Examinersreport

(NBAA)
THE NATIONAL BOARD OF ACCOUNTANTS AND AUDITORS

TANZANIA
EXAMINERS’ AND PERFORMANCE REPORT
87TH EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2018
NBAA, Telephones: (022) 2211890/9

Mhasibu House, Mobile: 0713 320423
Bibi Titi Mohamed Street, Fax: (022) 2151746
P.O. Box 5128, Email: info@nbaa.go.tz
Dar es Salaam, Website: www.nbaa.go.tz
Tanzania.
28TH JUNE 2018

TABLE OF CONTENTS
PAGE
Foreword & Acknowledgement ……………………………………… (i)
Executive Summary of 87th Examination session …………………… (vi)
CHAPTER 1 Analysis of Candidates’ Performance in the 87th Examination Session 1
CHAPTER II Performance Evaluation Subject-Wise …………………..................... 4

· Accounting Technician Examination Level I ……….................. 4
· Accounting Technician Examination Level II …………………. 18
· Foundation Level ………………………………… 32
· Intermediate Level …………………….................. 49
· Final Level ……………………………………….. 77
CHAPTER III Examiners’ Recommendations to Tutors & Students ………………... 98
CHAPTER IV Institutional Performance Evaluation ………………………………... 106
CHAPTER V Accounting Manpower Created by the Board up to May 2018 121
CHAPTER VI The
The NBAA
NBAA Special
Special Awards
Awards Programme
Programme for
for Candidates
Candidates with
with 126
131
Meritorious
MeritoriousExamination Achievements……………........................
ExaminationAchievements ……………........................
FOREWORD AND ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
________________
The current examination scheme has been tested for the eighth time in May 2018. The first
time was in November 2014. Unlike the phased out examination scheme the current
examination scheme is basically designed to test competencies rather than understanding of
knowledge. To realise this goal there is a need to streamline the whole process from teaching
of the students, setting of examination questions as well as marking of the examinations. Here
it means that the trainers, learners, examiners as well as examination markers need to speak
the same language. If there is any mismatch between these key stakeholders the aim of
competence based examination scheme cannot be realised. Lecturers are required to change
their teaching orientation to match with competence approach. They are required to guide
learners to acquire competencies rather than knowledge. Learners are supposed to change their
learning styles from rote learning to active learning that will enable them to learn the required
competencies. Those who are setting examination questions should also consider the fact that
they are testing understanding of skills and competencies rather than understanding of
information. How to orient all these stakeholders to have the same orientation has remained a
challenge in implementing the competence based examination scheme. But as we move
forward the situation is changing into better through trainings and acquisition of experiences.
The current examination scheme has eight subjects in the Accounting Technician Levels I and II
as shown below:
Code Name
Accounting Technician Level I
T01 Book keeping and Accounts
T02 Elements of Business Mathematics and Statistics
T03 Introduction to Information and Communication Technology
T.04 Business Communication Skills
Accounting Technician Level II

T.05 Principles of Accounting and Auditing
T.06 Elements of Cost Accounting and Procurement
T.07 Elements of Commercial Knowledge and Taxation
T.08 Accounting for Public Sector and Cooperatives
i
The Professional Examination Scheme has three level structures as follows:
(i) Foundation (Knowledge and Skills) level, having five subjects,
(ii) Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context ) level, having six subjects, and
(iii) Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation) level, having four subjects.
In total, the Professional Examination Scheme has 15 subjects as shown hereunder:

Foundation (Knowledge and Skills Level)
Exam Subject Name
Code
A1 Quantitative Techniques
A2 Business and Management
A3 Accounting
A4 Business Information
A5 Business Law
Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context Level)

Exam Subject Name
Code
B1 Financial Management
B2 Financial Accounting
B3 Auditing Principles and Practice
B4 Public Finance and Taxation I
B5 Performance Management
B6 Management, Governance and Ethics
Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation Level)

Exam Subject Name
Code
C1 Corporate Reporting
C2 Auditing and Assurance Services
C3 Business and Corporate Finance
C4 Public Finance and Taxation II
ii
ACCOUNTING MANPOWER
Since the inception of the Accounting Technician examinations, the Board has been able to produce
14,082 Accounting Technicians. This category of Accounting Technicians covers 3,828
Accounting Technicians Certificate (ATEC) graduates, 2,971 Basic Book-keeping Certificate
(BBC) graduates, 5,746 National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE) graduates and 1,537
National Accountancy Diploma (NAD) graduates.
The Board has also been able to produce 8,522 CPA (T) graduates since it started conducting these
examinations in May, 1975. In total, the Board has been able to produce 22,604 accounting
personnel (manpower) of different levels and categories serving both in public and private sectors
inside and outside Tanzania.
EXAMINATION CENTRES
During the 87 th examination session, examinations were held in 14 examination centres located in
Tanzania Mainland and Zanzibar. These centres accommodated 3,591candidates sitting at different
levels of the Board’s examinations. The examination centres were as follows:
Dar Es Salaam Centres were all located at Mwalimu Nyerere Grounds (Sabasaba). These
were:-
1. PTA Karume Hall A
2. PTA Karume Hall B
3. PTA Karume Hall C
4. PTA Sabasaba Hall
Other centres
1. Arusha – Institute of Accountancy Arusha (IAA)
2. Dodoma – College of Business Education (CBE)
3. Iringa – Iringa RVTSC
4. Kilimanjaro –Young Men Christian Association (YMCA) Moshi
5. Mbeya – Mkapa Conference Centre
6. Morogoro – CCT Women’s Training Centre
7. Mwanza –St. Dominic Pastoral Centre
8. Tabora – Tabora RVTSC
9. Tanga – St. Joseph’s Commercial School (SJCS)
10. Zanzibar - Elimu Mbadala - Rahaleo
iii
OBJECTIVES OF THE REPORT
The Report is intended to avail to trainers and candidates, the examinations’ overall general
performance, specific areas of weaknesses and suggestions for improvement. It is an important
guide to candidates as well as trainers, setters, markers and moderators of the Board’s future
examinations.
Analysis of the examination performance is presented in Table 3 of this report while a detailed
analysis indicating the performance of candidates registered by the recognized Tuition Providers is
shown in Tables 10 to 11 of the report. Analysis of performance in each subject is presented in
Tables 5.1 to 9.1.8. Comments and observations in the Examiners' and Performance Report are
supported by relevant statistical analysis of the candidates' performance in each examination level.
The last chapter of the Report comprises a list of prizes offered by NBAA and other prize donors.
These prizes will be awarded to candidates who have excelled in their examinations during the
graduation ceremony expected to be held on 29th September 2018.
iv
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
On behalf of the Board and on my own behalf, I wish to convey my very sincere appreciation to all
persons who willingly supported the Board in this demanding professional task. I am indeed
particularly thankful to all Tuition Providers who devoted their energy and time to guide the
candidates and preparing them for the examinations. I am also delighted to acknowledge the
contribution of Board’s Examiners, Markers, Invigilators, and the Board’s Secretariat, the
Education and Publications Committee and the Governing Board for their much appreciated co-
operation during the whole process of the NBAA’s 87th examination session. Last but not least, I
congratulate all examination candidates who studied hard and sat for the 87th examinations of the
Board.
Once again, I would like to reiterate that the Examiners' Report is prepared to help trainers and the
Board’s candidates to improve on their future performance by learning from previous experiences.
I, therefore, call upon readers of this Report to come up with constructive suggestions on how to
improve further the examination process and reports arising therein.
Yours sincerely,
CPA Pius A. Maneno

EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR
v
EXECUTIVE SUMMARY TO THE 87 TH EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2018
1.0 PREAMBLE:
The Board conducts its examinations twice in a year normally during the months of May
and November. This session is the 87th examination session in which the examinations
were conducted from Tuesday 8th to Friday 11th May 2018.
4,057 candidates applied for the examinations, out of whom 466 (11.5%) were absent,
3,591 sat for the examinations at different levels. The candidature distribution this session
is as shown below:
EXAMINATION CANDIDAT CANDIDATES % CANDIDATES %

LEVELS ES ABSENT SAT
APPLIED
TECHNICIAN LEVELS
69 8 11.6 61 88.4
ATEC I:
ATEC II: 105 7 6.7 98 93.3
PROFESSIONAL LEVELS
Foundation 420 50 11.9 370 88.1

Intermediate 2095 271 12.9 1824 87.1
Final 1368 130 9.5 1238 90.5
TOTALS 4057 466 11.5 3591 88.5
vi
2.0 TREND OF THE EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE
2.1 Candidature Exam Sitting

Candidature enrolment this session has rapidly decreased by 3,023 candidates
(45.7%) compared with the May 2017 examination session. There were 6,614
candidates who sat for the May 2017 examinations against 3,591 candidates who
sat for the May 2018 examinations. The rapidly decreased of candidature was
caused by delayed announcement of results of November 2017 examinations,
which were declared in May 2018 instead of December 2017 due to operational
problems.
Table 1 and Graph 1 shows candidature trend (candidates who sat for the
examinations) for the eight examination sessions: November 2014 to May 2018.
Table 1
EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE TREND FOR THE PRECEDING EIGHT
EXAMINATION SESSIONS NOVEMBER 2014 TO MAY 2018
EXAMINATION ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

I II
80 th Session November, 2014 159 125 372 3,109 2,021 5,786
85thSession May, 2015 159 119 36537 3,163 2,011 5,817
82 nd Session November, 2015 111 134 364 3,114 1,956 5,679
85thSession May, 2016 110 160 445 3,495 2,289 6,499
84 th Session November 2016 84 158 405 3,522 2,113 6,282
85 th Session May 2017 103 185 557 3,477 2,292 6,614
87th Session November 2017 100 172 572 3,235 1,977 6,056
87 th Session May 2018 61 98 370 1824 1238 3,591
vii
Graph 1
GRAPHICAL PRESENTATION OF THE BOARD’S OVERALL EXAMINATION

CANDIDATURE FOR THE PRECEDING EIGHT (8) EXAMINATION SESSIONS
(NOVEMBER 2014 TO MAY 2018)
7,000 6,499 6,614

6,282
6,056
5,786 5,817 5,679
6,000
5,000
No. of Candidates
4,000 3,591
3,000
2,000
1,000
0
Nov-14 May-15 Nov-15 May-16 Nov-16 May-17 Nov-17 May-18
Examination Sessions
viii
2.2 Candidature Distribution – May 2018
Candidature distribution for the May 2018 examination session shows that majority of the
candidates who sat for these examinations were in the Intermediate level examinations.
The Chart below shows the candidature distribution
Chart 1
Candidature Distribution – May 2018
ATEC I , 61, 2%
ATEC II , 98, 3%
FINAL, 1,238, 34%
FOUNDATION, 370,
10%
INTERMEDIATE, 1,824,
51%
ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL
Candidature in Intermediate level is highest as most of the candidates who enrol at this
level are those who have completed a three years’ bachelor degree programme or its
equivalent in accounting and enjoy exemptions to sit for the Intermediate Level
examinations. A tertiary institution which offers bachelor degree courses related to
accountancy courses has to apply to NBAA for its graduands to be given exemption in the
Board’s examinations.
ix
3.0 EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE
3.1 Pass rates for examination levels tested in May 2018
Table 2 (i) below shows pass rates in May 2018 examination session
EXAMINATION LEVEL NUMBER OF PASSES PERCENTAGE
ATEC I
Passed 20 32.8
Part passed 30 49.2
ATEC II
Passed 31 31.6
Part passed 51 52.0
FOUNDATION
Passed 96 25.9
Part passed 188 50.8
INTERMEDIATE
Passed 129 7.1
FINAL
Passed 96 7.8
TOTAL PASSES
Passed 372 10.4
Part passed 1,750 48.7
NOTE:
Among the candidates who passed Intermediate and Final Levels there were fourteen (14)
candidates with foreign qualifications.
Table 2 (ii) below shows number of candidates with foreign CPA –equivalent
qualification who sat and cleared the subjects with local contents
Subject Number of entries

A5 Business Law 00
B4 Public Finance and Taxation I 08
C4 Public Finance and Taxation II 14
These candidates are eligible for the award of letters of success and certificates to enable
them register as members.
x
3.2 Examination Performance by Gender:
Table 3: Examination performance by gender in the five examination levels
Passes Partial Passes Failures Total
Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total
No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. %
ATEC Level I 15 75 5 25 20 100 12 40 18 60 30 100 5 45 6 55 11 100 32 52 29 48 61 100
ATEC Level II 25 81 6 19 31 100 31 61 20 39 51 100 7 44 9 56 16 100 63 64 35 36 98 100
Foundation Level 59 61 37 39 96 100 97 52 91 48 188 100 46 53 40 47 86 100 202 55 168 45 370 100
Intermediate 78 60 51 40 129 100 508 55 417 45 925 100 440 57 330 43 770 100 1026 56 798 44 1824 100
Level
Final Level 63 66 33 34 96 100 311 56 245 44 556 100 347 59 239 41 586 100 721 58 517 42 1238 100
TOTAL 240 65 132 35 372 100 959 55 791 45 1750 100 845 58 624 42 1469 100 2044 57 1547 43 3591 100
xi
CHAPTER I
ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN THE

87 TH EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2018
OVERALL CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE

During the 87 th examination session, 4,057 candidates were registered for the Board’s examinations
held in May, 2018, out of whom 466 (11.5%) candidates were absent from the examinations, 3,591
candidates sat for the examinations. Of the 3,591 candidates who sat for the examinations, 372
(10.4%) candidates passed while 1,750 (48.7%) candidates part passed and a total of 1469 (40.9%)
candidates failed the examinations. (See Table 4 on page 3).
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL I

The May 2018 examination session was the 8 th session since the review of the examinations
structure and syllabi of ATEC. 69 candidates registered themselves for the examination. 8 (4.6%)
candidates were absent. 61 candidates sat for the examination, out of whom 20 (32.8%) passed
hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 30 (49.2%) candidates
are part passed while a total of 11 (18.0%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on
page3).
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL II

This examination was conducted for the 8 th time since the review of the examination structure and
syllabi of ATEC II. Out of 105 candidates who registered for the examination, 7 (6.6%) candidates
were absent leaving a total of 98 candidates who wrote the examination. 31 (31.6%) candidates
passed and hence are eligible to be issued with CERTIFICATES OF COMPLETION of the
Accounting Technician Certificate Examination. 51 (52.0%) candidates have part passed while a
total of 16 (16.3%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page3).
FOUNDATION LEVEL
The Foundation Level examinations consist of five subjects. These subjects were tested for the
eighth time this session following the review of the examination structure and syllabi.
In this examination, 420 candidates registered themselves for the examination out of whom 50
(11.9%) candidates were absent. Of the 370 candidates who wrote the examination, 96 (25.9%)
candidates passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 188
(50.8%) candidates have part passed while a total of 86 (23.2%) candidates failed the examination.
(See Table 4 on page3).
1
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
The Intermediate Level examinations consist of six subjects. As with the Foundation Level
examinations, these subjects were tested for the eighth time this session following the review of the
examination structure.
In this examination, 2,095 candidates registered themselves out of whom 271 (12.9%) candidates
were absent. Of the 1,824 candidates who wrote the examination, 129 (7.1%) candidates passed
hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 925 (50.7%) candidates
have part passed while a total of 770 (42.2%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on
page3).
FINAL LEVEL
The Final Level examinations consist of four subjects. These examinations were tested for the
sixth time following review of the examination structure.
In this examination, 1,368 candidates registered themselves for Final Level examinations, out of
whom 130 (9.5%) candidates were absent. Of the 1,238 candidates who wrote the examination, 96
(7.8%) candidates passed, hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this
Level. 556 (44.9%) candidates have part passed while a total of 586 (47.3%) candidates failed the
examination. (See Table 4 on page3).
CANDIDATES QUALIFYING FOR THE PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATE OF

COMPLETION
In this examination session, 28 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the ATEC
programme, comprising 06 (27.3%) female candidates and 22 (72.7%) male candidates.
All 28 candidates who qualified for the Accounting Technician Certificate passed ATEC II
subjects
On the other hand, 63 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the CPA programme,
comprising 18 (28.6%) female candidates and 45 (71.4%) male candidates.
The breakdown of the 63 candidates qualifying for the CPA (T):

· 06 (9.5%) passed both Intermediate and Final Level examinations
· 05 (7.9%) have passed Intermediate Level who had already passed Final Level
· 52 (82.5%) passed Final Level examinations this session
2
TABLE 4
GENERAL STATISTICAL ANALYSIS OF EXAMINATION RESULTS

87TH EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2018
TABLE 4
EXAMINATION ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL
NO. % NO. % NO % NO. % NO % NO. %
ENTRIES 69 100 105 100 420 100 2095 100 1368 100 4057 100
ABSENTEES 8 4.6 7 6.6 50 11.9 271 12.9 130 9.5 466 11.5
CANDIDATES 61 95.4 98 93.3 370 88.1 1824 87.1 1238 90.5 3591 88.5
WHO SAT
PART 30 49.2 51 52.0 188 50.8 925 50.7 556 44.9 1750 48.7
PASSED
PASSED 20 32.8 31 31.6 96 25.9 129 7.1 96 7.8 372 10.4
FAILED 11 18.0 16 16.3 86 23.2 770 42.2 586 47.3 1469 40.9
TOTAL 61 100 98 100 370 100 1824 100 1238 100 3591 100
3
CHAPTER II
PERFORMANCE EVALUATION SUBJECT-WISE
INTRODUCTION
This chapter provides a detailed analysis of performance of candidates in each subject at
each level of the Board’s examinations. General evaluation and assessment of candidates’
performance at each level and specific assessment of candidates in each topic examined is
analyzed. The Board hopes that this report will provide necessary guidance to trainers and
students for the better results in the Board’s future examinations.
The May 2018 examination is the eighth examination session under the revised
examination scheme and syllabi. The scheme has a two tier system of five different levels:
two at the Accounting Technician level and three at the Professional level.
A total of 23 examination papers were attempted this session as detailed hereunder:
(a) Accounting Technician Level I with four papers;
(b) Accounting Technician Level II with four papers;
(c) The Foundation Level with five papers;
(d) The Intermediate Level with six papers;
(e) The Final Level with four papers.
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
61 candidates sat for the ATEC I examinations. The performance indicates that 20 (32.8%)
candidates passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS for
ATEC. 30 (49.2%) candidates have passed some of the subjects in this level while 11
(18.0%) candidates failed the examinations.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown in Table 5.1
TABLE 5.1
ATEC I SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2017 AND MAY
2018
Performance
Paper Subject May 2017 May 2018
Code
Entries Pass % Entries Pass %
T.01 Bookkeeping and Accounts 57 42 73.7 56 39 69.6

Elements of Business Maths
T.02 90 44 48.9 58 30 51.7
and Statistics
Introduction to Information and
T.03 Communication Technology 73 35 47.9 57 26 45.6
Business Communication Skills
T.04
70 49 70.0 56 37 66.1
4
GENERAL COMMENTS
T.01 - BOOK-KEEPING AND ACCOUNTS
I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to apply knowledge
of Book keeping and Accounts for recording, posting business transactions in the
book of accounts and preparation of accounting statement in private and public
sector accounts.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER
The paper comprised of four questions whereby candidates were required to answer
all questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40% of the
total marks.
III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS - MULTIPLE CHOICES

Candidates were required to:
(a) Choose the best answer from the four given alternatives
(b) State whether the given statements were true or false.
(c) Match each phrase from LIST A with the phrase from LIST B
appropriately.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 56
candidates who answered the question, 39 (69.6%) candidates passed
while the remaining 17 (30.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 33 (58.8%), 03 (5.4%) and 03 (5.4%) candidates scored pass, credit
and distinction marks respectively.
There were no major weaknesses noted in this question.
QUESTION 2: PREPARATION OF CASH BOOKS AND PETTY CASH
(a) Define:-
(i) Cash book
(ii)Explain the different types of cash books
(b) Prepare cash book for the given transactions.
passed 12 (21.4%), 15 (26.8%) and 21 (37.5%) candidates scored pass,
credit and distinction marks respectively.
5
Some candidates failed to adhere to the requirements of the question
especially to prepare double column cashbook.
QUESTION 3: A. BOOKS OF ORIGINAL ENTRY AND LEDGER

B. RECORD AND POST ACCOUNTING TRANSACTIONS

(a) Define:-
(i) bank overdraft
(ii) dishonoured cheque
(iii) imprest system
(b) Differentiate between journal and ledger on the basis of the following
points:-
(i) Nature
(ii) Stage of recording
(iii) Balancing
(c) Explain the statement that, cash book is both a journal and a ledger
(d) State whether the following ledger accounts will have debit or credit
balances:-
(i) Sales
(ii) Purchase return
(iii) Capital
(iv) Salary
(v) Rent paid
(vi) Purchases
(e) Journalise and give narrations of the give transactions.

