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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers
the question.
A) 2 , 3 and 4 B) 1 , 3 and 4
C) 1 and 3 D) 3 and 4
5) Commonly used acid for etching teeth in conjunction with pit and 5)
fissure sealant is:
A) Acetic acid B) Phosphoric acid
C) Hydrochloric acid D) Sulfuric acid
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6) The chemical tissue packs used for soft tissue management prior to 6)
impression taking are classified as:
1 Caustics
2 Astringents
3 Anticoagulants
4 Vasoconstrictors
5 Vasodilators
A) 2 and 3
B) 3 and 5
C) 2 and 4
D) 1 and 4
E) 1 and 3
9) The gingival margin and occlusal cavosurface angles are beveled for a 9)
gold inlay preparation because this:
A) 1, 3 and 5
B) 2, 3 and 4
C) 2, 4 and 5
D) 1, 2 and 4
E) All of the above
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11) Proximal caries typically progresses in a pattern characterized by a 11)
double cone or pyramid as it extends through the enamel and into the
dentin. The apices of each cone are:
A) Directed toward the enamel surface
B) Touching each other at the dentinoenamel junction
C) Pointing in opposite directions
D) Directed toward the pulp
12) In tipping the cusps for a complex amalgam restoration, the cusps 12)
should be reduced:
A) 3-4 mm
B) 1-1.5 mm
C) 2-3 mm
D) 0.5-1 mm
E) 1.5-2 mm
15) Stainless steel pins are principally used in conjunction with amalgam 15)
restorations to enhance the:
A) Strength
B) Retention
C) Resistance form
D) All of the above
E) Only A and B above
17) A line angle that can be found in a proximoocclusal cavity is the: 17)
A) Facioocclusal line angle B) Gingivoaxial line angle
C) Faciolingual line angle D) Mesioaxial line angle
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18) A split tooth could well display which of the following 18)
characteristics?
19) Delayed expansion of amalgam restorations is associated with which two 19)
factors?
A) The failure to use a cavity varnish
B) High residual mercury
C) The contamination of the amalgam by moisture during trituration
and condensation
D) Insufficient trituration and condensation
20) When applying a rubber dam to control the operating field for a Class 20)
V restoration that is located at the cervical line, the dentist
should:
A) 3 and 4
B) 1
C) 2 and 5
D) 2 and 3
E) 4 and 5
21) Finish of the enamel margin at the gingival cavosurface on a cavity 21)
prepared for amalgam is:
A) Not required since no stress is placed on the restoration in this
region
B) Accomplished by removing all unsupported enamel rods or prisms
C) Not indicated because of the poor tensile strength of amalgam
D) Accomplished by creating a steep cavosurface bevel
22) Which of the following factors tends to reduce the setting expansion of 22)
amalgam?
A) Increasing the trituration time
B) Increasing the silver content of alloy
C) Increasing the zinc content of the alloy
D) Increasing the amount of mercury in the mix
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23) The location of teeth in the arch and tooth morphology affect their 23)
caries susceptibility. Those least susceptible to caries attack in the
permanent dentition are:
A) Maxillary third molars
B) Mandibular incisors
C) Maxillary cuspids
D) Mandibular premolars
E) Maxillary incisors
24) When utilizing self-threading, friction-locked pins for the retention 24)
of amalgam, it is generally agreed that the pins should extend about
equally into the dentin and alloy. The recommended depth is about:
A) 2 mm B) 1 mm C) 4 mm D) 3 mm
28) The form given to a cavity to resist displacement of the restoration in 28)
any direction is:
A) Outline form B) Convenience form
C) Retention form D) Resistance form
29) Bacterial plaque can be most effectively removed from the proximal 29)
surface of the teeth by using:
A) A tooth brush B) Dental floss
C) A periodontal aid D) An interdental stimulator
E) A water pick F) All of the above
30) Which of the following has the closest coefficient of thermal expansion 30)
as teeth
A) amalgam B) unfilled resins
C) composite resins D) direct filling gold
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31) The rubber dam, in addition to maintaining a dry field, also serves 31)
to:
A) Protect the operator and assistant
B) Protect the patient
C) Save time
D) Retract the cheeks and soft tissue
E) Improve accessibility
F) All of the above
32) How is high mercury content generally manifested in the clinical 32)
amalgam restoration?
