4th QUARTER EXAMINATION IN SCIENCE GRADE 9

NAME:____________________________________ Date:_______
YEAR & SEC.:_______________________________ SCORE:_______

DIRECTION: Read the questions carefully and choose the best answer.

1. Which of the following equations is correct in describing the relationship between speed s, distance d
and time t?
a. s = d / t b. s = d x t c. s = d + t d. s = d – t
2. Which of the following is NOT a contact force?
a. Friction b. Tension c. elastic force d. gravitational force
3. A 50 kg astronaut ejects 100g of gas from his propulsion pistol at a velocity of 50 m/s. what is the
velocity?
a. -0.10 m/s b. -0.50 m/s c. 0 m/s d. -100 m/s
4. Inertia is
a. The basis for Newton’s first law of motion
b. Defined as the tendency for an object to remain in uniform motion
c. A term meaning resistant to change
d. All of the above
5. Generally refers to a change in position of an object.
a. motion b. force c. power d. work
6. A push and pull upon an object resulting from the object’s interaction with another object.
a. force b. friction c. motion d. acceleration
7. Two identical cars are travelling along EDSA. Which of the two cars would have greater momentum?
a. The slower car c. both have the same momentum
b. The faster car d. cannot be easily determined
8. A 25 kg girl is riding a 5 kg bike with a velocity of 5 m/s going east. What is the total momentum of a girl
and a bike together?
a. 100 kg m/s b. 125 kg m/s c. 150 kg m/s d. 200 m/s
9. Two 0.5 kg balls approach each other with the same speed of 1.0 m/s. What is the total momentum of
the system before collision?
a. 0 b. 0.50 kg m/s c. 10 kg m/s d. -1.0 kg m/s
10. Two billiard balls approach each other with the same speed. If they collide in a perfectly elastic collision,
what would be their velocities after collision?
a. Zero c. same in magnitude but opposite in direction
b. Same in magnitude and direction d. different in magnitude and opposite in direction
11. If a free falling ball is equipped with a speedometer, by how much would its speed reading increase for
every second?
a. 0 m/s b. 9.8 m/s c. 10 m/s d. 20 m/s
12. The motion of an object with constant acceleration is also known as __________.
a. Motion c. constant motion
b. Uniform motion d. uniformly accelerated motion
13. A moderate force will break an egg. However, an egg dropped on the road usually breaks, while one
dropped on the grass usually doesn’t break. This is because for the egg dropped on the grass,
a. The change in momentum is greater
b. The change in momentum is less
c. The time interval for stopping is greater
d. The time interval for stopping is less
14. When a ball is dropped at a certain height, its gravitational potential energy
a. increases b. remains the same c. decreases d. increases and decreases
15. It is the ability to do work.
a. Energy b. power c. speed d. kinetic
16. The energy present in moving objects. It is equal to the mass of a moving object multiplied by the
square of that object’s velocity, multiplied by the constant ½.
a. Kinetic energy c. potential energy
b. Gravitational energy d. mechanical energy
17. Which event illustrates the direct transformation of potential to kinetic energy?
a. A basketball player catches a flying ball
b. A kalesa moves from rest
c. Kathy’s arrow is released from its bow
d. The spring mechanism of a toy is rotated until it locked
18. Which among the forms of energy is considered a potential energy?
a. Chemical energy c. sound energy
b. Radiant energy d. thermal energy
19. In which case is there a decrease in gravitational potential energy?
a. Amada stretches horizontally a rubber band
b. A car ascends a steep parking ramp
c. Pamela’s puppy jumps down the chair
d. Water is forced upward through a pipe.
20. Francis stretched a rubber band five times. After that, he observed that the rubber band felt warm. Did
the rubber band gain heat?
a. No, it is not evident
b. Yes, the rubber band felt warm means it gained heat
c. Yes, the rubber band felt warm means it loss heat
d. No, temperature is not related to a gain or loss of heat.

TEST II.

1-4. Four fundamental forces in nature (non-contact)

5-10. Give atleast five mechanical (contact)
11-13. Three Laws of Motion
14-15. Two categories of energy

TEST III.

