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FIITJEE Talent Recognition Exam – 2018
for students presently in
Class 9
Paper 1
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 210
Code 9000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question

Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 39 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 40 to 48 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 49 to 57 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 58 to 66 +2 0
SECTION – III
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 114 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd. ICES House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -1100 16, Ph : 26569493, 26515949 Fax : 26513942
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (Q. 1 to 6): In each of the following questions, a number/letter series is given with one term
missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in
the given series.
1. AN, CP, FS, ?

(A) IV (B) JW
(C) KX (D) LW
2. MYZ, LWX, ?, JST

(A) KUV (B) IQR
(C) HOP (D) GMN
3. 8, 27, 64, ?, 216, 343.

(A) 125 (B) 81
(C) 100 (D) 196
4. 5, 11, 19, ?, 41
(A) 28 (B) 29
(C) 30 (D) 35
5. 120, ?, 24, 6, 0.
(A) 100 (B) 70
(C) 60 (D) 20
Space for Rough Work
FIITJEE Ltd. ICES House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -1100 16, Ph : 26569493, 26515949 Fax : 26513942
BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-2
1 1
6. 729, 81, 9, 1, , ?, .
9 729
1 1
(A) (B)
27 81
1 1
(C) (D)
243 486
7. If in a coded language the word ‘REKHA’ is written as ‘AHKER’ then in the same code language
‘HEMA’ will be written as
(A) AMEH (B) EMAH
(C) MAHE (D) EAMH
8. If in a coded language the word CHILDREN is written as EJKNFTGP then TEACHER will be written
as
(A) VGCEJTG (B) VGCEJGT
(C) VGCJEGT (D) VGCGEJT
9. A is paternal uncle of B, B is daughter of C, C is the wife of D’s son. Then how is A related to D?
(A) Son (B) Brother
(C) Father (D) Maternal uncle
10. Ram travels 8 km to south, then moves to right and travels 6 km and at the end he again moves right
and travels 8 km. Then finally how much shortest distance of Ram from initial point is
(A) 6 km (B) 8 km
(C) 10 km (D) 14 km
11. If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the following is true?

(A) A = B (B) A < B
(C) A > B (D) None of these
12. If ‘A3P’ means ‘A is the mother of P’, ‘A4P’ means ‘A is the brother of P’, ‘A9P’ means ‘A is the
husband of P’ and ‘A5P’ means ‘A is the daughter of P’, then which of the following means that K is
the mother-in-law of M?
(A) M9N3K4J (B) M9N5K3J
(C) K5J9M3N (D) K3J9N4M
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph: 49283471/73/75
website: www.fiitjee.com
Directions (Q. 13 to 14): In the following diagram rectangle represents men, triangle represents educated,
circle represents urban and square represents government employees.
8
10 7
12 6 13
4
9 14
11
5
13. Which one of the following number represents the educated men but not urban?
(A) 9 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 11
14. Which one of the following represents men who are urban as well as government employees?
(A) 7 (B) 13
(C) 10 (D) 6
15. Pointing to a lady, a man said “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. How is the lady
related to the man?
(A) Mother’s sister (B) Grandmother
(C) Sister of father-in-law (D) Maternal aunt
16. When the following figure is folded to form a cube, which number is opposite to the face 3?
1
3 2
4
5 6
(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
17. Sara is older than Mala. Gopal is older than Mala but younger than Sara. Kapil is younger than Ram
and Mala. Mala is older than Ram. Who is the eldest?
(A) Sara (B) Mala
(C) Kapil (D) Gopal
18. In a coded language ‘RUSTY’ is written as 96872. Then in the same coded language ‘ZXWV’ will be
written as
(A) 1354 (B) 1543
(C) 1345 (D) 1534
19. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the
correct sequence.
1. Spruce 2. Spume 3. Spree 4. Spurt 5. Sprawl
(A) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (D) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Directions (Q. 20 to 21): Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the questions
given below:
FJMPOWRNBEYCKAVLDGXUHQISZT
20. Which letter is tenth to the right of the letter which is exactly the middle letter between F and D?
(A) D (B) G
(C) H (D) X
21. FJM is related to TZS in the same way as JMP is related to

(A) IZS (B) ZSI
(C) ZIS (D) ISZ
22. Find the missing term in the following figures.
511 3
255 7
127 15
63 ?
(A) 30 (B) 31
(C) 32 (D) 33
23. If every letter of English Alphabets beginning from ‘B’ is replaced by consecutive odd number
beginning with 3, which number will be 3rd to the right of the 10th letter counting from the right end?
(A) 17 (B) 33
(C) 23 (D) 39
24. If ‘–‘ stands for addition, ‘+’ stands for subtraction, ‘’ stands for multiplication and ‘×’ stands for
division, then which one of the following equations is correct?
(A) 25 × 5  20 – 27 + 7 = 120 (B) 25 + 5 × 20 – 27  7 = 128
(C) 25 + 5 – 20  27 × 7 = 95 (D) 25 – 5 + 20 × 27  7 = 100
Directions (Q. 25 to 27): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, not necessarily in
the same order. C is third to the left of E, B is not an immediate neighbour of either E or C. H is not an
immediate neighbour of E. D is third to the right of B, H is second to the left of A. F is not immediate
neighbour of H.
25. Who is sitting third to the left of B?

(A) E (B) A
(C) G (D) B
26. Which of the following pairs of people correctly represents the pair of people who are immediate
neighbour of H?
(A) DG (B) GA
(C) AD (D) BG
27. Who is sitting between B and C?