No common weakness was noted in this question.
QUESTION 4: A. INTRODUCTION TO BOOKEEPING AND ACCOUNTING

B. BUSINESS TRANSACTIONS AND SOURCE DOCUMENTS
(a) Explain the following documents in terms of their origin, usage and
disposal:-
(i) Sales invoice
(ii) Credit note
(iii) Debit note
(iv) Payment vouchers
(v) Cheque counterfoils
6
(b) Compute income the given income under:-
(i) Cash basis
(ii) Accrual basis
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 56
candidates who answered the question only 05 (8.9%) candidates passed
passed 04 (7.1%) and 01 (1.8%) candidates scored pass and distinction
marks respectively. No candidate scored credit marks in this question.
Most of the candidates failed to differentiate between cash and accrual
bases of accounting and hence not able to compute income under those
approaches.
IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS

(a) Assessment of the paper
The panel of examiners observed that the questions were clear and fair. Also
they commented that the questions were set within the prescribed syllabus
and could be answered within the allocated time.
(b) Candidates’ overall performance

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of
56 candidates who answered the examination, 39 (69.6%) candidates passed
while the remaining 17 (30.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed
33 (58.9%) and 06 (10.7%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this examination
paper.
The over-all candidates’ performance in the subject is as shown in table

5.1.1
TABLE 5.1.1
T01 – CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Classification of Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
No. of Candidates 17 33 06 00 56
(Frequency)
30.4 58.9 10.7 0.0 100
Percentage
TABLE 5.1.2
T.01.COMPARISON OF PASS RATES WITH MAY 2017 EXAMINATIONS
May 2017 May 2018
No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed %
42 73.7 39 69.6
7
T.02 - ELEMENTS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS
The principal learning outcome of this paper is to build basic skills in the collection,
processing, presentation and interpretation of simple numerical and statistical
knowledge and skills as a tool of learning and understanding related subjects at
higher levels.
total marks.
Candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: MULTIPLECHOICE – VARIOUS TOPICS

(a) Choose the best answer from the four given alternatives
(b) Match each phrase from LIST A with the phrase from LIST B
appropriately.
(c) State whether the given statements were true or false.
QUESTION 2: ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
(a) Find the value of the given parts in arithmetic progression
(b) (i) Calculate a simple aggregate price index
(ii) Interpret the obtained answer
(c) Find the area of the given field
(d) Calculate the Fisher’s price index for the given commodities.
candidates who answered the question only 11 (19.0%) candidates
passed while the remaining 47 (81.0%) candidates failed. Out of those
who passed 04 (6.9%), 05 (8.6%) and 02 (3.4%) candidates scored pass,
8
QUESTION 3: A. ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
B. EQUATIONS AND INEQUALITIES
C. BASIC PROBABILITY THEORY
Candidates were required to:-

(a) Find the:-
(i) loss made
(ii) the percentage of loss for the given amount
(b) Convert the given percentage into:-
(i) fraction
(ii) decimal
(c) Find the filters which will give maximum revenue
(d) Find the probability of not selecting a given ball
(e) Find the equation of straight line joining the given points.
No major weaknesses were noted in this question.
QUESTION 4: A. CLASSIFICATION AND PRESENTATION OF DATA

B. BASIC PROBABILITY THEORY
C. PERMUTATION AND CONTRIBUTION
(a) (i) Determine how many students did the examination
(ii) Determine how many students did not pass the examination
(iii) Calculate the proportion of the students who did not fail the
examination
(b) Illustrate the given information using pie chart
(c) Find ways that given students could be selected
(d) Find the probability that given contractors get contracts.
13 (22.4%), 02 (3.4%) and 03 (5.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and
distinction marks respectively.
Most of the candidates failed to use 360 o to draw a cycle sectors. They were
unable to apply combination and the general probability theorem.
9
The panel of examiners in assessing the questions was of the opinion that the
question paper was of good quality and standard for the intended level of
candidates as it combines both application and knowledge type of questions.
The question paper was fair in terms of marks awarded, time allocated, and
length of questions.
Marks distribution was done evenly to each question.
58 candidates who answered the examination, 30 (51.7%) candidates passed
distinction marks respectively
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table 5.1.3

TABLE 5.1.3
T.02 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

No of Candidates 28 20 07 03 58
(Frequency)
48.3 34.5 12.1 5.2 100
Percentage
TABLE 5.1.4
T.02. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2017 EXAMINATIONS
May 2017 May 2018
44 48.9 30 51.7
10
T.03 – INTRODUCTION TO INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION
TECHNOLOGY
The principal learning outcome of the paper is to enable candidates apply
knowledge and skills in information technology to solve problems in the business
environment.
total marks.
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS – MULTIPLECHOICE
Candidates were required to choose the best answer from the four given
alternatives.

passed 20 (35.1%) and 05 (8.8%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
There were no major weaknesses noted in this question.
QUESTION 2: INTERNET AND E-COMMERCE

(a) Distinguish between C2C and B2C business models
(b) Describe any e-commerce payment systems
(c) (i) Define ISPs
(ii) Identify the authority which regulates ISPs in Tanzania
(iii) Give examples of ISPs existing in Tanzania.
(d) State offences stipulated in the cyber crime Act 2015.
Some candidates could not identify what C and B stands for in the C2C
and B2C. They failed to describe e-commerce oriented payment systems
and could not able to mention four cyber crime offences.
11
QUESTION 3: A. INTERNET AND
B. E-COMMERCE
C. COMMONLY USED APPLICATION PACKAGES
(a) State kind of institutions that would use the listed domains .ac.tz,
.go.tz, .or.tz and .co.tz.
(b) (i) Explain classification of e-commerce
(c) (ii) Provide challenges of e-commerce.
(d) With examples:-
(i) define integrated accounting system
(ii) List and explain two examples of integrated accounting
systems
(iii) State benefits of using integrated accounting system.
Majority of the candidates were unable to explain the domains names
extension, failed to describe examples and benefits of integrated
accounting systems and explain challenges of e-commerce.
QUESTION 4: COMMONLY USED APPLICATION PACKAGES

Candidates were required to use the provided information to:
(a) Differentiate between function and formula in microsoft excel
(b) Count the numbers of cells in the range B2:B10 with a later than or
equal to 6/1/2014 and find average of number in cells B2:B10.
(c) Describe on how to prevent someone from copying the cell from a
worksheet.
(d) Differentiate between COUNT, COUNTA, COUNTIF and
COUNTBLANK functions as used in the microsoft excel.
candidates who answered the question, 04 (7.0%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 53 (93.0%) candidates failed. There were
neither credit nor distinction marks in this question.
Majority of the candidates failed to differentiate between function and
formula as used in MS-Excel. They were unable to differentiate between
COUNT, COUNT, COUNTIF and COUNTBLANK functions. Above all,
this question required practical skills.
12

The panel of examiners in assessing the paper were of the opinion that the
paper was fair and the questions tested covered a wide range of the syllabus.
The mixture of the questions was adequate and the distribution of marks was
fair in relation to the time allocated.
(b) Candidates overall performance
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out
of 57 candidates who answered the examination, 26 (45.6%) candidates
scored pass marks while the remaining 31 (54.4%) candidates failed. Out
of those who passed 24 (42.1%) and 02 (3.5%) candidates scored pass and
credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
examination paper.
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table
5.1.5
TABLE 5.1.5

(Frequency)
54.4 42.1 3.5 0.0 100
Percentage
TABLE 5.1.6
T.03 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2017 EXAMINATIONS
MAY 2017 May 2018

35 49.7 26 45.6
13
T.04 – BUSINESS COMMUNICATION SKILLS
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to master Basic
English language skills and be able to use them for communicating effectively in
business environment.
This paper consisted of six compulsory questions.
Candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: A. WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES

B. DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH
LANGUAGE
(a) The question was in two parts and candidates were required to:
(a) Suggest the title for the given passage and
(b) summarize it in not more than 150 words.
(b) Punctuate the given group of words.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of

56 candidates who answered the question, 38 (67.9%) candidates
passed while the remaining 18 (32.1%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 21 (37.5%), 13 (23.3%) and 04 (7.1%) candidates
scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Most of the candidates could not write the summary of the passage
using their own words.
QUESTION 2: DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE
(a) Correct mistakes in the given sentences
(b) Complete a given conversation using present perfect or present
perfect continuous tenses
(c) Fill one word or phrase which exactly represents the given
group of words
(d) Change the given sentences into question form.
candidates who answered the question, 24 (42.9%) candidates
14
Some candidates were unable to change the given verbs into present
perfect or present perfect continuous tenses and failed to change
sentences into question form.
QUESTION 3: A. DEMONSTRATE LISTENING SKILLS

LANGUAGE
(a) Define listening
(b) Identify six categories of non verbal signals
(c) List six strategies of improving listening skills.
56 candidates who answered the question, 36 (64.3%) candidates
those who passed 14 (25.0%), 05 (8.9%) and 17 (30.4) candidates
scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Majority of the candidates were unable to list categories of
nonverbal signals. Some of them failed to understand the
requirement of the questions.
QUESTION 4: WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES
Candidates were required to write an essay of about three hundred
words on one of the given topics.
candidates who answered the question, 49 (87.5%) candidates
those who passed 15 (26.8%), 07 (12.5%) and 27 (48.2%)
candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Some candidates did not include introduction and conclusion parts
of the essay. Some of them failed to put paragraphs and wrote an
essay with more than one topic.
QUESTION 5: A. WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES
LANGUAGE
The candidates were required to:
(a) List features of a good advertisement
(b) List and explain types of business letter
(c) Give two examples:-
(i) Simple sentence
(ii) Compound sentence
(iii) Complex sentences
15
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out
of 56 candidates only 19 (33.9%) candidates passed while the
remaining 37 (66.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed
13 (23.2%), 04 (7.1%) and 02 (3.6%) candidates scored pass, credit
Some candidates were unable to mention types of business letters
and majority of them failed to construct complex sentences.
QUESTION 6: DEMONSTRATE READING SKILLS

Candidates were required to read the provided passage and
choose the correct answer from the given four alternatives, A, B,
C and D.
56 candidates, 43 (76.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 13
(23.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 10 (17.9%), 22
(39.3%) and 11 (19.6%) candidates scored pass, credit and
Some candidates were unable to read the passage intensively.
16

The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, clear and well
spread within the syllabus. They found the questions to be within reach of
well-prepared candidates. The questions were also fair in relation to the time
allocated.

passed while the remaining 19 (33.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who

5.1.7
TABLE 5.1.7
(Frequency)
Percentage 33.9 55.4 7.1 3.6 100
TABLE 5.1.8

May 2017 May 2018
49 70.0 37 66.1
17
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN EXAMINATION LEVEL II
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
In this level, 98 candidates sat for the examinations, out of whom 31 (31.6%) passed, 51
(52.0%) candidates passed various subjects in this level while 16 (16.3%) failed the
examination. The 31 candidates who passed are eligible for the Board's award of the
STATEMENT OF SUCCESS FOR ATEC II. The general performance subject-wise is
as shown on table 6.1
TABLE 6.1
ATEC II SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2017 AND MAY

2018
Paper Subject Performance
Code No. May 2017 May 2018
T.05 Principles of Accounting and 119 64 53.8 83 48 57.8
Auditing
T.06 Principles of Cost 158 68 43.0 84 36 42.9
Accounting and Procurement
T.07 Elements of Commercial 102 78 76.5 75 66 88.0
Knowledge, Management
Practices and Taxation
T.08 Accounting for Public Sector 128 82 64.1 83 49 59.0
and Cooperatives
18
T.05 - PRINCIPLES OF ACCOUNTING AND AUDITING
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates on application of basic
concepts and principles of accounting in preparing and interpreting statements and
reports on a practical context as per IAS 1 and apply audit knowledge in appraising
data and assisting audit staff during audit undertakings.
The paper consisted of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
question which carried 40% of the total marks.
In this paper, candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives.
(b) Write whether true or false for each of the given statements.
(c) Match the phrases given in list B with that best explain the meaning
of items in list A.
candidates who answered the question 70 (84.3%) candidates passed
There were no major weaknesses noted.
QUESTION 2: TRIAL BALANCE AND ERRORS;
PROFESSIONAL ETHICS

(a) Use information of a trial balance of a given company to:
(i) Prepare a suspense account showing the entries necessary to
correct the accounting errors Inventories.
(ii) Prepare a computation of the corrected net profit.
(b) Mention and explain fundamental principles of Code of Ethics for
Professional Accountants.
credit and distinction marks respectively
19
Most of the candidates who failed did not follow the requirements of the
question, particularly part (a) whereby they prepared journal entries
instead of suspense account. Further to that, candidates lacked
understanding on the correction of errors and the effect of errors on net
profit.
QUESTION 3: PREPARATION OF BASIC FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

(a) Prepare the Receipts and Payments Accounts.
(b) Prepare the Restaurant Trading Account of a given year.
candidates, 49 (59.0 %) candidates passed and the remaining 34 (41.0%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 22 (26.5%), 09 (10.8%) and
18 (21.7%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively
Some candidates were not able to post correctly the items in the Receipt
and Payment accounts. This implies that candidates lacked basic
knowledge or principle which dictates that subscription is supposed to be
posted in debit-side and not credit-side.
QUESTION 4: INTRODUCTION TO AUDITING
(a) State who is the Controller and Auditor General
(b) State duties and powers of Controller and Auditor General and
explain how he may vacate the office
(c) Explain purposes of carrying out value for money audit
passed 15 (18.0%), 11 (13.3%) and 11 (13.3%) candidates scored pass
and credit marks respectively
Majority of candidates completely failed in this question despite the fact
that the question was very clear and straightforward. Probably they did
not cover the topic adequately.
20
(a) Assessment of the Examination
The panel of examiners was of the opinion that the examination was fair,
clearly worded and appropriately spread within the syllabus.
passed 25 (30.1%), 12 (14.5%) and 11 (13.3%) candidates scored pass, and
credit marks respectively
6.1.2
TABLE 6.1.2

CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS
0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 35 25 12 11 83
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 42.2 30.1 14.5 13.3 100
TABLE 6.1.3
May 2017 May 2018
64 53.8 48 57.8
21
T.06 - PRINCIPLES OF COST ACCOUNTING AND PROCUREMENT
Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates on application of
terminologies, methods, techniques and principles of Cost Accounting and
Procurement for providing management with information for decision making,
planning and controlling business operations.
The paper comprised of four questions. Question one was an objective type which
carried 40% of the total marks.
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives.
(b) Indicate answer by writing TRUE if the given statement is correct
or FALSE if the statement is incorrect.
(c) Match items by writing the letter from list A against the
corresponding roman number in list B.
passed 60 (71.4%), 07 (8.3%) and 06 (7.1%) candidates scored pass, and
credit marks respectively.
No major weakness was observed and majority of candidates attempted
well this question.
QUESTION 2: PROCEDURES FOR ACCUMULATING MATERIAL COST
COST STATEMENT AND SIMPLE BUDGET
(a) (i) Determine the Economic Order Quantity and frequency of orders.
(ii) Estimate the re-order point
(iii) Determine the economic order quantity if valves cost TZS.45, 000
each instead of TZS.15, 000 each.
(b) Explain three principal benefits of effective budgeting.
(c) Describe the stages in the budgeting process.
candidates who answered this question, 41 (48.0%) candidates passed
31 (36.9%), 02 (2.4%) and 08 (9.5%) candidates scored pass, and credit
marks.
22
Candidates who attempted this question had a major weakness in the
aspect of computation.
QUESTION 3: ACCOUNTING FOR MATERIALS, LABOUR AND OVERHEADS
AND COST BOOKKEEPING.
(a) Calculate overhead to be absorbed by using any three different cost
element methods.
(b) Use simultaneous equation method to allocate the service department
overheads to production departments.
(c) Calculate the amount of wages earned by each employee.
candidates only 12 (14.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 72
(85.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 09 (10.7%) and 03
(3.6) scored pass and distinction marks respectively.
Major weaknesses noted are failure of candidates to apply percent of
estimated factory costs in computation of overheads to be absorbed. On top
of that, candidates failed to compute the service department overheads of
production department using simultaneous equation.
QUESTION4: INTRODUCTION TO PROCUREMENT.
(a) Identify and describe two organizational approaches for purchasing
in foreign markets
(b) Elaborate major benefits derived by procuring foods, works or
services in domestic markets
(c) Describe any two main parts of supply chain.
.
candidates who answered this question, only 33 (39.3%) candidates passed
The major weakness observed was that many candidates could not identify
two organizational approaches for purchasing in foreign markets.
23
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, clearly worded
and within the prescribed syllabus. The examination questions were well
mixed, containing computational as well theoretical questions and could
have easily been answered by an average prepared candidate within the
allocated time of three hours.
(b) Candidates Overall Performance
Candidates’ performance in this question paper was satisfactory. Out of 84
candidates who answered the examination, 36 (42.9%) candidates passed
30 (35.7) and 06 (7.1%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
paper.
TABLE 6.1.4
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY) 48 30 06 00 84
PERCENTAGE 57.1 35.7 7.1 0.0 100
TABLE 6.1.5
May 2017 May 2018

68 43.0 36 42.9
24
T.07 - ELEMENTS OF COMMERCIAL KNOWLEDGE, MANAGEMENT
PRACTICES AND TAXATION
Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge of commerce, commercial law, management and taxation in managing
business functions.
The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
type which carried 40% of the total marks.
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS:

(a) Choose the most correct answer from the four given alternatives.
(b) Write whether is true or false for each of the given statements.
(c) Match the items in list A with those in list B to produce complete and
meaningful sentences
No specific weakness was observed in this question.
QUESTION 2: INTRODUCTION TO TAXATION

(a) Explain three economic objectives of taxation.
(b) Describe main principles of a good tax system
(c) Outline functions of the Tanzania Revenue Authority
(d) Distinguish between direct taxes and indirect taxes
candidates, 66 (88.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 09 (12.0%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 12 (16.0%), 10 (13.3%) and
44 (58.7%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks respectively
Most candidates performed well on this question, thus there was no major
weakness noted.
25
QUESTION 3: TAX ADMINSTRATION; OFFICE MECHANIZATION; LAW OF
CONTRACT
(a) Differentiate between tax evasion and tax avoidance
(b) Enumerate important features of a valid contract
(c) Name and explain types of office machines
(d) Write brief notes on the following terms
(i) Tax assessment
(ii) Tax audit
(iii)Tax investigation
(iv) Stamp and transfer duty
(v) Excise duty
candidates, 57 (76.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 18 (24.0%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 26 (34.7%), 16 (21.3) and 15
(20.0%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks respectively.
Most candidates fared well in this question and no major weakness noted.
QUESTION 4: INTRODUCTION TO COMMERCE; MONEY AND BANKING;

OFFICE RECORDS MANAGEMENT.
(a) Write down the advantages and disadvantages of electronic payment
transfer.
(b) Write brief short notes on the following:
(i) Limited Partnership
(ii) Limited Liability Partnership
(c) Identify advantages of using electronic record keeping
(d) Identify various types of ‘income’ and ‘gains’.
candidates, 62 (82.7%) candidates passed, while the remaining 13
(17.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 28 (37.3%), 17
(22.7%) and 17 (22.7%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
No major weakness noted on this question, instead few candidates who

failed in this question did not comprehend the requirements of it.
26
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair in relation to the
level of candidate examined, with mixture of easy and difficult questions
and could be answered within the allocated time of three hours by an
average prepared candidate.
(b) Candidates’ Overall Performance
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown in table 6.1.6
TABLE 6.1.6

0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 12.0 36.0 32.0 20.0 100
TABLE 6.1.7
May 2017 May 2018
78 76.5 66 88.0
27
T.08 ACCOUNTING FOR PUBLIC SECTOR AND COOPERATIVES
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply public
sector and cooperative accounting knowledge and skills to manage government and
cooperative funds economically, efficiently and effectively in accordance with the
constitution, laws, rules and regulations in one or more specialised fields.

The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
type which carried 40% of the total marks.
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives and
write its appropriate letter.
(b) Pair each item from list A with the items from list B appropriately.
(c) State whether the statement is true or false and write “TRUE” for
the correct statement and “FALSE” for the incorrect statement.
No major weakness was noted in this question.
QUESTION 2: COOPERATIVE ACCOUNTING MANAGEMENT;
ANNUAL FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND ACCOUNTS –
UNDER IPSAS AND PUBLIC FINANCE ACT.
(a) Use the given information about IPSAS to:
(i) Identify elements of financial statements to be recognized
under the IPSAS criteria and for each element explain briefly
what it means.
(ii) State problem that would arise for failure to recognize such
items
28
(b) Use the given information about co-operative society to:
(i) Mention and explain characteristic features of a co-operative
society.
(ii) Identify and explain ways in which co-operative societies can
raise money to finance its activities.
candidates who answered the question, 61 (73.5%) candidates scored
a pass mark and the remaining 22 (26.5%) candidates failed. Out of
QUESTION 3: TERMINAL BENEFITS AND PENSION CALCULATIONS

(a) Candidates were required to:
(i) List classes of benefits provided by the Local Authorities
Pension Fund (LAPF) as stipulated in the Local Authorities
Pension Fund Act, 2006
(ii) Identify and briefly explain any five (5) challenges facing
pension funds management in Tanzania.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to prepare
the trial balance of the given District Council:
candidates who answered the question, 62 (74.7%) scored a pass mark
Generally most of candidates fared well in this question, as over 50% of
candidates had a pass mark.
QUESTION 4: GOVERNMENT GENERAL CASH MANAGEMENT AND
CONTROL
(a) Use the given information to explain and guide staff on:
(i) The purpose of the year end procedures.
(ii) Items that must be taken care of before, during and after the stock
taking
(iii) Tasks to be undertaken to check the bank reconciliation statement
and confirmation certificates.
(b) Prepare Cash Flow Statement by applying IPSAS 2
Candidates’ performance in this question was very poor. Out of 83
candidates, only 08 (9.6%) candidates passed while the remaining 75
(90.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 07 (8.4%) and 01
29
(1.2%) scored pass and credit respectively. No distinction marks in this
question
The major weakness observed in this question was that, majority of
candidates could not comprehend the basic difference between statement
of cash flow and statement of income, hence confused and spent their
time by preparing statement of income and expenditure instead of
statement of cash flow.