1. Aiza drove off to work, leaving her house at 7:30 am. She reached her office at 9:30 am. If the
average speed of her car is 35 km/h, how many kilometers is her house for her place of work?
2. A wagon has a mass of 850 kilograms. How much force must be applied to give it an acceleration of
15 m/s2?
3. Which of the following has a greater kinetic energy, a 10,000 kg vehicle moving at 10 m/s, or 500 kg
object moving at 200 m/s?
4. Which of the following has a greater potential energy on earth, a 1.5 kg ball raised at 0.5 m high, or
a 0.5 kg ball raised 1.5 m high?
5. A jeepney has a mass of 2000 kg travelling at the rate of 10 m/s. What is the momentum of
jeepney?
6. A bowling ball is rolling at a velocity of 3.5 m/s with a momentum of 7.5 kg-m/s. What is its mass?
7. A fielder throws a softball with a mass of 0.3 kg and a momentum 10 kg-m/s. What is its velocity?

**************GOODLUCK**************
 MAGALLANES NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Magallanes, Sorsogon

4th QUARTER EXAMINATION IN SCIENCE GRADE 7

NAME:____________________________________ Date:_______
YEAR & SEC.:_______________________________ SCORE:_______

DIRECTION: Read the questions carefully and choose the best answer.

1. What are the natural resources? These are materials or elements from the environment that people…
a. did not create c. invented for themselves
b. use to meet their needs d. observe using scientific equipment
2. What do you call a resource that people can use again and again but its supply can be replaced?
a. renewable b. recyclable c. reliable d. unlimited
3. Which pair of resources is renewable?
a. cotton and leather c. aluminum and iron
b. coal and solar energy d. soil and minerals
4. Why are coal, petroleum, and natural gas considered nonrenewable resources if they were produced from
plant and animal remains?
a. It takes a very long time to produce them
b. Using those results in environmental problems.
c. They are difficult to locate and explore from earth
d. The Philippines is dependent on supply form other country
5. What are the two factors have the greatest influence on soil formation?
a. Temperature and rainfall c. Slope of the land and rainfall
b. Kind of soil particles and temperature d. reforestation and use of compost as fertilizer
6. What is the most abundant element in the Earth’s atmosphere?
a. Nitrogen b. oxygen c. argon d. carbon dioxide
7. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?
a. Stratosphere b. mesosphere c. troposphere d. thermosphere
8. In which layer do virtually all weather phenomena take place?
a. Troposphere b. stratosphere c. mesosphere d. exosphere
9. What is the correct order of Earth’s atmospheric layers from bottom to top?
a. Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
b. Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
c. Exosphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere
d. Exosphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Stratosphere
10. In which layer is most water vapor found?
a. troposphere b. mesosphere c. Stratosphere d. thermosphere
11. What is meant by “trace” gases?
a. They are not harmful c. they are emitted by trees
b. They are naturally occurring on Earth d. They are present in very small amount
12. What is the basis for the division of the layers of the atmosphere surrounding the Earth?
a. Changing weather pattern c. it helps in the cloud formation
b. Changing in temperature d. changing composition of gases
13. The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon. Without a natural greenhouse effect, the temperature of
the Earth would be about 18 0C instead of its present 14 0C. Why are scientist concerned about the
greenhouse effect?
a. Planting trees in wider areas is not possible; Earth has many desert areas
b. There is no technology that will keep the temperature of Earth constant
c. Human activities like burning of fossil fuels and deforestation enhance the greenhouse effect
d. The human population is increasing rapidly; more carbon dioxide will be released to the atmosphere
14. Why is the presence of ozone above the troposphere important for the survival of living things on Earth?
a. It warms the Earth surface c. it helps in cloud formation
b. It offers protection from sun’s UV rays d. it makes jet flying comfortable
15. Why do hikers put on thicker clothes when climbing a high mountain?
a. For protection against insect bites
b. The air temperature decreases with altitude
c. so they can easily be located when they get lost
d. to add more weight so they will not be pushed by the wind
16. What happen when air is heated?
a. It stays in place b. it rises c. it spreads in all direction d. it moves toward a lower elevation
17. Which of the following does Not describe the amihan?
a. Brings lots of rain c. comes for the northeast and moves southward
b. Comes around July to September d. brings cold weather
18. What is FALSE about ITCZ?
a. It results in thunderstorms c. it occurs in countries near the equator
b. It occurs in the Philippines all year round d. none of these
19. A Solar Eclipse happens when the ______ blocks the ______.
a. Earth blocks the sun c. moons blocks the earth
b. Moon blocks the sun d. sun block the moon
20. A lunar eclipse happens when the _____ blocks the ______.
a. Earth cast a shadow on the sun c. moon casts a shadow on the earth
b. Earth casts a shadow on the moon d. sun casts a shadow on the moon
21. Give three energy resources in the Philippines that are considered feasible as alternatives to fossil fuels? Give
a reason for each choice..
a. ______________________________________________________________________________________
b. ______________________________________________________________________________________
c. ______________________________________________________________________________________
22. You see pieces of cardboard, empty softdrink cans, and a broken wooden chair dumped in a vacant lot.
a. What resources were used in producing these materials? _______________________________________
b. What materials are being wasted in the dumpsites? ___________________________________________
23. What objects do you use that are made from materials produced from:
a. Mines: __________________________________________
b. Forest: __________________________________________
c. Farm: ___________________________________________
24. Cutting of trees in large areas contributes to global warming. Give one reason to support this statement.
25. Give two ways by which you can help prevent global warming from getting worse. Give a reason for each.