(A) H (B) F
(C) A (D) G
Directions (Q. 28 to 30): In each question below is given a group of letter followed by found combination of
digits/symbol numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the four combination correct
represents combination as your answers.
Letter R E A U M D F P Q I O H N W Z B
Symbol 7 # $ 6 % 8 5 * 4 9 @  3  1 2
(i) If first letter is a consonant and the third letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the fourth letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code for
the vowel.
(iii) If the second and the third letters are consonant both are to be coded as the code for the third letter.
28. NABAQE
(A) 2$3$4# (B) 32$$4#
(C) 3$2$4# (D) 3$2$3#
29. FWZERA
(A) 5#7$ (B) 5#7$
(C) 17#$ (D) 511#7$
30. EMIRDP
(A) #%978* (B) #%9#8*
(C) 7%9#8* (D) #9%78*
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. The S.I. unit of acceleration is :–

(A) meter (B) second
(C) m/sec (D) m/sec2
32. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

(A) Displacement (B) Velocity
(C) Acceleration (D) Distance
33. Slope of velocity – time graph at an instant will give us :–

(A) Acceleration (B) Distance
(C) Displacement (D) None of these
34. Find the force applied by block A on block B. (All the surfaces A B
10 N 5N
are smooth) 3 kg 2 kg
(A) 10 N (B) 5 N
(C) 7 N (D) 15 N
35. Inertia of a body depends on :–

(A) Velocity (B) Mass
(C) Acceleration (D) Speed
36. If a resultant force of 30 N acts on a body of mass 6 kg. What is the acceleration of the body?
(A) 20 m / sec 2 (B) 12 m / sec 2
(C) 5 m / sec 2 (D) 8 m / sec 2
37. Gravitational force between two spherical bodies is directly proportional to which of the following
quantity?
(A) Distance between the bodies (B) Velocities of the bodies
(C) Speed of the bodies (D) Masses of the bodies
38. If a planet moves around the star in circular orbit then which quantity does not change with time?
(A) Speed (B) Momentum
(C) Velocity (D) None of these
39. What is the value of gravitational acceleration at the center of the earth?
(A) 10 m / sec 2 (B) 0 m / sec 2
(C) Infinite    (D) 5 m / sec 2
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
40. The increasing order of forces of attraction is :

(A) Water < air < rubber (B) Wind < sugar < oil
(C) Hydrogen < wood < juice (D) Air < juice < salt
41. Which of the following behave like fluids?

(A) Only gases (B) Gases and liquids
(C) Only liquids (D) Gases, solids and liquids
42. Which of the following compound will undergo sublimation?

(A) Sugar (B) Salt
(C) Camphor (D) None of these
43. At what temperature, does ice and water co-exist together at 1 atmospheric pressure?
(A) 298 K (B) 273 K
(C) 300 K (D) All of these
44. What is the SI unit of temperature?

(A) Celsius (B) Fahrenheit
(C) Kelvin (D) None of these
45. Solubility of solids in liquids increase with:

(A) Decrease in temperature (B) Increase in pressure
(C) Increase in temperature (D) Decrease in pressure
46. A non-metal which has lustre is:

(A) Mercury (B) Iodine
(C) Copper (D) Nitrogen
47. Common salt obtained from sea water is impure. It is purified by :

(A) Evaporation (B) Fractional distillation
(C) Crystallization (D) Distillation
48. At 100°C steam has more heat energy than the energy of boiling water because
(A) Steam has lesser kinetic energy than boiling water
(B) Steam has latent heat of vapourization
(C) Steam has lesser potential energy than boiling water
(D) All of the above
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
49. In the given figure, AB || CE and BC || FG. Find the value of x A

(A) 52° (B) 32° G
x C
(C) 42° (D) 36°
B D 138°
F E
50. If x2 + y2 + z2 = xy + yz + zx, then the triangle is: A

(A) isosceles
(B) right angled z y
(C) equilateral
(D) scalene
B x C
3r
27 4
51. If 27r = 81, find the value of r
4
(A) 3 (B) 32
(C) 33 (D) r 3
52. The continued product of (1 – x), (1 + x), (1 + x2), (1 + x4) and (1 + x8) is
(A) (1 – x8 + x16) (B) (x8 + x16)
16
(C) (1 – x ) (D) (x16 – 1)
53. Determine the ratio in which y – x + 2 = 0 divides the line joining (3, – 1) and (8, 9)
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 4 : 3
(C) 2 : 3 (D) none of these
54. Find the value of k, if the points (– 2, 5), (– 5, – 10) and (k, – 13) are collinear
5 28
(A) (B) –
28 5
(C) 28 (D) 5
55. The expression (x + y)-1(x-1 + y-1) is equivalent to

(A) 1 (B) (xy)-1
(C) xy (D) xy-1 + x-1y
56. The sides of a triangle are 25m, 39m and 56m respectively. Find the length of the altitude on the side
56m.
(A) 15 m (B) 16.5 m
(C) 18.6 m (D) 21 m
x
3
 3
x2
57. If x   x 2  , then the value of x can be
 
 
3 9
(A) (B)
2 4
16 8
(C) (D)
25 27
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
58. Which of the following is not included in “organic farming”?

(A) Compost (B) Green manure
(C) Crop rotation (D) Synthetic fertilizers
59. Red Sindhi, Sahiwal, Jersey and Brown Swiss are breeds of
(A) Goat (B) Buffalo
(C) Cow (D) Poultry
60. When fluoride concentration in water exceeds 1.5 mg/lit, the disease that may be caused is:
(A) Itai-Itai (B) Polio
(C) Blue baby syndrome (D) Fluorosis
61. Which of the following statements about forest is/are incorrect?