The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced
containing a mixture of computational as well as theoretical questions. It was
further found to be within the syllabus and that it could have been done within
the time allocated of three hours.
(b) Candidates’ Overall Performance
83 candidates who answered the examination 49 (59.0%) candidates passed
40 (48.2%) and 09 (10.9%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks
respectively.

TABLE 6.1.8
0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
PERCENTAGE 41.0 48.2 10.8 0.0 100
TABLE 6.1.9
May 2017 May 2018
82 64.1 49 59.0
30
INTRA-LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE – ATEC I
AND ATEC II LEVELS
Under the revised examination scheme and syllabus, the Board does not allow its
candidates to attempt both levels. However, it allowed those who were caught in transition
from the phased out syllabus to the new syllabus during the transitional period.
The analysis below shows performance of the 3 candidates who sat examination papers in
the ATEC I and II Levels.
Their performance is as indicated hereunder:
ATEC I & II
S/No. COMBINATION
Number Percent
1 Pass Both 0 00.0
2 Pass ATEC I, Partial Pass ATEC II 2 66.7
3 Pass ATEC I, Fail ATEC II 0 00.0
4 Partial Pass ATEC I, Pass ATEC II 0 00.0
5 Partial Pass Both 0 00.0
6 Pass ATEC I, Fail ATEC II 0 00.0
7 Fail ATEC I, Pass ATEC II 0 00.0
8 Fail ATEC I, Partial Pass ATEC II 0 00.0
9 Fail Both 1 33.3
Total 3 100.0
31
PROFESSIONAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
FOUNDATION LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
This is the first level of the Board’s three tier professional examination scheme which leads
to the Certified Public Accountant [CPA (T)] award.
The Foundation level examinations comprise of five subjects as indicated hereunder:
A1 Quantitative Techniques
A2 Business and Management
A3 Accounting
A4 Business Information
A5 Business Law
The examinations draw candidates from two main sources, namely: -
(a) Those candidates who have successfully completed the Board’s Accounting
Technician Level examinations.
(b) Those candidates who have acquired non-accounting first degree (or its equivalent)
qualifications awarded by institutions of higher learning in the country recognized by
the Board.
During the May 2018 examination session, 370 candidates sat for Foundation Level
examinations.
The figure indicated above includes 70 candidates who sat for both Foundation and
Intermediate level examinations, whose performance analysis is shown at the end of
Intermediate Level Report.
GENERAL OBSERVATIONS
In this examination session, 370 candidates sat for the examination out of whom 96
(25.9%) passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS for
the Foundation Level. 188 (50.8%) have passed some of the subjects while 86 (23.3%)
candidates failed the examination.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 7.1
TABLE 7.1
SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2017 AND MAY 2018
Paper Performance
Code Subject May 2017 May 2018
No. Entries Pass % Entries Pass %
A1 Quantitative Techniques 261 91 34.8 156 57 36.5
A2 Business and Management 231 193 83.5 160 132 82.5
A3 Accounting 419 309 74.4 279 120 43.0
A4 Business Information 435 227 52.2 282 171 60.6
A5 Business Law 241 155 64.3 169 82 48.5
32
QUESTION –WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
A1 – QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to examine candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge and skills of mathematical and quantitative techniques, concepts and
tools in the day to day accounting, business functions and decision making.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER
The paper consisted of three compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:

(a) Use the given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer,
(b) Match the given items in list A with those in list B to produce complete
and meaningful sentences.
(c) For each of the given statements, state whether the statement is true or
false.
passed 50 (32.1%) and 21 (13.4%) candidates scored pass and credit
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
question.
However it was difficult to discover candidate’s weakness, most of the
candidates failed (part A) to choose the most correct answers, also failed
(part C) to state whether the given statements is true or false.
QUESTION 2: NETWORK ANALYSIS AND PROJECT SCHEDULING

From the give data candidates were required to:-
(a) Draw the network diagram.
(b) Calculate the minimum overall project completion time and identify
critical activities.
(c) Determine how is the project completion time affected
(d) Determine how the project completion time is affected also.

33
and distinction marks respectively
Most of the candidates failed to calculate the minimum overall project
completion time and identify which activities are critical and majority
failed to draw the network diagram.
QUESTION 3: PROBABILITY; LINEAR PROGRAMING AND

INVENTORY PLANNING AND CONTROL
Candidates were required to use the given information to:
(a) Calculate the given probability problems.
(b) Obtain the linear programing model for the given transportation
problem.
(c) Determine Economic Order Quantity
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of

156 candidates who answered the question only 11 (7.0%) candidates
who passed 08 (5.1%) and 03 (1.9%) candidates scored pass and credit
question.
Despite the fact that the question was clear and within the scope of the
candidates’ level, most of candidates failed to formulate the linear
programming model and most of them failed to determine Economic
Order Quantity.
QUESTION 4: CALCULUS AND THEORY OF THE FIRM, HYPOTHESIS
TESTING, AND TIME SERIES AND FORE CASTING
The candidates were required to use the given information to:-
(a) Find value and expression.
(b) Test the hypothesis.
(c) (i) Find the rate of interest compounded
(ii) Find the term of an Arithmetic Progression (AP)

Most of candidates were not able to provide the correct answers in parts
(b) and (c) of the question.
34
(a) Assessment of the Paper
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced with
a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions. Time allocated
to the questions was adequate to enable an average candidate to complete
the examination.
(b) Candidates’ performance
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory.
Out of 156 candidates who answered the examination only 57 (36.5%)
candidates passed while the remaining 99 (63.5%) candidates failed. Out
question.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on Table 7.1.1
TABLE 7.1.1
A1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 63.5 32.7 3.8 0.0 100
TABLE 7.1.2
A1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2017 EXAMINATIONS
May 2017 May 2018
91 34.8 57 36.5
35
A2 – BUSINESS AND MANAGEMENT
Principal learning outcome of this subject is to test candidates’ ability to apply concepts
and principles of business and management in business environment.
The paper consisted of three questions which were compulsory. Question one was
an objective question which comprised of 40% of the total marks.
In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:
(a) For each of the statements given, choose the most correct answer
among the given alternatives.
(b) To pair each item from list A with the statement from list B
appropriately.
(c) For each of the given statements, state whether the statement is true or
false.
No major weakness was noted.
QUESTION 2: BASIC BUSINESS FINANCE AND FINANCIAL MARKETS,
AND BUSINESS PURPOSE & OBJECTIVES
(a) Candidates were required to:-
(i) Explain the benefits and limitations of short term loan as a
source of short term finance.
(ii) Describe benefits and limitations of equity financing.
(iii) Identify types of preference shares.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to:

(i) Distinguish between ‘money markets’ and ‘capital markets’.
(ii) Explain the meaning and functions of financial intermediaries.
(iii) Describe important economic roles of financial markets.

36
passed 28 (17.5%), 48 (30%) and 52 (32.5%) candidates scored pass,
No major weakness was noted.
QUESTION 3: MANAGEMENT, INDIVIDUAL AND ORGANIZATIONAL

BEHAVIOUR
(a) Candidates were required to:
(i) Explain the characteristics and salient factors affecting
individual behaviour in an organization.
(ii) Distinguish between individual and team approaches to work.
(b) Candidates were required to:
(i) Discuss the factors that have caused motivation levels to
increase in organizations.
(ii) Outline hygiene factors that may result into job dissatisfaction in
organizations and advise on ways to ensure satisfaction for
employees.

Most candidates did not understand the requirements of the question.
QUESTION 4:BASIC OF GOVERNANCE, SUSTAINABILITY, CORPORATE

SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY AND ETHICS AND COMPETITIVE
ADVANTAGE

(a) Discuss how accountants can be encouraged to act in the public
interest.
(b) Describe ethical conduct and behaviour a public servant must abide
to.
(c) Explain main factors that influence the level of competitiveness in an
industry as identified by Michael Porter.
(d) Describe principles of corporate governance.
candidates who answered the question, 88 (55.0%) candidates passed while
the remaining 72 (45.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 47
(29.4%), 29 (18.1%) and 12 (07.5%) candidates scored pass, credit and
Most candidates could not describe principles of corporate governance and
ethical conduct and behaviour a public servant must abide to.
37
The panel of examiners found the paper to be well spread within the syllabus
which resulted to the candidates’ good performance.
160 candidates who answered the examination, 132 (82.5%) candidates
passed 88 (55%), 41 (25.6%) and 03 (1.9%) candidates scored pass, credit
Candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on Table 7.1.3
TABLE 7.1.3
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 17.5 55.0 25.6 1.9 100
TABLE 7.1.4
May 2017 May 2018
193 83.5 132 82.5
38
A3 – ACCOUNTING
knowledge and skills in recording financial transactions and preparing financial
statements for an entity including not for profit entities in accordance with the
IFRSs and IPSASs,
The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
The A3-Accounting subject this session tested candidates on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICE

For each of the questions, candidates were required to choose the most
correct answer among the given alternatives.
who passed 55 (19.7%) and 19 (06.8%) candidates scored pass and
question.
No major weakness was noted in this question; most candidates were not
able to choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives.
QUESTION 2: ADJUSTMENTS TO ACCOUNT BALANCES AND

FINANCIAL STATEMENTS, AND PREPARATION OF
FINANCIAL STATEMENTS ACCORDANCE WITH
INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL REPORTING STANDARDS
From the given information, candidates were required to:-
(a) Re-calculate the net profit for the first year in business.
(b) Prepare
(i) Cash and Bank Accounts.
(ii) Statement of Income.
(iii) Statement of Financial Position.

39
question.
Most of the candidates failed to recalculate profit and to prepare financial
statements as required.
QUESTION 3: PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS IN

ACCORDANCE WITH IFRS
Candidates were required to use the given information to:-
(a) Explain and provide two examples of the term cash equivalents.
(b) Prepare a statement of cash flows.
Most candidates were not able to prepare a statement of cash flows by
using indirect method.
QUESTION 4: ADJUSTMENT TO ACCOUNT BALANCES AND FINANCIAL
STATEMENTS.
From the given information candidates were required to:
(a) Prepare the adjusted cash book.
(b) Prepare a statement reconciling the adjusted cash book with the
bank statement balance
(c) Explain, in report format, reasons for preparing a bank
reconciliation statement on a regular basis.

Despite the fact that some of the candidates did well in this question
most who failed could not properly prepare the adjusted cash book.
40
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fair with adequate coverage
of the syllabus. The panel also observed that candidates could manage to
complete the examination within the allocated time.
(b) Candidates’ Performance
candidates passed while the remaining 159 (57%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 107 (38.3%) and 13 (4.7%) candidates scored pass and
question.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in Table
7.1.5
TABLE 7.1.5

PERCENTAGE 57.0 38.3 4.7 0.0 100
TABLE 7.1.6
May 2017 May 2018
309 74.4 120 43.0
41
A4 – BUSINESS INFORMATION

knowledge of cost analysis and awareness of information technology to produce
accurate and useful information to support management in decision-making and its
application in performance management.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER:

The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
In this examination session, candidates were examined on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICE

For each of the questions given, candidates were required to choose
the most correct answer among the given alternatives.
passed 127 (45.0%) and 45 (19.2%) candidates scored pass and credit
question.
QUESTION 2: FORECASTING AND BUDGETING
Students were required to use the given information to prepare budgets
for:-
(a) sales in quantity and value, including total value
(b) production quantities
(c) materials usage in quantities
(d) materials purchases in quantity and value including total value
Candidate were not able to prepare budgets as required
42
QUESTION 3: DECISION-MAKING
(a) Outline differences between the Net Present Value (NPV)
method and the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) method.
(b) ;-
(i) Calculate the NPV.
(ii) Calculate the NPV.
(iii) Estimate the IRR.
(iv) Recommend whether the project should go ahead.
.
Most candidates applied incorrect formula in computation of IRR and
some candidates demonstrated poor understanding of the questions.
QUESTION 4: INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND INFORMATION
SYSTEMS AND COSTING
Candidates were required to the given information to:-
(a) Identify and explain risks to the reliability of data and information.
(b) Calculate the sales price.

Most candidates who failed were weak in calculating the sales price.
43

The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, well balanced
containing both easy and moderate questions which were relevant to the
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was
examiners’ view that the paper could have been well attempted within the
allocated time of three hours by an average candidate.
(b) Overall Candidates performance
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on table 7.1.7

TABLE 7.1.7
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 39.4 45.0 14.9 0.7 100
TABLE 7.1.8
May 2017 May 2018
227 52.2 171 60.6
44
A5 – BUSINESS LAW
theories, practices and laws governing business in providing accounting services
and protecting business against unnecessary litigations.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER:
The paper comprised seven questions. Candidates were required to answer five
questions.
In this examination session, candidates were examined on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: CIVIL LAW FOR BUSINESS AND PROFFESIONAL
ACCOUNTANTS FORMATION OF A CONTRACT.
(a) Candidates were required to describe the concept of intention of
parties to agreements to create legal relationship.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to:-

(i) State whether the contract was formed.
(ii) State whether the decision took was legally justified
of 142 candidates who answered the question only 28 (19.7%)
candidates passed while the remaining 114 (80.3%) candidates failed.
Out of those who passed 18 (12.7%), 08 (5.6%) and 02 (1.4%)
candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Most candidate could not understand the requirements of the question.
QUESTION 2: THE NATURE AND CHARACTERISTICS OF AGENCY
(a) Define an “agency”.
(b) Explain briefly how an agency can be established.
(c) Describe the concept of privity of contract.

credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in
this question.
Most of the candidates failed to link the concept of privity of contract
with the principle of agency.
45
QUESTION 3: THEFT, FRAUD, FORGERY, AND MONEY LAUNDERING

(a) State basic elements for an offence of theft.
(b) Give differences between ‘fraud’ and ‘forgery’.
(c) Identify and state stages of money laundering.
(d) Explain the duties of an accountant in anti-money laundering
legislation.
passed 25 (17.4%), 44 (30.5%) and 25 (17.4%) candidates scored
pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
No major weakness was noted
QUESTION 4: TORTS AND PRODUCT LIABILITY, AND
THE NATURE AND CHARACTERISTICS OF AGENCY
Candidates were required to: -
(a) Define “tort”
(b)
(i) Explain briefly the meaning of duty of care in relation to
accountants and Auditors.
(ii) State to whom does an accountant owe the duty of care?
(c) Differentiate between “sub-agent” and “substituted agent”.
133 candidates who answered the question only 46 (34.6%)
Out of those who passed 32 (24.0%), 13 (9.8%) and 01 (0.8%)
candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Most candidates confused ‘‘a duty of care’’ as it applies in the law of
torts, with professional duties of accountants and auditors. So they
failed to provide answers as required.
46
QUESTION 5: COMPANY LAW
(a)
(i) Explain the meaning of depository shares.
(ii) Differentiate “offer documents” from “shares” and explain
their relationship.
(b) Explain the principle in Foss v Hasbotlle (1843) and its exceptions.

Most candidates who attempt this question were not able to explain the
principle in Foss v Hasbotlle and its exceptions. They also confused offer
document with the ‘‘offer’’ as an ingredient of a valid contract.

Candidates were required to use the given information to advise:-
(a) Whether it is possible for the members to accommodate their
children.
(b) The various ways in which membership of private company Limited
can be obtained.
(c) Ways in which a person can cease to become a member in a
company.

Most candidates were not preparing themselves well for the topic.

(a) Describe circumstances under which courts can lift the corporate
veils of companies.
(b) List down purposes of altering the provisions of the memorandum
of association.
(c) List down situations where a registered company can be wound
up by the Court.
47
who passed 24 (16.6%), 38 (26.2%) and 09 (6.2%) candidates scored
Those who failed did not understand the question, hence wrote irrelevant
issues.

The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, well balanced
containing both easy and moderate questions which were relevant to the
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was
examiners view that the paper could have been well attempted within the
allocated time of three hours by an average candidate.
(b) Overall Candidates performance
of those who passed 61 (36.1%), 20 (11.8%) and 01 (0.6%) candidates
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in table 7.1.9
TABLE 7.1.9
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 51.5 36.1 11.8 0.6 100
TABLE 7.1.10
A5. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2017 EXAMINATIONS
May 2017 May 2018
155 64.3 82 48.5
48
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
The Intermediate level examinations are the second level of the Board’s professional
examinations under the current examination scheme and syllabus. This examination level
consists of six subjects as shown hereunder:-
B1 Financial Management
B2 Financial Accounting
B3 Auditing Principles and Practices
B4 Public Finance and Taxation I
B5 Performance Management
B6 Management, Governance and Ethics
Under this examination scheme and syllabus, a candidate is required to complete
Foundation Level before moving to Intermediate Level. However, candidates who were
caught in the transition from the phased out syllabus to the current syllabus were allowed
to cross the levels.
During the May 2018 examination session, a total of 1,824 candidates sat for Intermediate
Level examinations.
The figure indicated above includes 217 candidates who sat for both Intermediate and Final
level examinations, whose performance analysis is shown at the end of these levels’ report.
The examination draws candidates from the following sources:
(a) Candidates who have been referred previously in the respective corresponding
subjects.
(b) Candidates who have majored in accounting in their bachelor degree programmes from
recognized institutions.
49
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
In this session 1,824 candidates sat for the Intermediate Level Examinations out of whom
129 (7.0%) have passed this level and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT
OF SUCCESS, 925 (50.7%) have passed some of the subjects while 770 (42.2%)
candidates have failed the examination.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 8.1 below:
TABLE 8.1
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY
2017 AND MAY 2018
Paper Performance
Code Subject May 2017 May 2018
No. Entries Pass % Entries Pass %
B1 Financial Management 1311 229 17.5 679 262 38.6

B2 Financial Accounting 1229 505 41.1 677 400 59.1
B3 Auditing Principles and 1025 706 68.9 718 372 51.8
Practices
B4 Public Finance & Taxation I 1,162 403 34.7 730 226 36.4
B5 Performance Management 2,258 583 25.8 886 275 31.0
B6 Management, Governance & 881 823 93.4 604 328 54.3
Ethics
50
B1 FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT

Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability
to apply financial management knowledge and skills in valuing various assets as
well as businesses, in evaluating investment opportunities, in forecasting and
planning financial needs of a firm, in deciding on the level of debt financing to use
relative to equity capital, in determining the level of working capital to carry in a
business and in deciding on the share of the earnings after tax between retained
earnings and shareholders.

The paper had two sections A and B, with six questions carrying 20 marks each.
Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four
out of five questions in Section B.