**************GOODLUCK**************
 MAGALLANES NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Magallanes, Sorsogon

4th QUARTER EXAMINATION IN SCIENCE GRADE 8

NAME:____________________________________ Date:_______
YEAR & SEC.:_______________________________ SCORE:_______

DIRECTION: Read the questions carefully and choose the best answer.

1. Why is biodiversity important to ecosystems?

a. It allows animals to feed permanently from one type of plant.
b. It increases at each level of the food chain.
c. It helps populations adapt to ecological changes.
d. It reduces the number of insects in a given ecosystem.

2. The first person to have created a classification system for living organisms was
a. Carolus Linneaus b.Leonardo Da Vinci c. Pliny the Elder d. Aristotle
3. Why is biodiversity valuable and desirable to humans?
a. for medicinal purposes c. for agricultural diversity
b. for consumptive use d. All of these are correct.
4. Reasons for preserving biodiversity include all of the following except
a. isolating unique genetic material so it can be incorporated into existing crops.
b. increasing the chances of discovering organisms with medicinal value.
c. preventing natural evolution.
d. finding new plants that can supplement the world’s food supply.
5. The correct term for a "two-part naming system" is
a. Taxonomy c. Binomial nomenclature
b. Genus and species d. Latinized words
6. The correct sequence for the seven levels of classification is
a. Kingdom Phylum Order Class Family Genus Species
b. Kingdom Phylum Family Class Order Genus Species
c. Kingdom Class Family Phylum Order Genus Species
d. Kingdom Phylum Class Order Family Genus Species
7. What level of biodiversity is most commonly equated with the overall concept of biodiversity
a. genetic diversity c. ecosystem diversity
b. species diversity d. All of the above
8. A tapeworm enters into the stomach of a human and consumes all the nutrients. This is described as....
a. Parasitism b. Mutualism c. Commensalism d. Resource partitioning
9. An earthworm belongs to which phylum?
a. Arthropoda b. Porifera c. Annelida d. Cnideria
10. An example of Phylum Porifera is the:
a. sponge b. jellyfish c. spider d. sea star
11. An example of Phylum Echinodermata is the:
a. sea urchin b. sea anemone c. sea horse d. all of these
12. Some characteristics that distinguish arthropods are:
a. arthritis, a hard shell c. jointed appendages, an exoskeleton
b. no muscles attached to the endoskeleton, poisonous d. none of these
13. All reptiles breathe:
a. with a lung b. using gills c. through moist skin d. all of these
14. The mammal subclasses are:
a. marsupials and placentas c. hirsutials, monotremes and marsupials
b. monotremes, marsupials and placentals d. none of these
15. Fungi are:
a. heterotrophic b. eukaryotic c. made of hyphae d. saprobes
16. Which of the following phylogenetic groups within the animal kingdom encompasses all the others in the
list?
A. rotifera B. deuterostomes C. bilateria D. arthropoda E. protostomes
17. Bilateral symmetry in the animal kingdom is best correlated with:
A. an ability to sense equally in all directions
B. an ability to capture food from a sessile position
C. symbiotic relationships
D. ventral and dorsal differentiation
E. motility and active predation and escape
16. Different lineages of the Class Reptilia are believed to have given rise to which of the following animal
groups?
A. Birds B. Amphibians C. Bony fishes D. Mammals E. Both (A) and (D)
17. Medusa and polyp body plans are typical of which group:
A. Parazoa B. Cnidaria C. Echinoderms D. Platyhelminthes E. Porifera
18. Which of the following is radially symmetrical?
A. a donut B. an automobile C. a spoon D. a dog
19. Unlike other animals, sponges:
A. are unicellular B. lack true tissues C. exhibit bilateral symmetry D. are prokaryotic
20. Octopi are most closely related to which of the following organisms?
A. clams B. jellyfish C. starfish D. earthworms E. crabs
21. There are three major groups of mammals, categorized on the basis of their
A. size B. habitat C. method of locomotion D. method of reproduction
22. Which of the following classifications would not apply to both dogs and humans?
A. Kingdom Animalia B. Phylum Chordata C. Order Primates D. Class Mammalia