(I) Forest provides recreational opportunities.
(II) Forest helps in economic development.
(III) Forest reduces soil erosion
(A) (I) and (II) only (B) (II) and (III) only
(C) (III) only (D) None of the above
62. Phagocytosed food is digested with the help of enzymes which are present in
(A) Ribosomes (B) Lysosomes
(C) Mitochondria (D) Golgi complex
63. The cell theory is not applicable to

(A) Bacteria (B) Algae
(C) Virus (D) Fungi
64. A plant tissue whose cells are capable of dividing and redividing is called
(A) Complex tissue (B) Connective tissue
(C) Permanent tissue (D) Meristematic tissue
65. Parenchyma : Simple : : Phloem : …………….

(A) Simple (B) Collenchyma
(C) Complex (D) Xylem
66. Statement I: The cells of parenchyma are dead and have thick deposition of lignin on their walls.
Statement II: Lignin makes the walls of cork impervious to gases and water.
(A) If both statement I and II are true
(B) If both statement I and II are false
(C) If statement I is true, statement II is false
(D) If statement I is false, statement II is true
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III
Section – III
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 78. Each question has 4 choices
67. A body starts from rest with an acceleration of 2 m / sec 2 . Find the displacement of the body in 5
second from the start.
(A) 25 meter (B) 50 meter
(C) 10 meter (D) 10 meter
68. A body is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 20 m/sec from the ground. Find the
speed of the ball when it reaches half of the maximum height.  Take g  10 m / sec 2  .
(A) 2 m/s (B) 200 m/s
(C) 10 2 m/s (D) 30 m/s
69. A particle starts from rest and moves in a straight v (m/sec)

line, it’s velocity – time graph is shown in figure.
Find the acceleration of the body
(A) 80 m / sec 2 40 m/s
(B) 10 m / sec 2
(C) 36 m / sec 2
(D) 44 m / sec 2
t=0 t = 4 sec Time (second)
70. If a body is just released from a height 80 meter above the ground. What time it will take to reach the
ground.  Take g  10 m / sec 2 
(A) 2 2 seconds (B) 8 seconds
(C) 2 seconds (D) 4 seconds
71. A resultant force of 40 N acts for 4 seconds on a body of mass 2 kg initially at rest. What is the
momentum of the body at 4 seconds?
(A) 80 kg m/sec (B) 20 kg m/sec
(C) 160 kg m/sec (D) 22 kg m/sec
72. According to Newton’s second law, rate of change of momentum is equal to which physical quantity?
(A) Acceleration (B) Force
(C) Velocity (D) Mass
73. If a body is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 90 m/sec from the ground. The momentum of
the body when it reaches its maximum height is.
(A) Zero (B) 90 kg m/sec
(C) 9 kg m/sec (D) 100 kg m/sec
74. Two forces of 4 N and 3 N are acting perpendicular to each other on a body. What is the resultant
force acting on the body?
(A) 7 N (B) 1 N
(C) 12 N (D) 5 N
75. Value of gravitational acceleration on the earth surface depends on which factor?
(A) Mass of earth (B) Friction on the earth surface
(C) Time on the earth surface (D) None of these
76. Value of gravitational acceleration at a depth equal to half of the radius of the earth will be :–
( Take g  10 m / s 2 at the surface of the earth).
(A) 9.8 m / sec 2 (B) 5 m / sec 2
(C) 10 m / sec 2 (D) 2 m / sec 2
77. As we move above the surface of the earth. How the value of g varies with height?
(A) It remain same (B) It increases
(C) It decreases (D) None of these
78. A body starts from rest and moves with an acceleration of 6 m / sec 2 . Find the displacement of the
body in 6th second of its motion.
(A) 30 meter (B) 36 meter
(C) 22 meter (D) 33 meter
79. Tyndall effect in colloids is due to :

(A) Absorption of light (B) Merging of light rays
(C) Scattering of light (D) Convergence of light rays
80. Which of the following statement is true

(A) Brass is an element (B) Dry ice is a mixture
(C) Fog is a gel (D) Gunpowder is a mixture
81. Highest energy state of matter among the following is

(A) Plasma (B) BEC
(C) Gas (D) Solid
82. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?

(A) Milk is an example of colloidal solution
(B) Colloidal solution shows electrophoresis
(C) Colloidal solution is a homogenous mixture
(D) Sky appears blue due to Tyndall effect.
83. A mixture of blue ink and red ink can be separated by

(A) Evaporation (B) Distillation
(C) Chromatography (D) Filtration
84. At 20°C the solubility of salt X is 34.7 g in 100 g of water. If the density of saturated solution is 1.3
g/ml, the weight/volume (w/v) percentage of solution is
(A) 25.76 (B) 32.98
(C) 33.49 (D) 22.56
85. ______________ is an example of solid in solid solution.

(A) Cold drinks (B) German silver
(C) Dust particles in air (D) Fog
86. The process which is responsible for the formation of delta at a place where river meets the sea is :
(A) Coagulation (B) Colloid formation
(C) Emulsification (D) All of these
87. A gas can be liquefied

(A) Above its critical temperature (B) At any temperature
(C) Below its critical temperature (D) None of these
88. In paints dispersed phase and dispersion medium are respectively

(A) Solid and liquid (B) Liquid and solid
(C) Liquid and liquid (D) Gas and liquid
89. The highest temperature among the following is

(A) 200°F (B) 273 K
(C) 105°C (D) 295 K
90. Which of the following solutions shows Tyndall effect?

