Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Mengoperasikan mesin induk dan mesin bantu dan sistem kontrol yang terkait
(Operate main andauxiliary machineryand associatedcontrol systems)
1. A ship has a medium speed engine and a controllable pitch propeller propulsion
system. What would the propeller pitch normally have to be at to allow starting
of the engine?
A. Zero
B. 25 % ahead
C. 10 % ahead
D. 25 % astern
2. After water-washing the turbocharger exhaust side it starts to vibrate even though
it was operating normally prior to the washing procedure. What is the most likely
cause of this problem?
A. The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not
properly cleaned
B. Water drain for washing system is blocked allowing water
to build up in the turbine casing.
C. The foundation bolts for the turbocharger are loose.
D. The turbocharger bearings are worn out.
3. Choose the option which most accurately completes the following statement. The
expansion tank in a closed cooling water system is designed to maintain a
6. In a diesel engine lubrication system the circulating pump normally takes suction
from the oil sump tank. Where would the oil normally pass to directly after the
pump?
A. Lube oil cooler.
B. Main thrust bearing.
C. The engine bearings.
D. The lub oil purifier.
7. The exhaust gas temperatures of all cylinders of a diesel engine are seen to be
high. Select, from the options given, the most likely cause of this.
A. Poor fuel oil quality.
B. High wear rate in one of the fuel injection pumps.
C. One of the fuel cams is worn.
D. Insufficient cooling of the main bearings.
8. The level in a diesel engine lubricating oil sump has increased noticably during
operation without any new oil being added. What action would you take?
A. Stop the engine and check for a fuel or water leak.
B. Continue normal operation.
C. Drain some oil from the engine to reduce the level.
D. Reduce the engine load and check for a fuel or water leak.
9. The lubricating oil in the bearing housing at the turbine end of a turbocharger
gets very dirty after only a few hours in service. What is the most likely reason
for this happening?
A. Damaged rotor shaft sealing bushes allowing exhaust gas
to leak into the bearing housing.
B. The wrong type of lubricating oil has been used.
C. The lubricating oil filling connection screw cap is missing.
D. The turbine end bearing is badly worn.
10. The main engine turbocharger speed has increased during the night while
operating in UMS mode. From the options given, what is the most likely cause of
this?
A. The engine load has increased due to external factors such
as current and wind.
B. The engine is operating on a different grade of fuel.
C. The engine load has reduced due to external factors such
as current and wind.
D. The governor signal has been overridden by the bridge.
11. What could be the most likely reason for an increase in the viscosity of a diesel
engine lubricating oil during operation?
A. Fuel oil leakage into the lub oil system.
B. Worn bearing shells.
C. Water-leakage into the lub oil system.
D. Increased lub oil temperature.
12. What could cause diesel engine lubricating oil to appear cloudy with a slightly
"milky" colour?
A. Water contamination of the system.
B. Fuel contamination of the system.
C. High temperature of the oil.
D. Oxidation of the oil.
13. What is likely to be the cause of black smoke from a diesel engine exhaust seen
at the funnel?
A. Incomplete combustion of the fuel.
B. Too much combustion air.
C. Water in the fuel.
D. Engine is burning some lubricating oil.
14. What is the purpose of an oil mist detector, OMD, as fitted to a diesel engine?
A. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown of any
potentially explosive atmosphere in the crankcase.
B. To check the efficiency of the crankcase extractor fan.
C. To detect scavenge air leakages from the piston rod
stuffing box.
D. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown in the event of
a crankcase explosion.
15. What is the purpose of diesel engine cylinder head safety valve?
A. To indicate and relieve excessive high pressure in the
cylinder to protect the engine frombeing damaged.
B. To allow adjustment of the cylinder pressure to a safe
working pressure.
C. To shut down the engine in the event of an unsafe
operating condition.
D. To shut off the fuel to a the cylinder in the event of a high
pressure fuel pipe leak.
16. What is the recommended range for the pH-value for the water in a diesel engine
cooling system engine cooling water be maintained?
A. Between 7 and 10.
B. Between 5 and 7.
C. Above 10
D. Below 5.
17. What would be the most probable cause of light, smoky exhaust from a diesel
engine?
A. Water carry over from charge air cooler to engine
cylinders.
B. Fouling of the charge air cooler.
C. Air in the fuel oil system.
D. The engine is overloaded.
18. What would be the most probable cause of the exhaust gas temperature from one
cylinder of a diesel engine being lower than normal?
A. The opening pressure for the injection valve for the
cylinder is set too high.
B. There is air in the fuel oil system.
C. The intake filter for turbo charger is partly fouled.
D. The camshaft chain is too slack.
19. When should adjustments to the fuel injection valve spring tension be made?
A. Only on the fuel injection valve test rig.
B. During engine operation when cylinder exhaust
temperatures need to be balanced.
C. During engine operation when cylinder maximum
pressures need to be balanced.
D. During engine operation when fuel timing to individual
cylinders needs to be adjusted.
20. Which of the following options would be the cause of a low exhaust temperature
in one cylinder of a diesel engine?
A. Faulty fuel injection valve.
B. Faulty turbocharger.
C. Poor quality fuel.
D. Charge air cooler fouled on air side.
22. Which would be the most suitable point in the system to obtain a representative
of diesel engine lubricating oil for analysis?
A. From the lubricating system pipeline on the discharge side
of the circulating pump.
B. From the lubricating oil filter drain.
C. From the lubricating oil cooler drain.
D. From the lubricating oil purifier outlet.
23. Why are duplex filters usually employed in the lubricating oil system of an
auxiliary diesel engine?
A. Changing of the filter element can be carried out without
interrupting engine operation.
B. It gives better filtration of the oil.
C. The pressure drop is half that of a single filter unit.
D. Filter blockage will not occur.
24. Why is it necessary to have routine testing of diesel engine cooling water
systems?
A. To ensure that the recommended levels of treatment
chemicals are maintained at all times.
B. To detect water leakage from the system.
C. It is not really necessary to test diesel engine cooling water
systems.
D. To check for oil contamination of the system.
25. With reference to diesel engine ancillary system operation, which one of the
given statements is true?
A. The normal jacket water temperature before the jacket
water cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C.
B. The normal scavenge air temperature after the charge air
cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C.
C. The normal temperature of the lubricating oil before the
lub oil cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C.
D. The normal temperature of heavy fuel oil after the fuel oil
heater is approximately 80 to 90 C.
26. With reference to non-VIT diesel engine high pressure fuel pumps that have helix
control, how is the timing of fuel injection normally adjusted?
A. By raising or lowering the pump plunger relative to the
pump barrel.
B. By rotating the pump plunger relative to the pump barrel.
C. By changing the governor output signal.
D. By changing the opening pressure setting for the fuel
injection valves.
27. In a circuit diagram of a simple hydraulic circuit, which of the alternatives does
the following symbol indicate?
A. Double check valve.
B. Throttle valve.
C. Pressure relief valve.
D. Directional control valve.
28. A piston ring set for a trunk piston engine often includes a slotted ring tensioned
by an internal spring. What is the purpose of this type of piston ring?
A. It is an oil control ring.
B. It is the lowest compression ring.
C. It is a ring to seal the crankcase from the combustion
chamber.
D. It is the firing ring.
29. During the cycle of a four stroke diesel engine there is a load reversal on the
bottom end bearing when the load transfers from the upper part of the bearing to
the lower part. What is the main cause of this load reversal on a modern,
turbocharged, medium speed diesel engine?
A. The lack of gas load to oppose the inertial forces generated
during the exhaust stroke.
B. The suction effect on the piston during the air intake
(induction) stroke.
C. The inertial forces generated during the upward strokes of
the piston (compression and exhaust strokes).
D. The light alloy materials used for the piston skirt.
30. During the normal operating cycle of a diesel engine there are side thrusts
generated by the piston as it moves up and down the cylinder due to the changing
angle of the connecting rod. How are these side thrusts accommodated in a trunk
piston engine?
A. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the
engine frame by the piston skirt in way of the gudgeon pin.
B. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the
engine frame by the piston rings.
C. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the
engine frame by the piston crown.
D. The side thrust is transmitted to the engine frame by the
crosshead bearing.
31. Many modern medium and high speed diesel engines operate at very high power
ratings resulting in relatively high bearing loads. In order to accommodate these
loads the bearings are required to have a high load carrying capacity. What kind
of bearings are normally used for main and bottom end purposes to achieve this?
A. Thin steel shells lined with aluminium tin alloys.
B. Thick white metal types with the white metal cast into the
keeps to give extra fatigue strength.
C. Thin steel shells with a thin white metal lining.
D. Thin steel shells with a copper lead lining and a running in
overlay.
32. Some main propulsion medium speed engine installations operate with a
hydraulic oil type fluid coupling between the engine and the reduction gearbox
instead of a mechanical clutch. With this type of installation a separate flexible
coupling is not normally fitted. Why is a separate flexible coupling usually
omitted from this type of installation?
A. The hydraulic fluid in the coupling isolates the gearbox
from the engine vibrations.
B. There is insufficient room to fit a flexible coupling
between the engine and gearbox when a fluid coupling is
fitted.
C. There is natural slippage between the drive and driven
parts of the fluid coupling and a flexible coupling would
prevent this slippage.
D. There are no engine torque variations in the drive when a
fluid coupling is used so a flexible coupling is not
required.
35. The Total Base Number (TBN) is important as a measure of neutralizing ability
of a diesel engine lubricating oil against strong acids formed during combustion.
What action should be taken if the results from an oil analysis show that the TBN
of the lubricating oil has reduced slightly?
A. Freshen up the system by draining of some of the oil and
adding a quantity of fresh oil.
B. Purify the system oil in a centrifuge.
C. Take another lub oil sample and send it for analysis.
D. Pump the oil to a renovating tank and allow any
contaminants to settle out and refill the system with new
oil.
36. What is the reason for fitting 'Rotocaps' to the cylinder head valves of some 4-
stroke diesel engines?
A. To extend the service life of the valves by giving even heat
and wear distribution.
B. To rotate the inlet valves during operation to improve air
turbulence in the cylinder.
C. To help clear the cylinder of exhaust gas by spinning the
exhaust valves during opening.
D. To prevent seizure of the cylinder head valves by keeping
the valve spindles clean.
37. When operating a propulsion installation consisting of medium speed diesel
engines driving a controllable pitch propeller it is possible to operate the
combination of engine speed and propeller pitch in a number of different ways.
What would be the main reason for operating with constant speed and variable
pitch?
