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PUB474 FOOD STUDIES – Semester 1 2007

SECTION A

Answer all forty (40) questions in Section A.

Each question is worth one (1) mark.

QUESTION 1

Which source of beef produces the most desirable quality of meat?

(a) Bulls.
(b) Cows.
(c) Heifers.
(d) Steers.
(e) Jersey.

QUESTION 2

Which form of myoglobin is responsible for the pinkish-red colour of bacon?

(a) Oxymyoglobin
(b) Metmyoglobin
(c) Deoxymyoglobin
(d) Nitroso-myoglobin
(e) Denatured globin hemichrome

QUESTION 3

Which of the following is not defined by FSANZ as ‘meat’?

a) Chicken
b) Buffalo
c) Rabbit
d) Goat
e) Horse

QUESTION 4

The difference in colour between chicken breast meat and chicken thigh meat is mainly due to

(a) Breast meat containing less fat than thigh meat.

(b) Breast meat containing less connective tissue than thigh meat.
(c) Different types of oxygen storage pigments.
(d) Thigh meat containing more myoglobin than breast meat
(e) Thigh containing red muscle fibres and breast containing white muscle fibres.

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QUESTION 5

When purchasing fish, its freshness should be determined by which of the following criteria?

(a) Aroma.
(b) Soft flesh.
(c) A relaxed body.
(d) Red gills.
(e) A swollen belly.

QUESTION 6

Which of the following is NOT a raising agent in baked cereal products?

(a) Baking powder

(b) Steam
(c) Air
(d) Bicarbonate of soda
(e) Sugar

QUESTION 7

Sorbet is

(a) A frozen dessert made without fat or dairy products.

(b) A frozen yogurt product with fruit added.
(c) Comparable in content to low-fat ice cream.
(d) Fresh yogurt pureed with frozen fruit.
(e) Fresh fruit syrups and egg.

QUESTION 8

Cheeses that have a tendency to release oil to the surface of a food are usually

(a) Strong in flavour.

(b) High in moisture.
(c) High in fat.
(d) High in protein.
(e) Aged longer.

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QUESTION 9

Processed cheese is a cheese made from

(a) Heated cheddar cheese and blue cheese mixed with other natural ingredients.
(b) One or more varieties of cheese, with or without heat, mixed with other ingredients.
(c) Minimum processing of enzyme-coagulated cheeses with or without heat.
(d) All-natural cheeses that are melted and then remolded.
(e) Bland cheeses that are melted, emulsified, coloured and remolded.

QUESTION 10

Which of the following represents the time and temperature at which cheese should be cooked?

(a) Medium time and medium temperatures

(b) Long time and short temperatures
(c) Long time and low temperatures
(d) Short time and high temperatures
(e) Short time and low temperatures

QUESTION 11

Fruit drink means a product prepared from one or more of the following, EXCEPT which?

(a) Carbonated water

(b) Sugars
(c) Fruit purée
(d) Lemon peel extract
(e) Water

QUESTION 12

Turgor is the word that describes the

(a) Crispness of the cell due to the presence of water.

(b) Juiciness of vegetables that results from the presence of organic acids.
(c) Starch content of the cell.
(d) Size of the air pockets in the cell wall.
(e) Crunchiness which results from firm fibres in the cell walls.

QUESTION 13

Most vegetables such as cereal grains, and nuts, have very little _________ , except for beans.

(a) Vitamin C.
(b) Certain B vitamins.
(c) Protein.
(d) Minerals.
(e) Fibre.

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QUESTION 14

The colouring compounds that are a precursor to vitamin A are

(a) Anthoxanthins.
(b) Anthocyanins.
(c) Chlorophylls.
(d) Betalins.
(e) Carotenoids.

QUESTION 15

Which of the following fresh fruit jellies would be most likely to fail?

a) Orange
b) Pineapple
c) Banana
d) Peach
e) Strawberry

QUESTION 16

Pectin is the

(f) Cementing compound between the cells of fruits.

(g) Coloring compound found within the cells of fruits.
(h) Flavoring compound found between the cells of fruits.
(i) Taste compound found under the skin of fruits.
(j) Primary organic acid found in the skin of fruits.