(A) Milk (B) Salt solution
(C) Sugar solution (D) Copper sulphate solution
91. The ratio of two numbers is 15 : 11. If their HCF be 13 then these numbers will be
(A) 15, 11 (B) 75, 55
(C) 105, 77 (D) 195, 143
92. If two angles are complementary to each other, then each angle is
(A) a right angle (B) a supplementary angle
(C) an obtuse angle (D) an acute angle
93. A (– 3, 2) and B(5, 4) are the end points of a line segment. Find the co-ordinates of the mid point of
the line segment.
(A) (1, 3) (B) (2, 3)
(C) (3, 2) (D) (4, 3)
94. In a triangle ABC, if AB, BC and AC are the three sides of the triangle, then which of the following
statements is necessarily true?
(A) AB + BC < AC (B) AB + BC > AC
(C) AB + BC = AC (D) AB2 + BC2 = AC2
95. If x and y are positive real numbers, then

(A) x > y  – x > – y (B) x > y  – x < – y
1 1 1 1
(C) x > y   (D) x > y  –  
x y x y
96. The remainder when x4 – y4 is divided by x – y is

(A) 0 (B) x + y
(C) x2 – y2 (D) 2y4
97. If in a ABC, S is the circumcentre, then

(A) S is equidistant from all the vertices of the triangle
(B) S is equidistant from all the sides of the triangle
(C) AS, BS and CS are angle bisectors
(D) AS, BS and CS produced are the altitudes on the opposite sides
98. Find the number of numbers lying between 1 and 1000 which are divisible by each of 6, 7 and 15.
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
99. In the given diagram of ABC, B = 80°, C = 30°. BF and CF A

are the angle bisectors of CBD and BCE respectively. Find
B C
the value of BFC
(A) 110° (B) 50° D E
(C) 125° (D) 55° F
100. The unit digit of every prime number(other than 2 and 5) must be necessarily.
(A) 1, 3 or 5 (B) 1, 3, 7 or 9
(C) 7 or 9 (D) 1 or 7
2
 1 1 
101. The value of    is
 5  2 5  2
(A) 10 5 (B) 2 5
(C) 10 (D) 20
102. If a1/m = b1/n = c1/p and abc = 1 then m + n + p is equal to

(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) – 2
103. ……………..and ………………consists of agro forestry.

(A) Fodder crops, fibre crops (B) Food crops, fibre crops
(C) Fodder crops, grasses (D) Food crops, tree crops
104. Which of the following are sensitive to SO2 pollution?

(A) Mosses (B) Lichens
(C) Algae (D) Ferns
105. Which of the following will be harmed most in a food chain due to the presence of harmful pesticide in
water?
(A) Phytoplankton (B) Zooplankton
(C) Small fishes (D) Kingfisher
106. Which of the following is associated with the structure of mitochondria?

(A) Cristae (B) Cisternae
(C) Grana (D) Quantasomes
107. Which among the following are functions of centrosomes?

(I) Cell wall formation
(II) Osmoregulation
(III) Formation of spindle fibres
(C) (III) only (D) (II) only
108. The tissue that helps in the movement of our body are
(A) Muscular tissue (B) Skeletal tissue
(C) Nervous tissue (D) All of the above
109. Apiculture and Sericulture deals with…………….and……………respectively

(A) Honeybee, Silkmoth (B) Silkmoth, Honeybee
(C) Honeybee, Lac insect (D) Lac insect, Honeybee
110. To solve the food problem of the country, which among the following is not completely necessary?
(A) To improve the variety of crops
(B) To increase the production of crops
(C) To protect the crops from diseases and pests
(D) To adapt organic farming
111. The pollutant ‘A’ can contaminate the water bodies making the fishes, shrimps and crabs highly
poisonous. The accumulated pollutant in the sea food intoxicates people who feed upon these sea
foods. It causes severe neurological problems. Identify the pollutant ‘A’.
(A) Fluorine (B) Mercury
(C) Nitrates (D) Cadmium
112. Pancreatic cells help in the secretion of proteinaceous hormones. Which of the following should be
higher in number in pancreatic cells?
(A) RER (B) SER
(C) Lysosome (D) Centrosome
113. The complex tissues among the following are:

(A) Xylem and Phloem (B) Idioblasts and Chlorenchyma
(C) Parenchyma and Collenchyma (D) Stone cells and Sclerenchyma fibres
114. Which of the following are the cells of connective tissue?

(I) Neutrophils
(II) Plasma cells
(III) Adipocytes
(IV) Myofibrils
(A) (I), (II) and (III) only (B) (II), (III) and (IV) only
(C) (I), (III) and (IV) only (D) (I), (II) and (IV) only
CLASS – IX (PAPER – 1)
ANSWERS
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B
5. C 6. B 7. A 8. B
9. A 10. A 11. A 12. B
13. D 14. D 15. C 16. D
17. A 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. B 22. B 23. D 24. A
25. A 26. D 27. C 28. C
29. D 30. B 31. D 32. D
33. A 34. C 35. B 36. C
37. D 38. A 39. B 40. D
41. B 42. C 43. B 44. C
45. C 46. B 47. C 48. B
49. C 50. C 51. B 52. C
53. C 54. B 55. B 56. A
57. B 58. D 59. C 60. D
61. D 62. B 63. C 64. D
65. C 66. B 67. A 68. C
69. B 70. D 71. C 72. B
73. A 74. D 75. A 76. B
77. C 78. D 79. C 80. D
81. A 82. C 83. C 84. C
85. B 86. A 87. C 88. A
89. C 90. A 91. D 92. D
93. A 94. B 95. B 96. A
97. A 98. C 99. D 100. B
101. D 102. A 103. D 104. B
105. D 106. A 107. C 108. D
109. A 110. D 111. B 112. A
113. A 114. A
FIITJEE Talent Recognition Exam – 2018

for students presently in
Class 9
Paper 2
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) Maximum Marks: 240
Code 9009
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 30 Minutes on Section-I, 50 Minutes on Section-II, 50