A. To allow constant speed operation of a shaft generator
while the engine load changes with pitch variation.
B. To obtain maximum propeller efficiency over the load
range of the engine.
C. To allow the engine to be operated with a load sensing
governor instead of a speed sensing governor.
D. To allow rapid load change and thrust reversal when
manoeuvring.
38. Which of the given statements is true in relation to the features and operation of a
4 stroke diesel engine ?
A. The camshaft rotates with half the RPM of the crankshaft
in a 4 stroke engine.
B. A 4 stroke engine has an ignition towards the end of every
upward stroke of the piston.
C. A 4 stroke engine always has scavenge ports near the
bottom of the cylinder liner.
D. 4 stroke engines are not required to have crankcase relief
valves fitted.
39. Which symptoms would indicate piston blow-by when operating a 4 stroke trunk
piston type engine ?
A. Increased pressure in the crankcase and smoke at the
crankcase vent.
B. Increased pressure in the air inlet manifold.
C. Increased temperature in the inlet air manifold on the
engine.
D. Smoke and sparks from the scavenge manifold drains.
40. A slow speed diesel engine is fitted with a slow turning facility. How would the
slow turning normally be set to operate?
A. It should automatically operate before the normal
start sequence following an engine stopped period
of more than 20 to 30 minutes when manoeuvring.
B. It should automatically operate before every normal
start sequence.
C. It should automatically operate every 20 minutes when the engine is stopped
during manoeuvring.
D. It should be manually operated before the normal start sequence following an
engine stopped period of more than 10 minutes.
41. It should be manually operated before the normal start sequence following an
engine stopped period of more than 10 minutes. In the event of a severe scavenge
fire, which of the following is most likely to be seriously damaged?
A. Piston rod and stuffing box.
B. Exhaust valve.
C. Piston crown.
D. Crosshead bearing.
42. Large slow speed diesel engines are usually of the crosshead type and have
various arrangements to deliver lubricating oil directly to the crosshead bearings
and guides to ensure adequate lubrication. Why are the crosshead bearings
considered differently to the other bearing in this type of engine in respect of
lubrication requirements?
A. The running surfaces oscillate relative to each other
during operation rather than rotate and therefore full
film hydrodynamic lubrication is not possible.
B. The lubricating oil has further to travel to the crosshead bearing and so a
separate arrangement is necessary
C. The crosshead bearing is more heavily loaded than other bearings in the
engine so requires more oil to keep it cool.
D. The crosshead bearing is closer to the engine cylinder and therefore runs
hotter.
43. Many large 2 stroke marine diesel engines are equipped with an auxiliary
scavenge air blower. What is the purpose of this equipment?
A. To provide combustion air at start up, during manouevring
and low load running when the turbocharger delivery is
insufficient.
B. To assist the main turbochargers in supplying combustion
air when on full load.
C. To allow full load running when the main turbocharger is
defective..
D. To help cool the engine after it has been stopped.
44. Many large slow speed diesel engines operating on heavy fuel oil have a fuel
injection system which features Variable Injection Timing. How does this affect
engine operation?
A. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically
maintaining the maximum cylinder pressure over
part of the load range.
B. VIT improves engine operation by automatically controlling the start of fuel
injection when it detects a poor quality fuel.
C. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically maintaining the maximum
cylinder pressure over the entire load range.
D. VIT allows the ship's engineers to alter the injection timing for each load
setting with a simple single adjustment of the fuel rack.
45. any modern large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion operate
with a so called constant pressure turbocharging system. What is meant by
constant pressure when used to describe such a turbocharging system?
A. Pressure variations at the turbocharger inlet are
damped out due to the large volume of the exhaust
receiver and the short lengths of pipe from
individual cylinders.
B. Pressure variations in the scavenge air supply are avoided by supplementing
the air supply with air from the auxiliary blowers so keeping a constant
pressure across the load and speed range.
C. The exhaust pipes from groups of three cylinders are joined together before
entry into the turbocharger so that the exhaust pulses from each cylinder
cancel each other giving a constant inlet pressure.
D. The exhaust gas pressure is maintained constant by using a bypass waste gate
to dump excess pressure at high engine loads.
46. Modern large slow speed diesel engines operate with very efficient
turbochargers. This has resulted in much later opening of the exhaust valve as
less energy is needed to drive the turbocharger giving exhaust timing which is
almost symmetrical about bottom dead centre. How has this affected the
reversing operation of the engines?
A. Only the fuel and starting air timing needs to be
changed to reverse the engine.
B. It has no effect and the reversing requirements of
the engine are still the same.
C. The engine can be reversed by simply repositioning the main camshaft.
D. Only the air start distributor has to be repositioned prior to reversing the
engine.
47. Modern slow speed, two stroke diesel engines often have locating pins or pegs to
keep the piston rings in a fixed position. Why is this arrangement used?
A. It avoids the risk of the ends of the piston rings
being forced out by the gas pressure and catching
on the scavenge ports.
B. The piston rings are more difficult to lubricate
because of the slow operating speeds and will wear
more quickly if they are allowed to rotate.
C. The piston ring gaps can be kept in line to control the gas pressure on each of
the rings.
D. It ensures the rings cannot be mixed up and that they are fitted in the correct
order on the piston.
48. The majority of large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion
purposes are direct drive to a fixed pitch propeller? What is the main reason for
this arrangement?
A. A fixed pitch propeller can operate with reasonable
efficiency at the same sort of speed as the engine.
B. Controllable pitch propellers cannot be used with
large slow speed diesel engines which can be
reversed.
C. The amount of power that needs to be transmitted would overload a gearbox.
D. There is usually only one engine sin this arrangement and so clutches are not
required.
49. What is one of the main features of the cylinder lubricating oil used in large 2
stroke marine diesel engines which normally operate on heavy fuel oil?
A. It is strongly alkaline.
B. It is strongly acidic.
C. It is neutral with a pH value of 7.
D. It is a pure mineral oil without any special additives.
50. What is the main reason for sometimes having a separate forced lubrication
system for the camshaft on large cross head engines?
A. To prevent any fuel leakage from the high pressure
fuel pumps contaminating the oil in the main
lubrication system.
B. Because the camshaft system uses a different grade
oil from that used in the main lubrication system.
C. To prevent the camshaft system being contaminated with any water leaking
into the main lubrication system from faulty cylinder liner seals.
D. Because the camshaft lubrication system has a lower pressure than the main
lubrication system.
51. Why is it important to check the timing of diesel engine cylinder oil lubricators?
A. To ensure cylinder lubricating oil enters the
cylinders when the piston is in the required position.
B. To ensure the correct amount of cylinder lubricating
oil is fed into the cylinders.
C. To avoid excess pressure in the cylinder lubrication system.
D. To ensure the piston is not covering the lubrication points and blocking the
flow of cylinder lubricating oil into the cylinder.
52. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to be
50 ppm. What action should be taken if any?
A. No action is necessary.
B. Increase the dosage of treatment chemicals.
C. Blow down the boiler and reduce the dosage of
treatment chemicals.
D. Shut down the boiler and drain the water out before
filling with fresh feed water.
53. Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of the double
shut off type with one screw lift valve and one screw down non-return valve.
What is the main function of the non-return valve?
A. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from
discharging out through the feed line if the feed line
fractures or a joint in the line blows.
B. To allow overhaul of the screw lift valve when the non-return valve is shut
and the boiler is steaming.
C. To prevent back pressure on the boiler feed pump..
D. To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler.
54. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is most
accurate in relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers.
A. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally
contain less water than fire tube boilers. They are
prone to major damage when run dry during
operation.
B. A firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at higher steam
pressure.
C. A watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time without any water when
the burner is operating.
D. A firetube boiler does not require a non-return valve in the feedwater line.
55. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler?
A. Every day.
B. Every week.
C. Every hour.
D. Every hour.
56. Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is 500 ppm.
What action should be taken?
A. Blow down boiler and check the condenser for
leakage.
B. Increase dosage of treatment chemicals.
C. Increase feed water temperature.
D. Decrease dosage of treatment chemicals.
57. Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be most
beneficial?
A. When the boiler is firing on high rate.
B. When the boiler burner is off.
C. When the boiler is firing on low rate.
D. When the boiler is firing on medium rate.
58. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a pH value of less than 9?
A. Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment
chemicals until the pH value is back within normal
range.
B. Blowdown the boiler and refill with good
feedwater.
C. No action is required.
D. Reduce the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the pH is back
within normal range.
59. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the pH-value in
the boiler water is slightly over 11.5?
A. Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of
boiler water treatment chemicals.
B. No action is required this is the normal level.
C. Blowdown the boiler and Increase the dosage of
boiler water treatment chemicals.
D. Raise the boiler water level above normal to dilute
the contents.
60. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler
water?
A. Conductivity test.
B. Alkalinity test.
C. Chloride test.
D. pH test
61. What is the correct range for the pH-value for the water in an oil fired steam
boiler?
A. 9 - 11.
B. 4.5 - 7.
C. Below 4.5
D. 7 9
62. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system?
A. It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces
with the risk of overheating.
B. It causes corrosion of steel in the boiler.
C. It increases scale deposits in the boiler.
D. It causes the gauge glasses to become dirty preventing the operator from
seeing the water level.
63. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system?
A. To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from
the feed water.
B. To provide a dosage point for feed water treatment.
C. To reduce the total dissolved solids in the feed water.
D. To act as the primary feed heater.
64. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure steam
boiler?
A. To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater
when raising steam pressure or when the boiler is
not on-line.
B. To remove air from the superheater.
C. To remove water from the superheater.
D. To control the superheater pressure during operation.
65. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based
compounds present in boiler water and proper water treatment is not carried out?
A. It will cause corrosion and scale deposits in the
boiler.
B. It will form passive layers on the metal surfaces in
the boiler.
C. It will reduce the TDS in the boiler.
D. No negative effects are likely.
66. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler?
A. To allow removal of any oil or impurities which
collect on the surface of the water in the boiler
steam drum.
B. To allow removal impurities from the boiler feed-
water
C. To allow removal of sludge and mud which may
collect in the bottom of the boiler water drum.
D. To allow removal of oil from the surface of the feed water tank.
67. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant?
A. To heat the feed-water
B. To desuperheat the steam
C. To heat the fuel oil
D. To heat the combustion air.
68. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler furnace?
A. To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect
tubes and other fittings from overheating.