QUESTION 17

Which of the following foods and combinations of foods provides the best example of protein
complementation?

(a) Vegemite sandwich using Multigrain bread

(b) Red lentil soup and toast
(c) Balsamic bean salad and tossed green salad
(d) Tossed salad greens with chickpea and French dressing
(e) Red jelly

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QUESTION 18

Which of the following is a variety of onion?

(a) Red globe.

(b) Shiitake.
(c) Spanish.
(d) Swede.
(e) Pontiac.

QUESTION 19

In which structure within a cereal grain is the lipid found?

(a) Aleurone.
(b) Bran layers.
(c) Cuticle.
(d) Endosperm
(e) Embryo.

QUESTION 20

Traditionally, white flour was considered superior to wholemeal flour because …

(a) It was easier to produce.

(b) It has a finer texture.
(c) It can be used for making better quality baked goods.
(d) It has better keeping qualities.
(e) It is cheaper to produce.

QUESTION 21

A ‘roux’ is a thickener made

(a) By combining starch and a cool liquid.

(b) By concentrating a soup stock until it is a syrupy consistency.
(c) By cooking equal parts of flour and fat.
(d) By combining equal parts of soft butter blended with flour.
(e) By combining a commercial gravy sachet and water.

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QUESTION 22

______ wheat is better for making ________ because it has a higher _________ content than
______ wheat.

(a) Soft, cakes, protein, hard

(b) Soft, pasta, protein, hard
(c) Hard, pasta, carbohydrate, soft
(d) Hard, bread, protein, soft
(e) Soft, bread, carbohydrate, hard

QUESTION 23

Which of the following explains why cereal grains expand upon cooking?

(a) Water gets into the starch granule and carbohydrates leach out.
(b) Water gets into the starch granule and binds with carbohydrates inside the granule.
(c) The starch molecules gel when they are heated.
(d) The starch molecules gel when they are cooled.
(e) The proteins and starches combine together when heated and swell.

QUESTION 24

Which of the following is layered pastry?

(a) Shortcrust
(b) Pikelets
(c) Danish
(d) Pancakes
(e) Choux

QUESTION 25

Which of the following is responsible for the large volume expansion when yeast bread rises?

(a) Baking powder.

(b) Steam.
(c) Carbon dioxide.
(d) Air.
(e) Bicarbonate of soda.

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QUESTION 26

Which of the following breakfast cereal products would contain added vitamins?

(a) Rice bran.

(b) Corn flakes.
(c) Rolled oats.
(d) Semolina.
(e) Polenta porridge.

QUESTION 27

A shortened cake is so called because it is made

(a) With fat.

(b) With milk.
(c) With yeast.
(d) With short cooking time.
(e) With baking soda.

QUESTION 28

Which of the following cake INGREDIENTS is responsible for the elasticity during cooking?

(a) Milk
(b) Flour
(c) Eggs
(d) Sugar
(e) Vanilla

QUESTION 29

The term “quick” in quick bread refers to the fact that the bread is

(a) Cooked immediately after being mixed.

(b) Fast to prepare.
(c) Leavened by air.
(d) Made without a leavener.
(e) Made without yeast.

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QUESTION 30

Crepes are thin pancakes and are different from regular pancakes due to the amount of

(a) Milk.
(b) Leavener.
(c) Fat.
(d) Sugar.
(e) Eggs.

QUESTION 31

Which of the following is NOT a property or function of gluten in bread-making?

a) Gelatinisation
b) Support medium in which other ingredients are embedded
c) Development of an adhesive and cohesive network
d) Hydration
e) Rigidity after baking

QUESTION 32

If making a low energy (low Calorie or low Joule), orange soft drink, which of the following
would make a suitable substitute for sugar?

(a) Orange juice

(b) Honey and emulsifier
(c) Fructose and orange oil
(d) Aspartame and thickener
(e) Raw sugar

QUESTION 33

The carbohydrate base used in the making of rum is

(a) Barley.
(b) Maize.
(c) Rye.
(d) Grapes.
(f) Molasses.