A) By delayed expansion
B) By severe marginal breakdown
C) By increased thermal shock resulting from hot and cold foods
D) By tissue irritation adjacent to the restoration
33) The principal bacterial agent involved in the caries process is: 33)
A) Lactobacillus acidophilus B) Streptococcus mutans
C) Streptococcus salivarius D) Streptococcus sanguis
34) Following the placement of an amalgam restoration, the patient may 34)
experience sensitivity as a result of:
A) Cold
B) Sweets
C) Galvanic shock
D) Biting pressure
E) Heat
35) The characteristic shape of a smooth surface carious lesions in enamel 35)
relates to the:
A) Direction of the Tomes fibers
B) Striae of Retzius
C) Incremental lines of Owen
D) Direction of the enamel rods
E) Mamelons of the tooth
36) The amount of mercury remaining in a set amalgam restoration is related 36)
to:
A) How much of the mercury-rich matrix is left in the amalgam after
condensation
B) How much silver-tin matrix is in the amalgam before condensation
C) How much zinc is in the amalgam alloy
D) How much tin is in the amalgam alloy
37) An enamel bonding agent which bonds together etched enamel with dental 37)
composite is a classic:
A) Dental adhesive joint
B) Dental cohesive joint
C) Dental absorptive joint
38) Which component of dental amalgam prevents oxidation of the other 38)
metals while the alloy is being prepared by the manufacturer?
A) Copper B) Zinc C) Tin D) Silver
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39) Loading of a restoration beyond the material's elastic limit produces: 39)
A) Stress relaxation
B) Plastic deformation only
C) Elastic deformation only
D) Both elastic and plastic deformation
41) The restorative materials considered suitable for restoration of the 41)
distal of a canine involving the contact include:
43) Retraction cord containing racemic epinephrine has the potential hazard 43)
of:
A) Systemic vasoconstriction action
B) A localized astringent action
C) Localized vasoconstriction
D) A caustic reaction on the tissues it contacts
E) There are no hazards to its use
44) A proper treatment sequence would include the following in what 44)
order?
A) 2 , 3 , 4 , 1 and 5 B) 2 , 4 , 1 , 3 and 5
C) 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 and 5 D) 3 , 2 , 1 , 4 and 5
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45) Retention form for a Class III cavity prepared either the labial or 45)
lingual approach is placed in the:
A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 2 D) All of the above
46) To help insure maximum gingival adaptation of a gold inlay restoration 46)
the dentist should:
A) Utilize a gingival reverse bevel
B) Establish a precise gingival cavosurface bevel
C) Employ the indirect wax pattern
D) Use a soft gold alloy
E) Employ the direct wax pattern procedure to avoid inaccuracies in
the die
A) 2 and 3 B) 4 C) 3
D) 2 E) 1 F) 1 and 4
48) When is the matrix band removed from the tooth? 48)
A) After the final carving of the restoration
B) Prior to the final carving of the restoration
C) As soon as the amalgam has been condensed into the prep
D) None of the above
49) The primary factor in developing the outline form for a composite resin 49)
restoration on the ground surface of an anterior tooth is:
A) The aesthetics required
B) The position of the contact
C) The relationship to the adjacent tooth
D) Extension for prevention
E) The extent of caries involvement
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51) When a patient experiences a throbbing pain in a specific tooth which 51)
is sensitive to pressure and when the pain is aggravated by heat and
relieved by cold, the most likely diagnosis is:
A) Occlusal hyperfunction
B) Suppurative pulpitis
C) Hyperemia
D) A radicular cyst
E) A follicular cyst
52) The site of two retention grooves commonly used in a Class V amalgam 52)
are:
A) Mesioaxial line angle B) Distoaxial line angle
C) Incisoaxial line angle D) Gingivoaxial line angle
53) Retention form for composite resin restorations is achieved by: 53)
A) Adhesion to the enamel and dentin
B) Mechanical undercuts
C) A chemical bond with the tooth
D) All of the above
54) High copper and low mercury content content of an amalgam restoration 54)
will tend to:
A) Increase creep
B) Decrease creep
C) Will not effect creep
55) In order to maintain periodontal health the best position for the 55)
cavosurface margin is:
A) 3 or 4 B) 1 C) 2 or 3 D) 1 or 3
56) If the interdental papillae protrudes from beneath the rubber dam, the 56)
likely cause is:
A) Punching the holes too close together
B) Too light gauge rubber dam material
C) Punching the holes too far apart
D) Too heavy gauge rubber dam material
E) Failure to ligate each tooth
57) Which phase of the amalgam reaction is prone to corrosion in clinical 57)
restorations?