B. To give added strength to the furnace.
C. To support the steam drum.
D. To ignite the burner during automatic operation.
69. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner unit
of oil or gas fired steam boilers?
A. To check that the flame is present during start up or
normal operation of the burner; if not then fuel is
shut off automatically.
B. To check the colour of the flame.
C. To control the combustion air supply to the boiler.
D. To check the colour of the exhaust gas from the furnace.
70. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water
tests?
A. At room temperature.
B. As hot as possible.
C. It makes no difference.
D. At less than room temperature.
71. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater causing
condensate to build up in the heat exchanger?
A. Reduced heating capacity of the heater.
B. An increase in fuel oil temperature.
C. Excess pressure on the shell of the heat exchanger.
D. Low water level in the boiler.
72. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from?
A. From the boiler water space.
B. From the boiler steam space.
C. From the boiler feed system.
D. From the blowdown line.
83. What liquid is used to clean the turbo charger of a large low speed main engine?
(high speed air side, half speed gas side)
A. Oil
B. A chemical mixture of oil and water
C. A chemical mixture of acid and water
D. Water
84. The force tending to twist the material such as the force on a shaft is called:
A. tensile stress.
B. torsional stress.
C. bending stress.
D. compressive stress.
86. Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing in a current of air which provides
clean air for the next compre
A. cycle.
B. scavenging.
C. expansion.
D. compression.
87. The last stroke of two-
A. air stroke.
B. compression stroke.
C. power stroke.
D. ignition stroke.
88. If the cooling water temperature goes below its recommended value, what can
happen ?
A. Condensation of sulphuric acid
on the cylinder walls
B. The fuel pumps may be clogged
C. Condensation of lubricating oil
on the cylinder walls
D. The engine cannot be started again
89. If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can
happen ?
A. The blower will slow down
B. A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on
the cylinder walls
C. The expansion tank will be emptied
D. Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will
create black exhaust smoke
90. Which mode of automatic temperature control is used for this Jacket Cooling
Water system ?
A. Keeping outlet temperature constant by
regulating on the outlet
B. Keeping outlet temperature constant by
regulating on the inlet
C. Keeping inlet temperature constant by
regulating on the inlet
D. Keeping inlet temperature constant by regulating on the outlet
91.
A. The Piston Cooling Water Pump
B. The Sea Water Cooling Pump
C. A Water Strainer
D. The Jacket Cooling Water Pump
93. What absorbs the impact of the up-and-down movement of the piston telescopic
pipes in this water flow system ?
94. If the system pressure is 3.5 kglcm2, what will be the pressure in the buffer
vessels ?
A. Fluctuating around 3.5 kg/cm2
B. Lower than 3.5 kg/cm2.
C. Exactly the same, 3.5kg/cm2
D. Higher than 3.5 kg/cm2.
95. Why there an indicating flap 'IF" (shown with arrow up and arrow down) fitted
on the outlet of the piston water buffer tank ?
A. To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order.
B. To indicate if the pump mis-running
C. To indicate that the engine is running
D. To indicate that the buffer air in the system is in order.
96. What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or
stops ?
A. The level will at first decrease but increases again.
B. Nothing will happen
C. The level will increase
D. The level will decrease.
97. How are the crosshead bearings supplied with lubricating oil ?
A. Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod
B. Direct from the lub oil main line
C. Independently
D. From the camshaft lub oil line
98. How is the gear train lubricated ?
101. What is the function of the value PR close to the lubrication oil pump ?
A. A vane pump
B. A gear or worm wheel pump
C. A piston pump
D. A centrifugal pump
103. What type of scavenge air system is applied to this diesel engine ?
A. Compounded scavenging
B. None of the above
C. Uniflow scavenging
D. Loop scavenging
A. Split type
B. Booster type
C. Impulse type
D. Constant pressure type
106.
A. TE6
B. TE
C. TE1
D. TEB
108. What do you think would be a reasonable scavenge air pressure for this engine
running at full speed?
A. 7.0 kg/cm2
B. 25 kg/cm2
C. 1.25 kg/cm2
D. 0.25 kg/cm2
109. What might be a reasonable value for the scavenge air temperature of this diesel
running at full speed ?
A. 45 degrees C
B. 420 degrees C
C. 75 degrees C
D. 28 degrees C
110. Under normal running conditions, what pressure is the air entering the exhaust
gas
112. The scavenge air compressed in the turboblower is cooled down in the scavenge
114. In
116. Why can the temperature of the scavenge air after the scavenge air cooler not be
lowered below a given temperature and why has the temperature to be regulated
above this value ?
118. For a turbo charger is running at full speed, what would be a usual oil sump
temperature on the turbine side ?
A. 45 to 50 degrees C
B. 72 to 82 degrees C
C. 35 to 45 degrees C
D. 55 to 65 degrees C
119. When you read a crankshaft deflection figure and the + sign is indicated, for
120. What are the two most important factors influencing the crankshaft deflection
readings ?
122. What is the purpose of a safety valve fitted in the cylinder cover of a diesel
engine ?
A. To release gas from the cylinder by operating
turning gear
B. To open in port so the engine cannot be started
C. To release excessive gas pressure from the cylinder
D. To drain off water and condensate from the
cylinder
124. At which moment exactly does the safety value of a diesel engine opens ?
A. When the gas pressure in the engine exceeds the
spring pressure
B. When fuel was retained previously in the cylinder
C. When too much starting air is admitted
D. At top dead point of the cylinder by max firing
pressure
125. In which stage of its working process is this two-stroke diesel engine ?
A. Gas expanding
B. Compressing
C. Scavenging
D. Firing
127. If you are taking crankshaft deflections, for which position will you list the
reading which was last taken if the engine turns counterclockwise ? Right is PS,
left is SB.
A. Zero
B. S
C. P
D. TS
131. What would you call the assembly fitted on the piston rod, which fits into a
flange on top of the crankcase block opening through which the piston rod moues
in order to secure tightness ?
A. The piston rod stuffing box
B. The crankcase sealing assembly
C. The piston underside values
D. The scavenging air value box
132. During normal operation, the telescopic piping of this diesel engine's piston are
133. What should you inspect and measure on the piston crown, when overhauling
this main engine piston ?
A. The scavenge and exhaust ports, the piston/ring
grooves
B. Cylinder liner wear, ring groove clearance,
piston rod ovality
C. The rubbing bands, the oil and the carbon,
stuffing box
D. Ovality, burning marks and pitting, piston ring/groove clearance
134. What is the purpose of the starting value fitted on the cylinder head of a diesel
engine ?
A. To allow air from the main air bottle to enter the cylinder
directly
B.
position
C. To allow starting air of 25 kg/cm2 into the cylinder if
applicable
D. To activate the main air starting value fitted on the engine
135. At what moment will the cylinder head starting air valve, shown here, open and
allow 25 kg/cm2 to flow into the cylinder ?
A. When the control air on top is vented by the starting cam
B. When control air is supplied to the top connection
C. When the main starting air is opened from the bottle
D. When 25 kg/cm2 air is supplied on top by manoeuvring
136. How is the air-tightness of the sliding piston (moved by control air pressure and
spring) ensured in starting air values of this type ?
A. Teflon seats are fitted
B. Labyrinth seals are fitted
C. O-ring seals are fitted
D. Piston rings are fitted
137. What kind of periodic activity needs to be carried out on the main engine prior to
manoeuvering with regard to the starting air system ?
A. See that the cyl starting valve is moving by air hose
connection
B. Check if the valves are moving freely with a torque spann
C. Open up the main and cyl head starting valve and clean
pistons
D. Grease the valves by grease cup or grease gun, drain
moisture
138. How are starting air values made gas tight in the cylinder heads of diesel
engines?
A. They are screwed into the cylinder head and asbestos sealed
B. A copper gasket is fitted
C. By face to face, hydraulic pressure applied.
D. Teflon or Viton seal rings are fitted
A. Cross scavenging
B. Transversal scavenging
C. Loop scavenging
D. Single valve uniflow
140. What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top centre drawing ?
A. Cross scavenging
B. Four-way uniflow
C. Transversal
D. Loop scavenging
141. What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top right drawing ?
A. Loop scavenging
B. Traverse scavenging
C. Uniflow scavenging
D. Cross scavenging
142. What kind of scavenging system is shown on the bottom left drawing ?
A. Loop scavenging
B. Cross scavenging
C. Transverse scavenging
D. Uniflow scavenging
143. What kind of scavenge air system is shown on the right bottom drawing ?
A. Unitlow scavenging
B. Loop scavenging
C. Balanced scavenging
D. Cross scavenging
145. How is it ensured that the flow of the scavenge air is directed symmetrically
through the cylinder ?
A. By the uniflow system
B. By the reverse system
C. By the scavenge port shape
D. By the turbocharger
146. What common name is given for this type of fuel pump ?
A. Bosh type fuel pump
B. Rotating plunger type fuel pump
C. Plunger type fuel pump
D. M.A.N. type fuel pump
147. What determines the amount of fuel pumped per stroke with this fuel pump ?
A. The setting of suction and overflow valve
B. The lifting height of the plunger
C. The setting of the overflow valve
D. The rotating angle of the plunger in the
barrel
150. What is the mechanism that moves the injection needle upwards in the injector
and causes the injector to spray fuel under pressure into the cylinder ?
A. The balance pressure obtained
by the injector spring
B. The mechanical force of the fuel
cam
C. The hydraulic pressure in the
fuel line
D. The lifting pressure of the pump
plunger
153. The upward movement caused by the fuel cam is transferred to the plunger via
A. barrel
B. plunger spring
C. roller
D. cam lever
A. fuel cam
B. suction valve
C. overflow valve
D. pipe plunger
156. As an engine runs the position of the crankshaft changes constantly with respect
157. What is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head known as when the
piston is at bottom dead center ?
A. Any of these
B. The stroke
C. The compression clearance
D. The combustion clearance
158. In an engine operation, what is the effect called that describes the unstable
operation of the governor that will not maintain a steady state condition ?
A. Stability
B. Sensitivity
C. Deadbeat
D. Hunting
159. In a diesel engine using a constant stroke fuel pump, to increase the firing
pressure or maximum pressure in the cylinder the fuel pump plunger is adjusted
by..
A. changing plungers.
B. lowering the plunger.
C. lifting the plunger.
D. cleaning and lubricating the plunger.
160. When a new cylinder liner is fitted to a 2-stroke engine, which of the following
steps should be taken ? I. Increase the cylinder oil flow. II. Reduce the cylinder
load. III. Reduce the oil flow.