23. A child brought home a strange animal it found outside under a rock. It had moist skin, a complete
digestive tract, a ventral nerve cord, and had gone through torsion. It must be:
A. a lancelet. B. a crustacean. C. a mollusk. D. an annelid.
24. Animals are:
A. multicellular eukaryotic heterotrophs B. unicellular eukaryotic heterotrophs
C. multicellular prokaryotic heterotrophs D. multicellular eukaryotic autotrophs
E. unicellular prokaryotic heterotrophs
25. The body of a fungus (with the exception of yeast) consists of threadlike _____________ , which form a
network called a _____________.
A. mycelia . . . dikaryon B. hyphae . . . chytrid C. mycelia . . . hypha
D. hyphae . . . mycelium E. sporangia . . . dikaryon
26. Based on our current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among organisms, humans are
most closely related to:
A. ray-finned fish B. amphibians C. osteichthyes D. reptiles E. echinodermata
27. Insects are typically characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Three pairs of legs B. chelicerata C. wings
D. A head, thorax, and abdomen E. Bilateral symmetry
28. Unlike placental mammals, both monotremes and marsupials:
A. are found in Australia and Africa D. lack nipples
B. include only insectivores and herbivores E. lay eggs
C. have some embryonic development outside the mother's uterus
29. Fungi are classified on the basis of
A. their source of food. B. whether they form molds. C. their sexual stage.
D. their commercial use. E. the number of nuclei that are found in a dikaryon.
30. Living things have basic needs. What are the four basic needs of living things?
A. food, clothing, shelter, love B. food, water, habitat, space
C. water, air, habitat, protection D. air, water, food, habitat
31. Some living things depend on each other in a very close relationship, which lasts over time. This
relationship is called ...
A. mutualism B. parasitism C. symbiosis D. commensalism
32. A salamander hides under the bark, fungi grows on the rotting log and other forest dwelling organisms
use the hollow core as a home. This rotting decaying log is an ...
A. environment B. ecological subsystem C. ecotrust D. ecosystem
33. Tapeworms live inside organisms and feed on the nutrients of the food they eat. A tapeworm is an
example of ...
A. mutualism B. parasitism C. commensalism D. Cannibalism
34. One model that shows how energy passes from organism to organism is called
A. an energy link B. a food chain C. a phytoplankton cycle D. photosynthesis
35. Which of the following two organisms are producers?
A. plants and phytoplankton C. plants and consumers
B. consumers and phytoplankton D. phytoplankton and chlorophyll
36. Producers make food using ______ to trap the Sun's energy in a process called photosynthesis.
A. food chains B. chlorophyll C. cellular respiration D. microscopic organisms
37. A food web is more realistic than a food chain for showing the feeding relationships in ecosystems
because
A. it compares the number of consumers to the number of micro-organisms in an ecosystem
B. food chains use only a small sampling of organisms.
C. a food web explains why there are more producers than consumers.
D. producers are usually eaten by many different consumers and most consumers are eaten by more than
one predator
38. To show how many organisms are at each level of a food chain, ecologists use a model called
A. an energy flow pyramid C. a pyramid of numbers
B. a pyramid of energy D. a food chain/food web pyramid
39. A pyramid of numbers shows that in an ecosystem
A. there are always a large number of producers at the bottom and fewer top consumers
B. there are always a large number of top consumers and fewer producers
C. there are an equal number of producers and consumers
D. there are more top consumers than primary consumers
40. What do ecologists call the transfer of energy that begins with the Sun and passes from one organism to
the next in a food chain?
A. a food web B. a top consumer C. energy flow D. a pyramid of numbers
41. Only a small amount of the energy stored in food is available to the next organism in a food chain because
A. there are more producers than consumers in a food chain
B. there are fewer top consumers than producers in a food chain
C. primary and secondary consumers compete for food
D. most of the energy is used for life processes
42. The main functions of the digestive system are
A. ingestion and digestion C. propulsion and secretion
B. absorption and elimination D. all of these
43. The movement of digestion products, electrolytes, vitamins, and water across the GI tract epithelium and
into the underlying blood and lymphatic vessels is called
A. ingestion B. absorption C. digestion D. secretion
44. All of the following are organs of the digestive system except the
A. spleen B. liver C. tongue D. esophagus
45. Production of bile is one of several important functions of the
A. gallbladder B. liver C. pancreas D. small intestine