A) Gamma
B) Gamma-one
C) Gamma-two
D) They all have the same resistance to corrosion
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58) Retention form is created in a Class V cavity prepared for direct 58)
filling gold at:
A) The mesial and distal axial line angles
B) Circumferentially around all four walls
C) The occlusal and gingival axial line angles
D) The four point angles of the cavity
59) Which cavities can involve any teeth, anterior or posterior? 59)
A) Class V
B) Class VI
C) Class I
D) Class II
E) Class III
60) An endodontically treated maxillary first permanent molar with a small 60)
carious lesion on the mesial and distal would be restored best by:
A) A mesio-occluso-distal cast gold onlay
B) A ¾ crown
C) A mesio-occluso-distal cast gold inlay
D) A mesio-occluso-distal amalgam
E) A full crown
62) Three factors required for the initiation of dental caries are: 62)
A) Polysaccharides, microorganisms and enamel
B) Bacterial plaque, suitable tooth and polysaccharides
C) Enamel lamella, lactobacilli and polysaccharides
D) Susceptible tooth, suitable substrate and a bacterial enzyme
system
64) Pulpal hyperemia results when some form of trauma causes an 64)
inflammation. The characteristics of hyperemia include:
A) 2 , 3 and 4 B) 1 , 2 and 3
C) 1 , 2 and 4 D) All of the above
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65) Caries activity could well increase: 65)
1 During pregnancy
2 Following radiation therapy in the head and neck region
3 Following a serious emotional problem
4 Following a periodontal surgery
67) The mesial and distal walls of a Class I amalgam preparation should 67)
diverge slightly towards the occlusal surface to:
A) Provide convenience form
B) Provide resistance form
C) Make condensing of the amalgam easier
D) Afford support for the mesial and distal marginal ridges
68) The brief but sharp electrical sensation one can receive when two 68)
dissimilar metals come into contact in the mouth is called:
A) Galvanic shock
B) Electrolyte explosion
C) Electromagnetic pulse
D) Alternating current corrosion
69) Which tooth requires special attention when preparing the occlusal 69)
aspect for a restoration?
A) Mandibular first bicuspid B) Maxillary first bicuspid
C) Maxillary second bicuspid D) Mandibular second bicuspid
70) Fluorides affect the tooth structure in the following manner to make 70)
it more resistant to dental caries.
A) 2, 3 and 5
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 2, 4 and 5
D) 1, 3 and 4
E) All of the above
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71) The position of the gingival margin of a Class II amalgam restoration 71)
is dictated primarily by:
A) Aesthetics
B) The extent of the carious lesion
C) The thickness of the enamel
D) The tooth being restored
72) Chronic dental caries differ from acute dental caries in that: 72)
A) 2, 3 and 4
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 1 and 2
D) 1, 3 and 4
E) All of the above
73) Retention form for composite resin restorations in Class III 73)
preparations is achieved by:
A) Parallel walls
B) Rounded undercuts at the incisal and gingival point angles
C) Sharp, acute point angles at the incisal, labioaxiogingival, and
linguoaxiogingival
D) Sharp, well-defined line angles
74) All of the following are true concerning a Class V amalgam prepration 74)
except:
A) The outline form is determined primarily by the location of the
free gingival margin
B) A cervical clamp is usually necessary to retract gingival tissues
C) The retention form is provided by the gingival retention groove
along the gingivoaxial line angle and an incisal retention groove
along the incisoaxial line angle
D) The mesial, distal, and incisal walls of the caivity preparation
diverge outward
76) An adverse pulpal reaction is most likely to occur when which of the 76)
following materials is placed directly into a deep cavity preparation?