A. I, II and lII
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
161. When checking the tightness of nuts and bolts during a the quickest and most
164. Broken piston rings on diesel engines, if not visibly broken, can be identified
165. Fire in the scavenging chambers of diesel engines may be caused by combustion
A. locked stuffing box drain piping or worn stuffing box ear rings or sealing
rings.
B. slow combustion caused by poor injection.
C. excessive lubrication of the cylinder liner.
D. wrong grade fuel oils used for extended period in the engine.
166. Diesel Engine crankcase oil mist detectors are designed to
A. the temperature of the bearings in the crankcase.
B. the temperature of the oil in the crankcase.
C. the concentration of oil vapours in the crankcase.
D. fire risk in the crankcase.
167.
A. from left to right.
B. from bottom to top.
C. from right to left.
D. from top to bottom.
168. Which part of a diesel engine keeps the engine speed constant regardless of the
engine load ?
A. The manoeuvring controller
B. The vibration damper
C. The flywheel
D. The governor
169.
A. manoeuvring disc.
B. fuel supply.
C. control air supply.
D. governor.
170. Putting additives into diesel engines cooling water is primary designed to
A. freezing.
B. leakages.
C. scaling.
D. overheating.
171. In the Main Engine sea water circuit why are the Lub Oil and the Scavenge air
coolers fitted in front of the jacket and piston water coolers ?
A. The Scavenge air and Lub Oil coolers have by-pass valves fitted
B. For no particular reason
C. They need more cooling water
D. The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower
A. Number 6
B. Number 7
C. Number 1
D. Number 4
A. A double valve
B. A controllable thermostat
C. A thermostat
D. A three way valve
A. Number 4
B. Number 7
C. Number 1
D. Number 6
177. Pipe number 8 is connected to the salt water cooling system. Why ?
A. To back flush the cooling water system
B. For use in an emergency only
C. Any of the above
D. To operate the cooling system with salt
water during cleaning of the fresh water
generator
180. Which of the following is a record of the pressure existing in the cylinder at
vacuum positions of the piston throughout the engine cycle ?
A. An Indicator diagram
B. a Cycle diagram
C. A Timing diagram
D. A Temperature diagram
181. To find the indicated power developed in the cylinder the indicator card is used
182. How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ?
A. In tandem with the cylinders.
B. In series with the cylinders.
C. In parallel with the cylinders.
D. In line with the cylinders.
183. The revolutions on the turbocharger have increased during the night with
184. Which of the following is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head
when the piston is at bottom dead center ?
A. Compression clearance
B. Combustion clearance
C. Cylinder clearance
D. Any of these
185. An engine's fuel pump supplies fuel in excess of the fuel consumed and this
A. non-return valve.
B. fuel rack.
C. pressure regulating valve.
D. plunger.
186. Failed O-rings on a 2 stage air compressor cylinder liner have resulted in a water
leak. Where is the leaking water most likely to go when the compressor is
operating?
A. Into the crankcase and mix with the lube oil.
B. Into the LP cylinder.
C. Into the HP cylinder.
D. Into the intercooler.
187. For which duties are gear and screw pumps normally employed?
A. Fuel and lubricating oil services.
B. Jacket cooling water circulation for diesel engines.
C. Bilge pumping.
D. Main sea water circulation systems.
188. From the options given, select the conditions that you would expect to give best
separation results from a centrifuge operating as a purifier.
A. High temperature and low flow rate.
B. High flow rate and low temperature.
C. High flow rate and high temperature.
D. Low flow rate and low temperature.
189. How is the condenser cooling water flow regulating valve automatically
controlled in a vapour compression refrigeration system?
A. By the compressor discharge pressure.
B. By the temperature in the refrigerated room.
C. By the quantity of refrigerant in the system.
D. By the temperature of the refrigerant after the evaporator.
192. In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, what would be considered to be the maximum
allowable chloride level of the boiler water?
A. 300 PPM.
B. 600 PPM.
C. 1000 PPM.
D. 50 PPM.
193. In a low pressure, auxiliary boiler, water tests show that the p-alkalinity is 50
ppm CaCO3. What action should be taken?
A. Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment.
B. Blow down the boiler and reduce dosage of boiler
water treatment.
C. No action is necessary because this is a normal reading..
D. Reduce dosage of boiler water treatment.
194. In a purifier assuming the separating temperature is correct, what is the probable
cause of the processed oil containing water?
A. The gravity disc is too small and/or the flow rate is
too high
B. The gravity disc is too large
C. The throughput is too low
D. The back pressure at the clean oil outlet is too high
195. The amp-load for an electric motor driving a centrifugal pump has gradually
reduced over a period of service. The pump is still supplying water but at a
reduced pressure and flow. Which of the alternatives given is the probable reason
for this?
A. The pump impeller and wear rings have worn.
B. The pump is running at a lower speed due to a short
circuit in the electric motor.
C. The pump has suction from a number of sources at the same time.
D. The suction strainer element has been removed so the pump is more efficient.
196. What action should be taken if a purifier starts to vibrate heavily during normal
operations?
A. Stop the purifier immediately. Check the machine
for fouling or mechanical damage. Donot restart
until cause is identified and fault rectified.
B. Stop the purifier and then restart it
C. Change the flow rate.
D. Leave the purifier running and check it again after its next scheduled sludge
cycle.
197. What action should be taken if the heat transfer capacity of a heat exchanger
operating as a lubricating oil cooler is reducing?
A. The heat transfer surfaces should be cleaned.
B. Increase the cooling water pressure.
C. Decrease the lubricating oil flowrate.
D. Increase the lubricating oil flowrate.
198. What cooling medium is normally used to cool the condenser of a fresh water
generator?
A. Seawater
B. Distillate (Freshwater)
C. Air
D. Brine
199. What effect does an increased oil feed flow rate have on the performance of a
centrifuge operating as a purifier?
A. Separating efficiency is reduced.
B. Separating efficiency is increased, more water is
removed.
C. Separating efficiency is unchanged.
D. Separating efficiency is increased, more solids are removed.
200. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a
centrifugal pump?
A. By throttling of the pump discharge valve.
B. By throttling of the pump suction valve.
C. By adjusting the pump relief valve.
D. By opening the pump recirculation line.
201. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion
valve in a vapour - compression refrigeration system?
A. Liquid at high pressure.
B. Vapour at high pressure.
C. Liquid at low pressure.
D. Vapour at low pressure.
202. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board
ship?
A. It should require less maintenance than a conventional system using only sea
water.
B. It is a simple system with minimum control
requirements.
C. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties.
D. It does not require any seawater.
203. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh
water in a central cooling system?
A. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers.
B. Insufficient cooling water treatment.
C. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the
turbochargers.
D. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.
204. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than
normal when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator?
A. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned.
B. High fuel oil temperature.
C. Broken water seal.
D. Drive clutch slipping.
205. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a
centrifugal pump when it is running?
A. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation.
B. Water hammer in the pump casing.
C. Fluid friction in the suction line.
D. Pump suction valve fully open.
208. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor
discharge of an air conditioning system?
A. + 85 ° C
B. + 5 ° C
C. -10 ° C
D. + 40 ° C
209. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty oil
throughput rate is too great?
A. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to
discharge from the water outlet.
B. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will
be lost.
C. The interface will move inwards allowing water to discharge through the oil
outlet.
D. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.
210. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a
centrifuge in order to ensure good separation?
A. 95 - 98 Celsius.
B. 85 - 88 Celsius
C. 75 - 78 Celsius.
D. 105 - 108 Celsius.
211. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil
based lubricating oil in a centrifuge?
A. 65 -85 C.
B. 45 - 65 C.
C. 85 - 105 C.
D. < 45 C.
212. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a
refrigeration compressor?
A. + 1.0 bar
B. - 0.5 bar
C. + 5.0 bar
D. + 10 bar
213. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low
pressure auxiliary boiler?
A. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3.
B. 0 - 100 ppm CaCO3.
C. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3.
D. 600 - 1000 ppm CaCO3.
214. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the
discharge valve closed for an extended period of time?
A. The pump will eventually overheat.
B. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to
the bilge.
C. The electric motor will eventually overheat.
D. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip.
215. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling
water flow through the condenser?
A. Increased delivery pressure
B. Reduced delivery pressure
C. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line.
D. reduced suction pressure
216. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier arrangement,
what is the purpose of the clarifier?
A. To improve the efficiency of solids removal.
B. To stabilise the feed temperature.
C. To increase the overall throughput rate.
D. To improve the efficiency of water removal.
217. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning
system evaporator icing up?
A. Too low suction pressure.
B. Too high discharge pressure.
C. Low sea water temperature.
D. High sea water temperature..
218. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air
compressors?
A. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage
piston.
B. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
C. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second stage.
D. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery from
each stage is equal.
219. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat
exchanger during operation?
A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for
both fluids.
B. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid.
C. Pressure drop for cooling water.
D. Outlet temperatures for both fluids
220. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the
cooling system is connected to a fresh water generator?
A. Chromates are poisonous.
B. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh water
generators.
C. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh
water generator.
D. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in any
cooling water system.
221. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors?
A. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase
when the compressor is stopped.
B. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil..
C. To boil off any water from condensation in the
crankcase.
D. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing.
222. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling systems?
A. To prevent biological growth in the system.
B. To prevent corrosion of the system
C. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system.
D. To reduce sediment build up in the system.
223. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water
pressure in a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system?
A. Prevent seawater contaminaton of the central
cooling system in the event of seal failure.
B. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side
C. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat
exchanger.
D. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.
224. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is
the difference between a purifier and a clarifier.
A. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil,
whereas in a purifier both solids and water are
removed from the oil
B. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force
C. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil.
D. Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.
225. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a
centrifugal pump?
A. By throttling of the pump discharge valve.
B. By throttling of the pump suction valve.
C. By adjusting the pump relief valve.
D. By opening the pump recirculation line.
226. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion
valve in a vapour - compression refrigeration system?
A. Liquid at high pressure.
B. Vapour at high pressure.
C. Liquid at low pressure.
D. Vapour at low pressure.
227. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board
ship?
A. It should require less maintenance than a conventional system using only sea
water.
B. It is a simple system with minimum control
requirements.
C. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties.
D. It does not require any seawater.
228. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh
water in a central cooling system?
A. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers.
B. Insufficient cooling water treatment.
C. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the
turbochargers.
D. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.
229. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than
normal when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator?
A. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned.