The following topics were tested in this paper:-
QUESTION 1: CORPORATE FINANCIAL DECISIONS ENVIRONMENT

(a) Discuss the nature of three decision policies in financial
management.
(b) (i) Calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) of the investment
project.: Explain how the investment could be approved
(Capital budgeting under inflation) from given information.
(ii) Explain how the investment would be appraised if there
would be a change in the rate of inflation.
(c) Recommend which of the three investments proposals should be
accepted.
Out of 674 candidates who answered the question only 130 (19.3%)
Out of those who passed 120 (17.8%) and 10 (1.5%) candidates scored
pass and credit respectively. No candidate who scored distinction marks.
Most of candidates failed to compute figures hence demonstrated poor
computational skills.
51
QUESTION 2: PORTFOLIO THEORY: CONCEPT OF RISK & RETURN,
SECURITY MARKET AND CAPM
(a) Explain the meaning of CAPM and state its components
(b) Use the given information relating to shares at stock exchange to:
(i) Calculate the expected return and standard deviation of each
share and advise the person on two shares he should invest in.
(ii) Compute the expected portfolio return and portfolio standard
deviation of the selected shares when the available shares are
invested equally in each of the shares.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out 663
passed 235 (35.4%) and 113 (17.0%) and 04 (0.6) candidates scored pass
Majority of candidates failed to calculate standard deviation for portfolio.
QUESTION 3: COST OF CAPITAL AND CAPITAL STRUCTURE
(a) (i) Candidates were required to explain the meaning of script
dividend and situation under which the firm is likely to make
script dividend.
(ii) State any two advantages and any two disadvantages of making
a script dividend.
(b) (i) Candidates were required to from information concerning the
given company using the Modiglian Miller (MM) Model, to
determine price per share at the end of year if:
· The proposed dividend is not accepted.
· The proposed dividend is accepted.
(ii) To use the MM model to determine how many new shares
must be issued.
526 candidates who answered the question only, 109 (20.7%) candidates
scored pass marks while the remaining 417 (79.3%) candidates failed.
Most candidates failed to find the market price of the share and lack of
the correct knowledge of the formula for computing market share price.
52
QUESTION 4: INVESTMENT DECISION
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning a
given company’s information on the operation and financial aspect
to:
(i) Calculate the degree of operating leverage as per the given sales.
(ii) Calculate the current market value of the given company.
(b) From the information provided of the company, candidates were
required to determine the following:
(i) The market value of the company
(ii) The market value of equity
(iii) The debt-equity Ratio
(iv) The market value per share
(v) The degree of financial leverage at the earnings before interest
and taxes (EBIT) generated at the TZS.20,000,000 level.
390 candidates who answered the question, only 36 (9.2%) candidates
Most candidates demonstrated poor computing skills and could not
write the formulas for computation of degree of operating leverage.
QUESTION 5: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENT
(a) Candidates were required from the information given to:-
(i) Determine the optimal order quantity using the basic
economic Order Quantity(EOQ) model.
(ii) Determine the effect of the discount offered in order to
either to accept or reject the offer under the various
circumstances offered.
(iii) Identify the type of inventory cost that has not been
included in the offers and the reason for not being
included.
(b) Explain the following policies as applied in working capital
management;
(i) Conservative policy
(ii) Hedging policy.

candidates passed while the remaining 557 (93.9%) candidates
failed. Out of those who passed 28 (4.7%)and 08 (1.3%)
candidates scored pass. No candidate scored distinction marks.
53
Candidates failed to understand the question’s requirements as the
result most of the candidates did not attempt the question in full.
QUESTION 6: EVALUATION AND INVESTMENT DECISIONS
(a) Candidates were required to use the information given to;
(i) Calculate the expected value of the IRR and the standard
deviation of the return from investment in each location.
(ii) Determine the expected return and the standard deviation of the
following split investment strategies:
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information about the
company considering expansion based on cost of capital to:
(i) Calculate the cost of debt and the cost of preferred equity and
comment on the differences in the costs of the two in the light
of their perceived risk.
(ii) Estimate the cost of common equity using the CAPM approach
and the Discounted Cash Flow (DCF)Approach.
(iii) Estimate the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)
(iv) Estimate the cost of newly issued common stock taking into
account the flotation cost.
candidates passed while the remaining 412 (74.8%) candidates
failed. Out of those who passed 111 (20.1%), 28 (5.1%) candidates
scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored
distinction marks in this question.
Most candidates were weak in computational and analytical
problem. Students failed to write the correct formula for
computation of standard deviation and CAPM.
54

The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of
the questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering almost eighty
percent of the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of
theoretical and computational questions.

Out of 679 candidates, only 262 (38.6%) candidates passed while the
remaining 417 (61.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 235
(34.6%) and 27 (4.0%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. No candidate who scored distinction marks in this examination
paper
8.1.1
TABLE 8.1.1
B1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION OF
MARKS 00-39 40-59 60-79 80- TOTAL
100
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 61.4 34.6 4.0 0.0 100
TABLE 8.1.2
B1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2017 EXAMINATIONS
May 2017 May 2018
229 17.8 262 38.6
55
B2 FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING

to apply knowledge and skills in preparation of financial statements for a separate
entity and a group in accordance with the IFRSs and IPSASs and analyse financial
statements to examine the suitability of the business entity.

QUESTION 1: PREPARATION OF CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL

STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to use the given information to prepare a
statement of financial position of a given company as the given period.

677 candidates, only 15 (2.2%) candidates passed while the remaining
662 (97.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 06 (0.9%), 08
(1.2%) and 01 (0.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively
Most candidates failed to prepare adequate workings for the figures
needed in the consolidated statement of financial position.
QUESTION 2: STATEMENT OF PROFIT & LOSS AND OTHER
COMPREHENSIVE INCOME, AND STATEMENT OF
FINANCIAL POSITION
Candidates were required to use the provided financial statements of the

given company to prepare in a form suitable for publication, a Statement
of Profit or Loss and other Comprehensive Income and Statement of
Financial Position.
Majority of candidates did not attempt this question. Those who

answered the question could not finish the question.
56
QUESTION 3: PREPARATION OF STATEMENT OF CASH FLOW
Candidates were required to prepare the Statement of Cash Flows of the
company from given financial statements.

question
Most candidates failed to prepare Statement of Cash flows as per the
requirement of the question.
QUESTION 4: EVENTS AFTER REPORTING PERIOD
Candidates were required to use the given information to concerning to
advise on how to account for various transaction that accrued after the
reporting period to address the following;
Part A:
(a) Outline the possible reasons why a company would not prepare its
financial statements on a going concern basis.
(b) Describe what is meant by ‘event after the reporting period’ as per
IAS 10
(c) Explain how this information should be dealt with in the financial
statements.
Part B:
Candidates were required from information provided of the company to
advise the management of respective company on the proper accounting
treatment of each of the above issues so as to ensure that the financial
statements are prepared in accordance with the International Financial
Reporting Standards (IFRS).

No specific weakness was noted by markers in this question.
57
QUESTION 5: CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK
Candidates were required to discuss the following principles in the
context of IAS1, Presentation of Financial Statements:
(i) Accruals
(ii) Going concern
(iii) Materiality and aggregation
(iv) Consistency
52 (7.7%), 141 (21.1%) and 416 (62.4%) candidates scored pass, credit
QUESTION 6: IAS 2- INVENTORIES
(a) (i) Candidates were required to use the given information
concerning one company to calculate the closing value of each
item on inventory and hence the total value of closing inventory
of the given company.
(ii) Candidates were required to use the given information about one
company to:
· Outline the items that comprise inventory.
· Explain how inventories are measured.
· Provide three examples of costs which are specifically
excluded from the costs of inventories and instead are
recognized as expenses in the period in which they are
incurred
Most of the candidates were not able to explain situations in which the
net realizable value is less than the cost of inventories.
58
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the
questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering over seventy five
theoretical and computational questions.
677 candidates, 400 (59.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 277
(40.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 367 (54.2%), 32 (4.7%)
and 01 (0.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively in this examination paper.
TABLE 8.1.3
00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 40.9 54.2 4.7 0.1 100
TABLE 8.1.4
B2 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2017EXAMINATIONS
May 2017 May 2018
505 41.1 400 59.1
59
B3 AUDITING PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE
to apply auditing principles and standards in executing external audit assignments
(carrying out audit procedures) and coming up with appropriate reports, as well as
implementing entity’s internal control policies in carrying out internal audits.

QUESTION 1: BASICS OF ASSURANCE REPORTS AND PUBLIC SECTOR

AUDITING
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to explain the
meaning of Emphasis of Matter paragraph and its uses in the
Independent Auditor’s Report.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to:-
(i) Explain the kind of audit opinion that would be issued by the
mentioned audit firm.
(ii) Draft the appropriate audit opinion of the audit firm.
(c) Candidates were required to;
(i) Mention and explain the legal mandates of the Controller and
Auditor General (CAG) in Tanzania.
(ii) Briefly describe the role of the Controller and Auditor General
in Tanzania.
passed 194 (27.0%), 46 (6.4%) candidates scored pass, credit marks
respectively. No candidate scored a distinction marks.
Most of candidates failed to demonstrate sufficient knowledge of the
topics and they mixed up powers, duties, legal mandate and roles of the
CAG.
60
QUESTION 2: NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND SELECTION OF
SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE

(a) Provide the description of each of the given methods.
(b) Explain any two advantages of each of the method.

Most of candidates failed to give advantages for substantive tests and
some of the candidates did provide relevant description for the analytical
procedures.
QUESTION 3: PROFESSIONAL ETHICS, PUBLIC INTEREST,

FUNDAMENTAL OBJECTIVES, THREAT AND SAFEGUARD
OF INDEPENDENCE
Candidates were required to use the information given to:-
(a) Assess the potential threat of independence of the given audit firm in
undertaking independence.
(b) Explain the procedures which the audit firm should conduct to
determine if the firm is sufficiently independent to audit the
mentioned company.
passed 237 (34.3%), 244 (35.4%) and 109 (15.8%) candidates scored
pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
No major weakness was observed.
QUESTION 4: OBJECTIVES, PROCESS AND NEED FOR EXTERNAL AUDIT
AND ASSURANCE
Candidates were required from information given to:

(a) Candidates were required list the main stages involved in the planning
process of an audit.
(b) Explain the meaning and purpose of the term “audit programme”.
(c) Identify and explain matters that should be covered in the programme
for auditing non-current assets of a large manufacturing company.
61
Most of the candidates failed to identify steps involved in planning of an
audit, instead mentioned list of assessment procedures.
QUESTION 5: OBJECTIVE, PROCESS AND NEED FOR EXTERNAL AUDIT

AND ASSURANCE
(a) Explain why does an external auditor provide an opinion on whether
the financial statements are true and fair rather than true and correct?
(b) Identify the factors that the auditor should consider while determining
the form, content and extent of audit working papers.
(c) (i) Explain why the work of internal auditors, in the three areas noted
above, is likely to be useful to you as the external auditor.
(ii) Explain how the quality of the internal audit function is likely to
influence the extent of reliance on internal audit work.
(iii) Describe the audit evidence that would be sought relating to
internal controls over the out-sourced functions (in-flight catering
and payroll).
who passed 80 (13.7%), 19 (3.2%) and 02 (0.3%) candidates scored pass
credit and distinction respectively.
Some of the candidates failed to connect relationship of the function of
the external auditor and internal auditor.
QUESTION 6: NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE PROFESSIONAL AND

PROFESSIONAL ETHICS, THREAT SAFEGUARD AND
INDEPENDENCE
(a) Explain the issues which limit the independence of the internal
audit department of the given company and recommend ways to
overcome each other.
(b) (i) Describe the types and categories of audit evidence.
(ii) Show how the auditor uses the evidence obtained.
62
Candidates confused to differentiate types of audit evidence and
categories of audit evidence as observed and related to 1SA 500
markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering almost eight five
questions.
718 candidates who attempted the examination, 305 (42.5%) candidates
paper.
Candidates’ overall performance
8.1.5
TABLE 8.1.5
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 57.5 40.5 2.0 0.0 100
TABLE 8.1.6
B3 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2017
EXAMINATIONS
May 2017 May 2018

706 68.9 305 42.5
63
B4 PUBLIC FINANCE AND TAXATION I
to apply knowledge of public finance, tax laws and principles in the computation
of tax liabilities, preparation and filing of tax returns; and in administering
compliance with the tax laws; both in the public sector and in the private sector.


QUESTION 1: PUBLIC FINANCE

(a) Comment on whether:
(i) A bridge constructed by the government, whereby bridge toll is
charged, amounts to a public good.
(ii) A bore hole dug by a private firm, whereby anybody can fetch
water for free, amounts to a private good.
(b) Briefly discuss, with the help of examples, when will education and
national park fails to meet the criteria of pure public goods.
(c) Distinguish between “tax” and “government fees”.
Out of those who passed 131 (17.9%), 36 (5.0%) and 01 (0.1%) candidates
Most candidates failed to understand the requirements of the question and
have demonstrated poor knowledge on public finance.
QUESTION 2: INCLUSIONS, EXCLUSIONS AND DEDUCTIONS IN

CALCULATING TAXABLE INCOME
(a) Differentiate between “deductible expenses” and “non-deductible
expenses”.
(b) Compute the taxable income and the tax liability using the given
information from the scenario.
64
of those who passed 105 (15.2%) and 03 (0.4%) candidates scored pass
and credit marks respectively.
No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Most of Candidates failed to calculate taxable income and the tax liability
required in this question.
QUESTION 3: CUSTOM AND EXCISE DUTY
(a) Discuss the criteria which determines where the goods originate
within East African Community Member states.
(b) Calculate the price of the car at the Dar es Salaam harbour if the car
was manufactured in the year 2005.
(c) Give reasons as to why the East Africa countries have put those
restrictions under the East Africa Custom Management Act, 2004.
Candidates failed to understand the sequential computation of taxes and

duties of imported goods. Also they failed to realise the reasons for
prohibitions.
QUESTION 4: VAT AND OTHER INDIRECT TAXES

(a) (i) Explain why is it necessary to classify supplies when
charging value added tax
(ii) Briefly explain the meaning of “imported services”.
(b) Use the provided information to:
(i) Comment, with reasons, on the place of supply of online TV
streaming services supplied to the given person.
(ii) State whether the answer in (i) above would change if the given
person was a VAT registered trader? Why?
(iii) State whether the answer in (i) above would change if Dar TV
had no permanent establishment in Mainland Tanzania?
(c) Use the provided information to:
(i) State, with reasons, the date on which the given company
(MEL) is required to register for VAT.
65
(ii) State the period within which MEL must apply for VAT
registration.
(d) Use the provided information to calculate the pre-registration total
input tax that the company may claim.
Most candidates failed to identify the due date for tax registration by
observing turnover as a threshold. Also some failed to identify a place of
supply as well as the definitions of some taxation terms.
QUESTION 5: PROCEDURES FOR PAYMENT OF TAX

Candidates were required to use the provided information to calculate the
penalties and interest to be paid, if any, as per tax laws in the country.
Out of those who passed 38 (7.5%), 21 (4.2%) and 1 (0.2%) candidates
Most candidates failed to apply formula for computing penalties and
interest.
QUESTION 6: TAX LAW ADMINISTRATION AND PRACTICE
(a) Identify the groups of non VAT registered traders that are included
in the implementation of the second phase of EFD as per the
requirements of Tax Administration Act, 2015?
(b) (i) Give explanation on the offence and what penalty one will be
charged if he/she fails to use EFD machines.
(ii) What penalty is given to a person who fails to demand or report
a denial of issuance of a fiscal receipt or fiscal invoice upon
payment for goods or service under the law?
(c) Discuss the qualities that one needs to have for him/her to qualify to
be registered as a tax consultant as per Section 28 of Tax
Administration Act, 2015 and its regulations.

66
Out of those who passed 39 (9.1%) and 04 (0.9%) candidates scored pass
and credit marks respectively.
Most candidates lack clear understanding of the specific groups included
in the second phase of EFD.

markers also found the paper to be well balanced with excellent spread of
the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and
computational questions.
question.
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on Table
8.1.7
TABLE 8.1.7
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF 504 220 06 00 730
CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 69.1 30.1 0.8 0.0 100
TABLE 8.1.8
May 2017 May 2018
403 34.7 226 30.9
67
B5 PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT
to apply knowledge and skills of financial and non-financial data analysis in
providing information and decision support to management for decision-making,
performance evaluation, and control.
out of five questions in Section B
QUESTION 1: DECISION-MAKING TECHNICS: COST-VOLUME-PROFIT
ANALYSIS
From the given information candidates were required to:-
(a) (i) Determine the number of each type of wood tree that should be
sold in order to break-even.
(ii) Determine the number of each type of wood trees to be sold to
reach the targeted profit.
(b) Assess the profitability of each type of wood tree and comment on
the wood product/tree to maintain or to be phased out (if any).
neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.
Most candidates failed to decompose the total costs into fixed and variable
costs properly, hence, they seem to lack knowledge about these costs.
QUESTION 2: COST ACCOUNTING TECHNIQUES: INCOME EFFECTS OF
ALTERNATIVE COST ACCUMULATION SYSTEMS
(a) Prepare management accounts showing profit calculated using
variable (Marginal) and Absorption Costing
(b) Reconcile the profit calculated using the two approaches
(c) Suggest two reasons why a company should use absorption costing.
68
Some candidates failed to understand the requirements of the question and
prepared the statements for July only instead of “the most recent three
months trading period” as required.
QUESTION 3: PERFORMANCE MEASUREMENTS AND CONTROL,

STANDARD COSTING AND VARIANCE ANALYSIS
(a) Explain how performance measurement system should be designed
when the mix of input materials can be varied in a process
(b) Calculate materials mix and yield as the total usage variances
(c) Discuss the arguments for divisionalized structures in large firms
Out of those who passed 35 (5.3%), 04 (0.6%) candidates scored pass and

Most candidates failed to compute materials yield variance.
QUESTION 4: BUDGET PLANNING AND CONTROLING
(a) Differentiate between annual “budgeting system and rolling budget
system.
(b) Briefly outline three main steps involved in preparing Zero-based
budget (ZBB)
(c) Prepare cash budget for the Company for the six-month period starting
from 1 st May 2018
Most candidates failed to make appropriate computations of receipts and
payments based on the timing of the respective collection/payments. Some
confused annual budget with fixed budget, rolling budget with flexible.
69
QUESTION 5: ACTIVITY BASED COSTING, INCOME EFFECTS OF
ALTERNATIVE COST ACCUMULATION SYSTEMS
(a) Compute total cost of two (2) cases using traditional absorption
costing system.
(b) Compute total cost of two (2) cases using Activity Based Costing
(ABC)
(c) Compare the costs under each method and comment on the results.
Most candidates got confused as the question was based on a service
company unlike the manufacturing Company which they are used to.
QUESTION 6: DECISION-MAKING TECHNIQUES
(a) State whether named activity has sufficient capacity to satisfy given
sales demand for the year.
(b) Compute and show the ranking of the optimal production plan for the
given entity
(c) State whether a given entity can accept an offer of being supplied with
a given quantity for any of the three types of products

pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Most candidates could not give clear reasons on whether a special order
should be accepted.
70
the questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the paper to be well balanced. The paper had a good
mixture of theoretical and computational questions.
of those who passed 245 (27.7%), 29 (3.3%) and 01(0.1%) candidates

8.1.9
TABLE 8.1.9
CLASSIFICATION 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL

OF MARKS
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 69.0 27.7 3.3 0.1 100
TABLE 8.1.10
May 2017 May 2018
583 25.8 275 31.0
71
B6 MANAGEMENT, GOVERNANCE AND ETHICS
to apply principles of strategic management, good governance and business ethics
management and administrative functions of an organisation.
out of five questions in Section B
QUESTION 1: BUSINESS STRATEGY, GOVERNANCE AND ETHICS
Candidates where required to use given information to:-
(a) Elaborate different methods used to monitor and control a strategic
plan.
(b) Discuss various methods of controls applied in accounting processes
(c) Critically evaluate the views regarding professional ethics

Most candidates failed to understand the requirements of the questions

and ended up mixing the answers between part (a) and (b) and giving
guessing answers.
QUESTION 2: STRATEGIC ANALYSIS

Candidates where required to use the given information to:-
(a) Analyse various forces that impact the growth or down fall of a
business company.
(b) Discuss features of sustainable development.
(c) Elaborate the importance of having a strong organisational culture in
a business.

72
QUESTION 3: STRATEGY MANAGEMENT
(a) Explain five styles used by managers to deal with organizational
changes.
(b) Discuss five challenges that face business firms in adherence to
transparency as one of the key principles of good governance
practices.
(c) Show the difference between “ethical absolutism” and “ethical
relativism” in relation to the accounting practices.
(d) Describe five characteristics of a strategic decision.
while the remaining 214 (31%) candidates failed. Out of those who
No major weakness was noted in this question, however, some candidates
used partial concepts in attempting the questions.
QUESTION 4: GOVERNANCE, ETHICS

(a) Comment on the most important stages through which product life
cycle passes.
(b) Discuss various good governance practices to be observed by the
company.
(c) Highlight and discuss different ethical dilemmas that face
accountants in public practice.

while the remaining 116 (20%) candidates failed. Out of those who
QUESTION 5: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT& CUSTOMER MANAGEMENT
(a) Identify and explain four main organization structures and give one
merit for each structure.
(b) Identify Komangwa organization structure and give three advantages
and three disadvantages of Komangwa business organization structure
identified in (a) above.
(c) Provide five essentials of Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
in modern business performance.
73
(d) Describe three bases of ethical judgement according to Kant’s Ethical
Theory’.