A) Silver amalgam B) Zinc phosphate cement
C) Silicate cement D) Polycarboxylate cement
E) Zinc oxide-eugenol F) Calcium hydroxide
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77) Bite-wing radiographs are a useful diagnostic tool for the detection 77)
of:
A) Class I carious lesions
B) Caries on the facial surface
C) Caries on the lingual surface
D) Proximal surface caries
E) All of the above
78) The retention form for a Class II amalgam preparation is achieved by: 78)
A) A flat gingival wall
B) Walls converging in an occlusogingival direction
C) Parallel facial and lingual walls
D) Facial and lingual grooves placed at the axial line angle
E) All of the above
79) The hazards of using air only as a coolant when cutting at ultra high 79)
speed are that it may:
1 Cause dehydration
2 Supercool the tooth
3 Cause postoperative hypersensitivity
4 Result in the odontoblasts becoming disoriented and drawn into
the dentinal tubules
5 Interfere with visibility
A) 1 and 2 B) 1 , 3 and 4
C) 2 , 4 and 5 D) All of the above
80) The rotational instrument which leaves the roughest surface on cut 80)
tooth structure is a:
A) Garnet disc at low speed
B) Medium grit diamond at ultra speed
C) Cross cut fissure bur at ultra speed
D) Cross cut fissure bur at low speed
E) Medium grit diamond at low speed
81) The diagonal slot opening on the Tofflemire matrix retainer (also 81)
called the Universal matrix system) is always placed facing the
gingiva. This:
A) Allows for easier wedge placement
B) Is less harmful on the gingiva
C) Permits easy separation of the retainer from the band in an
occlusal direction
D) Allow for better contour of band to tooth
82) The margins of a porcelain inlay are fragile and must be considered in 82)
the design of a Class V preparation. This is accomplished by:
A) Preparing the the cavosurface angles to approximate 90°
B) Preparing the walls with a large labial divergence
C) Deepening the axial wall
D) Preparing the walls with a labial convergence
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83) Those instruments normally used for placing gingival bevels are: 83)
A) 2, 3 and 4
B) 2, 4 and 5
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1, 2 and 5
E) All of the above
85) Posterior teeth that have been endodontically treated are better 85)
restored by a cast gold onlay because:
A) Gold is more aesthetic than amalgam
B) Gold renders the tooth more resistant to recurrent caries
C) Gold is less likely to disturb the gutta-percha filled canals than
condensation of amalgam
D) Maximum protection is afforded to the tooth
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4
E) All of the above
87) That instrument which creates the roughest cut surface on a tooth is: 87)
A) Plane fissure bur at ultra speed
B) Medium sandpaper disk at low speed
C) Cross-cut fissure bur at ultra speed
D) Plane fissure bur at low speed
E) Cross-cut fissure bur at low speed
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88) The second number on those instruments having the three-number formula 88)
indicates the:
A) Length of the blade in millimeters
B) Angle of the cutting edge in degrees centigrade
C) Width of the blade in millimeters
D) Length of the blade in tenths of a millimeter
89) That form in Class III cavities which helps to insure the proper line 89)
of force for condensation of direct filling gold is:
A) Outline form B) Convenience form
C) Retention form D) Resistance form
92) What is the proper amount of time to wait until an amalgam restoration 92)
can be finished and polished?
A) 12 hours B) 2 hours
C) 24-48 hours D) Makes no difference
93) Which Class III lesions should not be filled with composite resin? 93)
A) Mesial-lingual of centrals B) Mesial-lingual of canines
C) Distal-lingual of laterals D) Distal-lingual of canines
94) The outline form of a cavity implies the shape of: 94)
A) The preparation as it relates to the surface of the tooth
B) The cavity after the resistance and retention form has been
established
C) The cavity following removal of the caries
D) All of the above
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96) If, following placement of a metallic restoration, the tooth remains 96)
sensitive to heat, cold, and pressure after occlusal adjustment, the
dentist should:
A) Grind the opposing tooth to free it from any occlusal contact
B) Tell the patient to put up with the discomfort and it will
eventually go away
C) Grind endodontic therapy
D) Remove the restoration and place a sedative temporary restoration
97) Beveling the gingival cavosurface margin of the proximal box of a Class 97)
II amalgam preparation on a permanent tooth.
A) Should result in a long bevel
B) Should remove unsupported enamel which may fracture
C) Is unnecessary since the tooth structure in this area is strong
D) Is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam
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Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED2
1) B 54) B
2) A 55) A
3) D 56) A
4) A 57) C
5) B 58) C
6) C 59) A, B, C
7) A 60) A
8) A 61) B
9) E 62) D
10) C 63) B
11) D 64) D
12) C 65) D
13) B 66) D
14) C 67) D
15) B 68) A
16) B 69) A
17) B 70) C
18) D 71) B
19) C, D 72) D
20) A 73) B
21) B 74) A
22) A 75) C
23) B 76) C
24) A 77) D
25) D 78) D
26) A 79) B
27) A 80) C
28) D 81) C
29) B 82) A
30) D 83) B
31) F 84) B
32) B 85) D
33) B 86) C
34) A 87) C
35) D 88) A
36) A 89) B
37) A 90) C
38) B 91) C
39) D 92) C
40) C 93) D
41) C 94) A
42) A 95) C
43) A 96) D
44) B 97) B
45) D
46) B
47) F
48) B
49) E
50) B
51) B
52) C, D
53) B
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