B. High fuel oil temperature.
C. Broken water seal.
D. Drive clutch slipping.
230. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a
centrifugal pump when it is running?
A. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation.
B. Water hammer in the pump casing.
C. Fluid friction in the suction line.
D. Pump suction valve fully open.
231. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system circuit?
A. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the
evaporator.
B. To control the suction pressure at the compressor.
C. To control the cargo hold temperature.
D. To control the cooling water temperature through the condenser.
233. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor
discharge of an air conditioning system?
A. + 85 ° C
B. + 5 ° C
C. -10 ° C
D. + 40 ° C
234. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty oil
throughput rate is too great?
A. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to
discharge from the water outlet.
B. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will
be lost.
C. The interface will move inwards allowing water to discharge through the oil
outlet.
D. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.
235. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a
centrifuge in order to ensure good separation?
A. 95 - 98 Celsius.
B. 85 - 88 Celsius
C. 75 - 78 Celsius.
D. 105 - 108 Celsius.
236. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil
based lubricating oil in a centrifuge?
A. 65 -85 C.
B. 45 - 65 C.
C. 85 - 105 C.
D. < 45 C.
237. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a
refrigeration compressor?
A. + 1.0 bar
B. - 0.5 bar
C. + 5.0 bar
D. + 10 bar
238. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low
pressure auxiliary boiler?
A. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3.
B. 0 - 100 ppm CaCO3.
C. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3.
D. 600 - 1000 ppm CaCO3.
239. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the
discharge valve closed for an extended period of time?
A. The pump will eventually overheat.
B. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to
the bilge.
C. The electric motor will eventually overheat.
D. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip.
240. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling
water flow through the condenser?
A. Increased delivery pressure
B. Reduced delivery pressure
C. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line.
D. reduced suction pressure
241. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier arrangement,
what is the purpose of the clarifier?
A. To improve the efficiency of solids removal.
B. To stabilise the feed temperature.
C. To increase the overall throughput rate.
D. To improve the efficiency of water removal.
242. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning
system evaporator icing up?
A. Too low suction pressure.
B. Too high discharge pressure.
C. Low sea water temperature.
D. High sea water temperature..
243. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air
compressors?
A. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage
piston.
B. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
C. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second stage.
D. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery from
each stage is equal.
244. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat
exchanger during operation?
A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for
both fluids.
B. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid.
C. Pressure drop for cooling water.
D. Outlet temperatures for both fluids
245. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the
cooling system is connected to a fresh water generator?
A. Chromates are poisonous.
B. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh
water generators.
C. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh
water generator.
D. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in any
cooling water system.
246. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors?
A. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase
when the compressor is stopped.
B. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil..
C. To boil off any water from condensation in the
crankcase.
D. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing.
247. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling systems?
A. To prevent biological growth in the system.
B. To prevent corrosion of the system
C. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system.
D. To reduce sediment build up in the system.
248. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water
pressure in a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system?
A. Prevent seawater contaminaton of the central
cooling system in the event of seal failure.
B. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side
C. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat
exchanger.
D. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.
249. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is
the difference between a purifier and a clarifier.
A. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil,
whereas in a purifier both solids and water are
removed from the oil
B. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force
C. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil.
D. Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.
250. When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel
stand-by system, and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the
following is a feasible sequence of activities ?
A. Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by diesel
runs. + 40 sec: the power is restored
B. Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. « 45 sec: he stand-by diesel
runs. + 60 sec : the power is restored
C. Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel
runs. + 25 sec: the power is restored
D. Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8
sec: the power is restored
251. The best way of testing the "stand-by' function of the emergency diesel alternator
A. starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any
leakages or deficiencies.
B. causing a total black-out on the ship, example in drydock or when time is
available in port.
C. by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main
switch board.
D. switching on the lest run' button on the emergency diesel switchboard.
254. The reason why two-stage starting air compressors are used in preference to
single stage compression is that .........
A. the temperature developed by single stage compression would be too high.
B. the starting air current of a single stage compressor would be too high.
C. the power absorption by single stage compression would be too high.
D. the friction in a single stage compressor would be too high.
255. In what kind of machinery do you find this type of valve fitted ?
256. Which kind of cooling water system is used with this compressor ?
257. What is the indication of the inlet of the cooling water in position "I" of both
cylinders ?
A. Water inlet of cylinders
B. Water inlet of cylinders/intercoolers
C. Water inlet of aftercoolers
D. Water inlet of Intercoolers
258. Suppose the delivery air pressure of this compressor is 30.0 kg/cm2. What class
of compressor could this be ?
A. An instrument air compressor.
B. A service air compressor.
C. A starting air compressor.
D. A working air compressor.
259. What are the units marked "C" fitted on both cylinders ?
A. Aftercoolers
B. Cooling water vessels
C. Intercoolers
D. Cylinder blocks
260. When is manual by-pass valve of this compressor cooler ''CW" operated ?
A. During normal running to keep the temperature constant
B. In cold climates to avoid moisture
C. When the compressor is new/overhauled with new rings
D. When the compressor is started to allow for temperature rise
261. This drawing indicates the timing of the unloader and drains of a compressor.
After how many seconds will the compressor pump at full capacity ?
A. Somewhere between
7 and 14 seconds
B. 12 seconds
C. 14 seconds
D. 7 seconds
262. When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated
before the drain valves closed ?
A. So the pumping action can
blow the drains through
B. To prevent the compressor
fromtripping
C. To avoid the safety valves blowing
D. To avoid air blowing in the bilges
264. On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way ?
A. It keeps the suctions valves closed
B. it keeps the delivery valvesclosed
C. It keeps the suction valves open
D. It keeps the delivery valves open
267. What would be the pressure in the air bottle which activates the "PC" and "S"
connecting the unloader line with c and a?
A. Between 6.5 and 8.5 kg/cm2
B. Between 8.5 and 9.35 kg/cm2
C. Between 0 and 8.5 kg/cm2
D. Between 8.5 and 10.0 kg/cm2
268. What is the purpose of the stuffing box in this combined piston compressor
assembly ?
A. All of these.
B. To prevent oil from being pumped up to the pumping
piston
C. As sealing between pumping cylinder and guide cylinder
D. To keep the air of the pumping space separated from the
guide
269. In this oil-free compressor, of what material are the piston rings of the pumping
piston "P" made?
A. Ribbed alloy
B. Chromium
C. Slotted chromium
D. Carbon
270. Which main compressor is normally used to top up the main air bottles ?
271. During vessel manoeuvring, which Main Air Bottles are used ?
A. No 1 and No 2 Main Air Bottle
B. No 1 or No 2 Main Air Bottle
C. No 1 Main Air Bottle
D. No 2 Main Air Bottle
274. What is item "M" fitted in the discharge line of the Instrument Air Compressor
(I.A.C.) ?
A. A moisture separator
B. A drain valve
C. An oil separator
D. An automatic drain valve
275. What is the primary purpose of drain valves "D" fitted on all air bottles ?
A. To remove excessive oil from the bottle
B. To remove water and condensate from the bottle
C. To remove dirt from the bottle
D. To blow the bottles empty if required
276. Which of the appendages listed below is NOT usually fitted on a compressed air
bottle ?
A. A manometer
B. A drain valve
C. A thermometer
D. A safety valve
277. What is item "A.D." in the main air supply line from the Instrument Air Bottle ?
A. An air dryer
B. An air drain
C. An air safety discharge valve
D. An air pressure safety device
278. What are items "CP" fitted in the Working Air and Instrument Air supply lines ?
A. Pressure capacity vessels
B. Pressure relief units
C. Condensate pots
D. Constant pressure vessels
279. Suppose you find that the safety valve of the Working Air Bottle blows off at a
pressure in excess of 8.5 g/cm2. Which of the causes listed below is not a
possible cause for this lifting of the safety valve ?
A. Insufficient air consumption by the working air consumers
B. Compressor unloader is stuck in loading position
C. Pressure reducing valve from main air bottle defective or stuck
D. Setting of cut-in / cut-out pressostat wrongly adjusted or defective
283. How is the value shown here made air tight in the cylinder head of the
compressor ?
285. How is this type valve kept in place in the cylinder head of an air compressor ?
287. How are the cylinder liners and piston rings of main air compressors usually
lubricated ?
A. Ho lubrication is required
B. By splash lubrication
C. By an oil wick
D. By a small lubricator drop by drop via the
suction valve
292. What is the purpose of the 3-way cock sited in the lowest point of the stern tube
oil circuit?
A. To change from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit
B. To drain or sample the oil from the stern tube bearing
C. To remove air from the system
D. To fill oil in the system
293. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level?
A. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube
B. Ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal
C. Ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal
D. To prevent bilge water entering the stern tube
294. What type of strainer is used in a turbine lub oil system to remove metallic
particles?
A. A Metal edge strainer
B. A Fuller's earth strainer
C. A Magnetic basket strainer
D. A Simplex strainer
295. What is the steering system oil tank within the steering pedestal?
A. Header tank for the auto pilot control system
B. Main hydraulic system header tank
C. Lubrication tank for the steering gear linkage
D. Reservoir for the telemotor system
299. What is the effect if the fuel oil temperature is too low?
A. Flame impingement and refractory damage
B. Blocking of fuel filters
C. Fuel delivery pump cutting out
D. Flame failure
300. What is the most dangerous effect of water in fuel?
A. Damage to furnace refractory
B. Loss of boiler efficiency
C. Extinguishing of burner flame
D. Poor combustion
306. How does the fuel pump rack adjust the fuel delivery?
A. By altering the length of time the fuel pump roller contacts the cam
B. By increasing the delivery pressure
C. By altering the opening and closing of the delivery valve
D. By altering the effective stroke of the plunger
312. What test is used in boilers to detect leaks after structural repairs?
A. A hydrostatic test
B. A penetrant dye crack test
C. An efficiencytest
D. Air pressure test
313. What is the term for the weakening of boiler steel, as the result of inner
crystalline cracking?