Minutes on Section-III and 50 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 13 to 18 +1 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 25 to 32 +3 –1
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 33 to 40 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 41 to 48 +3 –1
PHYSICS (PART-A) 49 to 54 +3 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 55 to 60 +3 –1
SECTION – III MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 61 to 66 +3 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 67 to 72 +3 –1
SECTION – IV PHYSICS (PART-D) 88 to 90 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 91 to 93 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 94 to 96 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 88 to 96.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 96 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

For questions 88 to 96
Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9
Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Recommended Time: 30 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
1. A body is moving with an initial velocity of 5 m/sec accelerates at 1m / s2 . Its velocity after 5 sec
will be
(A) 20 m/s (B) 10 m/s
(C) 5 m/s (D) zero
2. A body starts from rest with a uniform acceleration of 4 m / s2 and is moving in a horizontal
direction. Distance travelled by it in 5 sec is :–
(A) 50 m (B) 20 m
(C) 8 m (D) 10 m
3. If an unbalanced force acts on a body then the body

(A) must remain in same state (B) must move with uniform velocity
(C) must be accelerated (D) must move along a circle
4. The ratio of magnitudes of average speed to average velocity is :–

(A) always less than one (B) always equal to one
(C) always more than one (D) equal to or more than one
5. If me is the mass of a body on the surface of the earth and mm is the mass of the same body on
the surface of moon then
(A) me  6 mm (B) me  mm
(C) me  mm (D) me  mm
6. How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance between them
is reduced to half?
(A) it becomes half (B) it becomes two times
(C) it becomes four times (D) it becomes eight times
7. During evaporation, particles of a liquid changes to vapours only

(A) From the surface (B) From the bulk
(C) From both surface and bulk (D) Neither from surface nor from bulk
8. Which of the following is NOT a noble gas?

(A) Helium (B) Neon
(C) Argon (D) Hydrogen
9. When water freezes to ice, heat is

(A) Evolved
(B) Absorbed
(C) No change
(D) Evolved or absorbed depending upon the conditions
10. Particles of ___________ are visible to the human eye

(A) Suspension (B) Colloid
(C) Homogeneous solution (D) None of these
11. In milk :
(A) Water is dispersed in fat (B) Fat is dispersed in water
(C) Water is dispersed in protein (D) Homogeneous mixture of several substance
12. Which type of diffusion is the slowest?

(A) Solid into solid (B) Gas into liquid
(C) Liquid into liquid (D) Gas into gas
13. The value of the expression 

34  24 2  4  3 2 is 
(A) – 4 (B) – 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
14. In right angled triangle ABC, ACB = 90°. If EFB = 45°, CBF = 30° B
and also AD = DF and DE = EF, then  equal to
(A) 60° (B) 75° E
 30°
(C) 100° (D) 25° D 45°
A F C
9
15. If one of the interior angle of a regular polygon is found to be times of one of the interior angle
8
of a regular hexagon, then the number of sides of the polygon is
(A) 8 (B) 14
(C) 12 (D) 10
16. When a polynomial p(x) = x 2 – 3x + 5 is divided by (x – 1), then the remainder is R1 and when
other polynomial q(x) = x3 – 3x2 + 3x + 5 is divided by (x – 2), then the remainder is R2. Find the
10R1R 2
value of .
7  R1  R 2 
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 10 (D) none of these
17. Find the remainder when 864 is divided by 63?

(A) 1 (B) – 1
18. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 2(a + 2b – 2c) – 9 then find the value of a + b + c

(A) 2 (B) 3
19. An example of sedimentary biogeochemical cycle is………….

(A) Carbon cycle (B) Water cycle
(C) Oxygen cycle (D) Phosphorus cycle
20. Inbreeding can increase the productivity among cattle by

(A) Eliminating less desirable gene (B) Causing hybrid vigor
(C) By removing the superior genes (D) By forming a germplasm collection
21. Which of the following have their own genetic material?

(I) Eukaryotic cell
(II) Prokaryotic cell
(III) Plastids
(C) (I) and (III) only (D) (I), (II) and (III)
22. The tissue responsible for secondary growth in dicotyledonous plants is

(A) Meristematic (B) Parenchyma
(C) Sclerenchyma (D) Chlorenchyma
23. The ability to distinguish between two close points in a light microscope is known as
(A) Magnification (B) Resolution
(C) Contrast (D) All of the above
24. The given type of epithelial tissue is usually found in
(A) Buccal cavity (B) Thyroid gland

(C) Respiratory tract (D) Inner lining of stomach
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
25. Two masses m and M are kept at a distance r. The ratio of the force exerted on m due to M and
that on M due to m is equal to
m M
(A) (B)
M m
mr
(C) (D) 1 : 1
M
26. What will be the magnitude of change in momentum imparted by the floor to a ball of mass 1 kg if
it falls from the height of 100 cm on the floor and rebound vertically upward with same speed?
 g  10 m / s2 
(A) 2 5 kgm / s (B) 5 kgm / s
(C) 4 5 kgm / s (D) zero
27. Two forces F1  20 N and F2  40 N are acting on an F1 = 20 N F2 = 40 N

object placed on a horizontal smooth surface as shown in
the figure. What is the magnitude of net force acting on
the object?
(A) 60 N (B) 30 N
(C) 20 N (D) 40 N
28. An object is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 20 m/s. Maximum height attained by
the object from the point of projection is :–  Take g  10 m / s2 
(A) 10 m (B) 20 m
(C) 40 m (D) 5 m
29. A bus moving along straight line increases its speed from 36 km/h to 72 km/h in 5 sec,
acceleration of the bus is :–
(A) 7.2 m / s2 (B) 1m / s2
(C) 2 m / s2 (D) 4 m / s2
30. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v 1 speed and remaining 3/5th distance with speed v 2
then the average speed is
1 v  v2
(A) v1v 2 (B) 1
2 2
2v1v 2 5v 1v 2
(C) (D)
v1  v 2 3v1  2v 2
31. A body is dropped from some height and it falls through a distance d in a certain time on the
earth, then if the same body is dropped on another planet having mass and radius twice as that of
the earth, the distance through which it falls in the same time is (considering acceleration due to
gravity to be constant over small altitude)
d
(A) (B) 2 d
2
(C) 4 d (D) d
32. Displacement time graph of an object of mass 2 kg is shown

in figure. The force required to move the object for first 3 sec
6
is :–
2 4
s(m)
(A) zero (B) N