Most of candidates ignored the use of the stated case especially for
question five. They failed to relate the case with their answers.
QUESTION 6: RISK AND RISK MANAGEMENT, ETHICS AND

PERFORMANCE
(a) Analyze various methods used for assessing risks in business.
(b) (i) Define the “Balanced Score Cards”.
(ii) Discuss the advantages of using balanced score card as an
instrument of measuring organizational performance.
(c) Name and explain prons and cons of ‘Egoism Ethical Theory’ in
business environment.

candidates who answered the question, only 83 (23.6%) candidates scored
pass marks while the remaining 269 (76.4%) candidates failed. There were
Most of candidates failed to explain what is risk instead they identified
methods of risk. Many did not have sufficient knowledge on egoism theory
and balance score card.
74

the questions examined and time allocated for each question, with a wider
spread of topics within the syllabus.
examination paper.
8.1.11
TABLE 8.1.11
CLASSIFICATION 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
OF MARKS
NO. OF 276 303 25 00 604
CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 45.7 50.2 4.1 0.0 100
TABLE 8.1.12
May 2017 May 2018
No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates %
passed
823 93.4 328 54.3
75
INTRA LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE –
FOUNDATION AND INTERMEDIATE
Under the revised examination scheme and syllabi, the Board does not allow its candidates
to sit both levels. However, it allowed those who were referred to sit for a referral paper
and a full level, during the transitional period.
The analysis below shows performance of the 70 candidates who sat for examination
papers in both Foundation and Intermediate levels.
The performance is as indicated hereunder:
FOUNDATION AND INTERMEDIATE

S/No. COMBINATION Number Percent
1 Pass Both 3 4.3

2 Pass FOUND, Partial Pass INTER 28 40.0
3 Pass FOUND, Fail INTER 5 7.1
4 Partial Pass FOUND, Pass INTER 0 0.00
6 Partial Pass FOUND, Fail INTER 9 12.9
7 Fail FOUND, Pass INTER 0 0.00
8 Fail FOUND, Partial Pass INTER 2 2.8
9 Fail Both 14 20.0
Total 70 100%
76
FINAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
The Final Level examinations are the last level of the three-tier professional examination
system of the Board.
The final level examinations consist of four subjects as mentioned hereunder: -
C1 Corporate Reporting
C2 Auditing and Assurance
C3 Business and Corporate Finance
C4 Public Finance and Taxation II
These examination papers have been tested for the eighth time in this examination session.
The examination draws candidates from: -
(a) Candidates who were referring P15 Financial Reporting II and P20 Contemporary
Issues in Accounting in the phased out syllabus where these candidates sat for C1
Corporate Reporting in the current syllabus
(b) Candidates who were referring P18 Auditing and Assurance Services in the phased
out syllabus where these candidates sat for C2 Auditing and Assurance Services
(c) Candidates who were referring P16 International Finance in the phased out syllabus
where these candidates sat for C3 Business and Corporate Finance in the current
syllabus and
(d) Candidates who were referring P17 Public Finance and Taxation in the phased out
syllabus where these candidates sat for C4 Public Finance and Taxation II in the
current syllabus
The performance of the candidates who attempted both modules is shown at the end of the
level’s report.
77
During the May 2018 examination session, 1,238 candidates sat for Final Level
examinations out of whom 96 (7.8%) have passed this level and therefore eligible for the
award of STATEMENT OF SUCCESS, 556 (44.9%) have passed some of the subjects
while 586 (47.3%) have failed the examinations.
The general performance subject-wise for the final level examination in this session is as
shown on Table 9.1
TABLE 9.1
MODULE E SUBJECT -WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS:
MAY 2017 AND MAY 2018
Code Subject Performance
May 2017 May 2018
C1 Corporate Reporting 1,294 641 49.5 649 190 29.3
C2 Auditing and Assurance 1,043 386 37.0 670 178 26.6
C3 Business and Corporate Finance 1,101 209 19.0 574 209 36.4
C4 Public Finance and Taxation II 797 531 66.6 592 419 70.8
C1 CORPORATE REPORTING
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to financial
reporting standards and corporate law in preparing, analysing and evaluating
corporate reports by entities, both in the private and public sectors.
This examination paper comprised two sections with six questions. Candidates
were required to answer four questions. Question one which carried 40 % of the
total marks was compulsory
In this paper, topics examined and candidates’ performances were as follows:
QUESTION 1: PREPARATION AND REPORTING OF FINANCIAL
STATEMENTS AND NOTES
(a) Prepare the Consolidated Statement of Financial Position for the

given Fish group as at 30th September 2017 in accordance with
International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS).
(b) Using relevant accounting standards, recommend the appropriate
accounting treatment for the three entities in the Consolidated
Financial Statements of the given group of companies.
78
(c) Show the effect of the above share options in the financial statement
of the given company for the year ended 30 th November 2017.
There were neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.
Almost all candidates expressed inability to correctly apply IAS21 on
transaction of foreign balances and amounts, some lost time in preparing
unnecessary workings for line items.
QUESTION 2: PREPARATION AND REPORTING INFORMATION:
EARNINGS PER SHARE (IAS 33) AND ACCOUNTING
GOVERNMENT GRANTS (IAS 20)
Candidates were required to use given information to:-
(a) Draft a report summarizing the correct treatment of the given
matters and advise the given Chief Executive as to whether
earnings per share has been accurately calculated by the directors.
Include in your report a revised calculation when this differs from
the directors’ calculations.
(b) Briefly discuss whether or not the directors may have acted
unethically in the way they have calculated earnings per share.
question.
Most candidates expressed poor understanding of IAS 20 and IAS 33.
QUESTION 3: PREPARATION AND REPORTING INFORMATION;
DIRECTOR’S REPORT AND IFRS 15 REVENUE FROM
CONTRACTS WITH CUSTOMERS
(a) Discuss seven relevant principles in respect of the Operating and

Financial Review (OFR) of an entity as required by TFRS 1:
Directors Report.
(b) Considering the requirements of TFRS 1: Directors’ Report,
identify and discuss important contents/disclosures which are
missing from the given directors report of given company.
(c) Based on the requirement of the relevant International Financial
Reporting Standards (IFRSs), comment on the appropriateness of
the accounting policy of A to Z.
79
198 candidates who answered the question, only 15 (7.6%) candidates
Most candidates are not aware about understanding and application of

IFRS 1 Director’s Report and IFRS 15 Revenue from contracts with
customers.
QUESTION 4: INTERPRETATION AND EVALUATION OF FINANCIAL
INFORMATION AND DISCLOSURE
(a) Comment on the two arguments raised in the given case in favour of
cash.
(b) (i) Calculate the return on equity and any three investment ratios of
interest to a potential investor.
(ii) Calculate three ratios of interest to a potential long-term lender.
(iii) Report briefly on the performance and state of the business from
the view point of a potential shareholder and lender using the
ratios calculated above
(iv) Analyse the schemes in the question and advise the management
on which scheme to be adopted. Explain other information that
may be needed to be considered when making the decision.
question.
Most candidates made poor interpretation of the question.
QUESTION 5: PREPARATION AND REPORTING INFORMATION FOR
FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND NOTES
Candidates were required to use the give information with reference to
the relevant International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRSs), advise
the given company on how each of the above scenario should be correctly
dealt with in its financial statements.
question.
80
Most candidates failed to address the issues directly, majority candidates
were using their valuable time to address issues/requirements.
QUESTION 6: PREPARATION AND REPORTING INFORMATION FOR
FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND NOTES
(a) (i) Assume that if the given company was going to comply with the
Government directive, would it be considered as announcement,
first time adopter for the purposes of IFRS?
(ii) Advise on the technical and practical issues which Excellent
Inc. might need to consider in the preparation of the financial
statements for the year 2019.
(b) Discuss the given person’s accounting treatment of the monies
received under the terms of the two factoring arrangements.
(c) Discuss the implications of each of the above points for the
determination of the segmental information required to be prepared
and disclosed under IFRS 8: Operating Segments and other relevant
International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRSs).
question.
Candidates showed poor knowledge and skills of the subject matter of
the question and demonstrated poor understanding of the requirements of
the question.
81
The panel of examiners found that the question had an appropriate mixture
of questions, the distribution of marks and the time allocated was adequate.
The paper had easy and difficult questions which were all within the
prescribed syllabus.
(b) Candidates’ overall performance of the paper
Out of 649 candidates who answered the examination only, 190 (29.3%)
examination paper.
TABLE 9.1.1
C1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Classification of Marks 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 Total
No. of Candidates (Frequency) 459 188 02 00 649
Percentage 70.7 29.0 0.3 0.0 100
TABLE 9.1.2
C1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2017 EXAMINATIONS
May 2017 May 2018
641 49.5 190 29.3
82
C2 AUDITING AND ASSURANCE SERVICES
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
auditing and assurance standards and relevant laws in undertaking and managing
auditing and assurance engagements in complex auditing and reporting situations.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTIONPAPER
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% of the total
marks was compulsory.
QUESTION 1: DRAWING CONCLUSIONS AND REPORTING
(a) (i) Explain whether they are adjusting or non-adjusting events
according to IAS 10: Events After the Reporting Period.
(ii) Describe the auditor’s responsibility and the audit procedures
and actions that should be carried out according to ISA 560:
Subsequent Events.
(b) Discuss the meaning of “management representations” and list four
items that could be included in a management representation letter.
(c) Distinguish between “management experts” and “auditor experts”,
stating clearly the extent of responsibility the auditor experts has
over the audit opinion.
(d) Give a brief outline about the procedures that need to be followed
while examining the PFI.
question.
Most candidates did not understand the requirements of the question.
83
QUESTION 2: PLANNING AND UNDERTAKING WORK
Candidates were required to use given information to:
(a) Discuss any five potential business risks of Dotcom Company
Ltd.
(b) Discuss any five potential risks of material misstatement on
financial statements.
Out of those who passed 337 (44.5%) and 297 (39.2%) candidates
scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored
distinction marks in this question.
Some candidates gave explanations without naming the exact type of
risk, while others were unable to capture the meaning of materials
misstatements
QUESTION 3: EVALUATION OF ACCOUNTING TREATMENTS;
DRAWING CONCLUSIONS AND REPORTING
(a) (i) Comment on the treatment in the draft financial statements and
explain how the plant should be treated.
(ii) Show what adjustments are needed to the given draft financial
statements
(b) In the context of ISAE 3400: The examination of prospective
financial information, describe the work you would perform to:
(i) Verify that the value of items included in the profit forecast is
reasonable
(ii) Verify that the value of items included in the cash flow forecast
is reasonable.

51 candidates who answered the question, 05 (9.8%) candidates scored
pass marks while the remaining 46 (83.6%) candidates failed. There
were neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.
Those who answered the question failed to comment on the treatment
and adjustments needed in the draft financial statements, while others
have not been able to describe work to be performed to verify items to
be included in the profit forecast as well as cash flow forecast.
84
QUESTION 4: LEGAL, REGULATORY & ETHICAL ISSUES
(a) Identify and discuss the ethical and other professional issues raised
in the two given issues, and recommend actions to be taken, if any.
(b) Discuss the relevance of the stand taken by the Directors of the given
company and advise the management on methods that could be
adopted to prevent such a fraud.
(c) Discuss the responsibilities of management and the auditor to ensure
adherence to laws and regulations.
Candidates failed to provide methods that could be adopted to prevent
the given fraud scenario.
QUESTION 5: NATURE AND USE OF INTERNAL CONTROLS
(a) Discuss the pros and cons of outsourcing the functions of an
internal audit department.
(b) Use the given information to discuss the reasons for and against
having an internal audit department in the given company
Those who failed were unable to use the given case to discuss the reason
for and against having audit department.
QUESTION 6: DRAWING CONCLUSIONS AND REPORTING
Candidates were required use the information to: -
(a) (i) State and briefly explain two types of modified audit opinions
that the auditors could consider in drafting the audit opinion on
the financial statements of the given leasing company
(ii) Draft the audit opinion based on the scenario above assuming
that the misstatements, is not pervasive. Backing it up with
basis for the preferred opinion observing the chronological
order in accordance with ISA 705: (Revised) – Modified Audit
Opinion.
(b) Suggest and draft a relevant paragraph to be incorporated in the audit
report.
85
(c) Differentiate between “Key Audit Matters Paragraph” and “Other
Matters Paragraph” in the Audit report.

Out of 670 candidates who answered the paper only 178 (26.5%) candidates
examination paper.
9.1.3
TABLE 9.1.3
Percentage 73.4 25.7 0.9 0.0 100
TABLE 9.1.4
MAY 2017 May 2018
386 37.0 178 26.6
86
C3 BUSINESS AND CORPORATE FINANCE

business and financial theories, concepts and analytical frameworks in evaluating
and assessing business strategy, business and financing options as well as financial
engineering products and provide advice based on such assessments.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTIONPAPER
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% of the total marks
was compulsory
QUESTION 1: BUSINESS STRATEGY
(a) Write a Report to JFP management which:
(i) Describes the purpose and value of PESTEL analysis and
Porter’s five force framework.
(ii) Analyse external factors from the perspective of FOUR
elements of the PESTEL analysis: political, socio-cultural,
environmental and legal. The analysis should include an
assessment of the likely effect of such factors in the context
of the strengths and weaknesses of JFP.
(iii) Analyse the market place (industry) using Porter’s five forces
framework, and assess its implications for JFP.
(b) (i) Explain the reasons why FAST should undertake competitor
analysis.
(ii) Describe what is involved in benchmarking and how it
could help FAST, as part of its competitor analysis.
(c) Explain any four practices that are associated with businesses that
operate in a socially irresponsible manner.
question.
Most candidates did not focus on the question that has been asked but
they ended up telling stories on the current political and socio-economic
analysis of Tanzania.
87
QUESTION 2: DIVIDEND POLICY AND FUTURES, OPTIONS AND SWAPS
(a) (i) Explain any three dividend policy alternatives pointing out the
pros and cons of each.
(ii) Using examples, critically asses the dividend irrelevant theory.
(b) (i) Assuming a spot rate of TZS.2,429/£ on 30 th June 2018, calculate
the net Tanzanian Shilling receipts if, to hedge its receipts Electro
Company uses:
a. A Forward market cover
b. Money market hedge
c. Traded currency options
(ii) With references to calculations in part (b) (i) above, advise
Electro’s management on how it should proceed.

Those who failed applied wrong approaches when answering the question.
QUESTION 3: FOREIGN EXCHANGE PLANNING AND BUSINESS

ANALYSIS
(a) Evaluate the deal and inform the Board of Sabra of whether the
management was accurate in its computation of the profit on the deal.
Advise the board whether a forward cover could have assisted the
company to avoid loss.
(b) Using the information provided, estimate the post-acquisition value
of the given plc company. Comment on the size of the total value gain
that is expected to arise because of the takeover.
(c) For each of the given alternative, show how the gain from the
takeover will be shared by the shareholders of the two given
companies. Explain which alternative might be preferred by the
shareholders.
Most of the candidates were weak in presentation of facts.
88
QUESTION 4: BUSINESS ANALYSIS; FINANCING; GEARING AND CAPITAL
STRUCTURE
Use the given information to:-
(a) (i) Work out for given plc company, the amount of economic profit
under both the performance spread and profit versus capital
charge approaches.
(ii) Advise the executive of the given plc company on the usefulness
of economic profit as a basis for performance evaluation.
(iii) Advise the executive of given plc company on the disadvantages
of using economic profit as a basis for performance evaluation.
(b) Using real world example, critically discuss, any four determinants
of the choice of gearing for a firm.
Candidates failed to balance the requirements of 4(a) and 4(b).
QUESTION 5: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENT AND PORTFOLIO

THEORY
(a) Determine the optimal inventory level and the time when the given
company should make another order.
(b) Explain any two motives for holding inventory and discuss any
four techniques of inventory reduction.
(c) Evaluate and comment on the economic viability of each of the two
projects and recommend the best investment project using:
(i) Portfolio Theory Approach.
(ii) The CAPM Technique.
question.
Most candidates could not determine time required for making another
order (in inventory control). All candidates expressed poor
understanding of the four techniques for inventory reduction.
89
QUESTION 6: MANAGING RISK
(a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the alternative currency
hedges (including relevant cross hedges) that are available to the
given company
(b) Calculate the expected outcome of each hedge, and recommend
which hedge should be selected.
(c) Evaluate whether or not the given company should agree to its
Kenyan customer receiving the 1.5% discount.
(d) Suggest possible action that Moonlight might take if the Kenyan
government decides not to allow the transfer of money out of the
country.
Generally, candidates expressed poor understanding of the topic tested.
90
Out of 574 candidates who answered the paper only 209 (36.4%) candidates
examination paper.
9.1.5
TABLE 9.1.5
Percentage 63.6 35.0 1.4 0.0 100
TABLE 9.1.6
MAY 2017 May 2018
No. of candidates % No. of candidates passed %
passed
209 19.0 209 36.4
91
C4 PUBCLI FINANCE AND TAXATION II
knowledge of public finance, tax laws and Financial Reporting Standards and
Corporate Law in preparing, analysing and evaluating corporate reports by entities,
both in the private and public sectors.
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% of the total
marks was compulsory.

QUESTION 1: GOVERNMENT BUDGET; TAXATION OF SPECILIASED
INDUSTRIES; RECENT REFORMS IN THE TANZANIAN
TAXATION SYSTEM
(a) Use the given statement to:
Discuss four factors which determine the borrowing level of a
country.
(b) Describe the taxation of midstream and downstream activities
relating to petroleum operations as per the requirements of Income
Tax Cap, 332.
(c) Briefly define the following terms that are used in taxation of
income from petroleum operations:
(i) Petroleum rights
(ii) Production sharing agreement
(iii) Technical service
(d) Describe the four types of taxes that a petroleum business may be
liable to pay in the United Republic of Tanzania.
(e) Calculate the taxable income for TET Oil Ltd for the year of
income 2017 as per the requirements of the Income Tax Act, CAP
332 (Revised 2016).
Out of those who passed 103 (17.4%) and 03 (0.5%) candidates scored
pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction
marks in this question.
92
Most candidates failed to describe precisely the taxation midstream
and downstream activities relating to petroleum operations, others
failed to define specified terms which are petroleum rights, production
sharing agreement and technical service, there was also a failure to
compute taxable income from the given data in the income statement.
QUESTION 2: TAX ADMINISTRATION; INCOME TAX
Use the given information to:
(a) (i) Identify three circumstances or practices under which
|Electronic Fiscal Devices (EFD) are said to be misused.
(ii) Describe the penalties for misuse of EFDs as provided under

the Income Tax (Electronic Fiscal Devices) Regulations, 2012
and Tax Administration Act, 2015.
(b) The Income Tax Act, CAP 332 (Revised 2016) is the law
governing income taxation in Tanzania. What does the Act say in
regards to Electronic Commerce (E-Commerce)?
(c) The “willingness to pay” of the taxpayer is influenced by the
number of factors. Identify five (5) factors affecting willingness to
pay tax.
(d) Briefly describe the five (5) tax incentives available in Tanzania.

There were no major weakness in this question.
QUESTION 3: BASIC PROVISIONS OF THE INCOME TAX ACT
(a) State how the income of a partnership is taxed, explaining who is
responsible for submitting the tax return(s).
(b) Use the given information to calculate the taxable income and
corporate tax payable by the given private company for the given
year end.
Those who failed were not able to indicate what expenses to be allowable
and not allowable while calculating taxable income and corporate tax
payable.
93
QUESTION 4: INCOME AND EXPENDITURE METHOD; DOUBLE
TAXATION
(a) Calculate national income by using the income and expenditure
method.
(b) Categorize the following government receipts into revenue and
capital receipts. Give reasons for the answer:
(i) Receipts from sale of shares of a public sector undertaking.
(ii) Borrowing from public
(iii) Profits of public sector undertakings
(c) Describe the two main methods used to eliminate double taxation.