A. Caustic embrittlement.
B. Exposure stress.
C. Corrosion.
D. Alkaline stress.
316. What is the test to determine the discharge capacity of boiler safety values?
A. Safety value adjustment test.
B. Steam stop test.
C. Pop test.
D. Accumulation test.
323. What term is used to describe access holes to the boiler drum?
A. Manholes
B. Furnace inspection panels
C. Access spaces
D. Inspection holes
331. What action would you take if Chloride readings are too high?
A. Add more chemical to the feed water
B. Drain and refill the feed water tank
C. Increase frequency of testing
D. Blow down the boiler regularly until readings are acceptable
332. What action should you take in the case of an uptake fire?
A. Shut off burners, shut down fans and close off air supply
B. Operate soot blowers to extinguish fire
C. Shut down burners but maintain fans to clear fire
D. Increase air supply to burn fire out
333. What percentage CO2 in the flue gases would indicate correct combustion?
A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 7%
D. 13%
336. What is the possible consequence of too high a water level in the boiler?
A. Insufficient steam generation
B. Feed pump cutting out
C. Boiler shutting down
D. Carry-over of the boiler water
337. When testing for chlorides what does the test indicate?
A. Total dissolved solids present in the water
B. Phosphate present in the water
C. Alkalinity level
D. Solids in the water from sea contamination
339. What term is used for unequal distribution of burner spray in the furnace?
A. Combustion air imbalance
B. Unequal firing
C. Furnace distortion
D. Flame impingement
340. What would your first action be if the feed pump stopped?
A. Shut the main stop valves
B. Check the gauge glass readings
C. Change over to the auxiliary feed pump
D. Shut down the boiler burners
343. Why is a by-pass fitted onto the cooling water of the charge air cooler?
A. To prevent overcooling of the charge air
B. To prevent the air temperature going too high
C. To allow increased Jacket water flow to the water spaces
D. To maintain the jacket water temperature
346. What could be the effect of excess steam or reduced oil flow in an oil heater ?
A. Carbon formation
B. Deformation
C. Corrosion
D. Fitting
347. What is the plate material used in sea- water, plate heat exchangers?
A. Stainless steel
B. Bronze
C. Cupro Nickel
D. Titanium
348. Why are anodes fitted to the seawater side of heat exchangers?
A. To afford corrosion protection to the heat exchanger
B. To prevent the formation of marine growth in the water spaces
C. To afford corrosion protection for the system pipes and values
D. To prevent scaling of the tubes and tube plates
351. What is the required salinity of the fresh water produced as drinking water
onboard?
A. Below 50 ppm
B. Below 7 ppm
C. Below 2 ppm
D. Below 20 ppm
352. What liquid is present in the collecting point at the bottom of the evaporator?
A. Brine
B. Fresh water
C. Sea water
D. Ejector water
353. What is the maximum salinity for water produced by a fresh water generator
when it is to be used in water ube medium pressure boilers?
A. 20 ppm
B. 15 ppm
C. 7 ppm
D. 2 ppm
358. How far from the coast is it permitted to use Low-pressure evaporation to
produce drinking water?
A. 20 miles
B. 30 miles
C. 5 miles
D. 12 miles
361. In a single stage air compressor what is the maximum practical delivery
pressure?
A. 15 bar
B. 7 bar
C. 3 bar
D. 10 bar
363. In the case of air-cooled compressors what form does the cooler take?
A. Horizontal box section pipes
B. Finned circular pipes
C. Honeycombed radiator
D. Vertical flattened pipes
364. What material are cylinder blocks and covers normally constructed from?
A. Fabricated steel
B. Cast steel
C. Cast iron
D. Gunmetal
365. What type of values are normally found in air compressors?
A. Plate or disc values
B. Poppet values
C. Piston controlled ports
D. Slide values
366. Why is the presence of oil particularly dangerous in starting air lines?
A. It could affect the operation of the relief valves
B. The high oxygen content makes it very explosive
C. It may cause sticking of the air start values
D. It may carbon up and choke the lines
369. What service is most suitable for the use of rotary compressors?
A. High pressure, tow volume
B. Low pressure, high volume
C. High pressure, high volume
D. Low pressure, low volume
370. Where would you find a rotary compressor in the engine room?
A. Diesel engine charge air compressor
B. Starting air compressor
C. Control air compressor
D. Emergency air compressor
371. What slows the rudder movement when the requested position is reached?
A. The steering wheel transmitter
B. The rudder control receiver unit
C. The hunting gear feedback signal
D. The rudder telemotor control
372. In a conventional rudder system when will least power be required to move the
rudder ?
A. With vessel moving astern
B. Vessel full ahead at service speed
C. With the vessel stationary
D. With vessel moving slowly ahead
381. Upon what is the movement of the rudder dependant, when a helm order is
given?
A. The degree of opening of the hydraulic bypass valve
B. On the distance the hydraulic control lever is moved by the floating link
C. On the adjustment of the feedback rod connection
D. On the hydraulic pressure setting of the relief valves
382. What is the function of the relief values fitted between main hydraulic cylinders?
A. To be opened to allow emergency steering
B. To act as automatic by-pass values when the steering gear is stopped
C. To act as safety values to absorb shock and avoid damage
D. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump
384. In a single motor electrical steering system what supplies the main steering
motor?
A. Mains electrical supply
B. Electrical supplyfrom a local motor!generator
C. Hydraulic power delivered bythe main steering motors
D. Hydraulic power pack
385. Mat does wheel movement control in an electric steering system?
A. Hydraulic transmitter
B. The electrical balance of the wheel and steering motor fheostats^
C. Current supplied directlyto the electric steering motor
D. Current to the steering gear motortgenerator
386. Which of the following is a system for controlling the steering electrically?
A. Graduated stepper motors
B. Ward Leonard System
C. Compass repeater motors
D. AC-DC rectification
389. What would be the most likely cause of high compressor discharge pressure?
A. Failure of the expansion value
B. Inadequate condenser cooling
C. Overcooling of the evaporator return
D. Ice formation on the evaporator coils
390. Which is the least harmful of these refrigerants?
A. Freon 12
B. Ammonia
C. Freon 22
D. Carbon Dioxide
391. What could cause frost on the discharge side of the expansion value?
A. Insufficient condenser cooling
B. Chamber temperature too low
C. The expansion value being dirty or iced up
D. Air in the refrigerant system
392. Why should refrig. compressor oil be stored in small capacity drums?
A. Ease of stowage
B. Only small quantities are required
C. Refrigerator oil is hygroscopic and should not be stored in part full drums
D. Ease of handling
397. What is the function of the low-pressure cut-out fitted on the compressor suction
line.
A. Cut-out/cut-in device, no reset required
B. Low-pressure shutdown with manual reset
C. To prevent over pressure of the evaporator
D. Safety shutdown device with manual reset
398. What is the function of the HP cutout fitted on the compressor discharge line?
A. High-pressure shutdown with manual reset
B. High pressure cut out with auto cut-in
C. By-pass device cutting out the expansion value
D. High-pressure alarm device only
404. What is the most usual cause of a restriction at the expansion value?
A. Moisture in the system
B. Insufficient gas charge
C. Dirt in the system
D. Blockage in the filter/drier unit
405. What does the sight glass indicate?
A. Operation of the expansion value
B. Adequate refrigerant charge
C. Condition of the filter drier unit
D. Condition of the condenser
408. What is the state of the refrigerant flowing from the condenser ?
A. High pressure liquid
B. High-pressure gas
C. Low pressure liquid
D. Gas liguid mixture at evaporator pressure
411. On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way?
A. It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES open
B. It keeps the SUCTION VALVES open
C. It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES closed
D. It keeps the SUCTION VALVES closed
415. What ensures the tightness of the filter cover (1) to the fitter body (3) ?
A. The clamp on top of the fitter cover
B. The fitter's gasket
C. The gasket pressed down by the filter cover's clamp
D. The vacuum created in the filter
420. What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier
(Tin) ?
A. 70 degree C
B. 75 degree C
C. 95 degree C
D. 85 degree C
421. When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since
the power from the
A. a magnetic coupling
B. Friction pads
C. a rotating coupling
D. the bowl spindle
A. deformation
B. corrosion
C. carbon formation
D. pitting
424. What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use ?
A. Marine diesel
B. Gas oil
C. Distillate diesel
D. Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1)
425.
A. Filters
B. Flow controllers
C. Flow meters
D. Fast shut-off values
428.
430. Where does the blending of fuels take place in this system ?
A. In unit H
B. In units DP and FP
C. In unit BUC
D. In unit BU
431.
A. Manometers
B. Magnetic shut-off values
C. Flow meters
D. Microprocessors
432.
A. Fuel pumps
B. Flow meters
C. Fuel heaters
D. Fuel filters
433. Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree C ? Study the picture.
434. What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank ?
436. If when you start up a purifier it does not come up to the desired revolutions, or it
takes too long a time to come up to the required revolutions, you should change
437.
A. Sall bearings worn out.
B. the wrong gravity disc.
C. dirt between purifier plates.
D. water seal broken.
438.
A. Increase the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.
B. Decrease the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.
C. Decrease the temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter.
D. Increase the temperature and decrease the gravity disc diameter.
439. During start up of a purifier, how will you notice when the bowl has reached the
required revolutions ?
A. The starting amperage will drop sharply to normal (1/3 to 1/4) from the
starting current.
B. The crankcase rotating indicator will turn fast
C. The purifier will make a humming noise
D. The vibrations on the purifier will increase
440. Caution must be taken when handling purifiers since errors can cause great
danger. Handle with due caution is required in operation, dismantling,
A. oils and fuels cause fire and explosion when handled carelessly. This danger
is increase because the fuels and oils fed to purifiers is heated.
B. static electricity may be generated if parts are wrongly assembled causing
explosion within the purifier.
C. danger of electrocution from the electric power supply to driving motor,
various control solenoids and other required operational controls is great.
D. purifier bowls revolve at very high speed causing great centrifugal forces to
act, careless handling causes danger of disintegration.
441. If some part of a purifier bowl assembly is defective, what action should be
taken?
A. Order the specific bowl spare part
B. Have it repaired on board if it can be done
C. Sent it to a qualified workshop for repair
D. Contact the makers for guidance and act on their advise only
442.
operating current.
A. 100
B. 150
C. 50
D. 250
443. The time interval for automatic sludge discharge from purifiers must be chosen
correctly, in general the more frequent the interval, the better, however intervals
444. As a rule of the thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of diesel oil
A. 4 to 5
B. 2 to 4
C. 6 to 8
D. 6 to 9
445. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 380 cSt
A. 1 to 2
B. 6 to 8
C. 4 to 6
D. 2 to 4
446. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 180 cSt
A. 3 to 5
B. 2 to 3
C. 4 to 6
D. 6 to 8
447. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of lubricating
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
448. As a rule of the thumb, time interval for automatic desludging of lubricating oil
purifiers fitted on sumps of trunk-
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 6
449. The factors which determine the selection of the size of gravity disc for a purifier
A. the oil temperature, the sludge content and the specific gravity.
B. the bowl speed, the oil temperature and water content.
C. the specific gravity of the oil, the oil temperature and the feed rate.
D. the oil temperature, the water and sludge content and the specific gravity.
450. Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The
A. the separation of solids from oils with the use of a water barrier seal and is
called a two-phase operation.