3 2
(C) 2 N (D) 6 N
0 1 2 3 t (sec)
33. Crystalline solids are NOT……….

(A) Anisotropic (B) Isotropic
(C) Hard (D) Dense
34. When 25 g of Na2SO4 is dissolved in 103 kg of solution, its concentration will be

(A) 2.5 ppm (B) 25 ppm
(C) 250 ppm (D) 100 ppm
35. Desalination of sea water can be done by

(A) Osmosis (B) Reverse osmosis
(C) Filtration (D) Diffusion
36. Which property of colloid is NOT dependent on the charge of colloidal particles?
(A) Coagulation (B) Electrophoresis
(C) Tyndall effect (D) All of the above
37. The cohesive force involved in ice is

(A) Electrostatic (B) Hydrogen bonding
(C) Van der Waal’s force (D) None of these
38. Amorphous solids may be considered as

(A) Super cooled liquids (B) Super cooled solids
(C) True solids (D) None of these
39. Which of the following non-metal is a good conductor of electricity?

(A) Oxygen (B) Graphite
(C) Wood (D) Diamond
40. Water boils at lower temperature on high altitudes because

(A) Atmospheric pressure is low there (B) Atmospheric pressure is high there
(C) Water has less density there (D) Water in pure form is found there
41. If one root of the polynomial p(x) = 3x 2 – 8x – (2k + 1) is seven times the other, then value of k is
5 5
(A) (B) 
3 3
2 2
(C) (D) 
3 3
42. The points (2, 2), (6, 3) and (4, 11) are the vertices of
(A) an equilateral triangle (B) an isosceles triangle
(C) a right angled triangle (D) a scalene triangle
43. In ABC, A = 66°, M is the mid-point of BC, and D and E are A

the feet of the perpendicular drawn from M to AB and AC
respectively. If MD = ME, then find the value of CME. D E
(A) 31° (B) 33°
(C) 45° (D) 54°
B M C
44. If ax2 + bx + c = 0 has equal roots then value of “c” equal to
b2 b2
(A) (B)
2a 4a
b2 b2
(C) (D)
2a 4a
 1  1  1   1 
45. Value of  1  2  1  2  1  2  ..........  1  2 
 2  3  4   85 
33 45
(A) (B)
85 85
55
(C) (D) none of these
85
46. If AB || CD then value of x° + y° + z° A B

(A) 720° (B) 90° x° z°
(C) 0° (D) 360° y°
C
D
47. Find the vertex of a rhombus ABCD whose other vertex are A(3, 5), B(7, 7) and C(5, 3) find co-
ordinate of D vertex
(A) (1, 2) (B) (– 1, – 1)
(C) (1, 1) (D) none of these
48. If P = 533 + 533 + 533 + 533 + 533 and Q = 333 + 333 + 333 and PQ = 15x, then x equal to
(A) 32 (B) 30
(C) 34 (D) 35
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
49. A body is thrown vertically upwards and rises to a height of 10 m. The velocity with which the
body was thrown upwards is (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
(A) 16 m/sec (B) 15 m/sec
(C) 14 m/sec (D) 12 m/sec
50. The radius of earth is about 6400 km and that of mars is 3200 km and the mass of the earth is
about 10 times the mass of mars. An object weighs 200 N on the surface of earth. Then its weight
on surface of mars will be
(A) 80 N (B) 40 N
(C) 20 N (D) 8 N
51. A body of mass 2 kg is initially moving with a velocity of 4 m/sec. Now a force of 1.25 N acts on it
in the direction of initial motion for 8 sec. Final velocity of the body is
(A) 12.5 m/sec (B) 17 m/sec
(C) 9 m/sec (D) 25 m/sec
52. A car accelerates from rest at 5 m/s2 and then retards to rest at 3 m/s2. The maximum velocity of
the car is 30 m/s. What is the distance covered by the car over the entire journey?
(A) 150 m (B) 240 m
(C) 300 m (D) 360 m
53. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity v0, it reaches a maximum height of h. If one
wishes to triple the maximum height then the ball should be thrown with velocity.
(A) 3 v0 (B) 3 v0
(C) v0 (D) 3 v0/2
54. If the weight of a body on the surface of earth is W, then its weight at a height (measured from
earth’s surface) equal to double the radius of earth is
(A) W (B) W/2
(C) W/3 (D) W/9
55. The size of colloidal particles lies in the range of

(A) 100 – 1000 nm (B) 10–7 – 10–5 cm
–5 –2
(C) 10 – 10 cm (D) 1000 – 10000 nm
56. A substance having a very low vapour pressure is expected to have

(A) High boiling point (B) Low boiling point
(C) Weak inter particle forces of attraction (D) Both (B) and (C)
57. Which of the following is NOT a compound?