Some of those who failed the question were unable to distinguish
between variables of national income which should be considered when
computing national income using different approaches.
QUESTION 5: SETTLEMENT OF TAX DISPUTES AND BASIC PROVISIONS
OF THE INCOME TAX ACT
Use the given information to:-
(a) Explain briefly, in general term, the penalty for aiding and abetting
as stipulated under in the Tax Administrative Act, 2015.
(b) Calculate the capital gains tax payable by the given person for the
year ended 31 st December 2015, given the inflation allowance of 2.5
percent.
(c) Describe the appeal procedures for tax disputes in Tanzania

Some candidates expressed poor understanding on computations of

capital gain. They incorporate computations of depreciation which were
not required.
94
QUESTION 6: INCOME TAXATION
(a) Explain the meaning of a “foreign permanent establishment”.
(b) Use the given information to:-
(i) Calculate the taxable income and the income tax liability that
will accrue to the Group in the United Republic of Tanzania.
(ii) Is the Group subject to foreign tax relief as per section 77 of
the Income Tax Act, CAP 332 (Revised 2016)? Discuss.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory as all 172
candidates who answered the question failed.
Candidates failed to understand the mathematical implementation of
fabulous ltd’s income with respect to Superior ltd’s group will only be
accounted by 80% which is the proportion of the assets owned by
Superior ltd.
95
TABLE 9.1.7

(Frequency)
Percentage 29.2 64.7 5.4 0.7 100
TABLE 9.1.8
MAY 2017 MAY 2018
531 66.6 419 70.0
96
INTRA-LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE –
INTERMEDIATE AND FINAL LEVELS
Under the revised examination scheme and syllabus, the Board does not allow its
candidates to attempt both levels. However, it allowed those who were caught in transition
from the phased out syllabus to the new syllabus during the transitional period.
The analysis below shows performance of the 217 candidates who sat examination papers
in the Intermediate and Final Levels respectively.
Their performance is as indicated hereunder:
INTERMEDIATE & FINAL

S/No. COMBINATION
Number Percent
1 Pass Both 14 6.5
2 Pass INTER, Partial Pass FINAL 0 00.0
3 Pass INTER, Fail FINAL 23 10.6
4 Partial Pass INTER, Pass FINAL 3 1.4
7 Partial Pass INTER, Fail FINAL 48 22.1
8 Fail INTER, Pass FINAL 2 0.9
9 Fail INTER, Partial Pass FINAL 0 00.0
10 Fail Both 127 58.5
Total 217 100%
97
CHAPTER III
EXAMINERS’ RECOMMENDATIONS TO THE TUTORS AND STUDENTS

In each examination session, the panel of examiners come up with suggestions to both
Tutors and Students which are aimed at improving future candidates’ performance.
These recommendations arise from shortcomings observed in the course of marking the
candidates’ scripts.
RECOMMENDATIONS TO TUTORS
Guidance to the candidates
1. Tutors should encourage their students to put more efforts in their studies while
preparing for the examinations. They should ensure that only those students who
have performed well in the class tests and mock examinations are allowed to sit for
the Board’s examinations.
2. Tutors should expose their students to examination techniques including how to
tackle a question in on examination room.
3. Tutors should encourage their students to read extensively and do a lot of exercises.
They should discourage students from cramming the questions and their solutions
as this will not assist them during the examinations.
4. Tutors should encourage their students to create a habit of reading current issues
and keeping themselves abreast with the issues taking place within and globally.
This will assist them in answering the questions that are of general nature and at
the same time improve their vocabulary.
5. Tutors should encourage students to devote more time in their studies and help them
to obtain relevant materials and reference books for the particular subjects.
Teaching and learning materials

6. Tutors should prepare and update their teaching notes (competence based) that can
be made available to their students.
7. Tutors should devote their time to prepare appropriate case study questions and
orient students especially those at higher levels on how to tackle case study
questions.
8. Tutors should introduce an ‘examination technique’ topic during the course of
training. The examination techniques in one of the crucial areas that play a vital
role to students when it comes to answering examination questions.
9. Tutors should make sure that they concentrate on teaching using NBAA Learning
Materials and other supplementary relevant learning materials to cover the syllabus
adequately. It is important that the tutors should prepare work-plans that guide
them in covering the entire syllabus of the subjects they teach.
98
10. Tutors should devote their time to attend NBAA seminars, workshops and Training
of Trainers workshops in order to be aware of current emerging professional issues.
Evaluating the candidates

11. Tutors should at a certain point of time, prepare mock examinations that would test
the students understanding and segregate weak from strong students whom should
be given more exercises and attention before they can be allowed to register for the
examinations. The mock examinations should cover typical examination questions
in an examination atmosphere thereby familiarizing the students to similar
conditions that they would encounter when taking their examinations.
Effective teaching
12. Tutors should prepare scheme of works/lesson plans that will guide them during
the teaching process. Teaching plans have to be provided to enable the students be
aware of what has to be covered and at what time.
13. Tutors should ensure that they are using relevant and up-to-date teaching materials
in order to avoid misleading the students.
14. Tutors should ensure that they attend short courses regarding teaching
methodologies in order to improve their teaching styles and acquire modern
teaching methodologies.
15. Tutors should take time to read comments prepared by markers which have been
summarized in the Examiners’ and Performance Report. By so doing they will
understand their shortfalls and improve in the respective areas mentioned by the
markers.
16. For the subjects which need practical orientation like auditing, it would be much
better for the trainers to invite practicing auditors to teach some of the topics.
17. Tutors should avoid spoon feeding the students, instead they have to apply various
participatory teaching methods in order to bring about effective learning among the
students.
18. Tutors should in as much as possible try to observe the weaknesses of their students
and address them by equipping them with different skills on the subject matter
especially on new statutes.
19. Tutors should at all times be up-to-date with emerging teaching techniques and
should apply them. Tutors should also apply the techniques that make the learner
think more rather than cramming.
20. Tutors should ensure that they equip themselves with knowledge and skills that are
required to teach effectively the students under competence based syllabi
21. Tutors should assist students on how to use the learning materials for effectively
learning
99
RECOMMENDATIONS TO STUDENTS
Applying appropriate learning styles
22. Students should develop study schedules that will guide them during the
preparations for the examinations and ensure that they have covered each and every
topic in the syllabus.
23. Changes taking place in the accounting, auditing, tax, law regimes are vast and
hence students should keep up-to-date with those changes. For example definitions
and terminologies in accounting and auditing have been modified since the
adoption of the International Accounting/Auditing Standards. Students need to
know these changes in order to be able to apply them in their course of study and
in their work places.
24. Students should develop a culture of reading NBAA Learning materials, various
textbooks and journals in order to get an in depth knowledge and understanding of
the subject matter.
25. Students should put more effort on Public Sector Accounting/Auditing as it seems
they do not give special attention on the area.
26. Students should work hard, think critically and do more practice to enhance their
competence and confidence in attempting examination papers.
27. Students should make sure that they respond to the requirements of the question
asked rather than answering what has not been asked. They should not formulate
their own questions and provide their own answers.
28. Students are required to do comprehensive preparations. They should not base their
preparations on occurrence of topics on past examinations.
Self motivation towards learning

29. Students need to take personal initiative to improve their mastery of English
Language. This can be achieved in many ways – through reading daily newspapers,
magazines, books and through speaking the language. Language limitations has
affected majority of candidates as they fail to express themselves properly let alone
giving them flexibility in answering the questions.
30. Students should take an initiative of improving their case study analysis. Should
seek assistance from their trainers on how to analyze a case study questions.
31. Students should develop their own learning strategies; they should not depend
entirely on their trainers.
100
Assurance of knowledge mastery
32. Students should work hard and not rush to sit for the examinations before they have
assured themselves that they are ready for the examinations. They should not take
chances and play a game of chance (doing examination is not gambling), hoping
that they will find the examinations questions they are familiar with. They need to
ensure that they get value for the money they have used as tuition and examination
fees.
33. Students to take seriously initiative and effort to cover the whole syllabus
requirement material through reading various books, journals and published articles
not to concentrate mostly in teaching questions and answers of past examinations.
34. Students should avoid attempting the examination unless they have covered a major
part of the respective syllabus; also devote more time in private and group
discussions study rather than considering the examination as “going concern”.
35. Students should make a good use of the learning materials in order to improve their
learning
36. Students should ensure that they avoid learning through memorisation, instead they
have to study and understand subject matters in details
Appropriate preparation for examinations and examination techniques

37. When attempting the examinations, students/candidates are urged to first read the
instructions, and then read the questions properly before they start attempting the
question. Make a viable choice in case there are optional questions or even the
choice of questions they should start attempting.
38. Students should learn how to organize their answers during the examination
attempts. This can be achieved through practice.
39. Students should have extensive course contents coverage and attempt many
questions in the preparation of their examination in the form of self exercise to build
their ability to tackle questions properly and to be able to understand different term
used in examinations.
40. Students should ensure that they attend review classes without giving any excuses
for not enrolling to these reviews.
41. Students should take time to read about examination techniques that are published
regularly in the NBAA Students’ Newsletters and other publications in order to
acquire rightful techniques in dealing and answering examination questions.
42. Students should make use of the syllabus outlines during their preparations in order
to countercheck that they have adequately covered the syllabus.
43. Students should make use of group discussions in order to enhance their
understanding through such discussion.
101
44. Students should orient themselves with different type of questions, theoretical and
computational type of questions and do thorough preparations during the study
sessions. They should also equip themselves with analytical skills, especially as at
the higher levels in order to be tackle questions that require such skills.
45. Students should change their reading behaviour of memorizing various questions
and answers by devoting their time in reading various books and get an insight of
the subject matters.
46. Students should make thorough preparation for the examination by reading
extensively the recommendations text books to supplement what they are getting
from the review classes.
47. Students are advised to apply the following techniques among others in order to
pass their examinations.
47.1 Ensuring well coverage of the syllabus
Candidates are required to use the syllabus as their base of determining whether
they are ready to sit for the examinations or not. The problem of most candidates
is total dependence on the trainers. It is not funny to find a candidate attending a
review class without having a syllabus. It is difficult for such a candidate to know
what has been covered by the trainer and what has been left out. Some candidates
instead of ensuring that they have covered the syllabus adequately they rely on
Question and Answers (Qs and As) booklets. Questions and Answers of previous
examinations are good but they are not supplements of the syllabus. By reading
Question and Answer booklets students cannot get sufficient knowledge about the
subject matter. The best way of making use of Qs and as is after the completion
of the syllabus to see how examination questions are set and the best ways to
approach them.
47.2 Active participation in the classroom sessions
The education system of most countries including Tanzania does not prepare
students/candidates to take active role in the classroom. The predominant teaching
method used i.e. lecturing is characterized by various shortcomings including:
subject experts are not always good teachers, students are passive, learning is
difficult to gauge and communication is one way i.e. students are just listening to
lectures and do not participate actively. If a student goes to the class waiting for a
trainer to come and dish information to be grasped, automatically learning
becomes impaired. An effective learning to take place requires the learners to take
effective role in the learning process. Experience shows that students who ask
questions and pose challenges during the learning process they do well in their
examinations. Asking a question or posing a challenge to a trainer does not come
from nowhere, it come only if a student is interested to what he is learning. An
interested student in the learning process is the one who takes trouble to read what
is going to be taught before entering the class. Therefore trainers are required to
prepare course outlines derived from the prescribe syllabus so as to enable
students to follow. Students can make use of the course outline to prepare on their
own before they go to the classroom. The lesson becomes enjoyable when both
102
students and the trainers are prepared before entering the classroom. In short,
student’s active role in the class is fundamental factor in the effective learning
process.
47.3 Review class attendance
Review classes are quite different from formal schooling. In the formal schooling
context trainers exercise authority of controlling students’ attendance. They can
penalize students who miss classes without genuine reasons. This does not happen
in the review classes because those who are attending review classes are
heterogeneous. Some are employees, some are self employed, and others are fresh
graduates from colleges while others are occupied with various social
responsibilities. It becomes difficult for the trainers to control attendance of such
categories of learners. But we should bear in mind that at higher level education,
classroom attendance is not a responsibility of the trainer. If there is any candidate
who misses classes just because there is no one to question about it, such a student
must have some problems. No one is expecting to see a student missing a class
without having genuine reasons at this level of education. But, generally there is
lack of seriousness among most candidates especially in the case of classroom
attendance. Candidates are therefore reminded that attending classroom sessions
appropriately should be self motivated.
There is a good number of candidates who never attend review classes with
confidence that they know each and every thing. They register themselves for
examinations as private candidates. Experience shows that candidates who are
attending review classes have a far better chance to pass their examinations than
those who do not attend. Some of the candidates attend review classes only when
they sit for the examinations on the first time but when they are required to refer
or re-seat the examinations they neglect to register for review classes. They claim
to have adequate and sufficient materials and therefore they can study on their
own. This is not always a good decision. Human brain is characterized by the
nature of forgetting. A famous study on forgetting textbook materials compared
the percentage of material remembered after different intervals of time. The
results were as follows:
After 1 day 54% was remembered.
After 7 days 35% was remembered.
Remembering what you have heard in lectures is even more difficult to recall
because you are not able to slow down, pause, reflect, or to reread unless you take
excellent notes! In a study on recall after listening to a lecture, students forgot
more than 90% of the points from the lecture after 14 days! (Engle, Susan: Context
is everything: The nature of memory. W.H. Freeman & Co, 1999). If that is the
case, then there is no way a candidate may decide not to attend review classes.
47.4 Group discussions
103
By not sharing ones knowledge of understanding about a particular subject matter
a candidate may think that he knows much about the subject but when it comes into
examination, such a candidate fails! It is very easy for someone to cheat himself
that he knows much about a particular subject matter due to lack of sharing
knowledge with others. Going to the library daily or doing daily self-study is not a
direct ticket to pass examinations. There is a belief that when you are taught
something by your fellow student who understands the subject matter, the
knowledge sticks into your mind than being taught by a trainer. Group discussions
are said to be a good source of learning and sharing of knowledge and experiences
due to its nature of open interaction. Although most candidates who are preparing
for the professional examinations are facing limited time to organize group
discussions, they should not ignore it at all. They should be aware that sometimes
it is far better to discuss a subject/topic in a group than going to the library for self
study. Group discussion is a potential source of learning but it is ignored by most
candidates. Candidates are therefore obliged to form group discussions to discuss
various topics especially those which are most difficult or complicated.
47.5 Practise deep learning
One of the major factors that lead to poor performance in the examinations is
learning things in shallow. Most candidates have ample time to study but they do
not do it until the ‘late hours’. They keep on saying ‘there is enough time to study’.
But since time does not on the favour of anyone in this universe they find
themselves running shortage of time. What follows after this is to make ‘ad hoc’
preparations. In this case therefore they practise what the psychologists call ‘rote
learning’. By definition rote learning is a learning technique which avoids
understanding the inner complexities and inferences of the subject that is being
learned and instead focuses on memorizing the materials so that it can be recalled
by the learner exactly the way it was read or heard. In other words, it is learning
"just for the test".
The major practice involved in rote learning techniques is learning by repetition,
based on the idea that one will be able to recall the meaning of the material the more
they repeat it. However, in many fields, especially mathematics and related
disciplines, this can often produce poor results.
Rote learning is not the best way of studying. Students are required to study a
subject matter in deep. This will make them to own what they have learnt and
express it in their own words. In rote learning a student tries to reproduce what he
has read as it was read. ‘If a student reads something with the aim of reproducing
it as it is, that is not understanding. This method limits a student to learn many
things because memory capacity for human beings is also limited. Students should
also be aware that rote learning does not develop interest to learn. As you memorize
new materials the old ones fade out.
104
47.6 Conclusion
Candidates should take trouble to read various techniques for passing examinations
rather than concentrating only on studying topics that will appear in the
examinations. Those who have been able to make use of various study techniques
have found themselves enjoying learning and finally pass their examinations.
Studying for the examinations should be enjoyable rather than becoming
cumbersome and boring exercise for the candidates. This is possible if the
candidates apply appropriate techniques in their studies.
105
CHAPTER IV
CANDIDATURE DISTRIBUTION
The Board’s examination candidature comes from various training institutions (Tuition
Providers) in the country. The May 2018 examination session drew candidates from the
following institutions as per Table 10:
TABLE 10
NO. OF CANDIDATES
NAME OF ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL
INSTITUTION I II LEVEL LEVEL LEVEL
PRIVATE 6 10 68 299 221 604
PT ATTITUDE 2 3 21 128 85 239
PT CCA 8 10 3 21
PT
14 34 59 175 89 371
CORNERSTONE
PT STEP AHEAD
3 36 21 60
FIN.
PT EXCEL-
1 7 44 29 81
MOSHI
PT KAS 12 17 9 9 2 49
PT PAC- ARUSHA 3 4 24 92 44 167
PT TABORA G.C. 1 1 23 14 39
PT SJCS 2 2
PT OPT- SONGEA 1 4 1 6
PT MU-DSM 8 15 13 36
PT AFC 23 166 89 278
PT BRIGHT -
1 6 24 15 46
MOROGORO
PT EVIN 1 2 33 317 312 665
PT WAME
1 1 4 5 1 12
MWANZA
PT EMINENT 91 37 128
PT VUGA
4 29 13 46
ARUSHA
PT COVENANT-
16 22 113 459 245 855
FC
PT UPTAKE 1 11 79 66 157
PT FILADEFIA F.C
1 12 40 25 78
DODOMA
PT FTC 1 6 9 16
PT ZENJI 5 19 9 33
PT ADONIJAH 2 12 7 21
PT IDIANA
4 13 10 27
CONSULT.
PT STAR FIN.
CONS. 1 1 7 11 20
TOTAL APPLIED 69 105 420 2095 1368 4057
106
NO. OF CANDIDATES
NAME OF ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL
INSTITUTION I II LEVEL LEVEL LEVEL
ABSENTEEISM 8 7 50 271 130 466
TOTAL SAT 61 98 370 1824 1238 3591
KEY
NAME OF REVIEW CENTRE
S/N
INSTITUTION
1 PRIVATE
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Attitude Financial Consultants -
2 PT ATTITUDE
Mwanza
3 PT CCA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Commercial College of Arusha
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Cornerstone Financial
4 PT CORNERSTONE
Consultants - DSM
PT STEP AHEAD FIN. - Part Time Review Class conducted by Step Ahead Financial Consultants
5
- Dodoma
- Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Excel Financial & Tax
6 PT EXCEL- MOSHI
Solutions of Moshi
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by KAS Institute of Professionals
7 PT KAS
(T) Ltd. – DSM.
8 PT PAC- ARUSHA - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by PAC Consultants of Arusha
9 PT TABORA G.C. - Part Time Review Class conducted by Tabora General Consultancy
PT SJCS - Part Time Review Class conducted by St. Joseph’s Commercial School –
10
Tanga
PT OPT- SONGEA - Part Time Review Class conducted by OPT Professional Mhasibu
11
Training Centre - Songea
PT MU-DSM - Part Time Review Class conducted by Mzumbe University – DSM
12
Campus
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Accountants and Financial
13 PT AFC
Consultants Ltd - DSM
PT BRIGHT - - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Bright Professionals Tanzania -
14
MOROGORO Morogoro
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Evin School of Management -
15 PT EVIN
DSM
16 PT WAME MWANZA - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by WAME Investment - Mwanza
PT EMINENT - Part Time Review Class conducted by Eminent Financial Consultants -
17
DSM
PT VUGA ARUSHA - Part Time Review Class conducted by Vuga Eagles Company Ltd -
18
Arusha
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Covenant Financial Consultants
19 PT COVENANT- FC
– DSM
PT UPTAKE - Part Time review classes conducted by UPTAKE Business Resources (T)
20
Ltd – DSM
PT FILADEFIA F.C - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Filadefia Financial Consultancy
21
DODOMA - DODOMA
PT FTC - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Financial Training Centre -
22
DSM
107
PT ZENJI - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Zenji Review and Consultancy –
23
Zanzibar
PT ADONIJAH - Part Time Review Class conducted by Adonijar Business Consultancy -
24
Njombe
25 PT IDIANA CONSULT. - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Idiana Consultancy - Mbeya
PT STAR FIN. CONS. - Part Time Review Class conducted by Star Financial Consultants -
26
Mwanza
108
INSTITUTIONAL PERFORMANCE
The assessment of institutional performance is done using two approaches:
1. Best Candidate Approach:

The best institution under this approach is the one which produces the “NBAA Best
Level Candidate”, a candidate who obtained the highest marks in aggregate, at a single
examination attempt. Using this approach, the best candidate for each of the Board’s
examination levels is as follows:
Examination Best Candidates came from

ATEC Level I PT Cornerstone
ATEC Level II PT Cornerstone
FOUNDATION LEVEL: No Candidate qualified for the award
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL: PT Cornerstone
FINAL LEVEL: PT Cornerstone
2. Performance Approach:
Under this approach, the best institution is that which obtains the highest Grade Point
Average (GPA) in relation to the total number of A ,B, C, F grades obtained by
candidates in comparison with total number of papers sat by candidates in that level.
The following formula is applied
( )
Subject GPA =
( )
Where Na = Total Number of Candidates who have scored A in an institution at
that level
Nb = Total Number of Candidates who have scored B in an institution at that
level
Nc = Total Number of Candidates who have scored C in an institution at that
level
Nf = Total Number of Candidates who have scored F in an institution at that
level
Pa = The weight of Grade A = 3
Pb = The weight of Grade B = 2
Pc = The weight of Grade C = 1
109
Pf = The weight of Grade F = 0
Arising from the above, the best three institutions under this approach for each examination
level are as indicated hereunder: (See tables 15.1 to 15.5(b) on pages 145 to 154 of this
report).
Examination Level Best Institution
ATEC I:
Category A: 1-5 Candidates 1st - PT TABORA G.C. & PT EVIN
3rd - PT WAME MWANZA
Category B: Above 5 Candidates 1st - PT CORNERSTONE

2nd - PT COVENANT F.C
3rd - PT KAS
ATEC II:
Category A: 1-5 Candidates 1st - PT FILADEFIA F.C. DODOMA
2nd - PT PAC ARUSHA
3rd - PT ATTITUDE
2nd - PT KAS
3rd - PT COVENANT F.C
FOUNDATION LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT FTC
2nd -
PT MU DSM
& PT STAR FIN. CONS.
Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT PAC ARUSHA
2nd - PT CORNERSTONE
3rd - PT EVIN
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT CCA
2nd - PT STAR FIN. CONS.
3rd - PT MU DSM
2nd - PT UPTAKE
3rd - PT BRIGHT MOROGORO
FINAL LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT WAME MWANZA
2 nd - PT FTC
3rd - PT MU DSM
2 nd - PT ATTITUDE
3rd - EVIN
110
TABLE 11.1
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVEL AND INSTITUTION WISE
1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
No of No of No of No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers A % of A B % of B C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking
PT - TABORA G.C 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 3 75.0% 0 0.0% 1.25 1
PT -EVIN 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 3 75.0% 0 0.0% 1.25 1
PT - WAME
1 0 1 4
MWANZA 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 2 50.0% 1 25.0% 1.00 3
PT - PAC ARUSHA 3 0 3 12 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 10 83.3% 2 16.7% 0.83 4
PT-ATTITUDE 2 0 2 8 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 62.5% 3 37.5% 0.63 5
PT - BRIGTH
1 0 1 4
MOROGORO 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 50.0% 2 50.0% 0.50 6
PT-SJCS 2 0 2 8 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 37.5% 5 62.5% 0.38 7
PT - STAR
1 0 1 4
FIN.CONS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 100.0% 0.00 8
PT -UPTAKE 1 1 0 0 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0.00 8
Subtotals 13 1 12 48 0 0.0% 3 6.3% 28 58.3% 17 35.4% 0.71
RANKING
1ST - PT TABORA G.C & PT EVIN