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QUESTION 34

Which of the following best explains why green beans turn a dull colour when boiled for over
about 5 minutes?

a) Formation of pheophytins from chlorophyll.

b) Loss of air that was present in the raw beans.
c) Diffusion of alkaline substances into the plastids.
d) Release of volatile organic acids.
e) Cooking the beans with the saucepan lid on.

QUESTION 35

Which of the following foods would be most likely to contain an added preservative?

(a) Lettuce.
(b) Bread.
(c) UHT milk.
(d) Apples kept in cold storage.
(e) Chocolate.

QUESTION 36

The weeping that occurs in a cooked meringue when sugar in not adequately incorporated is
called

A. Denaturation.
B. Coagulation.
C. Syneresis.
D. Beading.
E. Dehydration.

QUESTION 37

Which of the following foods would be most likely to require an antioxidant for long-term
quality retention?

(a) Bread.
(b) Jelly beans.
(c) Polyunsaturated margarine.
(d) Butter.
(e) Frozen vegetables.

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QUESTION 38

Food processing has positive nutritional consequences for consumers in which way?

(a) Nutrient losses in home and commercial processing are usually similar.
(b) There is an improvement in food availability.
(c) Fresh and raw foods always provide fewer nutrients than are provided by ‘processed’
foods.
(d) Some increases in sodium and other nutrients.
(e) Fat content of products can be controlled without negative consequences.

QUESTION 39

Which of the following processes is most likely to result in the greatest increase in sodium
content of the food product?

(a) Parboiling rice.

(b) Canning vegetables.
(c) Fortifying milks.
(d) Soaking legumes.
(e) Freezing vegetables.

QUESTION 40

Assuming all of the listed foods are commercially purchased, which of the following breakfast
items is LEAST likely to be nutrient fortified?

(a) Milk (1.4% fat, 4.5% protein)

(b) Boiled Egg
(c) Orange Juice
(d) Wholemeal Bread (2 slices)
(e) Margarine

End of SECTION A

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SECTION B

Answer FIVE (5) questions only in Part B.

Each question is worth (nine) 9 marks.

QUESTION 41

In food safety, what does the abbreviation HACCP stand for? (1 mark)

List the 7 (seven) principles and briefly explain each principle and its implications in food
processing. (8 marks)

QUESTION 42

Provide a definition to distinguish between food infection and food intoxication. Include one
specific example of a micro-organism that produces each type of food safety hazard. (3 marks)

List the biological consequences, typical food sources, and measures that should be taken to
prevent each specific hazard. (6 marks)

QUESTION 43

What part of meat influences the preparation method chosen for a particular cut of meat? (1
mark)

What happens to this component upon heating? (2 marks)

Based upon the above, give 2 (two) examples of specific cuts of meat, their location on the
animal and explain the best ways to cook these meat cuts in order to produce the most desirable,
cooked product. In your explanation, give clear reasons why the methods produce the required
product. (6 marks)

QUESTION 44

List the ingredients of a shortened CAKE and briefly state how it is made. (3 marks)

Explain the chemical and physical roles of each ingredient, and how the preparation affects the
quality of the final product. (6 marks)

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QUESTION 45

List the 3 (three) main classes of vegetable pigments. (1.5 marks)

List 2 (two) pigments that belong to each class, and a vegetable that contains each pigment. (3
marks)
Explain the colour changes that occur when each of the vegetables is cooked. (4.5 marks)

QUESTION 46

When making ice-cream, what is ‘over-run’? (1 mark)

Which ingredients are responsible for the over-run? Explain the mechanism. (4 marks)
Why does ice cream shrink during storage? (4 marks)

QUESTION 47

Explain the role of lipids, emulsifiers, liquid and gluten in the making of successful shortcrust
pastry. (9 marks)

QUESTION 48

List SIX (6) recommendations you would give a novice cook about how to make a successful
Pavlova. (3 marks)

Justify each recommendation, by explaining the chemistry and physics of the food processes that
are taking place. (6 marks)

QUESTION 49

Use THREE (3) specific examples to explain why processing is essential for making cereals and
cereal products acceptable as food for humans. (3 marks for each example = 9 marks)

End of SECTION B

END OF PAPER

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