B. the separation of solids from liquids and is called a single phase operation.
C. a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids (water,
oil, dirt).
D. the separation of light liquids from heavy liquids, (oil from ater) and is called
a two-phase operation.
451. Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The
452. The usual mode of series operation of two heavy fuel oil purifiers refers
A. two identical machines being put from settling tank to 1st purifier, hence to
second purifier, at half the feed rate of the required quantity.
B. two identical purifiers being used as well for heavy fuel oil as for diesel oil,
by changing line system and gravity discs.
C. two identical machines being operated in series, the first as purifier, the
second in line as clarifier with same throughput.
D. two identical machines being put separately from settling ank to dailytank at
half the feed rate of the required quantity.
453. If you find that the feed rate of an oil purifier (its throughput) has reduced, the
most likely reason for this is
A. that the amount of sealing water of the bowl is insufficient or the containing
tank is empty or shut-off.
B. that the revolution speed of the bowl has slowed or the electric motor is
operating in overload.
C. that the wrong type of gravity disc is fitted, the oil temperature is incorrect or
the heater is blocked.
D. that the capacity of gear pump has fallen, the pump's 'elief valve has opened,
a leaking suction pipe or suction liter is clogged.
454. Where is the inlet for the unclean oil ?
A. Area 3
B. Area 1
C. Area 6
D. Area 4
456. Which part is the paring disc used for removing water ?
A. Part 3
B. Part 2
C. Part 4
D. Part 6
457. What is part number 3 called ?
A. The paring disc operating water
B. The paring disc for processed oil
C. Slots holding a space
D. the spring support
459.
A. is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures.
B. indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel.
C. is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine.
D. eflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system.
460. The relief values in a fuel oil service system discharge to either the service pump
A. Number 4
B. Number 2
C. Number 3
D. Number 1
463. Which of the two drawings shows two series connected purifiers ?
A. None
B. 2
C. 1
D. Both 1 and 2
A. A fine fitter
B. A blow-trough steam value
C. An automatic stop value
D. A viscometer
466.
468.
A. Automatic fitters
B. Fine filters
C. A combination of these or any of the these
D. Magnetic filters
469. Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst is now being bunkered. How
will this affect the reading of thermometer ''T" ?
470. What do you call the tanks in which heauyfuel oil is stored on board ?
472. How is heavy fuel oil from the deeptank transferred to the bunker ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
473.
474. How is the free flow of HFO in the bunker tanks maintained when the external
temperature drops below it's pour point ?
A.
B. Value "BV"
C. The settling tank value
D.
476. If you increase fuel flow to the purifier using capacity control value CC, what
other action must you take ?
A. A centrifugal pump
B. A vane pump
C. A piston pump
D. A gear pump or worm pump
478. When using marine diesel oil with a density of about 0.87, what would be the
inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier ?
A. 85 degree C
B. 30 degree C
C. 40 degree C
D. 60 degree C
479. What is the idealtemperature to maintain the Diesel Oil Daily Tank and how is
this achieved ?
480. What description best fits the Main Engine Lub. Oil sump tank ?
A. In port when engine is stopped taken directly from the sump tank
B. At the sample cock on delivery side of the M.E. Lub Oil Pump
C. After the purifier when running sump to sump and M.E. running
D. from the suction filter drain of the M.E. Lub Oil Pumps
484. Which of the following alarms may sound after the automatic de-sludging cycle
is completed and the urification of the oil restarts ?
486. How frequently are the tanks (item number 3) of this fuel oil schematic diagram
refilled ?
A. 60 to 80 degree C
B. 30 to 45 degree C
C. Above 80 degree C
D. 45 to 60 degree C
A. A booster pump
B. A fuel transfer pump
C. A. heater
D. A fuel strainer
489. What is item number 5 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?
490. At sea, what should be the level in tank number 2 of this fuel arrangement
schematic drawing ?
A. Full
B. Between 2/3 and 3/4 full
C. Between 1/2 and 3/4 full
D. Variable, depending time of the day
491. Which of the following system set-ups are possible using the fuel arrangement
shown here ?
492. What is the usual temperature of a fuel oil (HFO) daily tank ?
A. 50 to 60 degree C
B. 60 to 75 degree C
C. 40 to 50 degree C
D. 80 to 90 degree C
493. Which of the following are not necessarily fitted on a HFO settling tank ?
495. What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of a fuel oil?
A. The lower the temperature the higher the specific gravity
B. The higher the temperature the higher the specific gravity
C. The lower the temperature the lower the specific gravity
D. The higher the temperature the lower the specific gravity
496. The dirty oily water mixture fills chamber 1 of this separation bowl, where will
the clean oil be found ?
A. Clean oil
B. Dirty oil
C. Water
D. Oil-water mixture
498. If a dirty oilyiwater mixture is entering chamber item 1 of this separator, where
will the dirt settle ?
500. Where will the dirt collect from the oily water mixture if separated by the
centrifugal disc type separator, shown right ?
503. When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the HFO
A. At 08.00hr and 17.00hr as well in last evening round prior UMS operation
B. Twice a day
C. As required
D. Every 4 hours
504. What is pipe No 1 ?
A. The lub oil outlet
B. The lub oil inlet
C. The salt water inlet
D. the salt water outlet
509. What is the purpose of the auxiliary diesel renovating lubrication oil tank ?
A. To act as purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks
B. To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel Lub. oils
C. To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse
D. To keep auxiliary diesel Lub. Oils fresh
510.
A. A piston pump
B. A gear or worm wheel pump
C. A centrifugal pump
D. A vane pump
A. A set screw
B. A holder
C. A pressure adjuster
D. A screw fitter
512. What is part number 5 ?
A. The pump shaft
B. The motor shaft
C. The pressure outlet
D. An air seal
516. If you find it difficult to obtain suction whilst pumping bilge well "A" which of
the following actions would you take ?
A. All of these.
B. Prime the pump with sea water
C. Check that bilge well values "B","C" and '9" are properly closed
D. Check that strainer cover of well "A" is not leaking
517. How does the filter help in segregating water and dirt ?
A. Due to regeneration
B. Due to molecular friction
C. Due to gravitational force
D. Due to centrifugal force
518. In which pipe lines would you expect to find an illuminated sight glass or bull's
eye ?
A. Lube oil pump discharge lines
B. Tank overflow lines
C. Fresh water return piping and condensate line
D. Sea water lines to overboard
A. A Screw compressor
B. A Piston pump
C. A Centrifugal pump
D. A Rotor Screw pump
520. What is part number one in this drawing ?
A. A sealing
B. A ball bearing
C. An end piece
D. A shaft
A. A cam shaft
B. A connecting rod
C. A center piece
D. A pump shaft
522. What is part number three in this drawing ?
A. A rotor
B. A cooling pipe
C. An air duct
D. A connecting rod
524. What is part number five in this drawing ?
A. A bearing holder
B. A sealer
C. An end piece
D. An air relief valve
528. What type of pump is connected to the electrical motor in this drawing ?
A. A Compressor pump
B. A Screw pump
C. A Centrifugal pump
D. A Piston pump
A. D
B. A
C. C
D. B
A. A
B. D
C. C
D. B
532. What is the component shown here ?
A. An Injector
B. An Ejector
C. A Constructor
D. A Defector
A. An air duct
B. A connecting rod
C. A cooling pipe
D. A rotor
A. A bearing holder
B. An air relief value
C. A sealer
D. An end piece
535. Which way will fluid pass through this value ?
A. In both directions
B. From B to A
C. From A to C
D. From A to B
544. What is the purpose of the spring loaded value, item WA fitted to this pump ?
A. It is a bleed-off valve
B. It is a capacity control valve
C. It is a shock damper
D. It is a safety valve
545. How can the capacity of this pump be controlled and how is this done ?
546. If you have to pump oil which is below normal temperature for a while through
this type pump (initial cold oil in the line) what precaution will you take prior
starting the pump ?
555. If you need to replace the mechanical seal on this pump, which parts would you
dismantle and remove in order to give access to the seal ?
A. Remove motor and intermediate shaft,
remove shaft flange
B. Remove pump casing half, shaft flange and
take out pump assembly
C. Remove motor stool with motor and
intermediate shaft complete.
D. Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange,
take out D pump assembly
556. When starting a centrifugal pump, in order to reduce the initial power surge, you
558. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and
impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and
why ?
A. The shape of the impeller to decrease
capacity
B. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it
and avoid turbulence
C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the
flow into the impeller
D. The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen
turbulence
559.
A. have a moderate to high temperature.
B. are highly viscous.
C. have a high air content.
D. are not excessively viscous.
560.
A. have a high air content.
B. have to be pumped to elevated heights.
C. are mixed with solids.
D. are mixed with fuel or oil.
561. If it is noted after overhaul that the pump bearings overheat and it is verified that
563. Why is it necessary for centrifugal pumps which can be remotely started and
have a discharge head over 10 metres (for example the fire pump) to have a non-
return valve fitted at pump level?
A. To avoid the discharge piping from bursting when started
B. To avoid an air lock settling in the pump
C. To avoid the pump tripping on overload when started
D. To avoid loss of suction when starting
564. If the diameter of this valve is 60 mm on its inner seat, what is the minimum
fixed lift height ?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 12.5 mm.
565. What is the purpose of screw cap (1) in the picture ?
A. To adjust initial lift height to about 8
to 10 mm
B. To adjust the lift to 25% of the
diameter
C. To adjust the valve down if it is
heard banging
D. To manually close the valve
567. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells ?
A. Because the cargo holds are
cleaner than the engine
room
B. Because they are
inaccessible when cargo is
loaded
C. Because they might be
damaged during loading
and discharging
D. Because the engineers are in charge of pumping the bilges
568. How are bilge wells 'W' covered to stop solids entering during cargo carriage or
cargo operations ?
A. There is no covering
B. By perforated plating
C. By sack cloth
D. By steel plates bolted on
569. What type of valves are fitted to cargo bilge lines in front of the Engine Room
bulkhead ?
A. Auto-closing valves
B. Bilge gate valves
C. Non-return screw down valves
D. Manifold valves
570. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump is the Fire and Ballast
Pump ?