(A) Silica (B) Washing soda
(C) Quick lime (D) Brass
58. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

(A) Bronze (B) Steel
(C) Solution of CuSO4 and water (D) Iodized salt
59. Identify physical change out of the following changes

(A) Tarnishing of silver (B) Dissolution of sulphur in CS2
(C) Electrolysis of water (D) Ripening of fruits
60. In which of the following sedimentation will NOT take place?

(A) Sulphur + water (B) Soil + water
(C) Fine sand + water (D) Albumin + water
1  2 1 
61. If 2x 
3x
 y , then the value of  9x  2  in terms of y is
 4x 
 4 4 4
(A)  y 2   (B)  y 2  
 3 9 3
9 2 4 2 2 4
(C)  y   (D)  y  
4 3 3 3
62. If the two sides of a triangle are 9 cm and 15 cm, then which of the following lengths cannot be
the length of third side of the triangle?
(A) 12 cm (B) 19 cm
(C) 21 cm (D) 24 cm
63. A number N has three digits. If the digits of N is reversed to make another three digits number M,
if N > M, (N – M) is divisible by
(A) 5 (B) 9
(C) 6 (D) 7
64. If  and  are the roots of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = 2x2 – 4x + 1, then the value of
1 1
 is equal to
  2 2  
12 17
(A) (B)
17 12
11 13
(C) (D)
17 17
65. If the mid-points of the sides of a triangle are (1, 5), (2, 6) and (3, 2), the co-ordinates of the
centroid of the triangle is
 13 
(A)  2,  (B) (3, 6)
 3 
(C) (6.5, 3) (D) (3.5, 6)
66. There are four prime numbers written in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and the
product of last three is 1001. The last number is
(A) 11 (B) 13
(C) 17 (D) 19
67. Natural aging of lakes and ponds causes eutrophication due to excess of nutrients in the water
bodies. Which of the following occurs as a result?
(A) BOD decreases (B) BOD increases
(C) DO increases (D) Both (A) and (C)
68. Kalyan Sona and Sonalika became very popular and were fore-runners of Green Revolution in
India. These were varieties of
(A) Rice (B) Wheat
(C) Sugarcane (D) Maize
69. A prokaryotic organism ‘X’ is very small in size. Although a bacteria it does not have a cell wall.
Identify ‘X’.
(A) Mycoplasma (B) Mycobacterium
(C) Lactobacillus (D) All of the above
70. Statement I: Ribosomes help in protein synthesis.

Statement II: Ribosomes are non membranous.
(A) Both statement I and II are true
(B) Both statement I and II are false
(C) Statement I is true, statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, statement II is true
71. The type of cells found in the nervous tissue are

(I) Neuron
(II) Glial cells
(III) Chondrocytes
(IV) Osteocytes
(A) (I), (II), (III) only (B) (II), (III), (IV) only
(C) (II) and (III) only (D) (I) and (II) only
72. The pollutant CFC is responsible for

(A) Ozone hole (B) Green House Effect
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Cumulative poisoning
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – IV
Section – IV
73. The masses of two planets A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their radius are in the ratio 1 : 2
respectively. Then the ratio of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet A to the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet B will be
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 3 : 5 (D) 5 : 3
74. Two particles of equal mass ‘m’ go round a circle of radius ‘R’ on diametrically opposite ends
under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is
1 1 Gm
(A) v  (B) v 
2R Gm 2R
1 Gm 4Gm
(C) v  (D) v 
2 R R
75. The time period of a satellite moving around a planet in a circular orbit of radius R is T, the time
period of another satellite moving around the same planet in a circular orbit of radius 4R is
(A) 4 T (B) T/4
(C) 8 T (D) T/8
76. A hammer of mass 500 g, moving at 20 m/s, strikes a nail. The nail stops the hammer in a very
short time of 0.01 sec. What is the magnitude of the force due to nail on the hammer?
(A) 10,000 N (B) 1000 N
(C) 100 N (D) 1 N
77. An aeroplane is moving with constant horizontal velocity u at height h. The velocity of a packet
dropped from aeroplane, when it reaches on the earth’s surface will be (g is acceleration due to
gravity)
(A) u2  2gh (B) 2gh
(C) 2 gh (D) u2  2gh
78. Which technique is used in diagnostic laboratories for blood and urine tests?
(A) Filtration (B) Distillation
(C) Sublimation (D) Centrifugation
79. During fractional distillation of air, which gas is distilled first?

(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen
(C) Argon (D) Carbon dioxide
80. 18 carat gold contains 18 parts gold and 6 parts of copper by mass. The concentration of Au
and Cu in 18 carat gold in % (m/m) respectively is :
(A) 65%, 35 % (B) 40%, 60%
(C) 75%, 25% (D) 80%, 20%
81. Rate of rusting (corrosion) is highest in

(A) Pure water (B) Alkaline water
(C) Dry air (D) Saline water
82. Read the given statement and select the correct option :
Statement I : During fractional distillation of petroleum, the temperature increases inside the
fractionating column on going from bottom to the top.
Statement II : The fraction with the lower boiling point condenses first.
(A) Both statement I and II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(B) Both statement I and II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(D) Both statement I and II are false
83. ABCD is a square of side ‘a’. ADO is an equilateral triangle D C

and OL is perpendicular to BC. Then area of trapezium AOLB
is O L
a2 3 2
(A)  a
2 8
A B
a3 3 3
(B)  a
2 4
(C) a3 + 3 a3
a3 3 3
(D)  a
2 2
84. A number N = ABCD is a four digit number where (A, B, C, D) are digits, in which A + D = 7 and B
+ C = 7. Another number M = DCBA is also a four digit where D, C, B and A are digits. The sum
(N + M) is not divisible by
(A) 7 (B) 11
(C) 101 (D) 111
85. If A is the area of a right angled triangle and b is one of the sides containing the right angle, then
the length of altitude on the hypotenuse is
2Ab 2A 2b
(A) (B)
b4  4A 2 b4  4A 2
2Ab2 2A 2b2
(C) (D)
b4  4A 2 b4  A 2
86. ‘a’ is the smallest odd prime number. If N is smallest two digit number by which a(a2 – 1) is
divisible, then find the sum of digits of N.
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 3 (D) 0
87. If ab – b + 1 = 0 and bc – c + 1 = 0, then find the value of (a – ac).

