) p  d bond is present in SO2 molecule.
making building materials. The compound
(3) 12 P–O bonds are present in P4O 6 (A) is -
molecule. (1) SiO2 (2) CaSiO3
(4) Bond angle in SiH4 less than that in CH4. (3) FeO (4) Fe2 O3

85. (I) [ Co(EDTA)] – has two optical isomers. 88. Which of the following is the correct order
(II) [Co(NH 3) 4 (NO 2) 2 ] + show linkage of ionisation energy :
isomers. (1) Be+ > Be (2) Be > Be+
(III) For [ Pt (py)(NH 3)(NO 2) Cl BrI], (3) C > Be (4) B > Be
theoretically fifteen different geometrical (1) 2, 3 (2) 3, 4
isomers are possible. (3) 1, 3 (4) None of these
(IV) [ Cr(H2O)4Cl2 ] Cl2. 2H2O can show
hydrate as well as ionisation isomerism. 89. In which of the following complex ion, the
Amongs the following correct statements are :
metal ion will have t 62g , e 0g configuration
(1) II, III (2) III
(3) I, III (4) I, II & III according to CFT:
(1) [FeF6]3– (2) [Fe(CN)6]3–
86. Identify the least stable ion amongst the (3) [Fe(CN)6]4– (4) None of these
following :
(1) Ne– (2) F– 90. Ammonia, on reaction with hypochlorite
(3) B– (4) C– anion can form :
(1) NO (2) NH4Cl
(3) N2H4 (4) HNO2

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RESONANCE JPJMT3221213C0 - 19