3RD - PT WAME MWANZA
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.
111
TABLE 11.1
ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
No of % of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers No of A A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking
PT - ConerStone 14 2 12 45 4 8.9% 10 22.2% 26 57.8% 5 11.1% 1.29 1
PT - Covenant F. C. 16 3 13 43 1 2.3% 5 11.6% 27 62.8% 10 23.3% 0.93 2
PT - KAS 12 0 12 46 1 2.2% 0 0.0% 17 37.0% 28 60.9% 0.43 3
PT - CCA 8 0 8 30 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 8 26.7% 22 73.3% 0.27 4
Subtotals 50 5 45 164 6 3.7% 15 9.1% 78 47.6% 65 39.6%
RANKING
1ST - PT ConerStone
2ND - PT Covenant F. C.
3RD - PT KAS
Key:
Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level?
112
TABLE 11.2

1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II
No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking
PT-FILADEFIA 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 2 50.0% 1 25.0% 1.00 1
PT- PAC ARUSHA 4 1 3 8 0 0.0% 1 12.5% 5 62.5% 2 25.0% 0.88 2
PT ATTITUDE 3 0 3 11 1 9.1% 0 0.0% 4 36.4% 6 54.5% 0.64 3
PT EVIN 2 1 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 4
PT - EXCEL MOSHI 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 3 75.0% 0.25 5
PT- WAME
1 0 1 2
MWANZA 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 6
Subtotals 12 2 10 31 1 3.2% 2 6.5% 13 41.9% 15 48.4%
RANKING
1ST - PT FILADEFIA
2ND - PT PAC ARUSHA
3RD - PT ATTITUDE
Key:
113
TABLE 11.2 (b)
ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II
No of
PT - Conerstone 34 2 32 126 30 23.8% 31 24.6% 46 36.5% 19 15.1% 1.57 1
PT - KAS 17 1 16 42 1 2.4% 2 4.8% 19 45.2% 20 47.6% 0.62 2
PT - Covenant F. C. 22 2 20 71 1 1.4% 6 8.5% 27 38.0% 37 52.1% 0.59 3
PT - CCA 10 0 10 22 0 0.0% 3 13.6% 7 31.8% 12 54.5% 0.59 4
Subtotals 83 5 78 261 32 12.3% 42 16.1% 99 37.9% 88 33.7%
RANKING
1ST - PT CONERSTONE
2ND - PT KAS
3RD - PT Covenant F. C.
Key:
114
TABLE 11.3 (a)
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS
1- 20 CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL
No of
PT - FTC 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2.00 1
PT - MU DSM 8 1 7 17 0 0.0% 4 23.5% 9 52.9% 4 23.5% 1.00 2
PT -STAR FIN CONS. 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 2
PT - ADONIJAH 2 0 2 10 0 0.0% 2 20.0% 5 50.0% 3 30.0% 0.90 4
PT- STEP AHEAD FIN. 3 1 2 10 0 0.0% 2 20.0% 5 50.0% 3 30.0% 0.90 4
PT-UPTAKE 11 0 11 34 0 0.0% 7 20.6% 15 44.1% 12 35.3% 0.85 6
PT -FILADEFIA F.C DOM 12 5 7 19 0 0.0% 3 15.8% 10 52.6% 6 31.6% 0.84 7
PT -EXCEL MOSHI 7 0 7 24 0 0.0% 1 4.2% 12 50.0% 11 45.8% 0.58 8
PT - VUGA ARUSHA 4 0 4 14 0 0.0% 1 7.1% 6 42.9% 7 50.0% 0.57 9
PT -ZENJI 5 1 4 7 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 42.9% 4 57.1% 0.43 10
PT - WAME MWANZA 4 1 3 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 40.0% 3 60.0% 0.40 11
PT - OPT SONGEA 1 0 1 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 33.3% 2 66.7% 0.33 12
PT - IDIANA CONSULT. 4 0 4 12 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 33.3% 8 66.7% 0.33 12
PT -BRIGHT MORO 6 0 6 11 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 27.3% 8 72.7% 0.27 14
PT- KAS 9 3 6 22 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 4.5% 21 95.5% 0.05 15
PT - G.C TABORA 1 0 1 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 100.0% 0.00 16
Subtotals 79 12 67 196 0 0.0% 21 10.7% 78 39.8% 97 49.5%
RANKING
1ST - PT FTC
2nd - PT MU DSM & PT STAR FIN CONS.
Key:
115
TABLE 11.3 (b)

ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL
No of
PT- PAC ARUSHA 24 1 23 67 0 0.0% 9 13.4% 33 49.3% 25 37.3% 0.76 1
PT - CornerStone 59 7 52 171 1 0.6% 25 14.6% 76 44.4% 69 40.4% 0.75 2
PT- EVIN 33 2 31 87 1 1.1% 7 8.0% 40 46.0% 39 44.8% 0.66 3
PT - Covenant F.
113 11 102 281
C. 0 0.0% 30 10.7% 115 40.9% 136 48.4% 0.62 4
PT- ATTITUDE 21 4 17 47 0 0.0% 4 8.5% 19 40.4% 24 51.1% 0.57 5
PT - AFC 23 2 21 74 0 0.0% 8 10.8% 22 29.7% 44 59.5% 0.51 6
Subtotals 273 27 246 727 2 0.3% 83 11.4% 305 42.0% 337 46.4%
RANKING
1ST - PT PAC ARUSHA
2ND - PT CORNERSTONE
3RD - PT EVIN
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
116
TABLE 11.4 (a)
1-20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
No of
PT - CCA 3 1 2 5 1 20.0% 0 0.0% 1 20.0% 3 60.0% 0.80 1
PT - STAR FIN.CONS 7 0 7 22 0 0.0% 1 4.5% 10 45.5% 11 50.0% 0.55 2
PT-MU DSM 15 1 14 28 0 0.0% 3 10.7% 7 25.0% 18 64.3% 0.46 3
PT - ADONIJAH 12 0 12 32 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 13 40.6% 19 59.4% 0.41 4
PT - FTC 6 0 6 6 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 33.3% 4 66.7% 0.33 5
PT-OPT SONGEA 4 0 4 11 0 0.0% 1 9.1% 1 9.1% 9 81.8% 0.27 6
PT - KAS 9 0 9 23 0 0.0% 1 4.3% 4 17.4% 18 78.3% 0.26 7
PT - INDIANA
13 4 9 26
CONSULT. 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 19.2% 21 80.8% 0.19 8
PT - ZENJI 19 2 17 30 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 16.7% 25 83.3% 0.17 9
PT-WAME MWANZA 5 2 3 7 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 14.3% 6 85.7% 0.14 10
Subtotals 93 10 83 190 1 0.5% 6 3.2% 49 25.8% 134 70.5%
RANKING
1ST - PT CCA
2ND - PT STAR FIN.CONS
3RD - PT MU DSM
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
117
TABLE 11.4 (b)
ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
No of No of % of No of % of No of % of No of % of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers A A B B C C F F GPA Ranking
PT- CORNERSTONE 175 24 151 376 1 0.3% 27 7.2% 170 45.2% 178 47.3% 0.60 1
PT - UPTAKE 79 6 73 186 0 0.0% 6 3.2% 97 52.2% 83 44.6% 0.59 2
PT- BRIGHT MORO 24 3 21 52 0 0.0% 3 5.8% 22 42.3% 27 51.9% 0.54 3
PT - EXCEL MOSHI 44 6 38 95 0 0.0% 1 1.1% 47 49.5% 47 49.5% 0.52 4
PT - AFC 166 16 150 297 0 0.0% 9 3.0% 134 45.1% 154 51.9% 0.51 5
PT- VUGA ARUSHA 29 1 28 65 0 0.0% 5 7.7% 23 35.4% 37 56.9% 0.51 6
PT - STEP AHEAD FIN. 36 7 29 68 0 0.0% 3 4.4% 27 39.7% 38 55.9% 0.49 7
PT - COVENANT F.C 459 38 421 1168 0 0.0% 45 3.9% 475 40.7% 648 55.5% 0.48 8
PT - EMINENT 91 12 79 144 0 0.0% 6 4.2% 57 39.6% 81 56.3% 0.48 9
PT - EVIN 317 42 275 629 0 0.0% 17 2.7% 255 40.5% 357 56.8% 0.46 10
PT - PAC ARUSHA 92 13 79 189 0 0.0% 4 2.1% 76 40.2% 109 57.7% 0.44 11
PT - FILADEFIA 40 11 29 59 0 0.0% 1 1.7% 21 35.6% 37 62.7% 0.39 12
PT - ATTITUDE 128 19 109 268 0 0.0% 6 2.2% 84 31.3% 178 66.4% 0.36 13
PT - TABORA G.C 23 6 17 26 0 0.0% 1 3.8% 7 26.9% 18 69.2% 0.35 14
Subtotals 1703 204 1499 3622 1 0.0% 134 3.7% 1495 41.3% 1992 55.0%
RANKING
1ST - PT CORNERSTONE
2ND - PT UPTAKE
3RD - PT BRIGHT MORO
Key:
118
TABLE 11.4 (a)
1-20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL
No of
PT- WAME MWANZA 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 1
PT - FTC 9 2 7 7 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 85.7% 1 14.3% 0.86 2
PT - MU DSM 13 0 13 33 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 18 54.5% 15 45.5% 0.55 3
PT - BRIGHT
15 1 14 27
MOROGORO 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 11 40.7% 16 59.3% 0.41 4
PT - ADONIJAH 7 0 7 15 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 40.0% 9 60.0% 0.40 5
PT - STAR FIN. CONS. 11 0 11 20 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 30.0% 14 70.0% 0.30 6
PT - VUGA ARUSHA 13 1 12 23 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 26.1% 17 73.9% 0.26 7
PT - IDIANA CONSULT. 10 5 5 11 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 18.2% 9 81.8% 0.18 8
PT- ZENJI 9 3 6 11 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 18.2% 9 81.8% 0.18 8
PT - G.C TABORA 14 3 11 19 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 15.8% 16 84.2% 0.16 10
PT - KAS 2 0 2 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 11
PT - OPT SONGEA 1 0 1 0 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0.00 11
Subtotals 105 15 90 170 0 0 0 0.0% 62 36.5% 108 63.5%
RANKING
1ST - PT WAME MWANZA
2ND - PT FTC
3RD - PT MU DSM
Key:
119
TABLE 11.5 (b)

ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL
No of
PT - CORNERSTONE 89 8 81 180 0 0.0% 10 5.6% 78 43.3% 92 51.1% 0.54 1
PT - ATTITUDE 85 10 75 144 0 0.0% 3 2.1% 61 42.4% 80 55.6% 0.47 2
PT - EVIN 312 30 282 561 0 0.0% 13 2.3% 234 41.7% 314 56.0% 0.46 3
PT - COVENANT F.C 245 16 229 534 0 0.0% 11 2.1% 223 41.8% 300 56.2% 0.46 4
PT - UPTAKE 66 2 64 142 0 0.0% 6 4.2% 52 36.6% 84 59.2% 0.45 5
PT-EXCEL MOSHI 29 2 27 57 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 24 42.1% 33 57.9% 0.42 6
PT- PAC ARUSHA 44 3 41 82 0 0.0% 1 1.2% 32 39.0% 49 59.8% 0.41 7
PT - AFC 89 9 80 147 0 0.0% 1 0.7% 46 31.3% 100 68.0% 0.33 8
PT- STEP AHEAD
21 4 17 33
FINC. 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 10 30.3% 23 69.7% 0.30 9
PT - EMINENT 37 4 33 56 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 14 25.0% 42 75.0% 0.25 10
PT- FILADEFIA F.C 25 2 23 39 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 9 23.1% 30 76.9% 0.23 11
Subtotals 1042 90 952 1975 0 0.0% 45 2.3% 783 39.6% 1147 58.1%
RANKING
1ST - PT CORNERSTONE
2ND - PT ATTITUDE
3RD - PT EVIN
Key:
120
CHAPTER V
ACCOUNTING MANPOWER CREATED BY THE BOARD UP TO MAY 2018
In an effort to meet the demand of the highly needed accounting personnel in the country,
the Board has been able to create cumulatively 22,604 accounting manpower since its
inception in May 1975.
These qualified accounting personnel created are categorized in the following groups:
(1) Certified Public Accountants (CPA) 8,522

(2) National Accountancy Diploma (NAD)
(Phased out in November 1991) 1,537
(3) National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE)
(phased out in May 1991) 5,746
(4) Basic Book-keeping Certificate (BBC)
(phased out in November 1990) 2,971
(5) Accounting Technician Certificate (ATEC) 3,828
Table 12 below shows the statistics of graduates per session and cumulatively since May
1975 to May 2018
NBAA GRADUATES – CUMULATIVE STATISTICAL ANALYSIS

MAY 1975 –MAY 2018
TABLE 12
EXAMINATION BBC NABOCE ATEC CPA TOTAL
SESSION
NAD
NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM.
1 ST SESSION - - 04 04 - - 01 01 NE NE 05 05
MAY 1975
2ND SESSION - - 32 36 - - 10 11 NE NE 42 47
NOV. 1975
3 RD SESSION - - 158 194 - - 25 36 02 02 185 232
MAY 1976
4 TH SESSION - - 73 267 - - 43 79 02 04 118 350
NOV. 1976
5 TH SESSION - - 174 441 - - 36 115 08 12 218 568
MAY 1977
6 TH SESSION - - 98 539 - - 17 132 03 15 118 686
NOV. 1977
7 TH SESSION - - 193 732 - - 57 189 13 28 263 949
MAY 1978
8 TH SESSION - - 172 904 - - 56 245 11 39 239 1188
NOV. 1978
9 TH SESSION - - 199 1103 - - 46 291 27 66 272 1460
MAY 1979
10TH SESSION - - 75 1178 - - 31 322 13 79 119 1579
121
SESSION
NAD
NOV. 1979
11TH SESSION - - 123 1301 - - 22 344 22 101 167 1746
MAY 1980
12TH SESSION - - 119 1420 - - 24 368 20 121 163 1909
NOV. 1980
13TH SESSION - - 229 1649 - - 53 421 13 134 295 2204
MAY 1981
14TH SESSION - - 124 1772 - - 23 444 21 155 168 2372
NOV. 1981
15TH SESSION - - 172 1945 - - 37 481 19 174 228 2600
MAY 1982
16TH SESSION - - 236 2181 - - 36 517 20 194 292 2892
NOV. 1982
17TH SESSION - - 248 2429 - - 47 564 21 215 316 3208
MAY 1983
18TH SESSION - - 200 2629 - - 28 592 14 220 242 3450
NOV. 1983
19TH SESSION - - 199 2828 - - 36 628 17 246 252 3702
MAY 1984
20TH SESSION - - 215 3043 - - 37 665 12 258 264 3966
NOV. 1984
21ST SESSION 18 18 306 3349 - - 41 706 12 270 377 4343
MAY 1985
22ND SESSION 40 58 194 3543 - - 44 750 09 279 287 4630
NOV. 1985
23RD SESSION 62 120 123 3666 - - 54 804 21 300 260 4890
MAY 1986
24TH SESSION 86 206 168 3834 - - 48 852 11 311 313 5203
NOV. 1986
25TH SESSION 64 270 205 4039 - - 25 877 06 317 300 5503
MAY 1987
26TH SESSION 93 363 129 4168 - - 40 917 14 331 276 5779
NOV. 1987
27TH SESSION 298 661 175 4343 - - 32 949 14 345 519 6298
MAY 1988
28TH SESSION 292 953 179 4522 - - 72 1021 22 367 565 6863
NOV. 1988
29TH SESSION 332 1285 201 4723 - - 40 1061 16 377 589 7452
MAY 1989
30TH SESSION 446 1731 232 4955 - - 78 1139 31 414 787 8239
NOV. 1989
31ST SESSION 482 2213 235 5190 - - 118 1257 17 431 852 9091
MAY 1990
32ND SESSION 758 2971 211 5401 - - 114 1371 40 471 112 10214
NOV. 1990 3
33RD SESSION - 2971 345 5746 - - 111 1482 61 532 517 10731
MAY 1991
34TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 56 56 55 1537 64 596 175 10906
NOV. 1991
35TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 136 192 - 1537 - 596 136 11042
MAY 1992
122
SESSION
NAD
36TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 186 378 - 1537 11 607 197 11,239
NOV. 1992
37TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 119 497 - 1537 12 619 131 11,370
MAY 1993
38TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 104 601 - 1537 12 631 116 11,486
NOV. 1993
39TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 110 711 - 1537 16 647 126 11,612
MAY 1994
40TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 207 918 - 1537 19 666 226 11,838
NOV. 1994
41ST SESSION - 2971 - 5746 122 1040 - 1537 28 694 150 11,988
MAY 1995
42ND SESSION - 2971 - 5746 117 1157 - 1537 29 723 146 12,134
NOV. 1995
43RD SESSION - 2971 - 5746 87 1244 - 1537 36 759 123 12,257
MAY 1996
44TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 111 1355 - 1537 53 812 164 12,421
NOV. 1996
45TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 109 1464 - 1537 28 840 137 12,558
MAY 1997
46TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 107 1571 - 1537 40 880 147 12,705
NOV. 1997
47TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 124 1695 - 1537 40 920 164 12,869
MAY 1998
48TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 60 1755 - 1537 29 949 89 12,958
NOV. 1998
49TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 80 1835 - 1537 52 1001 132 13,090
MAY 1999
50TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 80 1915 - 1537 47 1048 127 13,217
NOV. 1999
51ST SESSION - 2971 - 5746 104 2019 - 1537 42 1090 146 13,363
MAY 2000
52ND SESSION - 2971 - 5746 91 2110 - 1537 71 1161 162 13,525
NOV.2000
53RD SESSION - 2971 - 5746 45 2155 - 1537 77 1238 122 13,647
MAY,2001
54TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 64 2219 - 1537 33 1271 97 13,744
NOV. 2001
55TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 41 2260 - 1537 28 1299 69 13,813
MAY 2002
56TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 42 2302 - 1537 53 1352 95 13,908
Nov. 2002
57TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 55 2357 - 1537 49 1401 104 14,012
MAY 2003
58th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 58 2415 - 1537 55 1456 113 14,125
NOV. 2003
59th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 85 2500 - 1537 165 1621 250 14,375
MAY 2004
60TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 113 2613 - 1537 134 1755 247 14,622
NOV. 2004
61ST SESSION - 2971 - 5746 65 2678 - 1537 142 1897 207 14,829
MAY 2005
123
SESSION
NAD
62ND SESSION - 2971 - 5746 75 2753 - 1537 131 2028 206 15,035
NOV. 2005
63RD SESSION - 2971 - 5746 62 2815 - 1537 92 2120 154 15,189
MAY 2006
64TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 35 2850 - 1537 83 2203 118 15,307
NOV. 2006
65TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 102 2952 - 1537 97 2300 199 15,506
MAY 2007
66TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 61 3013 - 1537 177 2477 238 15,744
NOV. 2007
67TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 21 3034 - 1537 184 2661 205 15,949
MAY 2008
68TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 49 3083 - 1537 97 2758 146 16,095
NOV. 2008
69TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 45 3128 - 1537 179 2937 224 16,319
MAY 2009
70TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 61 3189 - 1537 146 3083 207 16,525
NOV. 2009
71ST SESSION - 2971 - 5746 32 3221 - 1537 164 3247 196 16,722
MAY 2010
72ND SESSION
NOV. 2010 - 2971 - 5746 33 3254 - 1537 176 3423 209 16,931
73RD SESSION - 2971 - 5746 29 3283 - 1537 185 3608 214 17,145
MAY 2011
74TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 31 3314 - 1537 268 3876 299 17,444
NOV. 2011
75TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 35 3349 - 1537 259 4135 294 17,738
MAY 2012
76TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 23 3372 - 1537 188 4323 211 17,949
NOV. 2012
77TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 26 3398 - 1537 468 4791 494 18,443
MAY 2013
78TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 36 3434 - 1537 377 5,168 413 18,856
NOV. 2013
79TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 46 3480 - 1537 478 5,646 524 19,380
MAY 2014
80TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 43 3523 - 1537 369 6,015 412 19,792
NOV. 2014
81ST SESSION - 2971 - 5746 42 3565 - 1537 600 6,615 642 20,434
MAY 2015
1 ST Mid- - 2971 - 5746 - 3565 - 1537 03 6,618 03 20,437
SESSION
AUGUST 2015
82ND SESSION - 2971 - 5746 42 3607 - 1537 270 6,888 312 20,749
NOVEMBER
2015
2ND MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3607 - 1537 01 6,889 01 20,750
SESSION
FEBRUARY
2016
83RD SESSION - 2971 - 5746 40 3647 - 1537 282 7,171 322 21,072
MAY 2016
124
SESSION
NAD
3 RD MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3647 - 1537 06 7,177 06 21,078
SESSION
AUGUST 2016
84TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 49 3,696 - 1537 420 7,597 469 21,547
NOVEMBER
2016
85TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 65 3,761 - 1537 410 8,007 475 22,022
MAY 2017
5 TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 65 3,761 - 1537 02 8,009 02 22,024
SESSION
AUGUST 2017
86TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 39 3,800 - 1537 450 8,459 489 22,513
NOVEMBER
2017
87TH SESSSION - 2971 - 5746 28 3,828 - 1537 63 8,522 91 22,604
MAY 2018
Table 13 shows the statistics of CPA (T) equivalent graduates per session and
cumulatively since November 2014 to May 2018.
TABLE 13: CPA (T) EQUIVALENT CERTIFICATES FROM NOVEMBER 2014