A. 5 m3/hour x 25 metres
B. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres
C. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres
D. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres
572. What type of pump do you think is used for the purpose shown here ?
A. A vane pump
B. A piston pump
C. A gear pump
D. A worm wheel pump
573. Air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented by
575. Which way does the fluid pass through the valve ?
A. Neither direction
B. From 13 to A
C. From A to B
D. Either direction
A. The holder
B. The wear ring
C. The spring washer
D. The mechanical seal
A. The Ejector
B. The Diffusor
C. The Nozzle
D. The Sprayer
A. Part 4
B. Part 2
C. Part 1
D. Part 3
A. All of these.
B. Prime the pump with sea water
C. Check that bilge well values "B","C" and '9" are properly closed
D. Check that strainer cover of well "A" is not leaking
601. How does the filter help in segregating water and dirt ?
A. Due to regeneration
B. Due to molecular friction
C. Due to gravitational force
D. Due to centrifugal force
602. In which pipe lines would you expect to find an illuminated sight glass or bull's
eye ?
A. Lube oil pump discharge lines
B. Tank overflow lines
C. Fresh water return piping and condensate line
D. Sea water lines to overboard
A. A Screw compressor
B. A Piston pump
C. A Centrifugal pump
D. A Rotor Screw pump
A. A sealing
B. A ball bearing
C. An end piece
D. A shaft
605. What is part number two in this drawing ?
A. A cam shaft
B. A connecting rod
C. A center piece
D. A pump shaft
A. A rotor
B. A cooling pipe
C. An air duct
D. A connecting rod
608. What is part number five in this drawing ?
A. A bearing holder
B. A sealer
C. An end piece
D. An air relief valve
A. No 1
B. No 4
C. No 2
D. No 3
612. What type of pump is connected to the electrical motor in this drawing ?
A. A Compressor pump
B. A Screw pump
C. A Centrifugal pump
D. A Piston pump
A. A Centrifugal pump
B. A Screw pump
C. A Centrifugal
compressor
D. A Reefer compressor
614. Which is the inlet ?
A. D
B. A
C. C
D. B
A. A
B. D
C. C
D. B
A. In both directions
B. From B to A
C. From A to C
D. From A to B
620. What is item '5" ?
621. Which is the correct parts description list of this suction filter ?
623. This in terms of overall pump performance, what is the most important negative
effect if an impeller wear ring (No 6) is worn excessively ?
625. What do you think would be the RPM of the electric motor driving this pump
(Frequency on board is 60 Hz) ?
A. About 2300 RPM
B. About 870 RPM
C. About 1720 RPM
D. About 1150 RPM
628. What is the purpose of the spring loaded value, item WA fitted to this pump ?
A. It is a bleed-off valve
B. It is a capacity control valve
C. It is a shock damper
D. It is a safety valve
629. How can the capacity of this pump be controlled and how is this done ?
630. If you have to pump oil which is below normal temperature for a while through
this type pump (initial cold oil in the line) what precaution will you take prior
starting the pump ?
A. Startistop the pump frequently
B. Dpen the first spring loaded
value first (release spring
Dressure)
C. Throttle the suction value
D. Bleed off from the manometer
suctionfdischarge connection
634. What would you rate the capacity of this type of pump ?
A. 150 to 250 m3/hour
B. 15 to 25 m3/hour
C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour
D. 10 to 15 m3/hour
635. What is item No 1 of this type of pump lay-out ?
637. How is the vertical clearance of the impeller in this pump casing (impeller mouth
fitting in bottom casing ring) adjusted ?
A. By adjusting distance/height by
screwed connection 2 on shaft
B. By fitting shims on pump impeller
C. By fitting shims between motor
shaft and intermediate shaft
D. By fitting shims in coupled part item
No 2 on shaft
638. Which pump parts are fitted in shaft assembly part No 3 ?
A. Shaft sleeve and mechanical seal
B. Shaft sleeve and ball bearing
C. Mechanical seal and ball bearing
D. Mechanical seal, 0-ring and water thrower
639. If you need to replace the mechanical seal on this pump, which parts would you
dismantle and remove in order to
give access to the seal ?
A. Remove motor and intermediate
shaft, remove shaft flange
B. Remove pump casing half, shaft
flange and take out pump
assembly
C. Remove motor stool with motor
and intermediate shaft
complete.
D. Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange, take out D pump assembly
640. When starting a centrifugal pump, in order to reduce the initial power surge, you
should start
A. the suction value closed.
B. throttled discharge valves.
C. the discharge valve closed.
D. throttled suction valve.
641. If the performance of a centrifugal pump deteriorates over time (tons/hour x
height in metres) it is usually due to
A. condition of the pump housing.
B. excessive wear between impeller and mouth ring.
C. condition of the ball bearing.
D. cavitation of the impeller.
642. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and
impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and
why ?
643.
A. have a moderate to high temperature.
B. are highly viscous.
C. have a high air content.
D. are not excessively viscous.
644. Reciprocating pumps are installed in
A. have a high air content.
B. have to be pumped to elevated heights.
C. are mixed with solids.
D. are mixed with fuel or oil.
645. If it is noted after overhaul that the pump bearings overheat and it is verified that
it is correctly assembled and no parts are
A. misalignment of the shaft
B. obstruction on the discharge side
C. the pump is not bled off properly
D. insufficient liquid supply to the pump
646. When assembling an Endless Screw Pump you have to obtain the correct AXIAL
648. If the diameter of this valve is 60 mm on its inner seat, what is the minimum
fixed lift height ?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 12.5 mm
A. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room
B. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded
C. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging
D. Because the engineers are in charge of pumping the bilges
652. How are bilge wells 'W' covered to stop solids entering during cargo carriage or
cargo operations ?
A. There is no covering
B. By perforated plating
C. By sack cloth
D. By steel plates bolted on
653. What type of valves are fitted to cargo bilge lines in front of the Engine Room
bulkhead ?
A. Auto-closing valves
B. Bilge gate valves
C. Non-return screw down
valves
D. Manifold valves
654. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump is the Fire and Ballast
Pump ?
655. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which one is the Fresh Water
Hydrophore Pump ?
A. 5 m3/hour x 25 metres
B. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres
C. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres
D. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres
656. What type of pump do you think is used for the purpose shown here ?
A. A vane pump
B. A piston pump
C. A gear pump
D. A worm wheel pump
657. Air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented by
A. The 0 Ring
B. The Ring holder
C. The Nozzle
D. The Ejector bearing
675. What are items do 2 of this pump ?
678. Which types of tank gauging are fitted here, if : 1 = Float reading on the tank, 2 =
Measure tape reading, 3 = Sight glass reading, 4 = Distance reading, 5 =
Pneumatic gauging. ?
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2, 3 and 5
680. What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump?
A. Bylining an orifice in the discharge line
B. By throttling the suction value
C. By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief value
D. By throttling the discharge value
681. Flow is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented?
A. Special packing in the stuffing box.
B. An air seal line from the compressed airline.
C. The air pump fitted to the pump
D. A water seal line to the packing gland
682. From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for the
domestic fresh water system?
A. 20 m3/hour x 25 metres
B. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres
C. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres
D. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres
683. Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump?
A. Fuel oil transfer
B. Boiler feed pump
C. Hydraulic winch power pack
D. Bilge and ballast
687. Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components?
A. The rounded and the bellow gear.
B. The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear.
C. The driving and driven shaft gears
D. The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.
689. When assembling an 'Endless Screw"type pump what results from insufficient
axial or radial clearance?
A. The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations.
B. The pump will not pump.
C. Wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress.
D. The pump will not deliver correct pressure.
690. When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce the
initial load?
A. Suction and discharge valves closed.
B. The discharge value closed.
C. The suction value closed.
D. The suction value throttled.
691. What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump's performance
deteriorating over time?
A. Cavitation of the impeller.
B. Wear of the pump housing.
C. Near of the gland neck bush.
D. Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.
693. what is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump?
A. Malfunction of the electrical motor
B. Tank being transferred into is full.
C. Pump no longer pumping liquid.
D. Malfunction of the pump.
694. What is the most commonly used packing for value glands?
A. Mechanical shaft seal.
B. Preformed lip seals
C. Carbon sealing rings.
D. Soft gland packing.
695. Why does the fluid pass through the value from beneath the value lid?
A. The valve is easier to open.
B. There is less scouring of the value seat at partial openings.
C. There is less restriction to flow in this direction.
D. With the value closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.
696. What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines?
A. Solid copper joints.
B. Wire reinforced asbestos joints.
C. Preformed neoprene joints
D. General purpose asbestos joints.
702. What is the first check if difficulty is encountered with pumping bilges and high
suction?
A. Check suction strainers and valves.
B. Open sea suction value to prime pump
C. Clean the oiliwater separator.
D. Inspect pump internals for wear
703. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells?
A. They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells.
B. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging
C. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room.
D. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded
704. How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them?
A. By perforated plating
B. There is no covering
C. By steel grid plates bolted in place
D. By very fine mesh grids
705. What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead?
A. Non-return screw down valves
B. Screw lift valves
C. Butterfly valves
D. Gate valves
706. What is the purpose of a cofferdam?
A. To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids.
B. As a watertight barrier.
C. As an emergency storage space for bilge water.
D. As a collection space for leaking pipe work
707. If the value wheel of an extended spindle value is free, but the value seems to be
not moving, what would you check first?
A. Whether the value is dirty.
B. If there is excess pressure on the value.
C. Check that the value is not broken.
D. Check to see if the value spindle is being turned.
710. In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections
separated?
A. Neoprene lip seals
B. Machineable sealing rings.
C. Labyrinth seals.
D. Mechanical garter spring seals.
711. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and
impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and
why?
A. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence.
B. The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity.
C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller.
D. The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence
712. Why is an isolating value fitted on the fire main from the engine room?
A. To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running
B. To isolate the pump for repairs.
C. In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room
D. To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply the
deck.
713. What could cause overheating after pump overhaul, it is verified that assembly is
correct?
A. Insufficient liquid supply to the pump
B. Obstruction on the discharge side
C. The pump is not bled off properly
D. Misalignment of the shaft
714. When inspecting purifier crankcase oil you find that the oil has emulsified or that
the level o
A. that the safety joint of the oil pump is broken.
B. the bowl is leaking water on the main seal ring.
C. that the bowl revolutions have dropped and the purifier is working in
overload.
D. that water is leaking in or oil is leaking out via the oil seal of the horizontal
shaft.