(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) – 1 (D) none of these
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 88 to 90. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.
88. A constant retarding force of 20 N is applied on a body of mass 2 kg moving with a speed of 10
m/s. Time taken by the body to stop is x sec. What is the value of x?
89. Two bodies are released from the same height at an interval of 1 sec. t second after the first body
begins to fall, the two bodies are 5 m apart. The value of t in second is :–  g  10 m / s2 
90. At a height h km above the earth surface the value of acceleration due to gravity g is same as in a
mine d = 10 km deep, find the value of h in km. Given that h and d both are very small as
compared to the radius(R) of the earth.
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
91. How many changes out of following are chemical changes.

Rusting of iron, Cooking of food, Freezing of water, Burning of candle, Mixing iron and sand,
Dissolving sugar in water, Growth of plant.
92. If 3 ml of acetone is dissolved in 147 ml of water. What is its concentration (v/v).
93. How many out of the following are example of gel?

Milk, Cheese, Jam, Face cream, Curd, Shoe polish, Smoke
MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
94. Let A(0, 0), B(3, 4), C(6, 0) be the co-ordinate of ABC. A point R inside the triangle is such that
RAB, RBC and RAC are of equal area. Find the product of the co-ordinates of R.
95. A triangle is formed by the points A(2, 5) B(3, 8) and C(x, y). If the centroid of ABC is (3, 5) then
 1 1
find the value of 8    .
x y
96. In a triangle ABC, if AB = 5 cm, BC = x cm and AC = 4 cm, then find the number of such possible
triangles for which x is an integer?
CLASS – IX (PAPER – 2)
ANSWERS
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D
5. D 6. C 7. A 8. D
9. A 10. A 11. B 12. A
13. B 14. C 15. A 16. A
17. A 18. C 19. D 20. A
21. D 22. A 23. B 24. C
25. D 26. C 27. C 28. B
29. C 30. D 31. A 32. A
33. B 34. B 35. B 36. C
37. B 38. A 39. B 40. A
41. B 42. C 43. B 44. B
45. D 46. D 47. C 48. C
49. C 50. A 51. C 52. B
53. A 54. D 55. B 56. A
57. D 58. D 59. B 60. D
61. C 62. D 63. B 64. A
65. A 66. B 67. B 68. B
69. A 70. A 71. D 72. C
73. B 74. C 75. C 76. B
77. A 78. D 79. B 80. C
81. D 82. D 83. A 84. D
85. A 86. C 87. A 88. 1
89. 1 90. 5 91. 4 92. 2
93. 4 94. 4 95. 6 96. 7

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FIITJEE Talent Recognition Exam – 2018

for students presently in

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Marking Scheme for each question

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

1. AN, CP, FS, ?

2. MYZ, LWX, ?, JST

3. 8, 27, 64, ?, 216, 343.

11. If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the following is true?

21. FJM is related to TZS in the same way as JMP is related to

22. Find the missing term in the following figures.

25. Who is sitting third to the left of B?

27. Who is sitting between B and C?

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

31. The S.I. unit of acceleration is :–

32. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

33. Slope of velocity – time graph at an instant will give us :–

35. Inertia of a body depends on :–

40. The increasing order of forces of attraction is :

41. Which of the following behave like fluids?

42. Which of the following compound will undergo sublimation?

44. What is the SI unit of temperature?

45. Solubility of solids in liquids increase with:

46. A non-metal which has lustre is:

47. Common salt obtained from sea water is impure. It is purified by :

49. In the given figure, AB || CE and BC || FG. Find the value of x A

50. If x2 + y2 + z2 = xy + yz + zx, then the triangle is: A

55. The expression (x + y)-1(x-1 + y-1) is equivalent to

58. Which of the following is not included in “organic farming”?

61. Which of the following statements about forest is/are incorrect?

63. The cell theory is not applicable to

65. Parenchyma : Simple : : Phloem : …………….

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

69. A particle starts from rest and moves in a straight v (m/sec)

79. Tyndall effect in colloids is due to :

80. Which of the following statement is true

81. Highest energy state of matter among the following is

82. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?

83. A mixture of blue ink and red ink can be separated by

85. ______________ is an example of solid in solid solution.

87. A gas can be liquefied

88. In paints dispersed phase and dispersion medium are respectively

89. The highest temperature among the following is

90. Which of the following solutions shows Tyndall effect?

95. If x and y are positive real numbers, then

96. The remainder when x4 – y4 is divided by x – y is

97. If in a ABC, S is the circumcentre, then

99. In the given diagram of ABC, B = 80°, C = 30°. BF and CF A

102. If a1/m = b1/n = c1/p and abc = 1 then m + n + p is equal to

103. ……………..and ………………consists of agro forestry.

104. Which of the following are sensitive to SO2 pollution?

106. Which of the following is associated with the structure of mitochondria?

107. Which among the following are functions of centrosomes?

109. Apiculture and Sericulture deals with…………….and……………respectively

113. The complex tissues among the following are:

114. Which of the following are the cells of connective tissue?

FIITJEE Talent Recognition Exam – 2018

1. You are advised to devote 30 Minutes on Section-I, 50 Minutes on Section-II, 50

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