TO MAY 2018
EXAMINATION TOTAL
SESSION NO. CUM.
80TH SESSION NOVEMBER 2014 01 01
81ST SESSION MAY 2015 08 09
1 ST MID-SESSION AUGUST 2015 04 13
82ND NOVEMBER 2015 03 16
2 ND MID-SESSION FEBRUARY 2016 08 24
83RD SESSION MAY 2016 10 34
3 RD MID-SESSION AUGUST 2016 05 39
4 TH MID-SESSION FEBRUARY 2017 05 63
85TH MID-SESSION MAY 2017 17 80
5 TH MID-SESSION AUGUST 2017 04 84
87TH SESSION MAY 2018 14 122
125
CHAPTER VI
CANDIDATES WINNING THE SPECIAL PRIZES – MAY 2018 EXAMINATION

SESSION
1.0 PRIZES OFFERED BY NBAA

NBAA offers prizes in the following categories:
1.0.1 Best Level Performance Prize
1.0.2 Single Subject Prize
1.0.3 Best Female Prizes
1.1 Minimum Requirement to Win the Prize

In order to win any of the above prizes offered by NBAA, the minimum
requirement is for a candidate to obtain an overall pass in a level, having attempted
whole set of subjects in that level and passing at a single examination attempt.
1.2 Amount offered in each Examination level:

1.2.1 NBAA Best Level Performance Prize
This prize is awarded to the best candidate who completes an examination
level inthe first attempt and scores highest marks in aggregate in that level.
Exam Paper Amounts

Codes Tshs.
Accounting Technician Levels I & II T01 – T08 50,000
Foundation Level A1 – A5 60,000
Intermediate Level B1 – B6 80,000
Final Level C1 – C4 100,000
1.2.2 Single Subject Prize (Subject to Subject) Performance Prize

The prize is awarded to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by
attaining at least a credit mark – 70% or above in the Accounting Technician
Examination Scheme, 60% or above in the Professional Examination
Scheme.
Exam Paper Amounts

Codes Tshs.
Accounting Technician Levels I & II T01 – T08 40,000
Final Level C1 – C4 70,000
126
1.2.3 Best Female Prizes
In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and perform
better in the Board’s examination, two categories of prizes are offered to
female candidates as follows:
1.2.3.1 Best Level Female Performance Prize:

This prize is offered to a female candidate as long as the score in aggregate
in a level is 70% and above in ATEC examinations and 60% and above in
professional examinations.
Exam Paper Amounts

Codes Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level I T01 – T04 50,000
Accounting Technician Level II T05 – T08 50,000
Final Stage Level C1 – C4 100,000
1.2.3.2 Best Female Graduate Prize:

The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is
offered to the female candidate who scores highest marks in
aggregate among female candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).
Exam Paper Amounts

Codes Tshs.
Best ATEC Female Graduate Prize Award T05 – T08 250,000
Best CPA (T) Female Graduate Prize Award C1 – C4 500,000
1.3 Prizes won by Candidates:
1.3.1 NBAA Best Level Performance Prize:
Code and Subject Name Name Index Amount

No. Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level SHABANI, RASHID 1031744 50,000
I
Accounting Technician Level NYANGI, BARAKA Y. 2031700 50,000
II
Foundation Level KEMIBALA, ELDIN 3031923 60,000
Intermediate Level MAGITA, CHRISTOPHER S. 4031164 80,000
Final Level MAKENDE, NESTORY 5030576 100,000
127
1.3.2 Subject to Subject Performance Prize
The prize is offered to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by
attaining at least a credit mark -70% or above in Technician Examination
Scheme or 60% or above in professional examination scheme.
The following candidates qualify for the prizes in each examination layer:
Accounting Technician Level I

Code and Subject Name Name Index No. Amount
Tshs.
T.01 - Bookkeeping and SHABANI, RASHID 1031744 40,000
Accounts
T.02 - Elements of Business KASSANGA, MAULIDI H. 1031762 40,000
Maths and Statistics
T.03 - Introduction to MWANGA, ALLY S. 1031742 40,000

Information and
Communication
Technology
T.04 - Business Communication SHABANI, RASHID 1031744 40,000
Skills
Accounting Technician Level II

Tshs.
T.05 - Principles of Accounting DAIMA, AMANI S. 2031695 40,000
and Auditing
T.06 – Principles of Cost DAIMA, AMANI S. 2031695 40,000
Accounting and
Procurement
T.07 – Elements of Commercial NYANGI, BARAKA Y. 2031700 40,000
Knowledge, Management
Practices and Taxation
T.08 – Accounting for Public ASUMWISYE, AYUBU 2031697 40,000
Sector and Cooperatives
128
FOUNDATION LEVEL
Tshs.
A1 – Quantitative Techniques EMMANUEL, GINES M. 3031431 50,000
A2 - Business and Management KEMIBALA, ELDIN 3031923 50,000
A3 – Accounting LUKABA, DALALI 3031534 50,000
A4 - Business Information KEMIBALA, ELDIN 3031923 50,000
A5 - Business Law KEMIBALA, ELDIN 3031923 50,000
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
Tshs.
B1 - Financial Management MAILA, FREDY 4030857 60,000
B2 - Financial Accounting MAGITA, CHRISTOPHER S. 4031164 60,000
B3 - Auditing Principles and LEONIDAS, JOVINA 4031154 60,000
Practice
B4 - Public Finance and KABUKA, ALLEN S. 4030778 60,000
Taxation I
B5 - Performance Management MAGITA, CHRISTOPHER S. 4031164 60,000
B6 - Management, Governance LEONIDAS, JOVINA 4031154 60,000
and Ethics
FINAL LEVEL
Tshs.
C1- Corporate Reporting KHAMIS, NADHRA M. 5030295 70,000
C2 - Auditing and Assurance TUMWIDIKE, EPHRAIM 5026513 70,000
C3- Business and Corporate MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 70,000
Finance
C4 - Public Finance and Taxation WILBERFORCE, EDIBILY M. 5027988 70,000
II
129
1.3.3 NBAA Best Female Prizes:
In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and perform
better in the Board’s examinations, two categories of prizes shall be offered
to female candidates.
1.3.3.1 NBAA Female Prizes:

This prize shall be offered to a female candidate as long as the score in
aggregate in a level is 70% and above in ATEC examinations and 60% and
above in professional examinations.
Code and Subject Name Name Index Amount

No. Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level I MSHANGAMA, AZIZA Y. 1031728 50,000
Accounting Technician Level II HAULE, MAGRETH C. 2031715 50,000

Foundation Level MLATIE, ANGELA J. 3031433 60,000
Intermediate Level LEONIDAS, JOVENA 4031154 80,000
Final Level KHAMIS, NADHRA M. 5030295 100,000
1.3.3.2 NBAA Best Graduate Female Prizes

The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is to be offered
to the female candidates who scores highest marks in aggregate among female
candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).
The following female candidates qualify for the award:
Level Name Index No. Amount

Tshs.
ATEC GRADUATE HAULE, MAGRETH C. 2031715 250,000
CPA (T) GRADUATE MALLEWO, DEVOTHA 5030577 500,000
130
2.0 PRIZES FROM SPONSORING INSTITUTIONS
In support of the Board’s effort to improve candidates’ examination performance a
number of professional progressive institutions have willingly offered different
prizes for the best performers.
The names of organizations and amounts offered in each examination session are
indicated hereunder:
1 PricewaterhouseCoopers Prizes:
1.1 PricewaterhouseCoopers: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.600,000
1.2 PricewaterhouseCoopers: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.1,000,000
1.3 Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Tshs.500,000
2 Tanna Sreekumar Grant Thornton Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Tshs.400,000
Prize
3 STANBIC Tanzania Ltd Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize US$ 100
4 TAC Associates Prize: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.200,000
5 Khatri & Company Prize: Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Tshs.200,000
6 Ernst & Young Prize: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.310,000
7 IPP Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.200,000
8 Tax Plan Associates Prize: Best Public Finance and Taxation II Tshs.400,000
(C4) Prize
9 TIB Development Bank Ltd: International Finance Prizes
1st TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.500,000,
2nd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.350,000
3rd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize &
Tshs.200,000
10 Dar Es Salaam Stock Exchange Prize:
Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.150,000
11 Deloitte &Touche Prize: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.500,000
12 Capital Markets and Securities Authority Prize: Best Financial Tshs.100,000
Management (B1) Prize
13 KPMG Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize US$ 100
14 Accountant General’s Office Prizes:
14.1 Best CPA (T) Graduate Overall Prize Tshs.800,000
14.2 Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.500,000
14.3 Performance Management (B5) Prize Tshs.500,000
14.4 Best Core Subject Prizes:
131
14.4.1 Accounting (A3) Prize Tshs.30,000
14.4.2 Business Information (A4) Prize Tshs.30,000
14.4.3 Financial Management (B1) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.4 Financial Accounting (B2) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.5 Auditing Principles and Practice (B3) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.6 Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Tshs.100,000
14.4.7 Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.100,000
14.4.8 Public Finance and Taxation II (C4) Prize Tshs.100,000
15 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser Prize:
15.1 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best Offer of
Performance Management (B5) Prize Employment
15.2 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best Public Offer of
Finance and Taxation II (C4) Prize Employment
16 Innovex Prizes:
16.1 Innovex Best CPA(T) Graduate Prize Tshs.150,000
16.2 Innovex Best CPA(T) Female Graduate Prize Tshs.150,000
17 Controller and Auditor General’s Office Prizes
17.1 CAG: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.300,000
17.2 CAG: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.100,000
18 Peoples Bank of Zanzibar Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000
19 BM Associates Prizes
19.1 Best CPA(T) Female Graduates Prize Tshs.100,000
19.2 Best ATEC Female Graduates Prize Tshs.50,000
20 TAA Best Candidates’ Prizes
20.1 TAA Best Two ATEC Candidates Prizes Tshs.100,000
20.2 TAA Best Two CPA (T) Candidates Prizes Tshs.200,000
21 RSM Ashvir Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000 &
Employment
22 Cornerstone Financial Consultants Prizes
22.1 Overall Best Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize Tshs.100,000
22.2 Overall Best Candidate in Foundation Level Prize Tshs.100,000
22.3 Overall Best CPA (T) Candidates Prizes Tshs.100,000
23 Watumishi Housing CompanyPrize
23.1 Overall Best Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize 100,000
23.2 Best Financial Management (B1) Prize 100,000
23.3 Performance Management (B5) Prize 200,000
23.4 Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize 200,000
132
1. PRICEWATERHOUSECOOPERS PRIZES
Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount
PWC: AUDITING AND MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 600,000
ASSURANCE (C2) PRIZE
PWC BEST CPA (T) MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 1,000,000
GRADUATE PRIZE
BEST FEMALE CPA (T) MALLEWO, DEVOTHA 5030577 500,000
GRADUATE
2. TANNA SREEKUMAR GRANT THORNTON: PRIZES

Tanna Sreekumar Grant MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 400,000
Thornton: BEST CPA (T)
GRADUATE PRIZE
3. STANBIC TANZANIA LIMITED PRIZES

STANBIC TANZANIA MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 US$ 100
LIMITED BEST CPA [T]
GRADUATE PRIZE
4. TAC ASSOCIATES PRIZES

TAC ASSOCIATES: TUMWIDIKE, EPHRAIM 5026513 200,000
AUDITING AND
5. KHATRI AND COMPANY PRIZES

KHATRI AND COMPANY KHAMIS, NADHRA M. 5030295 200,000
FINANCIAL: CORPORATE
REPORTING (C1)
6. ERNST & YOUNG PRIZES

ERNST & YOUNG: TUMWIDIKE, EPHRAIM 5026513 310,000
AUDITING AND
7. IPP BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZES

IPP BEST CPA (T) MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 200,000
GRADUATE PRIZE
133
8. TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES PRIZES
TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES: WILBERFORCE, EDIBILY M. 5027988 400,000
PUBLIC FINANCE AND
TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE
9. TIB DEVELOPMENT BANK LTD: BANK PRIZES

TIB Development Bank
Ltd: BUSINESS AND MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 500,000
CORPORATE FINANCE
(C3) PRIZE PIUS, NGASSA 5030551 350,000
TUMWIDIKE, EPHRAIM 5026513 200,000
10. DAR ES SALAAM STOCK EXCHANGE PRIZES

DSE: BUSINESS AND MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 150,000
CORPORATE FINANCE
(C3) PRIZE
11. DELOITTE & TOUCHE PRIZES

DELOITTE & TOUCHE: TUMWIDIKE, EPHRAIM 5026513 500,000
AUDITING AND
12. CAPITAL MARKETS AND SECURITIES AUTHORITY PRIZES

CMSA: BEST FINANCIAL MAILA, FREDY 4030857 100,000
MANAGEMENT (B1)
PRIZE
13. KPMG PRIZES

KPMG: BEST CPA (T) MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 US$ 100
GRADUATE PRIZE
134
14. ACCOUNTANT GENERAL’S OFFICE PRIZES
The Office of the Accountant General offers special prize awards to candidates with
excellent performance in the Board’s examinations. The awards worth
Tshs.2,440,000 are offered in each examination session.
The conditions of winning the prizes are:

A candidate must obtain an overall pass at a single sitting in the first examination
attempt and must score a credit pass (60%) or above either overall, or in the subject
be awarded a prize in the professional examinations as the case may be.
Candidates winning the prizes for the May 2018 examinations are as shown below:

AG’S: BEST CPA [T] MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 800,000
GRADUATE PRIZE
AG’S: AUDITING AND TUMWIDIKE, EPHRAIM 5026513 500,000
AG’S: BEST MAGITA, CHRISTOPHER S. 4031164 500,000
PERFORMANCE
MANAGEMENT (B5)
PRIZE
ACGEN’S BEST CORE SUBJECT PERFORMANCE PRIZES
ACCOUNTING (A3) PRIZE LUKABA, DALALI 3031534 30,000
BUSINESS INFORMATION KEMIBALA, ELDIN 3031923 30,000

(A4) PRIZE
FINANCIAL MAILA, FREDY 4030857 50,000
MANAGEMENT (B1)
PRIZE
FINANCIAL MAGITA, CHRISTOPHER S. 4031164 50,000
ACCOUNTING (B2) PRIZE
AUDITING PRINCIPLES LEONIDAS, JOVINA 4031154 50,000
AND PRACTICE (B3)
PRIZE
CORPORATE REPORTING KHAMIS, NADHRA M. 5030295 100,000
(C1) PRIZE
BUSINESS AND MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 100,000
CORPORATE FINANCE
(C3) PRIZE
PUBLIC FINANCE AND WILBERFORCE, EDIBILY M. 5027988 100,000
TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE
135
15. NEXIA SJ TANZANIA ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS ADVISERS PRIZES:
NEXIA SJ TANZANIA MAGITA, CHRITOPHER S. 4031164 Offer of
ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS Employment
ADVISER:BEST
PERFORMANCE
MANAGEMENT (B5) Prize
NEXIA SJ TANZANIA WILBERFORCE, EDIBILY 5027988 Offer of
ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS M. Employment
ADVISER:PUBLIC FINANCE
AND TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE
16. INNOVEX PRIZES

INNOVEX BEST CPA (T) MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 150,000
GRADUATE PRIZE
INNOVEX BEST CPA (T) MALLEWO, DEVOTHA 5030577 150,000

FEMALE GRADUATE PRIZE
17. CONTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL’S OFFICE PRIZES

CAG: AUDITING AND TUMWIDIKE, EPHRAIM 5026513 300,000
CAG: BEST CPA (T) MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 100,000

GRADUATE PRIZE
18. PEOPLE’S BANK OF ZANZIBAR PRIZE

PBZ: BEST CPA (T) MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 500,000
GRADUATE PRIZE
136
19. BM ASSOCIATES PRIZES
BM ASSOCIATES: BEST CPA MALLEWO, DEVOTHA 5030577 100,000
(T) FEMALE GRADUATE
PRIZE
BM ASSOCIATES: BEST ATEC HAULE, MAGRETH C. 2031715 50,000

FEMALE GRADUATE PRIZE
20. TANZANIA ASSOCIATION OF ACCOUNTANTS PRIZES

TAA: BEST TWO ATEC NYANGI, BARAKA Y. 2031700 50,000
CANDIDATE PRIZE
ASUMWISYE, AYUBU 2031697 50,000
TAA: BEST TWO CPA (T) MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 100,000
CANDIDATE PRIZE
21. RSM ASHVIR PRIZES

RSM ASHVIR: BEST CPA (T) MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 500,000 &
GRADUATE PRIZE Employment
22. CORNERSTONE FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS PRIZES

CORNERSTONE: OVERALL NYANGI, BARAKA Y. 2031700 100,000
BEST CANDIDATE IN ATEC
II LEVEL PRIZE
CORNERSTONE:OVERALL LUKABA, DALALI 3031534 100,000
BEST CANDIDATE IN
FOUNDATION LEVEL
PRIZE
CORNERSTONE :OVERALL MAKENDI, NESTORY 5030576 100,000
BEST CPA (T) CANDIDATES
PRIZES
137
23. WATUMISHI HOUSING COMPANYPRIZE
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: NYANGI, BARAKA Y. 2031700 100,000
OVERALL BEST CANDIDATE IN
ATEC II LEVEL PRIZE
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: MAILA, FREDY 4030857 100,000
BEST FINANCIAL
MANAGEMENT (B1) PRIZE
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: MAGITA, CHRISTOPHER S. 4031164 200,000
BEST PERFORMANCE
MANAGEMENT (B5) PRIZE
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: KHAMIS, NADHRA M. 5030295 200,000
BESTCORPORATE REPORTING
(C1)
___________p_________
138

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(NBAA)

THE NATIONAL BOARD OF ACCOUNTANTS AND AUDITORS

EXAMINERS’ AND PERFORMANCE REPORT

87TH EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2018

NBAA, Telephones: (022) 2211890/9

28TH JUNE 2018

Executive Summary of 87th Examination session …………………… (vi)

CHAPTER 1 Analysis of Candidates’ Performance in the 87th Examination Session 1

CHAPTER II Performance Evaluation Subject-Wise …………………..................... 4

CHAPTER III Examiners’ Recommendations to Tutors & Students ………………... 98

CHAPTER IV Institutional Performance Evaluation ………………………………... 106

CHAPTER V Accounting Manpower Created by the Board up to May 2018 121

Accounting Technician Level II

In total, the Professional Examination Scheme has 15 subjects as shown hereunder:

Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context Level)

Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation Level)

CPA Pius A. Maneno

EXAMINATION CANDIDAT CANDIDATES % CANDIDATES %

Foundation 420 50 11.9 370 88.1

2.1 Candidature Exam Sitting

EXAMINATION ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

80 th Session November, 2014 159 125 372 3,109 2,021 5,786

85thSession May, 2015 159 119 36537 3,163 2,011 5,817

82 nd Session November, 2015 111 134 364 3,114 1,956 5,679

85thSession May, 2016 110 160 445 3,495 2,289 6,499

84 th Session November 2016 84 158 405 3,522 2,113 6,282

85 th Session May 2017 103 185 557 3,477 2,292 6,614

87 th Session May 2018 61 98 370 1824 1238 3,591

GRAPHICAL PRESENTATION OF THE BOARD’S OVERALL EXAMINATION

7,000 6,499 6,614

ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL

Subject Number of entries

ATEC Level II 25 81 6 19 31 100 31 61 20 39 51 100 7 44 9 56 16 100 63 64 35 36 98 100

ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN THE

OVERALL CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL I

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL II

CANDIDATES QUALIFYING FOR THE PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATE OF

The breakdown of the 63 candidates qualifying for the CPA (T):

GENERAL STATISTICAL ANALYSIS OF EXAMINATION RESULTS

EXAMINATION ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

NO. % NO. % NO % NO. % NO % NO. %

PASSED 20 32.8 31 31.6 96 25.9 129 7.1 96 7.8 372 10.4

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I

T.01 Bookkeeping and Accounts 57 42 73.7 56 39 69.6

T.01 - BOOK-KEEPING AND ACCOUNTS

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS - MULTIPLE CHOICES

QUESTION 3: A. BOOKS OF ORIGINAL ENTRY AND LEDGER

Candidates were required to:

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 56

QUESTION 4: A. INTRODUCTION TO BOOKEEPING AND ACCOUNTING

IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS

(b) Candidates’ overall performance

The over-all candidates’ performance in the subject is as shown in table

Classification of Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLECHOICE – VARIOUS TOPICS

Candidates were required to:-

QUESTION 4: A. CLASSIFICATION AND PRESENTATION OF DATA

The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table 5.1.3

Classification of Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 57

QUESTION 2: INTERNET AND E-COMMERCE